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TỔNG HỢP BỘ ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ THI MINH HỌA BỘ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO

TẠO - FORMAT MỚI NHẤTSỐ 001 MÔN THI: TIẾNG

ANH Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút

(không kể thời gian phát đề)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ...............................................Trường: ............................................................Số báo danh: ....................................................

Chữ ký giám thị 1 Chữ ký giám thị 2







Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. reside /rɪˈzaɪd/ B. conserve/kənˈsɜːv/

C. resume /rɪˈzjuːm/ D. preserve /prɪˈzɜːv/

Question 2. A. ploughs /plaʊz/ B. photographs /ˈfəʊtəɡrɑːfs/

C. gas /ɡæs/ D. laughs /lɑːfs/

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. phenomenon /fəˈnɒmɪnən/ B. military /ˈmɪlətri/

C. exhibit /ɪɡˈzɪbɪt/ D. curriculum /kəˈrɪkjələm/

Question 4. A. powerful/ˈpaʊəfl/ B. substance/ˈsʌbstəns/

C. basement /ˈbeɪsmənt/ D. celestial /səˈlestiəl/ có tính chất như thiên đàng; như thiên đàng

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.

Question 5. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.

A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset

Question 6. The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.

A. define B. confirm C. support D. complain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions

Question 7. Unless you have been very lucky, you have undoubtedly experienced events in your life that made you cry.

A. certainly B. questionably C. absolutely D. definitely

Question 8. His boss has had enough of his impudence and doesn't want to hire him anymore.

A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9. Exploration of the Solar System is continuing, and at the present rate of progress all the planets will have been contacted within the near 50 years.

A. continuing B. progress C. within D. near

Question 10. Thanks to new techniques, canning goods now have a much longer shelf life.

A. thanks to B. techniques C. canning goods D. a much longer Question 11. Florence Sabin is recognized not only for her theoretical research in anatomy and physiology and for her work in public health.

A. recognized B. for C. anatomy D.and

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12. It never his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.

A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed

Question 13. The more you look, the better impression you will make on the interviewer.

A. confide B. confident C. confidently D. confidence

Question 14. I can't decide if I you till I when they .

A. will join - will know - will leave B. will join - know - leave

C. join - will know - leave D. join - will know - will leave

Question 15. broken into when we were away on holiday.

A. It was our house B. We had our house

C. Thieves had our house D. Our house had

Question 16. I could not the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.

A. hold on B. make off C. get along D. take in

Question 17. There is now much water in the lake than there was last year.

A. less B. lesser C. fewer D. smaller

Question 18. Hurry up if you want to buy something because there is left.

A. hardly anything B. a great deal C. hardly little D. hardly something

Question 19. Elderly people, , require constant attention.

A. a large number's depending on government aidB. and many of them depend on the government to finance themC. who are dependent many of them on the financing from the governmentD. many of whom are financially dependent on the government

Question 20. Coming unexpectedly into the room, .

A. so she made the intruder get surprisedB. her appearance took the intruder by surpriseC. it surprised the intruder with her appearanceD. she took the intruder by surprise

Question 21. I'm sorry I offended you. I what I said.

A. take back B. get back C. come back D. get away

Question 22. The following day she felt well to go to work.

A. suffice B. sufficient C. sufficiently D. sufficiency

Question 23. In one year's time, she in this company for 15 years.

A. will be working B. will have been working

C. will work D. has worked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges.

Question 24. - Dad: ‘I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!’ - Son- ‘ ’

A. Have a nice day! B. The same to you!

C. What a lovely toy! Thanks. D. What a pity!

Question 25. ‘When can you get it all done?' – ‘ ’

A. How does next Monday sound? B. Two hours ago

C. I used to do it on Monday D. How much time do 1 need?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.

Question 26. Both English and Vietnamese use Roman scripts' but the latter is a tonal language.

A. Later both Vietnamese and English use Roman scripts.B. English has tones but Vietnamese does not, although they both use Roman scripts.C. Although English and Vietnamese are both Roman scripts, the former is not a tonal language

while the latter is.D. Vietnamese and English which use Roman scripts later become tonal languages.

Question 27. If I had known about their wedding plan earlier I would have been able to make time to attend the reception party.

A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the morning reception.

B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the morning reception.

C. I don t know their wedding plan earlier so I can't make time to attend their morning reception.D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the morning reception.

Question 28. "You did a great job! I'm proud of your achievement" said the woman to her grandchild.

A. The woman said that her grandchild's job was great and site was proud of his work achievement.

B. The woman told her grandchild that she was proud of his achievement at work.C. The woman told her grandchild to do a great job so that she could be proud of his

achievement.D. The woman complimented her grandchild on his achievement.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don't get muddled up.

A. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.B. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate hooks so that I don't get muddled up.C. I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.D. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.

Question 30. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

A. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

B. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

C. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, whereas others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In "Cerealizing America", Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (31) end to end the empty cereal boxes from one year's consumption would (32)____ to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (33) of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.

(34) of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by "fortifying" them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (35) ________ - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar!

Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how high sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the "Nutrition facts" panel.

From "Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat" by Tom Ventulo

Question 31. A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to layQuestion 32. A. prolong B. stretch C. contact D. reachQuestion 33. A. cost B. charge C. average D. expenseQuestion 34. A. Mostly B. Furthermost C. Most D. AlmostQuestion 35. A. beautiful B. gorgeous C. lovely D. charmingRead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.

The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in

that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.

The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.

The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made Halley's bells superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted ofa lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.

Question 36. Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?

A. Halley’s work as an astronomerB. Halley’s many different interestsC. Halley’s invention of a contraption for divingD. Halley's experiences as a diver

Question 37. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it .

A. was bigger B. provided more air

C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly

Question 38. The expression ‘ran low’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. moved slowly B. had been replenished

C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted

Question 39. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?

A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes

C. For hours at a time D. For days on end

Question 40. It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley's bell .

A. was wider at the top than at the bottomB. was made of tarred woodC. was completely enclosedD. could hold more than one diver

Question 41. The expression "at will" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by .

A. in the future B. as they wanted

C. with great speed D. upside down

Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead it would .

A. float B. get wet

C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The Timber rattlesnakes, once widespread throughout the eastern United States, is now on the endangered species list and is extinct in two eastern states in which it once thrived. Compared to its Western cousins the Timber rattlesnakes may be especially vulnerable because of certain behaviors adapted for coping with the cold climate in which it lives.

Rattlesnakes are generally found in warm climates because, like all reptiles, they cannot generate or regulate their own body temperature internally and must rely on the sun’s warmth for heat. But Timber rattlesnakes migrated into colder northern areas about 8,000 years ago when glaciers retreated. In these northern regions, the snakes developed a number of adaptive strategies to survive, but ultimately these behaviors make them more vulnerable to human predation, their main threat.

One survival strategy the snakes have developed is hibernation. For approximately eight months of the year, the rattlers remain motionless in deep frost-free crevices, with their body temperature dropping as low as 40 degrees. In the spring, when they emerge, they must warm their chilled bodies by sunning for three or four days on rocks in the open. This behavior coupled with the fact that Timber rattlesnakes tend to concentrate in large numbers at their wintering sites, make them easy prey. Gestating females are particularly vulnerable because they spend much of their time basking in the sun in order to produce live young from eggs. In addition, females have very long interbirth intervals, producing live young only every three to five years. If a frost or cold spell comes late in the year, the entire litter of 6 to 12 young may die.

Efforts are underway to protect the Timber rattlesnakes and its habitats from further human depredation, but in many states it is already too late.

Question 43. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Why Timber rattlesnakes hibernateB. How Timber rattlesnakes are survivingC. How Timber rattlesnakes adapted to northern climatesD. Why Timber rattlesnakes are endangered

Question 44. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “vulnerable” in the first paragraph?

A. Unprotected B. Impervious C. Insensitive D. Deprived

Question 45. Which of the following in the true about Timber rattlesnakes?

A. They migrated to eastern states

B. They migrated northward during a warming climateC. They migrated to escape a cold climateD. They migrated to the South to seek a warmer climate

Question 46. Which of the following could best replace the word "emerge" in the third paragraph?

A. Come out B. Set off C. Get up D. See through Question 47. In which of the following places might a person be most likely to find Timber rattlesnakes in the spring?

A. in the woods B. In meadows C. In bushy areas D. In canyons

Question 48. The phrase “easy prey” in the third paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Relaxed B. Protective C. Victims D. Sociable

Question 49. Which of the following word can best replace the word "basking" in the third paragraph?

A. Washing B. Eating C. Sleeping D. Lying

Question 50. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the rattlesnake being an endangered animal?

A. Hibernating for eight months B. Basking in the sun

C. Congregating together D. Having long intervals between births







Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the otherthree in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. create /kriˈeɪt/ B. creature /ˈkriːtʃə(r)/

C. easy ˈiːzi/ D. increase /ɪnˈkriːs/

Question 2. A. needed /niːdid/ B. played /pleid/

C. rained /reɪnd/ D. followed /ˈfɒləʊd/

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. considerate /kənˈsɪdərət/ B. continental /ˌkɒntɪˈnentl/

C. territorial /ˌterəˈtɔːriəl/ D. economic /ˌiːkəˈnɒmɪk/

Question 4. A. satisfaction /ˌsætɪsˈfækʃn/ B. presentation /ˌpreznˈteɪʃn/

C. Probability /ˌprɒbəˈbɪləti/ D. continuous /kənˈtɪnjuəs/


Question 5. The student apologized to his teacher for submitting the essay late.

A. handing in B. dropping out of

C. carrying out D. bringing in

Question 6. I wonder when I’m finally going to receive news from Joe.

A. to hear of B. to hear from

C. to get in touch with D. turn away from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.

Question 7. We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight o'clock and take good care of their own business.

A. manage an inflexible system B. have a good voyage

C. run faster than others D. organize things inefficiently

Question 8. He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head.

A. kept calm B. excited

C. took leave of his sense D. lost touch


Question 9. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam

A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass

Question 10. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel .

A. The B. long C. a D. it is very cruel

Question 11. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that following in case of an emergency.

A. everyone B. that following

C. in case of D. an


Question 12. The doctor who is tonight in the general hospital is Mr. Brown.

A. in turn B. on tour C. on call D. at work

Question 13. You wonderful! Is that a new perfume you’re wearing?

A. are smelling B. smell C. will smell D. have been smelling

Question 14. She has been very interested in doing research on .

A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically

Question 15. of the United States grown during a Republican administration.

A. Rarely the federal government hasB. Rarely has the federal governmentC. Has the federal government rarelyD. The federal government has rarely

Question 16. It took me 10 years to enough money to travel around the country.

A. set out B. put away C. put by D. save aside

Question 17. Had I known that you were ill last week, .

A. I would have gone to see you B. I would go to see you

C. I will go to see you D. I shall have gone to see you

Question 18. It is widely believed that human beings are descended from one common ancestor.

A. every B. all C. every of D. all of

Question 19. Travel can _ the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a

way of life as well as a different language.

A. broadly/different B. broaden/different

C. broad/differently D. broaden/differ

Question 20. I think I should have your mother while I was passing.

A. dropped in on B. come up with C. got on with D. run into

Question 21. Mr. Dawson was given the award in of his services to the hospital.

A. spite B. charge C. recognition D. sight

Question 22. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong, I could .

A. see them off B. see off them

C. see through them D. see them through

Question 23. The rumors go that Jack will be arrested. He is said a bloody robbery.

A. to have taken part in B. to have joined in

C. to join in D. to take part in

Mark the letter A B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges.

Question 24. - Joan: Our friends are coming , Mike?’

- Mike: I’m sorry, I can't do it now.'

A. Why don’t we cook some coffeeB. Shall I make you like some coffeeC. Shall you make some coffee, pleaseD. Would you mind making some coffee

Question 25. 'Would you like to have dinner with me?’ ‘ ’

A. Yes, it is B. Yes, so do I

C. I’m very happy D. Yes, I'd love to


Question 26. The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners.

A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London.B. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy.C. In this novel, the story takes place in Normandy but the majority of the characters are from

London.D. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners.

Question 27. The airline requested a confirmation call to ensure a seat on my flight back home.

A. The airline made sure I got a seat on my flight homeB. I secured a seat on my flight home.C. The airline confirmed a seat on my flight homeD. It was necessary to confirm seat on my flight back home.

Question 28. Mary should never have been allowed to try to swim in the sea alone.

A When Mary left to swim in the sea alone, she said she knew what she was doing.

B. It would probably be wrong to let Mary swim in the sea on her own.C. No one could have stopped Mary from trying to swim in the sea by herself.D. Someone ought to have stopped Mary from attempting to swim in the sea on her own.


Question 29. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.

A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.D. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.

Question 30. I did not arrive in time. I was notable to see her off.

A. She had left because I was not on time.B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.C. I was not early enough to see her off.D. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S. law. They are approved to operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (31) education and training. Increasingly, state authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply for and receive accreditation as a condition of final and continued approval.

As corporate entities, U.S. institutions are internally self-governing and are (32) _ to make property facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide whom to admit to study and to graduate; (33) their own funds from outside sources; enter into contracts and compete for grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions compete (34) one another for students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions may compete within the same state or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate nature of institutions and the competition within the system that Americans to refer to the concept of the educational or academic marketplace - an important distinctive element of the way U.S. education is organized.

From A Diverse Educational System: Structure, standards, and challenges. Info USA (CD version)

Question 31. A. provided B. provision C. provide D. providingQuestion 32. A. capable B. able C. probable D. possibleQuestion 33. A. rise B. raise C. call D. lendQuestion 34. A. with B. to C. for D. atQuestion 35. A. lets B. causes C. prevents D. makes


I read with interest the article on American families. In general, I agree with it, but there are some important things it left out. It didn’t tell the reader much about the life of a houseband. It’s not an easy life. I know, because I’m now a househusband myself. A househusband has to change many of his ideas and his ways.

First of all, he has to change the way he thinks about time. Before I was a househusband, I worked full-time for the New York Times. I was a reporter, and time was always important. We had to finish our articles quickly and give them to the editor. Everyone was always in a hurry. This is the way, many other men work too. Businessmen, lawyers, bankers, and doctors all have to work quickly.

At home it's different. The househusband cannot be in a hurry all the time. If you rush around, you will make everyone unhappy! The children will be unhappy because they don't understand. For them, time is not important. Your wife will be unhappy because the children are unhappy. You will be unhappy, too, because they are all unhappy. So you have to learn to slow down. That is the first and most important rule for a househusband.

There is something else the househusband must learn. You must learn to show how you feel about things. At work, men usually do not talk about feelings. If they do, people think they are strange. So, many men are not used to telling anyone about their feelings. They do not know how to talk about their anger, worries, or love. But children need to know how you feel. They need to know how much you love them. If you are angry, they need to know why. Your wife also needs to know about your feelings. If you do not say anything, your family may get the wrong idea. Then there may be serious problems.

People talk a lot about househusbands these days. Usually they talk about men doing the housework, the cooking, cleaning, and shopping. But in my opinion, these are the easiest things to learn. It was much harder for me to change the way I think and the way I act with my family. I think, other men will also find this harder, but, like me, will find it necessary if they want to have a happy family!

Ted Diamond Hartwell, New Jersey

Question 36. What is this article is mainly about?

A. fathers and children B. life as a househusband

C. ideas about time D. American families

Question 37. At work, most people .

A. have to hurry B. take their time

C. have lots of time D. have to slow down

Question 38. The word rush in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. move about very slowly B. move about hurriedly

C. shout loudly and angrily D. spend time idly

Question 39. What does the househusband has to learn?

A. to do things more slowly. B. to do things more quickly.

C. the importance of time. D. how to understand his work.

Question 40. According to the passage, children .

A. are usually unhappy. B. are always in a hurry.

C. usually don’t think time is important. D. don’t know how to show their feelings.

Question 41. What does the word they in paragraph 4 refers to?

A. strange people at work B. men who talk about feelings

C. men as househusbands D. men who do not talk about feelings

Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that Ted thinks .

A. learning about housework is easy.B. learning about housework is a problem.C. cooking is the easiest thing to learn.D. being a househusband is easy.


According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a "looker," a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to the viewing lens at the other end of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully. In the same year, someone described the "looker’’ to the Italian scientist Galileo, who made his own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of the guests suggested a name for the device: telescope.

When Isaac Newton began using Galileo's telescope more than a century later, he noticed a problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens bends, or refracts the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to be separated into colors. This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector.

Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills and mountains far from city lights. The world's largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin, Another telescope stands on Mount Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls on thirty- six mirrors.

Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes, allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, in the place of lenses or mirrors, radio telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dishes. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio telescopes and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant objects in space.

Question 43. What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

A. It was bought by children. B. It was invented in America.

C. It was sold by a shop owner. D. It was invented by accident.

Question 44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Hans Lippershey?

A. He owned a shop.B. He was Dutch.C. He sold his invention in 1608.D. He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop.

Question 45. When was Galileo's invention called "telescope"?

A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600

Question 46. What did Newton notice about Galileo's telescope when he used it?

A. It had many problems B. It refracted the light

C. It was called a refractor D. It had a curved mirror

Question 47. What did Newton do with Galileo's telescope?

A. He called it reflector. B. He sent it back to Galileo.

C. He improved it. D. He stopped using it after his notice.

Question 48. When did Newton start to use Galileo's telescope?

A. in the 17th century B. in the 18th century

C. in the 16th century D. in the 15th century

Question 49. Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?

A. in Wisconsin B. in California

C. in Hawaii D. in Caucasus Mountains

Question 50. Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?

A. Taking photographs of visible objects.B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space.C. Collecting radio waves.D. Collecting light waves.








Question 1. A. advance /ədˈvɑːns/ B. ancient/ˈeɪnʃənt/ C. cancer/ˈkænsə(r)/ D. annual /ˈænjuəl/

Question 2. A. devotion /dɪˈvəʊʃn/ B. congestion /kənˈdʒestʃən/ C. suggestion /səˈdʒestʃən/ D. question /ˈkwestʃən/


Question 3. A. abundance /əˈbʌndəns/ B. acceptance /əkˈseptəns/ C. accountant /əˈkaʊntənt/ D. applicant /ˈæplɪkənt/

Question 4. A. reference /ˈrefrəns/B. volunteer /ˌvɒlənˈtɪə(r)/ C. refugee /ˌrefjuˈdʒiː/ D. referee /ˌrefəˈriː/


Question 5. We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.

A. monthly payment B. cash and carry

C. credit card D. piece by piece

Question 6. Teletext is continuously sent out at all times when regular television programs are broadcast.

A. transmitted B. electrified C. automated D. aired


Question 7. Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.

A. puts off B. looks for C. attends to D. approves of Question 8. Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of their sex. A. openly criticized B. rightly claimed C. publicly said D. protested


Question 9. He made it clear once more that the missed books were to he received and brought to him.

A. made B. clear C. the missed D. to be received

Question 10. Every day in summer, but especially at the weekends, all kinds of vehicles bring crowds of people to enjoy the various attraction.

A. at B. bring C. crowds of people D. attraction

Question 11. The federal government recommends that all expectant women will not only refrain from smoking but also avoid places where other people smoke.

A. recommends that B. expectant

C. will not only refrain D. smoke


Question 12. Instead of being excited about the good news, Ted seemed to be .

A. Ignorant [ngu dốt] B. indifferent C. unlikely D. unexpected

Question 13. I don't like John. His complaints make me angry.

A. continual B. continuous [liên tục] C. continuation D. continuously

Question 14. My old friend and colleague, John, married.

A. have just got B. has just got C. just have got D. just has got

Question 15. Having opened the bottle, for everyone.

A. The drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink

C. Mike pouring the drink D. The drink was being poured

Question 16. Poor management brought the company to of collapse.

A. the edge B. the foot C. the ring D. the brink

Question 17. The chairman requested that .

A. the member study the problem carefullyB. with more carefulness the problem could be studiedC. the problem was more carefully studiedD. the members studied more careful the problem

Question 18. seemed a miracle to us.

A. His recover after so soon B. That he recovered so soon

C. His being recovered so soon D. When he had recovered so soon

Question 19. Learners of English as a foreign language often fail to between unfamiliar sounds in that language.

A. separate B. differ C. distinguish D. solve

Question 20. I haven't received the letter. It to the wrong address.

