PHYSICS - Aakash Onlineaakashonline.in/ASPNET_Pages/solution/TSNEETP22016T01_Solution.pdf · (1) MM...

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MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 1 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Topics Covered :

Physics : Physical World and Measurement, Kinematics

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Botany : The Living World

Zoology : Animal Kingdom (Salient features and classification of Animals-Porifera to Nematoda)

16/05/2016

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

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Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

CODE

A

PHYSICS

1. Physics is based on assumptions which is variouslycalled a hypothesis, axiom, postulate etc. Choosethe correct statement about them

(1) A hypothesis is a supposition without assumingthat it is true

(2) An axiom is a self-evident truth

(3) A model is a theory proposed to explainobserved phenomena

(4) All of these

2. Different forces in different contexts of physicsactually arise from only a small number offundamental forces in nature. The truth about themis that the

(1) Gravitational force is the force of mutualattraction between any two objects by virtue oftheir masses

(2) Electromagnetic force is the force betweencharged particles

(3) The strong nuclear force binds protons andneutrons in a nucleus

(4) All of these

3. If we attempt to explain diverse physical phenomenain terms of a few concepts and laws then suchattempt is called

(1) Reductionism (2) Unification

(3) Magnification (4) Deduction

4. Intensity of heat radiation emitted by a body isbelieved to be proportional to fourth power of absolutetemperature of the body. The proportionality constant,also known as Stefan-Boltzmann’s constant mayhave the possible value

(1) 5.67 × 10–8 watt/K4

(2) 5.67 × 10–8 watt/m2K4

(3) 5.67 × 10–8 J/K4

(4) 5.67 × 10–8 Js/K4

Choose the correct answer :

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Test-1 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

5. The line integral of force will have the dimensionalformula

(1) [ML–1T –1] (2) [MLT–2]

(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [ML2T–3]

6. The maximum solid angle subtended by the sphericalsurface of a hollow sphere of radius R at its centre(in steradian) is

(1) (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

7. Various physical quantities may have different unitswith same dimensional formulas. Identify thequantities behaving as stated above.

(1) Modulus of elasticity and strain

(2) Pressure and potential energy

(3) Spring constant and torque

(4) Loudness and solid angle

8. In classical physics the force F acting on a body isassumed to be the product of mass m andacceleration a. If m = 2.31 kg and acceleration is3.123 m/s2, then taking into account significantfigures the force F should be reported as

(1) 7.21413 N (2) 7.2141 N

(3) 7.214 N (4) 7.21 N

9. In an experiment the measurement of massm = 1.5 ± 0.1 kg and that of velocity v = 3.0 ± 0.2 m/s.The value of linear momentum should be reported as(in kg-m/s)

(1) 4.5 ± 0.3 (2) 4.5 ± 0.6

(3) 4.5 ± 0.2 (4) 4.5 ± 0.4

10. Atmospheric pressure in SI units can be written as1.01325 × 105 N/m2. Using the concept ofdimensional analysis its value in CGS unit will beexpressed as

(1) 1.01325 × 105 dyne/cm2

(2) 1.01325 × 106 dyne/cm2

(3) 1.01325 × 107 dyne/cm2

(4) 1.01325 × 108 dyne/cm2

11. In a hypothetical system the physical quantities,time (T), volume (V) and momentum (p) have beenchosen as fundamental quantities. In this systemmechanical power will be expressed as

(1) [p–2 V3 T] (2) [p–3 V T–1/2]

(3) [p V1/3 T–2] (4) [p V–2 T–1/3]

12. Which of the following relations cannot be derivedusing dimensional analysis?

(1) y = Asintcoskx (2) v = pR4/8L

(3) 212

S ut at (4) All of these

13. Which of the following physical quantities followsconservation law?

a. Energy b. Momentum

c. Angular momentum d. Charge

(1) a & b (2) a & c

(3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d

14. Which of the following physical quantities does notbelong to the list of fundamental or supplementaryquantities?

(1) Luminous intensity

(2) Solid angle

(3) Thermodynamic temperature

(4) Electric charge

15. The intensity of solar radiation has the dimensionalformula

(1) [M L2 T–2] (2) [M L T–3]

(3) [M L–1 T–3] (4) [M T–3]

16. A square metal plate has the area (400 ± 0.80) cm2.Its length should be reported (in cm) as

(1) (20 ± 0.1) (2) (20 ± 0.2)

(3) (20 ± 0.01) (4) (20 ± 0.02)

17. It is known that the time rate of energy transfer isdirectly proportional to the product of area andtemperature difference and inversely proportional tothe length of the body. The proportionality constantis called coefficient of thermal conductivity will havethe dimensional formula

(1) [M–1 L–1 T3 K] (2) [M L2 T–3K]

(3) [M L T2 K–1] (4) [M L T–3 K–1]

18. If precision of an observation can also be measuredby having least percentage error then the mostprecise measurement of the following is

(1) 2.7 cm (2) 2.72 cm

(3) 2.729 cm (4) 2.7291 cm

19. For a particle moving in x-y plane, its positioncoordinates as a function of time t is given asx = 3t + 5 and y = 4t + 6, where, x, y are in metreand t is in second. The trajectory of the particle is

(1) Straight line (2) Circle

(3) Ellipse (4) Parabola

20. Choose the correct statement from the followingstatements

(1) A particle can have increasing speed withdecreasing acceleration

(2) Even with a finite acceleration a particle canhave zero velocity

(3) A particle can revert its acceleration without itsvelocity changing direction

(4) All of these

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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-1 (Code A)

21. In a complete circular motion, first half circle iscovered with 6 m/s. The other half circle is coveredin two equal time intervals at speed 4 m/s and2 m/s respectively. The average speed during thecircular motion is

(1) 2 m/s (2) 3 m/s

(3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s

22. The velocity (v) versus time (t) graph of a particlemoving along x-axis is as shown.

v

t0 T 2T

The variation of position (x) - time (t) graph of thisparticle is best shown by

(1)

x

tT 2T

(2)

x

tT 2T

(3)

x

tT 2T

(4)

x

T 2Tt

23. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn onthe basis of velocity (v) - time (t) graph shown for aparticle moving along x-axis?

T2

v

tT0

(1) Distance covered by a particle is zero

(2) Displacement of the particle is zero

(3) Acceleration of a particle is zero

(4) All of these

24. A car starting from rest on a straight road firstaccelerates with 6 m/s2, then suddenly decelerateswith 3 m/s2 till it stops. If total time of journey is10 second, then the maximum speed acquired bythe car is

(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s

25. In which of the following cases the speed of a bodyin straight line motion may increase?

(1) Velocity and force both are in –x direction

(2) Force in –x direction and velocity in +x direction

(3) Velocity in –x direction and force in +x direction

(4) All of these

26. The initial velocity of a particle is ˆ ˆ(4 3 ) m/si j . Just

after two second its velocity becomes ˆ ˆ(6 5 ) m/si j .The average acceleration of the body is

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 22 m/s

(3) 22 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s2

27. Assuming constant retardation of a metal ballmoving inside water, the ball loses 25% of its speedwhile travelling 35 cm in a straight line. How muchfurther will it travel before stopping?

