Assignments Ist Year

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT ET 101 (Part A)

MATHEMATICS-I

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Mathematics-I.

Maximum Marks : 100Weightage : 30%

Course Code : ET101A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 (a) (i) Find the inverse function of the following .

(ii) Examine the following function is even or cold at

(b) (i) Evaluate :

(ii) Find : .

(c) (i) Verify Rolle’s theorem for the following function :

(ii) Is Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem applicable to

(d) (i) When traveling x km/hr, a truck consumes diesel oil at the rate of

. If the diesel oil costs 40 paise/lit and the driver is paid

Rs. 1.50 an hour, find the steady speed that will minimize the total cost of a trip of 500 km.

(ii) Evaluate by L’ Hospital’s Theorem :

(e) If , show that

Q.2 (a) Integrate (i)

(ii)

3

(b) Evaluate (i)

(ii)

(c) Find the volume of the solid of revolution formed by revolving the area enclosed between

, the x-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = 3.

(d) Find the area lying above x-axis and included between the circle and the

parabola .

(e) Solve :

(i)

(ii)

Q.3 (a) (i) If , show that the angle between the vectors If and is given

(ii) Find the angles which the vector makes with the coordinate

axes.

(b) (i) Find the vector projection of and , when , .

(ii) Show that the points whose position vectors are and

are collinear.

(c) (i) If is a constant vector, and are vector functions of a scalar variable t and if

, then show that .

(ii) If , then find the value of .

(d) Prove that , where .

(e) (i) If and v be the region bounded by the surfaces x = 0, y = 0,

y = 6, z = x2 and z = 4, then evaluate .

(ii) Prove : .

Q.4 (a) If , show that A3 = A– 1. Find the adjoint A.

4

(b) Solve the system of equations

By matrix method.

(c) (i) For what values of and , the system of equations

Has (i) no solution, (ii) unique solution and (iii) more than one solution.

(ii) Find the rank of the following matrix :

(d) Find the characteristic equation of the matrix :

.

Also find the eigen values and eigen vectors.

(e) Find a, b, c when and . Determine

the quadratic function f (x) and find its value when x = 1.

5

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 101 (Part B)

MATHEMATICS-II

Note : All questions given are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Mathematics-II.


Course Code : ET-101B Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 (a) A container contains 12 balls of which three are red, four blue and five black. Three balls are drawn at random. What is chance that,

(i) The three balls are of different colours

(ii) Two balls are of the same colour and third of a different colour

(iii) Three balls are all of same colour.

(b) The probability that a contractor will get a sanitary contract is 3/4, the probability that he will not get an electric contract is 4/9. If the probability of getting at least one contract is 4/5, what is probability that he will get both the contracts.

Q.2 (a) What is the probability of 5 turning up at least once in two tosses of a fair die.

(b) A box contains 4 blue and 5 red balls. Two drawing of two balls are made. Find the probability of drawing first 2 red balls and second 2 blue balls if the balls are not returned after the first draw.

Q.3 (a) A Poisson distribution has density f(x) = .

(i) Probability (x = 0)

(ii) Probability (x = 1)

(iii) Probability (x = 2)

(iv) Probability (x = 3)

(b) If the probability that an individual suffers bad reaction from a particular infection is 0.002. Determine probability that out of 1000 individuals exactly 100 will suffer a reaction.

Q.4 (a) A multiple choice quiz has 500 questions each with 5 possible answers of which only one is correct answer. What is probability that sheer guesswork yields from 25 to30 correct answers for 80 out of the 300 problems about which the candidates has no knowledge.

(b) 1% of tools produced by a certain machine are defective. What is probability that in a consignment of 500 such tools 3% or more will be defective?

Q.5 An expert shot hits a target 95% of the time. (i) What is the probability that he will miss the target for the first time on the 15th shot. (ii) What is probability that the expert will miss the target for the third time on the 15th shot.

6

Q.6 (a) A population consists of four 0, 2, 4, 6, consider all possible samples of size two which can be drawn with replacement from this population.

Find :

(i) the mean of the population

(ii) standard deviation of the population

(iii) means of the sampling distribution of means

(iv) standard error of means.

Q.7 (a) In a certain city A, 100 men in a sample of 400 are found to be smokers. In anothercity B, 300 men in a sample of 800 are found to be smokers. Does this indicate that there is a greater proportions of smokers in B than in A.

(b) When running computer programs on time sharing basis, cost varies from session. Let x be the cost in rupees per session to a user. Observed sample of size on x is x1 = 3900, x2 = 4000, x3 = 4060, x4 = 4100, x5 = 4500, x6 = 3950, x7 = 4010, x8 = 4080, x9 = 4150. Compute values of sample mean, sample variance, sample range R.

Q.8 (a) A student’s marks in the written examination, oral examination and laboratory examination were 87, 71 and 61. If the weighing factors accorded to these marks are5, 3 and 2, determine the average marks obtained by the student. Determine the average marks if equal weightage for all the examination used.

(b) Structural engineers sometimes apply a factor of safety to the statistical minimum failing stress. They usually employ the criteria that 95% of the tests should exceed the minimum failing stress. For a certain specimen of timber, 100 tests for strength, properties were carried out which were found to be normally distributed with a mean failing stress of 30.35 N/mm2 and standard deviation of 3.97 N/mm2. Determine the value of the minimum failing stress.

