Theme 1. ANESTHESIOLOGY IN DENTAL MEDICINE - … · D. stomatitis, herpes, acute apical...
Transcript of Theme 1. ANESTHESIOLOGY IN DENTAL MEDICINE - … · D. stomatitis, herpes, acute apical...
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Theme 1. ANESTHESIOLOGY IN DENTAL MEDICINE - BIBLIOGRAFIE:
Sub redactia EUGENIA POPESCU, autori CARMEN GABRIELA STELEA, OTILIA
BOIȘTEANU: LOCAL REGIONAL ANESTHESIA IN DENTAL MEDICINE, Ed.,, GR.T.
POPA IAȘI 2017,,
1. *Check the wrong answer on the Gasser's ganglion:
A. Three terminal branches are detached: the ophthalmic, the
maxillary and the mandibular branches.
B. Is located on anterior-inferior face of the petrous part of the
temporal bone.
C. Is located in a fibrous fossa , called Mecke's cave.
D. The ophthalmic nerve is detached from the Gasser's ganglion
E. The tract of the sensory root ends in the concavity of the ganglion.
B Pag,
101
2. The correct margin of the malar area is:
A. Superior: the inferior orbital ridge.
B. Posterior: a vertical line overlapped with the maxillary-malar
suture
C. Anterior: the maxillary-malar suture
D. Inferior: a horizontal line stretching from the lower edge of the
malar bone to the wing of the nose.
E. Posterior: a vertical line through the tragus.
CE Pag.96
3. The muscular plane from the labial region are:
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Depressor septi
C. Masseter
D. Buccinator
E. Risorius
ABC Pag. 93
4. In children, the locoregional anesthesia shows a series of particularities
determined by the following anatomical factors:
A. The infraorbital foramen is located higher relatjve to the distance
between the inferior edge of the eye and the edge of the alveolar
process
B. The maxillary tuberosity is more tilted
C. The retro-incisive foramen is closer to the gingival edge
D. The mandibular angle is wider
E. The mandibular bone has a spongy structure throughout its entire
surface.
BCDE Pag.26
5. The American Heart Association listed the following cardiovascular lesions
requiring caution during dental treatment, with one exception:
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Hypertension
C. Chronic valve lesions
D. Cardiac rheumatism
E. Myocardical infarction
ABCE Pag.33
6. *The normal value of platelet counts is :
A. 150000/dL – 400000/dL;
B. 80000/dL – 100000/dL;
C. 30000/dL – 50000/dL;
D. 100000/dL – 140000/dL;
A Pag. 41
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E. 50000/dL – 80000/dL.
7. Infraorbital nerve block is NOT anesthetized:
A. The lower eyelid
B. The central incisor
C. The nazal floor
D. The fibrous mucosa of the anterior 1/3 of the palate
E. The superior eyelid
CDE Pag.
117
THEME 2.
Dental Extraction (pag. 39-41, 42-54, 54-58, 58-61, 61-64, 64-66, 71,72)
8. *The tooth extraction do not have the following general contraindications,
with one exception:
A. hepatic dysfunctions, AIDS infection, immunosuppressive drugs,
chemotherapy radiotherapy, cardiovascular disease,
hemorragiparous syndrome diabetes mellitus, acute leukemia,
anticoagulant therapies
B. hemorragiparous syndrome, diabetes mellitus, anticoagulant
therapies, hepatic dysfunctions, chemotherapy radiotherapy, severe
rhinogenic sinusitis, cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, AIDS
infection, immunosuppressive drugs
C. cardiovascular diseases, hemorragiparous syndrome, diabetes
mellitus, acute leukemia, anticoagulant therapies, drug or local
anesthetic allergy, acute dental infections, seizure disorders,
cerebrovascular accidents, hepatic dysfunctions, nephropathy
D. stomatitis, herpes, acute apical periodontitis, acute sinusitis, acute
pericoronitis, abscesses, suppuration
E. bisphosphonate treatment
A 41
9. The following are not indications for tooth extraction:
A. teeth with pulpitis
B. teeth which may cause, produce or maintain local infectious
complications, regional or general
C. irretrievable remaining roots
D. pulp gangrene and its associated complications
E. teeth with enamel defects
AE 39
10. The following are not indications for tooth extraction:
A. chronic pulpitis
B. simple decays
C. irretrievable remaining roots
D. pre-inflammatory hyperemia
E. crown fractures
ABDE 39
11. The following are indications for tooth extraction of temporary teeth:
A. teeth affected by physiological rhizalysis within or after the period
of their normal replacement
B. teeth undergoing complications due to pulp gangrene
C. teeth related to traumatic injuries
ABCD 40
3
D. the orthodontist’s advice
E. teeth with coronary injuries
12. The tooth extraction does not have the following local contraindications:
A. chronic dental infections
B. chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
C. stomatitis
D. bisphosphonate treatment
E. pregnancy
ABDE 41
13. The instruments required for the extraction of maxillary teeth are the
following:
A. curved forceps
B. mirror
C. straight elevator
D. curve elevator
E. forceps
BCE 44
14. The maxillary central incisors extraction technique involves the following
procedures :
A. the forceps application
B. the index finger of the left hand is placed on the alveolar buccal
process
C. the syndesmotomy
D. the thumb is positioned on the buccal alveolar process
E. the luxation of the tooth using the elevator
ABCE 44
THEME 3.