A. must send B. might have been sent

C. is sent D. have been sent

Question 21. My sister bought a red jacket, but she would rather a blue one.

A. bought B. had bought C. have bought D. buy

Question 22. My first job was to arrange the files into order from the oldest to the most recent.

A. alphabetical B. chronological C. numerical D. historical

Question 23. As a result of his father's death; he a lot of money.

A. came into B. came over [ghé qua chơi] C. came to [đi tới] D. came through [tồn tại, sõng sót, tiếp nhận liên lạc]


Question 24. "Let’s walk to the park!" – “ ”

A. All right B. I think so

C. I'm sorry D. OK. How can we go there?

Question 25. "Do you like visiting museums?" - “ ”.

A. No, I'd love to B. No, I haven't C. Not really D. Many times


Question 26. 'John shouldn’t have behaved so badly,’ said Janet.

A. Janet doesn't like John’s behaviour.B. Janet objected to John's bad behaviour.C. Janet dislikes John.D. Janet was angry with John.

Question 27. It wasn't clear to us at the time how serious the problem was.

A. We were not sure about how serious the problem was at the timeB. That the problem was serious was not made clear to us.C. Little did we know anything about the seriousness of the problemD. Little did we realise at the time how serious the problem was.

Question 28. He’ll know if he's got the position or not sometime before 5 o'clock today.

A. If they decide to accept him for the position, they’ll contact him around 5 o'clock todayB. Although it seems certain that he will be accepted, the decision won’t be made known to him

until 5 o'clock.C. If he has been accepted for the position, he will receive the confirmation at around 5 p.m

todayD. By 5 p.m. today he'll be informed about whether he's been accepted for the position.


Question 29. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.D. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me a lot.

Question 30. The man jumped out of the boat. He was bitten by a shark.

A. Bitten by a shark, the man jumped out of the boat.B. After jumping out of the boat, the man was bitten by a shark.C. After bitten, the shark jumped out of the boat.D. After jumping out of the boat, the shark bit the man.

The pig was the last animal to be fully domesticated by the farmer. Unlike the cow and the sheep, it is not a grass-eater. Its ancient home was the forest, where it searched for different kinds of food, such as nuts, roots and dead animals, and found in the bushes (31) for its almost hairless body from extremes of sun and cold. For many centuries the farmer allowed it to continue there, leaving his pigs to look after themselves most of the time. As the woodlands began to shrink, the pig slowly began to be kept on the farm itself. But it did not finally come into a shed, where it was (32) on waste food from the farm and the house, until the eighteenth century.

The pig, then, became a farm animal in the (33) of agricultural improvement in Britain in the eighteenth century, but it was given little attention by special animal breeders, for the major farmers of the time preferred to develop the larger kinds of animal. There were, however, various less well-known farmers interested in pigs and they (34) _ their improvements on new types of pigs from overseas. These were the Chinese pig, and its various relatives, including the Neapolitan pig, which were descended from Chinese pigs that had found their (35) _ to the Mediterranean in ancient times.Question 31. A. protection B. guard C. intention D. defenceQuestion 32. A. sustained B. supported C. grown D. fedQuestion 33. A. age B. mark C. point D. passQuestion 34. A. put B. based C. launched D. fittedQuestion 35. A. course B. direction C. tendency D. way


The Singapore Science Center is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the center we can discover the wonder of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will light up. Start a wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our imagination.

The center features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communications, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arose interest in science and technology among us and the general public. The center is the first science center to be established in South East Asia. It was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Science, and Aviation. These exhibits are renewed annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the center.

Instead of the usual “Hand off” notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if you hate the subject. A Discovery Center was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the animals and people which are extinct.

Question 36. What can be the best title of the passage?

A. Singapore Science Center B. Discovery Center

C. Physical Sciences D. Science Center

Question 37. What does “Hand off” in paragraph 3 mean?

A. Touch B. Don't stand on C. Don’t touch D. Keep away

Question 38. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. the center B. the general public

C. solar radiation D. evolution

Question 39. It is stated in paragraph 2 that .

A. the Singapore Science Center makes people interested in science and technologyB. only students can visit the centerC. there are only several exhibits in the science centerD. visitors don't want to come back to the center

Question 40. It is indicated in paragraph 3 that .

A. it is impossible for visitors to touch and feel the objects in the centerB. if you hate science you will never learn the subject even you visit the centerC. children under 3 are not allowed to visit the centerD. the “Hand off” notice is not found in the center

Question 41. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 that .

A. the exhibits in the center cover a wide range of topicsB. The Singapore Science Center is the first center established in the worldC. the center was not opened until 1977D. visitors are encouraged to return to the center

Question 42. What is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The center is located in JurongB. There are four exhibition galleries in the centerC. The exhibits are renewed every yearD. The Singapore Science Center is the biggest in Asia


Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help

them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the real availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job.

Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs - Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern

that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21 th

century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated.

In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include Medicaid and Medicare, food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes.

Question 43. New immigrants to the u.s. could seek help from .

A the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies

C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations

Question 44. It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of .

A. industrialization B. modernization

C. urbanization D. population

Question 45. The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means .

A executed B. studied C. introduced D. enforced

Question 46. The Social Security program has become possible thanks to .

A. deductions from wages B. people's willingness to work

C. donations from companies D. enforcement laws

Question 47. That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that .

A. elderly people ask for more moneyB. the program discourages working peopleC. the number of elderly people is growingD. younger people do not want to work

Question 48. Persons on low incomes can access public housing through .

A. low rents B. state spending

C. donations D. federal expenditure

Question 49. Americans on low incomes can seek help from _.

A. federal government B. government agencies

C. state governments D. non-government agencies

Question 50. The passage mainly dicusses .

A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America

C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America








Question 1. A. accountant /əˈkaʊntənt/ B. country /ˈkʌntri/ C. count /kaʊnt/ D. fountain /ˈfaʊntən/

Question 2. A. clubs B. books C. hats D. stamps


Question 3. A. paragraph /ˈpærəɡrɑːf/ B. aviation /ˌeɪviˈeɪʃn/ C. confidential /ˌkɒnfɪˈdenʃl/ D. supersonic /ˌsuːpəˈsɒnɪk/

Question 4. A. preference /ˈprefrəns/ B. concept /ˈkɒnsept/ C. furious /ˈfjʊəriəs/ D. romance /rəʊˈmæns/


Question 5. Some land is best used if two or more different kinds of crops are grown on it alternately; on the other hand, it is better to grow the same crop continuously.

A. time after time B. slowly but surely

C. one after another D. for many years

Question 6. I have a thorough knowledge of the history of arts.

A. practical B. scientific C. complete D. wonderful .


Question 7. His policies were beneficial to the economy as a whole.

A. harmless B. crude C. detrimental D. innocent

Question 8. We all looked up to these fire fighters who put out the terrible fire in our town last night.

A. respected B. looked down on

C. looked forward D. admired


Question 9. In summer, warm southern air carries moist north to the eastern and central United States.

A. In summer B. air carries C. moist D. central

Question 10. There are many different ways of comparing the economy of one nation with those of another.

A. There are B. of comparing C. those D. another

Question 11. The people in Europe are now using the common unit of money called Euro, although the economies in those countries are not exact the same.

A. are now using B. called C. although D. exact


Question 12. After Jill had realized that the new computer was not what she really wanted, she

it in for an other one.

A. dropped B. traded C. turned down D. bought

Question 13. In fact the criminals into because the front door was wide open and so they just walked in.

A. needn't have broken B. didn't need break

C. didn't need to break D. needn't to have broken

Question 14. We need to think of our products to meet the need of potential customers.

A. diversify B. diversification

C. diversifying D. diverse

Question 15. . that he had no choice but to leave early.

A. In such a situation he did find himselfB. In such a situation he found himselfC. He found himself in a situation whereD. He found himself in so embarrassing a situation

Question 16. When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she .

A. came down to B. bargained for

C. faced up to D. got round to

Question 17. I am angry because you didn't tell me the truth. I don't like .

A. to have deceived B. to deceive

C. being deceived D. deceiving

Question 18. Sound comes in waves and the higher the frequency, .

A. higher is the pitch B. the pitch is higher

C. the higher the pitch D. pitch is higher

Question 19. The newspaper is owned by the Mearson Group, chairman is Sir James Bex.

A. which B. that C. whom D. whose

Question 20. In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself .

A. occupation B. occupied C. occupant D. occupational

Question 21. One condition of this job is that you must be to work at weekends.

A. acceptable B. available C. accessible D. capable

Question 22. It is vital that we a change in people’s attitude.

A. Bring down [bỏ xuống, dừng] B. bring back [mang trả lại, gợi nhớ (kỷ niệm)] C. bring about [mang lại, đem đến (sự thay đổi)] D. bring away [mang đi ]

Question 23. You the washingup. I could have done it to you.

A. hadn't to do B. needn’t have done

C. couldn't have done D. mustn’t have done


Question 24. ‘I hate shopping.’ - ‘ ’.

A. So do I B. Certainly

C. That’s alright D. I don't, too

Question 25. 'It’s very hot here.’ - ‘ ’

A. Do you feel cold? B. I’ll turn on the heating

C. Let’s go outside then D. Put on your sweater then


Question 26. His plan was that the company would be making a profit in two years.

A. He was determined to make profit for the company in two yearsB. His plan was made to gain profit for the company in two years.C. He set a target of two years for the company to make a profit.D. His plan was set up in two years to make a profit for the company.

Question 27. His behaviour is beginning to annoy me more and more.

A. He is beginning to behave more and more annoying.B. He is annoying me more and more with his behaviour.C. He is always behaving in an annoying way to me.D. I am beginning to get more and more annoyed by his behaviour.

Question 28. It is believed that the murderer escaped in a stolen car.

A. The murderer is believed to escape in a stolen car.B. They believed the man to escape in a stolen carC. The murderer is believed to have escaped in a stolen carD. They believed that the murderer stole the car


Question 29. Alan gave me some advice. I was saved from bankcruptcy.

A. I was saved from bankcruptcy although Alan gave me some advice.B. It was Alan’s advice that saved me from backcruptcy.C. If it weren't for Alan's advice, I would go bankcrupt.D. Had it not been for Alan's advice, I would have been bankcruptcy.

Question 30. They drove fifteen miles off the main road. They had nothing to eat for the day.

A. Not only did they drive fifteen miles off the main road, they also had nothing to eat for the day.

B. Driving fifteen miles off the main road, they eventually had something to eat for the day.C. They neither drove fifteen miles of the main road nor had anything to eat for the day.D. They drove fifteen miles off the main road until they had something to eat for the day.


We know what happens when we don't have water - we die. We use water, other animals use it, plants use it... but the world never loses it. Basically, the (31) of water on, above and within the planet never changes.

Our use of it is part of an immense (32) , known simply enough as the water cycle. The cycle can happen because water is one of the few substances that exists naturally, and at temperatures which people can tolerate, as a liquid, a gas and a solid.

We all know something about the water cycle; it is part of our daily scene. Water (33) from lakes and oceans and from the leaves of plants. From there it forms clouds which come back to earth (34) rain, ice or snow. That water soaks into the ground or runs off. And the cycle continues with rivers running into the sea, plants transpiring and so on. Animals like us use it on the way through the cycle.

For millions of years, changes in the water cycle were slow, but now, with the (35) increase in the number of people on earth and the development of technology, we are having a dramatic impact on the way the water cycle behaves and on the quality of the water itself.

Question 31. A. amount B. number C. sum D. figureQuestion 32. A. method B. process C. procedure D. routeQuestion 33. A. steams B. evaporates C. dissolves D. dispersesQuestion 34. A. like B. similar C. for D. asQuestion 35. A. quick B. abrupt C. rapid D. hasty


If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children. However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well - especially if the parents are very supportive of their child.

Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael's mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.

Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.

Question 36. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to .

A. push their child into trying too muchB. make their child become a musicianC. neglect their child's educationD. help their child to become a genius

Question 37. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?

A. Educational psychologists. B. Unrealistic parents,

C. Their children. D. Successful musicians.

Question 38. The phrase “crazy about” in the passage mostly means .

A. "surprised at" B. "completely unaware of"

C. "confused about" D. "extremely interested in”

Question 39. Winston's parents push their son so much and he .

A. cannot learn much music from themB. is afraid to disappoint themC. has won a lot of piano competitionsD. has become a good musician

Question 40. The word "they" in the passage refers to .

A. violin lessons B. parents in general

C. Michael’s parents D. concerts

Question 41. All of the following people are musical EXCEPT .

A. Michael's father B. Winston’s father

C. Winston’s mother D. Michael’s mother

Question 42. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that .

A. parents should let the child develop in the way he wantsB. successful parents always have intelligent childrenC. successful parents often have unsuccessful childrenD. parents should spend more money on the child's education


THE GOLDENGATE BRIDGE

The Golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of America. It is located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate Strait-a mile-wide strait that connects the

Pacific Ocean to the San Francisco Bay. It is surely one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the height of a bridge is the height of the towers). The bridge, as it is today, was designed by architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However, their art deco project was not the first Golden Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1916, but they were of a very complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something America could ever be proud of.

The bridge was a true experiment in its time; such a long suspension bridge had never been tried before. It had the highest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn't the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible. The construction began in 1933, and was finished in 1937, when the bridge opened to pedestrians. (It was opened to cars one year later). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less than was estimated. Today, the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,200 feet (almost a mile) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 feet long and has a diameter of 36 inches.

‘International orange’ is the color the bridge has always been painted. The architects chose it because it blends well with the span’s natural setting. However, if the Navy had had its way, the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes - in favor of greater visibility for passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraft beacons on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them.

Question 43. The Golden Gate Bridge .

A. spans the San Francisco BayB. is the best-known symbol of the United StatesC. spans the Golden Gate StraitD. is painted gold and has a gold-plated gate at each end

Question 44. The first plans of the bridge .

A. were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916B. were something America could be proud ofC. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicatedD. were not designed in art deco style

Question 45. The construction of the foundations was very complicated because .

A. it was thought to be almost impossibleB. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through violent wavesC. they had to be the largest ones ever builtD. they had to be cast by teams of divers, which was very expensive

Question 46. Which one is true?

A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four yearsB. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939D. The construction of the bridge began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were made

Question 47. The word 'cast' is closest in meaning to .

A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown

Question 48. The word 'blends' is closest in meaning to .

A. approves B. fixes C. is suitable D. is outstanding

Question 49. What is NOT TRUE about the Golden Gate Bridge?

A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feetB. The bridge was first painted black with yellow stripesC. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you seeD. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was

Question 50. How can passing ships know where the bridge is?

A. due to the color decided by the NavyB. because there are beacons on the top of the towersC. because the bridge is international orangeD. thanks to the fog horns








Question 1. A. south B. southern C. scout D. drought

Question 2. A. dome B. comb C. home D. tomb


Question 3. A. spontaneous B. secondary C. honesty D. monarchy

Question 4. A. pollution B. contaminant C. atmosphere D. researcher


Question 5. The twins look so much alike that no one can tell them apart.

A. distinguish between them B. point out with them

C. spoil them D. pick them out

Question 6. Pitchforks were once carved entirely from wood, but today the have steel tines and wooden handle.

A. sometimes B. formerly C. in one area D. in the meantime

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.

Question 7. James could not tell his parents about his many animal friends in the forest and the exciting things that he saw, but he found another way to express himself.

A. speak with voice B. communicate

C. keep silent D. write his thoughts

Question 8. This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news

A. casual B. indifferent C. inadequate D. superficial


Question 9. After driving for twenty miles, he suddenly realised that he has been driving in the wrong direction .

A. after driving B. suddenly realized

C. has been driving D. in the wrong direction

Question 10. I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a long time.

A. will be B. for C. has been working D. like

Question 11. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time .

A. are required B. to arrive to C. before D. departure time


Question 12. Larry never spoke to anyone, and kept himself .

A. outside B. withdrawn C. superior D. aloof

Question 13. of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.

A. Mostly forms B. Most every form

C. Almost forms D. Almost every form

Question 14. It gets on my nerves that way that Carol about her job.

A. forever boasts B. is forever boasting

C. never boasts D. is never boasting

Question 15. , Mozart was an accomplished composer while still a child.

A. Whatever it seems remarkable how.B. No matter how seems it remarkable.C. No matter how it seems remarkable.D. No matter how remarkable it seems.

Question 16. Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before they ______________.

A. touch down B. settle down C. put down D. go down

Question 17. The question of late payment of the bill was again at the meeting.

A. raised B. risen C. brought D. taken

Question 18. The manual coming with the appliance says “ any problem with merchandise, contact your dealer.”

A. You should have B. Had you have

C. Do you have D. Should you have

Question 19. “Let me stay up late any longer, ?”

A. do you B. won't you C. will you D. should you Question 20, For me, is not important.

A. what a person wearing B. what does a person wear

C. what a person wears D. what will a person wear

Question 21. Hope you won’t take if I tell you the truth.

A. annoyance B. resentment C. irritation D. offence

Question 22. , copper is one of the earliest known metals.

A. Over 2,000 years ago mined B. Mined 2,000 years over ago

C. Mining over 2,000 years ago D. Mined over 2,000 years ago

Question 23. I walked away as calmly as I could they thought I was the thief.

A. to avoid B. or else C. owing to D. in case


Question 24. "Thank you for the lift” - " ".

A. Nonsense B. All right C. No problems D. You are welcome

Question 25. "Will you be able to come to the meeting?" - " "

A. I'm afraid not . B. Of course you will

C. You must be kidding D. I’m sorry not


Question 26. Had I known more about computer programming, I would have worked for a computer company.

A. I didn’t know much about computer programming so I didn't work for a computer companyB. A better knowledge of computer programming will help me find a job in a computer companyC. I wish I knew more about computer programming and could work for a computer companyD. Knowing more about computer programming, I would find a job in a computer company

Question 27. The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.

A. It's reported that James wins the first prize.B. It's reported that James to be awarded the first prize.C. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize.D. The first prize is reported to award to James.

Question 28. Alfred said to John. "I didn't use your computer! Someone else did, not me."

A. Alfred told John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.B. Alfred denied having used John’s computer, saying that someone else had.C. Alfred refused to use John's computer, saying that someone else had.D. Alfred said to John that he hadn't used his computer, saying that someone else had.


Question 29. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

A. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

B. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

C. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, whereas others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Question 30. Travelers are advised to take out insurance. Their luggage may go astray.

A. Travelers are advised to take out insurance if their luggage may go astray.B. Travelers are advised to take out insurance, so their luggage may go astray.C. Travelers had better buy insurance as a precaution against their luggage may go astray.D. Travelers are advised to take out insurance in case their luggage goes astray.


One of the most important (31) of a standardized test is time. You'll only be allowed a certain number of minutes for each section, so it is very important that you use your time (32) . The most important time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you begin, take just a few seconds to survey the test, noting the number of questions and the sections that looks easier than the rest. Then, make a rough time schedule based on the amount of time (33) to you. Mark the halfway point on your test and make a note beside that mark of the time when the testing period is half over.

Once you begin the test, keep moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to make fewer mistakes, your mind will become bored and begin to wander. You'll end up making far more mistakes if you’re not concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you, you may end up (34) out of time before you finish. So don’t stop for difficult questions. Skip them and move on. You can come back to them later if you have time. A question that takes you five seconds to answer counts as much as one that takes you several-minutes, so pick up the easy points first. (35) , answering the easier questions first helps build your confidence and gets you in the testing groove.

Question 31. A. factors B. issue C. concern D. informationQuestion 32. A. quickly B. fast C. wisely D. hardlyQuestion 33. A. close B. similar C. available D. suitableQuestion 34. A. short B. running C. moving D. cuttingQuestion 35. A. Therefore B. However C. So D. Besides


Carbohydrates, which are sugars, are an essential part of a healthy diet. They provide the main source of energy for the body, and they also function to flavor and sweeten foods. Carbohydrates range from simple sugars like glucose to complex sugar such as amylase and amylopectin. Nutritionists estimate that carbohydrates should make up about one-fourth to one-fifth of a person's diet. This translates to about 75-100 grams of carbohydrates per day.

A diet that is deficient in carbohydrates can have an adverse effect on a person’s health. When the body lacks a sufficient amount of carbohydrates, it must then use its protein supplies for energy, a process called gluconeogenesis. However, this result in a lack of necessary protein, and further

health difficulties may occur. A lack of carbohydrates can also lead to ketosis, a build-up of ketones in the body that causes fatigue, lethargy, and bad breath.