(1) 35 cm (2) 105 cm

(3) 70 cm (4) 45 cm

28. A juggler is throwing balls vertically up in air at

regular time interval of 1

s2

. If at the most six balls

are in air, then minimum speed with which he throwsthe balls is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s

(3) 7.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s

29. A ball falls from rest under gravity on the moon suchthat first half of the height is covered in 10 s. Totaltime of the fall of the ball is approximately

(1) 20 s (2) 17 s

(3) 40 s (4) 14 s

30. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn byanalysing following position(x) - time (t) graph of abody moving in a straight line?

x

t0(1) Initial velocity of the body is non-zero

(2) Final velocity of the body is zero

(3) The body has uniform motion

(4) The body has accelerated motion

31. The position(x) - time (t) graph of a body is asshown. Hence in the interval 0 to 10 s

x (m)

t (s)0

10

20

2 4 6 8 10

(4)


(1) Average velocity of the body is zero

(2) Average speed of the body is 6 m/s

(3) Maximum speed of the body is 10 m/s

(4) All of these

32. The position (x) of a body as a function of time t isgiven as x = 3 – 5t + 2t2. The acceleration of thebody is

(1) Constant (2) Increasing

(3) Decreasing (4) Zero

33. A particle is thrown vertically up such that it is atsame height H at t = 2 s and t = 8 s. Ifg = 10 m/s2 then

(1) Initial speed of throw is 50 m/s

(2) Total time of flight is 10 s

(3) Maximum height attained by the particle is125 m

(4) All of these

34. If vector ˆ ˆ ˆ2 3 4A i j k �

and ˆ ˆ ˆ7B i j k �

, then

A B� �

will be equal to

(1) 12 (2) 5 2

(3) 7 (4) 125

35. Which of the following graphs shown is not possiblein a practical situation? (s = distance covered,x = position, v = velocity, t = time)

a.

s

tb.

x

t0

c.

t

x

d.

v

t(1) a & b (2) a, b & c

(3) a, c & d (4) a & d

36. A particle is moving along x-axis at 10 m/s. Within5 s it starts moving towards y-axis maintaining thesame speed. Hence

(1) Change in magnitude of velocity is 10 2 m/s

(2) Magnitude of change in velocity is zero

(3) Average acceleration is 22 2 m/s

(4) All of these

37. Rain is falling at 5 m/s making 30° with the verticaltowards east. To a man walking at 3 m/s on ahorizontal road towards east, the rain appears to bestriking at a speed of

(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 19 m/s (4) 21 m/s

38. A swimmer tries to swim at angle with theupstream in a river if he wants to cross it throughshortest path. The time taken in such crossing is 20minute. However the minimum possible time to swimacross this river by him is 12 minute. It can beconcluded that is equal to

(1) 30° (2) 37°

(3) 45° (4) 60°

39. A car M right now on the cross-road is movingtowards west at 40 km/h. Another car P which isright now at 5 km south of the crossing is movingtowards it at 40 km/h. The closest distance ofapproach between the two cars will be

(1) 5 km (2) 2.5 km

(3) 5 2 km (4)5

km2

40. In a projectile motion x-direction is horizontal andy-direction is vertical. The relation between y and xis given by y = 40x – 10x2. Here x and y are inmetre. The horizontal range of the projectile is

(1) 1 m (2) 2 m

(3) 3 m (4) 4 m

41. A projectile thrown at 45° just crosses the top of apole whose foot is at 6 m from the point of projection.The projectile falls on the other side at a distance of3 m from the foot of the pole. Height of the pole is

(1) 1.5 m (2) 2 m

(3) 2.5 m (4) 3 m

42. A projectile is thrown at 60° with the horizontal. After4 s it is moving perpendicular to its initial directionof motion. If g = 10 m/s2, then initial speed of throwis

(1) 10 3 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 20 3 m/s (4) 40 m/s

43. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a smoothstaircase with initial speed u such that it hits theedge of the mth step. Each step has the width Aand height B, hence m is equal to (g = accelerationdue to gravity)

(1)2

2

u B

gA(2)

2

2

u A

gB

(3)2

2

2u A

gB(4)

2

2

2u B

gA

(5)


46. Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2

If Mg reacts completely, then the mass ratio of Mgand H2 produced is

(1) 1 : 12 (2) 12 : 1

(3) 24 : 1 (4) 1 : 6

47. A gaseous mixture contains equal volumes of O2and He. What is the mole fraction of helium in themixture?

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.3

(3) 0.7 (4) 0.8

48. Molarity of liquid H2SO4 with density 1.2 g/cc is

(1) 36.5 (2) 12.24

(3) 1.224 (4) 5.0

49. 0.56 g of gas occupies 112 cm3 at N.T.P., then itsmolecular mass is

(1) 4.8 (2) 22.8

(3) 14.8 (4) 112

50. A compound of metal (M) and nitrogen (N) withformula M2N3 contains 28% of nitrogen. The atomicmass of metal M is

(1) 24 (2) 9

(3) 78 (4) 54

51. The mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with50 ml of 0.5 M HCl is

(1) 10 g (2) 1.25 g

(3) 5 g (4) 2.5 g

52. One mole of KClO3 is thermally decomposed andexcess of magnesium is burnt in the gaseousproduct. How many moles of magnesium oxide isformed?

(1) 3

(2) 2

(3)32

(4) 6

53. In the combustion of a 5 g metal, 9 g of a metaloxide is formed. Hence equivalent mass of metaloxide is

(1) 16 (2) 18

(3) 20 (4) 28

54. Chlorophyll contains 2.68% magnesium by mass.The number of magnesium atoms in 2 g ofchlorophyll are

(1) 1.33 × 1023 (2) 6.02 × 1023

(3) 3.01 × 1021 (4) 1.34 × 1021

55. Which has maximum volume at S.T.P.?

(1) 1.5 × 1023 molecules of CO2

(2) 1 g H2

(3) 4 g O2

(4) 90 g water

56. 60 g of a compound on analysis produced 24 gcarbon, 4 g hydrogen and 32 g oxygen. Theempirical formula of the compound is

(1) CH2O2 (2) CH2O

(3) CH4O (4) C2H4O2

57. A gas mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio of1 : 4 by weight. The ratio of their number ofmolecules is

(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 4

(3) 3 : 16 (4) 7 : 32

58. The oxygen obtained from 90 kg of water is

(1) 90 kg (2) 80 kg

(3) 50 kg (4) 30 kg

59. Under STP 1 mole of N2 and 3 moles of H2 will formon complete reaction

(1) 4 moles of NH3 (2) 89.6 L of NH3

(3) 22.4 L of NH3 (4) 44.8 L of NH3

60. An aqueous solution of X is 3 molal, hence molefraction of X is

(1) 0.05 (2) 0.08

(3) 0.07 (4) 0.34

44. Two projectiles have same range of 100 m but theyhave different initial angles of throw. If they have sameinitial speed of 40 m/s, then sum of the maximumheights attained by them is (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 40 m

(2) 60 m

(3) 75 m

(4) 80 m

45. Uniform circular motion is performed by keeping itscentripetal acceleration of constant magnitude, whileits linear speed v and angular frequency areadjusted in different circular path. Which of thefollowing adjustments will enable so?

(1) Doubling v and halve

(2) Halve v and doubling

(3) Doubling v as well as

(4) Both (1) & (2)

CHEMISTRY

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61. BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl

50 ml 0.2 M solution of BaCl2 is allowed to reactwith 100 ml of 0.5 M solution of H2SO4. Which islimiting reagent?