Q.9 Ten specimens of mild steel are chemically analysed for carbon contents in two different Laboratories. The percentage of carbon content contained are as follows :

Lab A0.22

0.23

0.24

0.21

0.22

0.14

0.25

0.23

0.28

0.24

Lab B0.21

0.18

0.19

0.20

0.23

0.21

0.20

0.25

0.22

0.17

Test the hypothesis that there is no significant difference in two laboratories in their determination of percentage of carbon.

Q.10 In the measurement of temperature it measured 100 times with variation in apparatus and procedure. After applying the corrections the results are

Temperature oC 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405

Frequency of Occurrence

2 5 9 26 39 15 3 2 2

Calculate (i) arithmetic mean, (ii) mean deviation, (iii) standard deviation, (iv) probable error of one reading, (v) standard deviations and the probable error of mean, and (vi) standard deviation of standard deviations.

7

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 105 (Part A)

PHYSICS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Physics.



BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 (a) A ball of mass m makes a perfectly elastic head-on collision with a second ball, of mass M, initially at rest. The second ball moves off with half the original speed of the first ball. Express M in terms of m and determine the fraction of the original kinetic energy retained by the ball of mass m after the collision.

(b) Two blocks of masses M1 = 2 kg and M2 = 5 kg are moving in the same direction along a frictionless surface with speeds 10 ms 1 and 3 ms 1 respectively, M2 being ahead of M1. An ideal spring with k = 1120 Nm 1 is attached to the backside of block M2 as shown in Figure 1. Find the maximum compression of the spring when the blocks collide.

Figure 1

Q.2 A conical pendulum with the mass ‘m’ suspended from a string of length ‘L’ sweeps out a cone

of vertical angle ‘θ’. Show that the speed ‘v’ is given by .

Q.3 Find the moment of inertia of a solid hemisphere of uniform density about radius perpendicular to the circular base.

Q.4 For a geostationary satellite, calculate :

(i) the height above the Earth’s surface, and

(ii) the speed in orbit. (Radius of Earth = 6.38 106 m; mass of earth = 5.98 1024 kg).

Q.5 A wheel of the bicycle is rotating with frequency of 6 rps. If the mass of the wheel is 1.5 kg and radius is 40 cm, find the torque experienced if the cyclist tilts by 30 degrees in a matter of0.4 seconds. Deduce the expressions you use.

Q.6 (a) Write a note on Lissajous’ figures.

(b) Define and discuss the applications of Biot-Savart law.

Q.7 (a) Explain Young’s double slit experiment.

(b) Calculate the observed fringe width for a Young’s double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 700 mm and slits 0.60 mm apart. The distance from the slit to the screen is 0.90 m.

8

M2

M1

Q.8 (a) State and deduce mathematical expression for Coulomb’s law. Compare the electric and the gravitational forces that exist between an electron and a proton. Assume standard numerical values for required constants you use.

(b) A charge is placed at the origin. Another charge – q is on the x-axis at x = 4d. Find the point on the axis where the electric potential is zero

Q.9 Deduce the expression for the centre of a uniform quarter circular plate of radius ‘r’.

Q.10 (a) A torch bulb has a power supply of two 1.5 V cells connected in series. The potential difference across the bulb is 2.5 V, and it dissipates energy at the rate of 500 mW. Calculate :

(i) the current through the bulb,

(ii) the internal resistance of each cell, and

(iii) the heat energy dissipated in each cell in two minutes.

(b) The uniform flux between the poles of a magnet is 0.080 T. A small coil of area ofcross-section 6.5 cm2 has 250 turns and is placed with its plane normal to the magnetic field. The coil is withdrawn from the field in a time of 0.26 seconds.

Determine :

(i) the magnetic flux through the coil when it is between the poles of the magnet,

(ii) the charge in magnetic flux linkage when the coil is removed from the field, and

(iii) the average emf induced in the coil whilst it is being withdrawn.

9


CHMISTRY

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Chemistry.


Course Code : ET105B Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Discuss the hydrogen spectrum in detail. What are the defects in Bohr’s atomic models with reference to Hydrogen spectrum? How are they rectified?

(b) With neat sketches explain the shapes and sizes of atomic orbitals.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 Explain the following bonds with examples :

(i) Ionic Bond

(ii) Covalent Bond

(iii) Metallic Bond

(iv) Coordinate Covalent Bond

(v) Hydrogen Bond

(10)

Q.3 Give IUPAC names of the following structures :

(i) CH3 COOCH2 CH3

(ii) H2C = CH . CH2COOH

(iii) CH2(OH) CH(OH) CH2(OH)

(iv)

(10)

Q.4 Discuss the concepts of enthalpy and internal energy. State and prove the Hess’s law of constant heat summation.

(10)

Q.5 (a) 0.12 gm of a metal x was dissolved in 25 ml (N/2) acid. The resulting solution required 25 ml (N/10) alkali solution for complete neutralization. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?

(b) 25 ml of a solution containing NaOH and Na2CO3 when titrated with (N/2) HCl using phenolphthalein as indicator required 40 ml of HCl. The same volume of mixture when titrated against (N/2) HCl using methyl orange as indicator required 45 ml of HCL. Calculate the amount of NaOH and Na2CO3 in one litre of the mixture.

(5 + 5 = 10)

10

Q.6 (a) Define and explain Second Law of Thermodynamics. Define and explain Carnot’s cycle.

(b) State and explain Le-Chatlier’s principle and its application on at least two examples.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 Define and explain various types of isomerism existing in Organic compounds with at least two examples to each.

