ONLINE TEST –1 - Aakash Institute | Aakash IIT-JEE India Aakash Test Series-2015 Online Test - 1...

1/16

Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2015

A N S W E R S

1. (3)2. (2)3. (4)4. (4)5. (2)6. (3)7. (2)8. (3)9. (2)10. (2)11. (4)12. (4)13. (4)14. (1)15. (2)16. (3)17. (4)18. (2)19. (1)20. (2)21. (3)22. (2)23. (4)24. (2)25. (3)26. (4)27. (3)28. (1)29. (2)30. (1)31. (2)32. (3)33. (2)34. (4)35. (3)36. (3)

37. (2)38. (2)39. (4)40. (2)41. (4)42. (2)43. (2)44. (1)45. (2)46. (2)47. (2)48. (2)49. (3)50. (4)51. (3)52. (1)53. (1)54. (2)55. (1)56. (3)57. (2)58. (4)59. (1)60. (3)61. (3)62. (2)63. (4)64. (1)65. (3)66. (4)67. (2)68. (1)69. (2)70. (3)71. (1)72. (3)

73. (4)74. (2)75. (4)76. (4)77. (2)78. (2)79. (2)80. (2)81. (3)82. (2)83. (3)84. (3)85. (1)86. (4)87. (2)88. (2)89. (3)90. (2)91. (4)92. (2)93. (3)94. (1)95. (4)96. (1)97. (4)98. (3)99. (3)100. (4)101. (2)102. (2)103. (4)104. (1)105. (1)106. (3)107. (4)108. (1)

109. (4)110. (2)111. (4)112. (2)113. (3)114. (2)115. (3)116. (2)117. (3)118. (1)119. (3)120. (2)121. (4)122. (2)123. (2)124. (3)125. (4)126. (2)127. (1)128. (4)129. (2)130. (2)131. (3)132. (1)133. (2)134. (3)135. (4)136. (2)137. (3)138. (1)139. (2)140. (2)141. (2)142. (3)143. (4)144. (2)

145. (2)146 (4)147. (2)148. (3)149. (4)150. (2)151. (2)152. (3)153. (4)154. (4)155. (2)156. (4)157. (3)158. (3)159. (1)160. (3)161. (3)162. (3)163. (1)164. (3)165. (2)166. (4)167. (3)168. (2)169. (2)170. (3)171. (3)172. (4)173. (4)174. (3)175. (3)176. (3)177. (2)178. (2)179. (2)180. (2)

ONLINE TEST – 1

All India Aakash Test Series-2015 Online Test - 1 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

2/14

Hints to Selected Questions[ PHYSICS ]

1. Answer (3)

213 3 5 62

− + − =t t t

⇒ 3t2 – 16t – 12 = 0⇒ t = 6 s

2. Answer (2)

2 365

3

ss sv v

=+

+

⇒ 5 v2 – 21 v – 54 = 0⇒ v = 6 m/s

3. Answer (4)4. Answer (4)

2 21 12 8( 2)2 2

= −t t

⇒ t = 2t – 4⇒ t = 4 sv = 0 + 2 × 4 = 8 m/s

5. Answer (2)

0 0

6v t

dv tdt=∫ ∫

⇒ v = 3t2

⇒ x = t3

3 35 1 124 31m/s5 1 4

v −= = =

−

6. Answer (3)

22 2 256 4 8

= + ⎫⎬

= + ⎭

u au a

⇒ u = 8 m/sa = 3 m/s2

7. Answer (2)8. Answer (3)9. Answer (2)

Distance 20 20 100 1.4|Displacement| 100

+ += =


3/14

10. Answer (2)

25 9 225 m10

× = = =h h

11. Answer (4)

12. Answer (4)

21

1

2 21 2

112 11 4( )

2

= ⇒ =+

at tta t t


923 3(3 )

ss sv v

=+

⇒ v = 5 m/s


2 21 200200 2 . 1002 20

v g v⎛ ⎞= − ⇒ =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

⇒ v = ±10 m/s18. Answer (2)

2 2 2 1 s10 6

htg a

×= = =

− −

19. Answer (1)

=dv k vdt

⇒ 2 2

1/2

0 0 4

v t k tv dv k dt v− = ⇒ =∫ ∫


2 2 6 4 m/s2 36 3 2 3 4

ss s s

×= =

+ +× ×

22. Answer (2)

1 15 (2 1) 9 [2( 2) 1]2 2

a n a n− = − −

⇒ 10n – 5 = 18n – 45⇒ 8n = 40⇒ n = 5


4/14

23. Answer (4)

2120 20 2 1752

+ − =t t t

⇒ t2 – 40t + 175 = 0⇒ t = 5 s, 35 s

24. Answer (2)

2

12

2 152

=⎛ ⎞

+⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

ug

ug

g

⇒ u = 10 m/s25. Answer (3)

2 21 150 4 10 4 4 2402 2

a⎛ ⎞× − × × + =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

⇒ 8a = 120⇒ a = 15 m/s2

26. Answer (4)

3

3 33 1 13 m/s2

x t

v

=

−= =


22

2

3 2 (4m)6.25 m5

0 2

u u as

u as

⎫⎛ ⎞ = − ⎪⎜ ⎟ ⇒ =⎬⎝ ⎠⎪

= − ⎭


21

1MLT[ ] MTLT

F bv b−

−−

= ⇒ = =

32. Answer (3)33. Answer (2)34. Answer (4)35. Answer (3)

Percenage error is least in option (3).36. Answer (3)


5/14

37. Answer (2)joule/erg = 107

38. Answer (2)

21 22

Δ Δ= ⇒ =

h th gth t


2 5 22

[ ][ ] [ ] [ ] [ ] ML T[ ]aP a p vv

−= ⇒ = =

[b] = [v] = L3

∴ [a b] = ML8T–2

41. Answer (4)Graph may be parabola.

42. Answer (2)Tangent cannot be unique.

43. Answer (2)Relative acceleration has magnitude 6 m/s2 which is constant.


[ CHEMISTRY ]

46. Answer (2)

Number of neutrons = A A44 12 N 24 N22

× × = .

47. Answer (2)

48. Answer (2)

3

2 4

Wt. of oxygen in HNO 48 3Wt. of oxygen in H SO 64 4

= =

49. Answer (3)

B

A water

x 1000 0.12 100mx M 0.88 18

= × = ×

50. Answer (4)

Mass of molecule of oxygen = A

32N

51. Answer (3)

n-factor of H2SO4 will be taken as 1 as only one H+ ion is removed during the reaction.


6/14

52. Answer (1)

A

20018x 0.84200 120

18 60

= =+

53. Answer (1)

Number of neutrons = A A A2.5 8 N 1.05 N N19

× × = ≈

54. Answer (2)

5 0.9 E 62E 11.2= ⇒ =

55. Answer (1)

22A

200 60 3 N 93.4 10232 100

× × × = ×

56. Answer (3)

H3PO2 is a monobasic acid.

57. Answer (2)

Mol. wt = (3 × 30) + (3 × 80) = 330 g

58. Answer (4)

Oxalic acid can act both as a monobasic and dibasic acid.

59. Answer (1)

60. Answer (3)

Eq. wt. of K2C2O4 is M2

.

61. Answer (3)

2NH3(g) ⎯→ N2(g) + 3H2(g)

n ∝ v (at constant T and P)

62. Answer (2)

Moles of O2 will be less.

