ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC KÌ THI TRUNG H ỐC GIA … hop 20 de...(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6...
Transcript of ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC KÌ THI TRUNG H ỐC GIA … hop 20 de...(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6...
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. cooked
B. watched
C. stopped
D. studied
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. ruins
B. economics
C. leftovers
D. details
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. terrorist
B. respectable
C. terrific
D. librarian
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. experience
B. simplify
C. physician
D. maternal
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust. . (0,25 points)
A. polluted
B. occupied
C. filled
D. concentrated
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 1
6. The company empowered her to declare their support for the new event. As a matter of fact, she
now has more power to do what she wants than ever before. (0,25 points)
A. forbade
B. helped
C. authorized
D. ordered
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours. (0,25 points)
A. unsure
B. uninterested
C. slow
D. open
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear. (0,25 points)
A. disappear
B. external
C. apparent
D. uncertain
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. They would never have accepted his money if they had known his plans. (0,2 points)
A. They took the money he offered them without realising his purposes.
B. They knew what he wanted to do, so they refused his money.
C. They agreed with his wishes because they were glad to have his money.
D. They didn’t know his plans and never took money from him.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. I ran into Peter, a friend of mine, on my may to work this morning. (0,2 points)
A. I met Peter unexpectedly on my way to work this morning.
B. Peter and I ran to work this morning
C. Peter had to work this morning, but I did not
D. Peter ran into his friend this morning.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Unless you come on time, we will go without you. (0,2 points)
A. Come on time or we will go without you.
B. Come on time, we will go without you.
C. Because of your punctuality, we will go without you,
D. Without your coming on time, we will go.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:
12. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work. (0,2 points)
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. It is no use expecting someone else to find a job for him; he must do something about it
himself. (0,2 points)
A. You shouldn’t expect anyone else to accept a job you aren’t willing to take on yourself.
B. He shouldn’t expect others to give up their jobs for him.
C. As he doesn’t want the job himself he might as well let someone else have it.
D. He never will get a job unless he sets about getting one himself and not leaving it to others.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Only If you get to the theatre early _____ a chance to get a ticket for tonight’s
performance. (0,27 points)
A. you will have
B. have
C. will you have
D. you have
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Sam was so angry that he _____ out at everyone around him. (0,27 points)
A. moaned
B. evoked
C. vexed
D. lashed
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16.
“Did you have a happy childhood?”
“Yes. I remember_____ very spoiled.”
(0,27 points)
A. to being
B. to be
C. being
D. I have been
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. The silver medalist was later _____ for running outside the lane. (0,27 points)
A. banned
B. outlawed
C. disallowed
D. disqualified
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. Dr. Evans has _____ a valuable contribution to the life of the school (0,27 points)
A. done
B. created
C. caused
D. made
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. _____ having studied, Pat still failed the test. (0,27 points)
A. Even though
B. However
C. Despite
D. Moreover
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. “I’m not that tired, really. _____, I’d enjoy another game.” (0,27 points)
A. As a matter of fact
B. As a matter
C. As a fact
D. As a fact matter
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. Europe and Asia _____a long tradition of teaching and learning foreign languages. (0,27 points)
A. has had
B. will have
C. have had
D. have
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. Deserts are arid land areas where _____ through evaporation than is gained through
precipitation. (0,27 points)
A. the loss of more water
B. more water is lost
C. is more water lost
D. loses more water
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. Nam wanted to know what time _____. (0,27 points)
A. the movie began
B. the movie begins
C. does the movie begin
D. did the movie begin
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. A pipe _____ in our bathroom last night. (0,27 points)
A. burst
B. bursting
C. has burst
D. was burst
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. “What are you looking for?”
I can’t remember where I _____my glasses. (0,27 points)
A. leave
B. left
C. had left
D. was left
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. I have gone to Hawaii three times this summer, I still want to spent my holiday there. (0,27 points)
A. gone
B. to
C. three times
D. want to spent
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27.Life insurance, before available only to young, healthy persons, can now be obtained for old
people and even for pets.
(0,27 points)
A. before
B. only
C. be obtained
D. even
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Hung Yen has long been well-known for it’s excellent longan fruits. (0,27 points)
A. long
B. well-known
C. it’s
D. fruits
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Mike: “I have passed all my examinations!”
Joan: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. My dear!
B. Best wishes!
C. Well done!
D. That’s very well
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Pat: “Would you like something to eat?”
Kathy: “ _____. I’m not hungry now.” (0,5 points)
A. Yes, it is
B. No, thanks
C. Yes, I would
D. No, no problem
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to
a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for
example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons
sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the’ body of the individual is not harmed by coming into
contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time usually longer than a few weeks, the body
becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you
have a food allergy since it can show up so many different ways.
Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk,
eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will
not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven
months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing
tyramine, phenethylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain
these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados,
ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!).
Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives,
especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green
peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written
the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing
whether the diet is effective.
31. The topic of this passage is _____. (0,1 points)
A. reactions to foods
B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies
D. a good diet
32. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
33. The word symptoms is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. indications
B. diet
C. diagnosis
D. prescriptions
34. The phrase set off is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
D. triggered
35. What can be inferred about babies from this passage? (0,1 points)
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breastfed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
36. The word hyperactive is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. overly active
B. unusually low activity
C. excited
D. inquisitive
37. The author states that the reason that infants need to be avoided certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant’s _____. (0,1 points)
A. lack of teeth
B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
38. The word these refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. food additives
B. food colourings
C. unnutritious foods
D. foods high in salicylates
39. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
40. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT _____. (0,1 points)
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
The universal symbol of the Internet era communications, the @ sign used in e-mail addresses to
signify the word ‘at’, is (1) _____ a 500-year-old invention of Italian merchants, a Rome academic has
revealed. Giorgio Stabile, a science professor at La Sapienza University, (2) _____ to have stumbled
on the earliest known example of the symbol’s use, as a(n) (3) _____ of a measure of weight or
volume. He says the sign represents an amphora, a measure of (4) _____ based on the terracotta
jars used to transport grain and liquid in the ancient Mediterranean world.
The professor (5) _____ toe ancient symbol in the course of research for a visual history of the 20th
century, to be published by the Treccani Encyclopedia. The first (6) _____ instance of its use, he
says, occurred in a letter written by a Florentine merchant on May 4, 1536. He says the sign made its
(7) _____ along trade routes to northern Europe, where it came to represent ’at the price of, its
contemporary accountancy (8) _____.
Professor Stabile believes that Italian banks may possess even earlier documents (9) _____ lying
forgotten in their archives. The oldest example could be of great value. It could be used (10) _____
publicity purposes and to enhance the prestige of the institution that owned it, he says. The race is
on between the mercantile world and the banking world to see who has the oldest documentation of
@.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. actually
B. truly
C. essentially
D. accurately
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. says
B. states
C. claims
D. tells
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. proof
B. sign
C. evidence
D. indication
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. ability
B. capacity
C. capability
D. facility
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. exposed
B. unearthed
C. dug
D. devised
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. known
B. knowing
C. knowable
D. knowledgeable
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. line
B. means
C. way
D. method
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. sense
B. importance
C. meaning
D. understanding
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. taking
B. carrying
C. delivering
D. bearing
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. on
B. for
C. with
D. by
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. champion
B. change
C. shame
D. chambe
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. say
B. day
C. play
D. quay
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. medieval
B. malaria
C. mediocre
D. magnIficent
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. relation
B. arrange
C. summary
D. eliminat
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. The republic of South Africa occupies the southern tip of the continent. (0,25 points)
A. takes up
B. takes in
C. takes over
D. takes on
6. For a decade, Barzilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to
longevity. (0,25 points)
A. who are vegetarians
B. who want to be fruitarians
C. who are extraordinary
D. who live to be 100 and above
7. You can choose to send your letters by air or surface mail. (0,25 points)
ĐỀ THI SỐ 2
A. have
B. throw
C. cast
D. receive
8. We offer a very competitive rate for parcels of under 15kg. (0,25 points)
A. cooperative
B. useful
C. individual
D. passive
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. The holiday might have been cheaper, but at least we were fortunate with the
weather. (0,2 points)
A. We didn’t realize the holiday would be so cheap, and the climate was nice, too.
B. We can be thankful that the weather was good, although the holiday was a little expensive.
C. The holiday should have been less expensive as we hardly had any nice weather.
D. Despite the favourable weather, we still paid too much for the holiday.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. This is the most enjoyable novel I’ve read in a long time. (0,2 points)
A. It took me a long time to read this novel, but it was worth it.
B. It’s a marvellous novel; I still remember it though I read it a long time ago.
C. It’s ages since I got so much pleasure out of reading a novel.
D. It’s a long time since I read this novel but I know I enjoyed it enormously.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. The immigration laws have been continually changed over the past few years because for no
logical reasons. (0,2 points)
A. It is not fair that the laws have been changed so much over the past few years because of the
flow of immigrants.
B. There’s no reasonable explanation as to why the immigration laws have been altered repeatedly
in the last few years.
C. The reason why they changed the immigration laws recently has not been explained.
D. The fact that the immigration laws have been continually changed over the recent years must
have a reason.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. If there hadn’t been such a strong wind, it would not have been so difficult to put out the
fire. (0,2 points)
A. It was the strong wind which made it difficult for us to put out the fire.
B. When a strong wind began to blow it was even more difficult to control the fire.
C. If the wind hadn’t been so strong, it would have been much easier to put out the fire.
D. As the wind was really very strong, it took them a long time to put out the fire.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year. (0,2 points)
A. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
C. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. I feel I really must take _____ with your assertion that I am overpaid. (0,27 points)
A. dispute
B. issue
C. dIffer
D. discussion
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. _____he and his wife _____in their house for a long time? (0,27 points)
A. Have/live
B. Has/lived
C. Have/lived
D. Did/live
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. At the top of today’s _____ is the issue of salaries. (0,27 points)
A. assembly
B. agenda
C. prospectus
D. transaction
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. My daughter is planning to spend a year before university working in Australia, _____ seems to
me to be a sensible idea. (0,27points)
A. which
B. that
C. what
D. where
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. Shy people often find difficult to _____ group discussion. (0,27 points)
A. take part in
B. get on with
C. take place in
D. get in touch with
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. Have you read anything _____ Hemingway? (0,27 points)
A. by
B. of
C. from
D. about
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. You can’t park here, it’s _____ legal. (0,27 points)
A. im-
B. ir-
C. il-
D. un-
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. He hit the vase with his elbow and it _____ to the floor. (0,27 points)
A. crashed
B. smashed
C. broke
D. knocked
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. We can’t get everything we want from life; we must just make the best _____ it. (0,27 points)
A. for
B. with
C. of
D. by
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. He denied _____ in the hotel at 7 p.m. (0,27 points)
A. himself
B. to be
C. it’s him
D. being
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. The committee’s ideas were deemed to be imaginative but _____ in practical terms. (0,27 points)
A. incompatible
B. unavoidable
C. unworkable
D. insurmountable
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The residents had no time to get away as the storm hit without _____warning (0,27 points)
A. precedent
B. initial
C. prior
D. previous
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Together Rogers and Hammerstein wrote nine musicals, the first of whose was Oklahoma
[1943]. (0,27 points)
A. Together
B. musicals
C. first
D. whose
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-
rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week.(0,27 points)
A. announced
B. would be held
C. high-rise
D. block
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. If I am 10 centimeters taller, I would play basketball. (0,27 points)
A. am
B. centimeters
C. taller
D. play
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Linda: “What a lovely house you have!”
Janet: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. No problem!
B. Thank you. Hope you’ll drop in.
C. Of course not. It’s not costly
D. I think so.
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Lan: “Happy birthday! This is a small present for you.”
Nga: “ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. What a pity!
B. How terrible!
C. Have a good time!
D. How beautiful it is! Thanks.
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid material such as
silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances
such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of
metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the
metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a
positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known
as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is
what keeps the structure together. An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in
the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of
electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current
flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only
other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what
the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond
in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise,
if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a
current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved
in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions
cannot flow. Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because
they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily.
Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully
charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is
neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be
more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices
with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it
dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
31. Electrical conductivity is _____. (0,1 points)
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
32. According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to _____. (0,1 points)
A. the absence of free electrons
B. its atoms with a positive charge
C. the way its atoms bond together
D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
33. The word “outermost“ in paragraph 1 mostly means _____. (0,1 points)
A. the lightest
B. nearest to the inside
C. furthest from the inside
D. the heaviest
34. The atoms of a metal can bond together because _____. (0,1 points)
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
B. electrons can flow in a single direction
C. they lose all of electrons
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
35. Slat in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because _____. (0,1 points)
A. it has free electrons
B. its charged ions can flow easily
C. it cannot create any charge ions
D. it charged ions are not free to move
36. The word “they“ in paragraph 3 refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. charged ions B. electric currents
C. charged particles D. electrical insulator
37. Water is a poor conductor because it contains _____. (0,1 points)
A. no positive or negative electric charge
B. only a small amount of fully charged particles
C. only a positive electric charge
D. only a negative electric charge
38. We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because . (0,1 points)
A. the eater itself is a good conductor of electricity
B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
C. the water contains too many neutral molecules
D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
39. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
D. Some materials are more conductive than others.
40. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Electrical Energy
B. Electrical Devices
C. Electrical Insulators
D. Electrical Conductivity
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
A worrying question which _____ (1) global attention is severe overpopulation and its drastic effects
in the countries of the Third World. In regions where the birth rate is extremely high, poverty and
starvation are _____(2). In India, there is _____ (3) of the thirty five infants being born every minute,
yet the most shocking figures are those which _____ (4) the enormous number of the victims of
famine in certain African territories. Communities afflicted with acute destitution are additionally
confronted with illiteracy, life in appalling conditions and infectious diseases _____ (5) the indigenous
populations. There is an urgent need for these problems to be solved. Unless measures are taken
to _____ (6) the suffering of the impoverished underdeveloped nations, desperate crowds of
immigrants will _____ (7) in flooding the richer states in _____ (8) of a brighter future. It’s the most
_____ (9) task for the international giants nowadays to help the poor populations get out of the
poverty _____ (10).
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. insists
B. wishes
C. requires
D. asks
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. profuse
B. rite
C. generous
D. predominant
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. a ratio
B. a measure
C. an average
D. a proportion
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. appear
B. refer
C. indicate
D. comprise
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. decimating
B. enumerating
C. discounting
D. outnumbering
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. discard
B. vanish
C. evaporate
D. ease
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. linger
B. maintain
C. persist
D. remain
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. search B. chase
C. lookout D. survey
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. confronting
B. challenging
C. rousing
D. plaguing
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. lure
B. pitfall
C. snare
D. trap
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. form
B. work
C. born
D. storm
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. daunted
B. installed
C. commited
D. confided
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
ĐỀ THI SỐ 3
A. material
B. harmony
C. evidence
D. readable
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. referee
B. engineer
C. attitude
D. absentee
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. Johnny sometimes visits his grandparents in the countryside. (0,25 points)
A. calls on
B. keeps off
C. takes in
D. goes up
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind. (0,25 points)
A. sometimes
B. always
C. hardly
D. never
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. In the campaign, six hundred ethnic minority students from the northern highlands were asked to provide reading
and writing skills to 1,200 illiterate people living in their home villages. (0,25 points)
A. seniority
B. maturity
C. adulthood
D. majority
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. However, by that time, only 94% of the population was able to read and write. (0,25 points)
A. inadequate
B. average
C. incompetent
D. ordinary
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. I expect to get back this evening but it really depends on the weather. (0,2 points)
A. If the weather continues like this I’ll spend the night there.
B. Though I’m planning to return this evening the weather may prevent me.
C. Since the weather’s so bad I don’t suppose I’ll be back tonight.
D. The weather made it impossible for me to return as planned.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative. (0,2 points)
A. Traveling by bus is my only alternative.
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to traveling by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Unless they comply with the rules, they won’t be allowed back into the club (0,2 points)
A. As long as they refuse to behave, it doesn’t seem possible for t accepted into the club.
B. They can go to the club once more, but only if they obey the rules.
C. They can’t enter the club because they have violated the rules.
D. They can only enter the club again if they behave in accordance with the rules.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. I can’t make any sense out of these instructions in this manual for how to start this machine. (0,2 points)
A. The instructions given in this manual for how to start this machine are the most complicated I’ve ever seen.
B. The instructions given in this manual are too complicated for me to be able to understand how to start this machine.
C. There’s no sense in trying to understand the instructions given in this manual for how to start this machine.
D. I’ve found the instructions in this manual quite senseless, so I may not be able to start this machine.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. We couldn’t help feeling disappointed when, after all our hard work, we had to close down the
factory. (0,2 points)
A. By working even harder we could, perhaps, have managed to keep the factory open.
B. If only we could have kept the factory going we wouldn’t have felt that all our work had been wasted.
C. Since we’d put in so much effort it was inevitable that we should feel upset when we couldn’t keep the factory going.
D. However hard we worked we could not have stopped them closing down the factory
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. You can have your office painted _____ color you want. (0,27 points)
A. whatever
B. anything
C. which
D. however
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. John: “I speak Spanish because I lived in Spain.”
Pedro: “Really? How long _____ there?” (John now lives in the UK) (0,27 points)
A. did you live
B. are you living
C. have you lived
D. do you live
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. The marathon, first staged in 1896, _____ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of victory from
the battlefield at Marathon to Athens. (0,27 points)
A. commemorates
B. commemorated
C. was commemorated
D. commemorating
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. We _____ a lot important inventions in the future. (0,27 points)
A. have
B. will have
C. had
D. has had
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. Being popular isn’t _____ important to Harry. (0,27 points)
A. so much
B. that
C. much
D. such
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. I’ll take this tie. It’s the _____ thing I’m looking for. (0,27 points)
A. just B. very
C. sheer D. quite
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. After a lot of dIfficulty he finally _____ to start the car. (0,27 points)
A. succeeded
B. coped
C. managed
D. worked out
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. He’s a very difficult person to _____ with. (0,27 points)
A. deal
B. do
C. get
D. treat
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. This guide book _____full of useful information. (0,27 points)
A. will be
B. are
C. is
D. was
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. They say that they _____ their course next month (0,27 points)
A. finish
B. will finish
C. will be finishing
D. will be finished
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. _____ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all ages. (0,27 points)
A. Having exercised
B. Those who exercise
C. For exercising
D. Exercising
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The face of the Moon is changed by collisions with meteoroids, _____ new craters to appear. (0,27 points)
A. causing
B. cause
C. caused
D. have cause
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. The cotton mills of a hundred years ago were hot, dust, noisy, dangerous places and the life of the
millworkers was hard. (0,27points)
A. ago
B. dust
C. noisy
D. was
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one. (0,27 points)
A. told
B. however
C. although
D. moreover
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Mark Twain’s Adventures of Huckleberry Finn are one of America’s national treasures. (0,27 points)
A. are
B. of
C. national
D. treasures
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Linda: “I’ve passed my driving test.”
Nga: _____. (0,5 points)
A. Congratulations!
B. That’s a good idea
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. Do you?
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “What a great haircut, Lucy!”
_____. (0,5 points)
A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this.
B. It’s my pleasure
C. Oh, yes. That’s right
D. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievement as an astronomer, he was a scientist of
diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in
exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite
remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to his.
Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface
when the air inside the bell ran low. Hailey’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an
additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Hailey designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top
and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that
divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it
water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in
water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement
that made Hailey’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also
supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed
through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell The diver could breathe the air from
a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a
lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying
fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
31. The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Hailey’s _____. (0,1 points)
A. childhood
B. invention of the diving bell
C. work as an astronomer
D. many different interests
32. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it _____. (0,1 points)
A. was bigger
B. weighed less
C. could rise more quickly
D. provided more air
33. The expression “ran low in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. sank to the bottom
B. had been replenished
C. was almost exhausted
D. move slowly
34. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell? (0,1 points)
A. Only a few minutes
B. just a few seconds
C. For hours at a time
D. For days on end
35. It is not stated in the passage that Halley’s bell _____. (0,1 points)
A. could hold more than one diver
B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed
D. was wider at the top than at the bottom
36. The expression “at will“ in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by _____ (0,1 points)
A. upside down
B. with great speed
C. as they wanted
D. in the future
37. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Hailey’s bell not covered with lead, it would _____. (0,1 points)
A. trap the divers
B. suffocate the divers
C. get wet
D. float
38. Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the bell? (0,1 points)
A. Lines 8-10
B. Lines 11-13
C. Lines 17-18
D. line 20
39. In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Hailey’s? (0,1 points)
A. The first paragraph
B. The second paragraph
C. The third paragraph
D. The fourth paragraph
40. This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on _____. (0,1 points)
A. recreation
B. astronomy
C. oceanography
D. physiology
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having
clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (1) _____ pollution and garbage have made many
sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas have become vast pools (2) _____ poison.
Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the world. It (3) _____ a rich variety of animals and plants,
including 1,300 rare species that do not exist (4) _____ else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the
massive volumes of toxic effluent which (5) _____ into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the
government did not have the power to enforce them. Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The
Mediterranean Sea (6) _____ 1% of the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping (7) _____ for 50% of all
marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (8) _____ shore. Water
is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless.
Today, many water supplies have been (9) _____ by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and
we are at last beginning to respect this precious (10) _____. We should do something now.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. industrious
B. industry
C. industrial
D. industrialized
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. on B. in C. of D. to
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. composes
B. contains
C. encloses
D. consists
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. where
B. somewhere
C. everywhere
D. anywhere
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. stay
B. pour
C. boil
D. burn
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. makes
B. occupies
C. comprises
D. holds
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. shore
B. land
C. ground
D. soil
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. away B. of C. on D. off
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. ruined
B. kept
C. made
D. conserved
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. well
B. outlet
C. nature
D. source
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. tidal
B. final
C. idiot
D. vital
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. sabotage
B. montage
C. massage
D. beverage
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. police
B. malice
C. office
D. practice
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 4
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. musician
B. mutual
C. museum
D. mosaic
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. A brief outlined of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first
meeting. (0,25 points)
A. dispensed
B. dispersed
C. distributed
D. contributed
Choose the phrase (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the underlined one:
6. On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theatre. (0,25 points)
A. On reflection
B. For this time only
C. After discussing with my wife
D. For the second time
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. (0,25 points)
A. fresh
B. disobedient
C. obedient
D. understanding
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now. (0,25 points)
A. constant
B. changeable
C. objective
D. ignorant
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. By modern standards, the first supermarkets were really quite small. (0,2 points)
A. Compared with what we have now, the early supermarkets weren’t actually very large at all.
B. The early supermarkets and the present-day ones are quite different from each other, even in size.
C. Present-day supermarkets are on the whole larger than the early ones.
D. Supermarkets have grown in size since they were first introduced, but their standards remain the same.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. It would be a good idea to change your hairstyle. (0,2 points)
A. An idea is to would change your good hairstyle.
B. Your hairstyle is changing; it would be a great idea.
C. You had better change your hairstyle.
D. I have an idea to change your hairstyle for good.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. What particularly impressed me was her excellent command of English. (0,2 points)
A. That I liked her excellent command of English was that it impressed me at first.
B. I was particularly impressed by her excellent command of English.
C. Her excellent command of English particularly impresses me.
D. I particularly liked here excellent command of English.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. People donated a lot, so the victims of the tsunami are now able to overcome difficulties. (0,2 points)
A. To overcome difficulties, the victims of the tsunami needed people’s generous donation.
B. But for people’s generous donation, the victims of the tsunami wouldn’t be able to overcome difficulties
now.
C. The victims of the tsunami are now able to overcome difficulties but for people’s donation.
D. Despite people’s generous donation, the victims of the tsunami are facing lots of difficulties.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. “Shall I turn on the heater for you?” Lane said to his grandpa. (0,2 points)
A. Lane wanted to turn on the heater for his grandpa.
B. Lane offered to turn on the heater for his grandpa.
C. Lane promised to turn on the heater for his grandpa.
D. Lane asked his grandpa to turn on the heater for him.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. “The ceiling in this room doesn’t look very safe, does it?”- “ _____”. (0,27 points)
A. Yes, it is
B. No, it isn’t
C. No, it is going to fall down
D. Yes, it doesn’t fall down
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather _____ (0,27 points)
A. faint
B. muddled
C. garbled
D. unintelligible
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. The soldiers prepared themselves for the final _____ by the rebels. (0,27 points)
A. abolition
B. exploitation
C. obstruction
D. onslaught
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. Candidates for the position of office manager must be _____ with the task of supervising some twenty
assistants. (0,27 points)
A. competent
B. prepared
C. comfortable
D. capable
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. _____ furniture needs supplying for the schools in the whole country will slow down the process of the
reform of education.(0,27 points)
A. Few
B. A few
C. Little
D. That little
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _____. (0,27 points)
A. although fossil fuels continue to dwindle
B. as fossil fuels continue to dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels
D. fossil fuels continuing to dwindle
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. What _____ you _____at weekend when you were a child? (0,27 points)
A. do/ do
B. have/done
C. did/ use to do
D. did/ used to do
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. I’m fed up _____working, I need a holiday. (0,27 points)
A. to
B. in
C. with
D. for
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. Scientists brought _____ of rare butterflies from the jungle. (0,27 points)
A. tiers
B. embryos
C. specimens
D. traces
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. There’s no prettier place in the valley _____ our village. (0,27 points)
A. to
B. that
C. than
D. as
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. A semiconductor is a substance that seldom conducts electricity, but _____ under certain
circumstances. (0,27 points)
A. so can do
B. do so can
C. can do so
D. so do can
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. Penicillin is perhaps the drug _____ more lives than any other in the history. of medicine. (0,27 points)
A. what has saved
B. which has saved
C. which saved
D. who saves
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this
university. (0,27 points)
A. One of
B. are being
C. for the
D. are
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter
their eating habits. (0,27points)
A. raised
B. so rapidly
C. that
D. forced to alter their eating habits
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Homo erectus is the name commonly given into the primate species from which humans are believed
to have evolved. (0,27points)
A. commonly
B. into
C. which
D. are believed to
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. “Yes, I would.”
B. “Not at all.”
C. “What a pity!”
D. “my Gosh!”
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “Mr. Adams is going to retire next month.”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. Oh, I have no idea
B. You don’t say!
C. Right, you’d probably be the next.
D. Congratulations!
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can
grow while its problems can be solved. On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of
removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently
and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can
move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from
cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper
to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their
toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others. On the other side of the debate
are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural
destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations - the United States,
Germany, and Japan - succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies.
They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong
state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government
encouragement of “infant industries“ - that is, industries that are just beginning to develop - enables a
country to become internationally competitive. Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington
Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to
prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic
stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst
as investors panic and pull their money out of the country. Protests by what is called the anti-globalization
movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights
of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters
at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the
bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental
regulations. One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets
should be regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on
a global scale.
31. It is stated in the passage that _____. (0,1 points)
A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. supporters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
32. Supporters of free-market globalization point out that _____. (0,1 points)
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B. there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
33. The word “allocated“ in the passage mostly means “ _____“. (0,1 points)
A. removed
B. solved
C. offered
D. distributed
34. The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes**” in the passage mostly means “ _____“. (0,1 points)
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes
B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed
D. prevents sellers from selling new products
35. According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of
_____. (0,1 points)
A. their neo-liberal policies
B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles
D. their protectionism and subsidies
36. The word “undermining“ in the passage mostly means “ _____“. (0,1 points)
A. observing
B. making more effective
C. making less effective
D. obeying
37. Infant industries mentioned in the passage are _____. (0,1 points)
A. successful economies
B. young companies
C. development strategies
D. young industries
38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
39. The debate over globalization is about how _____. (0,1 points)
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirely
40. The author seems to be _____ globalization that helps promote economy and raise living standards
globally. (0,1 points)
A. supportive of
B. indifferent to
C. pessimistic about
D. opposed to
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million
pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (1) _____
end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (2) _____ to the moon and back.
One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at
a(n) (3) _____ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television
advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (4) _____ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets
contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very
clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying”
them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (5) _____ - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat any
cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (6) _____ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the
“Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals
that are made (7) _____ whole grains and are sugar-free. If you shop at a health food store instead of your
local supermarket, you (8) _____ to find a healthy, whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But
(9) _____! Some of the health food store boxed cereals are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose. Although
this may be an improvement (10) _____ refined white sugar, this can really skyrocket the calories.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. to lay
B. laying
C. lay
D. laid
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. reach B. prolong
C. stretch D. contact
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. charge
B. average
C. cost
D. expense
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. Most
B. Mostly
C. Almost
D. Furthermost
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. charming
B. lovely
C. gorgeous
D. beautiful
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. tall
B. large
C. high
D. many
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. by B. from C. at D. in
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. are more likelier
B. are much more likely
C. would be able
D. could more or less
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. see through
B. keep alert
C. watch out
D. look up
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. at
B. from
C. with
D. on
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. vintage
B. montage
C. advantage
D. average
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. plugged
B. dogged
C. begged
D. dragged
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. historical
B. librarian
C. adolescence
D. phenomenon
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. emergency
B. vulnerable
C. activity
D. initiative
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 5
5. We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel. (0,25 points)
A. the long day
B. day after day
C. all day long
D. all long day
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. What do you like doing in your spare time? (0,25 points)
A. enjoyable
B. free
C. quiet
D. busy
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. She lived with a rich family in London during her childhood. (0,25 points)
A. selfish
B. well- off
C. famous
D. penniless
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study. (0,25 points)
A. made room for
B. put in charge of
C. lost control of
D. got in touch with
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. Don’t disturb me unless it is something urgent. (0,2 points)
A. You can only interrupt me If it is some sort of emergency.
B. When you need something fast, you can call on me.
C. Unless something terrible happens, please leave me alone.
D. I will only bother you If there is some sort of emergency.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. She should know better than to lend the money to him. (0,2 points)
A. She knew it would be better not to lend him the money
B. She oughtn’t to lend him the money.
C. She was just being helpful when she lent him the money.
D. It would be kind of her to lend him the money.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. As the bus arrived in Bursa an hour later than the scheduled time, I missed the opening
of the concert. (0,2 points)
A. The concert had started by the time I got there as the bus reached Bursa a full hour late.
B. The concert was due to start just an hour after my bus arrived in Bursa.
C. I arrived in Bursa at the scheduled hour and went on to the concert an hour later.
D. The concert in Bursa started an hour later than the scheduled time so I didn’t miss the start.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. He likes people to let him have his own way. (0,2 points)
A. He doesn’t like it when people tell him what to do.
B. He doesn’t accept help from people he dislikes.
C. He likes people to think all good ideas are his own.
D. He often needs the help of other people in his work.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. Sarah started preparing lunch as soon as her children left for school. (0,2 points)
A. The children went to school soon after Sarah had prepared lunch.
B. Sarah’s children didn’t leave for school until she had started making lunch.
C. After the children had left for school, Sarah decided to prepare lunch.
D. Sarah waited until her children had gone to school before she started making lunch
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. It’s easy in some regions to _____ electricity in hydro-electric power stations (0,27 points)
A. invent
B. create
C. fabricate
D. generate
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Mary finds his careless attitude to work extremely _____. (0,27 points)
A. exacting
B. askew
C. abrasive
D. aggravating
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. “Do you want me to clean up here?”
“I’d rather you _____ me finish the project.” (0,27 points)
A. helped
B. help
C. will help
D. could help
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. I have not written any letters home since I _____here (0,27 points)
A. come
B. came
C. have come
D. will come
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to _____ a story. (0,27 points)
A. invent
B. combine
C. managed
D. lie
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. From an early lead, the team _____ to an embarrassing defeat. (0,27 points)
A. slumped
B. fell
C. declined
D. dropped
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. Her friend tells her that she should _____ being silly. (0,27 points)
A. stay
B. stop
C. give up
D. not
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. People can become very _____ when they are stuck in traffic for a long time. (0,27 points)
A. nervous
B. stressful
C. pressed
D. bad-tempered
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. “Have you seen Ed lately?”
“No, because he _____ in more time at work.” (0,27 points)
A. has put
B. having put
C. has been put
D. has been putting
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23.
It’s time we _____home.
(0,27 points)
A. go
B. went
C. gone
D. going
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. If he _____ more time, he’d go to Paris (0,27 points)
A. had
B. has
C. had had
D. having
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. It’s vital that our children’s handwriting should be _____. (0,27 points)
A. legible
B. legitimate
C. literate
D. illiterate
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26.
The populace was so terrified of the tornado that however town she visited she found villages
deserted of inhabitants and livestock.
(0,27 points)
A. The
B. so terrified
C. however
D. villages deserted
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Everyday she played with her ball in the garden of the palace (0,27 points)
A. played
B. her
C. in
D. of
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his
group. (0,27 points)
A. Neither
B. arresting
C. would reveal
D. his group
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
Kate: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
B. No problem
C. Of course not, It’s not costly
D. Thanks. I think so
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. A: Would you like me to get it for you?
B: _____. (0,5 points)
A. Go ahead, please
B. I’m glad to
C. No problem
D. Me, too
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and
did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which
received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted
to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only
with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this
pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts,
Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists
also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins
were all in use in the American colonies. During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to
finance the world, so each of the individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper
money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the end of the war, almost no one would
accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.
By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system
was in a state of total disarray. Toremedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States,
approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have
their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official
currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system,
both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the
government at sixteen to one.
31. The passage mainly discusses (0,1 points)
A. American money from past to present.
B. the English monetary policies in colonial America.
C. the effect of the Revolution on American money.
D. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
32. The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was (0,1 points)
A. supplied by England.
B. coined by colonists.
C. scarce.
D. used extensively for trade.
33. The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins (0,1 points)
A. continuously from the inception of the colonies.
B. throughout the seventeenth century.
C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War.
D. for a short time during one year.
34. The expression “a means of“ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by. (0,1 points)
A. an example of
B. a method of
C. a result of
D. a punishment for
35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during the
colonial period? (0,1 points)
A. Wampum
B. Tobacco
C. Cotton
D. Beaver furs
36. The pronoun “it“ in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following (0,1 points)
A. the Continental Congress
B. Paper money
C. the War
D. Trade in goods
37. It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was
worth (0,1 points)
A. exactly one dollar
B. just under one dollar
C. just over one dollar
D. almost nothing
38. The word “remedy“ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to (0,1 points)
A. resolve
B. understand
C. renew
D. medicate
39. How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution? (0,1 points)
A. Only the US Congress could issue money.
B. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
C. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.
D. The dollar was made official currency of the US.
40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary
system? (0,1 points)
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
C. The monetary system was based on two matters.
D. It was established in 1792
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
It is estimated the (1) _____ number is not known that worldwide some 60,000 newspapers exist
with a (2) _____ circulation of nearly 500 million. However, the number of readers is (3) _____
greater-as many as three times the circulation figure.
This is because newspapers are shared, some are posted, and (4) _____ placed in libraries and
other (5) _____ places. Worldwide, about 8,000 of these newspapers are dailies. About a third of
all newspapers are published in North America, (6) _____ third in Europe, and the (7) _____ third
in the rest of the world. Countries with the highest newspaper (8) _____ are Britain, Norway,
Denmark, Sweden, Japan, and the United States. Europe has nearly half of the world’s total
newspaper circulation, North America about a quarter, and the rest of the world another quarter.
Taking the world (9) _____, the average circulation of dailies per 1,000 persons is about 100, but
there are many parts of the world where the modern newspaper is (10) _____ ever seen.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. exact
B. correct
C. precise
D. right
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. mixed
B. combined
C. connected
D. linked
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. even
B. far
C. more
D. very
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. another
B. the others
C. others
D. the rest
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. open
B. common
C. shared
D. public
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. the other
B. the next
C. another
D. the last
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. extra
B. left
C. spare
D. remaining
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. readers
B. buyers
C. readership
D. subscribers
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. as a whole
B. generally
C. on general
D. in all
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. almost
B. not
C. seldom
D. scarcely
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. libel
B. revival
C. liberal
D.
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. song
B. start
C. season
D. sing
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. cover
B. demand
C. legend
D. tension
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. epoch
B. episode
C. epic
D. equivalent
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for
agriculture. (0,25 points)
A. destruction
B. contamination
C. fertilizer
D. variety
ĐỀ THI SỐ 6
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract. (0,25 points)
A. respect
B. discourage
C. detest
D. dislike
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the
starfish and crabs, live in the ocean. (0,25 points)
A. with backbones
B. with ribs
C. without ribs
D. without backbones
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. The Germany’s war hysteria has accounted for its people’s hostility towards
foreigners (0,25 points)
A. disease
B. ceremony
C. malaria
D. serenity
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. Anne takes after her mother. (0,2 points)
A. Anne resembles her mother in action
B. Anne and her mother are alike
C. Anne looks alike her mother
D. Anne likes her mother very much
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. The theory of natural selection made the idea of organic evolution acceptable to the
majority of the scientific world. (0,2points)
A. The world’s scientists accepted the idea of organic evolution more readily than the concept of
natural selection.
B. Without the theory of natural selection to support it, no scientists would ever have approved the
theory of organic evolution.
C. On the whole, the scientific world approved the concept of organic evolution once the theory of
natural selection had been postulated.
D. It was only after the introduction of the theory of natural selection that scientists paid any attention
to the idea of organic evolution.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Ian has no intention of coming to the party, so we may as well not invite him. (0,2 points)
A. None of us wants Ian to be at the party, so we aren’t inviting him.
B. Let’s not invite Ian to the parry unless he promises to come.
C. As he doesn’t mean to come anyway, we needn’t ask Ian to the party.
D. Because he never wants to come, we never ask Ian to parties with us.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. The switch was too high for him to reach. (0,2 points)
A. He wasn’t tall enough for reaching the switch.
B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch.
C. He wasn’t enough tall to reach the switch.
D. He wasn’t so tall that he can reach the switch.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight. (0,2 points)
A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. The presidents of the two companies have been involved in a huge business _____ (0,27 points)
A. transaction
B. reaction
C. acceleration
D. cohesion
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. “Do you think the new teacher is good?” “Yes. She explains things clearly, _____ makes it easier
to learn.” (0,27 points)
A. consequently
B. by which
C. which
D. in that
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. _____, even though many countries are stepping up their own production (0,27 points)
A. Steel remains an important item of international trade
B. This is just one of many developments in international trade
C. England still imported a great deal of tropical fruit
D. Turkey’s exports of fruit and vegetables will have dropped sharply
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. At the hospital I was told that, _____ I gave up smoking immediately my illness would get much
worse. (0,27 points)
A. except
B. until
C. without
D. unless
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. The school was closed for a month because of serious _____ of fever. (0,27 points)
A. outcome
B. outburst
C. outset
D. outbreak
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. _____mammals, once weaned, do not routinely drink milk. (0,27 points)
A. As a whole,
B. All whole,
C. Wholly,
D. On a whole,
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. Honshu Island, Japan _____ by a tsunami on March 11, 2011. (0,27 points)
A. strikes
B. is struck
C. has struck
D. was struck
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. The visitors found the little girl’s stories very _____ . (0,27 points)
A. amuse
B. amused
C. amuses
D. amusing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. Look out! The car _____ toward us. (0,27 points)
A. is coming
B. will come
C. will be coming
D. comes
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. Many scientists are sure _____ life on other planets. (0,27 points)
A. there was
B. there had been
C. there are
D. there is
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. “Do you think she’ll get the scholarship?”