(10)

Q.8 (a) Arrange , & rays according to :

(i) Penetrating power (ii) ionizing power

(iii) momentum (iv) charge

(b) A piece of wood from a tomb was burned and 7.32 gm CO2 was collected. The total radioactivity in CO2 was 10.8 dis/min. How old was the wood sample?(t1/2 = 5730 years). The activity in the fresh wood is 15.3 dis/min/gm.

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.9 (a) An atom contains 2, 8 and 2 electrons in K, L and M shell respectively. Calculate the (i) number of protons, (ii) principal quantum number (n) of outermost shell, (iii) total number of sub-shells and (iv) number of electrons in the p orbit.

(b) Deduce the expressions for automic radius and energy.

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.10 (a) What are the merits of using isolated enzyme over the use of whole organisms inbio-technology?

(b) What is polymerization? Explain with suitable examples.

(c) Define structural, stereo and position isomerism.

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

11


MECHANICS OF FLUIDS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Mechanics of fluids.


Course Code : ET-201A Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Enumerate the difference between the bulk modulus and compressibility. Also derive a relationship between bulk Modulus (K) and Pressure (P) of a gas for isothermal as well as adiabatic processes.

(b) The dynamic viscosity of oil used for lubrication between a shaft and sleeve is 10 poise. Calculate the power lost in the bearing for a sleeve length of 100 mm. Given the thickness of the oil film as 2.5 mm and shaft diameter 0.1 m. The shaft is rotating at the rate of 1500 rpm.

Q.2 (a) What do you understand by the temperature lapse rate (L) with elevation? Derive an expression for temperature at any given point in a compressible fluid underadiabatic condition.

(b) Calculate the capillary effect (in millimetre) in a glass tube of 5 mm diameter when immersed in (1) water (2) Mercury. The temperature of liquids is 20o C and the values of the surface tension of water and mercury at 20o in contact with air are 0.0736 N/m and 0.5145 N/m, respectively. The angle of contact for water is 0o that for mercury 1.3o. Take the density of water at 20oC as 998 Kg/m3.

Q.3 (a) Define Metacentre. Derive an expression for finding out the metacentric height of a ship which is floating in the Dead Sea. Assume all the required values within permissible limits.

(b) A solid cylinder of diameter 10 m has a height of 15 m. Find the metacentric height of the cylinder when it is floating in water with its axis vertical. The specific gravity of the cylinder is 0.9.

Q.4 (a) The velocity rector in a fluid flows given as

Find the velocity and acceleration of a fluid particle at time t = 1, when the coordinate of the particle are (2, 1, 3).

(b) The following cases represent the two velocity components. Determine the third component of velocity such that they satisfy the continuity equilibrium. Assume the flow to be incompressible.

(i)

(ii)

12

Q.5 (a) A hydraulic press has a ram of 50 cm diameter and a plunger of 10 cm diameter(Figure 1). It is used for lifting a weight of 200 kN. Find the force required at the plunger.

Figure 1

(b) A single column manometer is connected to a pipe containing a liquid of specific gravity S1. The pressure in the pipe is 5.21 N/cm2. Area of the reservoir is 100 times the area of the tube for mercury manometer reading as shown (Figure 2). If the specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 then find the specific gravity of the liquid.

Figure 2

Q.6 (a) The atmospheric pressure at sea land is 10.15 N/cm2. Determine the pressure at a height of 10,000 m assuming the pressure variation follows : (i) Hydrostatic Law and(ii) Isothermal Law. The density of the air is given as 1.3 kg/m3.

(b) A rectangular gate 5 m x 2 m is hinged at its base and inclined at 45o to the horizontal as shown in Figure 3. To keep the gate in stable position, a counter weight of 4000 kgf is attached at the upper end of the gate as shown in the figure. What will be the depth of water at which the gate begins to fall? The friction of the hinge and pulley and the weight of the gate are negligible.

Figure 3

Q.7 (a) Discuss in brief the various types of flows encountered in our daily life. What do you understand by rotational flow? Derive a general equation for the rotational flow.

(b) The velocity potential function is given by :

= 5 (x2 – y2)

Calculate the velocity components at points (3, 4), (– 4, 6), (7, 8) and (– 9, – 12).

13

200 kN

W

Ram

F

Plunger

10 cm50 cm

20 cm

40 cm

4000 kgf

B4000 kgf

45 oA

5 y

F

W

E H D

Hinge

Q.8 (a) Prove that the actual discharge in a Venture can be measured by :

where various terms have their usual meaning.

(b) A vertical pipe is carrying water in vertical upward direction, if it is fitted with a venturi of 30 cm x 15 cm size (of inlet and outlet). A differential manometer connected to the inlet and throat gives a reading 20 cm. calculate the discharge rate. Given Cd = 0.98.

Q.9 (a) Water is filled in a hemispherical tank of d = 4 m, the water level is 1.5 m. An orifice ofd = 50 mm is provided at the bottom. Find the time required by water (i) to fall from 1.5 m to 1.0 m and (ii) for completely emptying of the tank, take Cd = 0.60.

(b) A hemispherical tank of radius R is fitted with an orifice of area ‘a’ at its bottom(Figure 4). The tank contains a liquid where initial length is H1 and in time t the height of the liquid falls to H2. Derive the relation between t, H, a, and R.