Chapter 4. Disorders of Permanent Tooth Eruption (pag. 107-108, 108-114, 114-124)
15. *The associated disorders of the tooth eruption are:
A. the dental ectopy
B. the dental crowding
C. the dental inclusion
D. the neurological and trophic disorders
E. the dental transpozition
D 107-
108
16. Which are the chronological disorders of the permanent tooth eruption:
A. the dental crowding
B. the precocious eruption
C. the delayed eruption
D. the neurological disorders
E. the septic complications
BC 107
17. The topographic disorders of the permanent tooth eruption are:
A. the heterotopias
B. the dental transposition
C. the dental inclusion
D. the dental exclusion
E. the precocious eruption
AB 107
4
18. The considered criteria to determine the surgical steps and the difficulty degree
of the mandibular third molar odontectomy are connected to:
A. the relation with the sinus
B. the relation with the tuberosity
C. the tooth morphology
D. the dimension of the pericoronary (follicular) sack
E. the nature of the overlying tissue
CDE 114
19. The treatment options that can be considered for impacted teeth are:
A. the amputation
B. the dental extraction
C. the guided eruption
D. the modification of dentition only with orthodontic treatment for
impacted molars
E. the modification of dentition only with the orthodontic treatment
BCE 124
20. The radiological examination used in dental impaction can evaluate:
A. the impacted tooth position
B. the relation with the antagonist teeth
C. the possible alergic complication
D. neurological disorders
E. the anatomical proximity (inferior alveolar canal maxillary sinus).
AE 108
21. According to Bucur’s classification the disorders that may happen during
tooth eruption fall into the following categories:
A. associated disorders
B. static disorders
C. demographic disorders
D. chronological disorders
E. dynamic disorders
ADE 107
Theme 4.
Chapter 3. Endodontic Surgery (pag.77-99, 99-101, 101-104)
22. The main techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:
A. apical resection
B. gingival resection
C. periapical curettage
D. transmaxilary drainage
E. all of the above
ACD 77
23. Some techniques in endodontic surgery refer to:
A. radicular amputation/ hemisection
B. odontectomy
C. dental extraction
D. dental extraction
E. periapical curettage
AE 77
24. Apical resection represents:
A. disposal of the dental apex
B. tightening of the root canal (root canal filling)
AB 77
5
C. radicular resection
D. exposal of all root
E. exposal of the tooth
25. The purpose of the apical resection is:
A. removal of periapical pathological tissue
B. composite crown filling
C. removal of mouth inflammation and infection
D. cessation of bacterial dispersal from the root canal
E. root canal filling as appropriately as possible
ADE 77
26. The apical resection is indicated when:
A. the crown filling has failed
B. the periodontal treatment has failed
C. the endodontic treatment is not possible
D. the apex cannot be approached but surgical
E. the preservation of the tooth is desirable
CDE 77
27. Which of the following are indications for the apical resection:
A. results from iatrogenic cases
B. results from lack of instruments
C. results from good endodontic instrumentation
D. results from lack of radiography
E. is made by the patient
AB 77
28. The apical resection is also recommended in the following situations:
A. severe periodontal radiolucency
B. severe tooth mobility
C. acute apical abscess
D. chronic apical periodontitis
E. ramification of the canals in the apical delta impossible to be
operated
DE 78
THEME 5.