“ _____ an excellent student, she stands a good chance.” (0,27 points)
A. Since being
B. Being
C. To be
D. Because being
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. A (An) _____ is a person who designs buildings. (0,27 points)
A. farmer
B. architect
C. decorator
D. mechanic
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. (0,27 points)
A. Hardly he had
B. the office
C. that he had
D. forgotten
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. We have our doubts about whether the recently implemented regulations will be beneficial
or they are not. (0,27 points)
A. doubts about
B. recently
C. will
D. they are not
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called. (0,27 points)
A. of the
B. report
C. her name
D. called
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Linda: “Thomas thinks he knows everything about dinosaurs.”
Jill: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. He’s such a know-all.
B. He knew a lot about dinosaurs.
C. He knows enough.
D. Everything he knows is all about dinosaurs.
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “That’s a very nice skirt you’re wearing.”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. How a compliment!
B. That’s all right.
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. I like you said so.
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices.
For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing
reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over
telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit
the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately
8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear
to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its
cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. Theseexecutives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not
yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are
concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible
in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work
area, they never really get away from the office.
31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? (0,1 points)
A. The advantages of telecommuting.
B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting.
D. The failure of telecommuting.
32. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? (0,1 points)
A. More than predicted in Business Week.
B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
D. Fewer than last year.
33. The phrase “of no consequence“ means _____. (0,1 points)
A. of no use
B. of no good
C. unimportant
D. irrelevant
34. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT
_____. (0,1 points)
A. the opportunities for advancement.
B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group.
D. The work place is in the home.
35. The word “executives “in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. telecommuters
B. managers
C. employees
D. most people
36. The word “them“ in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. systems
B. telecommuters
C. executives
D. responsibilities
37. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees
_____. (0,1 points)
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
38. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is _____. (0,1 points)
A. a telecommuter
B. the manager
C. a statistician
D. a reporter
39. The word “reluctant“ in the passage can best be replaced by _____. (0,1 points)
A. opposite
B. willing
C. hesitate
D. typical
40. When Business Week published “The Portable Executive“, it implied that (0,1 points)
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
AS OLD AS YOU FEEL
It might after all be true that you are only as old as you feel. A British clinic is carrying out new high-
tech tests to calculate the “real” biological age of patients (1) _____ on the rate of physical
deterioration. Information on every (2) _____ of a patient’s health, fitness, lifestyle and family medical
history is (3) _____ into a computer to work out whether they are older or younger than their calendar
age suggest.
The availability and increasing accuracy of the tests has (4) _____ one leading British gerontologist
to call for biological age to be used to determine when workers should retire. He (5) _____ that if an
employee’s biological or “real” age is shown, for example, to be 55 when he reaches his 65th
birthday, he should be (6) _____ to work for another decade. Apparently most employers only take
into (7) _____ a person’s calendar years, and the two may differ considerably. Some of those
prepared to pay a substantial sum of money for the examinations will be able to smugly walk away
with medical (8) _____ showing that they really are as young as they feel, giving them the confidence
to act and dress as if they were younger. Dr. Lynette Yong, resident doctor at the clinic where the
tests are offered claims that the purpose of these tests will be to motivate people to (9) _____ their
health.
The concept of “real” age is set to become big (10) _____ in the USA with books and websites
helping people work out whether their body is older or younger than their years. Others firmly believe
that looks will always be the best indicator of age.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. prospect
B. arranged
C. based
D. established
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. attitude
B. position
C. decided
D. aspect
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. planned
B. provided
C. supplied
D. fed
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. provided
B. prompted
C. projected
D. provoked
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. argues B. discusses
C. enquires D. debates
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. incited
B. encouraged
C. supported
D. promoted
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. detail
B. account
C. interest
D. importance
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. evidence
B. grounds
C. signs
D. demonstration
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. increase
B. gain
C. improve
D. progress
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. pursuit
B. concern
C. trade
D. business
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. mandarin
B. manual
C. maternal
D. manage
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. christmas
B. chemical
C. switch
D. character
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. multitude
B. musician
C. museum
D. municipal
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. tolerant
B. ignorant
C. descendant
D. immigrant
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer. (0,25 points)
ĐỀ THI SỐ 1
A. speed
B. expect more
C. do better
D. treat better
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. Roget’s Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas
they express rather than by alphabetical order. (0,25 points)
A. restricted
B. as well as
C. unless
D. instead of
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of
wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. (0,25 points)
A. happiness
B. worry and sadness
C. pain and sorrow
D. loss
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. Children receive their “luck money” inside red envelopes. (0,25 points)
A. publish
B. deliver
C. transmit
D. spread
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. You should have persuaded him to change his mind. (0,2 points)
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her
to. (0,2 points)
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
B. Once the operation was over her recovery was as fast as could be expected.
C. To our great surprise she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over.
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:
11. I see no reason to change my clothes so long as they are not excessively dirty. (0,2 points)
A. If my clothes were a bit dirty, then probably I would think about changing them.
B. Provided my clothes are not too dirty, I do not think it necessary to change them.
C. I will have to change my clothes if they get any less clean than they currently are.
D. It is illogical to change my clothes when they are not actually dirty.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan? (0,2 points)
A. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me. (0,2 points)
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.
C. Not only did he spent all his money but also he borrowed some from me.
D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. I failed my exam. I worked hard for it. I’m so _____ (0,27 points)
A. disappoint
B. disappointing
C. disappointingly
D. disappointed
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Are you able to _____ CDs on your computer? (0,27 points)
A. toast
B. cook
C. bake
D. burn
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. My family consist _____ five people: my parents, my two younger brothers and I. (0,27 points)
A. on
B. of
C. over
D. up
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. “They’re still looking for Jack”
“Hasn’t he _____yet?” (0,27 points)
A. found
B. been found
C. being found
D. to found
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. He look very _____ when I told him the new. (0,27 points)
A. happily
B. happy
C. happiness
D. happiest
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. I _____ hope there won’t be a repetition of these unfortunate events. (0,27 points)
A. deeply
B. sincerely
C. strongly
D. thoroughly
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. You should take more exercise if you want to keep _____ (0,27 points)
A. fit
B. fat
C. fine
D. fresh
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. I usually _____ out with Martin on Saturdays but he’s away this weekend. (0,27 points)
A. went
B. is going
C. have gone
D. go
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. We were all _____ at how well she spoke English. (0,27 points)
A. shocked
B. shattered
C. astonished
D. incredible
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. We _____ to see you this weekend. (0,27 points)
A. are coming
B. will come
C. come
D. are going to come
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. While studying, he was financially dependent _____ his parents. (0,27 points)
A. of
B. to
C. from
D. on.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. These shoes are uncomfortable. I’m going to _____ (0,27 points)
A. take off
B. take them off
C. take off them
D. take them out
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Nobody had known before the presentation that Sue and her sister will receive the awards for
outstanding scholarships. (0,27points)
A. had known
B. the
C. will receive
D. the awards
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Unless you water your indoor plants regularly and give them the necessary vitamins, you can’t
expect them to look healthily.(0,27 points)
A. Unless
B. and
C. the
D. healthily
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. He said that he will leave there the following day. (0,27 points)
A. said that
B. will leave
C. there
D. the following day
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. “Let’s have supper now.”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. You aren’t eating
B. I won’t
C. There aren’t many
D. Bill isn’t here
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Jane: “It’s going to rain”.
Mary: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. I hope not so
B. I don’t hope either
C. I don’t hope so
D. I hope not
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom
and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects
of its construction make it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the
Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden
passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world.
The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west - an
incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so
computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events - past, present and
future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past.
Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe
that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even
associate it with extra-terrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
31. What has research of the base revealed? (0,1 points)
A. there are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events
D. A superior race of people built in
32. Extra-terrestrial beings are _____. (0,1 points)
A. very strong workers
B. astronomers ‘in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. living beings from other planets
33. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages? (0,1 points)
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
34. The word feat in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. accomplishment
B. appendage
C. festivity
D. structure
35. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize? (0,1 points)
A. Architects’ plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies’
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
36. In the second passage, the word prophesied is closet in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. affiliated
B. precipitated
C. terminated
D. foretold
37. What is the best title for the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
38. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations? (0,1 points)
A. Observation of the celestial bodies
B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement
D. Knowledge of the Earth’s surface
39. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed? (0,1 points)
A. As a solar observatory
B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh
D. as an engineering feat
40. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world? (0,1 points)
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information about
yourself. Think about how you want to present your (1) _____, experiences education, work, style,
skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the
statements you make, it is also a good idea to review your resume with a critical eye and (2) _____
areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can
answer difficult questions (3) _____ and positively, while keeping each answer brief.
An interview gives the employer a (4) _____ to get to know you while you do want to market yourself
to the employer, answer each question with an honest (5) _____. Never say anything negative about
past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about
an experience and talk about that. You should also be (6) _____. If you are genuinely interested (7)
_____ the job, let the interviewer know that.
One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the
organization prior to the interview. You can also {8) _____interest by asking questions about the job,
the organization, and its services and products. The best way to impress an employer is to ask
questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows you are interested and (9) _____
close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few questions in advance, but an
insightful comment based on your conversation can make an even stronger statement. At the (10)
_____ of an interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may expect to hear; from the employer.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. pressure
B. practices
C. promotions
D. strengths
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. hide
B. identify
C. express
D. limit
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. sharply B. hardy
C. accurately D. rightly
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. chance
B. way
C. change
D. practice
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. expression
B. respect
C. response
D. ability
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. enthusiastic
B. enthusiast
C. enthusiasm
D. enthusiastically
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. on B. for C. with D. in
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. appear
B. show
C. cover
D. conceal
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. make
B. pay
C. choose
D. spend
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. final
B. finish
C. close
D. end
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. poster
B. potent
C. Poland
D. polish
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. church
B. choose
C. chemist
D. cheer
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. prosecutor
B. satellite
C. diplomat
D. contestant
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. develop
B. attractive
C. advertise
D. construction
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
ĐỀ THI SỐ 8
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood. (0,25 points)
A. rich
B. successful
C. honest
D. famous
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. I hope to have the privilege of working with them again. (0,25 points)
A. honor
B. advantage
C. favor
D. right
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. Henry has found a temporary job in a factory. (0,25 points)
A. eternal
B. genuine
C. permanent
D. satisfactory
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. What services do you think the post office offers? (0,25 points)
A. withdraws
B. receives
C. sells
D. brings
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. Nobody at all came to the meeting (0,2 points)
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting
B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Not a single person came to the meeting
D. Only a few people came to the meeting
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon. (0,2 points)
A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full.
B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.
C. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.
D. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile. (0,2 points)
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
D. This job offers a poor salary.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place. (0,2 points)
A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess right now.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. Almost everybody in the hotel took advantage of its free bus to the beach. (0,2 points)
A. Hardly anybody who was staying in the hotel travelled to the beach on its free bus.
B. Nearly everyone who was on the beach had taken the free bus from the hotel.
C. Everyone in the hotel saw its free bus to the beach as the best way to get there.
D. Only a few of the guests didn’t use the hotel’s bus, which was free, to get to the beach.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. I _____ to go fishing at weekends when I was a child. (0,27 points)
A. can
B. used
C. use
D. went
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Her father won’t _____ her drive his car (0,27 points)
A. allow
B. leave
C. permit
D. let
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. Can you _____ me a favour by taking me to the market after class tomorrow
morning? (0,27 points)
A. get
B. do
C. take
D. have
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. Why don’t you become a teacher? There’s a great _____ of them at the moment. (0,27 points)
A. requirement
B. need
C. shortage
D. want
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. “Why is Laura crying?”
“Something unpleasant _____ at school.” (0,27 points)
A. happens
B. happened
C. had happened
D. happening
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. Snow aids farmers by keeping heat in the lower ground levels, thereby _____ from
freezing. (0,27 points)
A. to save the seeds
B. saving the seeds
C. which save the seeds
D. the seeds save
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. _____, we couldn’t have continued with the project. (0,27 points)
A. Unless we had your contribution
B. Provided your contribution wouldn’t come
C. Even if you didn’t like to contribute
D. If you hadn’t contributed positively
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. The advancing army wreaked terrible _____ for their previous defeats. (0,27 points)
A. retaliation
B. reprisal
C. vengeance
D. vindictiveness
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. She used to be much shorter than I was; now she’s taller than _____ (0,27 points)
A. I
B. I has
C. I do
D. I am
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. Do you find it easy to _____ friends? (0,27 points)
A. take
B. have
C. make
D. get
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas _____ love and
marriage. (0,27 points)
A. to
B. at
C. about
D. in
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. I often go abroad _____ business. (0,27 points)
A. for
B. on
C. in
D. through
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez’s ability to keep the new restaurant
going for several months with limited revenue. (0,27 points)
A. should be considered
B. ability
C. for several
D. with limited revenue
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. I was sure that some players had taken the money, even though they all denied. (0,27 points)
A. that
B. taken
C. though
D. denied
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. I went to the library to get as many information as I could. (0,27 points)
A. went
B. to get
C. many information
D. could
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Harry: “May I smoke?”
Kate: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. What suit you?
B. You are free
C. Accommodate yourself!
D. Go ahead!
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Student: “I would like to join the library.”
Librarian: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. OK: Would you like to fill in this form?
B. OK. This is the form that requires us.
C. OK. I would like to fill in this form.
D. OK. See if you can join.
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London
from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with
technology. Deep inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s
functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance, mood, hormone levels,
digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is
called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies “day”). This body clock programmes
us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta
times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major
causes of the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal body
clock with clocks in the external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock,
which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more
complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may adjust to a
new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your digestion may
be on a different schedule altogether. Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the
body clock is to extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to
shrink our day. That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock friendly than flying
east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was associated with significantly
better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you are “extending” your
day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock. Flying eastward will involve
“shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your internal clock’s natural tendency.
One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted. There are
many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and activity levels, trying
to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake, disruption of the internal circadian clock
and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function
well. Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by
20 percent and communication by 30 percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as
soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as
soon as you arrive. But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a
new time zone.
31. The main function of the body clock is to _____ (0,1 points)
A. govern all the body’s responses.
B. regulate the body’s functions.
C. help us sleep.
D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle.
32. The word “It“ refers to _____ (0,1 points)
A. the programme
B. the body clock
C. the function
D. the brain
33. Jet lag _____ (0,1 points)
A. makes our body clock operate badly.
B. causes our body clock to change.
C. extends the hours of our body clock.
D. upsets our body’s rhythms.
34. The word “malady“ is closest in meaning to _____ (0,1 points)
A. illness
B. bore
C. thought
D. feeling
35. The direction you fly in _____ (0,1 points)
A. helps you sleep better.
B. alters your body’s natural rhythms.
C. affects the degree of jet lag.
D. extends or shrinks your body clock.
36. According to the article, _____ (0,1 points)
A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly.
B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying.
C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making.
D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.
37. On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article _____ (0,1 points)
A. makes no suggestions.
B. says there is nothing you can do.
C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock.
D. suggests changing the time on your watch.
38. According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’ sleep? (0,1 points)
A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m.
B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent.
C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity.
D. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock.
39. It can be inferred from the passage that _____ (0,1 points)
A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward.
B. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones.
C. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones.
D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones.
40. The word “fatigue“ is closest in meaning to _____ (0,1 points)
A. obsession
B. exhaustion
C. sleeplessness
D. frustration
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1) _____ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _____ on consuming two-
thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so just to stay alive we are
rapidly destroying the (3) _____ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper.
Everywhere fertile soil is (4) _____ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are
exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (5) _____. We discharge pollutants into the
atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (6) _____ the planet’s ability to support
people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (7) _____
increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s (8) _____ resources are there for us to use. We need
food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) _____ us fed, comfortable,
healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (10) _____ indefinitely.
But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. Although
B. Yet
C. Still
D. Despite
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. continues
B. repeats
C. follows
D. carries
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. individual
B. alone
C. very
D. solitary
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. neither
B. sooner
C. rather
D. either
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. utterly
B. completely
C. quite
D. greatly
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. result
B. reaction
C. development
D. product
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. making
B. doing
C. having
D. taking
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. living
B. real
C. natural
D. genuine
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. maintain
B. stay
C. hold
D. keep
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. remain
B. go
C. last
D. stand
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. sword
B. whole
C. answer
D. sweet
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. boots
B. books
C. stops
D. learns
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. industrial
B. exhibition
C. preparation
D. decoration
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. absentee
B. referee
c. employee
D. committee
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 1
5. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr.
Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism. (0,25 points)
A. exhaustive
B. charitable
C. remarkable
D. widespread
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity. (0,25 points)
A. reveal
B. conserve
C. cover
D. presume
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. This meant that more work had to be done to eradicate illiteracy in our country. (0,25 points)
A. disappointed
B. neglected
C. begun
D. made
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. Fax transmission has now become a cheap and convenient way to transmit texts and graphics
over distances. (0,25 points)
A. inopportune
B. remote
C. unavailable
D. distant
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:
9. Barely had Laura sat down at her computer in her office when she was called away to deal with
an unhappy customer (0,2points)
A. Because Laura was instructed to sort out the complaint of an annoyed customer, she had no time
to sit down at her computer.
B. Someone called Laura out of her office to try and sort out the problem of a dissatisfied customer
just after she had sat down in front of her computer.
C. An unhappy customer called Laura out of her office to deal with his complaint, just as she was
getting into her seat in front of her computer.
D. Laura was ordered to help resolve the problem of an upset customer before she was able to go
into her office and sit down at the computer.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. He is an authority on primitive religion. (0,2 points)
A. He is famous for his vast knowledge of primitive religion.
B. He has authority over the people who practise primitive religion
C. He has a great influence on the people who practise primitive religion.
D. He has official permission to practice primitive religion
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final. (0,2 points)
A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now
C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. That will put the cat among the pigeons. (0,2 points)
A. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
B. That will cause a lot of trouble.
C. The cat will play with the pigeons.
D. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview. (0,2 points)
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.
B. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won’t go badly for you.
D. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. We can’t find a place _____ (0,27 points)
A. live
B. to live
C. living
D. lived
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. The weather is so awful that I don’t _____ going out this evening. (0,27 points)
A. fancy
B. like
C. try
D. want
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. The _____ last thing I want now is to catch a cold. (0,27 points)
A. most
B. extremely
C. utterly
D. very
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. It was _____ of you to lie to me about where you were last night. (0,27 points)
A. misleading
B. false
C. deceitful
D. deceptive
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. John took a _____ course in typing before he applied for the job. (0,27 points)
A. brisk
B. crash
C. snap
D. prompt
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. The classroom heating was broken and all the students sat there _____. (0,27 points)
A. sobbing
B. shivering
C. dozing
D. blushing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. When I came home yesterday, my wife _____ (0,27 points)
A. cooks
B. cooked
C. cooking
D. was cooking
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. We should look at real examples instead of _____ ones. (0,27 points)
A. hypodermic
B. hypothetical
C. hypnotic
D. hypocritical
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. I _____ this letter while I was tidying up. (0,27 points)
A. came by
B. brought in
C. brought back
D. came across
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. Your room is in a mess! _____ it up at once! (0,27 points)
A. Arrange
B. Make
C. Tidy
D. Do
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. Telling him he was boring wasn’t a very _____ thing to say (0,27 points)
A. nice
B. well-mannered
C. flattered
D. mannered
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. A friend of mine phoned _____ me to a party (0,27 points)
A. invite
B. to invite
C. for invite
D. for inviting
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600
can classify as active. (0,27 points)
A. Of
B. only
C. classify
D. active
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. One or the other of the secretaries have to attend the meeting. But both of them are reluctant to
do so. (0,27 points)
A. One or the other
B. of the
C. have to
D. both of them
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honor that country’s record third
world cup title in Mexico in 1970. (0,27 points)
A. was given
B. permanent
C. to honor
D. title
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?”.