63. Answer (4)

Valence electrons = 3.5 × 8 × NA

Total electrons = 3.5 × 10 × NA

64. Answer (1)

1 1 2 2N V N VN(mixture)V(in L)+

=

65. Answer (3)


7/14

66. Answer (4)

Eq. wt. = 563

67. Answer (2)

3 2MgCO MgO COΔ⎯⎯→ + , 2 3Na CO No RnΔ⎯⎯→

3120 84 0.45g of MgCO

22400× =

0.45% 100 25%1.8

= × =

68. Answer (1)

2 2 3

32 A O Al O2

+ ⎯⎯→

2 × 27g A ≡ 48 g of O2

4816.2g 16.2 14.4 g2 27

⎯⎯→ × =×

69. Answer (2)

Equivalents of acid = equivalents of NaOH.

70. Answer (3)

203

23

10 46 7.64 10 g6.02 10

−× = ××

71. Answer (1)

3 moles of Mg ⎯→ 1 mole of Mg3(PO4)2

0.5 moles of Mg ⎯→ 1 0.5 0.16 moles3× =

72. Answer (3)

73. Answer (4)

74. Answer (2)

Apply POAC

75. Answer (4)

3 22KClO 2KCl 3OΔ⎯⎯→ +

2 ⎯→ 3 moles O2

1.5 ⎯→ 3 1.52×

H2 + O2 ⎯→ H2O2

31.5 moles

2×

31.5 moles

2×

1 mole of H2O2 will be formed.


8/14

76. Answer (4)

77. Answer (2)

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⎯→ 2SO3(g)

6 6 0

6 – 3.6 6 – 1.8 3.6

Weight of SO3 formed = 3.6 × 3SOM

78. Answer (2)

BaCl2(aq.) + H2SO4(aq.)⎯→ BaSO4(s) + 2HCl(aq.)300 ml 200 ml0.2 M 0.2 M

Conc. of Ba2+ = 3100 10 0.2 1000 0.04 M

500

−× ×× =

79. Answer (2)

2 2Zn HCl ZnCl H+ ⎯⎯→ + ↑65 g 22.4 L at STP

1.12 1.12moles 65 3.25 g of Zn22.4 22400

⎯⎯→ × =

% purity of sample = 3.25 100 25%13

× =

80. Answer (2)

81. Answer (3)

3 4

34

H PO

8.2 10 1000 3N 16.3 10 NM 150

−−× × ×

= = ××

82. Answer (2)

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ⎯→ CaCO3 + H2O500 ml

3500 100 2.23 g of CaCO

22400× =

83. Answer (3)

2 KOH + H2SO4 ⎯→ K2SO4 + 2H2O

1 mole ≡ 49 g H2SO4

40% pure H2SO4

∴ Weight of 2 4100H SO 49 122.5 g40

= × =

84. Answer (3)

445 moles 22.4 L of CH gas16

×


9/14

85. Answer (1)

Mol. mass = 2 × v.d. = 48 g

48 g ⎯→ 22.4 L at STP

10 g ⎯→ 22.4 10 4.66 L48

× =

86. Answer (4)

40 W39 27

=

∴ AW 27.69 g=

87. Answer (2)

4.48 m3 of N2 gas

= A A

4.48 1000 14 N 2800 N22.4×

× × =

88. Answer (2)

glucose

40180x 0.04740 80

180 18

= =+

89. Answer (3)

N = M × n.f

n-factor for Ba3(PO4)2 is 6

90. Answer (2)

20 1000N 3.33 N60 100

= × =

[ BIOLOGY ]91. Answer (4)

Increase in mass, increase in number of individuals.92. Answer (2)

Photosynthetic prokaryotes e.g. Anabaena.93. Answer (3)

Human and housefly are similar in kingdom category.94. Answer (1)95. Answer (4)

All (1), (2) & (3) are correct96. Answer (1)97. Answer (4)

Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at the same level.98. Answer (3)


10/14

99. Answer (3)Unicellular organisms.


Facultative anaerobes, heterotrophs.103. Answer (4)

Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics.104. Answer (1)

No non-living object is capable of reproduction.105. Answer (1)

Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients.106. Answer (3)

Cocci, Bacilli, Spirilla, Vibrio107. Answer (4)

As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characters goes on decreasing.108. Answer (1)

It is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.109. Answer (4)

Two kingdom classification.110. Answer (2)

They form blooms in polluted water bodies. They have chlorophyll-a.111. Answer (4)112. Answer (2)113. Answer (3)114. Answer (2)115. Answer (3)

Division → for plants.116. Answer (2)

Mangifera is multicellular organism.117. Answer (3)

Monera, Protista, Plantae118. Answer (1)

Mango – SpeciesDicots – ClassPlants – Kingdom


Pathogen121. Answer (4)

Both (2) & (3)


11/14

122. Answer (2)

Prokaryotes

123. Answer (2)

They reproduce mainly by binary fission.

124. Answer (3)

In five kingdom system → Monera.

In six kingdom system → Eubacteria.

125. Answer (4)

126. Answer (2)

127. Answer (1)

128. Answer (4)

129. Answer (2)

130. Answer (2)

Four kingdom system → Plantae, Animalia, Protista

Six kingdom system → Plantae, Animalia, Protista, Fungi

131. Answer (3)

It is a prokaryote.

132. Answer (1)

Phycobilins are present in BGA.

133. Answer (2)

ds-DNA

134. Answer (3)

Methanogens → guts of ruminant animals.

135. Answer (4)

Insecta – Class.

136. Answer (2)

In Porifera, the level of organization is cellular, in cnidaria and ctenophores there is tissue level of organization,in platyhelminthes organ level and from aschehelminthes to chordata organ-system level of organization is present.

137. Answer (3)

Radial symmetry is present in coelenterate, ctenophora and in adult echinoderms.

138. Answer (1)

Fasciola is triploblastic and acoelomate. Ancyclostoma and Wuchereria are triploblastic and pseudocoelomate.

139. Answer (2)

Metamerism is found in Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata. Gorgonia is sea fan, belonging to phylum porifera.Pheretima and Nereis are Annelids, whereas Anopheles and Locusta are arthropods.

140. Answer (2)

Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate organisms.

141. Answer (2)

Ascaris, Ancyclostoma, starfish, Schistosoma are dioecious. Spongilla is hermaphrodite.


12/14

142. Answer (3)

In Honeybee, Culex - Fertilization internal

In Nereis, Earthworm - Double ventral nerve cord

In Taenia, Fasciola - Internal fertilization

143. Answer (4)

Asterias, Ophiothrix, Echinus, Holothuria all belong to phylum Echinodermata.

144. Answer (2)

In Ascaris tube-within-tube body plan is present. In Taenia sexes are not separate, Pleurobrachia belongs to phylumctenophora.

145. Answer (2)

In Prawn the respiratory organs are gills, in Ascaris fertilization is internal and development is indirect.

146 Answer (4)

Water vascular system in echinoderms helps in food capturing, respiration and locomotion.

147. Answer (2)

148. Answer (3)

Interstitial cells are totipotent cells in phylum coelenterata giving rise to gametes.

149. Answer (4)

Aplysia is sea-hare, belongs to phylum molluscs.