(1) BaCl2 (2) H2SO4

(3) BaSO4 (4) HCl

62. CaCO3 on heating changes to CaO and CO2.Percentage of Ca in reactant and product arerespectively

(1) 100, 40 (2) 40, 56

(3) 56, 40 (4) 40, 71.4

63. A concentration of 1 ppm means that

(1) Each kilogram of solution contains 1 mg ofsolute

(2) Each kilogram of solution contains 1 g of solute

(3) Each kilogram of solution contains 0.001 mg ofsolute

(4) Each gram of solution contains 1 mg of solute

64. Volume of hydrogen gas occupied by 1 equivalent atSTP is

(1) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L

(3) 5.6 L (4) 1.0 L

65. Which sample contains the largest number ofatoms?

(1) 1.0 mol H2O (2) 1.5 mol NO

(3) 2.0 mol CH4 (4) 2.5 mol Au

66. Which of the following contains maximum number ofsignificant figures?

(1) 25.9 × 102 (2) 2.590 × 103

(3) 0.259 × 103 (4) 25.900 × 103

67. Volume of oxygen (in L) required to burn 0.5 molisobutylene at STP

(1) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L

(3) 44.8 L (4) 67.2 L

68. One atom of an element weighs 1.8 × 10–22 g. Itsgram atomic weight is

(1) 29.9 (2) 154

(3) 108.36 (4) 18

69. 20 mL of CO was mixed with 50 ml of oxygen andthe mixture was exploded, on cooling the resultingmixture was shaken with KOH. Which gas and whatvolume of it will be present finally?

(1) CO, 5 mL (2) O2, 5 mL

(3) CO, 10 mL (4) O2, 40 mL

70. Equivalent weight of a trivalent metal is 9, what isthe molecular weight of oxide of this metal?

(1) 27 (2) 59

(3) 102 (4) 51

71. On diluting a solution, which of the following willchange?

(1) Molality (2) Normality

(3) Mass fraction (4) All of these

72. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the correct orderof masses and choose the correct answer

I. 8 g O2

II. 6 × 1023 molecules of H2

III. 22.4 L NH3 at STP

IV. 1 amu

(1) III > I > II > IV (2) II > I > IV > III

(3) II = I > IV > III (4) IV > III > II > I

73. What is the volume of gas produced for completecombustion of 12 mL of a gaseous alkane containing5 carbon atoms?

(1) 12 mL (2) 24 mL

(3) 11 mL (4) 60 mL

74. Volume of 0.1 M NaOH required to completelyneutralise 40 cm3 of 0.1 M oxalic acid

(1) 40 cc (2) 80 cc

(3) 120 cc (4) 20 cc

75. Equivalent weight of sulphuric acid in the givenreaction

H2SO4 + KOH KHSO4 + H2O

(1) 98 (2)982

(3)983

(4) Zero

76. How many moles of ammonium phosphate willcontain 0.5 mole of oxygen atoms?

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.125

(3) 1.0 (4) 0.25

77. The volume of 1 L water upon vaporisation at STP isnearly

(1) 124.3 L (2) 1 L

(3) 22.4 L (4) 1244.4 L

78. The law of multiple proportion was proposed by

(1) Lavoisier (2) Dalton

(3) Proust (4) Gay Lussac

79. 10 g of hydrogen and 28 g nitrogen allowed to reactand compound produced dissolved in one litre waterto produce basic solution, the molarity of solution is

(1) 2 M (2) 1 M

(3) 5 M (4) 3 M

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80. The number of gram atoms of oxygen in 0.1 molSO4

2–

(1) 1 (2) 4

(3) 0.4 (4) 0.5

81. Irrespective of the method of preparation pure sampleof CO2 always yields 27% mass of carbon and 72.7%mass of oxygen. This is explained by the law of

(1) Conservation of mass

(2) Constant proportion

(3) Multiple proportion

(4) Constant volume

82. X litres of CO2 is present at STP is allowed topassed over hot coke, and the volume of gaseousproduct is 11.2 L at STP What is the value of x?

(1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L

(3) 5.6 L (4) 44.8 L

83. The bicarbonate of a metal has formula M(HCO3)2,the formula of its oxide will be

(1) M2O

(2) MO

(3) MO2

(4) M2O3

84. The famous gemstone “Kohinoor” weighs 563 carats.If one carat is equal to 200 mg, the weight of thegemstone in grams is

(1) 112.6 g

(2) 11.26 g

(3) 1.126 g

(4) 1126 g

85. If 112 mL of a tetratomic gas weighs 1 g at 273 Kand 1 atm pressure, then the mass of one atom is

(1) 8.3 10–23 g (2) 6.24 10–23 g

(3) 2.08 10–23 g (4) 8.5 10–25 g

86. A pure substance can be

(1) A compound only

(2) An element only

(3) An element or a compound

(4) A heterogeneous mixture

87. The molar ratio of Cr2+ to Cr3+ in a mixture of CrSO4

and Cr2(SO4)3 having equal number of 24SO in both

sulphates is

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 2

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4

88. The volume of CO2 released at STP on heating amixture of 9.85 g of BaCO3 and 10.3 g Na2CO3 willbe (Atomic mass of Ba = 137)

(1) 0.84 L (2) 2.24 L

(3) 4.06 L (4) 1.12 L

89. 10 g of hydrogen and 32 g of oxygen were filled ina steel vessel and exploded. The product formedpassed through excess of anhyd. CuSO4. Theincrease in mass of anhyd. CuSO4 is

(1) 18 g (2) 36 g

(3) 90 g (4) 45 g

90. If 3.01 × 1025 molecules are removed from 98 kgH3PO4, the number of moles of H3PO4 left will be

(1) 950 (2) 720

(3) 0.259 (4) 0.581

BOTANY

91. Awareness of the surroundings and response toexternal stimuli is

(1) Shown by most advance and complexeukaryotes only

(2) Homeostasis

(3) Shown by higher plants and animals only

(4) Defining property of living organisms

92. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. features of livingorganisms :

(1) Growth is seen only upto a certain age inanimals

(2) Sum total of all the chemical reactions occurringin our body is metabolism

(3) No non-living object is capable of reproduction

(4) In multicelled organisms, we are not clear aboutthe usage of terms like growth and reproduction

93. Which of the following taxonomic categories arecommon for Triticum and Mangifera ?

(1) Division, kingdom (2) Division, class

(3) Order, class (4) Family, order

94. Taxonomic category with a group of related generais

(1) Anacardiaceae, Primata

(2) Poaceae, Diptera

(3) Hominidae, Canidae

(4) Sapindales, Anacardiaceae

95. In classical taxonomy species are delimited on thebasis of

(1) Physiology, cytology

(2) Ecology, genetics

(3) Morphology, external features

(4) Biochemistry, genetics

(8)


96. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. rules ofbinominal nomenclature?