Peter: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Sorry for this inconvenience.
B. Not at all.
C. Sorry, I’m a new comer here.
D. I have no clue.
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Tom: “ _____“
Mike: “I won’t say no!” (0,5 points)
A. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
B. How are things with you, Mike?
C. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee?
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high- quality protein, egg also
contain a high level of blood cholesterol one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in
fact, contains a little more than two- thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge
has driven egg sale to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of
several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These eggs
substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have
the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in banking. One
disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative
to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called “designer“ eggs. These eggs are produced
by hens that are fed low- flat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In
spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol
as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood
cholesterol in humans.
Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies
to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol
levels have brought mixed results. It may be that is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant
of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to
cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary fats
stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit
one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will
probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
31. What is the main purpose of the passage? (0,1 points)
A. To introduce the idea that dietary at increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes.
32. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart disease? (0,1 points)
A. Minerals
B. Cholesterol
C. Canola
D. Vitamins
33. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? (0,1 points)
A. increasing price
B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens
D. Concerns about cholesterol
34. What is meant by the phrase “mixed results” ? (0,1 points)
A. The results are blended
B. The results are a composite of things
C. The results are inconclusive
D. The results are mingled together
35. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? (0,1 points)
A. Reducing egg intake but not fat intake
B. Increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. Decreasing egg intake and fat intake
D. Increasing egg intake but not fat intake
36. Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”? (0,1 points)
A. in fact
B. a little
C. indefinitely
D. a lot
37. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately of _____ the suggested daily limit for
human consumption of cholesterol? (0,1 points)
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
38. The word “portrayed“ could best be replaced by which of the following? (0,1 points)
A. studied
B. destroyed
C. tested
D. described
39. What is the meaning of “back up“? (0,1 points)
A. reverse
B. advance
C. block
D. support
40. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of
eggs EXCEPT _____. (0,1points)
A. boiled
B. poached
C. scrambled
D. fried
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) _____ as
much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) _____ and tone
of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) _____ to something, and it may well be that we
unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (4) _____ lies in picking up
these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not
embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) _____ to answer
our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings,
and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room
and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many
employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6) _____ stability. This raises
the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests,
and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (7) _____ results. For many people,
being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable (8) _____ into their private lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect
his or her family doctor to provide (9) _____ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can
such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (10) _____ employee or a valued colleague?
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. reckon
B. rely
C. trust
D. estimate
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. manner
B. image
C. expression
D. looks
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. notion
B. feeling
C. view
D. reaction
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. successful
B. humble
C. good at
D. tactful
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. hesitant
B. reluctant
C. tending
D. used
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. psychological
B. physical
C. similar
D. relevant
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. reliable
B. predictable
C. faithful
D. regular
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. invasion
B. infringement
C. intrusion
D. interference
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. confidential
B. secretive
C. reticent
D. classified
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. laborious
B. particular
C. thorough
D. conscientious
92
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. stripe
B. tribe
C. recipe
D. ripen
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. double
B. trouble
C. bubble
D. trough
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. deteriorate
B. discriminate
C. disinfectant
D. disparaging
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. igneous
B. igloo
C. ignorant
D. ignore
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. “He insisted on listening to the entire story”. (0,25 points)
ĐỀ THI SỐ 10
93
A. part
B. funny
C. whole
D. interesting
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. When their rent increased from $200 to $400 a month, they protested against such
a tremendous increase (0,25 points)
A. light
B. huge
C. tiring
D. difficult
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about” (0,25 points)
A. good behavior
B. behaving improperly
C. behaving nice
D. behaving cleverly
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. She could not hide her dismay at the result. (0,25 points)
A. disappointment
B. depression
C. happiness
D. pessimism
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. She only felt relaxed after a few months working for him. (0,2 points)
A. She used to feel relaxed working for him a few months.
B. A few months ago, she didn’t find it relaxed working for him.
C. Only after a few months working for him did she feel relaxed.
D. It was not until a few months working for him did she feel relaxed.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. If I’d known where they lived I would certainly have gone to visit them while I was in
Paris. (0,2 points)
A. I didn’t even know they were living in Paris so I never thought of visiting them.
94
B. I visited them when I was living in Paris but now I’ve lost touch with them.
C. I wanted to visit them while I was in Paris but as I didn’t have their address, I couldn’t.
D. Last week I was in Paris but I didn’t feel like going to visit them.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. There is little pleasure to be gained from a gift given unwillingly. (0,2 points)
A. More enjoyment can be found in giving a present than in receiving it.
B. Presents should only be given if you think it’ll make the receiver happy.
C. You will certainly not enjoy giving a present to a person you don’t like.
D. Unless a present is given freely, it won’t bring much happiness.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. Much to my surprise, I found his lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia extremely
interesting. (0,2 points)
A. Contrary to expectations, his lecture on ancient Mesopotamia was the most fascinating of all.
B. It was at his lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia that I realized how fascinating the subject
is.
C. I was fascinated by what he had to say in his lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia though I
hadn’t expected to be.
D. I hadn’t expected him to lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia, but he spoke remarkably well.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. All the best items had been sold by the time we got to the exhibition. (0,2 points)
A. We stayed on at the exhibition until all the best things had been sold.
B. By the time we arrived at the exhibition they had sold all but a few expensive items
C. We arrived at the exhibition too late to find anything worth buying
D. Some of the most valuable things at the exhibition weren’t sold till much later.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
95
14. Today is their golden wedding anniversary. They _____married for 50 years. (0,27 points)
A. have been
B. has been
C. was
D. will be
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. _____ because they help to prepare the student for the final examination. (0,27 points)
A. A dictionary is a reliable guide to pronunciation
B. Surely you understood the importance of being able to speak and write effectively
C. None of them was adequately prepared
D. Examinations given during the term are useful
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. The lower tax rate is particularly _____ to poorer families. (0,27 points)
A. advantage
B. advantageous
C. disadvantage
D.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. We’ll stay in the United State until our visa runs _____ (0,27 points)
A. up
B. out
C. off
D. away
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. Her parents were very _____ when she didn’t phone to say she had arrived home
safely. (0,27 points)
A. sorry
B. worried
C. insulted
D. strained
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
96
19. I always try to _____ something each month for my holidays. (0,27 points)
A. spare
B. save
C. spend
D. put
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. “Could I speak to Mai, please?”-“ Yes, _____” (0,27 points)
A. answering
B. talking
C. saying
D. speaking
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. She _____here since I came here. (0,27 points)
A. lives
B. lived
C. is living
D. has lived
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. They said they were happy they had put their trust _____ me. (0,27 points)
A. on to
B. on
C. in
D. with
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. Do you get _____ well with your neighbors? (0,27 points)
A. during
B. on
C. next
D. last
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. Should we _____ dinner now or later? (0,27 points)
A. to having
B. to have
C. have
D. having
97
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The mother put a rug _____ her sleeping child (0,27 points)
A. at
B. in
C. on
D. over
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Thunder can be listened from a maximum distance of about ten
miles except under unusual atmospheric conditions. (0,27points)
A. listened
B. maximum
C. except
D. unusual
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Several million points on the human body registers either cold, heat, pain, or
touch. (0,27 points)
A. Several
B. on the
C. registers
D. pain
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Faced with petroleum shortages in the 1970’s, scientists and engineers in the United States
stepped up its efforts to developmore efficient heating systems and better insulation. (0,27 points)
A. Faced with
B. its
C. to develop
D. heating system
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!”
“_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
98
D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Sue: “I’ve got a new grammar book.”
Robert: “ _____ ” (0,5 points)
A. What its price?
B. How many cost?
C. How much was it?
D. How much you paid?
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the
decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations
made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of
importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is
apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by
the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of
personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and
architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic
structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has changed
over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts,
increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the
achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed
this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an
effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give
them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum,
the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an
opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss? (0,1 points)
99
A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses
C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned
32. The phrase devoted to in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. specializing in
B. sentimental about
C. surrounded by
D. successful in
33. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931? (0,1 points)
A. The old furniture was replaced
B. The estate became a museum
C. The owners moved out
D. The house was repaired
34. What does the author mean by stating the impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the
visitor? (0,1 points)
A. Few people visit Winterthur
B. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable
C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum
D. Winterthur is very old
35. The word assembled in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. summoned
B. appreciated
C. fundamentally changed
D. brought together
36. The word it in the passage refers to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. collection
B. English country house
C. visitor
D. Winterthur
100
37. The word developing in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. evolving
B. exhibiting
C. informative
D. traditional
38. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT
_____ . (0,1 points)
A. place of manufacture
B. date
C. past ownership
D. style
39. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Paragraph 2 explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with that explained in
Paragraph 1.
B. Paragraph 2 explains a term that was mentioned in Paragraph 1.
C. Each paragraph describes a different historical period
D. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum
40. Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have
changed? (0,1 points)
A. This fact is of importance …… matter of personal interpretation.
B. Passing through successive …… for more than a century.
C. The Winterthur Museum is a collection ….. displayed in a great country house.
D. Winterthur remains, then, a house …… has changed over the years.
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become
a symbol of our wasteful, throw-way society. But there seems little (1) _____ it is here to stay, and
the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (2) _____ even environmental ones. It’s
not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental (3) _____ - it’s the way society choose
to use and (4) _____ them. Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from
oil, gas or coal - non-renewable natural resources. We import well over three million tones of the
stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (5) _____ of our
annual consumption is in the (6) _____ of packaging, and this constitutes about seven per cent by
101
weight of our domestic (7) _____ Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the
plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich - they
have a higher calorific (8) _____ than coal and one (9) _____ of ‘recovery’ strongly favoured by the
plastic manufacturers is the (10) _____ of waste plastic into a fuel.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. evidence
B. concern
C. doubt
D. likelihood
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. pleasures
B. benefits
C. savings
D. profits
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. poison
B. disaster
C. disadvantage
D. evil
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. dispose
B. store
C. endanger
D. abuse
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. portion
B. amount
C. proportion
D. rate
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. way
B. kind
C. form
D. type
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. refuse B. goods
102
C. requirements D. rubble
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. degree
B. value
C. demand
D. effect
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. measure
B. mechanism
C. method
D. medium
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. conversion
B. embarrass
C. develop
D. industry
103
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. took
B. look
C. food
D. foot
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. stone
B. alone
C. shone
D. cyclone
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. sensitive
B. compliment
C. vertical
D. assurance
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. document
B. maintain
C. fountain
D. access
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 11
104
5. Each year about fifty hundred species of plants and animals are already
being eliminated. (0,25 points)
A. dropped
B. removed
C. kicked
D. tossed
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous
diseases. (0,25 points)
A. colossal
B. popular
C. common
D. scattered
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. This time the Vietnam Society of Learning Promotion decided to expand its activities
to the central mountainous provinces.(0,25 points)
A. contract
B. diminish
C. deflate
D. wane
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. People are busy buying gifts, cleaning and decorating the house and
cooking traditional foods. (0,25 points)
A. uninteresting
B. irregular
C. unfamiliar
D. unexciting
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. You must make allowances for his inexperience. (0,2 points)
A. He was not allowed to go because his inexperience.
B. Although he was inexperienced, we must let him in.
C. You shouldn’t pay attention to his inexperience.
105
D. You should take his inexperience into account.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. The singer has given up performing live. (0,2 points)
A. The singer is accustomed to performing live.
B. The singer used to perform live.
C. The singer’s live performance has been cancelled.
D. The singers got used to performing live.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents. (0,2 points)
A. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents.
B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents.
C. Motorists are not careful and yet there are few accidents.
D. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. “I wouldn’t apply for that job, Lan, if I were you,” said Minh. (0,2 points)
A. Mirth advised Lan not to apply for that job.
B. Minh recommended Lan not apply for that job.
C. Minh felt sorry because Lan applied for that job.
D. Minh apologized to Lan for applying for that job.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:
13. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not
talented. (0,2 points)
A. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
B. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his
success.
106
C. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
D. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Mary has a lot of homework _____today. (0,27 points)
A. for doing
B. which to do
C. to do
D. doing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. No matter how much pressure you put on Simon, he won’t budge a(n)
_____. (0,27 points)
A. hand
B. mile
C. foot
D. metre
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just _____ , please. (0,27 points)
A. few
B. a few
C. little
D. a little
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. _____ it not been for the torrential rain, we would have gone out. (0,27 points)
A. But
B. If
C. Had
D. Should
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. “Shall we wait a little longer?” - “ _____“ (0,27 points)
A. No, we don’t
B. No, I’d rather not
107
C. No, it’s still early.
D. Yes, it’s very late now.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. Her life becomes _____ than it was before. (0,27 points)
A. more happy
B. as happy
C. happier
D. the happiest
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. This is _____you have ever made. (0,27 points)
A. a more silly mistake than
B. the silliest mistake
C. the most silliest mistake
D. a sillier mistake than
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. Have a piece of chocolate, _____? (0,27 points)
A. do you
B. would you
C. don’t you
D. haven’t you
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. Lunch will be ready _____ the time you get back. (0,27 points)
A. by
B. during
C. in
D. at
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. The grape is the _____, juicy fruit of a woody vine. (0,27 points)
A. skin B. smooth-skinned
108
C. smooth skin D. which is smooth
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. Who _____ was coming to see me this morning? (0,27 points)
A. you said
B. you did say
C. did you say that
D. did you say
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. Matthew’s hands were covered in oil because he _____ his bike. (0,27 points)
A. had been mending
B. has mended
C. has been mending
D. had mended
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. To be one of the earliest known human diseases, malaria is a widespread and
often fatal disease. (0,27 points)
A. To be
B. earliest known
C. a
D. and often
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Although the two signatures are supposed to be exactly the same, they are not at all
like. (0,27 points)
A. Although the
B. to be
C. exactly
D. at all like
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
109
28. Eli Whitney, born in Westborough, Massachusetts in 1765, was always interested in
machines, working in his father’s shop, taking apart a watch and putting them back
together. (0,27 points)
A. in
B. working
C. taking
D. a watch
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. A:”Do you think it will rain?’
B: “ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. I hope not
B. I not hope so
C. I don’t hope so
D. So do I hope
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “_____”
“Yes. I’d like to buy a computer.” (0,5 points)
A. Do you look for something?
B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?
D. Can you help me buy something?
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only
because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely
compressed essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her subject
were varied: animals, laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her general reading
came quotations that she found striking or insightful. She included these in her poems,
scrupulously enclosed in quotation marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this
practice, she wrote, “ ‘Why many quotation marks?’ I am asked. When a thing has been
so well that it could not be said better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a
110
cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection of flies in amber.“ Close observation and
concentration on detail and the methods of her poetry.
Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation from Bryn
Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School in Carlisle,
Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York City. During the 1920’s she was
editor of The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period. She lived quietly all her
life, mostly in Brooklyn, New York. She spent a lot of time at the Bronx Zoo, fascinated
by animals. Her admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-before the team moved to Los
Angeles-was widely known.
Her first book of poems was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends associated
with the Imagist movement. From that time on her poetry has been read with interest
by succeeding generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer
Prize for her Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write poetry “for money or fame.
To earn a living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways. One writes because one
has a burning desire to objectify what it is indispensable to one’s happiness to express.
31. What is the passage mainly about? (0,1 points)
A. The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore.
B. Essayists and poets of the 1920’s.
C. The use of quotations in poetry.
D. Marianne Moore’s life and work.
32. Which of the following can be inferred about Moore’s poems? (0,1 points)
A. They are better known in Europe than the United States.
B. They do not use traditional verse forms.
C. They were all published in The Dial.
D. They tend to be abstract.
33. According to the passage Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT
_____. (0,1 points)
A. artists
B. animals
C. fossils
D. workers
111
34. What does Moore refer to as “flies in amber“? (0,1 points)
A. A common image in her poetry.
B. Poetry in the twentieth-century.
C. Concentration on detail.
D. Quotations within her poetry.
35. The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT
_____. (0,1 points)
A. commercial artist
B. teacher
C. magazine editor
D. librarian
36. The word “period“ is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. movement
B. school
C. region
D. time
37. Where did Moore spend most of her adult life? (0,1 points)
A. In Kirkwood.
B. In Brooklyn.
C. In Los Angeles.
D. In Carlisle.
38. The word “succeeding“ in the passage is closest to _____. (0,1 points)
A. inheriting
B. prospering
C. diverse
D. later
39. The word “it” in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. writing poetry
B. becoming famous
112
C. earning a living
D. attracting readers
40. It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she _____. (0,1 points)
A. wanted to win awards
B. was dissatisfied with what others wrote
C. felt a need to express herself
D. wanted to raise money for the Bronx Zoo
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
Getting friends and family to pose for photos is hard enough, but how would you copy
with a rabbit, an owl or a butterfly that simply (1) _____to keep still? Simon King, wildlife
film-maker and photographer, says you don’t need any formal (2) _____to get started.
“The whole idea is that photographing wildlife should be fun”. Simon offers the following
(3) _____ Specialise from the start. You’re more likely to get good result sooner if you (4)
_____ on one type of wildlife - insects for instance (5) _____than just going off to the
woods of park with your camera and snapping whatever you see, pick something that
isn’t hard to photograph. Choosing an animal that’s hard to (6) _____ or will run away if it
sees you (7) _____unnecessary problems. How about flowers or a group of birds?
Search second-hand camera shops and local papers for quality (8) _____You don’t need
to (9) _____a fortune - Simon started with just a second-hand camera that cost around
pound30. But you will need a single lens reflex camera. Remember it’s the whole
photograph that counts, not just the subject (10) _____you ‘re composing a picture and
try to be as artistic as possible
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. disobeys
B. dislikes
C. refuses
D. avoid
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. training B. education
113
C. exercise D. lecture
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. lessons
B. facts
C. warnings
D. tips
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. think
B. concentrate
C. limit
D. depend
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. more
B. other
C. better
D. rather
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. spot
B. notice
C. meet
D. glance
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. create
B. start
C. put
D. lead
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. instruments
B. equipment
C. material
D. tools
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. cost
B. make
C. spend
D. lose
114
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. think
B. guess
C. invent
D. imagine
115
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. young
B. plough
C. couple
D. cousin
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. fought
B. bought
c. bough
D. sought
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. referee
B. influenza
C. affluence
D. absentee
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. rhetoric
B. dynamic
C. climatic
D. phonetic
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 12
116
5. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water. (0,25 points)
A. revived
B. surprised
C. connived
D. survived
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical
exercise (0,25 points)
A. reduced
B. encouraged
C. recognized
D. practiced
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. His career advancement was slow and he did not gain any promotion until he was 40,
when he won the position of the company’s Chief Executive. (0,25 points)
A. Progress
B. elevation
C. rise
D. decrease
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is
important. (0,25 points)
A. explicit
B. implicit
C. obscure
D. odd
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan? (0,2 points)
A. Why haven’t they been informed about the new developments?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. The fire must have been started on purpose; otherwise, it couldn’t have caused so
much damage. (0,2 points)
117
A. The fire might have been very serious if nobody had tried to prevent it.
B. If someone were to start a fire there, it could prove highly damaging.
C. No one can say for sure how the fire broke out, but the harm it did is obvious.
D. Seeing that it destroyed so many things, the fire can’t have been accidental.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. So far during their stay at this hotel, that couple have done nothing but
complain. (0,2 points)
A. All that couple have done since they arrived at this hotel is complain.
B. Throughout their time at this hotel, that couple have had no complaints.
C. Up until now, that couple haven’t had anything to complain about at this hotel.
D. Since they got to this hotel, nothing has caused that couple to complain.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:
12. Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party couldn’t have been a
success. (0,2 points)
A. The film star didn’t attend, so the party was a failure.
B. If the famous film star hadn’t attended, the party could have been a success.
C. The party was successful without the attendance of the famous film star.
D. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. I couldn’t help admiring the way he managed to finish the programme even after
such a bad fall. (0,2 points)
A. In spite of the fall, he should have finished the programme and we could have admired him
for that.