Question 36. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Carbohydrates are needed for good healthB. Carbohydrates prevent a build-up of proteinsC. Carbohydrates can lead to ketosisD. Carbohydrates are an expendable part of a good diet

Question 37. The word "function" as used in the first paragraph refers to which of the following?

A. neglect B. serve C. dissolve D. digest

Question 38. According to the passage, what do most nutritionists suggest?

A. Sufficient carbohydrates will prevent gluconeogenesisB. Carbohydrates are simple sugars called glucoseC. Carbohydrates should make up about a quarter of a person’s daily dietD. Carbohydrates should be eaten in very small quantities

Question 39. Which of the following do carbohydrates NOT do?

A. Prevent ketosis B. Cause gluconeogenesis

C. Provide energy for the body D. Flavor and sweeten food

Question 40. Which of the following words could best replace "deficient” as used in the second paragraph?

A. outstanding B. abundant C. insufficient D. unequal

Question 41. What does the word "this" refers to in the second paragraph?

A. Using protein supplies for energyB. Converting carbohydrates to energyC. Having a deficiency in carbohydratesD. Having an insufficient amount of protein

Question 42. According to the paragraph, which of the following does NOT describe carbohydrates?

A. A protein supply B. A necessity

C. A range of sugars D. An energy source


Many people are unaware of how many of the products we use every day comes from petroleum and natural gas. In the United States each family of four uses more than two tons of petroleum products annually. That’s almost 1200 lb of chemicals each year for every man, woman, and child in the United States - a staggering total of 225 billion pounds of chemicals from petroleum, and to a lesser extent, natural gas.

Of the vast amount of petroleum and natural gas we consume, more than 90 percent is burned as fuels. Only about 5.5 percent is used for the manufacture of petrochemicals by the chemical industry. These petrochemicals vary widely in their functions and include such products as drugs, detergents, rubber, paints, fertilizers, dyes, perfumes, explosives, food preservatives, artificial sweeteners, and agricultural chemicals. Finally, about 1.5 percent of the oil and natural gas is used as raw material for plastics. This small percentage translates into the production of billions of pounds of polymers that yield many different and useful products.

In Post-world War II years, the United States was flooded with domestic and imported items of extremely low cost, low quality, and limited lifetime. This led to the image of “cheap plastics” with low durability. Today, however, the image of plastics has changed. Plastics perform an extremely broad range of functions, from heart valves and artificial kidneys to ski boots, non-stick surfaces, superglues, and spacecraft parts, and they compete with natural products in durability. No other materials except plastics could perform all these different functions.

Plastics are replacing more and more parts of your car. The use of 1 lb of plastic can replace an average of 3.5 lb of metal in an automobile. An automobile with 400 lb of plastic substance for metal with weigh about 1000 lb less, which increases its gas mileage by about 3 mi/gal. The fuel savings are estimated to be about 160 million barrels of oil annually. That's more than the total amount used by the chemical industry as raw materials to make the polymers. As another example, synthetic polymer fibers are commonly used in fabrics, for both economical and practical reasons. If the world’s synthetic fibers were replaced by cotton, this would require an additional 40 million acres of farmland.

Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Production of petroleum and natural gasB. The versatility of petrochemicalsC. New uses of plastic in automobileD. Plastics and plastic products

Question 44. According to the passage, the percentage of petroleum and natural gas that is used in the production of plastics is .

A. large B. tiny C. extravagant D. efficient

Question 45. The word "yield" is closest in meaning to .

A. gain B. surrender C. produce D. require

Question 46. The word "flooded" is closest in meaning to .

A. inundated B. damaged C. promoted D. in need of

Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that after World War II plastic products in the U.S were all of the following EXCEPT .

A. inexpensive B. plentiful C. mediocre D. long-lasting

Question 48. The word "This" refers to .

A. the end of World War IIB. the appearance of large quantities of inferior goodsC. the limited lifetime of the goodsD. the use of imported rather than domestic goods

Question 49. In paragraph 4, the author supports the use of plastics in cars and polymer fibers in fabrics because they are .

A. economical B. fashionable

C. easily manufactured D. costly

Question 50. Where in the passage does the author mention the products made of petro-chemicals?

A. Paragragh 1 B. Paragragh 2 C. Paragragh 3 D. Paragragh 4








Question 1. A. merchant B. term C. commercial D. sergeant

Question 2. A. honesty B. hydrogen C. horrible D. harmful


Question 3. A. specific B. coincide C. inventive D. regardless

Question 4. A. gallery B. satellite C. different D. cathedral


Question 5. Just drop me a line in order to know when you are coming.

A. give me a ring B. write to me C. call me D. drop in me

Question 6. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.

A. outcome R. beginning C. expansion D. continuation


Question 7. The design of wildlife refugees is still a meter of considerable controversy.

A. significance B. debate C. agreement D. concern

Question 8. New members will be issued with a temporary identity card.

A. of a short time B. of a longtime

C. of prime importance D. of great attempt


Question 9. Nobody had known before the presentation that Sue and her sister will receive the awards for outstanding scholarships.

A. had known B. the C. will receive D. the

Question 10. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group.

A. neither B. arresting C. would reveal D. his group

Question 11. Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.

A. suppose to B. all the questions C. out D. them


Question 12. Helen is seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.

A. allergic to B. tired of C. keen on D. preferable to

Question 13. By raising their weapons the men showed their to continue the fight.

A. ready B. readiness C. were ready D. readily

Question 14. Several of my friends are reporters.

A. newspaper B. newspapers C. newspaper's D. newspapers' Question 15. have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the Internet is widely recognized.

A. It is that computers B. That computers

C. Computers that D. That it's computers

Question 16. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn't take them_______ .

A. as a rule B. as usual C. out of habit D. for granted

Question 17. Under no circumstances in areas where poisonous snakes are known to live.

A. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing rocks

C. should one climb rocks D. should be climbing rocks

Question 18. Hardly the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.

A. did he appoint B. was he appointing

C. had he been appointed D. was he being appointed

Question 19. We are considering having for the coming New Year.

A. redecorated our flat B. to redecorate our flat

C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat redecorated

Question 20. Laser disc provide images of either television signals or video tapes.

A. better than B. better quality than

C. better quality than those of D. better quality than that

Question 21. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, but _, not to forget my toothbrush.

A. after all B. more or less C. before long D. above all

Question 22. The bank won’t lend you the money without some that you will pay it back.

A. Profit B. interest C. charge D. guarantee

Question 23. Tony is so that his friends tend to tell him all their problems.

A. confidential B. sympathetic C. critical D. optimistic


Question 24.‘Would you like beer or wine?’- “ ”

A. Yes, I’d love to. B. I couldn't agree more

C. No, I have no choice D. I’d prefer beer, please.

Question 25. ‘It’s time for lunch.’ - “ ”

A. Oh good! B. One hour

C. Half past twelve D. What is it?


Question 26. "You should have returned the book to me before I asked you to” the girl said to her younger brother.

A. The girl blamed her younger brother for returning the book late.B. The girl advised her younger brother to return the book early.C. The girl told her younger brother to return the book when she asked.D. The girl wanted to have to book returned to her younger brother soon.

Question 27. The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.

A. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time.B. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack.C. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for a heart attack become.D. Heart attacks are happening more and more often, and most of the sufferers are obese.

Question 28. I have learnt never to take sides in any arguments between my close friends.

A. If I support one side in arguments, the other will be upset.B. I support neither side in my close friends' arguments.C. I don't encourage my close friends to argue.D. I don't support any of my close friends.


Question 29. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city in 2004. He remained in office until 2014.

A. My uncle was elected as the mayor of the city twice: 2004 and 2014.B. Elected as the mayor of the city in 2010, my uncle held the post for 10 years.C. Although elected as the mayor of the city, my uncle took office in 2014.D. Ten years after serving as the mayor of the city, my uncle resigned in 2004.

Question 30. He tried many times. He never succeeded in kicking the ball into the goal.

A. Although he tried many times, he ever succeeded in kicking the ball into the goal.B. However hard he tried, he didn't succeed in scoring a goal for his team.C. No matter how many times he tried, he didn't ever succeed in kicking the ball into the goal.D. Hard as he tried, he has never been successful in football career.


The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns that strongly affect the world. When the water is warm the (31) of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia could even experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (32) _ rainstorms. In Pakistan and

northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier.

This happening is called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (33) unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time.

El Nino itself used to be (34) . It would occur every two to seven years. But now, this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (35) on a global scale either.

Question 31. A. deal B. figure C. number D. amountQuestion 32. A. angry B. strict C. severe D. cruelQuestion 33. A. bring B. fetch C. carry D. takeQuestion 34. A. incredible B. predictable C. remarkable D. notableQuestion 35. A. shift B. transfer C. change D. transformation


A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000 kilometers in one second. Radar sends out a short burst of radio waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off the objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar set and the objects. The word ‘radar’; in fact, gets its name from the term ‘radio detection and ranging’. ‘Ranging’ is the term for detection of the distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical importance to pilots, radar is essentia] for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.


A. the nature of radar B. types of ranging

C. alternatives to radar D, history of radar

Question 37. The word 'dense' could be replaced by .

A. cold B. thick C. wet D. dark

Question 38. The word 'it' refers to .

A. a radar set B. a short burst C. a radio wave D. light

Question 39. Which types of waves does radar use?

A. sound B. heat C. radio D. light

Question 40. The word 'critical' is closest meaning to .

A. serious B. severe C. heavy D. crucial

Question 41. The way radar works is compared to .

A. a burst of the river banks B. the depth of a cave

C. the echo of sound against the walls D. the eyesight in dense fog

Question 42. What might be inferred about radar?

A. It takes the place of a radioB. It gave birth to the invention of the airplaneC. It developed from a study of sound wavesD. It has improved navigational safety


In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a serious purpose.

Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in influencing people in Europe and the United States.

Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing education to illiterate and semiliterate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way.

In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons. This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters, Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as possible among the people.

Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old

Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture.

Question 43. Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?

A. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness.B. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.C. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.D. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.

Question 44. Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of .

A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas

C. political propaganda in wartime D. amusing people all the time

Question 45. The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their .

A. purposes B. styles C. nationalities D. values

Question 46. The pronoun "this" in paragraph 4 mostly refers to .

A. a propaganda campaign B. a funny element

C. an educational purpose D. a piece of art

Question 47. The passage is intended to present .

A. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world overB. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoonsC. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoonsD. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people

Question 48. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?

A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing PeopleB. Chinese Cartoons and Western CartoonsC. Cartoons as a Way of Educating PeopleD. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda

Question 49. In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at .

A. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the worldB. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the worldC. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the worldD. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men's famous sayings

Question 50. Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons?

A. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.B. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.C. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.D. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers








Question 1. A. measure B. pleasure C. threat D. treat

Question 2. A. theatre B. therefore C. throughout D. thunder


Question 3. A. establish B. intimidate C. inheritance D. illustrate

Question 4. A. educator B. humorous C. organism D. documentary


Question 5. A clever politician will take advantage of every speaking engagement to campaign for the next election.

A. rash B. intrepid C. crude D. shrewd

Question 6. I will think over your plan and give you an answer next week.

A. anticipate B. consider C. promenade D. review


Question 7. I was surprised that he should consent to his daughter travelling abroad alone.

A. endorse B. disapprove of C. accept D. agree with

Question 8. He resembles his father in appearance very much.

A. differ from B. distinguish C. takes after D. calls away


Question 9. Unless one subscribes to a large metropolitan newspaper such as the "Wall Street Journal", or the "Washington Post”, one will find very few news from abroad.

A. one B. such as C. one D. few news

Question 10. All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their economic, political, the technological institutions if they are to preserve the environment.

A. have to make B. changes in

C. the technological institutions D. to preserve

Question 11. It’s not that I don’t like her, but I object to be called that by her I am not her “buddy”, am I?

A. not that B. to be called C. that by D. am I


Question 12. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working around the _______ .

A. night B. day C. hour D. dock

Question 13. Designers are experimenting with a new material flexibly with lightness.

A. is combining B. combining C. combines D. combination of

Question 14. Everyone in both cars injured in the accident last night ?

A. were / weren't they B. was / weren’t they

C. was / wasn’t he? D. were / were they

Question 15. I will recommend to the director.

A. the student to speak B. that the student speaks

C. that the student speak D. that the student speaking.

Question 16. Quite soon, the world is going to energy resources.

A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against

Question 17. Calculations which used to take ages can now be in a few seconds.

A. worked out B. turned out C. taken out D. run out

Question 18. Every man and woman the right to vote.

A. have B. has C. are D. is

Question 19. Have you heard about all the complaints? It have been a pleasant holiday for them.

A. can’t B. mustn't C. shouldn’t D. mayn’t

Question 20. Today, household chores have been made much easier by electrical .

A. instruments B. applications C. appliances D. utilities

Question 21. We decided to take a late flight we could spend more time with our family.

A. in order B. so that C. so as to D. in order to

Question 22. one of the most beautiful forms of performance art, ballet is a combination of dance and mime performed to music.

A. Being considering B. Considering C. Considered D. To consider

Question 23. Little that I knew his secret.

A. did John know B. John did know C. was John know D. John knew


Question 24." How often do the buses run?" - " ”.

A. From that bus stop over there. B. Much often

C. Twice or three times. D. Every hour.

Question 25. “Thanks for the nicegiftyou brought to us!" - " ”.

A. Actually speaking, I myself don't like it.B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.C. All right. Do you know how much it cost?D. Not at all. Don’t mention it.


Question 26. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.

A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.

Question 27. It is her father who is Italian.

A. She has half the blood of Italian by her father.B. She is half-Italian thanks to her father.C. She is half-Italian on her father’s side.D. Her father has half of an Italian to her.

Question 28. He is such a slow speaker that his students get bored.

A. He speaks so slowly that his students get bored.B. His students got bored because he spoke so slowly.C. If he hadn't spoken so slowly, his students wouldn’t got bored.D. When the speaker is slow, his students get bored.


Question 29. I’d suggest that we avoid telling and scary with Janet around. She’s a bit unstable and could get hysterical.

A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening stories.

B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.

C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because she only laughs instead of getting scared.

D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so let’s not tell frightening stories in her presence.

Question 30. She wasn't wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.

A. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn't have been injured.B. If she had wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.D. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.


Traffic congestion is now a problem in practically every major city in the world but nobody has yet found a workable (31) to the practically inevitable chaos. A metro system is sadly impractical in most cities (32) geographical reasons. Tram systems are unworkable in old cities where narrow, (33) streets make the installation of overhead cables a practical impossibility. Many local governments find the business of coaxing people into buses and (34)

them from using their cars easier said than done. And yet it is misconception that the situation should be allowed to exist as it is. The arguments in favor of direct action will now be irrefutable if we are ever to prevent unprecedented (35) of pollution and economic chaos.

Question 31. A. solution B. answer C. appeal D. contributionQuestion 32. A. with B. by C. in D. forQuestion 33. A. curling B. winding C. twisting D. curvingQuestion 34. A. banning B. distracting C. refraining D. discouragingQuestion 35. A. levels B. scales C. degrees D. ranks


Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are nature's way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.

Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in common.

First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.

While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.

Question 36. This passage is mainly about .

A. how to prevent pandemic diseases.B. pandemic diseases.C. pandemic diseases throughout history.D. why pandemics happen.

Question 37. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?

A. They prevent pandemics.B. They help control the population.C. They help the world grow quickly.D. They kill too many people.

Question 38. Based on the information in the passage the term pandemics can best be explained as .

A. diseases with no cureB. a deadly kind of fluC. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of peopleD. new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus

Question 39. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that .

A. it involved a new kind of flu virusB. it killed over 25 million peopleC. it was the last pandemic in historyD. it took a little over a week to kill its victims

Question 40. The word it in the passage refers to .

A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies

Question 41. Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic diseases?

A. They spread from people to people very slowly.B. They may kill many people very quicklyC. They do not kill people very quickly.D. They kill all the victims.

Question 42. The word monitor in the passage is closest in meaning to .

A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid


In the decade of the 1970s, the United Nations organised several important meetings on the human environment to study a very serious problem. We humans are destroying the world around US. We are using up all of our natural resources. We must learn to conserve them, or life will be very bad for our children and our grandchildren.

There are several major parts to this problem.

Population. Most problems of the environment come from population growth. In 1700, there were 625 million people in the world. In 1900, there were 1.6 billion; in 1950, 2.5 billion and in 1980, 4.4 billion. In the year 2010, there will be well over 6 billion. More people need more water, more food, more wood, and more petroleum.

Distribution. Scientists say there is enough water in the world for everyone, but some countries have a lot of water and some have only a little. Some areas get all their rain during one season. The rest of the year is dry. There are huge forests in the Amazon area of Brazil. In other parts of the world there is only desert.

Petroleum. We are using up the world's petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our buildings in winter.

Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil rich. They also use petrochemicals to kill insects that eat plants. These chemicals go into rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of people also die from these chemicals every year. Chemicals also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this polluted air from countries to other countries and even other continents.

Poverty. Poor farmers use the same land over and over. The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmer must have food this year. Poor people cut down trees for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land becomes desert. However, people need wood to cook their food now. Poor people cannot save the environment for the future. We now have the information and the ability to solve these huge problems. However, this is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to conserve the world's resources. No one controls the future, but we all help make it.

Question 43. Our natural resources are .

A. running out B. being disused

C. being destroyed D. being wasted

Question 44. The phrase ‘using up’ is closest in meaning to .

A. using it to increase the amount of B. using all of it

C. using it for a short time D. trying to preserve

Question 45. Most environmental problems come from .

A. forests B. too much rain.

C. population growth D. poor distribution

Question 46. The word them in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. our children and grandchildren B. the United Nations

C. our natural resources D. human beings

Question 47. Good distribution means .

A. having things in the right place at the right time

B. cutting down forests and selling them to other countriesC. building water systems to carry water to farmsD. conserving our natural resources

Question 48. According to the passage, petrochemicals help farmers to .

A. enrich the soil B. kill insects and plants

C. kill fish in rivers and lakes D. pollute the air in many countries

Question 49. Which of the following is not mentioned as a major cause of the problem?

A. population growth B. distribution of natural resources

C. use of petroleum D. lack of rain in certain areas

Question 50. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

A. People must work together to save the environment.B. We have the ability to solve environmental problems.C. We control the futureD. We help make the future

.

ĐỀ THI MINH HỌA BỘ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO - FORMAT MỚI NHẤT

SỐ 008 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)




Question 1. A. fungus B. rubbish C. function D. furious

Question 2. A. contain B. entertain C. certain D. campaign


Question 3. A. preciseness B. passenger C. chaotic D. withdrawal

Question 4. A. sympathetic B. unbelievable C. advantageous D. circumstance


Question 5. Alberto has faith in his own ability to succeed in his new business enterprise.

A. is in charge of B. carries out C. believes in D. in favour of Question 6. When smog does not disperse, inhabitants in the area, particularly the young, the elderly, and chronically ill, are warned to stay indoors and avoid physical stress.

A. patients B. residents C. pedestrians D. customers


Question 7. This kind of dress is becoming outmoded so you shouldn't dress it up at the party,

A. realistic B. incompetent C. fashionable D. unattractive

Question 8. It was inevitable that there would be job losses.

A. evident B. avoidable C. reliable D. sure


Question 9. William Randolph Hearst built a chain of newspapers that included 25 dailies and 11 Sunday editions at their peak in 1937.

A. built B. that C. dailies D. their

Question 10. Admiral Grace Hopper created the computer language COBOL, which is used primary for scientific purposes.

A. created B. computer C. primary D. purposes

Question 11. In some states, the law allows drivers to turn right at a red light, but in other states, the law does not leave them do it.

A. some B. to turn C. other D. leave


Question 12. In my opinion, it’s only common to wear a seat belt in a car.

A. judgment B. sense C. intelligence D. wit

Question 13. You can leave your money with him. He's totally .

A. trusting B. trusty C. trustful D. trustworthy

Question 14. He in trouble with the police now if he had listened to me in the first place.

A. isn’t B. won't be C. wouldn't be D. wouldn’t have been

Question 15. with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.

A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled

C. Because of she quarreled D. Had quarreled

Question 16. I feel terrible; I didn't sleep last night.