Figure 4

Q.10 (a) A pipe line of 60 cm diameter bifurcates at a Y divide into two branches of diameters equal to 40 and 30 cm each. If the rate of flow in the main pipe is 1.5 m and the mean velocity of flow is 7.5 m/s in 30 cm pipe, determine the rate of flow in the other branch pipe.

(b) A jet of water of diameter 50 mm strikes a 40 x 40 cm2 plate of uniform thickness with a velocity of 10 m/s at the centre plate which is suspended vertically by a hinge on its top horizontal edge (Figure 5). The weight of the plate is 98.1 N. The jet strikes normal to the plate. What force must be applied at the lower edge of the plate so that the plate is kept vertical? If the plate is allowed to deflect freely, what will be the inclination of the plate with vertical due to the force exerted by jet of water?

Figure 5

14

40 cm

p

20 cm

F

H1

R

H2

H1

dh

h

=

x

Q.1 (a) Define an isolated system. Distinguish between the term ‘Change of state’, ‘Path’ and ‘Process’ with the help of suitable example.

(b) What are intensive and extensive properties? Explain what is meant by Thermodynamic equilibrium.

Q.2 (a) A vacuum gauge mounted on a condenser reads 740 mm Hg. What is the absolute pressure in the condenser in kPa when the atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of Hg.

(b) A vessel of cylindrical shape is 50 cm in diameter and 75 cm high. It contains 4 Kg of a gas. The pressure measured with manometer indicates 620 mm of Hg above atmosphere when barometer reads 760 mm of Hg. Determine.

(i) The absolute pressure of the gas in the vessel in bar, and

(ii) Specific volume and density of the gas.

Q.3 (a) A man of gas is compressed in a quasi-static process form 80 KPa, 0.1 m3 to 0.4 MPa, 0.03 m3. Assuming that the pressure and volume are related by PVn = constant, find the work done by the gas system.

(b) Define a thermodynamic system. Differentiate between open system, closed system and an isolated system with the help of suitable examples.

Q.4 (a) State the first law of thermodynamics for closed system under going a cycle. Explain zeroth law of thermodynamics.

(b) During are cycle the working fluid in an engine engages in two work interactions; 15 KJ to the fluid and 44 KJ from the fluid, and three heat interaction, two of which are known; 75 KJ to the fluid and 40 KJ from the fluid. Evaluate the magnitude and direction of the third heat transfer.

Q.5 Estimate the pressure which would be exerted by 3.7 kg of CO in a 0.030 m3 container at215 k employing :

(i) the ideal gas equation of state, and

(ii) Van der Waal’s equation.

Q.6 In an ideal air cycle refrigeration system, air enters the compressor at 2 bar, 7oC and is compressed to 5 bar. The air then cooled at constant pressure to 55oC and then expanded in a turbine to 1 bar. The cooling capacity of the system is 12 kW. Assume air behaves as a perfect gas with Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg.K and Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg.K. Find COP, mass flow rate of air and the power required by the system.

15


ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Engineering Thermodynamics.


Course Code : ET 201 B Last Date of Submission : Oct. 31, 2011

BTWRE

Q.7 (a) Define Internal Energy and prove that it is a property of a system.

(b) A cylinder contains 0.45 m3 of a gas at 1 x 105 N/m2 and 80oC. The gas is companied to a volume of 0.13 m3, the final pressure being 5 x 10 N/m2. Determine :

(i) The man of gas;

(ii) The value of index ‘n’ for companion;

(iii) The increase in internal energy of the gas; and

(iv) The heat rejected or received by the gas during compression.

Take r = 1.4, R = 294.2 J/KgoC.

Q.8 A steam boiler has a total volume of 3 m3. Initially it contains 2 m3 of saturated steam and 1 m3

of saturated liquid at 30 bar. Calculate the mass of vapour, mass of liquid, quality of the steam, its specific internal energy and specific enthalpy.

Q.9 An air compressor has a volumetric efficiency of 80%. When tested, the discharge state being 600 kPa, 170oC and thee inlet state 200 kPa, 20oC. If the clearance is 6%, predict the new volumetric efficiency when the discharge pressure is increased to 800 kPa. Assume that the ratio of real to ideal volumetric efficiency and the exponent n remain constant.

Q.10 8 kg of nitrogen is cooled in a rigid tank from 300oC to 37oC. The initial pressure is 30 bar. Calculate the changes in entropy, internal energy and enthalpy. Assume nitrogen to be an ideal gas with Cp = 1.024 kJ/kg.K and Cv = 0.745 kJ/kg.K.

16

Q.1 (a) A gravity dam (specific gravity of the material = 2.4) as shown retains water behind it. Find the resultant of the forces in magnitude and direction, and locate its point of application on base B1 B2.

Figure 1

(b) Find the value of h, and H if b = 50 m, and F. B = 1.2 m (as before), for the resultant R to fall within the middle third of b.

Q.2 A body A is acted upon by seven forces (coplanar) as shown in Figure 2. Determine the sum of forces acting along x-x, and the sum along y-y. Evaluate the resultant, R, (in magnitude and direction with respect to x-x) of the forces.

Figure 2

17


ENGINEERING MECHANICS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Engineering Mechanics.


Course Code : ET-202A Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTCM

1

12

B1

bB2

h16.8 m = H

11

2 m

F.D = 1.2 m

38o

10o

5o

32o

A

99.5 N

100 N

xx

38 N 60 N

15 N

y 60 N42 N

62o

3o

Q.3 A regular hexagon ABCDEF carries forces as shown in Figure 3 (AB = 2.0 m). Find the total moment of the forces about A, D and T respectively.