B. It was really a very bad fall, but somehow he was still able to finish the programme and I
had to admire him for that.
C. The way he finished the programme was certainly admirable, as the fall had shaken him
up badly.
D. I really admire the way he got up after the fall and completed the programme.
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Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. He went to a seaside resort because he was _____ on windsurfing. (0,27 points)
A. keen
B. fond
C. interested
D. enjoyed
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” – “Good luck! I’ll keep my _____crossed
for you. (0,27 points)
A. hands
B. legs
C. fingers
D. arms
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. The bridge goes _____ the river. (0,27 points)
A. at
B. on
C. for
D. over
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. He is so kind. He always _____a favor. (0,27 points)
A. does
B. helps
C. makes
D. takes
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. Considering his unhappy childhood, it’s not surprising he’s so _____. (0,27 points)
A. mystified
B. lost
C. mixed-up
D. baffled
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. She laughed _____ at her neighbor’s embarrassment. (0,27 points)
A. grudgingly
B. negligibly
C. maliciously
D. diligently
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
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20. “I heard I Cathy passed the exam.”
“Yes, _____ she didn’t study, she somehow succeeded.” (0,27 points)
A. unless
B. since
C. in contrast to
D. even though
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. If the rain doesn’t _____ soon, we shall have to look for a taxi. (0,27 points)
A. set about
B. let up
C. slow down
D. go off
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. My younger sister is he girl who _____ a hat like mine. (0,27 points)
A. is wearing
B. wears
C. was wearing
D. wore
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. I’m still too _____ his sudden outburst to know what to say. (0,27 points)
A. stunned by
B. shattered at
C. stunned with
D. speechless by
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. When wood, natural gas, oil, or any other fuel burns, _____ with oxygen in the air to
produce heat. (0,27 points)
A. combining substances in the fuel
B. substances in the fuel combine
C. substances in the fuel that combine
D. a combination of substances in the fuel
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The hotel was _____ and comfortable. (0,27 points)
A. home
B. homely
C. homeless
D. homeland
120
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Cartilage covers the ends of bones helps to protect the joints from wear and
tear. (0,27 points)
A. covers
B. the ends
C. to protect
D. from
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. The discovery of gold in 1848 transformed San Francisco suddenly from a quiet port into
one of the world’s richest and most famous city. (0,27 points)
A. discovery
B. transformed
C. quiet
D. city
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated. (0,27 points)
A. Alike
B. waves
C. may be
D. concentrated
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. David: “Could you bring me some water?”
Waiter: “ _____.” (0,5 points)
A. I don’t want to
B. Yes, I can
C. No, I can’t
D. Certainly, sir
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Jane: “ _____ “
David: “Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there.” (0,5 points)
A. Good luck
B. Have a go
C. Have a good trip
D. Good bye
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
121
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people.
They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone
shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world
has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future
many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there
has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about
the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are
bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells
of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head
can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to
retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn’t remember even simple
tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile
phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His
family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree. What is it
that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies
agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the
discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less
often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only
when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad
for your health. So for now, it’s wise not to use your mobile phone too often
31. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
_____ . (0,1 points)
A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.
C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
32. The word “means“ in the passage most closely means _____ . (0,1 points)
A. meanings
B. expression
C. transmission
D. method
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33. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _____ . (0,1 points)
A. cause some mental malfunction
B. change their users’ temperament.
C. change their users’ social behaviours.
D. damage their users’ emotions.
34. “Negative publicity“ in the passage most likely means _____ . (0,1 points)
A. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.
B. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
C. the negative public use of cell phones.
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
35. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with _____
. (0,1 points)
A. the smallest units of the brain.
B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
C. the resident memory.
D. the arteries of the brain.
36. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, _____
. (0,1 points)
A. had a problem with memory.
B. abandoned his family.
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability.
D. could no longer think lucidly.
37. The word “potentially“ in the passage most closely means _____ . (0,1 points)
A. certainly
B. obviously
C. privately
D. possibly
123
38. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is _____
. (0,1 points)
A. their radiant light.
B. their raiding power.
C. their power of attraction.
D. their invisible rays.
39. According to the writer, people should _____ . (0,1 points)
A. keep off mobile phones regularly.
B. never use mobile phones in all cases.
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
40. The most suitable title for the passage could be _____ . (0,1 points)
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price.
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
C. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near
future because they have been (1) _____ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of
Hawaii’s plants are found nowhere else in the world but they are (2) _____ by alien invasive
species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (3) _____ plants. The Hawaii Rare Plant
Restoration Group is striving to (4) _____ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with
fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (5) _____ . Since 1990, (6) _____ a result of their
“Plant Extinction Prevention Program”, sixteen species have been brought into (7) _____ and
three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and
fencing put up in order to (8) _____ plants in the wild. In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant
Restoration Program aims (9) _____ collecting genetic material from the remaining plants in
the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations
and where possible reintroduce species into (10) _____.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
124
A. disappeared
B. reduced
C. increased
D. developed
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. guarded
B. invested
C. conserved
D. threatened
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. national
B. native
C. international
D. non-native
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. prevent
B. encourage
C. stimulate
D. influence
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. wild
B. atmosphere
C. hole
D. sky
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. so
B. due
C. as
D. but
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. contamination
B. production
C. cultivation
D. generation
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. derive
B. vary
C. remain
D. protect
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
125
A. at
B. for
C. with
D. on
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. shelters
B. reserves
C. gardens
D. halls
126
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. compromise
B. promise
C. demise
D. devise
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. modern
B. faucet
C. orange
D. shopping
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. argument
B. enquiry
C. medicine
D. justify
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. luxurious
B. conservative
C. necessary
D. dependent
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
ĐỀ THI SỐ 13
127
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. It was very difficult to understand what he was saying about the noise of the
traffic. (0,25 points)
A. pick up
B. make up
C. turn out
D. make out
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. Chicken pox results in an eruption on the skin and sometimes it leaves permanent
marks. (0,25 points)
A. rash
B. hole
C. erosion
D. division
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. One of Tet’s most special foods is banh tet, which is made from sticky rice, green mung
beans and fatty port. (0,25 points)
A. typical
B. unlimited
C. unrestricted
D. weekly
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. Besides the ordinary telephone call service, our Post Office provides the Messenger Call
Service. (0,25 points)
A. noteworthy
B. impressive
C. unusual
D. irregular
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the
office (0,2 points)
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had not set the burglar alarm in the office
128
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn’t set the burglar just before I left for home; otherwise, I
would have had to travel all the way back to the office
C. I didn’t turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after
I’d arrived home
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn’t turned on the burglar alarm in the
office; then it would have been easier to go and set it
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. I get the impression that it will take some time for the family to overcome their
grief. (0,2 points)
A. Apparently, the family have taken a very long time to deal with their sorrow.
B. It appears to me that the family will take some time before they are able to cope with their
sorrow.
C. As far as I can see, the family have been suffering now for quite some time.
D. The only thing that will heal this family’s suffering, as we can all see, is time.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. You should get some professional advice if you’re thinking about changing the
system radically. (0,2 points)
A. If you’re considering major alterations in procedures, I suggest you consult an expert.
B. My professional advice to you is to avoid any major changes in the system.
C. It would be very unprofessional behaviour if you were to make any major changes in the
system.
D. Without consulting an expert you were ill advised to introduce any major changes to the
system.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. I would prefer you not to smoke in here. (0,2 points)
A. I’d rather you shouldn’t some in here.
B. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here.
129
C. I’d rather you not to smoke in here.
D. I’d rather you don’t smoke in here.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. I wouldn’t mind having a late meeting tomorrow since I’m quite used to going home
late. (0,2 points)
A. I’m trying to get more accustomed to going home late, so I think I’ll start the meeting late
tomorrow.
B. As it’s rather normal for me to go home late, conducting a meeting late tomorrow would be
no problem for me.
C. It’s rare that I go home late, but it’ll be no problem if tomorrow’s meeting is a bit later than
usual.
D. Why don’t we start the meeting late tomorrow, even though I know none of us is used to
leaving so late?
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Children with parents whose guidance is firm, consistent and rational are inclined _____
high levels of self-confidence. (0,27points)
A. possess
B. have possessed
C. to possess
D. possessing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Most people were no longer listening to his long _____ story. (0,27 points)
A. irritable
B. boring
C. tiring
D. annoying
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. A serious _____ has been reported by doctors in the area. (0,27 points)
130
A. epidemic
B. encounter
C. onslaught
D. outburst
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. The Louisiana Territory, an area _____ the size of France, was bought by the United States
from France for $15,000,000 in 1803.(0,27 points)
A. than more four times
B. more than four times
C. four times than more
D. is four times more than
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. It gets _____ to understand what the professor has explained. (0,27 points)
A. the more difficult
B. difficult more and more
C. more difficult than
D. more and more difficult
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. “Why aren’t you coming with us?”
“I’m not ready. My room needs _____ .” (0,27 points)
A. to clean
B. clean
C. cleaning
D. to have cleaned
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. The swallows of Capistrano are famous _____ to the same nests in California each
spring. (0,27 points)
A. to return
B. who returned
C. they returned
D. for returning
131
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. It _____ me if she _____ you. (0,27 points)
A. would surprise - didn’t help
B. will surprise - don’t help
C. would surprise - doesn’t help
D. will surprise - didn’t help
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. _____all our careful plans, a lot of things went wrong. (0,27 points)
A. Although
B. Because
C. Because of
D. In spite of
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. You should have a _____ with your boss (0,27 points)
A. story
B. word
C. phrase
D. sentence
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. Paul got married _____ 18 May 1991. (0,27 points)
A. on
B. in
C. at
D no preposition
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The temperatures _____ take place vary widely for different materials. (0,27 points)
A. at which they melt and freeze
B. which melting and freezing
C. which they melt and freeze
132
D. at which melting and freezing.
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Thanks to the timely laws, some elephant populations, especially that in southern
Africa, have recovered over the last decade.(0,27 points)
A. Thanks to
B. timely
C. that
D. have recovered
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Either the carpenter or the electrician can store their tools in the shed, but there is no room
for both sets. (0,27 points)
A. Either
B. their
C. in the shed
D. there is
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Modem transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patient
lives on an isolating farm. (0,27points)
A. to
B. sick person
C. even if
D. isolating farm
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Maria: “Thanks for the lovely evening.”
Diana: “ _____.” (0,5 points)
A. Oh, that’s right
B. I’m glad you enjoyed it
C. No, it’s not good
D. Yes, it’s really great
133
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Would you mind turning down your stereo ?’’
“ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. I’m really sorry! I ‘m not paying attention
B. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
C. No. I don’t
D. Yes, I do
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
MOBILE PHONES: Are they about to transform our lives? We love them so much
that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly
concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey
our most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We
rely on them more than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us don’t
believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third
generations phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent
report claims that the long-term effects of new mobile technologies will be entirely
positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them. Research
about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already moved beyond
being a mere practical communications tool to become the backbone of modern
social life, from love affairs to friendship to work.
The close relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among
teenagers, the report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their
identity. This is partly because mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of
parents. But the researchers suggest that another reason may be that mobiles,
especially text messaging was seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact
of phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing
friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader community.
Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible to anybody
from another area.
Among the most important benefits of using mobiles phones, the report claims,
134
will be a vastly improved mobile infrastructure, providing gains throughout the
economy, and the provision of a more sophisticated location-based services for
users. The report calls on government to put more effort into the delivery of
services by mobile phone, with suggestion including public transport and traffic
information and doctors’ text messages to remind patients of appointments. There
are many possibilities. At a recent trade fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation
product was launched. When the user enters a destination, a route is
automatically downloaded to their mobile and presented by voiced, pictures and
maps as they drive. In future, these devices will also be able to plan around
congestion and road works in real time. Third generation phones will also allow
for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In Britain scientists are developing
an asthma management solution using mobiles to detect early signs of an attack.
Mobile phones can be used in education. A group of teachers in Britain use third
generation phones to provide fast internet service to children who live beyond the
reach of terrestrial broadband services and can have no access to online
information. ‘As the new generation of mobile technologies takes off, the social
potential of the vastly increase,’ the report argues.
31. What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile
phones? (0,1 points)
A. We can’t live without them.
B. We are worried about using them so much.
C. We have contradictory feelings about them.
D. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.
32. What does “them“ in paragraph 2 refer to? (0,1 points)
A. long-term effects
B. new mobile technologies
C. doubts
D. benefits
33. What is the connection between social life and mobile phones? (0,1 points)
A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones
B. Mobile phones makes romantic communication easier
135
C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around
34. Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones? (0,1 points)
A. They use text messages more than any other group
B. They are more inclined to be late than older people
C. They feel independent when they use them
D. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations
35. Which of the following is NOT true? (0,1 points)
A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicating things that make them
uncomfortable.
D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
36. In what sense has the impact of phones been “local“ in paragraph 3? (0,1 points)
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
37. How might mobile phones be used in the future? (0,1 points)
A. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery
B. To show bus and train timetables
C. To arrange deliveries
D. To cure diseases
136
38. The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because
_____. (0,1 points)
A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
B. it provides directions orally
C. it tells them which roads are congested
D. it shows them how to avoid road works
39. What is the general attitude of the report described here? (0,1 points)
A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
40. The word “pronounced“ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. obvious
B. serious
C. voiced
D. overwhelmed
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
It is relatively easy for computers to speak. A computer that says ‘please’ and
‘thank you’ in the right places is (1) _____ miracle of science ,but recognizing the
words that make up normal , continuous human speech is another (2) _____ Not
until now have computer been programmed to (3) _____ to a range of spoken
commands. Until recently it was thought that computers would have to be
programmed to the accent and speech habits of each user, and only then would
be able to respond(4) _____to their master’s or mistress’s voice. Now rapid
progress is being made (5) _____systems programmed to adapt easily to each
new speaker. The IBM Tangora system, under development at the end of 1980s
was claimed to (6) _____a spoken vocabulary of 20,000 words with 95 percent
accuracy. The system includes a processor that can make informed guesses as
to(7) _____is a likely sentence. That system has been programmed not only with
grammatical rules, but also with an analysis of a vast quantity of office
137
correspondence. On the(8) _____ of this information ,the machine can calculate
the probability of one particular word following another. Statistical probability is
necessary for computers to interpret not only speech but also (9) _____data.
Security systems can distinguish between faces they have been taught to
recognize, but never has a computer been able to match a human’s ability to make
sense of a three-dimensional scene(10) _____identifying all objects in it.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. no
B. not
C. nothing
D. none
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. problem
B. topic
C. matter
D. theme
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. talk
B. answer
C. communicate
D. react
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. truly
B. completely
C. accurately
D. right
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. with
B. for
C. within
D. as
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. know
B. recognize
C. master
D. realize
138
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. which
B. what
C. how
D. that
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. foundation
B. principle
C. ground
D. basis
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. visual
B. noticeable
C. seen
D. visible
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. from
B. by
C. of
D. without
139
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. ready
B. steady
C. sweat
D. steak
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. battle
B. little
C. gentle
D. castle
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. collector
B. concert
C. furniture
D. comics
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. accommodate
B. appreciate
C. accessory
D. competition
ĐỀ THI SỐ 14
140
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”,
the teacher said. (0,25 points)
A. eligible
B. audible
C. edible
D. visible
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. He seemed exhausted after work. (0,25 points)
A. very tired
B. worried
C. happy
D. surprised
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston. (0,25 points)
A. uncomfortable
B. dirty
C. lazy
D. warm
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. The maximum weight limit of a parcel is 31.5kg. (0,25 points)
A. tiny
B. small
C. minimum
D. little
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. I started working for the company a year ago. (0,2 points)
A. I’ve been in this company a year ago.
B. It’s been a year since I started working for the company.
C. It’s the company that I started work a year ago.
D. It’s a year that I work for the company.
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Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. A club member who had a funny surname made a long speech. (0,2 points)
A. A club member gave a long speech about his funny surname.
B. The speech of the club member with a strange surname was very long.
C. Everyone found the speech of the club member with a strange surname long but funny.
D. We had to wait for the club member who had a funny surname to speak.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. “Let’s go out for a wake now.” he suggested. (0,2 points)
A. He suggested going out for a walk then.
B. He suggested to go out for a walk then.
C. He suggested them to go out for a walk then.
D. He suggested them going out for a walk then.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. People who are unhappy sometimes try to compensate by eating too much. (0,2 points)
A. Unhappy people are usually overweight because they tend to eat too much.
B. Eating too much occasionally makes people unhappy and depressed.
C. For some people, eating too much is a reason to be miserable.
D. When depressed, people occasionally attempt to offset their misery by overeating.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family
business. (0,2 points)
A. Richard didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire.
B. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
C. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.
D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
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Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. The computer has dramatically affected _____ photographic lenses are
constructed. (0,27 points)
A. is the way
B. that the way
C. which way do
D. the way
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Unfortunately they _____ us in the auction to the tune of £500. (0,27 points)
A. outbid
B. outweighed
C. overdid
D. underwrote
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. The music was so _____ that you couldn’t hear anything. (0,27 points)
A. loud
B. loudly
C. loudness
D. loudly
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. All the way along the wind street _____ (0,27 points)
A. he came
B. came he
C. did he came
D. comes he
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. We were facing the _____ competition imaginable. (0,27 points)
A. hardest
B. strictest
C. fullest
D. stiffest
143
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. The children have been well brought up and are certainly not _____. (0,27 points)
A. neglected
B. undone
C. omitted
D. prevented
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. One of the first exercises in math class is _____ measure the radius of a circle. (0,27 points)
A. to learn and
B. learning to
C. learn to
D. to learn how to
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. The stolen paintings were eventually restored _____ their rightful owner. (0,27 points)
A. for
B. by
C. to
D. with
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. _____, I dislike Hollywood films but this was an exception. (0,27 points)
A. As a result
B. As far as I know
C. As a rule
D. As it turns out
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. She gave him some money, just enough to buy a _____ of cigarettes. (0,27 points)
A. bundle
B. packet
C. parcel
D. case
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. I can’t believe it. My bicycle _____ last night. (0,27 points)
A. was stolen
B. was stealing
C. stolen
D. stole
144
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. _____, manufacturers could bring down the prices of their products. (0,27 points)
A. In spite of careful market research
B. Instead of spending so much money on advertising
C. As companies misjudge the market
D. Knowing how much the public was prepared to pay
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. One-cent coins issued in the United States in 1982 was 96 percent zinc. (0,27 points)
A. issued
B. the
C. in
D. was
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Mosquitoes usually lay eggs on top stagnant water. (0,27 points)
A. Mosquitoes
B. usually
C. lay
D. top stagnant
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. A huge amount of immigrants passed through the Great Hall on Ellis Island between 1892
and 1954. (0,27 points)
A. amount
B. through
C. on
D. between
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Tom: “I’m sorry. I won’t be able to come.”