A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye

Question 17. I can’t understand this song. It doesn’t make any .

A. meaning B. effort C. sense D. realization

Question 18. What if I you that there's a good chance I can get tickets for the concert?

A. were to tell B. were telling C. have told D. would to tell

Question 19. The manager requested that all staff present at the meeting.

A. have been B. be C. are being D. being

Question 20. "Are you still taking your exams?" - "Yes, but by this time next week my last one!"

A. I'm finishing B. I’ll finish

C. I’ll have finished D. I’ll have been finishing

Question 21. It seems that the thief took of the open window and got inside that way.

A. occasion B. opportunity C. chance D. advantage

Question 22. The program _ a lot of disc space so there wasn’t much room for anything else.

A. took up B. backed up C. set up D. put up

Question 23. Come , children! Get your coats on or you'll be late for school.

A. along B. to C. across D. over


Question 24. “I really like your hair.” - “ ”

A. Do you think so? Thank you B. I'm glad you like it

C. Thank you. I had it cut yesterday D. All are correct

Question 25. "Hi! Brian. How have you been?" - " "

A. Badly. And how are you? B. Oh, I’ve done a lot of things

C. Oh, pretty good. And you? D. I’ve been to Beijing recently.


Question 26. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked

A. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were re-checked.B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.D. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.

Question 27. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family's business.

A. Richard only took over the family's business because his father decided to retire early.B. Richard didn't take over the family's business because his father decided to retire.C. His father retired early, but he ran the family's business.D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family's business despite his retirement.

Question 28. This conference wouldn't have been possible without your organization.

A. If you didn’t organize, this conference wouldn't have been possible.B. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.C. If it hadn't been for your organization, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.D. It’s possible that your organization made this conference impossible.


Question 29. Most scientists knowhim well. Very few ordinary people have heard of him

A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.B. Not only the scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.C. Although he is well-known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.

Question 30. The man is very old. He can’t take such a long trip.

A. The old man has refused to take such a long trip.B. The trip is not too long for the old man to take.C. The man in young enough to take such a long trip.D. The man is too old to take such a long trip.


When it is finally here; the day of the big test, you should set your alarm early enough to allow plenty of time to get to the testing center. You should also eat a good breakfast and (31) eating anything that’s really high in sugar, such as donuts. A sugar high turns into a sugar low after an hour or so. Cereal and toast, or anything with complex carbohydrates is a good choice. You should eat only moderate amounts if you don't want to take a test feeling stuffed! Your body will

channel its energy to your digestive system (32) your brain! Remember to pack a high- energy snack to take with you.

You may have a break sometime during the test when you can grab a quick snack. Bananas are great. They have a moderate amount of sugar and plenty of brain nutrients. Most proctors won’t you to eat a snack while you’re testing, but a peppermint shouldn't pose a problem. Peppermints are like smelling salts for your brain. If you lose your concentration or suffer from a momentary mental block, a peppermint can get you back on track.

You should leave early enough so you have plenty of time to get to the test center. Allow a few minutes for (34) traffic. When you arrive, locate the restroom and use it. Then find your seat and make sure it is comfortable. If it isn’t, tell the proctor and ask to move to something more suitable. Now relax and think positively! Before you know it, the test will be over, and you'll walk away knowing you've done as (35) as you can.

Question 31. A. finish B. keep C. avoid D. tryQuestion 32. A. instead of B. for C. to D. andQuestion 33. A. ask B. let C. allow D. makeQuestion 34. A. light B. late C. unexpected D. takingQuestion 35. A. well B. good C. quickly D. long


Few men have influenced the development of American English to the extent that Noah Webster did. Born in West Hartford, Connecticut, in 1758, his name has become synonymous with American dictionaries. Graduated from Yale in 1778, he was admitted to the bar in 1781 and thereafter began to practice law in Hartford. Later, when he turned to teaching, he discovered how inadequate the available schoolbooks were for the children of a new and independent nation.

In response to the need for truly American textbooks, Webster published A Grammatical Institute of the English Language, a three-volume work that consisted of a speller, a grammar, and a reader. The first volume, which was generally known as The American Spelling Book, was so popular that eventually it sold more than 80 million copies and provided him with a considerable income for the rest of his life. While teaching, Webster began work on the Compendious Dictionary of the English Language, which was published in 1806.

In 1807, Noah Webster began his greatest work, An American Dictionary of the English Language. In preparing the manuscript, he devoted ten years to the study of English and its relationship to other languages, and seven more years to the writing itself. Published in two volumes in 1828, An American Dictionary of the An American Dictionary of the English Language has become the recognized authority for usage in the United States. Webster’s purpose in writing it was to demonstrate that the American language was developing distinct meanings, pronunciations and spellings from those of British English. He is responsible for advancing simplified spelling forms,

develop instead of the British form develope; theater and center instead of theatre and centre; color and honor instead of colour and honour.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the best for the passage?

A. Webster’s Work B. Webster’s Dictionaries

C. Webster’s School D. Webster's Life

Question 37. The word “inadequate” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by .

A. unavailable B. expensive C. difficult D. unsatisfactory

Question 38. From which publication did Webster earn a lifetime income?

A. Compendious Dictionary of the English LanguageB. An American Dictionary of the English LanguageC. An American Dictionary of the English Language: Second EditionD. The American Spelling Book

Question 39. When was An American Dictionary of the English Language published?

A. 1817 B. 1807 C. 1828 D. 1824

Question 40. According to the author, what was Webster's purpose in writing An American Dictionary of the English Language?

A. To respond to the need for new schoolbooksB. To demonstrate the distinct development of the English language in AmericaC. To promote spelling forms based upon British modelsD. To influence the pronunciation of the English language

Question 41. The word "it" in the third paragraph refers to .

A. language B. usage C. authority D. dictionary

Question 42. The word "distinct" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. new B. simple C. different D. exact


Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical elements essential for plant nutrition so that the yield can be increased. Natural substances such as animal droppings, ashes from wood fires and straw have been used as fertilizers in fields for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, however, that chemical fertilizers became widely accepted as normal agricultural practice. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms.

A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as 4-8- 2 or 6-6-4 which designate the percentage of content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers, produced by factories, are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape of chemical granules, are in demand because they are not only easy to store but also easy to apply. Recently liquids have shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizers used throughout the world. 10B. Formerly, powders were also used, but they were found to be less convenient than either solids or liquids.

Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumers as long as they are used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally, however,

farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, in which case the plants do not need, and therefore do not absorb, the total amount of fertilizer applied to the soil. Furthermore, fertilizer that is not used in the production of a healthy plant is leached into the water table. Too much fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow’s milk. Fertilizer must be used with great attention to responsible use or it can harm the environment.

Question 43. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?

A. Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer.B. Content, form, and effects of fertilizer.C. A formula for the production of fertilizer.D. Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer.

Question 44. The word "essential" in line 1 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. required B. preferred C. limited D. anticipated

Question 45. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2?

A. Acid B. Phosphorus C. Potash D. Nitrogen

Question 46. The word “designate” in paragraph 2 could be replaced by .

A. specify B. modify C. limit D. increase

Question 47. Which of the following statements about fertilizer is TRUE?

A. Powders are more popular than ever.B. Solids are difficult to store.C. Liquids are increasing in popularity.D. Chemical granules are difficult to apply.

Question 48. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. solids B. powders C. liquids D. fertilizer

Question 49. The word "convenient" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. effective B. plentiful C. cheap to produce D. easy to use

Question 50: The word "harm" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by .

A. damage B. accelerate C. leach D. disturb



ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)




Question 1. A. delete B. demonstrate C. devalue D. degrade

Question 2. A. sound B. touchy C. outdated D. account


Question 3. A. repetitious B. curriculum C. historical D. grammatical

Question 4. A. architectural B. engineering C. maturity D. comprehension


Question 5. I see John boasting again. I’ve heard him telling everyone he's the best tennis player in the County.

A. holding his tongue B. speaking too much

C. blowing his own trumpet D. pulling my leg.

Question 6. The venom of coral snakes is especially potent and the mortality rate among humans who have been bitten is high.

A. contagious B. impure C. powerful D. abundant


Question 7. It is quite incredible that he is unaware of such basic facts.

A. unbelievable B. difficult C. disappointed D. imaginable

Question 8. Designers could move away from conservative styles and promote the swimsuits that revealed a body’s physical attributes.

A. hid B. distorted C. blocked D. disrupted


Question 9. The first special park creating was at Ranthambhore where the government had to move nearly 1000 people so the land could be handed back to the nature.

A. creating B. at C. where D. handed

Question 10. With the development of information technology, we can now hold long-distance meetings which the participants can see each other on a screen.

A. information technology B. long-distance

C. which D. can see

Question 11. Why are you standing in the doors? Come in and make oneself at home.

A. are you standing B. in C. make D. oneself


Question 12. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful in computer software.

A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer

Question 13. We need information before we can decide.

A. further B. farther C. far D. furthest

Question 14. It is the imperativeness that anyone of us how to behave properly in different cultures. - "When in Rome do as Romans do", goes an English saying.

A. will learn B. learns C. learn D. must learn

Question 15. The students were not satisfied .

A. because of the teacher's not informing them of the coming test.B. because the teacher not inform them of the coming test.C. as the teacher’s not informing them about the coming test.D. since the teacher's no information about the coming test.

Question 16. "Is it far to Stamford?" "Not at all. It’s only a from here."

A. step in the right direction B. bird's eye view

C. short cut D. stone's throw

Question 17. Economic reforms began in the Soviet Union in June 985 by the Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev to the Soviet economy.

A. repair B. reproduce C. reply D. restructure

Question 18. - Can you see anybody in that classroom? - Yes. There a teacher and fifty students there.

A. is B. are C. has been D. have been

Question 19. Not only among the largest animal that ever lived, but they are also among the more intelligent.

A. are whales B. they are whales C. some whales D. whales

Question 20. Many people like the of life in the countryside.

A. step B. pace C. speed D. space

Question 21. She is attending the seminar with a view to more qualifications.

A. acquire B. having acquired C. have acquired D. acquiring

Question 22. I don't know how you up with Carl's complaining all the time.

A. put B. do C. get D. make

Question 23. The strike was owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.

A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down


Question 24. "Could you tell me how to get to the post office?" – “ ”

A. Yes, I couldB. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there?C. It's at the end of this street, opposite the churchD. Sorry, it’s not very far

Question 25. Bill: "Let's stop for a drink." - Bruce:" "

A. Nice to meet you. B. You’re welcome.

C. Long time no see. D. Sorry, we've got little time.


Question 26. We want him to represent us in talks with our Japanese clients.

A. He talks to us on the behalf of our Japanese customers.B. Our Japanese clients send him to talk to us.C. We represent him to deal with our Japanese clients.D. We want him to talk to our Japanese clients on our behalf.

Question 27. My impression of him was that he was a very capable person.

A. I struck him with the impression that he was very capable.B. It struck me as an impression that he was a very capable person.C. He struck me when I was impressed by his capability.D. He struck me as being a very capable person.

Question 28. "John, why don’t you go on a picnic with me next weekend?" said Janet.

A. Janet suggested John went on a picnic with her the next weekend.B. Janet suggested John go on a picnic with her the next weekend.C. Janet suggested John should go on a picnic with her next weekend.D. Janet suggested John to go on a picnic witli her next weekend.


Question 29. The police issued a warning on the radio. A dangerous man had escaped from the prison.

A. The police issued a warming on the radio so that a dangerous man escaped from the prison.B. The police issued a warning on the radio, namely a dangerous man had escaped from the

prison.C. A dangerous man had escaped from the prison so the police issued a warning on the radio.D. Escaping from the prison, the dangerous man made the police issue a warning on the radio.

Question 30. I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.

A. I should not have cooked so much food.B. I regret cooking too much food now.C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.


If your reservations are booked far enough (31) of time, the airline may offer to mail your tickets to you. However, if you don’t receive the tickets and the airline’s records show that they mailed them, you may have to go through lost-ticket procedures. It is safer to check the telephone (32) _ for a conveniently located travel agency. You can also call an airline ticket office and buy your tickets there. As soon as you receive your ticket, make sure all the information on it is correct, especially the airports (if any of the cities have more than one) and the flight dates. You should have any necessary corrections (33) immediately.

It’s a good idea to reconfirm your reservations before you start your trip; flight schedules sometimes change. On international trips, most airlines require that you reconfirm your onward or return reservations at (34) 72 hours before each flight. If you don’t, your reservations may be canceled. Check your tickets as you board each flight to ensure that only the correct coupon has been removed (35) the airline agent.

Question 31. A. ahead B. in front C. in advance D. becauseQuestion 32. A. box B. company C. shop D. directoryQuestion 33. A. writing B. save C. made D. bookedQuestion 34. A. last B. no C. least D. bookingQuestion 35. A. to B. for C. from D. by


Commuting is the practice of travelling a long distance to a town or city to work each day, and then travelling home again in the evening. The word commuting comes from commutation ticket, a US rail ticket for repeated journeys, called a season ticket in Britain. Regular travellers are called commuters.

The US has many commuters. A few, mostly on the East Coast, commute by train or subway, but most depend on the car. Some leave home very early to avoid the traffic jams, and sleep in their cars until their office opens. Many people accept a long trip to work so that they can live in quiet bedroom communities away from the city, but another reason is ‘white flight’. In the 1960s most cities began to desegregate their schools, so that there were no longer separate schools for white and black children. Many white families did not want to send their children to desegregated schools, so they moved to the suburbs, which have their own schools, and where, for various reasons, few black people five.

Millions of people in Britain commute by car or train. Some spend two or three hours a day travelling, so that they and their families can live in suburbia or in the countryside. Cities are surrounded by commuter belts. Part of the commuter belt around London is called the stockbroker

belt because it contains houses where rich business people live. Some places are becoming dormitory towns, because people sleep there but take little part in local activities.

Most commuters travel to and from work at the same time, causing the morning and evening rush hours, when buses and trains are crowded and there are traffic jams on the roads. Commuters on trains rarely talk to each other and spend their journey reading, sleeping or using their mobile phones, though this is not popular with other passengers. Increasing numbers of people now work at home some days of the week, linked to their offices by computer, a practice called telecommuting.

Cities in both Britain and the US are trying to reduce the number of cars coming into town each day. Some companies encourage car- pooling (called car sharing in Britain), an arrangement for people who live and work near each other to travel together. Some US cities have a public service that helps such people to contact each other, and traffic lanes are reserved for car-pool vehicles. But cars and petrol/gas are cheap in the US, and many people prefer to drive alone because it gives them more freedom. In Britain many cities have park-and-ride schemes, car parks on the edge of the city from which buses take drivers into the centre.

Question 36. Which of the following definitions of commuting would the author of this passage most probably agree with?

A. Travelling to work and then home again in a day within a rural district.B. Travelling for hours from a town or city to work in the countryside every day.C. Regularly travelling a long distance between one’s place of work and one’s home.D. Using a commutation ticket for special journeys in all seasons of the year.

Question 37. The word "repeated" 1 in paragraph 1 most probably means .

A. buying a season ticket again. B. happening again and again.

C. saying something again. D. doing something once again.

Question 38. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. The US has considerably more commuters than Britain,B. Commuting helps people in the US and Britain save a lot of time.C. Britain has considerably more commuters than the US.D. Both the US and Britain have a great number of commuters.

Question 39. It can be inferred from the passage that dormitory towns in Britain are places where people .

A. stay for the night B. contribute to the local community

C. are employed locally D. take part in local activities

Question 40. The phrase "linked to" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .

A. shared with B. satisfied with C. connected to D. related to

Question 41. All of the following are measures to reduce the number of cars coming into town each day in the US and/or Britain EXCEPT .

A. traffic lanes for car pooling B. free car parks in the city centre

C. park-and-ride schemes D. car pooling/sharing

Question 42. The word "it" in the last paragraph refers to .

A. travelling together B. car pool

C. driving alone D. petrol/gas


Real estate sales agents work on behalf of property owners and earn a commission, or percentage of the sale or rental of property. Agents are employed by real estate agencies that sell or rent property as well as manage, appraise, or develop real estate. Some agencies combine their real estate business with an insurance agency or law practice. Most real estate agents sell private homes. Some specialize in commercial property such as factories, apartment buildings, stores and office buildings. Others specialize in undeveloped land sites for commercial or residential use or go into agricultural real estate.

Real estate agents work from a file of listings of property that is for sale or rent. A listing is an agreement, usually in the form of a contract, between the owners of the property and the agent. The owners agree to pay the agent a percentage of the selling price. Real estate agents obtain new listings for their agency by locating property owners interested in selling. For example, they may call home owners who are trying to sell their houses privately through newspaper want ads. Real estate agents visit newly listed properties so that they can familiarize themselves with the features of the property before bringing prospective buyers to see it.

In any sale, the agents have to negotiate with both the seller and the buyer. Many sellers begin by asking more for their property but buyers are not willing to pay for it. Agents must be able to convince sellers to set a realistic price. Most of the agents’ efforts focus on the buyer, however. Agents try to learn what will motivate the buyers to make a purchase. Agents must be able to convince them that the property suits their needs and is a good buy. Buyers generally offer less for a property than the seller asks. Agents help to negotiate the final price. They usually help buyers arrange bank loans and are generally present at closings, when final contracts of sale are signed.

Question 43. The phrase "specialize in" in paragragh 1 is closest in meaning to

A. write about B. approve of C. concentrate on D. refer to

Question 44. A listing is a contract between property owner, and real estate agents in which the owners

A. try to sell their houses privatelyB. agree to pay the agent a percentage of the selling priceC. obtain new listings for their propertyD. arrange to meet with the agent at a convenient time

Question 45. The word "prospective" is paragragh 2 is closest in meaning to

A. potential B. progressive C. former D. wealthy

Question 46. The word "them’' in paragragh 3 refers to

A. sellers B. agents C. buyers D. owners

Question 47. It can be inferred that negotiating the final price of a property involves

A. calling an insurance agencyB. having the seller and the buyer agree on what is realisticC. finding a similar property that has a realistic priceD. motivating the buyer visit the property

Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author implies that .

A. agents must understand the desires and needs of the buyerB. agents are sometimes immoral in their practicesC. buyers usually pay the price asked by the sellerD. agents spend more tunes with sellers than with buyers

Question 49. According to the passage, real estate agents

A. begin by asking more for a property than buyers are willing to payB. have a college educationC. own a lot commercial propertyD. are usually present when final sales contracts are signed

Question 50. Where in the passage does the author discuss different types of real estate?

A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4








Question 1. A. account B. amount C. mourning D. trout

Question 2. A. resource B. resit C. resistance D. recycle


Question 3. A. application B. advisable C. denial D. adventure

Question 4. A. volunteer B. competition C. advantage D. capability


Question 5. Aren't you glad that we decided to eat at a restaurant tonight? This food is great!

A. to eat in B. to take out C. to eat out D. to go out

Question 6. The potatoes have burned and stuck to the bottom of the pan.

A. the lowest inside surface B. the shortest below surface

C. the lowest beneath surface D. the shortest under surface


Question 7. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

A. explicit B. implicit C. obscure D. odd

Question 8. The council demolished the old town hall to make room for a new one.

A. made B. did C. started D. constructed


Question 9. Many people found it is moving to see a nine-year-old Japanese boy desperately searching for his family lost in the quake and tsunami of March 11, 2011.

A. it is moving B. a nine-year-old

C. desperately searching D. lost

Question 10. She is among the few who wants to quit smoking instead of cutting down.

A. among B. wants C. smoking D. cutting down Question 11. Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth's rotation changes slightly over years.

A. they B. perfectly C. the D. slightly


Question 12. The football match tomorrow evening will be broadcast on TV and radio.

A. simultaneously B. communally

C. uniformly D. jointly

Question 13. The choir stood in four rows according to their heights.

A. respected B. respective C. respectable D. respectful

Question 14. Mr. Pike English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year.

A. is teaching B. was teaching

C. has been teaching D. had been teaching

Question 15. All work and no play .

A. makes jack a dull boy B. makes a dull boy Jack

C. make Jack a dull boy D. make a dull boy Jack

Question 16. Having been asked to speak at the conference, .

A. some notes were prepared for Dr. ClarkB. some notes were prepared by Dr. ClarkC. Dr. Clark prepared some notesD. audiences were pleased to hear Dr. Clark

Question 17. In front of the gate the guard.