Figure 3

Q.4 (a) Two cantilevers (fixed at one end) are differently loaded as shown in Figure 4. Determine the sections (force and moment) at the fixed ends in each case.

(a) (b)

Figure 4

(b) A block A sets on a rigid plane surface ( = 0.53). Check whether the block shall move. What should be the max value of for the block just to be on the point of moving if P1 is increased by 50 N

Figure 5

Q.5 (a) The position vector of a particle at any time t with respect to 3 coordinate axes is given by :

Determine the path of the particle through as equation, and its position after 2.5 sec of start of motion. Also, give its velocity and acceleration at that moment.

(b) A body, P, falls freely under the influence of gravity, passing from point A to point B in 0.75 sec, after having begun falling from point P. Find the vertical distance PA ifg = 8.91 m/sec2.

Figure 6

Q.6 (a) A toy aeroplane (wt. = 35 kN) flies horizontally with a velocity of 25 m/s. Another mass (wt. = 25 kN) coming from the opposite direction at the same height from the reference horizontal plane, at 23 m/sec, collides with the aeroplane. Assuming the resultant body (after collision) to be a compound of the two, find its velocity.

(b) A ball of 5 kg falls freely from a 3 m height on a solid horizontal surface. If rebound back

to 0.62 m height after the impact in of a sec. Find the force on the ball due to the

impact it suffers. What is the total reaction given by the solid surface.

18

20 kN per m

2.75 m

3.5 m

30o

P1=450 k

P2=100 N k

A

X P

A

B25 m

A 10 N B

9 N

6 N

11 N

16 NF

7 NT

E D

C

4 m 2 m

10 kN per m

10 kN/m per

Q.7 A frame as shown in Figure 7 is loaded as indicated. Determine the stresses (and their nature) in all the members of the frame. Give your result in a tabular form.

Figure 7

Q.8 (a) The given frame (Figure 8) is loaded as indicated. Find the horizontal and vertical components of the hinge reaction. Also, determine the force at C.

Figure 8

Q.9 A frame is fixed along AG as shown in Figure 9. Find the stresses in all its members by method sections, as well as by method of joints.

Figure 9

Q.10 A lifting machine is applied an effort of 17 N to raise a load of 80 N with an efficiency of 65%, a 20 N effort to left a load of 1500 N.

Determine the law of the machine what effort is required to raise 1700 N. And what is the maximum mechanical advantage achieved? Also find the maximum efficiency.

19

A D

B10 kN

3 kN

3.5 mE

C

F

1 kN

5 kN

A B

30 kN2m

C

4545

On rollers

D

2m

A2.5 t 2 t 1.5 t

D

C

B

G F E

1.5 t

AG = 3.5 mAB = GF = 3.5 mFE = CD


PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICAL SCIENCES

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Principles of Electrical Sciences.


Course Code : ET-202B Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Define the terms :

(i) Potential difference and electric current

(ii) A parallel plate capacitor

(iii) Resistor and inductor

(iv) State KVL and KCL

(v) Difference between DC and AC source

(b) Explain delta-star and star-delta transformations in the circuits. What is the difference between the line current in delta connected 3-phase system and star-connected 3-phase system?

Figure 1

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.2 (a) State and explain Thevenin’s theorem and Norton’s theorem with the help of circuit diagrams.

(b) Explain the phenomenon of resonance in parallel RLC circuit and derive expression for resonant frequency.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.3 Explain working principles of :

(i) Transformer,

(ii) Inductor motor, and

(iii) Synchronous motor and synchronous generator

(10)

20

~ ~

j 30 j 30VA

I1I2

50

+ +

100 0 100 30o

Q.4 (a) Explain the speed-torque characteristics of :

(i) A dc series motor, and

(ii) A dc shunt motor.

(b) How A dc motor drives a 100 KW generator having an efficiency of 87% :

(i) What should be the KW rating of the motor?

(ii) If the overall efficiency of the motor generator set is 74%, what is the efficiency of the motor?

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.5 Explain the working of following :

(i) Difference between Analog and digital instruments,

(ii) Moving iron instruments and PPMC instrument,

(iii) Induction type energymeter,

(iv) Importance of power factor, and

(v) Advantage of 3-phase over single-phase.

(10)

Q.6 (a) An amplifier circuit has an input current of 20 A flowing though 10 k and an output current of 150 mA flowing though 5 k. What is its voltage gain?

(b) Using the op-amp circuit in the Figure 2, calculate the output voltage of the amplifier.

Figure 2

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Explain different types of logical/Digital gates with examples.

(b) Explain the differential amplifier. Also state the applications for the same.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 Explain :

(i) Voltage regulators and current boosters,

(ii) Phase shift oscillator,

(iii) MOSFET, and

(iv) Function generator circuit for a frequency of oscillation of 1 kHz.(5 4 = 20)

Q.9 (a) Explain the working of ADC and DAC and give their examples.

(b) Write notes :

(i) RAM & ROM, and

(ii) Stack, Register, Counter.(5 + 5 = 10)

21

20 K

10 K

Rf

2 VIf

+ 15 V

15 V

Ri

V01 V

+


MATERIALS SCIENCE

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Materials Science.



BTCM

Q.1 What is grain boundary? What are the advantages of its study? Explain with suitable examples.