(1) Same specific name can be given to organismsbelonging to different genera

(2) Scientific name is italicised in hand writtendescription

(3) Specific name is followed by generic name

(4) Second component in biological name startswith a capital letter

97. Systematics is different from taxonomy in dealingwith

(1) Identification (2) Classification

(3) Phylogeny (4) Nomenclature

98. Choose correct option for the missing words.

Solanum + A Solanaceae

Panthera + B C

(1) A - Lycopersicon, B - Canis, C - Canidae

(2) A - Datura, B - Felis, C - Felidae

(3) A - Mangifera, B - Canis, C - Canidae

(4) A - Oryza, B - Felis, C - Felidae

99. Which of the following group of organisms representstaxa at same level ?

(1) Monocots, angiosperms

(2) Lion, animals

(3) Wheat, mango

(4) Tiger, chordates

100. Taxonomic keys are generally _______ and arebased on _______ characters.

(1) Non-analytical, contrasting

(2) Analytical, non-contrasting

(3) Non-analytical, non-contrasting

(4) Analytical, contrasting

101. Detailed information about a particular taxon ispresent in

(1) Manual (2) Flora

(3) Monograph (4) Catalogue

102. Which of the following taxonomic aids provideinformation about the local flora as well as flora ofdistant areas ?

(1) Museum, herbarium

(2) Herbarium, botanical garden

(3) Botanical garden, museums

(4) Herbarium, flora

103. Largest botanical garden of Asia is _______ situatedin _______

(1) NBG, Lucknow (2) IBG, Kolkata

(3) RBG, London (4) MBG, Moscow

104. For bacteria scientific names are based on agreedprinciples and criteria, which are given in

(1) ICTV (2) ICBN

(3) ICNB (4) ICZN

105. Arrangement of organisms into convenient categorieson the basis of similarities and differences in certaineasily observable but fundamental characters is

(1) Taxonomy

(2) Classification

(3) Nomenclature

(4) Identification

106. Which of the following serve as means for ex-situconservation of rare and endemic plant and animalspecies respectively?

(1) Herbarium, Museum

(2) Botanical Garden, Zoological park

(3) Botanical Garden, Museum

(4) Herbarium, Zoological park

107. Order is the assemblage of families which exhibit afew similar characters. Choose the correct optionw.r.t. such assemblage.

(1) Convolvulaceae Poaceae Polymoniales

(2) Felidae Canidae Carnivora

(3) Poaceae Anacardiaceae Sapindales

(4) Hominidae Muscidae Primata

Families Order

108. Higher the taxonomic category, ________ is thenumber of organisms and ________ is the number ofcommon features.

(1) Higher, more (2) Fewer, less

(3) Higher, fewer (4) Fewer, more

109. Choose odd one w.r.t. obligate categories

(1) Genus and Family

(2) Family and Order

(3) Tribe and Variety

(4) Order and Class

110. The science which deals with diversity of organismsand all their comparative and evolutionary relationshipis

(1) Wider field of science than taxonomy

(2) Referred to as systematics

(3) Based on phylogeny

(4) More than one option is correct

(9)


111. In taxonomic hierarchy, given below organisms arerepresentative of how many families?

Wheat, Potato, Brinjal, Mango

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

112. Modern taxonomic studies are similar to classicalone in dealing with

(1) Cell structure and function

(2) Internal and external features

(3) Developmental and ecological processes

(4) Morphological features

113. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. some important rulesof binomial nomenclature

(1) The generic name is followed by specific epithetand then the name of author

(2) Both words in biological component areseparately underlined when handwritten

(3) Biological names are generally in Latin andwritten in italics

(4) The name of the author is printed in Roman andunderlined

114. Consciousness is a _______ feature and selfconsciousness is a _______ feature of all life forms

(1) Defining, defining

(2) Non-defining, non-defining

(3) Non-defining, defining

(4) Defining, non-defining

115. Choose incorrect statement

(1) No non-living object exhibits metabolism

(2) Metabolic reactions can occur in-vitro

(3) Metabolism is a non-defining feature

(4) Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated incell-free system

116. For bacteria we are not very clear about the usageof terms like

(1) Growth and metabolism

(2) Consciousness and cellular organisation

(3) Growth and reproduction

(4) Metabolism and reproduction

117. Which of the following provide index to the plantspecies found in particular area?

(1) Manual (2) Flora

(3) Monograph (4) Catalogue

118. For plants, scientific names are based on agreedprinciples and criteria which are provided in

(1) ICZN (2) ICNB

(3) ICBN (4) ICTV

119. Living organisms are self-regulating interactivesystems and it results in emergent properties athigher level of organisation. In support of this whichof the following is correct?

a. Properties of tissues are present in theconstituent cells

b. Properties of cell organelles arise from theirmolecular components

c. Capable of responding to external stimuli

(1) a, b & c (2) a & c

(3) b & c (4) Only c

120. Which one of the following is correct binomialepithet for mango?

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.

(3) Mangifera Inidca Linn.

(4) Mangifera indica

121. Taxa like sweet potato and mango are placed intaxonomic hierarchy in the

(1) Different orders but same class and phylum

(2) Different orders but same class and division

(3) Same class and order but different family

(4) Different class but same division

122. Select correct statement for genus.

(1) A group of individual organisms with fundamentalsimilarities

(2) Has one or more than one species representingmonotypic or polytypic species condition

(3) Has more characters in common in comparisonto species of other genera

(4) Aggregates of related and unrelated species

123. Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in nexthigher category ____A____ on the basis of____B____ characters.

(1) A - Genus; B - Vegetative

(2) A - Family; B - Reproductive & vegetative

(3) A - Genus; B - Reproductive

(4) A - Family; B - Vegetative only

124. The category with related orders is represented by

(1) Reptiles and Arthropoda

(2) Polymoniales and Poales

(3) Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae

(4) Diptera and Muscidae

(10)


125. Greater is the difficulty of determining the relationshipto other taxa at the same level at

(1) Sub-categories

(2) Lower categories

(3) Intermediate categories

(4) Higher categories

126. How many procedures/techniques are developed tostore and preserve the specimens for future studies?

Herbarium, Zoos, Museum, Flora, Botanical gardens, Manuals

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Five

127. The taxonomical aid used for identification of plantsand animals based on the similarities anddissimilarities

(1) Also show actual account of habitat

(2) Maintains collections of preserved plant andanimal specimens

(3) Is generally analytical in nature

(4) Is associated with in-situ conservation strategies

128. How many features listed below are exhibited byflatworms(A) and bacteria (B)?

i. Growth by increase in mass only

ii. Regeneration

iii. Self-consciousness

iv. Anabolism & catabolism

v. Binary fission

(1) A - (i, ii, iii, iv) B - (i, iii, iv)

(2) A - (ii, iv) B - (iv, v)

(3) A - (ii, iii, iv) B - (i, iv, v)

(4) A - (i, ii) B - (iii, iv, v)

129. Mark the correct match (w.r.t codes ofnomenclature)

(1) Puffball - ICBN (2) Salmonella - ICZN

(3) Mango - ICVN (4) Drosophila - ICNCP

130. Binomial epithet of human consists of

(1) Two Latin words

(2) Three Latin words

(3) Two Greek words and one Latin word

(4) Two Latin words and one Roman word

131. Select odd one w.r.t. the taxa belonging to the samecategory

(1) Solanum, Panthera, Felidae

(2) Canidae, Muscidae, Poaceae

(3) Mango, Wheat, Cat

(4) Monocots, Mammals, Insects

132. Polymoniales and Poales belong to

(1) Same class and division

(2) Different class and division

(3) Same class and different division

(4) Different class but same division

133. Consider the following steps and select prime sourceof taxonomic studies :

a. Classification

b. Identification

c. Nomenclature

d. Collection of specimens of plant and animalspecies

e. Evolutionary relationship

(1) a & b (2) Only c

(3) Only d (4) All except, e

134. Which one of the following represents the choicemade between two contrasting characters inidentification process?

(1) Monographs (2) Flora

(3) Catalogues (4) Key

135. Select incorrectly matched pair from given below.

(1) Biological concept of species – Reproductive

isolation

(2) Systematics – Phylogeny

(3) Broad categories – Variety

(4) Zoological parks – ex-situ conservation strategies

ZOOLOGY

136. Which of the following characters is exhibited by allmembers of kingdom animalia?

(1) Coelom

(2) Body segmentation

(3) Multicellularity

(4) Cellular level of organisation

137. Complete the following analogy

Wuchereria : Filariasis : : Fluke :

(1) Taeniasis

(2) Ascariasis

(3) Schistosomiasis

(4) Ancylostomiasis

(11)


138. Which of the following characters of Cnidarians is/arewithout any exception?

A. Marine habitat.

B. Presence of cnidocytes.

C. Metagenesis.

D. Skeleton composed of calcium carbonate.

E. Digestion both extracellular and intracellular.

Options

(1) A & B (2) B & C

(3) B & E (4) A, B & E

139. The diagrams X and Y are the illustration of bodycavity in animals. Study the diagrams and answerthe following questions.