A. did B. does C. did stand D. stood

Question 18. an emergency arise, call 911.

A. Can B. Should C. Does D. Will

Question 19. I can’t bear thinking back of that time. I'd rather equally.

A. treat B. be treated C. have treated D. have been treated

Question 20. Boys! Put your toys . It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay late.

A. off/ on B. away/up C. down / off D. around/for

Question 21. We had a long way to go so we off very early.

A. made B. set C. put D. had

Question 22. A relief has been set up to help earthquake victims.

A. fund B. donation C. treasury D. collection

Question 23. Make exercise part of your daily .

A. regularity B. chore C. routine D. frequency


Question 24. Peter: "I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America." Kate: "Uh, really? !”

A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations

C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are

Question 25. A: " " - B: "Oh, that's a good idea.”

A. How much time does it take? B. How may I help you?

C. How about going for a walk? D. How long will it last?


Question 26. The writer Kate Millett was forced to stay in a psychiatric hospital by her family.

A. Problems with her family made the writer Kate Millett go to a psychiatric hospital.B. Together with her family, the writer Kate Millett was made to go into a psychiatric hospital.C. The writer Kate Millett’s family made her stay in a psychiatric hospital.D. The family of the writer Kate Millett convinced her to remain in a psychiatric hospital.

Question 27. Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.

A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn't finish the test.C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

Question 28. After Einstein's theory of relativity, people began to perceive the universe in a different way.

A. Einstein's theory of relativity confirmed many ideas about how the universe began.B. Until Einstein’s theory of relativity, people knew hardly anything about the universe.C. Following Einstein's theory of relativity, people realized that the universe was changing

constantly.D. Einstein's theory of relativity introduced people to a new manner of seeing the universe.


Question 29. We arrived at the airport. We realized all our passports were still at home.

A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home.B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.C. Not until had we arrived at the airport, we realized at our passports were still at home.D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.

Question 30. The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.

A. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.

B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.

C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.

D. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames.


There are several changes in the procedure for employees who wish to apply for vacant positions within the company. These changes make it much easier for in-house employees to fill vacancies that occur. First, the most important difference is that employees will now be notified of all available positions before the positions are (31) for the general public. Accordingly, all in-house candidates will be interviewed (32) we see any outside candidates. We will offer the job to outside candidates only if no current employees are able to fill the position. (33) _ , under the new procedure, in-house employees can be hired even if they don’t (34) all job requirements. Under our old policy, in-house employees had to meet all job qualifications in order to obtain the vacant position. Now, however, employees who have proven (35) dedicated to the company will be hired for a vacant position even if they are lacking some minor qualifications; training will be provided. A third change involves recommendations. From now on, employees do not need to be recommended for an in-house position before they apply.

Question 31. A. taken B. given C. made D. advertisedQuestion 32. A. before B. after C. then D. the sameQuestion 33. A. When B. Second C. Finally D. FirstlyQuestion 34. A. request B. hold C. meet D. failQuestion 35. A. itself B. themselves C. their own D. employers


Hydrogen is the most common element in the universe and was perhaps the first to form. It is among the ten most common elements on Earth as well and one of the most useful for industrial purposes. Under normal conditions of temperature, hydrogen is a gas. Designated as H, hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table because it contains only one proton. Hydrogen can combine with a large number of other elements, forming more compounds than any of the others. Pure hydrogen seldom occurs naturally, but it exists in most organic compounds, that is, compounds that contain carbon, which account for a very large number of compounds. Moreover, hydrogen is found in inorganic compounds. For example, when hydrogen burns in the presence of oxygen, it forms water.

The lightest and simplest of the elements, hydrogen has several properties that make it valuable for any industries. It releases more heat per unit of weight than any other fuel. In rocket engines, tons of hydrogen and oxygen are burned, and hydrogen is used with oxygen for welding torches that produce temperatures as high as 4,000 degrees F and can be used in cutting steel. Fuel cells to generate electricity operate on hydrogen and oxygen.

Hydrogen also serves to prevent metals from tarnishing during heat treatments by removing the oxygen from them. Although it would be difficult to remove the oxygen by itself, hydrogen readily combines with oxygen to form water, which can be heated to steam and easily removed. Furthermore, hydrogen is one of the coolest refrigerants. It does not become a liquid until it reaches temperatures of -425 degrees F. Pure hydrogen gas is used in large electric generators to cool the coils.

Future uses of hydrogen include fuel for cars, boats, planes, and other forms of transportation that currently require petroleum products. These fuels would be lighter, a distinct advantage in the aerospace industry, and they would also be cleaner, thereby reducing pollution in the atmosphere.

Hydrogen is also useful in the food industry for a process known as hydrogenation. Products such as margarine and cooking oils are changed from liquids to semisolids by adding hydrogen to their molecules. Soap manufacturers also use hydrogen for this purpose. In hydrogenation, hydrogen is added to a product. In addition, in the chemical industry, hydrogen is used to produce ammonia, gasoline, methyl alcohol, and many other important products.

Question 36. What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

A. To explain the industrial uses of HydrogenB. To describe the origin of hydrogen in the universeC. To discuss the process of hydrogenationD. To give examples of how hydrogen and oxygen combine

Question 37. How can hydrogen be used to cut steel?

A. By cooling the steel to a very low temperatureB. By cooling the hydrogen with oxygen to a very low temperatureC. By heating the steel to a very high temperatureD. By heating the hydrogen with oxygen to a very high temperature

Question 38. The word readily in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by

A. completely B. slowly C. usually D. easily

Question 39. What does the word them refers to?

A. hydrogen B. heat treatment C. metals D. fuel cells

Question 40. Which paragraph explains why hydrogen is used as a refrigerant?

A. paragragh 1 B. paragragh 2 C. paragragh 3 D. paragragh 4

Question 41. The author mentions all of the following as uses for hydrogen EXCEPT

A. to remove tarnish from metalsB. to produce fuels such as gasoline and methyl alcoholC. to operate fuel cells that generate electricityD. to change solid foods to liquids

Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that hydrogen

A. is too dangerous to be used for industrial purposesB. has many purposes in a variety of industriesC. has limited industrial uses because of its dangerous propertiesD. is used in many industries for basically the same purpose


Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at the time. Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain American’s fascination with him.

Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always lives a "natural": a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.

But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.

It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.

Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all timeB. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problemsC. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball playerD. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball

Question 44: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle .

A. played for New York Yankees all his lifeB. had to try hard to be a professional playerC. earned a lot of money from baseballD. introduced baseball into the US

Question 45: According to the passage, Mantle could .

A. hit with the bat on either side of his bodyB. bat better with his left hand than with his right handC. hit the ball to score from a long distanceD. give the most powerful hit in his team

Question 46. The word "this" in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player

B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athleteC. Mantle’s being fascinated by many peopleD. Mantle’s being a "switch-hitter"

Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans .

A. success in Mantle's career was difficult to believeB. success in Mantle’s career was unnaturalC. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good playerD. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success

Question 48: The word "fulfill" in paragraph 4 mostly means .

A. do something in the way that you have been toldB. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expectedC. do what you have promised or agreed to doD. get closer to something that you are chasing

Question 49: We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father's death, Mantle .

A. played even better B. forgot his father’s dream

C. led a happier life D. suffered a lot of pain

Question 50: Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s body?

A. His loneliness B. His way of life

C. His liver transplant operation D. His own dream







Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. acronym B. agency C. became D. aviation

Question 2. A. crescent B. event C. recent D. decent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. environmental B. conservatively C. approximately D. considerably

Question 4. A. bamboo B. cactus C. camel D. hummock

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 5. Early poverty has taught Sam to stand on his own feet.

A. be independent B. resort to burglary

C. be dependent on others D. be a good farmer

Question 6. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.

A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excluded

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 7. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miracle.

A. adjustment B. agility C. flexibility D. inflexibility

Question 8. I can't stand people who treat animals cruelly.

A. cleverly B. reasonably C. gently D. brutally

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what he won a Newberry Caldecot award.

A. just B. wrote C. what D. a

Question 10. I strongly object the idea of students in the final year working part-time jobs.

A. object the idea B. the final year C. working D. jobs

Question 11. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A. It is believed B. in the near future C. be used to doing D. such as

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12. I'm sorry that I giggled so much. I was in rather a silly .

A. temper B. mood C. feeling D. outlook

Question 13. The U.S. postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces of identification .

A. be presented B. presented C. must presented D. for presentation

Question 14. Mr. Brown in the army from 1960 to 1980.

A. had served B. has served C. had been serving D. served

Question 15. Such that we all felt num.

A. a cold weather was B. was a cold weather

C. cold the weather D. was cold weather

Question 16. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It's on the tip of .

A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory

Question 17. I don't know what we are going to if I lose this job.

A. get by B. live on C. give away D. grow up

Question 18. That necklace is wonderful! It must have you a fortune!

A. done B. spent C. charged D. cost

Question 19. In Britain, most shops close at 6 p.m, _ in other countries they often open in the evening too.

A. despite B. moreover C. nevertheless D. whereas

Question 20. Rarely designer labels at affordable prices.

A. you find B. do you find C. find you D. are you find

Question 21. I’m afraid I’m a little short money this month, so I can’t lend you any.

A. of B. from C. with D. for

Question 22. Local residents to the new power station in their area.

A. objection B. objective C. object D. objectivity

Question 23. I know we had an argument, but now I'd quite like to .

A. look down B. make up B. fall out D. bring up

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no one industry dominates the rural economy no single pattern of population decline or growth exists for all rural areas, and no statement about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural people.

Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a particular geographic region of the country often tend to be similar (24) each other and different from areas in another region. Some industries, for example, are (25) with different regions - logging and sawmills in the Pacific Northwest and New England, manufacturing in the Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the Great Plains. Persistent poverty also has a regional pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences follow no regional pattern. Areas that rely heavily on the services industry are located throughout rural America, as are rural areas that have little access to advanced telecommunications services. Many of these differences, regional and non- regional are the result of a (26) of factors including the availability of natural (27) ; distance from and access to major metropolitan areas and the information and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities; political history and structure; and the racial, ethnic, and (28) ___ makeup of the population.

Question 24. A. of B. with C. to D. fromQuestion 25. A. added B. associated C. compared D. relatedQuestion 26. A. cooperation B. combination C. link D. connectionQuestion 27. A. resources B. habitats C. sources D. materialsQuestion 28. A. cultured B. culturally C. cultural D. culture

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are born, they hear language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the ages of seven and ten months, most infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and over again. This is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing their language.

What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to communicate? Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies babble with their hands. Laura Ann Petitto, a psychologist, observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and two deaf infants with deaf parents using American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate. Dr. Petitto studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During this time, children really begin to develop their language skills.

After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist and her assistants made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing children made varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to these motions. The

deaf babies also made different movements with their hands, but these movements were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to make the same hand movements over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf babies' hand motions started to resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children also seemed to prefer certain hand-shapes.

Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to sound like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too. First, they repeat simple hand-shapes, Next, they form some simple hand signs and use these movements together to resemble ASL sentences.

Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are born with the capacity for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or not. Language can be expressed in different ways - for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer speech? Some of these studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show that the babies babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also produce their first words, both spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the future may prove that the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.

Question 29. According to paragraph 1, babies begin to babble .

A. at their first moment after birth B. at their first experience of language

C. when they are more than 6 months old D. when they first hear their parents talk to them

Question 30. The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to in the study.

A. the hearing infants B. the deaf infants

C. the hearing and deaf infants D. the disabled infants

Question 31. It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made movements with their hands, but .

A. only the hearing children made different movementsB. the deaf children made less consistent hand movementsC. the hearing children only repeated the same hand motionsD. only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions

Question 32. According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by .

A. hand-shapes B. babbling C. hand motions D. eye movements

Question 33. The word “real” in paragraph 4 mostly means .

A. meaningful B. formal C. general D. original

Question 34. It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study .

A. what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign languageB. whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same timeC. the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speechD. whether the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech

Question 35. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Education for Deaf Children B. How do Children Master Language?

C. Language: Is It Always Spoken? D. American Sign Language


Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both popularity and production with 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although much of this tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the Unites States drinks its fair share. According to estimates by the Tea Council of the Unites States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the U.S population on any given day. Black tea or green tea - iced, spiced, or instant - tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar business with major tea producer in Africa and South America and throughout Asia.

Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia saneness, which grows tall and lush in tropical region. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new buds called flush appear, they are plucked off by hand. Event in today’s world of modern agricultural machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method. Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked. This new growth produces the highest quality tea.

After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks, for 18 to 20 hours. During this process, the tea softens and become limp. Next, dependent on the type of tea being product the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then fermented under controlled condition of heat and humidity. For green tea, the whole leaves are often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped. Producing black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin darken. After fermentation, black tea is dried in vats to produce its rich brown or black color.

No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage was discovered in 2737B. C. by Emperor Shell Nung of China when leaves from camellia dropped into his drinking water as it was boiling over a fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen Nung drank the resulting liquid and proclaimed the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing. Though this account cannot be documented, it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in China and spread to other part is of Asia, then Europe, and ultimately to America colonies around 1650.

With about half the caffeine content of coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to reduce but not necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less acidic than coffee and therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea drinking since the National Cancer Institute publishes Its finding on the antioxidant properties of tea. But whether tea is enjoyed for it perceived health benefit, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups continue to be filled daily with the world' most popular beverage.

Question 36. Based on the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?

A. It is totally done with the assistance of modem agricultural machinery.

B. It is no longer done in China.C. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time.D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant.

Question 37. What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 of the passage refer to?

A. Tea pickers' B. new buds C. evergreen plant D. tropical region

Question 38. Which of the following is NOT true about the tea production process?

A. Black tea develops its dark color during fermentation and final drying.B. Green tea requires a long fermentation process.C. Green tea in often steamed to keep its color.D. Black tea goes thought two drink phases during production.

Question 39. The word “documented” in paragraph 4 could be best replace by which of following word?

A. ignored B. proved C. stored D. kept

Question 40. According to the passage, what is true about origin of tea drinking?

A. It began during the Shen Nung dynasty.B. It may begun some time around 1950.C. It is unknown when tea first become popular.D. It was originally produced from Camilla plants in Europe.

Question 41. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following word?

A. decrease B. increase C. reduce D. remove

Question 42. According to the passage, which may be the reason why someone would choose to drink tea instead of coffee?

A. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee.B. Because it has higher nutritional content than coffee.C. Because it helps prevent cancer.D. Because it has more caffeine coffee.

Question 43. What best describes the topic of this passage?

A. Tea consumption and productionB. The two most popular types of teaC. The benefits of tea consumption worldwideD. How tea is produced and brewed.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 44. - 'I think the teacher should give us more exercise.’ - ‘ ’

A. Yes, let’s B. OK

C. That’s rubbish D. That's just what I was thinking

Question 45. - 'What's up with you?' – ‘ ’

A. Nothing to say B. I have a sore throat.

C. Yes, I want to see you D. No trouble

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Tom has the ability to be a professional musician, but he’s too lazy to practice.

A. Tom is able to practice music lessons professionally though he is lazy.B. As a professional musician, Tom is not lazy to practice music lessons.C. Toni is talented but he’ll never be a professional musician as he doesn't practice.D. Though practicing lazily, Tom is a professional musician.

Question 47. Being just on the point of closing the shop, the shop assistant was not happy with the arrival of a late customer.

A. The assistant closed the shop very late because a customer turned up at the last moment and he had to deal with her.

B. Although the shop assistant wasn’t pleased to have a customer as he was closing the shop, he gave his service away.

C. The shop assistant was hurrying to close the shop, but just then, a customer arrived.D. The shop assistant didn't like it when a customer arrived just as he wasclosing the shop.

Question 48. Sue is such a good pianist that I’m surprised she didn't go into music professionally.

A. Sue is so a food pianist that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.B. So good is Sue that I'm surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.C. Sue plays piano so good that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.D. Sue plays the piano so well that I’m surprised she didn’t go into music professionally.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the j following questions.

Question 49. The man wore the gloves. He didn't want to leave any fingerprints.

A. The man wore the gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore the gloves.C. The man wore the gloves so as not to leave any fingerprints.D. In order to leave some fingerprints, the man wore the gloves.

Question 50. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.

A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.







Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat

Question 2. A. exercise B. exempt C. execute D. exclamation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. diverse B. current C. justice D. series

Question 4. A. contrary B. interview C. document D. attendance

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.

A. keeps talking B. keeps talking things

C. keeps changing her mood D. keeps testing

Question 6. Variations in the color of the seawater from blue to green seem to be caused by high or low concentrations of salt.

A. changes B. descriptions C. measures D. clarity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.

A. happiness B. worry and sadness

C. pain and sorrow D. loss

Question 8. Nowadays, young children often appreciate picture stories.

A. devalue B. estimate C. value D. enjoy


Question 9. Unlike other architects of the early modern movement, Alva Alto stressed informality, personal expression, romantic, and regionality in his work.

A. Unlike B. other architects

C. informality D. romantic

Question 10. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment block in Kuala Lumpur last week.

A. It announced B. would be held C. high-rise D. block

Question 11. It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for class.

A. It B. turned off C. before D. leave for


Question 12. I'm sorry! I didn’t break that vase on .

A. my mind B. time C. purpose D. intention

Question 13. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several .

A. celebrations B. celebrities C. celebrates D. celebrated

Question 14. Hieroglyphics on the walls of caves provide scientists with important details on prehistoric man.

A. painted B. were painted C. have been painted D. that they painted

Question 15. to school by bus as they are not old enough to ride motorbikes.

A. Many the students go B. Many a student goes

C. Many of the students goes D. Much students go

Question 16. He has been given work as a window cleaner even though he has no for heights.

A. head B. skill C. ability D. balance

Question 17. Her new novel is out next month.

A. bringing B. going C. Corning D. taking

Question 18. Make sure you book a ticket in .

A. ahead B. advance C. forward D. before

Question 19. I’m in two about whether to go to the wedding or not.

A. brains B. minds C. thoughts D. heads

Question 20. I can't help that Charlotte would look better if she lost some weight.

A. to thinking B. to think C. thinking D. think

Question 21. I hope I can you to be there if I need any help.

A. let down B. make out C. get through D. count on

Question 22. The explanation for the problems didn't satisfy anybody.

A. giving B. which gave C. given D. having given

Question 23. It's about time you yourself a job.

A. got B. get C. will get D. had got

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The expression on your face can usually dramatically alter your feelings and perceptions, and it has been proved that deliberately smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional responses. The idea was first (24) by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906. He believed that different facial (25) affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible laughter increased the blood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad angry expressions decreased the flo of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (26) of gloom and depression by effectively starving the brain of essential fuel.

Psychologist Robert Zajone rediscovered this early subject, and suggests that the temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters, which definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He argues that an impaired blood flow could not only deprive the brain of oxygen, but also create further chemical imbalance (27) inhibiting these vital hormonal messages. Zajone goes on to propose that our brains remember smiling associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you can (28) your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters replacing a depression condition with a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic ailment, depression and anxiety states could benefit from simply exercising their zygomatic muscles, which pull the corners of the mouth up and back to form a smile several times an hour.

Question 24. A. put off B. put down C. put by D. put forwardQuestion 25. A. aspects B. looks C. expressions D. appearancesQuestion 26. A. cycle B. spiral C. circle D. ring

Question 27. A. by B. without C. when D. fromQuestion 28. A. make B. persuade C. allow D. decide


The concept of obtaining fresh water from iceberg that are towed to populated areas and arid regions of the world was once treated as a joke more appropriate to cartoons than real life. But now it is being considered quite seriously by many nations, especially since scientists have warned that the human race will outgrow its fresh water supply faster than it runs out of food. Glaciers are a possible source of fresh water that have been overlooked until recently.

Three-quarters of the Earth's fresh water supply is still tied up in glacial ice, a reservoir of untapped fresh water so immense that it could sustain all the rivers of the world for 1,000 years. Floating on the oceans every year are 7,659 trillion metric tons of ice encased in 10,000 icebergs that break away from the polar ice caps, more than ninety percent of them from Antarctica.