Mary: “_____.” (0,5 points)
145
A. Great
B. Oh, that’s annoying
C. Well, never mind
D. Sounds like fun
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
Laura: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now
D. Yes, It’s all right.
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality
protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes
of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the
suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg sales to plummet
in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several
alternatives to eating regular eggs.
One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs,
but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage
of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One
disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. The
second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called ‘designer’
eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of
ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however,
these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular
eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the
blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite
scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship
146
between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be
that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person
who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived
from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats
stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still
makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing
this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol
level.
31. What is the main purpose of the passage? (0,1 points)
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat ‘designer’ eggs and egg substitutes.
32. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases? (0,1 points)
A. minerals
B. cholesterol
C. canola oil
D. vitamins
33. Which of the following could best replace the word somewhat? (0,1 points)
A. in fact
B. a little
C. indefinitely
D. a lot
34. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? (0,1 points)
A. increasing price
B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens
D. concerns about cholesterol
35. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested
daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? (0,1 points)
147
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
36. The word portrayed could best be replaced by which of the following? (0,1 points)
A. studied
B. destroyed
C. tested
D. described
37. What is the meaning of back up? (0,1 points)
A. reverse
B. advance
C. block
D. support
38. What is meant by the phrase mixed results? (0,1 points)
A. The results are blended.
B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive.
D. The results are mingled together.
39. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following types of
eggs EXCEPT? (0,1 points)
A. boiled
B. poached
C. scrambled
D. fried
40. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? (0,1 points)
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
148
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
In this week’s issue, our resident film critic discusses the etiquette of cinema going,
and the(1) _____ who prefer chewing hot-dogs, slurping drinks, gossiping and
rustling crisp papers to actually watching the film. Fair complaint, or just cinema
snobbery ? It’s the munchers and talkers, not those who complain about them, who
are(2) _____ other people’s(3) _____ pleasures and the (4) _____ seem to me to
be self-evident. Junk(5) _____ and even popcorns and choc ices, when eaten in
a(6) _____ and possibly crowded space, are inclined to demand living space. They
spread themselves about - usually onto other people’s(7) _____ Crisps, peanuts,
and boiled sweets make a lot of noise, first when being (8) _____ then when being
crushed or sucked. These are definite(9) _____ , especially if you yourself - having
merely come to see and hear the film - are not eating and therefore generously(10)
_____ your friend onions, mustard and ketchup with the trousers of the stranger in
the next seat.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. spectators
B. observers
C. witnesses
D. audiences
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. damaging
B. spoiling
C. hurting
D. injuring
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. Simple
B. natural
C. Primary
D. elementary
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. excuses
B. accusations
C. reasons
D. complaints
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
149
A. diets
B. meals
C. dishes
D. foods
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. confined
B. closed
C. reduced
D. narrow
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. dress
B. costume
C. outfit
D. clothing
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. unpacked
B. untied
C. unwrapped
D. unfolded
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. irritations
B. amusements
C. anxieties
D. inconveniences
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. exchanging
B. dividing
C. splitting
D. sharing
150
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. archaic
B. chivalry
C. archive
D. architect
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. dubious
B. dubbing
C. durable
D. duplicate
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. consignation
B. abnormality
C. supplementary
D. confidence
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 15
151
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. discuss
B. waving
C. airport
D. often
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. He made one last futile effort to convince her and left home. (0,25 points)
A. favorable
B. difficult
C. ineffectual
D. firm
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking
you. (0,25 points)
A. be related to
B. be interested in
C. pay all attention to
D. express interest in
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. This service helps you to notify the recipient of the time and place to receive the call. (0,25 points)
A. miss
B. deliver
C. publish
D. expel
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community. (0,25 points)
152
A. cooperate
B. put together
C. separate
D. connect
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. It’s impossible to cross the road because of the traffic. (0,2 points)
A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road.
B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road.
C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road.
D. The traffic makes it impossible to cross the road.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. You can cancel your ticket with a full refund only if you do so one week before your scheduled
departure. (0,2 points)
A. You can apply for a full refund for your ticket within a week if you’re had a change of plan and can’t
make the flight.
B. When you purchase a ticket for a flight, it’s impossible to get a refund on it in advance of the date
that your flight will be leaving.
C. In order to get all the money you’ve paid for the ticket back, the cancellation has to be done seven
days prior to your plane’s scheduled take-off.
D. When a flight has been canceled by the airlines, you must ask for a full refund within one week of
the day of departure.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him. (0,2 points)
A. He had just entered the house when the police arrested him.
B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
C. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now.
D. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn. (0,2 points)
A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly.
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B. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat theft.
C. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.
D. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. The 1980s brought a surge of new interest in expanding the definition of intelligence. (0,2 points)
A. Efforts to widen the definition of intelligence are immensely characteristic of the 1980s.
B. It was during the 1980s that the definition of intelligence attracted some attention.
C. During the 1980s the desire to broaden the definition of intelligence appeared with compelling
force.
D. With the 1980s radical new definitions of intelligence suddenly and unexpectedly came into being.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Henry will not accept that I am _____; he expects everything I do to be perfect. (0,27 points)
A. fallible
B. reversible
C. destitute
D. notorious
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. Happiness is something _____ money cannot buy. (0,27 points)
A. whom
B. whose
C. where
D. that
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. There were one or two _____ voices, although the majority were in favour of the
proposal. (0,27 points)
A. dissenting
B. clamoring
C. refuting
D. acclaiming
154
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. Mrs. Brown was the first owner _____ dog won three prizes in the same show. (0,27 points)
A. who
B. her
C. whom
D. whose
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. She’s so _____. One minute she’s your best friend, and the next minute she doesn’t want to know
you. (0,27 points)
A. deceptive
B. two-faced
C. deceitful
D. misleading
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. I love lying in the sun, drinking Coca-Cola, _____ poems (0,27 points)
A. read
B. reading
C. to read
D. to read
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. There was a _____ to overthrow the dictator. (0,27 points)
A. consistency
B. consolidation
C. consortium
D. conspiracy
155
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. Alice was _____ hear the news of her brother’s accident. (0,27 points)
A. devastating to
B. devastated
C. devastating
D. devastated to
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. While Ms. Montello was at one meeting, her assistant was _____ another one for
her. (0,27 points)
A. arrangement
B. arranging
C. arranged
D. arrange
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. A good essay must _____contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good
organization. (0,27 points)
A. in addition
B. either
C. not only
D. as well
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. After he _____his driving test he bought a car. (0,27 points)
A. had passed
B. pass
C. passed
D. passing
156
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. Fire safety in family houses, _____ most fire deaths occur, is difficult. (0,27 points)
A. how
B. when
C. why
D. where
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. With tears in our eyes, we watched her train slowly depart the platform. (0,27 points)
A. With
B. in
C. slowly
D. depart
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. All sewing was done with hand until the invention of the sewing machine in the nineteenth
century. (0,27 points)
A. All sewing
B. done
C. with hand
D. in
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Twenty-four is enough old to live with his parents. (0,27 points)
A. is
B. enough
C. to
D. parents
157
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. “_____.”
“I love it. It’s great, especially at night.” (0,5 points)
A. When do you often listen to classical music?
B. How do you like classical music?
C. What kind of music do you like?
D. How often do you listen to classical music?
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “You stepped on my toes!”
“ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. Are you sure? It’s understandable
B. Really? I’m glad
C. I’m sorry but I meant it
D. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t mean it
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
In 776 B.C., The first Olympic games were held at the first of Mount Olympus to honor
the Greeks’ chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for
preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports.
Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later the games were open to all
free Greeks male who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness
and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, discus
and javelin throwing, boxing and horse and chariot racing were held individual cities,
and the winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly
honored by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about
their deeds Originally these contests were held as games of friendship, and any wars
in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to
strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented.
158
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in
four-year cycles called Olympiads,” dating from 776 B.C. The contests coincided with
religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the part of the participants to
please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished.
These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but also to the cities they
represented.
31. Which of the following is NOT true ? (0,1 points)
A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their heads.
B. The game were held in Greece every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poems glorified the winners in song.
32. The word “elite” is closest in meaning to (0,1 points)
A. aristocracy
B. intellectuals
C. brave
D. muscular
33. Why were the Olympic Games held ? (0,1 points)
A. To stop wars.
B. To honor Zeus.
C. To crown the best athletes.
D. To sing songs about the athletes.
34. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate ? (0,1 points)
A. 800 years
B. 1.200 years
C. 2.300 years
D. 2.800 years
35. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks ? (0,1 points)
159
A. They were pacifists.
B. They believed athletic events were important
C. They were very simple.
D. They couldn’t count, so they used “ Olympiads” for dates.
36. What is the main idea of this passage? (0,1 points)
A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks.
B. The Greeks severely punished those did not participate in physical fitness programs.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
D. The Greeks had the games coincided with religious festivities so that they could go back to war
when the games were over.
37. The word “deeds” is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. accomplishments
B. documents
C. ancestors
D. property
38. The word” halted ” means most nearly the same as _____. (0,1 points)
A. encouraged
B. started
C. curtailed
D. fixed
39. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the
Olympics? (0,1 points)
A. They must have completed military service.
B. They had to attend special training sessions.
C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record.
D. They had to be very religious.
160
40. What is an “Olympiad”? (0,1 points)
A. The time it took to finish the games.
B. The time between games.
C. The time it took to finish a war.
D. The time it took the athletes to train
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
The overall outlook for the hotel and tourism industry in Vietnam is very (1) _____ .
Tourism is viewed as an important economic (2) _____ in the future development of
this country, and it is easy to see why Vietnam , among the countries in South East
Asia, has become increasingly popular as a new (3) _____ destination. The sublime
beauty of the country’s natural settings is very (4) _____ . The sights, the sounds and
the tastes of Vietnam leave a lasting memory for many foreign (5) _____ . Its key
destination such as Dalat, PhanThiet, Hoi An or NhaTrang are offering, indeed, great
tourism (6) _____ . Combine this with the friendly nature of the Vietnamese people and
the current political (7) _____ , and we are set for solid growth pattern for the years to
come. It is therefore not a surprise that foreign (8) _____ to Vietnam have steadily
increased during the past few years. Also important is the increasing demand from the
domestic market. It is projected that 17 million domestic (9) _____ will make a short
trip in 2005 within the country for leisure and (10) _____.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. famous
B. good
C. positive
D. proud
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. force
B. goal
C. growth
161
D. task
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. tour
B. tourist
C. tourism
D. touring
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. impress
B. impressive
C. impressing
D. impression
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. friends
B. foreigners
C. visitors
D. people
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. industry
B. value
C. growth
D. worth
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. stable
B. stability
C. unstable
162
D. instability
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. arrive
B. arriving
C. arrival
D. arrivals
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. tourists
B. people
C. guides
D. interpreters
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. relax
B. relaxation
C. relaxed
D. relaxing
163
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. radium
B. radiate
C. radiant
D. radical
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. hotel
B. post
C. local
D. prominent
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. example
B. continue
C. sensible
D. contestant
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 16
164
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. discourage
B. document
C. general
D. politics
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools. (0,25 points)
A. divided
B. depended
C. compulsory
D. paid
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. Van Mieu was representative of Confucian ways of thought and behaviors (0,25 points)
A. traditional
B. typical
C. memorial
D. cultural
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest. (0,25 points)
A. hungry
B. poor
C. rich
D. full
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
165
8. Besides, the kumquat tree with its ripe deep orange fruits is popular throughout the
country. (0,25 points)
A. green
B. unfit
C. small
D. unready
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. If the others had taken sensible precautions like we did, this tragedy need never have
happened. (0,2 points)
A. If they had not behaved so foolishly, they would not have involved us, either, in this tragedy.
B. The tragedy is that this could have been avoided if only they had all controlled their emotions.
C. This tragic outcome could have been avoided, but, unlike us, the rest of them behaved rashly.
D. If only they would follow our example and behave in a reasonable manner, all this suffering could
be avoided.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies. (0,2 points)
A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies.
B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.
D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Since the 1960s, water pollution has increased, leading to a reduction in the number of fish
species. (0,2 points)
A. Despite sea pollution dating back to the 1960s, the number of fish in the seas has increased.
B. There was a sharp decrease in the number of fish because of a sudden rise in sea pollution in the
1960s.
C. Sea water was cleaner and there were more varieties of fish before the 1960s.
166
D. The drop in the number of fish in the sea is directly connected with the increase in sea pollution.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. Whether you like it or not, my aunt is coming to stay for the next two weeks. (0,2 points)
A. I wonder if you’d mind if my aunt came here to stay for the following two weeks.
B. My aunt will be staying for the next fortnight, regardless of your feelings in the matter.
C. If it doesn’t bother you too much, my aunt would like to stay here for the next two weeks.
D. I don’t know if you’ll like her or not, but my aunt is going to stay for the next couple of weeks.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. I didn’t mean to offend you. (0,2 points)
A. Offending you was meaningless to me.
B. I had no intention of offending you.
C. It was meaningless of me to offend you.
D. What I offended you was meaningless.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Sue’s handwriting is _____, she usually has to type letters. (0,27 points)
A. flexible
B. inflexible
C. comprehensible
D. incomprehensible
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. The purpose of the examination was to _____ the students’ knowledge of the
subject. (0,27 points)
A. try
B. inspect
C. prove
167
D. test
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. Ralph Waldo Emerson’s unusual views on literature were regarded as quite _____ during his
lIfetime. (0,27 points)
A. fundamental
B. radical
C. distinguished
D. preconceived
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. “Why don’t you come with us?”
“Unfortunately, I have _____ plans.” (0,27 points)
A. other
B. another
C. others
D. some others
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. By this time next week, he _____his novel for 6 months. (0,27 points)
A. will have been writing
B. will have written
C. will be writing
D. has been writing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. The thief was _____ after a brief struggle. (0,27 points)
A. apprehended
B. confronted
C. immersed
168
D. induced
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. The post _____ every morning. (0,27 points)
A. is delivered
B. was delivered
C. delivered
D. being delivered
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. The police _____for the thief at the moment. (0,27 points)
A. was looking
B. are looking
C. have been looking
D. is going to look.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. They are very proud _____ their son’s success. (0,27 points)
A. for
B. of
C. on
D. at
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. _____ the storm, the ship couldn’t reach its destination on time. (0,27 points)
A. In case of
B. But for
C. Because of
D. In spite of
169
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. A. “I apologize to you for not keeping my promise” - B.” _____” (0,27 points)
A. Well, that’s out of question.
B. Your apology is accepted.
C. I am grateful to that.
D. That was very sweet of you.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. Nutritionists _____ goat milk to be rich, nourishing and readily digested. (0,27 points)
A. considering
B. is considered
C. are considered
D. consider
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. I have been working hardly for two weeks and now I feel like a rest. (0,27 points)
A. have been working
B. hardly
C. and
D. a rest
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. My sister and I do not study at the same school. That is the reason for why my father has bought 2
bikes. (0,27 points)
A. do not study
B. the same school
C. for why
D. has bought
170
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. A red-hair boy is needed to play the part of Alfred in this new comedy. (0,27 points)
A. red-hair
B. is needed
C. the part of Alfred
D. this
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment. ”
• “_____.”
(0,5 points)
A. Never mind
B. I can’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again
D. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. Lora: “ How do you do ? “
Jane: “ _____ “ (0,5 points)
A. I am a nurse
B. I am doing OK
C. I work in a bank
D. How do you do?
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name
171
from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the
general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often
referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea
seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or
volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift
of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700
kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than
one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height,
possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two
areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the
seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the
islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove
disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles
away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the
inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced
a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon.
The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa
volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby
Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was
witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
31. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____ . (0,1 points)
A. tides
B. storm surges
C. tidal waves
D. underwater earthquakes
32. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____
. (0,1 points)
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
172
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
33. The word “displaced“ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. not pleased
B. located
C. moved
D. filtered
34. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _____ . (0,1 points)
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
35. in the passage, water that is “shallow“ is NOT _____ . (0,1 points)
A. deep
B. coastal
C. tidal
D. clear
36. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. come from greater distances
B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning
D. be less of a problem
37. The possessive “their“ in the passage refers to _____ . (0,1 points)
173
A. the Hawaiian Islands
B. these tsunamis
C. thousands of miles
D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
38. A “calamitous“ tsunami, in the passage, is one that is _____ . (0,1 points)
A. disastrous
B. expected
C. extremely calm
D. at fault
39. From the expression “on record“ in the passage, it can be inferred that the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano _____ . (0,1 points)
A. was filmed as it was happening
B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
40. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano (0,1 points)
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
People’s personalities (1) _____ considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our
ingrained characteristics which (2) _____ the patterns of our behavior, our reactions and
temperaments are unparalleled on (3) _____ of the diversified processes that (4) _____ our
personality in the earliest (5) _____ of human development. Some traits of character may, to some
(6) _____, be hereditary stimulating the attributes that (7) _____ our parents. Others may stem from
the conditions experienced during pregnancy and infancy in this way reflecting the parents’ approach
174
towards (8) _____ their offspring. Consequently, the environmental factor (9) _____ a crucial role in
strengthening or eliminating behavioral systems making an individual more prone to comfort to the
patterns that (10) _____ a prize.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. distinguish
B. coverage
C. differentiate
D. vary
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. denote
B. resolve
C. inflict
D. determine
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. account
B. means
C. token
D. event
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. mould
B. design
C. conceive
D. fabricate
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. states
B. instants
175
C. stages
D. terms
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. scope
B. area
C. extent
D. length
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. pertain
B. recognize
C. associate
D. identify
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. breeding
B. rearing
C. growing
D. yielding
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. makes
B. does
C. finds
D. plays
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. yearn
B. deserve
C. wish
D. necessitat
176
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. feat
B. heaven
C. peak
D. defeat
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. bother
B. both
c. breath
D. month
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. recognize
B. resounding
C. reconcile
D. recompense
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. aftermath
B. affluent
C. aggravate
D. pedestrian
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities man camp in the woods. (0,25 points)
A. expenses B. friends
ĐỀ THI SỐ 17
177
C. sports D. conveniences
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. In contrast to her husband, she is a very down-to-earth sort of person who manages
to control his wild ideas. (0,25 points)
A. cynical
B. boring
C. critical
D. practical
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. By July 2000, sixty-one provinces and cities throughout Vietnam had completed the
programs of “Universalisation of PrimaryEducation” and “illiteracy
Eradication”. (0,25 points)
A. following
B. subsequent
C. secondary
D. assistant
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition. (0,25 points)
A. impressive
B. exaggerated
C. unacceptable
D. practical
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. Look out for those falling rocks. (0,2 points)
A. Let’s look for falling rocks.
B. Don’t let those falling rock hit you.
C. Look for these falling rocks.
D. Look out the window at those falling rocks.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
178
10. “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tom said to Janet. (0,2 points)
A. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of this week.
B. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of this week.
C. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of this week.
D. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of this week.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Citrus trees thrive on a wide range of soils, but well-drained and slightly acid
types are more suitable. (0,2 points)
A. The ideal soil for citrus trees is one that is well-drained and rather acidy; they do not
do well in other soils.
B. Though citrus trees prefer a well-drained and slightly acid soil, they do well in many
other types.
C. Citrus trees grow in many different places, but the soil must always be well-drained
and fairly acid.
D. Citrus trees are particular about soil on which they grow and do best on well-drained
and slightly acid soil types.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them. (0,2 points)
A. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends
on the way by which we use these inventions. (0,2 points)
A. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives
better.
B. We can use either good or bad invention to make our lives better.
179
C. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because
the purpose any invention is to make our lives.
D. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This
depends on the way by which we use these inventions.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. John is such a good friend that I know I can _____ him. (0,27 points)
A. count on
B. look into
C. face up to
D. pass off as
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. This movie is the most _____ (0,27 points)
A. entertaining
B. entertained
C. entertain
D. entertainment
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. It couldn’t have been Bill you met at the party last night. He _____ China. (0,27 points)
A. has been to
B. was in
C. will be
D. has gone to
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. One of _____ days I’m going to give him a piece of my mind. (0,27 points)
A. these
B. those
C. our
D. the
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. They were _____ for smuggling jewellery into the country. (0,27 points)
A. judged B. arrested
180
C. accused D. warmed
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. Did you hear _____upstairs? (0,27 points)
A. she sing
B. her singing
C. she singing
D. her to sing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. Oceans continually lose by evaporation much of the river water _____. (0,27 points)
A. to constantly flow into them
B. constantly flowing into them
C. is constantly flowing into them
D. constantly flows into them
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. _____for their strong fiber include flax and hemp. (0,27 points)
A. Plants are grown
B. Plants grown
C. Plants that grow
D. To grow plants
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. No matter what the weather _____ like on Sunday, I want to go hiking. (0,27 points)
A. be
B. would be
C. is
D. being
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. They _____to the theatre twice so far this month. (0,27 points)
A. are going
B. go
C. went
D. have been
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
181
24. “I see that you have finished your project.”
“Yes, and it took less time than I _____ .” (0,27 points)
A. had anticipated
B. would anticipate
C. anticipate
D. am anticipating
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The _____ of the Titanic was caused by an iceberg. (0,27 points)
A. plunge
B. descent
C. drowning
D. sinking
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from
spreading easily among the population.(0,27 points)
A. What we know about
B. are
C. from spreading
D. among
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. Drug addiction has resulted of many destroyed careers and expulsions from school
or college. (0,27 points)
A. has
B. of
C. destroyed
D. expulsions
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem. (0,27 points)
A. give
B. a good advice
C. whenever
D. a problem
182
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. A: “Cheer up - it might never happen”.
B: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. It’s so very unlikely, isn’t it?
B. It already has.
C. That was the last thing I did before I told you.
D. What do you think?
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “How well you are playing!”
-“_____” (0,5 points)
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.
B. Many thanks. That’s a nice compliment.
C. I think so. I am proud of myself.
D. Thank you too much.
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as “silent”, the film
has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music was
regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown at
the first public film exhibition in the United States in February 1896, they were
accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore
no special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within
a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film became
apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to the mood
of the film.
As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would
be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras
were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for each film program rested
entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the
183
principal qualification for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the
ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw
the films until the night before they were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky
enough to see them then), the musical arrangement was normally improvised in the
greatest hurry.
To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing
suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company
began issuing with their films such indications of mood as “pleasant, “sad”, “lively”. The
suggestions became more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing
indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show
where one piece led into the next.
Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early
special scores was that composed and arranged for D. W. Griffith’s film Birth of a Nation,
which was released in 1915.
31. The passage mainly discusses music that was _____. (0,1 points)
A. performed before the showing of a film
B. played during silent films
C. recorded during film exhibitions
D. specifically composed for certain movie theaters
32. What can be inferred that the passage about the majority of films made after
1927? (0,1 points)
A. They were truly “silent”.
B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras.
C. They incorporated the sound of the actors’ voices.
D. They corresponded to specific musical compositions.
33. It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. be able to play many instruments
B. have pleasant voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music
184
D. be able to compose original music
34. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. years
B. hands
C. pieces
D. films
35. According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison
Company? (0,1 points)
A. It produced electricity.
B. It distributed films.
C. It published musical arrangements.
D. It made musical instruments.
36. It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around
_____. (0,1 points)
A. 1896
B. 1909
C. 1915
D. 1927
37. Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue
sheet of the early 1900’s? (0,1 points)
A. “Calm, Peaceful”
B. “Piano, violin”
C. “Key of C major”
D. “Directed by W. Griffith’s”
38. The word composed in paragraph 4 is closed in meaning to _____ (0,1 points)
A. selected
B. combined
C. played
D. created
39. The word scores in paragraph 4 is closed in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. totals B. successes
185
C. groups of musicians D. musical compositions
40. The passage probably continues with a discussion of _____. (0,1 points)
A. other films directed by D. W. Griffith
B. famous composers of the early twentieth century
C. silent films by other directors
D. the music in Birth of a Nation
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know what an intranet is? It is this: just
as the Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (1)
_____ company. In fact, intranets make use of the same software programs as the
Internet to (2) _____ computers and people. This (3) _____ that you do not have to buy
a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is working
properly, it can link together a huge amount of (4) _____ which is stored in different places
in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless (5)
_____ where it comes from. A company intranet can, of course, be used for unimportant
information like office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should (6) _____
important information which people need to make decision about new products, costs and
so on. The intranet is (7) _____ to share their information with other people. (8) _____,
many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge with others. Another
problem which often occurs is (9) _____ top managers like to use the intranet to
“communicate down” rather than to “communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet
to give orders, not to (10) _____ information between themselves and others working in
the same organization.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. branch
B. jointed
C. single
D. large
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. contact
B. compare
C. distinguish
D. introduce
186
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. indicates
B. is
C. means
D. is said
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. information
B. properties
C. elements
D. parts
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. to
B. on
C. with
D. of
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. provide
B. take
C. give
D. bring
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. going
B. willing
C. likely
D. happened
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. However
B. Luckily
C. Unfortunately
D. Consequently
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. which
B. it
C. what
D. that
187
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. enjoy
B. provide
C. share
D. divide
188
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. booked
B. missed
C. described
D. pronounced
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. laid
B. said
C. raid
D. paid
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. artistic
B. architect
C. argument
D. arduous
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. eventually
ĐỀ THI SỐ 18
189
B. capacity
C. altogether
D. particular
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job. (0,25 points)
A. take in
B. base on
C. count on
D. put up with
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the
epidemic. (0,25 points)
A. take up
B. turn round
C. put off
D. do with
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were
banned. (0,25 points)
A. clear
B. obvious
C. thin
D. insignificant
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional. (0,25 points)
A. voluntary
B. free
190
C. pressure
D. mandatory
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. As the city grew industrially, more and more immigrants were attracted to the newly-created
jobs. (0,2 points)
A. The number of citizens in the city remained very low as long as there was a limited amount of
industrial work available.
B. The more the city’s industry grew, making new jobs available, the more immigrants arrived to fill
them.
C. The city drew in a lot of immigrants, although industry grew only slowly and thus job vacancies
were scarce.
D. While industry was increasing, there was also a growing need for immigrants to work in the newly-
created jobs.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. It was the worst speech he had ever made. (0,2 points)
A. He hadn’t made a better speech than it.
B. He had ever made a worse speech.
C. He had never made a worse speech.
D. He had never made a worst speech before
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there. (0,2 points)
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need.
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. “I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job,” he said to me (0,2 points)
191
A. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job.
B. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job.
C. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job.
D. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. Nobody is helping me, so I can’t finish my science project on time. (0,2 points)
A. I could finish my science project on time if I were being helped by someone.
B. I needed help with my science project, but everyone just ignored me.
C. My science project will be difficult to do alone, so I should ask someone for help.
D. No one had time to help me, so I couldn’t finish my science project on time.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Its success seems to work in _____ proportion to the number of people involved. (0,27 points)
A. contrary
B. opposite
C. inverse
D. retrograde
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. She’s going to let me _____her shoes. (0,27 points)
A. to borrow
B. borrowing
C. borrow
D. borrowed
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. She has just bought _____. (0,27 points)
A. a French old interesting painting
B. an old interesting painting French
C. an interesting old French painting
192
D. a French interesting old paint
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. Intended to display the work of twentieth century artists, _____ in 1929. (0,27 points)
A. the opening of the Museum of Modern Art
B. so the Museum of Modern Art opened
C. why the Museum of Modern Art opened
D. the Museum of Modern Art opened
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. The report was written in technical language, which would have been _____ to most
people. (0,27 points)
A. illegible
B. incomprehensible
C. inarticulate
D. garbled
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. Did he manage _____ the table upstairs? (0,27 points)
A. to carry
B. carry
C. to carrying
D. carrying
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. He didn’t settle into the new job _____. (0,27 points)
A. as quickly as he had expected to
B. If they had offered a higher salary
C. whether he was experienced or not
D. unless he had to work occasionally on a Sunday
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
193
21. “Can you describe the bag you left on the train?”
“It was white leather with _____ straps.” (0,27 points)
A. two short black
B. two black short
C. short two black
D. black two short
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. Many people take it for granted _____. (0,27 points)
A. that the new interest policy contributed to the greater degree of stability in prices at this period
B. why no survivors whatsoever were found
C. how all receipts and papers concerning the transaction mysteriously disappeared
D. why the other passengers had absolutely no comment to make at all about the accident
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____ (0,27 points)
A. deep
B. deeply
C. deepness
D. depth
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. Getting a good school _____ is what you need to do. (0,27 points)
A. report
B. mark
C. raise
D. comment
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. The children have _____ an excellent plan for raising money for charity. (0,27 points)
A. put up with
B. brushed up on
194
C. looked down on
D. come up with
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. When I was small I quite like listening to music. (0,27 points)
A. When
B. was
C. like
D. listening
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. During the Middle Ages, handwriting notices kept groups of nobles informed of important
events. (0,27 points)
A. During
B. handwriting
C. kept
D. informed
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. When our neighbor’s grandson caught his finger in the car door, he did not cry even though
it must have hurted him a great deal. (0,27 points)
A. caught
B. did not cry
C. must have hurted
D. a great deal
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Kevin: “How far is it from here to the nearest post office?”
Lan: “ _____.” (0,5 points)
A. Two kilometers at least
B. Turn left and then turn right
195
C. No, it’s rather far
D. Yes, it’s quite near here
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “I am terribly sorry!”
“_____.” (0,5 points)
A. It’s nothing.
B. Nothing.
C. Don’t worry.
D. Never mind!
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object, each
slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the
one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames
and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally
referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an
originator. In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the
objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and
color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects
because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-
dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures. High-tech computer animation for film involves
very expensive computer systems along with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame
buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the
image for display on the screen. A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display
screen, but for the highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer
computes the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the
recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic
disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is repeated for the next
frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before
the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be
corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time
196
consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-
generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution,
realistic-looking images.
31. What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss? (0,1 points)
A. The production process
B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost
D. The role of the artist
32. According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the
_____. (0,1 points)
A. first frame
B. middle frames
C. last frame
D. entire sequence of frames
33. The word “they“ in the second paragraph refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. formulas
B. databases
C. numbers
D. objects
34. According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. add color to the images
B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images
D. create new frames
35. According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by _____. (0,1 points)
A. drawing several versions
197
B. enlarging one frame at a lime
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles
D. using computer calculations
36. The word “captures“ in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. separates
B. registers
C. describes
D. numbers
37. The word “Once“ in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. before
B. since
C. after
D. while
38. According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion? (0,1 points)
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolution images.
D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
39. The word “task“ in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. possibility
B. position
C. time
D. job
40. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
198
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits,
considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (1) _____, we are easily influenced by
the people around us.
There is nothing (2) _____ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than (3) _____
on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long understood that
groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has
been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (4) _____ to how much money they make and what
television ads they watch that they independently (5) _____ at the same decision? Or do they copy
one another, perhaps (6) _____ envy or perhaps because they have shared information about the
products?
Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on
buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances that that
person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week and a half (7) _____ by 86 per cent.
The researchers argued that it was not just a (8) _____ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract
neighbours even more than new cars. This suggested that people were not trying to (9) _____ up
with their neighbours, they were keen to learn from them. Since used cars are less reliable, a
recommendation of one can (10) _____ influence a buying decision.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. What’s more
B. Instead
C. Unlike
D. In place
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. wrong
B. silly
C. bad
D. daft
199
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. basing
B. trusting
C. supposing
D. relying
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. connection
B. regard
C. relation
D. concern
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. reach
B. come
C. arrive
D. get
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. for
B. as to
C. out of
D. about
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. boosted
B. rose
C. enlarged
D. lifted
200
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. thing
B. point
C. matter
D. fact
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. keep
B. stay
C. hold
D. follow
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. fiercely
B. strongly
C. firmly
D. intensely
201
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. decided
B. engaged
C. expected
D. attracted
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. park
B. yard
C. card
D. carry
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. dialect
B. dynasty
C. diabetes
D. diagnose
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. category
ĐỀ THI SỐ 19
202
B. accompany
C. experience
D. compulsory
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial. (0,25 points)
A. useful
B. facile
C. depressing
D. harmful
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to determine the
psychological effects of using drugs. (0,25 points)
A. refined
B. extensive
C. prevalent
D. tentative
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college. (0,25 points)
A. able to read and write
B. able to join intramural sport
C. inflexible
D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. People believe that what they do on the first day of the year will influence their luck during the
whole year. (0,25 points)
A. failure
B. mishap
203
C. fall
D. unsuccess
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. You have to finish your homework if you want to go to the party. (0,2 points)
A. Unless you finish your homework, you can go to the party.
B. Finish your homework, you can go to the party.
C. Finish your homework, otherwise you can go to the party.
D. Finish your homework, or else you cannot go to the party.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. By the time I had got up the courage to ask her to marry me, she was engaged to somebody
else. (0,2 points)
A. At the moment I felt brave enough to propose to her, I learnt that she had already promised to
marry another man.
B. Before I felt brave enough to propose to her, she had agreed to marry another man.
C. Just when I asked her to marry me, she accepted an engagement to another man.
D. I offered her a proposal of marriage, but she said she was already engaged to someone else.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. If I’d known how much they were going to charge at this hotel, I’d have stayed somewhere
else. (0,2 points)
A. The prices were so high at that hotel that I decided to find a more reasonable one.
B. I didn’t realize just how expensive this hotel was, but if I had, I’d have gone elsewhere.
C. If only I’d checked the prices of a few hotels I could have found a less expensive one.
D. Although I knew this was an expensive hotel I didn’t look around for a cheaper one.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:
12. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. (0,2 points)
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
204
C. A The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him the unexpected-news. She was surprised at
it. (0,2 points)
A. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him the unexpected news, which she was
surprised.
B. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him, surprising by the unexpected news.
C. Surprised to bear the unexpected news, Kate phoned her boyfriend and told him immediately.
D. Surprised as she has to hear the news, Kate phoned her boyfriend and told him immediately.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. The UN has called for an immediate _____ of hostilities. (0,27 points)
A. cessation
B. deletion
C. cancellation
D. ceasefire
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so _____ you’re used to the noise. (0,27 points)
A. apparently
B. presumably
C. allegedly
D. predictably
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. I _____ as soon as you come back. (0,27 points)
A. went
B. have gone
C. am going
205
D. will go
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. My work’s got worse and worse. Unless I _____ I’ll fail my exams in the summer. (0,27 points)
A. get well
B. get back
C. increase
D. improve
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. I’m going away _____ the end of January (0,27 points)
A. at
B. on
C. in
D. to
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. We regret to inform you that the materials you ordered are _____. (0,27 points)
A. out of work
B. out of stock
C. out of reach
D. out of practice
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. Don’t you think it was rather _____ of you not to let us know that you weren’t coming? (0,27 points)
A. mean
B. unkind
C. unsympathetic
D. thoughtless
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. When the phone rang she _____ a letter. (0,27 points)
206
A. writes
B. will write
C. has written
D. was writing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. In Roman numerals, _____ symbols for numeric values. (0,27 points)
A. letters are the alphabet’s
B. letters of the alphabet are
C. which uses letters of the alphabet
D. in which letters of the alphabet are
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable _____ because it seems too good to be
true. (0,27 points)
A. reservation
B. disbelief
C. suspicion
D. doubt
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. He loves _____ her about all her boyfriends. (0,27 points)
A. teasing
B. joking
C. kidding
D. pulling
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. With age, the mineral content of human bones decreases, _____ them more fragile. (0,27 points)
A. make
B. and to make
C. which it makes
207
D. thereby making
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Slightly over half of the population of El Paso, Texas, says both English and
Spanish. (0,27 points)
A. Slightly
B. half
C. population
D. says
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. The widely-known story that the Swedish tennis player Bjorn Borg’s pulse rate was only 35 beats
per minute is not more than an exaggeration. (0,27 points)
A. widely-known
B. that
C. not
D. an
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. We’ve had to postpone to go to France because the children are ill. (0,27 points)
A. We’ve had to
B. to go
C. because
D. ill
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. “Excuse me. Do you do watch-repair?”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. Why not?
B. That’s all
C. Yes, we do, madam
208
D. Here we are
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
30. “How do you do?”
“ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. I’m very fine, thanks!
B. With my brother.
C. Thanks to my mother!
D. How do you do?
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
The Roman alphabet took thousands of years to develop, from the picture writing of the ancient
Egyptians through modification by Phoenicians, Greek, Romans, and others. Yet in just a dozen
years, one man, Sequoyah, invented an alphabet for the Cherokee people. Born in eastern
Tennessee, Sequoyah was a hunter and a silversmith in his youth as well as an able interpreter who
knew Spanish, French, and English.
Sequoyah wanted his people to have the secret of the “talking leaves” as he called his books of
white people, and so he set out to design a written form of Cherokee. His chief aim was to record his
people’s ancient tribal customs. He began by designing pictographs for every word in the Cherokee
vocabulary. Reputedly his wife, angry with him for his neglect of garden and house, burned his notes,
and he had to start over. This time, having concluded that picture-writing wascumbersome, he made
symbols for the sounds of Cherokee language. Eventually, he refined his system to eighty-five
characters, which he borrowed from the Roman, Greek, and Hebrew alphabets. He presented this
system to the Cherokee General Council in 1821, and it was wholeheartedly approved. The response
was phenomenal. Cherokees who had struggled for months to learn English lettering school picked
up the new system in days. Several books were printed in Cherokee, and in 1828, a newspaper, the
Cherokee Phoenix, was first published in the new alphabet. Sequoyah was acclaimed by his people.
In his later life, Sequoyah dedicated himself to the general advancement of his people. He went to
Washington, D.C, as a representative of the Western tribes. He helped settled bitter differences
among Cherokee after their forced movement by the federal government to the Oklahoma territory in
the 1930s. He died in Mexico in 1843 while searching for groups of lost Cherokee. A statue of
Sequoyah represents Oklahoma in the Statuary Hall in the Capitol building in Washington, D.C.
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However, he is probably chiefly remembered today because Sequoias, the giant redwood trees of
California, are named after him.