X. Y.

A. Which type of body cavity is represented by Xand Y?

B. Following is the list of organisms, select theorganisms with X and Y type of cavity.

Asterias, Balanoglossus, Ascaris, Ancylostoma,Fasciola, Taenia, Nereis.

Choose the correct option

A B

(1) X – Pseudocoelom : Ascaris, Ancylostoma

Y – Enterocoelom : Nereis, Fasciola

(2) X – Enterocoelom : Asterias, Balanoglossus

Y – Pseudocoelom : Ascaris, Ancylostoma

(3) X – Acoelomate : Fasciola, Taenia

Y – Pseudocoelom : Nereis, Ascaris

(4) X – Schizocoelom : Nereis, Taenia

Y – Pseudocoelom : Ascaris, Fasciola

140. Which of the following is not a correct comparisonbetween phylum porifera and cnidaria?

Digestion

Level of organisation

Body plan

Habitat

Both intracellular and extracellular

Tissue

Blind sac, with gastrovascular cavity

Both in marine and fresh water

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Cnidaria

Intracellular

Cellular

Cell aggregate

Exclusively in marine water

PoriferaCharacters

141. Which of the following is incorrect matching ofanimal group / life style / structure / function?

Sponges

Cnidarian

Flatworms

Round-worms

(i) Choanocytes / circulating water

(ii) Spicules and spongin fibres / skeleton

(i) Gastrovascular cavity / digestion

(ii) Cnidocytes / protection and food gathering

(i) Flame cells / excretion

(ii) Tegument / protection

(i) Pseudo coelom(ii) One way gut /

digestion with muscular pharynx

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Sessile filter feeders

Free-floating or attached

Free living or parasitic

Free living or parasites only in animals

Life style

Animal group

Structure/functions

142. The larvae of which of the following worm wouldpenetrate the body of man through the soles of feet,if people step bare footed on soil?

(1) Trichinella (2) Ancylostoma

(3) Ascaris (4) Wuchereria

143. The figure shows three animals A, B and C. Selectthe option which gives correct identification ofanimals with body symmetry/description

A. B. C.

(1) A. Fasciole – Radial symmetry : When anyplane passing through the central axis of thebody divides the organism into two identicalhalves, that are mirror images of each other

(2) B. Crab – Bilateral symmetry : Body can bedivided into identical left and right halves in onlyone plane, that are mirror images of each other

(3) C. Adamsia – Biradial : Can be divided into twoidentical halves through any plane

(4) A. Hydra – Bilateral symmetry : The twoidentical halves are mirror images of eachother

144. The diagram below illustrates a medusa. Study thediagram to answer the question that follows:

(12)


In which group and its examples this body form indominant?

(1) Hydrozoa : Obelia, Hydra, Physalia

(2) Anthozoa : Meandrina, Pennatula, Adamsia

(3) Scyphozoa : Aurelia, Jellyfishes

(4) Cnidaria : Hydra, Aurelia, Obelia

145. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correctabout the organism depicted in the diagram below?

A. It is an example of ctenophora, Pleurobrachia.

B. Colloblasts help in feeding.

C. It has eight ciliated comb plates which help inlocomotion.

D. Sexes are separate.

E. Reproduction takes place only by sexual means.Fertilization is external with indirect development.

F. Exist both in polyp and medusa stage.

Choose the option in which both the statements areincorrect.

(1) A & B

(2) C & D

(3) D & E

(4) D & F

146. For sessile/sedentary and mobile animals, the mostsuitable type of symmetry has been

(1) Asymmetry and symmetry respectively

(2) Radial and bilateral symmetry respectively

(3) Bilateral and spherical respectively

(4) Bilateral for both

147. Which of the following is the correct reason for theidentification of sex of the animals A and B given inthe photograph?

A. B.

(1) A is male Ascaris, the posterior end is straight;so B is female Ascaris, posterior end is curved.

(2) A is female Ascaris, the posterior end is straight.So, B is male Ascaris, posterior end is curved.

(3) A is female Ascaris, the posterior end is curved.So, B is male Ascaris

(4) A is male Ascaris, the posterior end is curved.B is female Ascaris, the posterior end is straight.Female is longer than male

148. Out of the following types of cells given below, whichones are not specialised to perform a single specificfunction?

(1) Choanocytes and cnidocytes

(2) Archaeocytes and interstitial cells

(3) Epidermal and gastrodermal cells

(4) Muscular and sensory cells

149. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. the diagram itsstructures A to C illustrated below

BA

C – 800 to 1000 proglottids

(1) It is Taenia solium

(2) Humans are the primary host and cow servesas the intermediate host

(3) The structure marked as A is scolex which hashooks and suckers for attachment. B is neckand C are body sections called proglottids

(4) It absorbs the nutrients from the host directlythrough their body surface

150. Which of the following is not the correct comparisonbetween Taenia and Fasciola?

(1) Both are hermaphrodite

(2) Fertilization is internal

(3) Taenia shows true metameric segmentation, it isabsent in Fasciola

(4) They have specialised cells, flame cells forexcretion and osmoregulation

151. All the following are found in sponges, except

(1) Choanocytes

(2) Sexual and asexual reproduction

(3) Spicules

(4) Digestive tract and extracellular digestion

(13)


152. Which of the following is not the correct descriptionof cell depicted in the diagram?

(1) The diagram is of cnidoblast used for anchorage,defense and for the capture of prey

(2) Cnidarians project the cnidocyst to capture theirprey by building a high internal osmotic pressure

(3) Cnidoblasts are present on the ectoderm oftentacles and body of cnidarians

(4) Once discharged by muscle contractions, can bereused again

153. Diagrams below are indicating the outline of medusaand polyp forms.

Which of the following set of cnidarians exist in bothforms and exhibit metagenesis?

(1) Hydra and Obelia

(2) Obelia and Physalia

(3) Obelia and Adamsia

(4) Physalia and Adamsia

154. Following are the figures showing germinal layers inorganisms.

(a) (b)

A C

D

B

Choose the correct answer w.r.t. figures (a) and (b).

(1) Figure (a), represents the germ layers in Porifera.

Figure (b), represents the germ layers inCoelenterata

(2) In figure (a), A represents mesoglea, anundifferentiated layer

Figure (b), C is ectoderm, D is endoderm and Bis mesoderm

(3) In figure (a), A represents coelom, surrounded bymesoderm

Figure (b), B represents mesoderm

(4) In figure (a), A is coelom in annelids

Figure (b), represents triploblastic condition inflatworms

155. In which one of the phylum, there is solidmesoderm?

(1) Cnidaria (2) Platyhelminthes

(3) Aschelminthes (4) Annelida

156. Which of the following set of cnidarians are coralshave skeleton composed of calcium carbonate?

(1) Aurelia, Obelia, Physalia

(2) Pennatula, Gorgonia, Meandrina

(3) Hydra, Adamsia, Porpita

(4) Velella, Physalia, Hydra

157. Following sequence of events occur in the life cycleof which of the following organisms?

Polyp Medusa Planula

A.