Huge glaciers that stretch over the shallow continental shelf give birth to icebergs throughout the year. Icebergs are not like sea ice, which is formed when the sea itself freezes; rather, they are formed entirely on land, breaking off when glaciers spread over the sea. As they drift away from the polar region, icebergs sometimes move mysteriously in a direction opposite to the wind, pulled by subsurface currents. Because they melt more slowly than smaller pieces of ice, icebergs have been known to drift as far north as 35 degrees south of the equator in the Atlantic Ocean. To corral them and steer them to parts of the world where they are needed would not be too difficult.

The difficulty arises in other technical matters, such as tile prevention of rapid melting in warmer climates and the funneling of fresh water to shore in great volume. But even if the icebergs lost half of their volume in towing, the water they could provide would be far cheaper than that produced by desalination, or removing salt from water.


A. The movement of glaciers B. Icebergs as a source of fresh water

C. Future water shortages D. The future of the world’s rivers

Question 30. The word “appropriate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. proper B. enjoyable C. suitable D. decent

Question 31. According to the author, most of the world’s fresh water is to be found in

A. oceans B. rivers C. glaciers D. reservoirs

Question 32. The word “currents” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. pulls B. waves C. weather D. flows of water

Question 33. How are icebergs formed?

A. They break off from glaciers B. Seawater freezes

C. Rivers freeze D. Small pieces of floating ice converge

Question 34. With which of the following ideas would the author be likely to agree?

A. Towing icebergs to dry areas is economically possible.B. Desalination of water is the best way to obtain drinking water.C. Using water from ice bergs is a very short-term solution to water shortages.D. Icebergs could not be towed very far before they would melt.

Question 35. The word “that” in the last paragraph refers to

A. the volume B. the water C. the iceberg D. the towing


In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college.

It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacles. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children from writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children's lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of today.

How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don't want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don't want our children to “suffer”. The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.

Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.

What does this, mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students - the student who complains that her professor didn't remind her of the due date for an assignment that was dearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.

As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.

Question 36. According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are .

A. not so academic B. responsible for their work

C. too ready for college D. not as mature

Question 37. The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means .

A. point at B. deal with C. lend a hand to D. gain benefits from

Question 38. According to the writer, students' difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to .

A. the lack of financial supportB. the over-parenting from parentsC. the absence of parents' protectionD. the lack of parental support

Question 39. The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to .

A. receiving medical treatmentB. suffering anxiety or depressionC. doing medical researchD. studying medicine at college

Question 40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.B. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.C. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.D. Our society certainly doesn't want our children to experience unpleasant things.

Question 41. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to .

A. college professors B. young people

C. teachers D. parents

Question 42. According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will .

A. defeat students from the very beginningB. help students to learn to stand on their own feetC. discourage students and let them down foreverD. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives

Question 43. What is probably the writer's attitude in the passage?

A. Indifferent B. Praising C. Critical D. Humorous


Question 44. - Thanks a lot for a lovely dinner. Bye! - .

A. You will be welcome! B. Never mind!

C. Safe and sound! D. You must come again!

Question 45. “Do you find it interesting to go to the cinema on your own?” – “ ”

A. No, not at all B. What a pity!

C. Never mind D. You’re welcome.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview.

A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.B. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.C. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won’t go badly for you.D. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.

Question 47. “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tim said to Jane.

A. Tim suggested giving Jane the answer by the end of the week.B. Tim promised to give Jane the answer by the end of the week.C. Tim insisted on letting Jane know the answer by the end of the week.D. Tim offered to give Jane the answer by the end of the week.

Question 48. The friends promised to stand by each other through thick and thin.

A. The friends promised to stand together all their life.B. The friends promised to work together in spite of all difficulties.C. The friends promised to stand by each other whatever happened.D. The friends promised to hold on together if possible.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

Question 50. She buys a lot of new dresses every month. She always dresses shabbily.

A. However a lot of new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.B. Many as new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.C. She always dresses shabbily although she buys a lot of new dresses every month.D. However many new dresses she buys every month, she always dresses shabbily.








Question 1. A. river B. rival C. native D. driven

Question 2. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the r primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant

Question 4. A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each I of the following questions.

Question 5. There's something about him I just can't stand, he really gets under my skin.

A. pushes me B. presses me C. treats me D. annoys me

Question 6. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.

A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 7. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.

A. authentic B. forger C. faulty D. original

Question 8. Match the word in A with its appropriate definition in B.

A. indirect B. illegal C. improper D. unreal


Question 9. Each of the students in the accountant class has to type their own research paper this semester.

A. students B. accountant C. their own D. research paper

Question 10. Most bacteria has strong cell walls much like those of the plants.

A. Most B. has C. much D. those

Question 11. It’s thirty years since this thirty-storeys building was built.

A. It’s thirty years B. since C. thirty-storeys D. was built


Question 12. Granny is completely deaf. You'll have to allowance for her.

A. bring B. take C. make D. find

Question 13. The house is found down.

A. to burn B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned

Question 14. Nearly all of the reporters the press conference had questions .

A. attend - asked B. attended – to ask

C. attending - to ask D. would attend – to be asked

Question 15. , sheep were then used for wool.

A. Having first domesticated for milk productionB. Having been first domesticated for milk productionC. Because they have been first domesticated for milk productionD. Although they had first domesticated for milk production

Question 16. The car burst into but the driver managed to escape.

A. fire B. flames C. heat D. burning

Question 17. When they thought they has enough evidence, the police the man with murder.

A. charged B. arrested C. suspected D. investigated

Question 18. Mrs. Moore waited for the class to before she continued.

A. bring up B. pass away C. settle down D. bring on

Question 19. It seems that the thief took of the open window and got inside that way.

A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage

Question 20. I do okay in the interview, I’ve got a good chance of getting the job.

A. unless B. in case C. only D. provided

Question 21. Call me as soon as you your test results.

A. get B. will get C. will have got D. got

Question 22. How much is the bus to the city centre?

A. fee B. fare C. price D. cost

Question 23. The country's economy relies heavily on the tourist .

A. industry B. industrial C. industrialize D. industrious

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

GLOBAL WARMING

Few people now realize the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists (24) the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at (25)______ from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more severe and causing sea levels all around the world to rise.

Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (26) by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are in (27) of more money being spent on research into solar, wind, and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power (28) _. Some scientists, however, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay.

Question 24. A. give B. put C. take D. hasQuestion 25. A. danger B. harm C. risk D. threatQuestion 26. A. off B. up C. over D. awayQuestion 27. A. request B. suggestion C. belief D. favorQuestion 28. A. houses B. dumps C. stations D. generation


The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation’s “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants.

Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of urban to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).

Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area would include the county in which the central city was located, and adjacent counties that were found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.

While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities.” A host of terms came into use: “metropolitan regions”, “poly-nucleated population groups”, “conurbations”, “metropolitan clusters”, “megalopolises” and so on.


A. How cities in the United States began and developedB. Solutions to overcrowding in citiesC. The changing definition of an urban areaD. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census

Question 30. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in .

A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970

Question 31. The word “distinguished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. differentiated B. removed C. honored D. protected

Question 32. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban?

A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000

Question 33. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950?

A. City borders had become less distinct.B. Cities had undergone radical social change.C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.

Question 34. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. boundaries B. persons C. units D. areas

Question 35. The word “constituting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. located near B. determined by C. calling for D. making up


The penny press, which emerged in the United States during the 1830's, was a powerful agent of mass communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in length, written for the mass taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the conservative press, with its emphasis on political and literary topics. The new papers were brief and cheap, emphasizing sensational reports of police courts and juicy scandals as well as human interest stories. Twentieth- century journalism was already foreshadowed in the penny press of the 1830's.

The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was followed two years later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long after, Horace Greeley issued the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most influential paper in America. Greeley gave space to the issues that deeply touched the American people before the Civil War- abolitionism, temperance, free homesteads, Utopian cooperative settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly edition of the Tribune, with 100,000 subscribers, had a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in Western communities.

Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An English observer enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in Great Britain

was enough to reach only one out of every thirty-six inhabitants weekly; Pennsylvania in that same year had a newspaper circulation which reached one out of every four inhabitants weekly. Statistics seemed to justify the common belief that Americans were devoted to periodicals. Newspapers in the United States increased from 1,200 in 1833 to 3,000 by the early 1860's, on the eve of the Civil War. This far exceeded the number and circulation of newspapers in England and France.

Question 36. What does the author mean by the statement “Twentieth-century journalism was foreshadowed by the penny press of the 1930’s” in paragraph 1?

A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing.B. Twentieth-century journalism is more important than nineteenth-century journalism.C. Penny-press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth-century newspapers.D. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press.

Question 37. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?

A. A report of theft of union funds by company officialsB. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the streetC. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national importanceD. A story about land being given away in the West

Question 38. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. the New York Sun B. the New York Herald

C. America D. the Civil War

Question 39. Who was Horace Greeley?

A. The publisher of the first penny-press paper to make a profitB. The founder of the penny-press paper that did the most to influence the thinking of the publicC. The most successful writer for the penny pressD. The man who took over James Gordon Bennett's penny-press paper and made it successful

Question 40. The word “remarkable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. significant B. discussable C. remote D. uneven

Question 41. The word “avid” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. intelligent B. eager C. critical D. thrifty

Question 42. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant because they

A. explain why so many different periodicals were publishedB. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papersC. show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil WarD. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals

Question 43. The word “justify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. generate B. calculate C. modify D. prove


Question 44. “Make yourself at home!” – “ ”

A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.

C. Thanks. The same to you. D. That is very kind. Thank you

Question 45. - “Do you mind if I borrow a chair’? – “ . Do you need only one?”

A. I'm sorry. B. Not at all. C. Yes, I do. D. Yes, I would.


Question 46. My sister worries so much about fitness that she wastes a lot of time and money.

A. My sister wastes a lot of time and money though she worries so much about fitness.B. My sister worries about fitness so that she wastes a lot of time and money.C. Worrying too much about fitness, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.D. Fitness worried, my sister wasted a lot of time and money.

Question 47. The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end.

A. Their picnic didn’t end in the heavy downpour.B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.

Question 48. You can now buy these products at all large supermarkets.

A. These products are now available at all large supermarkets.B. All large supermarkets are now on sale these products.C. These products are for sales to all large supermarkets.D. All large markets are available with these products.


Question 49. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.

A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn't apply to that prestigious institution.

B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious institution.

C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious

institution.

Question 50. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several deadly diseases.

A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.







Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. chore B. stretch C. synchronized D. punchingQuestion 2. A. isolated B. climate C. automobile D. island


Question 3. A. curious B. receive C. unique D. achieve

Question 4. A. comprehend B. entertain C. develop D. introduce


Question 5. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time B. time after time

C. again and again D. very rapidly

Question 6. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May.

A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement


Question 7. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.

A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional

Question 8. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.

A. expensive B. complicated

C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate


Question 9. In the 1960s, urban renewal projects cleared land for commerce and offices buildings.

A. urban renewal B. cleared land C. commerce D. offices buildings

Question 10. It was my father whom talked me into learning another foreign language.

A. was B. whom C. into D. another

Question 11. How seems to be the greatest injustice of all, however, is that the new lands that Columbus discovered were never given his name.

A. How B. the greatest injustice

C. the new lands D. were never given


Question 12. The judge the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted

Question 13. It's surprising that ex-smokers are less smokers than non-smokers.

A. tolerant of B. tolerable to C. intolerant D. tolerance towards

Question 14. I was angry when you saw me because I with my sister.

A. have been arguing B. had been arguing

C. argued D. would argue

Question 15. over long distances is a fact.

A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted

C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted

Question 16. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to what she missed while she was away.

A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with

Question 17. The for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year.

A. wage B. payment C. fee D. salary

Question 18. I want to take these jeans back because they are too small but I can’t find the _ anywhere.

A. receipt B. receiver C. reception D. receptionist

Question 19. I wonder mind watching this bag for me for a moment.

A. would you B. you would C. if would you D. whether you would

Question 20. I was only absent the office for a few minutes!

A. for B. from C. in D. about

Question 21. Everyone said that they had themselves at the wedding.

A. enjoyed B. pleased C. impressed D. excited

Question 22. I sight of the robber just before he disappeared around the corner.

A. caught B. took C. got D. had

Question 23. Laura is about me.

A. younger than two years B. two years younger than

C. younger two years than D. two years than younger


A long and happy marriage is something that many people wish for, but finding the right partner is (24)____ more difficult than you might imagine. A friend of mine, Susan had not been very successful in her attempt to find the perfect partner, and she was beginning to lose heart and feel rather depressed. One day she happened to hear someone (25) _ about a computer dating agency which could help you to find the ideal partner. Susan immediately (26) _ an appointment to see someone at the agency, then waited to see what would happen. The agency

arranged a meeting with a “suitable” partner at the local railway station a week later, although I (27)__________ her not to go. My friend arrived a few minutes early but could see no one who matched the appearance of the man in the photograph she had been sent. She noticed a man waiting under the station clock and (28) a bunch of flowers. But there was no one else around. Suddenly the man started chatting to her and, after a while, asked her if she would like to go and have a coffee. Not until much later did they come to the conclusion that they had both been waiting for each other! When they had both recovered from the shock, they decided that the computer had been right after all!

Question 24. A. so B. much C. too D. lotQuestion 25. A. mentioning B. telling C. talking D. relatingQuestion 26. A. did B. had C. set D. madeQuestion 27. A. advised B. urged C. suggested D. whisperedQuestion 28. A. fetching B. wearing C. carrying D. holding


These days, photography is considered an art form. However, people did not always feel this way. It took one of the greatest photographers of all time to change public opinion about photography: Ansel Adams.

Ansel Adams claimed that he knew his destiny when he first visited Yosemite, a national park, at the age of fourteen. Until then, the focus of his life had always been music; he had long dreamed of being a concert pianist, a career that would have required him to live an urban lifestyle. Instead, Adams found himself drawn to Yosemite and to other natural settings. Over time his love of photography became more influential than that of music. Contrary to the popular belief of the time, he believed photography to be an art form and often exhibited it as art.

Due to his love of nature, Adams became devoted to the conservation of and access to wilderness. He believed that the American people needed to experience nature in all its glory. Adams felt that the experience of nature was a spiritual one, a view evidenced by many of his photographs.

Question 29. What is this passage primarily about?

A. conservation of the environmentB. Yosemite National ParkC. Adams' feelings about photography and natureD. his conflict between music and photography

Question 30. What can we infer about photographers before Adams' time?

A. They were often musicians as well.B. They were not considered artists.C. They did not worry about conservation.D. They had never taken photos of nature.

Question 31. According to the passage, which of the following made Adams want to become a photographer?

A. Yosemite National Park B. the urban lifestyle

C. loss of interest in music D. a religious experience

Question 32. The word “destiny” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. future B. chance C. hobby D. talent

Question 33. According to the passage, photography has come to be recognized as an art form since _______ .

A. Americans started appreciating the beauty of natureB. several famous books on photography were publishedC. American colleges began offering courses on photographyD. one talented photographer emerged

Question 34. The word ‘it’ in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. belief B. music C. photography D. art form

Question 35. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Adams EXCEPT that_____ .

A. his early life goal was to be a pianistB. he showed his photographs to the public frequentlyC. he took many pictures of natural sceneryD. he had no idea what career he wanted until he was 14


Psychologists who work on motivation research a wide range of human traits and physiological characteristics that include the effects of hunger, reward, and punishment, as well as desires for power, tangible achievement, social acceptance, belongingness, self-esteem, and self-actualization. A plethora of hypotheses developed in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries have the goal of identifying causes of an organism’s behavior that can be both conscious and unconscious. The hierarchical organization of human needs is a theoretical model, originally established by an American psychologist, Abraham Maslow, in 1954. The needs located at the bottom of the pyramid are the essentials of physiological survival that encompass oxygen, water, nutrition, rest and avoidance of pain. Maslow’s theory, grounded in research, also stipulated that these are variable and, at least to some extent, may explain, for example, food gratification. The second tier is rooted in the human need for safety, stability and protection.

In the human life cycle, the needs for belonging are manifested in the desires to marry, have a family, belong in a community or among similarly minded people. In part, the need to belong can also show up in a search for particular types of occupations or careers. The next level of the hierarchy in effect deals with two substrata, where the first presumes the need for status, prestige, recognition, appreciation, and dominance, and the higher division includes a conglomeration of

ly centered traits that pivot on competence, confidence, mastery, achievement, independence, and freedom.

The top tier is different from all others, and Maslow referred to it as growth motivation and self- actualization. At the highest level, individuals seek to realize and put to use their creativity, talent, leadership, curiosity and understanding. At this level people can reach their full potentials and accurately perceive and accept reality, seek privacy and depth in personal relationships, resist enculturation, and develop social interests, compassion, and humanity. In many cases, self- actualizers do not lead ordinary lives, choose growth over safety, and cultivate peak experiences that leave their mark and change one for the better.

Question 36. According to the passage, what does psychology of motivation attempt to uncover?

A. Reactions to hunger and desires for powerB. Developments of human physiology and mindC. Reasons for human conduct and moving forcesD. Organization of human society and hierarchies

Question 37. The word “plethora” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. oversimplification B. overlap

C. overreach D. overabundance

Question 38. It can be inferred from the passage that in Maslow's hierarchy .

A. the first layer of needs dominates other tiersB. the highest level of the model supersedes the lower levelsC. the second layer of needs is more urgent than the firstD. the third level of the model is embedded in the fourth

Question 39. The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. theory and research B. rest and avoidance of pain

C. oxygen, water, nutrition, and rest D. the lowest set of factors

Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that in modern-day terms, the second layer of needs can be reflected in people’s desire for____ .

A. a house in an upscale neighborhoodB. a protected existence and dependenceC. a measure of job and financial securityD. a degree of friendship and family life

Question 41. The word “conglomeration” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. complex B. congress

C. conjunction D. connotation

Question 42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in human motivation?

A. Esteem B. Participation

C. Accomplishment D. Conformism

Question 43. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?

A. Genuine self-actualizers may attain self-satisfactionB. Sincere self-promoters can achieve full contentmentC. Real self-starters can achieve their lives’ desiresD. True self-actualizers may lead complicated lives.


Question 44. “Should I give you a little more coffee?” – “ ”

A. No, you're welcome B. No, thank you

C. Yes, you're right D. Yes, I'm OK

Question 45. “Could you hand me that hammer?” – “ ”

A. It's not very expensive. B. Yes, please.

C. I'm about to use it myself. D. Yes, I'd like to.


Question 46. Mr Baker is determined to continue working when he is 65.

A. There is a determination of him to continue working when Mr Baker is 65.B. Not until Mr Baker is 65, he is determined to continue working.C. Mr Baker has no intention of stopping working when he is 65.D. Mr Baker’s determination to continue working only when he is 65.

Question 47. He was such a bright student that he could solve all the math problems.

A. He was not bright enough to solve all the math problems.B. He was so intelligent that he could solve all the math problems.C. The math problems were too difficult for him to solve.D. All the math problems were so bright that he could solve them.

Question 48. His daydreaming prevented him from becoming a good employee.

A. If he daydreamed, he would become a better employee.B. He could become a better employee without his daydreaming.C. He daydreams, which makes him a good employee.D. As a daydreamer, he is a good employee.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 49. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

Question 50. We haven’t seen each other for a long time. I'm wondering whether I shall even recognize him.

A. Although we haven't seen each other for a long time, I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize him.

B. We haven’t seen each other for a long time because I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize him.

C. We haven’t seen each other for a long time, so I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize him.

D. The reason why we haven't seen each other for a long time is that I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize him.








Question 1. A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin

Question 2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate


Question 3. A. dependable B. cafeteria C. simplicity D. detoxify

Question 4. A. westernize B. official C. division D. millennium


Question 5. I was turning to the left lane when a car came out of nowhere and hit me.

A. stopped right in front of B. suddenly appeared

C. spun over D. fell off a truck

Question 6. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo's outstanding humanitarianism.

A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread


Question 7. As soon as I gave up smoking, I felt a lot better.

A. gave out B. took up C. got on D. took out

Question 8. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency


Question 9. The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos’ the first time as the host for the biannual-games.

A. The next B. It is C. the first time D. the host

Question 10. Buying clothes is often a time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes is seldom the ones that fit him or her.

A. time-consuming B. that C. is D. ones

Question 11. The assassination Nathuran Vinayak Godse shot Mohandas K. Gandi in New Dehli, India on September 17, 1948.