Chapter 5. Surgical Preprosthetic Procedures (pag. 127-136, 136-139)
29. *The preprosthetic surgery consists of the:
A. surgical interventions treating the periapical osteitis
B. enucleating the folicule of the tooth
C. preparing for prosthetic surgery
D. first part of the prosthetic surgery
E. surgical interventions aimed at creating the necessary conditions for
the stability of the total denture
E 127
30. The soft tissue preprosthetic surgery is indicated in the next circumstances:
A. hypertrophy of the gingival mucosa
B. short or voluminous labial frenulum
C. parodontitis marginalis
D. prominent palatal tori
E. gingival fibromatosis at the level of maxillary tuberosity
ABE 127
31. The upper or lower lip frenum: ABC 127
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A. is covered with mucosa
B. is inserted at the level of the lip and alveolar periosteum
C. is formed by the fibrous tissue
D. pathologically can go down to the level of torus
E. with ulceration represent an indication for preprosthetic surgery
32. Conjunctival epithelial hyperplasia:
A. produced by the chronic irritation from an incorrect adapted
B. it is only upper jaw located
C. it is named also denture hyperplasia
D. need one of the preprosthetic surgery methods
E. is a pseudo-tumoral or inflammatory formation
ACDE 130
33. Gingival hyperplasia:
A. represents the increase of the conjuctival tissue of the alveolar crest
mucosa
B. mostly situated in the maxillary molar area
C. it is excised at the same time with the extraction of the highly
mobile teeth and is followed by its suture
D. consists of a slow progressive inflammatory volume increase of the
gum
E. has an infectious etiology – mechanical hormonal or
medicamentary either located in a certain tooth or in a whole group
of teeth or generalized
CDE 132
34. The fibromatosis of the maxillary tuberosity (tuber maxillae):
A. prevents the wearing of the denture
B. reduces the inter-maxillary distance sometimes determining a direct
contact between the antagonist teeth
C. need an orange slice incision who is practiced in such a way that it
includes the buccal and lingual slope of the formation
D. after the suture is not indicated the application of the rebased
denture
E. represents a volume increase of the conjuctival tissue of the
alveolar crest mucosa in the maxillary molar area
ABCE 133
35. The balancing crest (pendulous tissues):
A. need postoperative the wearing of the rebased denture
B. it is necessary to be postoperative secondary healed.
C. need to be operated an incision around the formation implantation
base practised parallel to the alveolar crest followed by an excision
at the periosteum level and suture
D. is a thin hyperplasia area at the level of an edentate crest
E. result from the wearing of an incorrect adapted denture
ACDE 133
THEME 6.
Oro-maxillo-facial infections
36. *Which of the following is the correct sequence of the transosseous path:
A. Periapical, endoosseous, periosseous, subperiostal
B. Pericapical, periosseous, subperiostal, endoosseous
D
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C. Submucosal, soft tissue, subperiostal, periapical
D. Periapical, endoosseous, subperiostal, submucosal/ periosseous
spaces, soft tissues
E. Soft tissues, periosseous spaces/ submucosal, subperiostal,
periapical, endoosseous
37. Which of the following signs is encountered in the case of mandibular
osteomyelitis?
A. Chvostek sign
B. Vincent d’alger sign
C. Horner sign
D. Hypoesthesia in the territory of the mandibular nerve
E. Courvoisier sign
BD
38. The differential diagnosis of the submental abscess does not includes the
following
A. Submandibular space infections
B. Sublingual space infections
C. Vestibular abscess
D. Suppurated submental adenitis
E. Migratory abscess
ACE
39. Etiology of parotidian lodge infections
A. Infratemporal suppurations
B. Maxillary sinusitis
C. Complication of the mandibular fractures
D. Suppurated parotiditis
E. Neighbor lodge (genian, latero-pharyngian)
DE
40. Differential diagnosis of submandibulary lodge isn’t done with
A. Septic phlegmon of the floor of the mouth
B. Whartonitis
C. Periwhartonitis
D. Adenitis
E. Acute cellulitis
BCE
41. Which of the following is true about supramylogyoid lodge infections
A. The skin is shiny in the submandibular region
B. Differential diagnosis with whartonitis and ranula
C. Differential diagnosis cancer of the floor of the mouth
D. Clinical sign swelling of the posterior floor of the mouth
E. Clinical sign-the deformation of the sub-chin area
BCE
42. Which of the following is true about submandibulary lodge incfections
A. In the front they communicate with carotid lodge
B. Posterior and up the parotidiene lodge
C. Content:n. Lingual, the lingual v. And a.
D. Content: 3 lymph-nodes groups
E. Differential diagnosis with adenitis
DE
8
THEME 7.
Maxillary sinus diseases with dental origins
43. *Untreated acute maxillary sinusitis can be followed by the development of:
A. Buccal abscess
B. Masseteric abscess
C. Temporal space abscess
D. Pilonidal abscess
E. Parotid space abscess
A
44. The following maxillary teeth are in close relation with the maxillary sinus:
A. First molar
B. First premolar
C. Second premolar
D. Lateral incisor
E. Third molar
ABCE
45. The following statements are true regarding the maxillary sinus:
A. It is present in the new-born
B. It opens in the inferior meatus
C. Its development is complete at the age of 25
D. Its development is complete at the age of 7
E. It opens in the middle meatus
ACE
46. The contributing factors of the maxillary sinusitis are:
A. Decrease of mucus secretion
B. Local and general factors
C. Chronic inflammation of the sinus mucosa
D. Vitamin therapy
E. Immunosuppression
BCE
47. The determinant factors of maxillary sinusitis of dental origin can be:
A. Oro-nasal fistula
B. Serous pulpitis
C. Periapical osteitis
D. Infected radicular cysts
E. Chronic periodontal disease
ACD
48. The clinical signs of chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin are
represented by the following enounces:
A. Presence of bilateral pain and purulent drainage
B. High fever
C. Morning cephalalgia
D. Morning pain in the affected sinus region
E. Overnight pain in the affected sinus region
CD
49. The chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin is characterised by the
following statements except for:
A. Moderate local pain in the morning
B. Intense pain during the night
C. Nasal obstruction
D. Moderate local pain when tilting the head downward
E. Intense local pain in orthostatic position
BE
9
THEME 8.