Obelia

B.Physalia

C.

Sea anemone

(1) A only (2) A & B only

(3) C only (4) A, B & C

158. During its life cycle, Fasciola hepatica infects itsintermediate host and primary host by which of thefollowing larval stages?

(1) Redia and Miracidium

(2) Cercaria and Redia

(3) Metacercaria and Cercaria

(4) Miracidium and Metacercaria

(14)


(3) Canal system helps in food gathering,respiratory exchange and removal of wastes

(4) Fertilization is internal, direct development

164. Which one of the following is wrong about sponges?

(1) All are aquatic

(2) They are primitive multicellular animals

(3) Most of them are asymmetrical

(4) Digestion is extracellular

165. Some of the cnidarians have a skeleton of calciumcarbonate. These are called corals. Mark theexample of coral.

(1) Meandrina (2) Hydra

(3) Jelly fish (4) Ophiura

166. Which one of the following is fresh water sponge?

(1) Hyalonema (2) Spongilla

(3) Euspongia (4) Scypha

167. Complete the sentence

Where the body can be divided into identical left andright halves in only one plane like that of mirrorimage, the animal is said to have ______ symmetry

(1) No (2) Radial

(3) Dorsoventral (4) Bilateral

168. Which one of the following is simplest type of canalsystem in sponges?

(1) Levcon

(2) Sycon

(3) Ascon

(4) (1) & (3) both

169. Sponges are similar in some characters toplatyhelminthes. Choose the character that is shownby sponges but not by the platyhelminthes.

(1) They are hermaphrodite

(2) Fertilisation is internal

(3) Development is indirect

(4) Cellular level of organisation

170. Which one of the following is not the characteristicof the Phylum to which Pleurobrachia belongs?

(1) Bioluminiscence

(2) 8 external rows of ciliated comb plates

(3) Commonly known as comb jellies

(4) They are dioecious and show only the internalfertilisation

159. In cnidarians digestion occurs in gastrovascular cavityand then inside the endodermal cells. In sponges the

digestion is A and takes place in B .Correct option for blanks A and B is

(1) A – Extracellular

B – Paragastric cavity

(2) A – Intracellular

B – Choanocytes

(3) A – Extracellular and intracellular

B – Paragastric cavity and choanocytes

(4) A – Intracellular

B – Paragastric cavity

160. Which of the following is not the characteristicfeature of ctenophora?

(1) Exclusively found in marine water

(2) Ciliated comb plates help in locomotion

(3) Reproduction takes place only by sexual means

(4) Sexes are separate. Fertilization is external withindirect development

161. Base the answer to your question on the basis of thediagram illustrated.

Which of the following is not the correctidentification/characteristic of the organism?

(1) It is Fasciola hepatica

(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion

(3) Hermaphrodite, development through many larvalstages

(4) Fertilization is internal and generally self anddirect development

162. Which of the following is bath sponge?

(1) Sycon (2) Euspongia

(3) Spongilla (4) Cliona

163. Mark incorrect statement w.r.t. phylum porifera.

(1) Most primitive multicellular animals and havecellular level of organisation

(2) Canal system present. Water enters throughostia in the body central cavity spongocoelgoes out through osculum

(15)


171. Consider following phylums

A. Cnidaria

B. Ctenophora

C. Platyhelminthes

D. Aschelminthes

Choose the correct option regarding them

(1) A & B have cnidoblast for defense

(2) C & D are endoparasites mostly and showinternal fertilisation

(3) A, C & D are monoecious

(4) B & C show organ system level of organisation

172. Organism that shows bilateral symmetry, haspseudocoelom and muscular pharynx is

(1) Ascaris

(2) Taenia

(3) Liver fluke

(4) Ctenoplana

173. Choose incorrect statement.

(1) Mesoglea is present between endoderm andectoderm in developing embryo in case ofdiploblastic animals

(2) True coelom is the body cavity lined bymesoderm

(3) Scypha is triploblastic animal with radialsymmetry

(4) Cnidarians are diploblastic animals with radialsymmetry

174. Physalia is one member of kingdom animalia.Choose the option that is incorrect about itsphylum.

(1) Name of phylum is derived from the cellscontaining nematocytes

(2) They have central gastro-vascular cavity

(3) Digestion is only intracellular

(4) Some member of this phylum have skeletoncomposed of calcium carbonate

175. Which one of the following shows high power ofregeneration?

(1) Planaria

(2) Balanoglossus

(3) Sea pen

(4) Ctenoplana

176. Choose the option that correctly matches theorganism with its characteristics

(1) Obelia - Diploblastic with Metagenesisduring its life-cycle

(2) Liver fluke - Flame cells for digestion offood and suckers forlocomotion

(3) Ctenoplana - Fresh water habitat andmuscular foot for locomotion

(4) Spongilla - Commonly called bathsponge and its habitat is seawater

177. Which one of the following option does not describethe characteristic of Platyhelminthes?

(1) Development is indirect

(2) Hooks and suckers are present in Parasiticforms

(3) Dorsoventrally flattened body with bilateralsymmetry

(4) Fertilization is external only

178. Which one of the following organism has mesodermin the form of scattered pouches between ectodermand endoderm during embryonic development?

(1) Wuchereria

(2) Taenia

(3) Earthworm

(4) Sea anemon

179. Match the column I and column II

Column I Column II

a. Archaeocytes (i) Obelia

b. Collar cells (ii) Totipotent

c. Sea fur (iii) Sycon

d. Portuguese man (iv) Gastrovasular cavityof war

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

180. Echinodermata is the subgroup of Bilateria animals.What common feature it shares with Hydra?

(1) Organ system level of organisation

(2) Acoelomate nature

(3) Radial Symmetry

(4) Direct development

� � �

(16)


ANSWERS

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 1 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.


16/05/2016


1. (4)2. (4)

3. (2)4. (2)

5. (3)6. (4)7. (4)

8. (4)9. (2)

10. (2)11. (3)12. (4)

13. (4)14. (4)

15. (4)16. (4)17. (4)

18. (4)19. (1)

20. (4)21. (3)

22. (4)23. (2)24. (2)

25. (1)26. (2)

27. (4)28. (4)29. (4)

30. (4)31. (4)

32. (1)33. (4)

34. (2)35. (3)36. (3)

CODE

A

37. (3)

38. (2)39. (4)40. (4)

41. (2)42. (3)

43. (4)44. (4)45. (4)

46. (2)47. (1)

48. (2)49. (4)

50. (4)51. (2)52. (1)

53. (2)54. (4)

55. (2)56. (2)57. (4)

58. (2)59. (4)

60. (1)61. (1)

62. (4)63. (1)64. (2)

65. (3)66. (4)

67. (4)68. (3)69. (4)

70. (3)71. (4)

72. (1)

73. (4)

74. (2)75. (1)76. (2)

77. (4)78. (2)

79. (1)80. (3)81. (2)

82. (3)83. (2)

84. (1)85. (1)

86. (3)87. (2)88. (4)

89. (2)90. (1)

91. (4)92. (4)93. (1)

94. (3)95. (3)