A. assassination B. shot C. in D. on September 17

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12. They attempted to the painting to its original condition.

A. restore B. renovate C. repair D. refurbish

Question 13. Flooding in April is an unusual in this area.

A. occurrence B. occur C. occurring D. occurred

Question 14. Frankly, I’d rather you anything about it for the time being.

A. don't do B. hadn't done C. didn't do D. haven't done

Question 15. The book would have been perfect the ending.

A. had it not been for B. it had not been for

C. it hadn't been for D. hadn't it been for.

Question 16. Jane's very modest, always her success.

A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back

Question 17. Those companies were due to some seriously financial problems.

A. taken off B. set up C. wiped out D. gone over

Question 18. Instead of an increase, there has been a recent in crime.

A. crash B. drop C. break D. issue

Question 19. Students also have the opportunity to choose from a wide range of courses in the university.

A. compulsory B. optional C. required D. limited

Question 20. The issue question is more complex than we think.

A. in B. from C. on D. at

Question 21. have announced that a major breakthrough in medicine has been made.

A. Research B. Researchers C. Researches D. Researching

Question 22. many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.

A. Wherever B. Whatever C. Whenever D. However

Question 23. When we to the airport, I realized that I my passport at home.

A. got/had left B. got/was left C. got/left D. had got/had left


A child prodigy of four is receiving computer lessons at Brunei University, in London. Nicholas MacMahon is studying at university because he is too clever for school. A senior lecturer at the university, Valso Koshy, said that the boy was remarkably intelligent.

Nicholas spoke fluently before he was one and by the time he was 18 months old, he was taking telephone (24)______ . This was soon followed by conversational French. These are the trademarks of a highly gifted child unusual but not unique. The strange thing about Nicholas is his reading - he taught himself to read before he could speak. Ms. Koshy, an expert (25)______ gifted children, says Nicholas is quite exceptional. Yet “exceptional” underrates his amazing ability to read, almost from birth. “He was talking when he was one and w e realized from the start that he could read,” his father said. “Soon after, he was correcting my spelling, words (26) __________ caterpillar. Now he (27) insects by their Latin names.”

The list of achievements is impressive, but frightening. A four-year-old who can (28) a Boeing 747 from a DC 10, devours encyclopedias, read The Daily Telegraph and is well on the way to becoming a violin virtuoso is hardly normal.

Question 24. A. news B. information C. notes D. messages Question 25. A. about B. for C. with D. on

Question 26. A. as B. such C. like D. for example

Question 27. A. realizes B. determines C. recognizes D. identifies Question 28. A. tell B. differ C. vary D. say

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Hummingbirds are small, often brightly colored birds of the family Trochilidae that live exclusively in the Americas. About 12 species are found in North America, but only the ruby- throated hummingbird breeds in eastern North America and is found from Nova Scotia to Florida. The greatest variety and number of species are found in South America. Another hummingbird species is found from southeastern Alaska to northern California.

Many hummingbirds are minute. But even the giant hummingbird found in western South America, which is the largest known hummingbird, is only about 8 inches long and weighs about two-thirds of an ounce. The smallest species, the bee hummingbird of Cuba and the Isle of Pines, measures slightly more than 5.5 centimeters and weighs about two grams. Hummingbirds' bodies are compact, with strong muscles. They have wings shaped like blades. Unlike the wings of other birds, hummingbird wings connect to the body only at the shoulder joint, which allows them to fly not only forward but also straight up and down, sideways, and backward. Because of their unusual wings hummingbirds can also hover in front of flowers so they can suck nectar and find insects. The hummingbird's bill, adapted for securing nectar from certain types of flowers, is usually rather long and always slender, and it is curved slightly downward in many species.

The hummingbird’s body feathers are sparse and more like scales than feathers. The unique character of the feathers produces brilliant and iridescent colors, resulting from the refraction of light by the feathers. Pigmentation of other feathers also contributes to the unique color and look. Male and female hummingbirds look alike in some species but different in most species; males of most species are extremely colorful. The rate at which a hummingbird beats its wings does not vary, regardless of whether it is flying forward, flying in another direction, or merely hovering. But the rate does vary with the size of the bird - the larger the bird, the lower the rate, ranging from 80 beats per second for the smallest species to 10 times per second for larger species. Researchers have not yet been able to record the speed of the wings of the bee humming-bird but imagine that they beat even faster. Most hummingbirds, especially the smaller species, emit scratchy, twittering, or squeaky sounds. The wings, and sometimes the tail feathers, often produce humming, hissing, or popping sounds, which apparently function much as do the songs of other birds.

Question 29. According to the passage, where are hummingbirds found?

A. Throughout the world B. In South America only

C. In North America only D. In North and South America

Question 30. The author indicates that the ruby-throated hummingbird is found .

A. throughout North America. B. in California.

C. in South America. D. in the eastern part of North America.

Question 31. The word “minute” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. extremely tiny B. extremely fast C. unique D. organized

Question 32. The word which in the second paragraph refers to .

A. western South America. B. the giant hummingbird.

C. all hummingbirds. D. Florida hummingbirds.

Question 33. What does the author imply about the rate hummingbirds’ wings beat?

A. Although the bee hummingbird is the smallest, its wings don't beat the fastest.B. The hummingbird's wings beat faster when it is sucking nectar than when it is just flying.C. The rate is not much different than that of other birds of its size.D. The speed at which a bee hummingbird’s wings beat is not actually known.

Question 34. The author indicates that a hummingbird’s wings are different from those of other birds because

A. they attach to the body at one point only.B. they attach to the body at more points than other birds.C. they attach and detach from the body.D. they are controlled by a different section of the brain.

Question 35. According to the passage, what causes the unique color and look of hummingbirds?

A. The color of the feathersB. The structure of the feathers as well as pigmentationC. The rapidity of flightD. The pigmentation of the body


If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costumes with the choice of a particular form of garment for a particular use, then we can say that clothing depends primarily on such physical conditions as climate, health, and textile manufacture, whereas costumes reflect social factors such as religious beliefs, aesthetics, personal status, and the wish to be distinguished from or to emulate our fellows.

The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies for some physical reason such as protecting ourselves from the weather elements. Ethnologists and psychologists have invoked psychological reasons: modesty in the case of ancients, and taboo, magical influence and the desire to please for the moderns.

In early history, costumes must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple utility, perhaps through some magical significance, investing primitive man with the attributes of other creatures. Ornaments identified the wearer with animals, gods, heroes or other men. This identification remains symbolic in more sophisticated societies. We should bear in mind that the theater has its

distant origins in sacred performances, and in all periods children at play have worn disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.

Costumes helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costumes embodied attributes expressing his power, while a warrior's costume enhanced his physical superiority and suggested he was superhuman. In more recent times, professional or administrative costume has been devised to distinguish the wearer and express personal or delegated authority; this purpose is seen clearly in the judge's robes and the police officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power, and since power is usually equated with wealth, costume came to be an expression of social caste and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and is intended to intimidate to protect the body and to express membership in a group. At the bottom of the scale, there are such compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform. Finally, costume can possess a religious significance that combines various elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the desire to express this in earthly life, and the desire to enhance the wearer's position of respect.

Question 36. The passage mainly discusses costume in terms of its

A. physical protection B. religious significance

C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness

Question 37. What is the purpose of the paragraph 1?

A. To describe the uses of costumeB. To contrast costume with the clothingC. To trade the origins of costumeD. To point out that clothing developed before costume

Question 38. Psychological reasons for wearing garments include .

A. protection from cold B. availability of materials

C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure

Question 39. The word “Ornaments” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to .

A. garments B. representation

C. details D. decorations

Question 40. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that .

A. The function of costume has become very sophisticated.B. Children like to identify with other creature by wearing costumes.C. Primitive people wore cloths only for sacred performances.D. Costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility.

Question 41. Why does the author mention the police officer's uniform?

A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costumeB. To identify the wearer with a heroC. To suggest that police are superhumanD. To show how costume signifies authority

Question 42. The word “denotes” in line paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .

A. disguises B. describes C. indicates D. denigrates

Question 43. Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person's costume, as it is defined in the passage?

A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game

C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony


Question 44. A: - B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.

A. When have you got this beautiful dress?B. How a beautiful dress you're wearing!C. You've just bought this beautiful dress, haven't you?D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!

Question 45. “What are they like?” – “ ”

A. They are very nice B. They are from London

C. They’re in London D. They're American

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to Indicate the sentence that in closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “If I were you, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the experiment.” the professor said to his students.

A. The professor advised his students to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the experiment.

B. The professor wished he could finish the pre-lab report for his students.C. The professor regretted that his students didn’t do things in the right way.D. The professor advised his students to carry out the experiments and then write the pre-lab

report.

Question 47. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.

A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.

Question 48. Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.

A. More men than women have insurance.B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance.D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.


Question 49. He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.

A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.C. What he wants to do is to give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.D. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.

Question 50. Marie graduated with a good degree. She joined the ranks of the unemployed.

A. Marie joined the ranks of the unemployed because she graduated with a good degree.B. If Marie graduated with a good degree, she would join the ranks of the unemployed.C. Although Marie graduated with a good degree, she joined the ranks of the unemployed.D. That Marie graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.







Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. removed Β. approved C. reminded D. relieved

Question 2. A. fragile Β. bargain C. general D. luggage

Mark the letter Α, Β, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. marvelous Β. notorious C. credulous D. numerous

Question 4. A. majority Β. obstinacy C. apology D. equality

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. All at once Millie got up and left the house without any explanation.

A. as usual Β. as first C. suddenly D. not frequent

Question 6. Considering they are over 70 years old, you must admit they are in good shape.

A. fit Β. wealthy C. clever D. slow

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. “Don’t be such a pessimist I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”

A. activist Β. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist

Question 8. It is obligatory for all students to take the entrance examination in order to attend the university.

A. forced Β. impelling C. required D. optional

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.

A. a clay Β. because C. it D. their survival

Question 10. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.

A. took Β. seriously C. would be D. with the locals

Question 11. Grover Cleveland was the only American president served two nonconsecutive terms.

A. the only Β. served C. nonconsecutive D. terms

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12. My husband and I both go out to work so we share the .

A. happiness Β. household chores

C. responsibility D. employment

Question 13. When our teacher saw what we had done he was absolutely .

A. angry Β. upset C. furious D. annoyed

Question 14. I enjoy walking to school, but on rainy days I to going by bus.

A. would rather Β. commit C. prefer D. resort

Question 15. The traffic lights green and I pulled away.

A. became Β. turned C. got D. changed

Question 16. You should have those shares when they were cheap.

A. taken out Β. sold off C. bought up D. taken over

Question 17. I'll you to our Research department. Please hold on.

A. put - away Β. put - out C. put - through D. put - up

Question 18. The telescope will photograph distant galaxies, attempt to understand their past.

A. in Β. for C. on D. with

Question 19. He the umbrella in his right hand, trying to keep his balance.

A. hold Β. held

C. has been holding D. has held

Question 20. They want to get young people to open a bank .

A. count Β. counter C. account D. deposit

Question 21. Despite the plan's emphasis on agricultural _ , the industrial sector received a larger share of state investment.

A. developing Β. developer C. development D. developed

Question 22. They still remain the need for an integrated system of subsidies which will farmers to look after their upland environment and producing food.

A. enable Β. adopt C. consume D. discourage

Question 23. Although she loves movies, she doesn’t enjoy live theatre.

A. partially Β. regularly C. finally D. particularly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

POST IN HISTORY

Although it may come as a surprise to many people, postal services have existed in some parts of the world for thousands of years. There is ample evidence that a postal services existed among the Assyrians and Babylonians. In China a regular postal service was established in the seventh century BC, and over the centuries attained such a high level of efficiency that some 2000 years after its (24) it won the admiration of travelers like Marco Polo. Efficient and highly developed postal services were also established in the Persia and Roman Empires. In ancient times, these services were mainly confined to the use of representative of the state; private citizens made use of slaves, merchants and the (25) _ to send their messages and documents. In Medieval Europe, postal services were organized by emperors and by the papacy, (26) private citizens continued to entrust their correspondence to various travelers. Later around the 13th century, universities and towns came to have the own messengers. However, it was not until the 14th century when merchants, the private citizens who had the greatest need for a speedy and regular exchange of correspondence, began to set (27)_______ regular courier services. The needs of business (28) to the development of the postal services as we know it today.

Question 24. A. introduction Β. institution C. application D. occurrence

Question 25. A. such Β. likely C. like D. same

Question 26. A. when Β. and C. until D. while

Question 27. A. up Β. out C. off D. in

Question 28. A. resulted Β. came C. brought D. led

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.

Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some - for example, Fort Davis - had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military. The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for protection.

Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.

Question 29. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.

Β. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.

C. Forts were important to the development of the American West.

D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.

Question 30. The word “daring” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. lost Β. bold C. lively D. foolish

Question 31. The word “others” in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. posts Β. wagon trains C. frontiers D. highways

Question 32. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening at forts?

A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.

Β. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled.

C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.

Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the development of military forts?

A. Insufficient shelter Β. Shortage of materials

C. Attacks by wild animals D. Illness

Question 34. The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. involved Β. exploited C. united D. hindered

Question 35. How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?

A. By registering annual birth and death rates

Β. By experiments with different building materials

C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes

D. By monitoring the soldiers' diets


Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity - horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks - but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.

The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”. During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser

kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.

Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.


A. How birds find and store food Β. How birds maintain body heat in the winter

C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together

Question 37. The word “conserve” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ?

A. retain Β. watch

C. locate D. share

Question 38. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by .

A. huddling together on the ground with other birds

Β. building nests in trees

C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetationD. digging tunnels into the snow

Question 39. The word “magnified” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. caused Β. modified C. intensified D. combined

Question 40. The author mentions “kinglets” in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that .

A. protect themselves by nesting in holes

Β. nest with other species of birds

C. nest together for warmthD. usually feed and nest in pairs

Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while sleeping?

A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.

Β. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.

C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.D. Several members of the flock care for the young.

Question 42. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?

A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.

Β. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.

C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.

Question 43. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .

A. a few birds Β. mass roosts C. predators D. trees

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 44. - Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to go.

- .

A. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you too. Β. OK, see you.

C. Pleased to meet you, too. D. Nice to meet you. I'm Hoa.

Question 45. - Do you feel like going out for a drink this evening?

- .

A. That would be great.

Β. Thank you very much for your kind invitation.

C. Yes. I like very much.D. No, I don't. I am busy.

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. She’s bound to see Jim at the meeting.

A. She's obliged to see Harry at the meeting.

Β. She's on her way to see Harry at the meeting.

C. It's certain that she will see Harry at the meeting.D. She's too busy to see Harry at the meeting.

Question 47. The burglar was caught red-handed by the police when he broke into the flat.

A. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.

Β. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.

C. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat.D. When the burglar bad broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.

Question 48. I won't sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me.

A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it.

Β. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.

C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.

A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.

Β. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.

C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.

Question 50. He didn't take his father’s advice. That's why he is out of work.

A. If he had taken his father's advice, he would not have been out of work.

Β. If he took his father's advice, he would not be out of work.

C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

D. If he takes his father's advice, he will not be out of work.








Question 1. A. building Β. suitable C. suit D. recruitment

Question 2. A. courtship Β. courgette C. sour D. courtyard

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. license Β. concert C. conserve D. lantern

Question 4. A. intelligent Β. architecture C. biography D. thermometer

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Those who were engaged in the scandal will have to resign.

A. connected Β. joined C. involved D. related

Question 6. He annoys me by asking me stupid questions while I am working.

A. quarrels Β. disturbs C. interferes D. damages

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 7. The number of wild animals has been dwindling in many parts of the world.

A. developing Β. insignificant C. increasing D. declining

Question 8. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.

A. disregard Β. attraction C. consideration D. speculation

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9. Never before has so many people in the United States been interested in soccer.

A. has Β. so many C. in D. interested

Question 10. None two butterflies have exactly the same design on their wings.

A. none Β. exactly C. design on D. wings

Question 11. Dr. Fields received so large bill when he checked out of the hotel that he did not have enough money to pay for a taxi to the airport.

A. so large bill Β. checked out C. that D. enough money

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12. There was no in waiting longer than half an hour so we left.

A. use Β. good C. worth D. point

Question 13. It was so foggy that the driver couldn't the traffic signs.

A. make out Β. break out C. keep out D. take out

Question 14. It was a joke! I was pulling your .

A. thumb Β. hair C. toe D. leg

Question 15. The teacher hoped to a positive, not a negative reply from his student.

A. respond Β. donate C. elicit D. preface

Question 16. She made the mistake of forgetting to put the s” on the verb in the third person singular.

A. classic Β. important C. classical D. famous

Question 17. I had a long with my neighbor yesterday. We talked for hours.

A. explanation Β. protest C. conversation D. accusation

Question 18. Mrs. Marie told her little boy to put all his toys before coming to dinner.

A. out Β. off C. away D. in

Question 19. The old astronomer patiently made his and wrote down what he saw.

A. observation Β. observatory C. observe D. observer

Question 20. We were both very excited about the visit, as we each other for ages.

A. never saw Β. didn't see C. hadn’t seen D. haven’t seen

Question 21. Why don't you you when you install this new electric gadget?

A. get Aaron help Β. have Aaron help

C. have Aaron helped D. have got Aaron help

Question 22. Only in the last few years to use home computers.

A. have begun people Β. when people began

C. have people begun D. people have begun

Question 23. “I’m really sleepy today” I wish I Bob to the airport late last night.

A. didn't have to take Β. weren’t taking

C. hadn’t had to take D. didn't take.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

LEARNING TO MAKE A PERFECT PIZZA

According to the European Pizza-Makers’ Association, making a good pizza is not a straight forward skill to learn. The ingredients seem very (24)_________ : flour, yeast, water and a bit of salt. But water and flour can easily make glue and anyone who has eaten a (25) quality pizza will know how bad it can make your stomach feel.

“In Italy, 70% of pizza makers could improve on their product, not to (26) all the pizza makers around the world who serve uneatable meals”, says Antonio Primiceri, the Association's founder. He has now started a pizza school in an attempt to save the reputation of this traditional

dish. As part of a/an (27) ____ course, the students at Mr Primiceri's school are taught to avoid common mistakes, produce a good basic mixture, add a tasty topping and cook the pizza properly. Test the finished pizza by breaking the crust, advises Mr Primiceri: “If the soft part inside the pizza is white, clean and dry, it's a good pizza. If it is not like this, the pizza will upset your stomach. You will feel (28) full and also thirsty”.

In Italy alone, the pizza industry has an annual turnover of more than $12 billion. Mr Primiceri estimated that there are 10,000 jobs in pizza restaurants waiting to be filled by those with real skills. “If you are a good pizza cook, you will never be without a job”, he says.

Question 24. A. simple Β. primary C. pure D. regular

Question 25. A. sad Β. poor C. short D. weak

Question 26. A. state Β. mention C. remark D. fell

Question 27. A. defensive Β. extreme C. intensive D. intentional

Question 28. A. hardly Β. tightly C. uncomfortably D. heavily


Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory.

There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage.

When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories. For

example, a reader engages in elaborate rehearsal when he brings prior knowledge of a subject to a text.

Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.

Question 29. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?

A. They revert from the long term memory.

Β. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.

C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.D. They enter via the nervous system.

Question 30. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. passes Β. adds up C. appears D. continues

Question 31. The word “cues” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. questions Β. clues C. images D. tests

Question 32. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?

A. By organizing it Β. By repeating it

C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it

Question 33. The author believes that rote rotation is .

A. the best way to remember something

Β. more efficient than chunking

C. ineffective in the long runD. an unnecessary interruption

Question 34. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to .

A. encoding Β. STM C. semantics D. information

Question 35. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?

A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.

Β. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.

C. Cues help people to recognize information.D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.


Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in

his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.

While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-service teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for teachers and creating school libraries.

Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education.

Question 36. Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?

A. The Father of American Public Education

Β. Philosophy of Education

C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education.D. Politics of Educational Institutions

Question 37. Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life?

A. He attended school six months a year.

Β. He had to study alone, without help.

C. He supported his family after his father died.D. He was an only child.

Question 38. The word “struggles” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .

A. valuable experiences Β. happy situations

C. influential people D. difficult times

Question 39. What did Horace Mann advocate?