Oro-maxillo-facial traumatology
50. The following statements about the mechanisms of mandibular fracture are
correct:
A. Pression
B. Compaction
C. Flexion (bending)
D. Concussion
E. Traction (pulling)
ABCE
51. The following statements regarding the symptoms of certainty in mandible
fracture are false:
A. Superficial abrasion
B. abnormal bone mobility , crepitations, crackles
(intra-oral exam–bimanual palpation )
C. Deep wound, Interruption of tissue continuity, abrasion
D. Accumulation of extravagated blood following the breakdown of
deeper or larger blood vessels
E. Malocclusion
ACD
52. By the degree of interest of the thickness of the bone mandible fractures can
be:
A. Direct fractures (at the injury site)
B. Indirect fractures (away from traumatic agent)
C. Partial fractures (limited)
D. Indirect fractures (at the injury site )
E. Total fractures
CE
53. Oro-maxilo-facial trauma is classified as :
A. Mandible fractures
B. Facial fractures (zygoma-malar complex)
C. Hemorrhage
D. Dental-parodontal lesions
E. Masseterin hematoma
ABD
54. Evaluation of a patient with an injury in the territory of cranio-maxillo-facial
has to contain:
A. It has to start with the history
B. The history is not important
C. Clinical examination is essential
D. Will be associated with a photographic documentation
E. Blood tests and Ct-scans are essential
ACD
55. The following statements regarding late complications of mandible fractures
are false:
A. temporo-mandibular joint ankylosis
B. constriction
C. asphyxia
D. dissecting haematomas of the floor of the mouth
E. vicious consolidation – incorrect fixation
CD
56. The emergency (immediate) treatment of mandible fracture consists in:
A. surgical means : osteosynthesis
CDE
10
B. mixed: orthopaedic+ surgical
C. orthopaedic : intercranial-maxillary (mandibular-cranial)
mento-cephalic bandage and chin device with bonnet
D. Ivy ligatures
E. transportation of patients
Theme 9.
Cysts and benign tumors of the oral, cervical and facial soft tissues
57. The following statements are true concerning the tyroglossal cyst:
A. It is mobilised with the deglutition
B. Usually located in the midline
C. It extends from the base of the tongue to the tip
D. Surgical treatment implies the removal of a portion of the hyoid
bone
E. It is located anterior and beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle
ABD
58. The brachial cyst must be differentiated from:
A. Carotid glomus tumours
B. Cervical lymph node metastasis
C. Cervical lipoma
D. Dermoid kyst
E. Cervical lymphangiomas
ABCE
59. The differential diagnosis of the dermoid cyst consists of the following
entities:
A. Teratoid cyst
B. Ranula
C. Branchial cyst
D. Submental adenitis
E. Sublingual space abscess
ABDE
60. The tyroglossal cyst must be differentiated from the following entities:
A. Brachial cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Ranula
D. Submental adenitis
E. Laterocervical adenitis
BCD
61. The differential diagnosis of the gingival piogen granuloma is not made with:
A. Neurinoma
B. Fibrous epulis
C. Lipoma
D. Malignant tumours of the alveolar ridge mucosa
E. Osteoma
ACE
62. The granulomatous epulis:
A. It is located in the vestibular fold
B. It is the most frequent form of oral piogen granuloma
C. It is located in the interdental space
D. Related to a subgingival cavity or poorly adapted prosthesis
BCDE
11
E. Associated with poor oral hygene
63. Benign masseteric hypertrophy should be differentiated from:
A. Acute adenitis
B. Parotid tumours
C. Tumours of the mandibular ramus
D. Acute periodontitis
E. Masseteric abscess
BCE
Theme 10.