150. Answer (2)

In Porifera intracellular digestion occurs while in coelenterata and ctenophora intercellular and intracellular digestionboth occur.

151. Answer (2)

Ascaris is pseudocoelomate and dioecious. Tubifex is schizocoelomic and hermaphrodite, while Lucifer isschizocoelomic and dioecious.

152. Answer (3)

Only longitudinal muscle layer is present in Ascaris.

153. Answer (4)

Botryoidal tissues are found in class Hirudinea.

154. Answer (4)

Trochophore larva is a basic larva of Annelida and Mollusca.

155. Answer (2)

Presence of wings is a characteristic of class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.

156. Answer (4)

Palaeomon (Prawn) belongs to class crustacea of phylum Arthropoda.

157. Answer (3)

Respiratory pigment is absent in class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.

158. Answer (3)

Cephalothorax, two pair of antennae biramous appendages are present in class crustacea of phylum Arthropoda.

159. Answer (1)

Body wall of earthworm is without appendages, earthworm moves with the help of setae and circular andlongitudinal muscles. In earthworm fertilization is external in cocoon.


13/14

160. Answer (3)

Annelids are first to evolve true metameric segmentation.

161. Answer (3)

Eggs - Naiad - Adult are stages which occur in Hemimetabolous development which is present in May flies andDragon flies.

162. Answer (3)

In grasshopper - Cutting and chewing type

In butterflies - Siphoning type

In Housefly - Sponging type

163. Answer (1)

Because of three pairs of legs class insecta is also known as Hexapoda.

164. Answer (3)

In Palamneus simple eyes are present and are viviparous.

165. Answer (2)

In Lepisma and Julus respiratory organs are trachea.

166. Answer (4)

Aedes is a vector for dengue fever.

167. Answer (3)

Osphradium is a chemoreceptor present in mantle cavity of many molluscs.

168. Answer (2)

Pinctada vulgaris is Indian pearl oyster.

169. Answer (2)

Pila is a gastropod and shows torsion during embryonic development.

170. Answer (3)

Schistostoma, Fasciola, Echinococcus, Hymenolepsis all belong to phylum Platyhelminthes.

171. Answer (3)

Mantle is a characteristic feature of phylum Mollusca.

172. Answer (4)

There is closed circulatory system in earthworm.

173. Answer (4)

Haemocynin pigment is absent in Echinoderms.

174. Answer (3)

Aristotle’s Lantern is used for the mastication present in the buccal cavity of Echinus.

175. Answer (3)

Dipleura larva is considered a basic larva of Echinodermata, Hemichordata and Chordata.

176. Answer (3)

Compound eyes are present in class Crustacea and Insecta of phylum Arthropoda, radula is absent in Pelecypodaclass of phylum Mollusca. Parapodia are absent in earthworm and Leech.

177. Answer (2)

Heart is dorsal in Balanoglossus.


14/14

178. Answer (2)

After first moulting in soil, the larva is called second stage larva. This is the infective stage of larva to mass ofAscaris.

179. Answer (2)

Alimentary canal is absent in Taenia solium.

180. Answer (2)

The intermediate host of Fasciola and Schistosoma is snail. Culex is the vector for Wuchereria.

Online Test - 1 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2015

1/29

TOPIC COVERED

PHYSICSPhysical World and Measurement, Kinematics-I: Frame of reference, Motion in a straight line; Position-time graph,

Speed and velocity. Uniform and non-uniform motion, Average speed and instantaneous velocity. Uniformlyaccelerated motion, Velocity-time and Position-time graphs, For uniformly accelerated motion (graphical treatment).

Elementary concepts of differentiation and integration for describing motion

CHEMISTRYSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry

BIOLOGYDiversity in Living World: What is living? ; Biodiversity; Need for classification; Three domains of life; Taxonomy &Systematics; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial nomenclature; Tools for study of Taxonomy,

Five kingdom classification; salient features and classification of Monera, Salient Features and classification ofanimals-non chordate up to phyla level

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 720

All India Aakash Test Series-2015Online Test – 1

1. Two particles are separated by 6 m on x-axis. One on right starts moving in the +ve x-direction with a constantspeed of 5 m/s and the other in negative x-direction with initial speed 3 m/s and retardation3 m/s2. The time after which particles meet is(1) 8 s(2) 4 s(3) 6 s(4) 10 s

2. Two points A and B are located on a straight line. A particle moves from A to B with speed 4 m/s and then returnsback to A moving on the same straight line with a speed 3 m/s. The average velocity for the journey is(1) 2 m/s(2) Zero(3) 5 m/s(4) 8 m/s

3. A particle moves 44 m on a straight line with a speed of 10 m/s and then returns to the starting point followingsame straight line with a speed of 15 m/s. The average speed for the whole journey is(1) 12.5 m/s(2) 25 m/s(3) 11 m/s(4) 12 m/s

[ PHYSICS]

Choose the correct answer :

All India Aakash Test Series-2015 Online Test - 1 (Objective)

2/29

4. Two particles A and B start from the same point and move along a straight line with accelerations 2 m/s2 and8 m/s2. They cross a common point where B reaches 2 s before A. The speed with which A crosses that pointis

(1) 4 m/s

(2) 16 m/s

(3) 6 m/s

(4) 8 m/s

5. A particle initially at rest starts with an acceleration a = 6t in the +ve x-direction. The average velocity of theparticle from t = 1 s to t = 5 s is

(1) 22 m/s

(2) 31 m/s

(3) 12 m/s

(4) 13 m/s

6. A particle moving on a straight line covers 22 m in first 2 s and 34 m in the next 2 s. The initial velocity andacceleration of the particle assuming it to be uniformly accelerated is

(1) 3 m/s, 8 m/s2

(2) 4 m/s, 6 m/s2

(3) 8 m/s, 3 m/s2

(4) 1 m/s, 15 m/s2

7. A body is thrown vertically upward with a speed 55 m/s. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2, then displacementof the body in 6th second is equal to

(1) 2.5 m

(2) Zero

(3) 5 m

(4) 3.75 m

8. Choose correct statement for a straight line motion

(1) Only +ve constant acceleration can increase speed of a particle

(2) Only +ve variable acceleration can increase speed of a particle

(3) +ve acceleration, constant or variable can increase or decrease speed of a particle

(4) Only –ve acceleration can decrease speed of a particle

9. A man standing on a 100 m tall building throws a ball vertically upwards with a speed of 20 m/s. The ratio ofdistance covered to | displacement | suffered till it reaches ground is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1

(2) 1.4

(3) 2

(4) 1.2

10. A ball is projected vertically upwards at a height h at times t = 5 s and t = 9 s. The value of h is(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 100 m

(2) 225 m

(3) 250 m

(4) 140 m


3/29

11. For a particle moving on a straight line with variable velocity, average velocity of the particle in any time interval

(1) May be less than initial velocity for that time interval

(2) May be more than initial velocity for that time interval

(3) May be equal to initial velocity for that time interval

(4) All of these

12. A particle starts from rest and moves along a straight line with uniform acceleration. The ratio of time taken tocover successive distances in the ratio of 1 : 3 is

(1) 1 : 4

(2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 3

(4) 1 : 1

13. For |displacement| > distance on a straight line

(1) Velocity must never be zero

(2) Velocity may be zero at an instant

(3) Velocity must be zero at an instant

(4) The above situation is unrealistic

14. A particle moving on a straight line covers one-third of the total distance with a speed v and then triples hisspeed to cover the remaining distance. If average speed of the particle is 9 m/s, then the value of v is