(10)

Q.2 What are the primary and secondary bonds? Distinguish between ionic and covalant bonding in solids giving suitable examples.

(10)

Q.3 What do you understand about crystal structure? Describe the various types of crystal structure in metals with appropriate examples.

(10)

Q.4 What is an iron-carbon diagram? Draw the iron-carbon phase diagram and explain the various regions in it.

(10)

Q.5 What are the various types of defects in solids? Explain edge dislocation and screw dislocation with neat diagram.

(10)

Q.6 What is a semiconductor? What are the various types of semiconductors? Explain with neat diagram and also its applications.

(10)Q.7 Write short notes on the following :

(i) Hardness,

(ii) Tensile Strength,

(iii) Brittleness,

(iv) Toughness, and

(v) Ductility. (2 5 = 10)

Q.8 Define stress, strain and elasticity. Derive the relationship between stress and strain of an elastic body.

(10)

Q.9 What is casting process? What are the basic steps involved in casting? Give some examples of casted materials and its applications in the mechanical industry.

(10)

Q.10 What is corrosion? Explain in detail. How the corrosion of metals will be protected? Describe the different methods of corrosion protection in metals.

(10)

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ENGINEERING MATERIALS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Engineering Materials.


Course Code : ET-204B Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 Explain the importance of engineering materials. What are the different yardsticks of selecting quality engineering materials for civil structures?

Q.2 Explain the basis of classifying the cementing materials. What are different calcareous cementing materials? Explain their classification and uses based on BIS standards.

Q.3 Is water proofing a big challenge in maintenance of civil structures? Explain. What are the waterproofing agents? Describe the role of bitumen as a water proofing agent in buildings.

Q.4 Explain the properties of different mortars and grouts. What are their specific uses?

Q.5 Explain the concreting process. What do you mean by degree of control in proportionate concrete mixes? Explain different grades of concrete with recommended applications as per the BIS norms.

Q.6 Explain the importance and characteristics of wear resisting materials. Prepare a chart showing different wear resisting materials, their characteristics and their specific uses.

Q.7 List various modern waterproofing compounds. Explain their characteristics, specifications and specific uses. Write their application methods.

Q.8 Explain the use of PVC in flooring. Discuss the materials and methods available for wall finishing.

Q.9 Describe application of plastics in construction industry and uses of plastics with examples.

Q.10 “Wood is one of the oldest building materials which have relevance even today”. Justify the statement by giving specific examples.

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SYSTEMS METHODS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Systems Methods.


Course Code : ET-301A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) What do you understand by Electric Power System? Describe Electric Power Generation System with the help of block diagram.

(b) The DC motor is the most suitable motor for variable speed drives. State the reasons.

Q.2 (a) Differentiate between physical and non-physical system by citing at least two examples of each.

(b) What are the two basic types of control systems? Give at least two examples of each type.

Q.3 (a) Describe static system and dynamic system. Give suitable examples of both type of systems.

(b) Describe scale model and analogue model with the help of examples. Give atleast four examples of each.

Q.4 A diet for sick person must contain at least 4000 units of vitamins, 50 units of minerals and 1400 units of calories. Two foods A and B are available at a cost of Rs. 4/- and Rs. 3/- per unit respectively. If one unit of A contains 200 units of vitamins, 1 unit of minerals and 40 units of calories and 1 unit of food. B contains 100 units of vitamins, 2 unit of minerals and 40 units of calories. Find by the graphic, what combination of foods be used to have least cost. Also solve the problem by SIMPLEX method.

Q.5 A company has 3 factories A, B and C which supply to 4 warehouses situated at P, Q, Rand S. The monthly production capacity tons of A, B and C are 120, 80 and 200 respectively. The monthly requirements (tone) for the warehouses P, Q, R and S are 60, 50, 140 and 50 respectively. Transportation cost (Rs. per ton) matrix is given below :

FactoriesWarehouses

P Q R S

A 4 5 2 5

B 3 8 4 8

C 7 4 7 4

Determine the optimum transportation distribution of products to warehouses to minimize the total transportation cost. Use all the methods described in your study material to find the optimal solution.

Q.6 What do you understand by Kendall’s notation? Customers arrive at a sales counter manned by a single person according to a Poisson process with a mean rate of 20 percent. The time required to serve a customer has an exponential distribution with a mean by 100 seconds. Find the average waiting time of a customer.

24

Q.7 Define EOQ. A purchase manager places order each time for a lot of 500 units of a particular item. From the available data the following results are obtained :

Inventory carry cost = 40%

Ordering cost per order = Rs. 600

Cost per unit = Rs. 50

Annual demand = 1000

Find out the loss to the organization due to his ordering policy.

Q.8 An automobile dealer wishes to put four repairmen to four different jobs. The repairmen has some what different kinds of skills and they exhibit different levels of efficiency from one job to another. The dealer has estimated the number of man houses that would be required for each job man combination. This is given in the matrix from in the following table :

Job

ManA B C D

1 8 10 12 16

2 1 11 15 8

3 9 6 5 14

4 15 14 9 7

Also indicate the total time taken in completing the jobs.

Q.9 A small project consist of seven activities, details of which are given below :

ActivityDuration (Days) Immediate

PredecessorMost Likely Optimistic Pessimistic

A 3 1 7

B 6 2 14 A

C 3 3 3 A

D 10 4 22 B, C

E 7 3 15 B

F 5 2 14 D, E

G 4 4 4 D

Draw the network diagram and find the critical path. Determine the expected project completion time. What project duration will have 95% confidence of completion. For 85% probability, take value of Z as 1.64. Also calculate total float, free float and independent float for each activity.