Cysts, benign tumours and osteopathies of maxillary bones
64. *Keratinizing and calcifying odontogenic cyst is a:
A. Epithelial tumor
B. Mixte tumor
C. Mesenchymal tumor
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D
65. The following can be said about central fibroma
A. Develop at any age, especially at the olders
B. Develop at any age, especially in children
C. Develop at any age most often in the maxilla
D. Develop at any age most often in the ethmoid
E. Clinical at radiographic aspects unusual
CE
66. Which of the following are mesenchymal tumors:
A. Odontogenic fibroma
B. Odontogenic fibromixoma
C. Complex odontoma
D. Compound odontoma
E. Ameloblastic fibroma
AB
67. Which of the following are mixte tumors:
A. Ameloblastic fibroma
B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C. Compound odontoma
D. Compound fibroma
E. Cementoblastoma
ABC
68. Ameloblastoma:
A. Is a epithelial tumor
B. Origin: epithelial, from the dental lamina
C. Has a fast growth, short evolution
D. Has a slow growth, short evolution
E. Has a fast growth, fast evolution
AB
69. The following are nonodontogenic epithelial cysts:
A. Naso-palatin canal cyst
B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
C. Stafne bone cyst
D. Dermoid cyst
E. Globulo maxillar cyst
ADE
12
70. Which of the following is not a nonepithelial cyst:
A. Globulo maxillar cyst
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Aneurysmal bone syst
D. Traumatic bone cyst
E. Stafne bone cyst
AB
Theme 11.
Oro-maxillo-facial malign tumors
71. Risk factors for cancer of oral cavity:
A. Alcohol
B. Tobacoo
C. Diet and nutrition
D. Drugs
E. Genetic
ABCE
72. The following statements about tobacco are true:
A. Changes the oral temperature
B. Increases of Ca+ and K+
C. Decreased saliva
D. Reduction of salivary amylase
E. Biological modification of the oral mucosa
ADE
73. The following statements about tobacco are false:
A. Doze risk > 40g ethanol for men
B. Toxic from alcohol = methanol
C. Ethanol is not a co-carcinogenic factor
D. 40 g ethanol = 1 liter of beer
E. Toxic from alcohol = ethanol
BC
74. Premalignant lesions of oral mucosa are :
A. Candida albicans
B. Leukoplakia
C. Lichen Planus
D. Erythroplakia
E. Oral thrush
BCD
75. The following statements about erythroplakia is true :
A. White stain, vivid, smooth
B. Red stain, vivid, smooth
C. It represents an “In situ” carcinoma
D. It is an ulcerative lesions
E. Shapes: agranular (flat), granular
BCE
76. Causes of delayed detection of cancer are :
A. It is noticed by the patient
B. It is not noticed by the patient
C. It is recognized by the dentist
D. Escapes dental exam
E. Hidden areas of risk (lateral tongue, posterior pharynx , floor of
the mouth)
BDE
13
77. Methods of early diagnosis for clinically manifest forms are:
A. CT- scan
B. Dental Rx.
C. Stomatoscopy
D. Intravital staining
E. Determination gene p53 suppression
CDE
Theme 12.
The pathology of temporo-mandibular joint
78. The pathologic TMJ sounds are:
A. Pops
B. Squeaks
C. Crackles
D. Rhonchi
E. Rubs
AB
79. The otologic signs for TMJ pathology are:
A. Tinnitus
B. Othematoma
C. Ear pain
D. Vertigo
E. Hearing loss
AE
80. The maxim intrercuspidation:
A. Is obtained by normal opened position
B. It is a loose position
C. Is a position of joint balance, with myocentric relationship
D. Is obtained by normal closed position
E. Is the position of leaving and returning all mandibular movements
DE
81. The centric relation is not defined by
A. Is obtained by normal opened position
B. It is a stable position
C. Is a position of joint balance, with myocentric relationship
D. Is obtained by normal closed position
E. Is a position of joint balance, without myocentric relationship
ABDE
82. The premature contacts are usually found on:
A. The distal cusps of the maxillary teeth
B. The mesial cusps of the mandibular teeth
C. The mesial cusps of the maxillary teeth
D. The distal cusps of the mandibular teeth
E. The distolingual cusp of the second molar
CD
83. In case of TMJ pathology, in the synovial fluid you can find:
A. Germs on direct examination or culture
B. Disodium urate crystals
C. Calcium pyrophosphate
D. Calcium urate crystals
E. Amyloid bodies
ACE
84. The radiological signs for septic arthritis are NOT: ABD
14
A. Widening of the joint space
B. Bone condensation in the 10th day
C. Bone hyper transparency in the 8th day
D. Lockjaw
E. None of the above
Theme 13.
The pathology of salivary glands
85. The Warthin tumor:
A. Malignant tumor
B. Always unilateral
C. Can be bilateral
D. Benign tumor
E. Linked with smoking
CDE
86. The adenoid cystic carcinoma:
A. It never gives distant metastasis
B. It is associated with nervous invasion
C. It has increased risk of distant metastasis
D. It never involves the facial nerve
E. It is associated especially with bone invasion
BC
87. The following tumors are benign tumors of the salivary glands:
A. Odontoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
E. Warthin tumor
BE
88. The following tumors are benign tumors of the salivary glands:
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Monomorph adenoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
E. Warthin tumor
AC
89. Parotid metastasis:
A. Lymphatic metastasis come from the drained territory: scalp,
auricular region
B. Is never encountered in association with skin cancer in the drained
territory
C. Lymphatic metastasis come from the drained territory: neck and
occipital region
D. Hematogenous metastasis come from the drained territory: scalp,
auricular region
E. Is encountered in association with skin cancer in the drained
territory
AE
90. The following statements are true concerning the c at scratch disease except:
A. Penicillins and retroviral drugs are used for treatment
B. Treponema pallidum is the etiologic agent
ABD
15
C. Rochalimaea henselae is the etiologic agent
D. Listeria monocistogenes is the etiologic agent
E. Cyclins and macrolids are used for treatment
91. The differential diagnosis of cat scratch disease includes the following except:
A. Bacterial adenitis of the parotid gland
B. Malignant tumors of the parotid gland
C. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
D. Benign tumors of the parotid gland
E. Frey syndrome
CDE
Theme 14.