(1) 5 m/s

(2) 4 m/s

(3) 3 m/s

(4) 8 m/s

15. If acceleration of a particle moving in a straight line is constant and positive then the displacement- time graphis a

(1) Straight line passing through origin

(2) Parabola concave upward

(3) Parabola concave downward

(4) Semicircle with centre at origin

16. A body projected vertically upwards reaches a maximum height of 9x. If t1, t2 and t3 are the time taken to cover5x, 3x and x respectively during its ascent, then t1 : t2 : t3 is

(1) 1 : 3 : 5

(2) 5 : 3 : 1

(3) 1 : 1 : 1

(4) 1 : 4 : 9

17. A body is projected upwards with velocity 10 2 m/s . Its velocity at half of the maximum height is

(1) 10 m/s

(2) –10 m/s

(3) 20 m/s

(4) Both (1) & (2)


4/29

18. A lift is moving upwards with a deceleration of 6 m/s2. A ball is dropped from the ceiling of the lift. If floor toceiling distance of the lift is 2 m, then the time taken by the ball to strike the floor of the lift is :(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.7 s

(2) 1 s

(3) 2 s

(4) 0.5 s

19. The acceleration of a particle moving along x-axis varies with velocity as =a k v . The velocity-time graph ofthe particle for k > 0 may be

(1)

v

o t

(2)

v

o t

(3)

v

o t

(4)

v

o t

20. A particle moves along x-axis according to the equation x = 2t2. The distance travelled by it in first 4 s will be

(1) 8 m

(2) 32 m

(3) 4 m

(4) 16 m

21. A particle covers first half of total distance with speed 6 m/s, one-third of remaining distance with speed 2 m/sand the rest distance with speed 4 m/s. The average speed for whole journey is

(1) 7 m/s

(2) 5 m/s

(3) 4 m/s

(4) 3 m/s


5/29

22. Particle 1 starts from rest with acceleration 5a and particle 2 starts from the same point with acceleration 9afrom rest after 2 s along the same straight line. If they cover same distances in nth second from start of 1 thenn is(1) 6(2) 5(3) 4(4) 7

23. Speed-time graph of two particles initially separated by 175 m and approaching each other is as shown below.Time after which particles meet is

v(m/s)

0 t(s)10

20

(1) 3 s(2) 10 s(3) 4 s(4) 5 s

24. A particle is projected vertically upwards with speed u from a point 15 m above the ground. If the ratio of timeof ascent to time of descent is 1 : 2, then u is(1) 5 m/s(2) 10 m/s(3) 20 m/s(4) 15 m/s

25. A ball is projected vertically upwards from the bottom of a 240 m high building with a speed of 50 m/s. At thesame time, a diwali rocket is fired vertically downwards from the top of the building along the same vertical line.If collision takes place after 4 s, then the downward acceleration of rocket is (g = 10 m/s2)(1) 20 m/s2

(2) 10 m/s2

(3) 15 m/s2

(4) 12 m/s2

26. The velocity of a particle moving along x-axis varies with time t as v = 3t2. The average velocity of the particlefrom t = 1 s to t = 3 s is(1) 15 m/s(2) 27 m/s(3) 3 m/s(4) 13 m/s

27. A bullet fired with a speed of 40 m/s into a banana tree comes out of it with a speed of 30 m/s. If thedisplacement inside the banana tree is 20 cm, then retardation to the bullet is(1) 3500 m/s2

(2) 7000 m/s2

(3) 1750 m/s2

(4) 875 m/s2


6/29

28. When brakes are applied to a car, it loses 40% of its speed in moving 4 m. The total braking distance assuminguniform retardation is

(1) 6.25 m

(2) 6 m

(3) 8 m

(4) 10 m

29. Dimensional formula for energy is

(1) [M1L1T1]

(2) [M1L2T–2]

(3) [M1L1T–2]

(4) [M1L2T–1]

30. The value of 10.5 – 8.352 is

(1) 2.1

(2) 2.15

(3) 2.148

(4) 2.2

31. The damping force of a simple harmonic oscillator is proportional to velocity. The unit of constant of proportionallyis

(1) kgm–1s–1

(2) kgs–1

(3) kgms–1

(4) kgms–2

32. If force (F), velocity (v) and acceleration (a) are fundamental quantities in a system, then dimensional formulaof mass is

(1) [F1v1a1]

(2) [F1v2a–1]

(3) [F1v0a–1]

(4) [F1v0a1]

33. Viscous force (F) is given by F = 6πηarbvc where η = coefficient of viscosity of liquid, r = radius of ball and v =speed of ball in liquid. The values of a, b and c are

(1) a = –1, b = 1, c = 4

(2) a = 1, b = 1, c = 1

(3) a = 2, b = 1, c = 2

(4) a = 1, b = 2, c = 3

34. Electromagnetic force and weak nuclear force were unified by

(1) Glashow

(2) Salam

(3) Weinberg

(4) All of them


7/29

35. Which of the following is most accurate?(1) 0.05 m(2) 50 × 10–3 m(3) 500 × 10–4 m(4) 5 × 10–2 m

36. Which of the following force is responsible for conversion of neutron into proton?(1) Gravitational force(2) Electromagnetic force(3) Weak nuclear force(4) Strong nuclear force

37. The ratio of unit of energy in S.I. unit to that in C.G.S. unit is(1) 105

(2) 107

(3) 103

(4) 138. If the height from which an object is dropped is decreased by 1%, then the percentage decrease in time taken

to hit the ground is(1) 1%(2) 0.5%(3) 2%(4) 3%

39. Electromagnetic force(1) May be attractive as well as repulsive(2) Is conservative in nature(3) Is a central force(4) All of these

40. van der Waal equation of state for 1 mole of an ideal gas is 2 ( )aP V b RTV

⎛ ⎞+ − =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

. The dimensional formula

for ab is(1) [ML3T–5](2) [ML8T–2](3) [ML8T–3](4) [ML5T–2]

41. For a particle moving along x-axis, position-time graph is as shown. The acceleration of the particle

x

0 t

(1) Is negative(2) Is positive(3) May be constant(4) Both (2) & (3)


8/29

42. At a point where position-time graph takes sharp turn

(1) Velocity is zero

(2) Velocity is undefined

(3) Velocity is infinite

(4) May be (1) or (3)

43. Two particles 1 and 2 start from rest from origin and move in opposite directions on x-axis. If magnitude ofacceleration of each particle is 3 m/s2, then the relative position when plotted against time is a