96. (1)97. (3)

98. (2)99. (3)100. (4)

101. (3)102. (2)

103. (2)104. (3)105. (2)

106. (2)107. (2)

108. (3)

109. (3)110. (4)111. (2)

112. (4)113. (4)

114. (4)115. (3)116. (3)

117. (2)118. (3)

119. (4)120. (2)121. (2)

122. (3)123. (2)

124. (3)125. (4)

126. (1)127. (3)128. (2)

129. (1)130. (4)

131. (1)132. (4)133. (3)

134. (4)135. (3)

136. (3)137. (3)

138. (3)139. (2)140. (4)

141. (4)142. (2)

143. (2)144. (3)

145. (4)146. (2)147. (4)

148. (2)149. (2)

150. (3)151. (4)152. (4)

153. (2)154. (2)

155. (2)156. (2)157. (2)

158. (4)159. (2)

160. (4)161. (4)

162. (2)163. (4)164. (4)

165. (1)166. (2)

167. (4)168. (3)169. (4)

170. (4)171. (2)

172. (1)173. (3)

174. (3)175. (1)176. (1)

177. (4)178. (1)

179. (3)180. (3)

(1)

Answers and Hints

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 1 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.


16/05/2016


1. Answer (4)

2. Answer (4)

3. Answer (2)

4. Answer (2)

2 44

Intensitywatt/m -K

T5. Answer (3)

F dl ∫� �

[MLT–2] [L] = [ML2T–2]

6. Answer (4)

2

2

44

R

R

7. Answer (4)

Both are dimensionless.

8. Answer (4)

Final answer should have three significant figures.

9. Answer (2)

4.5 ± 0.3 ± 0.3 = (4.5 ± 0.6) kg-m/s

10. Answer (2)

1.01325 × 105 × 5

4 2

10 dyne

10 cm = 1.01325 × 106

2

dyne

cm

11. Answer (3)

[ML2T–3] = (MLT–1)x(L3)y(T)z

x = 1, y = 13

, z = –2

12. Answer (4)

13. Answer (4)

PHYSICS

14. Answer (4)

15. Answer (4)

2 33

2

Power ML T[MT ]

Area L

I

16. Answer (4)

0.80100 0.2%

400

L = 20 ± 0.1% = 20 ± 0.02 cm

17. Answer (4)

2 33 1Watt ML T

[MLT K ]m-K LK

18. Answer (4)

19. Answer (1)

5 63 4

x y is equation of straight line.

20. Answer (4)

21. Answer (3)

4 22 6

2 4 m/s(4 2)

62

⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

22. Answer (4)

23. Answer (2)

Net area under the graph is zero.

24. Answer (2)

vmax = 6 3 10

20 m/s6 3

CODE

A

(2)

25. Answer (1)

For speed to increase, the force and velocity shouldbe in same direction.

26. Answer (2)

2ˆ ˆ(6 4) (5 3) ˆ ˆ 2 m/s2

i ji j

27. Answer (4)

v 34v v

2v435 cm 25 cm 15 cm 5 cm

0

28. Answer (4)

310 15 m/s

2v

29. Answer (4)

t = 10 then 2 14 st

30. Answer (4)

Slope of the graph is varying.

31. Answer (4)

32. Answer (1)

33. Answer (4)

T = 2 + 8 = 10 s

V = g × 102

= 50 m/s

H = 2

1125 m

2 2T

g⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

34. Answer (2)

2 2 23 4 5 5 2A B � �

35. Answer (3)

36. Answer (3)

Average acceleration = 210 22 2 m/s

5

37. Answer (3)

2 25 3 2 5 3 cos60v

25 9 15 19 m/s

38. Answer (2)

12, 20sin

d dv v

12 3sin

20 5

= 37°

39. Answer (4)

55cos45 km

2

40. Answer (4)

y = 0 = (40 – 10x)x

x = 0, 4 m

41. Answer (2)

1 2

1 2

tan 2 mx x

Hx x

42. Answer (3)

sinu

tg

u = 4 × 10 × sin60°

= 20 3 m/s

43. Answer (4)

2HR u

g

2mB

mA ug

2

2

2u Bm

gA

44. Answer (4)

2 2 2 2 2sin cos (40)80 m

2 2 2 2 10u u u

g g g

45. Answer (4)

ac = v

CHEMISTRY

46. Answer (2)

2 21mol 1mol24 g 2g

Mg 2HCl MgCl H

47. Answer (1)

HeX 0.5

48. Answer (2)

1.2 1000M 12.24 M

98 1

(3)

49. Answer (4)

112 mL 0.56 g

22400 mL 0.56

22400112

= 112 g

50. Answer (4)

Mol. mass = 3 14 100

15028

2 M + 3 × 14 = 150

2M = 150 – 42

2M = 108

M = 108

542

51. Answer (2)

3 2 2 22 mol1mol

CaCO 2HCl CaCl H O CO

Moles of HCl taken = 50

0.5 0.0251000

Moles of CaCO3 required = 0.0125

Mass of CaCO3 = 0.0125 × 100

= 1.25 g

52. Answer (1)

2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2

1 mol KClO3 will produce 23

mol O2

2Mg + O2 2MgO

1 mol O2 gives 2 moles MgO

23

mol O2

gives 2 31 2 moles MgO

53. Answer (2)

Eq. mass of metal = 5

8 104

Eq. mass of metal oxide = EM + EO

= 10 + 8

= 18

54. Answer (4)

Mass of Mg = 2.68

2 0.0536 g100

24 g Mg 6 × 1023 atoms

0.0536 g 236 10

0.0536 atom24

= 0.0134 × 1023

55. Answer (2)

1.5 × 1023 molecules of 21

CO mol 5.6 L4

1 g H2 = 1

mol 11.2 L2

4 g O2 = 1

mol 2.8 L8

90 g H2O = 5 mol = 5 × 18 mL

56. Answer (2)

Fact.

57. Answer (4)

2

2

O

N

n 1 28 7n 32 4 32

58. Answer (2)

59. Answer (4)

N2 + 3H2 2NH31 mol 3 mol 2 mol

44.8 L

60. Answer (1)

3 mole solute in 1000 g solvent

Xsolute = 3

3 55.5

3

0.0558.5

61. Answer (1)

BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HClmillimoles 10 50taken

so BaCl2, is limiting reagent.

62. Answer (4)

CaCO3 CaO + CO2% Ca = 40 71

63. Answer (1)

Fact

64. Answer (2)

1 equivalent H2 = 1 g = 11.2 L

65. Answer (3)

1 mol H2O = 3 × 6 × 1023 atoms

1.5 mol NO = 2 × 1.5 × 6 × 1023 atoms

2.0 mol CH4 = 5 × 2 × 6 × 1023 atoms

2.5 mol Au = 2.5 × 6 × 1023 atoms

66. Answer (4)

Fact

67. Answer (4)

C4H8 + 6O2 4CO2 + 4H2O

(4)

68. Answer (3)

Atomic weight

= 1.8 × 10–22 × 6 × 1023 g

= 10.8 × 10 = 108

69. Answer (4)

2CO + O2 2CO2taken 20 ml 50 ml

L.R. is COReacted 20 ml 10 ml 20 ml (absorbed in KOH)Left 40 ml O2

70. Answer (3)

Atomic weight of metal = 9 × 3 = 27

Molecular weight of M2O3 = 27 × 2 + 3 × 16

= 102 g

71. Answer (4)

Fact

72. Answer (1)

1 molecule of oxygen = 32 u

1 atom of sulphur = 32 u

1010 molecules of NH3 = 2.9 × 10–13 g

103 atoms of He = 0.66 × 10–30 g

73. Answer (4)

5 12 2 22C H 5CO 6H O8O+1mole 5 mol

12 ml 12×5 = 60 ml

74. Answer (2)

NAV

A = N

BV

B

0.1 2 40 = 0.1 1 VB

VB = 80 cc

75. Answer (1)

Fact

76. Answer (2)

1 mol (NH3)3 PO

4 contains 4 mole oxygen atoms.