The surgical treatment of severe dento-maxillar anomalies
92. *Radiographic analysis used in orthognatic surgery are:
A. Cephalometric radiographs without panoramic radiograph
B. Only CBCT
C. Conventional CT and MRI
D. Cephalometric radiographs and panoramic radiograph, with or
without other radiographic examinations
E. None of the above
D
93. Indication of orthognathic surgery:
A. Severe abnormalities
B. Failed orthodontic
C. Duration of ortodontic treatment exceeded
D. Oralfacial pain
E. Surgery filling orthodontics
ABCE
94. Goals of orthognathic surgery :
A. Balancing the dental arches
B. Making space for dental implants
C. The optimization of functions
D. Normal phonetic development and maintenance of normal hearing
E. Getting a facial harmony
ACE
95. The cephalometric analysis consist in the following:
A. Maxillary and skull
B. Ears, nose, chin
C. Mandible and nose
D. Maxillary and mandibular teeth
E. Prominence of the chin to the base of mandibular dental arch
ADE
96. The surgical phase of the orthognatic treatment involves the following with
the exceptions:
A. Blood testing
B. Simulation
C. Manufacturing of surgical splints
D. Pulmonary Rx
E. Clinical evaluation and imagistic result documentation
AD
97. Among the classification of dento-facial deformities we find the following
except :
BCDE
16
A. abnormal maxillary and mandibular bases abnormal relationship
between dental arches cellular abnormalities;
B. structural teeth anomalies;
C. chin and nose hystological anomalies;
D. hyperemic apearance of the face skin;
E. eyes position.
98. In the sagittal plane:
A. The mandibular excess - too posterior position of the mandible
B. The maxillary deficiency - too anterior position of the maxilla
C. Mandibular deficiency - too posterior position of the mandible
D. Chin deficiency - too posterior chin
E. Chin excess - too earlier position of the chin
CDE
Theme 15.
Clefts
99. Syndrome Treacher Collins-dysostose mandibulofaciale contains:
A. Faun ears
B. Cyclops appearance
C. Malformation of the uvula
D. Coloboma of the lower eyelids and lack of eyelashes
E. Malar hypoplasia
DE
100. Syndrome Goldenhar contains:
A. eye-atrio-vertebral dysplasia
B. abnormalities of the external genital organs
C. mandibular hypoplasia
D. agenesis of parathyroid
E. all of the above
AC
101. Shprintzen Syndrome contains:
A. skin flanges between the pelvis and heel
B. bicycle cleft palate
C. facial asymmetry
D. thymic hypoplasia
E. popliteal strap syndrome
BD
102. The following pathologies are associated with CLP:
A. Trisomy 18
B. Trisomy 15
C. Edwards syndrome
D. Shprintzen Syndrome
E. Trisomy 21
ACD
103. The following are true about the secondary palate:
A. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th
embryonic week
B. Fusion fault between a median sagittal partition and two horizontal
partitions, palatal shelves
C. Maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process
D. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen
BE
17
E. Fusion occurs between the 7th and 12th week embryo
104. The following are true about the secondary palate:
A. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th
embryonic week
B. Fusion fault between a median sagittal partition and two horizontal
partitions, palatal shelves
C. Maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process
D. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen
E. Fusion occurs between the 7th and 12th week embryo
BE
105. The embryologic stage of the primary palate formation reveals the following:
A. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th
embryonic week (for the primary palate)
B. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen
C. Fusion of the mandibular process of default with the milohiod line;
D. maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process
E. the peripheral part of the palate is forming in front of the incisive
foramen
ABDE
Theme 16.