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola

(3) Circle

(4) Cycloid

44. If velocity of a particle moving in +x-direction is proportional to time, the displacement-time graph may be

(1)

x

o t

(2)

x

o t

(3)

x

o t

(4)

x

o t

45. If x = t3 – 3t2, then its initial acceleration is

(1) 6 m/s2

(2) –6 m/s2

(3) 3 m/s2

(4) –3 m/s2


9/29

[ CHEMISTRY ]46. The number of neutrons present in 44 g of 14CD4 is

(1) 12 NA

(2) 24 NA

(3) 6 NA

(4) 3 NA

47. The weight of P4O10 which contains 15 g of phosphorous is

(1) 73.33 g

(2) 34.35 g

(3) 25.14 g

(4) 55 g

48. The ratio of weight of oxygen in 1 mole each of HNO3 and H2SO4 is

(1)43

(2)34

(3)23

(4)35

49. Mole fraction of solute in an aqueous solution is 0.12. The molality of solution is

(1) 2.34

(2) 4.87

(3) 7.57

(4) Cannot be calculated

50. The mass of a molecule of oxygen is

(1) 2.65 × 10–23 g

(2) 1.66 × 10–24 g

(3) 16 g

(4) 53.12 × 10–24 g

51. Consider the given reaction :

NaOH + H2SO4 ⎯→ NaHSO4 + H2O

The equivalent weight of H2SO4 in the given reaction is : (M = Molar mass of H2SO4)

(1)M2

(2)M4

(3) M

(4) Data insufficient


10/29

52. 120 g urea (NH2 – CO – NH2) is dissolved in 200 g of water. Mole fraction of solvent is

(1) 0.84

(2) 0.16

(3) 0.39

(4) 0.26

53. The number of neutrons present in 2.5 g of H3O+ ion is

(1) AN≈

(2) A2N≈

(3) A1.5 N≈

(4) A3N≈

54. 5 g of a metal (M) when reacts with an acid produces 0.9 L of H2 gas at STP. The equivalent weight of themetal (M) is nearly

(1) 124

(2) 62

(3) 31.5

(4) 45

55. A 200 g sample of Fe3O4 is 60% pure. The number of iron atoms present in it are : (At. wt. of Fe = 56)

(1) 93.4 × 1022

(2) 15.56 × 1023

(3) 7.28 × 1024

(4) 2.35 × 1025

56. The equivalent weight of H3PO2 acting as an acid can be : (M is molar mass of H3PO2)

(1)M3

(2)M2

(3) M

(4) All of these

57. The equivalent weight of a trivalent metal is 30. The molecular weight of its bromide is (At. wt. of Br = 80)

(1) 120 g/mole

(2) 330 g/mole

(3) 240 g/mole

(4) Cannot be calculated58. The equivalent weight of oxalic acid (H2C2O4), when it reacts with NaOH may be

(1) 90(2) 45(3) 30

(4) Both (1) & (2)


11/29

59. The equivalent weight of a substance is the weight which combines with or displaces(1) 8 g oxygen(2) 36.5 g of chlorine(3) 11.2 L of O2

(4) All are correct60. The incorrect statement is

(1) H3BO3 is a monobasic acid(2) NH3 is a monoacidic base

(3) Equivalent weight of K2C2O4 is M3

(4) All are correct61. 25 ml of NH3 on heating forms N2 and H2 at a given temperature and pressure. The change in volume

(1) Increases by 75 ml(2) Decreases by 12.5 ml(3) Increases by 25 ml(4) No change in volume

62. Equal weight of C and O2 are reacting with each other to form CO2. The correct statement is(1) C is the limiting reagent(2) O2 is the limiting reagent(3) Both will be completely consumed(4) Data is insufficient to predict

63. 3.5 moles of O2– ions contain(1) 28 NA valence electrons(2) 35 NA electrons(3) 25 NA electrons(4) Both (1) & (2)

64. 300 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 and 200 ml of 0.1 M HCl are mixed with each other. The normality of the resultingmixture is(1) 0.28 N(2) 0.14 N(3) 0.7 N(4) 0.35 N

65. Which of the following has highest mass?(1) 0.27 mole of N2O4

(2) 0.39 mole of CO(3) 0.75 mole of N2O(4) All have same weight

66. The equivalent weight of Fe in Fe2O3 is(1) 20(2) 40(3) 60(4) 18.66


12/29

67. 1.8 g of a sample containing MgCO3 and Na2CO3 is heated. The volume of CO2 gas evolved at STP is 120ml. The percentage of MgCO3 in the sample is(1) 37.5 %(2) 25 %(3) 60 %(4) 20 %

68. 54 g of 30% pure aluminium reacts completely with ‘x’ g of oxygen. What is the approx. weight of oxygen thatreacted with Al?(1) 14.4 g(2) 32 g(3) 96 g(4) 29 g

69. 2.5 g of an acid reacts completely with 3.5 g of NaOH. The equivalent weight of acid is(1) 56(2) 28.5(3) 10(4) 80

70. 1020 molecules of NO2 weighs :(1) 20 mg(2) 35.6 mg(3) 7.64 mg(4) 2.9 mg

71. How many moles of Mg3 (PO4)2 contain 0.5 moles of Mg?(1) 0.16 moles(2) 0.33 moles(3) 0.75 moles(4) 0.21 moles

72. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 is minimum when reacts in(1) Neutral medium(2) Alkaline medium(3) Acidic medium(4) Same in all medium

73. A flask contains 5.6 L of CO2 gas and 5.6 L of N2O gas at STP. Both gases contain(1) Same number of atoms(2) Same number of electrons(3) Same number of protons(4) All of these

74. One mole each of CO2 and KOH are reacted to form K2CO3. The number of mole of KOH left after reaction is(1) 1(2) Zero(3) 0.5(4) 0.25


13/29

75. The oxygen evolved on decomposition of 1.5 moles of KClO3 is allowed to react with 2 g of hydrogen gas toform H2O2. The correct statement is(1) Hydrogen will act as the limiting reagent during the reaction(2) Oxygen will act as the limiting reagent during the reaction(3) Maximum amount of H2O2 formed is 34 g(4) Both (1) & (3)

76. The number of atoms present in 64 g of CH4 is equal to that in(1) 72 g of H2O(2) 112 g of CO(3) 150 g of CCl4(4) 304 g of N2O3

77. In a closed vessel 6 mole each of SO2 and O2 are reacting to form SO3. 30% of O2 was found to be consumed.The correct statement is/are(1) 160 g of SO3 will be formed(2) 2.4 moles of SO2 will be left(3) 3.2 moles of O2 will be left unused(4) All are correct

78. 300 ml of 0.2 M BaCl2 and 200 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 are mixed with each other. The concentration of Ba2+ ionsin the resulting mixture will be(1) 0.02 M(2) 0.04 M(3) 0.01 M(4) 0.08 M

79. 13 g of a sample of Zn was reacted with HCl, 1.12 L of H2 gas at STP is produced. The percentage purity ofsample is (At. Wt. of Zn = 65)(1) 30%(2) 25%(3) 75%(4) 39%

80. If a sample of (NH4)2HPO3 contains 4.14 moles of hydrogen atoms, the number of moles of oxygen atoms inthe sample is(1) 0.56(2) 1.38(3) 2.57(4) 5.95

81. The approx. normality of a H3PO4 solution when 8.2 mg of it is dissolved in 150 ml solution, is(1) 5.4 × 10–2 N(2) 2.7 × 10–2 N(3) 16.7 × 10–4 N(4) 1.52 × 10–3 N

82. The weight of CaCO3 formed when 500 cc of CO2 gas (measured at STP) is bubbled through Ca(OH)2 is(1) 1.5 g(2) 2.23 g(3) 0.5 g(4) 5.64 g