31. The passage is mainly concerned with _____. (0,1 points)
A. Sequoyah’s experiences in Mexico,
B. the development of the Roman alphabet
C. the pictographic system of writing
D. the accomplishments of Sequoyah
32. According to the passage, a memorial statue of Sequoyah is located in _____. (0,1 points)
A. Tennessee
B. Oklahoma
C. Mexico
D. Washington, D.C
33. According to the passage, how long did it take to develop the Cherokee’s alphabet? (0,1 points)
A. twelve years
B. eighty-five years
C. twenty years
D. thousands of years
34. In the final version of the Cherokee alphabet system, each of the characters represents a
_____. (0,1 points)
A. picture
B. sound
C. word
D. thought
35. Why does author mention the giant redwood trees of California in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. The trees inspired Sequoyah to write a book.
B. Sequoyah was born in the vicinity of the redwood forest.
C. The trees were named in Sequoyah’s honor.
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D. Sequoyah took his name from those trees.
36. According to the passage, Sequoyah used the phrase talking leaves to refer to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. redwood trees
B. newspaper
C. books
D. symbols for sounds
37. There is no indication in the passage that, as a young man, Sequoyah _____. (0,1 points)
A. served as a representative in Washington
B. served as an interpreter
C. made things from silver
D. hunted game
38. What was Sequoyah’s main purpose in designing a Cherokee alphabet? (0,1 points)
A. to record Cherokee customs
B. to write about his own life
C. to publish a newspaper
D. to write books in Cherokee
39. The word cumbersome is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. radical
B. awkward
C. unfamiliar
D. simplistic
40. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as alphabet systems that Sequoyah borrowed
from except _____. (0,1points)
A. Egyptian
B. Hebrew
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C. Roman
D. Greek
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
INFLUENCES OF TELEVISION
Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world. In the United
States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made.
Television, although not essential, has become a(n) (1) _____ part of most people’s lives. It has
become a baby-sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of
traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that
television is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor (2) _____ of programs does not elevate people
into greater (3) _____. The (4) _____ reason for the lack of quality in American television is related
to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV. Television in America began with the
radio. Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented with television. Therefore, the close
relationship, (5) _____ the advertisers had with radio programs, became the system for American TV.
Sponsors not only paid money for time within programs, but many actually produced the programs.
Thus, (6) _____ from the capitalistic, profit-oriented sector of American society, television is primarily
(7) _____ with reflecting and attracting society (8) _____ than innovating and experimenting with new
ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the
programs be entertaining rather than challenging. Television in America today remains, to a large (9)
_____, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for some
evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the (10) _____
system.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. integral
B. mixed
C. fractional
D. superior
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. quantity
B. quality
C. effect
D. product
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. preconception
B. knowledge
C. understanding
D. feeling
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44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. adequate
B. unknown
C. inexplicable
D. primary
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. which
B. that
C. where
D. what
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. going
B. leaving
C. coming
D. getting
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. concerned
B. interested
C. worried
D. connected
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. more
B. rather
C. less
D. better
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. extent
B. degree
C. size
D. amount
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. total
B. full
C. entire
D. complete
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ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 13 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. libel
B. revival
C. liberal
D. 0
Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. song
B. start
C. season
D. sing
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. cover
B. demand
C. legend
D. tension
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
4. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. epoch
B. episode
C. epic
D. equivalent
Từ vựng (1,0 points)
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
ĐỀ THI SỐ 20
214
5. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for
agriculture. (0,25 points)
A. destruction
B. contamination
C. fertilizer
D. variety
Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
6. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract. (0,25 points)
A. respect
B. discourage
C. detest
D. dislike
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the
starfish and crabs, live in the ocean. (0,25 points)
A. with backbones
B. with ribs
C. without ribs
D. without backbones
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
8. The Germany’s war hysteria has accounted for its people’s hostility towards
foreigners (0,25 points)
A. disease
B. ceremony
C. malaria
D. serenity
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. Anne takes after her mother. (0,2 points)
A. Anne resembles her mother in action
B. Anne and her mother are alike
C. Anne looks alike her mother
D. Anne likes her mother very much
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
10. The theory of natural selection made the idea of organic evolution acceptable to the
majority of the scientific world. (0,2points)
215
A. The world’s scientists accepted the idea of organic evolution more readily than the concept of
natural selection.
B. Without the theory of natural selection to support it, no scientists would ever have approved the
theory of organic evolution.
C. On the whole, the scientific world approved the concept of organic evolution once the theory of
natural selection had been postulated.
D. It was only after the introduction of the theory of natural selection that scientists paid any attention
to the idea of organic evolution.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
11. Ian has no intention of coming to the party, so we may as well not invite him. (0,2 points)
A. None of us wants Ian to be at the party, so we aren’t inviting him.
B. Let’s not invite Ian to the parry unless he promises to come.
C. As he doesn’t mean to come anyway, we needn’t ask Ian to the party.
D. Because he never wants to come, we never ask Ian to parties with us.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
12. The switch was too high for him to reach. (0,2 points)
A. He wasn’t tall enough for reaching the switch.
B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch.
C. He wasn’t enough tall to reach the switch.
D. He wasn’t so tall that he can reach the switch.
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
13. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight. (0,2 points)
A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
216
14. The presidents of the two companies have been involved in a huge business _____ (0,27 points)
A. transaction
B. reaction
C. acceleration
D. cohesion
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
15. “Do you think the new teacher is good?” “Yes. She explains things clearly, _____ makes it easier
to learn.” (0,27 points)
A. consequently
B. by which
C. which
D. in that
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
16. _____, even though many countries are stepping up their own production (0,27 points)
A. Steel remains an important item of international trade
B. This is just one of many developments in international trade
C. England still imported a great deal of tropical fruit
D. Turkey’s exports of fruit and vegetables will have dropped sharply
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
17. At the hospital I was told that, _____ I gave up smoking immediately my illness would get much
worse. (0,27 points)
A. except
B. until
C. without
D. unless
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
18. The school was closed for a month because of serious _____ of fever. (0,27 points)
A. outcome
B. outburst
C. outset
D. outbreak
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
19. _____mammals, once weaned, do not routinely drink milk. (0,27 points)
A. As a whole,
B. All whole,
C. Wholly,
D. On a whole,
217
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
20. Honshu Island, Japan _____ by a tsunami on March 11, 2011. (0,27 points)
A. strikes
B. is struck
C. has struck
D. was struck
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
21. The visitors found the little girl’s stories very _____ . (0,27 points)
A. amuse
B. amused
C. amuses
D. amusing
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
22. Look out! The car _____ toward us. (0,27 points)
A. is coming
B. will come
C. will be coming
D. comes
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
23. Many scientists are sure _____ life on other planets. (0,27 points)
A. there was
B. there had been
C. there are
D. there is
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
24. “Do you think she’ll get the scholarship?”
“ _____ an excellent student, she stands a good chance.” (0,27 points)
A. Since being
B. Being
C. To be
D. Because being
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
25. A (An) _____ is a person who designs buildings. (0,27 points)
A. farmer
B. architect
C. decorator
D. mechanic
218
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
26. Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. (0,27 points)
A. Hardly he had
B. the office
C. that he had
D. forgotten
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
27. We have our doubts about whether the recently implemented regulations will be beneficial
or they are not. (0,27 points)
A. doubts about
B. recently
C. will
D. they are not
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
28. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called. (0,27 points)
A. of the
B. report
C. her name
D. called
Nói (1,0 points)
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Linda: “Thomas thinks he knows everything about dinosaurs.”
Jill: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. He’s such a know-all.
B. He knew a lot about dinosaurs.
C. He knows enough.
D. Everything he knows is all about dinosaurs.
Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
219
30. “That’s a very nice skirt you’re wearing.”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. How a compliment!
B. That’s all right.
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. I like you said so.
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)
Read the passage below and answer questions.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices.
For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing
reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over
telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit
the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately
8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear
to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its
cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. Theseexecutives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not
yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the
opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned
that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the
office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area,
they never really get away from the office.
31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? (0,1 points)
A. The advantages of telecommuting.
B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting.
D. The failure of telecommuting.
32. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? (0,1 points)
A. More than predicted in Business Week.
220
B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
D. Fewer than last year.
33. The phrase “of no consequence“ means _____. (0,1 points)
A. of no use
B. of no good
C. unimportant
D. irrelevant
34. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT
_____. (0,1 points)
A. the opportunities for advancement.
B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group.
D. The work place is in the home.
35. The word “executives “in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. telecommuters
B. managers
C. employees
D. most people
36. The word “them“ in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. systems
B. telecommuters
C. executives
D. responsibilities
37. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees _____. (0,1 points)
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
221
38. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is _____. (0,1 points)
A. a telecommuter
B. the manager
C. a statistician
D. a reporter
39. The word “reluctant“ in the passage can best be replaced by _____. (0,1 points)
A. opposite
B. willing
C. hesitate
D. typical
40. When Business Week published “The Portable Executive“, it implied that (0,1 points)
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.
AS OLD AS YOU FEEL
It might after all be true that you are only as old as you feel. A British clinic is carrying out new high-
tech tests to calculate the “real” biological age of patients (1) _____ on the rate of physical
deterioration. Information on every (2) _____ of a patient’s health, fitness, lifestyle and family medical
history is (3) _____ into a computer to work out whether they are older or younger than their calendar
age suggest.
The availability and increasing accuracy of the tests has (4) _____ one leading British gerontologist
to call for biological age to be used to determine when workers should retire. He (5) _____ that if an
employee’s biological or “real” age is shown, for example, to be 55 when he reaches his 65th birthday,
he should be (6) _____ to work for another decade. Apparently most employers only take into (7)
_____ a person’s calendar years, and the two may differ considerably. Some of those prepared to
pay a substantial sum of money for the examinations will be able to smugly walk away with medical
(8) _____ showing that they really are as young as they feel, giving them the confidence to act and
dress as if they were younger. Dr. Lynette Yong, resident doctor at the clinic where the tests are
offered claims that the purpose of these tests will be to motivate people to (9) _____ their health.
The concept of “real” age is set to become big (10) _____ in the USA with books and websites helping
222
people work out whether their body is older or younger than their years. Others firmly believe that
looks will always be the best indicator of age.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. prospect
B. arranged
C. based
D. established
42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)
A. attitude
B. position
C. decided
D. aspect
43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)
A. planned
B. provided
C. supplied
D. fed
44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)
A. provided
B. prompted
C. projected
D. provoked
45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)
A. argues
B. discusses
C. enquires
D. debates
46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)
A. incited
B. encouraged
C. supported
D. promoted
47. Fill in the blank (7) (0,1 points)
A. detail
B. account
C. interest
D. importance
48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)
A. evidence B. grounds
223
C. signs D. demonstration
49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)
A. increase
B. gain
C. improve
D. progress
50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)
A. pursuit
B. concern
C. trade
D. business
224
Phần 2: Đáp án
https://tienganhthpt.com
Đáp án đề số 1
1 D 11 A 21 C 31 B 41 A
2 B 12 C 22 B 32 C 42 C
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 A 43 D
4 B 14 C 24 A 34 D 44 B
5 A 15 D 25 B 35 B 45 B
6 C 16 C 26 A 36 A 46 A
7 A 17 D 27 A 37 C 47 C
8 C 18 D 28 C 38 D 48 C
9 A 19 C 29 C 39 D 49 D
10 A 20 A 30 B 40 A 50 B
Đáp án đề số 2
1 A 11 B 21 A 31 A 41 C
2 B 12 C 22 C 32 C 42 B
3 C 13 C 23 D 33 C 43 C
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 C 25 D 35 D 45 A
6 D 16 B 26 D 36 D 46 D
7 D 17 A 27 A 37 B 47 C
8 A 18 A 28 A 38 B 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 B 39 A 49 B
10 C 20 C 30 D 40 D 50 D
Đáp án đề số 3
1 B 11 D 21 A 31 C 41 C
2 B 12 B 22 C 32 D 42 C
3 A 13 C 23 B 33 C 43 B
4 C 14 A 24 D 34 C 44 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 B
6 A 16 A 26 B 36 C 46 B
7 D 17 B 27 C 37 D 47 C
8 C 18 B 28 A 38 D 48 D
9 B 19 B 29 A 39 B 49 A
10 D 20 C 30 D 40 C 50 D
225
Đáp án đề số 4
1 C 11 B 21 C 31 C 41 D
2 D 12 B 22 C 32 A 42 C
3 A 13 B 23 C 33 D 43 C
4 B 14 C 24 C 34 A 44 A
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 D 45 B
6 A 16 D 26 D 36 C 46 C
7 C 17 C 27 A 37 D 47 B
8 B 18 D 28 B 38 B 48 B
9 A 19 B 29 B 39 B 49 C
10 C 20 C 30 B 40 A 50 D
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI SỐ 5
1 B 11 A 21 D 31 D 41 B
2 B 12 A 22 D 32 C 42 C
3 C 13 D 23 B 33 D 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 A 34 B 44 B
5 C 15 D 25 A 35 C 45 D
6 B 16 A 26 C 36 B 46 B
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 D 47 D
8 D 18 A 28 B 38 A 48 C
9 A 19 A 29 A 39 A 49 A
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 B 50 A
Đáp án đề số 6
1 C 11 C 21 D 31 C 41 C
2 C 12 B 22 A 32 B 42 D
3 B 13 B 23 D 33 C 43 D
4 D 14 A 24 B 34 A 44 B
5 D 15 C 25 B 35 B 45 A
6 A 16 A 26 A 36 B 46 A
7 D 17 D 27 D 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 D 28 B 38 D 48 A
9 B 19 A 29 A 39 C 49 C
10 C 20 D 30 C 40 D 50 D
Đáp án đề số 7
1 C 11 B 21 D 31 C 41 D
2 C 12 A 22 C 32 D 42 B
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 D 43 C
226
4 C 14 D 24 D 34 A 44 A
5 C 15 D 25 B 35 D 45 C
6 D 16 B 26 C 36 D 46 A
7 A 17 B 27 D 37 C 47 D
8 A 18 B 28 B 38 A 48 B
9 A 19 B 29 D 39 C 49 B
10 A 20 A 30 D 40 A 50 D
Đáp án đề số 8
1 D 11 B 21 C 31 B 41 D
2 C 12 B 22 D 32 B 42 B
3 D 13 D 23 C 33 D 43 C
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 A 44 D
5 D 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 B
6 A 16 B 26 A 36 D 46 A
7 C 17 C 27 D 37 A 47 A
8 A 18 B 28 C 38 C 48 C
9 C 19 B 29 D 39 D 49 D
10 B 20 D 30 A 40 B 50 C
Đáp án đề số 9
1 D 11 A 21 B 31 B 41 B
2 D 12 D 22 D 32 B 42 C
3 A 13 C 23 C 33 D 43 D
4 D 14 B 24 A 34 C 44 D
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 B
6 A 16 D 26 C 36 B 46 A
7 B 17 C 27 C 37 B 47 A
8 A 18 B 28 B 38 D 48 C
9 B 19 B 29 C 39 D 49 A
10 A 20 D 30 C 40 C 50 D
Đáp án đề số 10
1 C 11 D 21 D 31 C 41 C
2 D 12 C 22 C 32 A 42 B
3 C 13 C 23 B 33 D 43 D
4 D 14 A 24 C 34 C 44 D
5 C 15 D 25 D 35 D 45 C
6 B 16 B 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 B 17 B 27 C 37 A 47 A
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8 C 18 B 28 B 38 C 48 B
9 C 19 B 29 D 39 B 49 C
10 C 20 D 30 C 40 D 50 A
Đáp án đề số 11
1 C 11 D 21 A 31 D 41 C
2 C 12 A 22 A 32 B 42 A
3 D 13 B 23 B 33 C 43 D
4 B 14 C 24 D 34 C 44 B
5 B 15 A 25 A 35 A 45 D
6 C 16 D 26 A 36 D 46 A
7 B 17 C 27 D 37 B 47 A
8 C 18 B 28 D 38 D 48 B
9 D 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 C
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 D
Đáp án đề số 12
1 B 11 A 21 B 31 A 41 B
2 C 12 D 22 A 32 D 42 D
3 C 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 D
4 A 14 A 24 B 34 A 44 A
5 D 15 C 25 B 35 A 45 A
6 C 16 D 26 A 36 A 46 C
7 D 17 A 27 D 37 D 47 C
8 A 18 C 28 A 38 D 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 D 39 D 49 A
10 D 20 D 30 C 40 A 50 B
Đáp án đề số 13
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 A
2 B 12 B 22 D 32 B 42 B
3 B 13 B 23 B 33 A 43 B 4 C 14 C 24 A 34 C 44 B
5 D 15 A 25 D 35 D 45 B 6 A 16 A 26 C 36 A 46 D
7 A 17 B 27 B 37 C 47 A 8 C 18 D 28 D 38 B 48 C
9 C 19 C 29 B 39 D 49 D
228
10 B 20 D 30 B 40 A 50 A
Đáp án đề số 14
1 D 11 A 21 C 31 B 41 D 2 D 12 D 22 C 32 B 42 B
3 A 13 B 23 B 33 B 43 A 4 D 14 D 24 A 34 D 44 C
5 B 15 A 25 B 35 B 45 D 6 A 16 A 26 D 36 D 46 A
7 A 17 A 27 D 37 D 47 D
8 C 18 D 28 A 38 C 48 C 9 B 19 A 29 C 39 C 49 A
10 B 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 D
Đáp án đề số 15
1 B 11 A 21 D 31 A 41 C
2 B 12 D 22 B 32 A 42 A
3 D 13 C 23 C 33 B 43 C 4 A 14 A 24 A 34 D 44 B
5 C 15 D 25 D 35 B 45 C 6 C 16 A 26 D 36 A 46 B
7 A 17 D 27 C 37 A 47 B 8 C 18 B 28 B 38 C 48 D
9 D 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 A
10 C 20 D 30 D 40 B 50 B
Đáp án đề số 17
1 B 11 B 21 B 31 B 41 C
2 A 12 B 22 C 32 C 42 A
3 B 13 C 23 D 33 C 43 C
4 D 14 A 24 A 34 D 44 A
5 D 15 A 25 D 35 B 45 D
6 D 16 D 26 B 36 B 46 A
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 A 47 B
8 D 18 B 28 B 38 D 48 C
9 B 19 B 29 B 39 D 49 D
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 D 50 C
229
Đáp án đề số 18
1 C 11 D 21 A 31 A 41 B
2 B 12 A 22 A 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 A 23 A 33 B 43 D
4 C 14 C 24 A 34 C 44 B
5 C 15 C 25 D 35 D 45 C
6 C 16 C 26 C 36 B 46 C
7 D 17 D 27 B 37 C 47 B
8 D 18 B 28 C 38 A 48 C
9 B 19 A 29 A 39 D 49 A
10 C 20 A 30 D 40 D 50 B
Đáp án đề số 19
1 B 11 B 21 D 31 D 41 A
2 D 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 B
3 C 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 C
4 A 14 A 24 A 34 B 44 D
5 D 15 B 25 D 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 D 26 D 36 C 46 C
7 A 17 D 27 C 37 A 47 A
8 A 18 A 28 B 38 A 48 B
9 D 19 B 29 C 39 B 49 A
10 B 20 D 30 D 40 A 50 C
Đáp án đề số 20
1 A 11 A 21 C 31 A 41 B
2 B 12 A 22 A 32 C 42 D
3 C 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 D
4 A 14 B 24 A 34 D 44 A
5 D 15 A 25 C 35 D 45 C
6 D 16 D 26 D 36 D 46 B
7 C 17 D 27 A 37 C 47 C
8 C 18 D 28 C 38 A 48 C
9 B 19 B 29 B 39 B 49 C
10 D 20 B 30 A 40 B 50 A