ORO-FACIAL PAIN
106. *Glosopharygeal nerv neuralgia implies pain in:
A. TMJ
B. Internal auditory canal
C. Anterior third of the tongue
D. Amygdala
E. Maxilar region
D
107. The etiology of orofacial pain is
A. Peripheral / central
B. Inflammation / irritation +/-
C. Hipotension
D. Vascular or nerve compression +/-
E. Vasodilatation
ABD
108. Classification of the orofacial pain is:
A. Acute stage
B. Subacute stage
C. Chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 3 months)
D. Chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 9 months)
E. Subacute stage ( pain lasting for more than 4 months)
AB
109. Drugs used to treat the trigeminal neuralgia :
A. There is no effective drug
B. Carbamazepine, diclofenac
C. The first choice drug therapy consists of 3 drugs
D. The treatment is always surgery
E. Carbamazepine, lamotrigine, baclofen
CE
110. The diagnostic evaluation is made on:
A. The patient's general dates
ABCD
18
B. The patient's medical history
C. The characteristics of the pain
D. The associated signs
E. Height and weight
111. The treatment of Horton disease is:
A. corticosteroids,
B. immunosuppressive therapy
C. Azithromycin,
D. methotrexate,
E. anti-ADN-a
ABD
112. Clinical features of Horton disease are:
A. Very intense pain, often unilateral
B. Located in the frontal or parietal region
C. Accentuated by coughing, head movements and chewing
D. The temporal artery painful or hard on palpation
E. Involvement of the ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness
ACDE
Theme 17. PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY Pediatric stomatology (Stomatologie comportamentală pediatrică - pag. 43-57, 129-177;
Elemente introductive în pedodonție - pag. 62-81; Pedodonție, traumatisme dento-parodontale
- pag. 29-50, 98-104, 111-141; Pedodonție, distrofii dentare - pag. 20-48; Periodontologie
pediatrică - pag. 43-54, 80-107; Practica pedodontică - pag. 219-248, 207-216, 251-259, 261-
280; cursuri postate pe platforma de e-learning)
113. Frankl behavioral rating scale class I, is characterized by the following elements:
A. the child is forceful crying
B. the child accepts the treatment
C. the child refuses the treatment
D. the child respects the dental appointments
E. the child is fearful
ACE Stomatol
ogie
compora
tmentală
pg.136
Slide
no.13 –
Behavio
ural
manage
ment
course
114. HOM (hand-over-mouth) method is NOT recommended to be used in:
A. too small children
B. children with psycho-mental deficiency
C. too big children
D. adults
E. children without psycho-mental deficiency
AB Stomatol
ogie
comport
amentală
pg.163
Slide
no.42 –
Behavio
ural
manage
ment
course
115. After FORTIER JP and DEMARS C (1983) the temporary teeth pulp and
pulpal-periodontal pathology comprise the following clinical forms:
A. sept syndrome
B. Turner dental syndrome
ACDE Practica
pedodon
tică
pg.222
19
C. pulp necrosis without periodontal pathology
D. furcation pathology
E. pulp necrosis with periodontal pathology
Slide 6
Tempora
ry teeth
pulp
disease_
1 course
116. Among the local factors that influence the dental eruption are NOT a part the
following:
A. temporary teeth dental trauma
B. premature extraction of temporary teeth
C. chromosomal abnormalities
D. eruptive fevers
E. central nervous system
AB Practica
pedodon
tică
pg.51
Slide 8
117. The following forms are a part of MAGITOT classification of cicatriciale
primary dental dystrophies (stable):
A. number
B. dimension (volume)
C. odontodisplasia
D. structure
E. Moser dental syndrome
ABD Pedodon
ție,
distrofii
dentare,
pg.20
118. Basic steps of cavity preparations in young permanent teeth through
ultraconservative techniques are:
A. partial removal of altered dentine
B. removal of altered enamel
C. achieving the retention shape
D. achieving the resistance shape
E. removal of unsupported enamel
BE Practica
pedodon
tică
pg.258
Slide 28
119. The following statements about dental fusion are true:
A. it is a developmental anomaly
B. affects predominantly the temporary dentition in the molars area
C. may be total
D. affects predominantly the permanent dentition in incisive-canine
area
E. may be partial
ACE Pedodonți
e, distrofii
dentare,
pg.43
120. Preparation of class III cavities in temporary teeth is aimed on:
A. achieve the access as far as possible from the palatal surface
B. achieve the access as far as possible from the mesial or distal surface
C. restoration of the affected physiognomy
D. access achieve can be done also from the vestibular surface when
there are physiological spaces
E. access achieve can be done also from the vestibular surface when
there is lack of palatal substance
AC Practica
pedodonti
că pg.214
Slide
no.26 –
Temporar
y teeth
caries_2
course
Theme 18.
The role of functional factors in the development of the dento-maxillary system
20
121. *The strong development of goniac angle region is caused by the emphasized
activity of the following muscles:
A. masseter and internal pterygoid
B. masseter and external pterygoid
C. masseter and mylohyoid
D. masseter and hyoid
E. external and internal pterygoid
A Gh.
Boboc,
Pg. 405
122. The interposition of the lower lip can determine:
A. Upper proclination
B. Lower proclintion
C. Upper retroclination
D. Lower retroclination
E. Upper and lower proclination
AD Gh.