14/29

83. The mass of 40% pure H2SO4 (by weight) required to react with one mole of KOH to form K2SO4 will be

(1) 1.75 g

(2) 6.75 g

(3) 122.5 g

(4) 150 g

84. Which of the following occupies maximum volume at STP?

(1) 1010 molecules of CO gas

(2) 2.5 moles of CO2 gas

(3) 45 g of CH4 gas

(4) 60 g of SO2 gas

85. If vapour density of a certain gas is 24, the volume occupied by 10 g of this gas at STP will be

(1) 4.66 L

(2) 2.48 L

(3) 7.79 L

(4) 3.48 L

86. The weight of aluminium having same number of atoms as 40 g of potassium is

(1) 18.6 g

(2) 9.85 g

(3) 65.4 g

(4) 27.69 g

87. The number of protons in 4.48 m3 of nitrogen gas at STP is

(1) 5600 NA

(2) 2800 NA

(3) 1400 NA

(4) 700 NA

88. The mole fraction of solute containing 40 g of glucose (C6H12O6) dissolved in 80 g of H2O is

(1) 0.22

(2) 0.047

(3) 0.03

(4) 0.01

89. Equimolar solutions of following compounds are taken. Which of the following has highest normality?

(1) Na3PO4

(2) Al(OH)3

(3) Ba3(PO4)2

(4) All have same normality

90. The normality of 20% (w / v) acetic acid solution is

(1) 1.23 N

(2) 3.33 N

(3) 0.45 N

(4) 0.7 N


15/29

91. (i) Increase in mass(ii) Differentiation(iii) Increase in number of individuals(iv) Response to stimuliWhich two features are known as the twin characteristics of growth?(1) (i) & (ii)(2) (i) & (iv)(3) (ii) & (iii)(4) (i) & (iii)

92. Among Spirogyra, Paramoecium, Chlorella, Anabaena, Methanobacterium, Amoeba, Mycoplasma and Triticumaestivum how many organisms have nucleoid as well as photosynthetic pigments?(1) Four(2) One(3) Two(4) Three

93. Among all seven obligate categories of taxonomic hierarchy, human and housefly are similar in how manycategories?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) One(4) Four

94. A. The scientific names ensure that each organism has only one name.

B. Animals, mammals and dogs represent taxa at different levels.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

(3) Only (A) is correct

(4) Only (B) is correct95. Which of the following is basis of modern taxonomic studies?

(1) External structure(2) Cytology(3) Ecological informations(4) More than one option is correct

96. Consider the following statements w.r.t. familyA. Families are characterised by both vegetative and reproductive features of plant species.B. Panthera and Felis are placed together in same family.(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect(3) Only (A) is correct(4) Only (B) is correct

[ BIOLOGY]


16/29

97. Find the level in taxonomic hierarchy where the problem of classification is most complex.(1) Genus(2) Species(3) Class(4) Kingdom

98. National Botanical Research Institute is located at(1) Kew(2) Howrah(3) Lucknow(4) Kolkata

99. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in:(I) Bacteria(II) Spirogyra(III) Planaria(IV) Unicellular algae(V) Amoeba(1) I, II and V(2) I, II and IV(3) I, IV and V(4) All of these

100. Which of the following statement is correct about bacteria?(1) Bacteria are simple in structure as well as behaviour(2) Bacteria are complex in structure as well as behaviour(3) Bacteria are complex in structure but simple in behaviour(4) Bacteria are simple in structure but complex in behaviour

101. Identify the correct labelling of the following figures

AB

C

(1) A - Cell wall, B - Cell membrane, C - Heterocyst(2) A - Cell wall, B-DNA, C - Heterocyst(3) A - Mucilagenous sheath, B - Cell membrane, C-DNA(4) A - Cell membrane, B - cell wall, C - DNA

102. Which of the following statements for Mycoplasma are correct?I. They lack a cell wall.II. They are the smallest living cells known.III. They can not survive without O2.


17/29

IV. They are pathogenic in animals and plants.

V. Most of the Mycoplasma are saprophytic and few are autotrophic.

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, II, IV

(3) I, II, III, V

(4) All are correct

103. (A) Biological names are generally in italics and printed in Roman scripts.

(B) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined, or printed in italics toindicate their Latin origin.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

(3) Only (A) is correct

(4) Only (B) is correct

104. Read the following statements:

(A) Growth and reproduction are key features of non- living objects.

(B) Planaria exhibits true regeneration.

(C) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are not living things but surely living reactions.

(D) Cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature of life forms

How many of the statements are incorrect?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four

105. Which of the following organisms play a great role in recycling nutrients like N, P and S?

(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

(2) Parasitic bacteria

(3) Photoautotrophic bacteria

(4) Symbiotic bacteria

106. Based upon the shape, bacteria are grouped under how many categories?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) One

107. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following category will have least number of common characters ascompared to others?

(1) Solanaceae

(2) Polymoniales

(3) Solanum

(4) Dicotyledonae


18/29

108. Consider the following statements w.r.t. herbarium

(A) Collection of living plants.

(B) Plant and animal specimens are preserved in the containers.

(C) Specimens, along with their description on herbarium sheets, become a store house or repository for futureuse.

(D) Quick refferal system for study of animals.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four

109. Earlier classification systems included bacteria, blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms and theangiosperms under ‘Plants’. The character that unified this whole kingdom was that all the organisms includedhad

(1) Autotrophic nutrition

(2) Eukaryotic cell organisation

(3) Contractile system

(4) A cell wall in their cells

110. Consider the following statements w.r.t. BGA

(A) Unicellular, colonial or filamentous.

(B) Fresh water, marine or terrestrial algae.

(C) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath.

(D) They do not form blooms in polluted water bodies.

(E) They have chlorophyll a and b.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Five

111. In museum, specimens are preserved and they can be used for

(1) Research purpose

(2) Study and reference

(3) Exhibition

(4) More than one option is correct

112. In museums, insects are preserved by

(1) Pinning without killing them and then preserving in containers

(2) Killing, pinning and then mounting in special boxes

(3) Mounting them alive in jars with various preservative solutions

(4) Pinning, killing and then stuffing them


19/29

113. (i) ___A___ : Actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area.

(ii) ___B___ : Alphabetical arrangement of species of a particular place describing their features.

(iii) ___C___ : Information on any one taxon.

Find out the correct option w.r.t. blanks A to C.

A B C(1) Monograph Flora Catalogue(2) Flora Monograph Catalogue

(3) Flora Catalogue Monograph(4) Flora Manual Monograph

114. A taxonomic key is used for ___A___ and each statement in the key is called ___B___.

(1) A – Conserving various plant speciesB – Couplet

(2) A – Identification of plants and animalsB – Lead

(3) A – Studying geography of a plantB – Category

(4) A – Nomenclature of plants and animals

B – Taxon115. Fill in the blanks A and B for animals:

Kingdom → A → Class → B → Family → Genus(1) A = Division, B = Phylum

(2) A = Division, B = Order(3) A = Phylum, B = Order

(4) A = Phylum, B = Species

116. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events for(1) Chlamydomonas

(2) Mangifera

(3) Chlorella

(4) Clostridium

117. According to five kingdom classification of Whittaker autotrophic members are included under how manykingdoms?(1) One