A. The state board school system Β. The district school system.

C. The substitute school system. D. The graded school system.

Question 40. The word “mandatory” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. required Β. equal C. excellent D. basic

Question 41. How were Mann's educational reforms distributed?

A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts.

Β. In reports that he wrote for national distribution.

C. In speeches that he made throughout the country.D. In books that could be found in school libraries.

Question 42. Among Mann's school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. Restructuring curriculum Β. Schools for teacher training

C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums

Question 43. Which of the following statements best represents Mann’s philosophy?

A. Think in a new way Β. Help others

C. Study very hard D. Work hard

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 44. – “Let me do that for you” – “ ”.

A. Don’t worry yourself Β. Please, don't bother

C. It's not for you D. Make yourself at home

Question 45. – “Do you have a minute, Dr. Keith?” – “ ”.

A. Well, I'm not sure when Β. Good, I hope so

C. Sure, What’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven't got it here.


Question 46. Without skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.

A. He survived the operation thanks to skillful surgery.

Β. It wasn’t thanks to skillful surgery that he survived the operation.

C. If there weren’t skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.

D. But for skillful surgery, he would have survived the operation.

Question 47. There's no point in phoning Caroline - she’s away.

A. Don’t waste your time if you phone Caroline.

Β. It would be a waste of time phoning Caroline.

C. Don’t save your time to phone Caroline because she’s away.

D. It isn’t a waste of time to phone Caroline.

Question 48. Only final-year students are allowed to use the main college car park.

A. The main college car park is restricted to final-year students.

Β. The use of the main college car park was not used by final-year students.

C. Final-year students weren’t restricted to use the main college car park.D. The use of the main college car park isn’t restricted to final-year students.

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.

A. Mr Baker, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.

Β. Mr Baker who I spoke on the phone last night is very interested in our plan.

C. Mr Baker, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.

D. Mr Baker is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke to on the phone last night.

Question 50. I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.

A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of waking the baby up.

Β. Waking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television

C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.

D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid waking the baby up.








Question 1. A. merchant Β. sergeant C. commercial D. term

Question 2. A. amuses Β. purses C. blouses D. pleases


Question 3. A. imagine Β. inhabit C. continue D. disappear

Question 4. A. popularity Β. politician C. documentary D. laboratory

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You're hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.

A. visible Β. audible C. edible D. eligible

Question 6. On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.

A. Upon reflection Β. After discussing with my wife

C. For this time only D. For the second time

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.

A. fresh Β. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

Question 8. Children must sit on a parent's lap unless an empty seat is available.

A. occupied Β. booked C. disused D. abandoned

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea.

A. a paragraph Β. consists of C. sentences D. related to

Question 10. The train to Ho Chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o' clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi capital left at half past six o'clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.

A. precisely Β. as usually C. which D. exactly

Question 11. Whether life in the countryside is better than that in the city depend on each individual's point of view .

A. Whether Β. that C. depend on D. point of view

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as .

A. cats and dogs Β. salt and pepper

C. chalk and cheese D. here and there

Question 13. A washing machine of this type will certainly normal domestic use.

A. stand up for Β. come up with C. get on to D. take down with

Question 14. Half of the children were away from school last week because of of influenza.

A. a break- out Β. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak

Question 15. It's a formal occasion so we'll have to to the nines - no jeans and pullovers this time!

A. hitch up Β. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up

Question 16. There seems to be a large between the number of people employed in service industries, and those employed in the primary sectors.

A. discrimination Β. discretion C. discrepancy D. extinction

Question 17. All students must hand their homework the day after it is assigned.

A. out Β. on C. to D. in

Question 18. I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been for a long time. It was bound to affect his health sooner or later.

A. having his cake and eating it Β. burning the candles at both hands

C. playing with fire D. going to town

Question 19. The climber into difficulties when there was a sudden storm.

A. came Β. met C. had D. got

Question 20. I picked up the wrong bag by .

A. mistake Β. purpose C. luck D. fault

Question 21. Most scientists believe that the day robots will become a part of our lives will come .

A. from time to time Β. more or less C. sooner or later D. later than never

Question 22. The mass media are of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings, radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet.

A. models Β. modes C. parts D. types

Question 23. If there are aliens out there, do you think they are much more advanced than we are?

A. technological Β. technologically C. technology D. technologies

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Imagine you are studying English at a small college in the Midwestern United States. The local newspaper rarely has news about your native country. (24) , it prints very little foreign news, but this does not bother you at all. You sit comfortably in your apartment, turn on your (25) computer, and ask for the foreign news. The screen is immediately (26) with news from (27) _ the world.

Computers have (28) an information “superhighway”. Today, computers can work together - they can network with each other. The worldwide computer network is called the Internet. Using the Internet, you can find all kinds of information and news from people and countries around the world.

Question 24. A. Despite Β. In fact C. Because D. Although

Question 25. A. person Β. personified C. personally D. personal

Question 26. A. filled Β. full C. made D. taken

Question 27. A. in Β. on C. all above D. all over

Question 28. A. written Β. created C. composed D. invented

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.

Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as "Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?" There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.

The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation - building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent - that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting

salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.

Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.

Question 29. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. questions Β. answers C. features D. jobs

Question 30. The word "assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by .

A. discovering Β. considering C. measuring D. disposing

Question 31. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city?

A. plumbing Β. law C. retail sales D. advertising

Question 32. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that .

A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.

Β. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.

C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.

D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.

Question 33. In paragraph 4, the author suggests that .

A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.

Β. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.

C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.

D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.

Question 34. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?

A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.

Β. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.

C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.

D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.

Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.

Β. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.

C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.

D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.


Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball" in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikes-you’re-out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine-man team. The “New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban-industrial society. At its inception it was played by and for wealthy gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainment for the winners.

During the 1850-70 period the game was changing; however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under-the-table payments to exceptional players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first-nine, and their "muffins" (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870-1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional Baseball Players in 1871. The National League of Professional Base Ball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded investors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “The Sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?

A. the origins of baseball

Β. the commercialization of baseball

C. the influence of the "New York Game" on baseball

D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

Question 37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with others or become a “muffin”

Β. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that developed in baseball

C. the "New York Game" spread rapidly because it was better formalized

D. business-minded investors were only interested in profits

Question 38. The word "inception" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. requirements Β. beginning C. insistence D. rules

Question 39. The word “lavish” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. prolonged Β. very generous C. grand D. extensive

Question 40. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true EXCEPT .

A. commercialism became more prosperous

Β. the clubs are smaller

C. outstanding players got extra income

D. people gamed on the outcome of games

Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s "Golden Age"?

A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields

Β. a weekly periodical commenced

C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed

D. profits soared

Question 42. The word "somewhat" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to.

A. to a significant extent Β. to a minor extent

C. to not the same extent D. to some extent

Question 43. The word "itself" in paragraph 2 refers to .

A. the Western League Β. growing cities

C. the Midwest D. the American League


Question 44. Ben. “ ”. Jane. "Never mind.”

A. Congratulations! How wonderful!

Β. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.

C. Thank you for being honest with me.

D. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?

Question 45. Peter. – “All right. Keep your receipt. If something comes up, you can show it to us, and we'll give you a refund.”

Tom. “ ”.

A. OK. I won't use it. Β. Thanks. I’ll put it in a safe place.

C. You’re welcome. See you later, D. Thanks you. I'll keep it for you.

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. The staff couldn't have worked any harder, and they could not even finish half of the order all the week.

A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might have finished all the order by the end of the week.

Β. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they did not work as hard as they should have.

C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as hard as they claimed they did.

D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff worked as hard as they could.

Question 47. You needn't have taken so many warm clothes there.

A. It's not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.

Β. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don't need.

C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.

D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.

Question 48. My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I.

A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily.

Β. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged her.

C. Both my sister and I would he very happy to take part in organizing the event.

D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event.

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising. They want to increase their sales.

A. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising so that they want to increase their sales.

Β. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising, but they want to increase their sales.

C. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising with the aim of increasing their sales.D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars of

advertising.

Question 50. I had two job offers upon graduation. Neither of them was appropriate for my qualifications.

A. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.

Β. Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.

C. The two jobs offered to me after I graduated were inappropriate for my qualifications.

D. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications.








Question 1. A. apologize B. agree C. algebra D. aggressive

Question 2. A. likes B. tightens C. heaps D. coughs

Mark the letter A, Β, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. celebrate B. occupy C. determine D. atmosphere

Question 4. A. sensitive B. allowance C. consultant D. location


Question 5. I had to pay through the nose to get my car repaired at a service station in the middle of the desert.

A. spend less money than usual B. cost a lot of money

C. pay too much for something D. make a lot of money

Question 6. In the United States there are only a few deaths annually from rattlesnakes, with a mortality rate of less than 2 percent of those attacked.

A. percentage B. illness C. death D. survival


Question 7. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.

A. insignificant B. clear C. obvious D. thin

Question 8. These techniques to stop desert expansion are just temporary.

A. parallel B. constant C. permanent D. deliberate


Question 9. Proteins are made up of folded irregularly chains, the links of which are amino acids.

A. made up of B. folded irregularly

C. the links D. which

Question 10. Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him.

A. he knows B. about C. that D. awaited

Question 11. The astronomy is the oldest science, but it continues to be at the forefront of scientific thought.

A. the astronomy B. science C. continues D. at


Question 12. It was so quiet; you could have heard a drop.

A. pin B. feather C. leaf D. sigh

Question 13. is not clear to researchers.

A. Why did dinosaurs become extinct B. Why dinosaurs became extinct

C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct

Question 14. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has .

A. cut off B. wiped out C. seized up D. go off

Question 15. Drinking water excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.

A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of

Question 16. Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated reads a newspaper every day.

A. nearly 80 percentage of the adult population whoB. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population

C. that it is nearly 80 percentage of the adult populationD. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population

Question 17. The Artificial Intelligence expert wanted to have his assistant the newly made robot.

A. activate B. activated C. activating D. to activate

Question 18. Many materials have been used for teeth, including wood.

A. artificial B. false C. hand-made D. natural

Question 19. A lot of residents had to from the unexpected hurricane last month.

A. protect B. recover C. suffer D. save

Question 20. Each form of mass media has an important on society.

A. impact B. pressure C. affection D. role

Question 21. Many people _ television as their main source of information and entertainment.

A. rely on B. try on C. put on D. hold on

Question 22. A flat in the centre of the city might you an arm and a leg.

A. spend B. lose C. cost D. require

Question 23. The promoters called the concert because the singer had a sore throat.

A. away B. up C. off D. with


Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (24) _ for school? According to a new report, today's generations of children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (25) . Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (26)_________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.

This (27) serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children's ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects on how children perform the next day. A good night's sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep that they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (28) , catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

Question 24. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at times

Question 25. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger

Question 26. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so

Question 27. A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes

Question 28. A. rate B. extent C. level D. point


Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.

It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child's ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”

Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child's environment.

One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.

This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a child's intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child's family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence.

Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years' hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining.

People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice.

• Marry an intelligent person.• Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.• Start a child's education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.• Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.

Question 29. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires .

A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments

C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents

Question 30. The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to .

A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses

Question 31. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?

A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.B. They practiced playing their instruments for many years.C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.

Question 32. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid .

A. pushing their children too hardB. letting them play their own wayC. permitting them to follow their own interestsD. starting their education at an early age

Question 33. The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage means that in order to become a genius.

A. you need to have good health and good nourishmentB. you need intelligence and you need to develop itC. you should try to move quickly and efficientlyD. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard

Question 34. The word “favorable” in the paragraph 5 mostly means .

A. “good for someone and making him/her likely to be successful”

B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”

Question 35. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT .

A. educational development depends completely on economic well-beingB. a child's intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parentsC. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and developmentD. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure


In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.

The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs boxes and expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the throwaway must stop.

The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the bottles, wash them and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.

The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.


A. how to reduce garbage disposalB. what people often understand about the term ‘recycle’

C. what is involved in the recycling movementD. how to live sensitively to the environment.

Question 37. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?

A. Europe B. Asia C. Middle East D. South America

Question 38. What does the word “sensitive” in the phrase “sensitive to the environment” in paragraph 1 mean?

A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding

Question 39. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT .

A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things

C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers

Question 40. The word “motto” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference

Question 41. What best describes the process of reuse?

A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.

Question 42. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because

A. people are ordered to return bottles.B. returned bottles are few.C. not many bottles are made of glass or plastic.D. each returned bottle is paid.

Question 43. The word “practice” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .

A. drill B. exercise C. deed D. belief


Question 44. Brown! “ ” - Smith. “Thanks, I'll write to you as soon as I arrive in Paris.”

A. God bless you! B. Have a go!

C. Better luck next time! D. Have a nice trip!

Question 45. James. “Do you mind if I open the window?” - Carol. “ ”

A. I'd rather you didn't B. Yeah, of course

C. Please, don’t worry D. Yes, it is, isn’t it?


Question 46. I remember telling you about the due day of the exam paper.

A. I remember to tell you when the exam paper was due.

B. I think I have told you about the exam paper's due.C. I think I have told you when you sit for the exam.D. I remember I have told you when the exam paper is due.

Question 47. Friendly though he may seem, he's not very trusted.

A. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.B. However friendly he seems, he's not to be trusted.C. He may have friends, but he's not to be trusted.D. He's too friendly to be trusted.

Question 48. Alfred said to John. “I didn’t use your computer! Someone else did, not me.”

A. Alfred told John that he hadn't used his computer, saying that someone else had.B. Alfred denied having used John's computer, saying that someone else had.C. Alfred refused to use John's computer, saying that someone else had.D. Alfred said to John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.


Question 49. We know that animals need vitamins for growth and development Plants need them, too.

A. Plants are known to need the same vitamins for growth and development as do animals.B. In order to grow and develop, plants are known to need the vitamins that are produced by

animals.C. Animals need vitamins to grow and develop whereas plants need its growth and development.D. What we are that both animals and plants can produce vitamins for growth and development.

Question 50. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.








Question 1. A. amount B. country C. counter D. around

Question 2. A. education B. document C. endangered D. secondary


Question 3. A. interviewer B. inhabitant C. solidify D. relationship

Question 4. A. enter B. comment C. chemist D. proceed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.

A. expansion B. beginning C. continuation D. outcome

Question 6. Roget’s Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order.

A. regardless of B. as well as C. unless D. instead of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. She was disgusted at the way they treat their children.

A. allergic to B. delighted at C. displeased with D. angry at

Question 8. All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the university.

A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9. Measles have not yet been eradicated because of the controversy concerning immunization.

A. have not B. yet C. because of D. concerning

Question 10. With the discovery of Pluto’s moon, Charon, astronomy now think that Pluto is the smallest planet in the solar system .

A. with Β. astronomy C. the smallest D. solar system

Question 11. For more than 450 years, Mexico City has been the economic, culture and political centre of Mexican people.

A. more than Β. has been C. culture D. Mexican people


Question 12. When Mr Spendthrift ran out of money, he his mother for help.

A. fell back on Β. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with

Question 13. It's funny you should say that. I've just had the thought.

A. like Β. identical C. alike D. likely

Question 14. , I decided to stop trading with them.

A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer

Β. Though being the biggest dealer

C. Being the biggest dealerD. Even though they were the biggest dealer

Question 15. He used to do well at school having his early education disrupted by illness.

A. apart from Β. in spite of C. in addition to D. because of

Question 16. I refuse to believe a word of it; it's a cock-and- story.

A. hen Β. goose C. bull D. duck

Question 17. Why don’t you a go? It’s not difficult!

A. make Β. have C. do D. set

Question 18. How many means of do you use on a regular basis?

A. communication B. communicator

C. communicating D. communicative

Question 19. Students use the library's computers to get access the Internet.

A. for Β. to C. with D. by

Question 20. If you can’t remember his phone number, you can always it _ in the phone book.

A. take/ down Β. look/ up C. find/ out D. bring/ about

Question 21. Researchers have to the conclusion that your personality is affected by your genes.

A. come Β. got C. reached D. arrived

Question 22. You should a professional to check your house for earthquake damage.

A. have Β. get C. make D. take

Question 23. Many of the people who attended Mr David's funeral him for many years.

A. didn’t see Β. wouldn’t see C. haven't seen D. hadn't seen

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

MICHAEL FARADAY

During the last 400 years, most scientists have based on mathematics in their development of their inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make (24)_____ of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had no (25)____ beyond reading and writing.

In 1812 Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphry Davy. Later, Faraday became a greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy's life embittered with jealousy. Faraday made the first (26) _ motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement. Then Faraday became interested in the relationship between electricity and magnetism. In 1831 he discovered that when a magnet is moved near a wire, electricity flows in the wire. With this discovery he produced a machine for making electricity called a dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects chemical (27) .

Because Faraday believed that money should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he was destitute. (28) , Queen Victoria rewarded him for his discoveries by giving him a stipend and a house. He died in 1867.

Question 24. A. usage Β. advantage C. use D. utilization

Question 25. A. instruction Β. knowledge C. training D. schooling Question 26. A. electric Β. electronics C. electricity D. electrician

Question 27. A. matters Β. substances C. materials D. equations Question 28. A. Still Β. So C. However D. Yet

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the speaker’s tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and/or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.

Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.


A. The function of the voice in performance

Β. The connection between voice and personality

C. Communication stylesD. The production of speech

Question 30. What does the author mean by stating that "At interpersonal levels, tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"?

A. Feelings is expressed with different words than ideas are.

Β. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.

C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.

Question 31. The word "Here" in paragraph 1 refers to .

A. interpersonal interactions Β. the tone

C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen

Question 32. The word ''derived" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. discussed Β. prepared C. registered D. obtained

Question 33. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person’s .

A. general physical health Β. personality

C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality

Question 34. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide .

A. hostility Β. shyness C. friendliness D. strength

Question 35. The word "drastically” in line paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. frequently Β. exactly C. severely D. easily

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.

As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.

The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.

Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.

Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers: cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children “efficiently” in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.

Question 36. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education in the United States was .

A. the growing number of schools in frontier communities

Β. an increase in the number of trained teachers

C. the expanding economic problems of schoolsD. the increased urbanization of the entire country

Question 37. The word "means" is closest in meaning to .

A. advantages Β. probability C. method D. qualifications

Question 38. The phrase ''coincided with" is closest in meaning to .

A. was influenced by Β. happened at the same time as

C. began to grow rapidly D. ensured the success of

Question 39. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that .

A. most places required children to attend school

Β. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited

C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional educationD. adults and children studied in the same classes

Question 40. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned to illustrate .

A. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools

Β. the importance of educational changes

C. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programsD. the increased impact of public schools on students

Question 41. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _______ .

A. different groups needed different kinds of education

Β. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them

C. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progressD. more women should be involved in education and industry

Question 42. The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to .

A. consumption Β. production C. homemaking D. education

Question 43. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of .

A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States

Β. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States

C. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United StatesD. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States

Mark the letter A, Β, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 44. – “ ” – “No, I can manage. Thank you.”

A. Can you give me a hand with this please?

Β. Do you need their support?

C. Can you manage the job?

D. Let me carry the bag for you.

Question 45. Tom. “I don’t have my glasses. I can’t read the menu.” - Jane. “ ”

A. I am going to read it to you Β. I will read it to you

C. I have read it to you D. I will be reading it to you

Math the letter A, Β, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. Although Christopher was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.

A. Despite his superior strength, Christopher was soon overpowered by his attacker.

Β. Christopher was stronger, but he overpowered his attacker after a while.

C. Christopher lost because he was stronger than his attacker.D. Christopher was too strong to be overpowered by his attacker.

Question 47. He could have gone by bus and so saved a lot of money.

A. He wouldn’t have saved much money if he had taken the bus.

Β. He would have gone by bus if he had saved money for the fare.

C. He traveled by bus, and it didn’t cost him much.

D. He would have spent less money if he had traveled by bus.

Question 48. I have every intention of finding out who is responsible for the graffiti.

A. I fully intend to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.

Β. I have all the intention to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.

C. Who is responsible for the graffiti is one of my concerns.

D. I am intentional to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. Therefore, he opened the window.

A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.

Β. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.

C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.

D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

Question 50. No one but the experts were able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.

A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.

Β. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for the experts.

C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.

D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn't genuine.

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