Q.10 Write short notes on following :

(i) Characteristics of dynamic programming

(ii) Traveling salesman problem

(iii) Dual simplex problem

(iv) Transhipment problem.

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COMPUTER APPLICATIONS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Computer Applications.


Course Code : ET301B Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) What is the difference between a syntax error and a logical error? Differentiate between PROM and EPROM.

(b) Mark True or False for the following statements :

(i) FORMAT can also transfer DOS after formatting the diskette,

(ii) DISKCOMP and VER are internal DOS commands,

(iii) The output of DIR can be stored in a disk file, and

(iv) ERASE clears the screen.

(c) What is an operating system? Explain the various functions of the operating systems.

(4 + 6 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) How will you format a diskette?

(b) Briefly explain the following commands :

COPY, PATH, DISKCOPY, TREE, XCOPY, MODE

(7 + 7 = 14)

Q.3 (a) How will you connect a spread sheet with database? Explain with example.

(b) Give a sequence of steps to draw a bar graph? Explain with example.

(7 + 7 = 14)

Q.4 (a) What commands in Word Star can be used to :

(i) Move a block,

(ii) Hide a block,

(iii) Starts a new page, and

(iv) Set the right margin.

(b) What is a mail merge operation? What are the files that you have to prepare for mail merge operation? Explain with the help of an example.

(b) In an opening menu of Word Star, what do D, L, X and R mean?

(4 + 7 + 3 = 14)

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Q.5 (a) What are functions in LOTUS 1-2-3? Describe the structure of a functions and Date related functions?

(b) What are the special characters used to print the date and page numbers in footer or header?

(10 + 4 = 14)

Q.6 (a) What are the different hardware and software requirements for making a Computer Aided Drawing?

(b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Computer Aided Drafting?

(7 + 7 = 14)

Q.7 How would you describe utility of Computer Aided Designing in routine work?

(20)

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SOIL MECHANICS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Soil Mechanics.


Course Code : ET-501A Last Date of Submission : July. 31, 2011

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 (a) How many cable meters of earth fill can be constructed at a void ratio of 0.68 from 20,0000 m3 of borrow material that has a void ratio of 1.15.

(b) How the liquid limit of clayey soil is determined by Casagrade’s apparatus. Discuss its limitations.

Q.2 (a) What is Stoke’s law? Derive following relation :

(b) Discuss is classification for the soil as per IS 1498-1970.

Q.3 (a) Explain specific surface, Isomorphous substitution and vander waals forces.

(b) The shrinkage limit of a clay is 18%. The initial water content of the soil in the field was 42%. On evaporation the water content comes down to 15%. Calculate the corresponding decrease in volume per unit Volume and shrinkage ratio. Assume specific gravity as 2.66.

Q.4 (a) Discuss the influence of pore pressure on the behavior of the soil.

(b) A sand stratum as 8 m think. The water table is 2 m below ground level. The unit weights of sand layer above and below water table are 17-5 kn/m3 and 20.5 kn/m3, respectively the capillary rise above water table is 0.75 m. Draw the effective stress diagram for the sand stratum.

Q.5 (a) What are the methods available for the compaction of various soils? Discuss the suitability of compaction equipment.

(b) The results of standard the modified Proctors tests on a clayey soil are as follows :

Water Content (%)

Dry Density (kN (m3))

Standard Proctor Test Modified Proctor Test

7.0 16.0 17.5

9.0 16.8 18.8

12.0 17.6 1.6

14.5 17.9 19.2

16.0 17.7 18.4

18.5 16.5 17.5

21.5 15.0 16.0

Draw compaction curves for both tests along with zero air void lines. Determine OMC and MDD in each case. Assume G = 2 – 66.

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Q.6 (a) What is liquefaction of the soil? Explain quick sand phenomena.

(b) A soil sample taken in a container of internal diameter 10 cm has a length of 12.5 cm the coefficient of permeability of the soil is 2 x 10– 1 cm/sec with void ratio 0.8. If the water is made to flow through the soil sample in upward direction and the rate of discharge is 0.06 cc/Acc find the effective stresses at the bottom and middle section of the sample table = 2.66.

Q.7 (a) Discuss new mark’s chart for finding vertical stress.

(b) There parallel strip foundation each 3 m wide 6 m apart centre to centre transmit contact pressure of 250, 150, 50 KN/m2 respectively determine vertical stress 3 m below centre of each loading.

Q.8 (a) Write a note on sand drain.

(b) A clay layer whose total settlement under a given load is expected to be 300 mm, settles by 60 mm in 15 days after the application of laced increment. How many days will be required for it to reach a settlement of 100 mm? How much settlement will occur in250 days? The layer has single drainage.

Q.9 (a) Discuss the factors affecting the shear strength of sandy and clayey soils.

(b) A cylindrical specimen of saturated clay fails at an axial stress of 170 KN/m2 in an unconfirmed test. The failure plane makes an angle of 56o with the horizontal. Determine shear parameters.

Q.10 (a) Discuss Swedish circle method for slope stability.

(b) A canal with depth of 5 m has banks with slope 1 : 1. The soil properties are :

C = 21KN/m2

= 0

e = 0.68

G = 2.66

Determine the factor of safety w.r.t. cohesion when :

(i) Canal is running full, and

(ii) Sudden draw down and empty conditions.