(2) Two(3) Three

(4) Four118. Mango, dicots and plants represent

(1) Different taxa at different levels

(2) Same taxa of different categories(3) Different taxa of same category

(4) Same taxa at same level


20/29

119. Which of the following organism(s) can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts?(1) Nostoc, Rhizobium

(2) Frankia, Anabaena

(3) Anabaena, Nostoc

(4) Rhizobium, Anabaena

120. Mark the correct statement (w.r.t. Vibrio)(1) Presence of cellulosic cell wall(2) Very simple in structure(3) It is autotrophic microbe(4) Spiral shaped naked bacteria

121. Vast majority of monerans are(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs(2) Depend on other organisms or on dead organic matter for food(3) Heterotrophs(4) More than one option is correct

122. Lactobacillus and Spirillum are similar in having(1) Nuclear membrane(2) Non-cellulosic cell wall(3) Loose tissue organisation(4) Silicified cell wall

123. Which of the following statement for bacteria is correct?(1) They are very simple in behaviour(2) They occur almost everywhere(3) They are grouped under three categories based on their shapes(4) They reproduce mainly by sporulation

124. In how many kingdoms eubacteria were placed according to five and six kingdom classification respectively?(1) 1, 0(2) 2, 1(3) 1, 1(4) 2, 0

125. According to Whittaker, eukaryotic and heterotrophic organisms exhibiting tissue or organ or organ system typebody organisation are placed in kingdom(s)(1) Fungi(2) Plantae(3) Protista(4) Animalia

126. Which of the following criteria was not used in five kingdom classification?(1) Phylogenetic relationships(2) Mode of spore formation(3) Thallus organisation(4) Reproduction


21/29

127. Which of the given statement is correct for the defining features of living organisms?(1) Consciousness is the most obvious and technically complicated feature(2) Metabolism is exhibited by all living organisms, except prokaryotes(3) Extrinsic growth is a feature of all living organisms(4) Only eukaryotic organisms are aware of their surroundings

128. All organisms, including those in the plant and animal kingdoms have

(1) Phylum as the obligate category

(2) Variety as the intermediate category

(3) Division as the obligate category

(4) Species as the lowest obligate category129. According to Whittaker, eukaryotic multicellular heterotrophic organisms exhibiting loose tissue type body

organisation are placed in kingdom(1) Plantae(2) Fungi(3) Protista(4) Monera

130. In how many kingdoms eukaryotic organisms were placed according to four and six kingdom classification systemrespectively?(1) 1, 2(2) 3, 4(3) 3, 3(4) 2, 4

131. Consider the following four statements (a-d).(a) Absence of two envelope system(b) Presence of cyclosis(c) Extensive metabolic diversity(d) Very complex in behaviourWhich of the given statements are true for Salmonella?(1) Only (a) & (d)(2) (b) & (c)(3) (a), (c) & (d)(4) (a), (b) & (d)

132. Nostoc and Anabaena are(1) Photosynthetic autotrophs(2) Filamentous green algae(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs(4) Devoid of chlorophyll–b and phycobilins

133. Mycoplasmas(1) Are strictly anaerobic(2) Have cellular organisation(3) Have circular ss-DNA

(4) Lack cell wall as well as ribosomes


22/29

134. Methanogens, halophiles and thermoacidophilic archaebacteria(1) Are present in the guts of ruminant animals(2) Lack ds-DNA and sap vacuoles(3) Are similar in the presence of non-cellulosic cell wall(4) Have unbranched chain lipids in cell membrane

135. Select the odd one w.r.t. order(1) Poales(2) Diptera(3) Sapindales(4) Insecta

136. Match the phyla listed under column-I with the level of organization given in column-II. Choose the correctanswer.

Column-I Column-II(Phylum) (Level of organization)

a. Porifera (i) Organ systemb. Cnidaria (ii) Organc. Platyhelminthes (iii) Cellulard. Annelida (iv) Tissue(1) a(iv); b(ii); c(i); d(iii)(2) a(iii); b(iv); c(ii); d(i)(3) a(ii); b(iii); c(i); d(iv)(4) a(i); b(ii); c(iii); d(iv)

137. Radial symmetry is found in(1) Porifera and Coelenterata(2) Arthropoda and Coelenterata(3) Coelenterata and Echinodermata(4) Echinodermata and Hemichordata

138. An animal having diploblastic acoelomate condition is(1) Gorgonia(2) Fasciola

(3) Ancyclostoma(4) Wuchereria

139. Which set of organisms show metameric segmentation?(1) Ascaris, Nereis, Culex, Aedes(2) Pheretima, Anopheles, Locusta, Nereis(3) Frog, Anopheles, Ancyclostoma, Locusta

(4) Honeybee, Leech, Taenia, Liverfluke140. Which of the following group contain animals that are pseudocoelomate?

(1) Ascaris, Enterobius, Dracunculus, Fasciola

(2) Enterobius, Ascaris, Ancyclostoma, Loa loa(3) Taenia, Meandrina, Ascaris, Enterobius(4) Scypha, Ctenoplana, Ascaris, Pleurobrachia


23/29

141. In which one of the following groups, all animals are hermaphrodite?

(1) Ascaris, Taenia, Fasciola, Ancyclostoma

(2) Pleurobrachia, Sycon, Leech, Taenia

(3) Starfish, Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Spongilla

(4) Ctenoplana, Pleurobrachia, Spongilla, Schistosoma

142. Which one of the following group of animals is correctly matched with two characteristic features given?

Animals Feature

(1) Honeybee, Culex Dioecious, fertilization external

(2) Nereis, Earthworm Single ventral nerve cord, metameric segmentation

(3) Ascaris, Hookworm Bilaterally symmetrical, well developed muscular pharynx

(4) Taenia, Fasciola Hermaphrodite, fertilization external

143. From the taxonomy point of view which one of the following is correct?

(1) Pediculus, Xenopsylla, Hirudo, Aphrodite

(2) Tubifex, Chaetopterus, Chaetopleura, Mytilus

(3) Dentalium, Doris, Aplysia, Palaeomon

(4) Asterias, Ophiothrix, Echinus, Holothuria

144. In which one of the following the genus name, its characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?

Genus name Characters Class/Phylum

Aschelminthes

Coelenterata

Platyhelminthes

Cnidaria

Pseudocoelomate, blind sac body plan, sexes are separate, females are longer than males

Radially symmetrical animal, Cnidoblasts present, medusa form prominent, no alternation of generation

Dorsoventrally flattened body, Bilaterally symmetrical, acoelomate, sexes are separates

Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic with tissue level of organization

Ascaris

Aurelia

Taenia

Pleurobrachia

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

145. Which of these statements are incorrect?

a. In Pila, the mouth contains a file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula.

b. In Prawn, the respiratory organs are book gills.

c. Nereis, possesses lateral appendages, parapodia which help in swimming.

d. In Ascaris, fertilization is external and development is indirect.