77. Answer (4)

1 L = 1000 ml = 1000

18 = 55.5 mole

Volume occupied by vapours at STP

= 22.4 55.5 L

= 1243.2 L

78. Answer (2)

Fact

79. Answer (1)

N2 + 3H

2 2NH

3

Taken : 1 mole 5 mol

N2 is limiting reagent so 2 mol NH

3 produced.

80. Answer (3)

1 mol SO4

2– = 4 gram atoms of oxygen

81. Answer (2)

Fact

82. Answer (3)

CO2 + C 2CO

red hot 1vol. 2 vol. 5.6 L 11.2 L

83. Answer (2)

Fact

84. Answer (1)

Fact

85. Answer (1)

112 ml gas 1 g

22400 ml gas 1

112 22400 g

= 200 g (molar mass)

4 6 1023 atoms 200 g

1 atom –2320010

4 6

= 8.33 10–23 g

86. Answer (3)

An element or a compound.

87. Answer (2)

2 24 4CrSO Cr SO

2 22 4 3 4Cr (SO ) 2Cr 3SO

2 24Cr SO ∵ Sulphates are equal in number

3 242Cr 3SO

2

3

Cr3 : 2

Cr

88. Answer (4)

2 3Na CO 3 21 mole1mole

BaCO BaO CO

9.850.05

197 0.05 × 22.4

= 1.12 L

89. Answer (2)

2H2

+ O2

2H2O

2 mole 1 mole 2 mole

taken 102

1 mole 5 mole

Oxygen is limiting reagent so water formed

is 2 mole = 36 g

(5)

BOTANY

90. Answer (1)

W = 98 kg = 98 × 103 g

M = 98 g /mol

398n 10

98 = 1 × 103

91. Answer (4)

Consciousness.

92. Answer (4)

In single-celled organisms there is no clear usage of

growth and reproduction.

93. Answer (1)

Kingdom – Plantae

Division – Angiospermae.

94. Answer (3)

Taxonomic categories which contain one or more

related genera is family.

95. Answer (3)

Morphological features

96. Answer (1)

Scientific name is italicised in printed form.

Generic name is followed by specific name.

Specific name starts with small letter.

97. Answer (3)

Systematics is taxonomy and phylogeny.

98. Answer (2)

99. Answer (3)

Wheat, mango belong to species level.

100. Answer (4)

Keys are based on pair of contrasting characters

called couplet.

101. Answer (3)

102. Answer (2)

103. Answer (2)

NBG – National Botanical Garden

IBG – Indian Botanical Garden

RBG – Royal Botanical Garden

MGB – Main Botanical Garden

104. Answer (3)

ICNB – International Code for Nomenclature of

Bacteria

105. Answer (2)

106. Answer (2)

Botanical Garden – Plants

Zoological Park – Animals

107. Answer (2)

Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae belong to orderPolymoniales.

Poaceae belongs to Poales.

Anacardiaceae belongs to Sapindales.

108. Answer (3)

109. Answer (3)

Tribe and variety are intermediate categories.

110. Answer (4)

Systematics.

111. Answer (2)

Wheat – Poaceae

Potato, Brinjal – Solanaceae

Mango – Anacardiaceae

112. Answer (4)

113. Answer (4)

The name of author is never underlined.

114. Answer (4)

115. Answer (3)

Metabolism is a defining feature.

116. Answer (3)

117. Answer (2)

118. Answer (3)

ICBN – International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

119. Answer (4)

Properties of tissues arise by interaction betweenconstitutent cells.

No. of molecules = 6.022 × 1026

No. of molecules left = (6.022 × 1026 – 3.01 × 1025)

= 5.721 × 1026

No. of moles left 26

323

5.721 100.95 10

6.022 10

(6)

120. Answer (2)

Genus + species + Author’s name.

121. Answer (2)

Both dicots.

122. Answer (3)

Aggregates of related species.

123. Answer (2)

Family is a group of related genera.

124. Answer (3)

Class.

125. Answer (4)

Common characters less at higher categories level.

126. Answer (1)

Herbarium, Museum

ZOOLOGY

136. Answer (3)

All members of kingdom animalia are multicellular,but they do not exhibit same pattern of organisationof cells, coelom and segmentation.

137. Answer (3)

Schistosoma is blood fluke, which feeds on RBCsand causes severe anaemia called asSchistosomiasis.

138 Answer (3)

139. Answer (2)

140. Answer (4)

Poriferans are generally in marine water butSpongilla is fresh water sponge.

141. Answer (4)

Roundworms are free living or can be parasites inboth animals and plants.

142. Answer (2)

Ancylostoma (Hookworm).

143. Answer (2)

144. Answer (3)

145. Answer (4)

146. Answer (2)

147. Answer (4)

148. Answer (2)

149. Answer (2)

For Taenia solium human is primary host and pigserves as intermediate host.

150. Answer (3)

151. Answer (4)

Sponges have cellular level of organisation andintracellular digestion.

152. Answer (4)

Once the cnidocytes are discharged they cannot bereused again. They migrate to gastrovascular cavityand are digested.

153. Answer (2)

Metagenesis is a characteristic of hydrozoansexcept Hydra.

154. Answer (2)

155. Answer (2)

156. Answer (2)

157. Answer (2)

C is Adamsia (sea-anemone), an anthozoan, existonly in polyp form.

158. Answer (4)

159. Answer (2)

160. Answer (4)

In ctenophora sexes are not separate.

161. Answer (4)

162. Answer (2)

163. Answer (4)

164. Answer (4)

Digestion only intracellular.

165. Answer (1)

Meandrina - Brain coral.

127. Answer (3)

Key.

128. Answer (2)

129. Answer (1)

Salmonella – ICNB

Mango – ICBN

Drosophila – ICZN

130. Answer (4)

131. Answer (1)

132. Answer (4)

Polymoniales - Dicots

Poales - Monocots

133. Answer (3)

134. Answer (4)

135. Answer (3)

Variety – Sub categories

(7)

166. Answer (2)

167. Answer (4)

168. Answer (3)

169. Answer (4)

Platyhelminthes don’t show cellular level oforganisation.

170. Answer (4)

Phylum - Ctenophora.

171. Answer (2)

- Cnidaria has cnidoblasts but ctenophora lack it

- Ctenophora has tissue level of organisation.

172. Answer (1)

Ascaris is round worm.

173. Answer (3)

Scypha is sponge.

174. Answer (3)

Physalia belongs to phylum coelenterata. Digestionis both intracellular and extra cellular.

175. Answer (1)

Planaria is one free living platyhelminth.

176. Answer (1)

Obelia shows Polyp and Medusa forms during its lifecycle.

177. Answer (4)

It has internal fertilisation.

178 Answer (1)

Wuchereria is round worm - Pseudocoelom

179. Answer (3)

Radula is present in mollusc.

180. Answer (3)Hydra is Cnidarian.

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