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FOUNDATION ENGINEERING

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Foundation Engineering.



BTCM/BTWRE

Q.1 At a site the SPT was conducted on the existing soil. The number bellows required to derive the sampler for three consecutive 15 cm derive are 10, 17 and respectively. Determine the corrected N-value.

Q.2 (a) Differentiate various modes of failure in case of shallow foundation with neat sketches.

(b) Write Terzaghi’s equation for the estimation of bearing capacity of square footing when water table is at the ground level. Also mention the assumptions mode.

Q.3 (a) A strip foundation 2.5 m, wide is founded at 1.0 m depth on the soil with following properties :

C = 0, = 40o, = 19 kN/m3

Determine the net ultimate bearing capacity.

(b) Discuss the factors affecting bearing capacity.

Q.4 (a) What is the difference between combined footing and strap footing? How a combined footing is designed?

(b) What are the courses of settlement of foundation?

Q.5 (a) A retaining wall with a smooth vertical book retains dry sand foot a depth of 4.0 m and has a leveled surface. The properties of sand are :

C = 0, = 35o, = 19 kN/m3

Find total active earth pressure.

(b) Discuss Culmanry’s method of earth pressure.

Q.6 (a) Discuss types of earth retaining structures.

(b) For the design of a gravity wall what are the factors of safety to be calculated.

Q.7 (a) Find lead carrying capacity of pile of diameter 25 cm and length 20 m in depp deposit of clay with following properties. Take C = 45 kN/m2, = 19 kN/m3, = 16.

(b) Repeat problem 7 as sand with following properties = 40o, C = 0, = 19 kN/m3.

Q.8 (a) How lateral capacity of a pile is determined?

(b) What is group efficiency and negative in friction?

Q.9 (a) Explain uphole wave propagation test.

(b) Discuss the foundation type for expensive soils.

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Q.10 Write short notes on the following :

(i) Hansen’s bearing capacity theory,

(ii) Well foundation,

(iii) Theory of vibration with/without damping, and

(iv) Shear wave velocity.

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EARTH AND ITS ENVIRONMENT

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Earth and its Environment.


Course Code : ET 531 A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTWRE

Q.1 “The origin of solar system is a subject of great controversial opinions among the scientists”. Explain the statement with the help of major hypothesis proposed on the subject.

Q.2 Describe hydrologic cycle and its importance. Discuss factors influencing various processes involved in hydrologic cycle.

Q.3 Differentiate between weather and climate also giving suitable examples. Discuss the various reasons for erratic rainfall at various flows all over India.

Q.4 Give a generalized system of atmospheric circulation. What are main local winds? Describe their importance.

Q.5 What is Tsunami? Give a detailed account of recent Tsunami of Indian Ocean. What methods do you propose to mitigate destructiveness of Tsunami?

Q.6 Describe the geological action of wind. With examples, describe main features of three major types of deserts.

Q.7 Describe five major rock forming minerals. With suitable database, justify that India is mineral rich country.

Q.8 “Formation of Indo-Gangetic alluvial plains is relatively geologically recent phenomenon”.Do you agree? Give a detailed note on features of three physiographic divisions of India

Q.9 Discuss biotic and abiotic components of eco-system with suitable examples. Describe biotic and abiotic stresses in relation to plant growth. Discuss the major steps to be taken for mitigating abiotic stresses with respect to plants.

Q.10 On a world map, delineate major types of biomes. Explain the main characteristics of different biomes. Comment on special features of flora and fauna of the desert biome.

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SOIL SCIENCES

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Soil Sciences.



BTWRE

Q.1 Explain the role of soil as a natural resource. Give a status report of soil degradation in India and enumerate the main factors affecting soil health. Also, suggest specific remedies to ameliorate soil health.

Q.2 Discuss the role of available soil moisture in plant growth. Explain the various soil water constants needed to decide amount of irrigation water. Prepare a chart showing the values of these soil moisture constants for major soil textures found in India.

Q.3 Discuss the disadvantages of water logging due to poor drainage conditions. Elaborate importance of surface drainage in mitigating the problems caused by water logging. Explain how drainage is useful in reclaiming sick soils.

Q.4 What is the need of soil classification? How does the modern tools like remote sensing and GIS hasten the procedure of soil classification with accuracy? On a natural map of India show different soil groups.

Q.5 What are major contributors of salinity in soil? How do we express the extent of salinity? What are the regions affected by salts in India? Explain two important methods to ameliorate the soil salinity.

Q.6 What are the major problems faced by the soils of hilly areas? Explain the engineering interventions to make use of hilly soils useful for agricultural purpose. What steps are generally taken to mitigate soil erosion in hilly areas?

Q.7 Write an essay on status of biological health of soils of India. Explain the role ofmicro-organism in improving soil health and productivity with the help of suitable examples.

Q.8 Explain concept of organic farming. What is the importance of bio-fertilizers in present day agriculture? Prepare a detailed list of sources/availability and usefulness of bio-fertilizers.

Q.9 Write an essay on symbiotic nitrogen fixation. How the cropping system affect this process? Explain the process with suitable sketches.

Q.10 Discuss about soil borne plant diseases. Prepare a chart on plant pathogenic micro organisms and their control measures for any two important crops.

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Assignments Ist Year

Documents

Transcript of Assignments Ist Year