(1) a, b & d

(2) b & d

(3) b, c & d

(4) c & d


24/29

146. Which of the following is a false statement?

(1) Sponges show cellular level of organization

(2) In molluscs, the body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscularfoot and visceral hump

(3) Nereis is an aquatic animal, is dioecious, but earthworm and leeches are monoecious

(4) The most distinctive feature of Echinoderms is the presence of water vascular system which helps in captureand transport of food and respiration but not locomotion

147. Match the following and select the correct answer

Column-I Column-II

a. Paragastic cavity (i) Adamsia

b. Bioluminescence (ii) Taenia

c. Flame cells (iii) Scorpion

d. Book lungs (iv) Sycon

e. Polyp form (v) Pleurobrachia

(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(iii), e(ii)

(2) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii), e(i)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i), e(v)

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v), e(iv)

148. Gonads in Obelia are formed from

(1) Endothelial-gland cells

(2) Endothelio-muscular cells

(3) Interstitial cells

(4) Sensory cells

149. Which one is mismatched?

(1) Pennatula – Sea-pen

(2) Gorgonia – Sea-fan

(3) Aphrodite – Sea-mouse

(4) Aplysia – Sea-lemon

150. In which of the following animals both intercellular and intracellular digestion occur?

(1) Sycon and Adamsia

(2) Physalia and Pleurobrachia

(3) Fasciola and Dugesia

(4) Hydra and Spongilla

151. Which one of the following animals is acoelomate with protandrous condition?

(1) Ascaris

(2) Taenia

(3) Tubifex

(4) Lucifer


25/29

152. Which of these statements are incorrect w.r.t. Ascaris?

a. Female Ascaris is with posterior anus and separate gonopore.

b. Male is smaller than female with curved tail, two pineal setae and cloaca.

c. Epidermis of Ascaris is syncytial.

d. Circular muscle layer is present in Ascaris.

(1) Both (a) & (b)

(2) (c) only

(3) (d) only

(4) Both (c) & (d)

153. Botryoidal tissue, a connective tissue, supposed to be excretory is found in

(1) Hirudinaria

(2) Pontobdella

(3) Hirudo

(4) All of these

154. Trochophore larva is found in

(1) Nereis

(2) Chaetopterus

(3) Chaetopleura

(4) All of these

155. Which is not an exclusive character of Arthropoda?

(1) Jointed appendages

(2) Presence of wings

(3) Chitinous exoskeleton

(4) Excretion by malpighian tubules and antennal glands

156. Simple eyes, six pairs of appendages present and antennae absent are the characters of

(1) Buthus

(2) Palamneus

(3) Palaeomon

(4) Both (1) & (2)

157. No respiratory pigment is found in

(1) Nereis

(2) Pila

(3) Cockroach

(4) Earthworm


26/29

158. Palaeomon (Prawn) possesses which of the following features?

(1) Cephalothorax, one pair of antennae, biramous appendages

(2) Head, thorax, two pair of antennae, biramous appendages

(3) Cephalothorax, two pair of antennae, biramous appendages

(4) Cephalothorax, two pair of antennae, simple eyes

159. Select the correct statement w.r.t. earthworm

(1) Hermaphrodite, fertilization is external and development is direct

(2) Body wall of earthworm is with appendages, epidermis, cuticle and setae

(3) Earthworm moves with the help of setae alone

(4) Internal fertilization with the development of zygote in cocoon160. The most important character of annelida is

(1) Presence of tube within tube body plan(2) Presence of nephridium(3) Metamerism(4) Bilateral symmetry

161. The kind of metamorphosis, in which the naiad differs from the adult in both mode of life and structure is(1) Paurometabolous development(2) Ametabolous development(3) Hemimetabolous development(4) Holometabolous development

162. Which of the following insect has chewing and lapping type mouth parts?(1) Grasshopper(2) Butter flies(3) Honeybees(4) House fly

163. The universal characteristic of class Insecta is(1) The presence of three pairs of jointed legs, which arise from thorax(2) The presence of two pairs of wings(3) The presence of simple eyes(4) The presence of cephalothorax and abdomen

164. Study the following charactersa. It is a terrestrial arthropod.b. The cephalothorax bears compound eyes and six pairs of appendages (one pair of chelicerae, one pair of

pedipalpi and four pairs of legs).c. Antennae are absent.d. Development is indirect.Which of the above are true for Palamneus (scorpion)?(1) a & b(2) a, b & c(3) a & c(4) a, b & d


27/29

165. Daphnia, Lepisma, Prawn, Crab, Julus and Limulus have jointed appendages. Which of the given set oforganisms are aquatic and respire through gills?

(1) Lepisma and Julus

(2) Prawn and Crabs

(3) Lepisma and Limulus

(4) Daphnia and Lepisma

166. Which of the following pair is incorrect w.r.t. vector and disease?

(1) Xenopsylla – Plague

(2) Anopheles – Malaria

(3) Female Culex – Filariasis

(4) Sand fly – Dengue fever

167. Many molluscs have a chemoreceptor to test the chemical and physical nature of water entering in their mantlecavity, this is called as

(1) Amphid

(2) Statocyst

(3) Osphradium

(4) Double papillae

168. The Indian species of mollusca, which is related with pearl production is

(1) Ostrea indica

(2) Pinctada vulgaris

(3) Ostrea vulgaris

(4) Pila

169. In which of the following animals, the body twists, bringing the anus near the mouth showing torsion, so thatmouth and anus are both anterior?

(1) Unio

(2) Pila

(3) Chiton

(4) Dentalium

170. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its four examples?

(1) Arthropoda – Phlebotomus, Pediculus, Bonellia, Teredo

(2) Mollusca – Aphrodite, Neopilina, Chiton, Dentalium

(3) Platyhelminthes – Schistostoma, Fasciola, Echinococcus, Hymenolepsis

(4) Aschelminthes – Trichuris, Enterobius, Wuchereria, Clonorchis

171. Phylum mollusca can be distinguished from other invertebrates by the presence of

(1) The mantle and respiration by gills only

(2) Shell and non-segmented body

(3) Mantle and non-segmented body

(4) Bilateral symmetry and chitinous shell


28/29

172. The open circulatory system is found in

(1) Snail

(2) Cockroach

(3) Earthworm

(4) Both (1) & (2)

173. Which of the following traits is not a characteristic of echinoderms?

(1) Excretory system is absent

(2) Enterocoelom

(3) Water vascular system

(4) Haemocynin pigment

174. Aristotle’s lantern found in Echinus is used for

(1) Locomotion

(2) Excretion

(3) Mastication

(4) Respiration

175. Which one is the common ancestral larval form of echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates?

(1) Trochopore larva

(2) Tornaria larva

(3) Dipleura larva

(4) Bipinnaria larva176. Select the correct statement

(1) All arthropods have compound eyes(2) All molluscs have ‘radula’ a masticating organ in their buccal cavity(3) All echinoderms have water vascular system(4) All annelids have parapodia and setae

177. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. Balanoglossus?(1) Stomochord also called as buccal diverticulum is present in the proboscis(2) Ventral heart(3) Sexes are separate and fertilization is external(4) Open circulatory system

178. The infectious form of Ascaris is embryonated egg after(1) Two moultings(2) One moulting(3) No moulting(4) Three moultings

179. Class cestoda of phylum Platyhelminthes is distinguished from other flatworms by the absence of(1) Excretory system(2) Digestive system(3) Nervous system(4) Reproductive system


29/29

180. Which of the following require an invertebrate intermediate host?a. Enterobiusb. Schistosomac. Dugesiad. Wuchereriae. Fasciolaf. Rhabditisg. Echinococcus(1) a, b, c & f(2) b, d & e(3) d & e only(4) a, b, d & g

ONLINE TEST –1 - Aakash Institute | Aakash IIT-JEE India Aakash Test Series-2015 Online Test - 1...

Documents

Transcript of ONLINE TEST –1 - Aakash Institute | Aakash IIT-JEE India Aakash Test Series-2015 Online Test - 1...