Boboc,
Pg. 443
123. Heterotopically interposition imply the interposition
between dental arches of:
A. Elements that do not belong to dento-maxillary system
B. Elements that belong to dento-maxillary system
C. Fingers
D. Pencil
E. Tongue
ACD Gh.
Boboc,
Pg.437
124. For developing a dento-maxillary anomaly by vicious habits, the following
conditions are needed:
A. The intensity of the vicious habit
B. The duration of the vicious habit
C. The frequency of the vicious habit
D. Pattern factor- forming deformable pattern
E. No answer is correct
ABCD Gh.
Boboc,
Pg 444
Theme 19.
The development of dental occlusion
125. *During mixed dental occlusion development it takes place:
A. the first occlusion height
B. the first mesial movement (drift) of the mandible
C. the third occlusion height
D. the second mesial movement (drift) of the mandible
E. the second occlusion height
E Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, pg. 45
126. *In the predental period normally it takes place:
A. the second occlusion height
B. the second mesial movement (drift) of the mandible
C. the third occlusion height
D. the first occlusion height
E. the first mesial movement (drift) of the mandible
E Doroba
t,
Stanciu
,, pg 38
127. Which of the following statements it is NOT true:
A. deciduous teeth break out every 12 months
B. during the first year of life, the alveolar arches become wider and
higher due to the development of the dental excrescences
AC Doroba
t,
Stanciu
21
C. during eruption, the lower incisors have a lingual movement,
determining a decreased arch perimeter
D. dental attrition determines the second mesial movement (drift) of
the mandible
E. the lower central incisors erupt in a more lingual position than the
deciduous incisors
, pg.40-
42
128. The post-lacteal plane:
A. in mesial step gives a mesialized relation
B. in slight mesial step gives a cusp in intercuspal groove relation
C. in mesial step gives a cusp to cusp relation
D. in straight terminal plane gives a cusp to cusp relation of the first
molar
E. in distal step gives a distalized relation at the molars
ABDE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg. 43
129. The first permanent molar eruption:
A. gives the second occlusion height
B. modifies the arch form
C. by the mesializing spurt doesn’t reduce the primate space
D. modifies the arch length
E. modifies the form of the arch from semielliptical the semicircle
ABD Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg 45
Theme 20.
The etiopathogeny of dento-maxillary anomalies
130. *Premature loss of temporary teeth can have the following consequences, with
the exception of:
A. Serious three-dimensional disorders in the dental arch
B. Dento-alveolar crowding
C. Supereruption of the anatagonist teeth
D. The absence of crossbite
E. Premature contacts and occlusal interferences
D Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg 74
131. At the patients with Turner syndrome, one can observe the following aspects:
A. mandibular retrognathia
B. number dental anomalies
C. mesioclusion
D. shape dental anomalies
E. mandibular prognathia
ABD Zegan,
pg. 85
132. At the patients with Turner syndrome can be observed the following aspects:
A. mandibular retrognathia
B. hypertelorism
C. round face
D. mandibular prognathia
E. distocclusion
ABCE Zegan,
pg. 85
133. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth can be caused by:
A. Genetic pattern
B. Teratogenic factors
C. General factors
ADE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg 75
22
D. Fibrous obstruction
E. Osseous obstruction
Theme 21.
Classification of dento-maxillary anomalies
134. *Division 1 of class II Angle malocclusion is characterized by:
A. Bilateral distalized relation and deep overbite
B. Bilateral mesialized relation and simple deep bite
C. Bilateral distalized relation and open bite
D. Unilateral distalized relation and deep over bite
E. Bilateral distalized relation and simple deep bite
E Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg. 78
135. *Division 2 of class II Angle malocclusion is characterized by:
A. Bilateral distalized relation and deep over bite
B. Bilateral mesialized relation and deep over bite
C. Bilateral distalized relation and open bite
D. Unilateral distalized relation and open bite
E. Bilateral distalized relation and simple deep bite
A DS, Pg.
78
136. The maxillary constriction syndrome classified by the German school has the
following variants:
A. Forced guidance
B. Protrusion with spacing
C. With deep over bite
D. With crowding
E. Protrusion without spacing
BDE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg. 79
137. The German school classifies the malocclusions in:
A. Maxillary constriction syndrome
B. Disharmonies
C. The crossbite syndrome
D. The progenic syndrome
E. The simple deep bite syndrome
ACD Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg.
79,80
138. The progenic syndrome described by the German school can be:
A. By condylar guidance
B. By forced guidance
C. False (mandibular prognathia)
D. True
E. False (maxillary retrognathia)
BDE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg. 80
Theme 22.
The radiological examination in orthodontics
139. The posterior mandibular rotation is characterized by:
A. increased lower face height
B. open gonial angle
C. decreased lower face height
AB Zegan,
Pg 61
23
D. strong mandibular condyle with upper and forward development
direction
E. the tendency to deep bite
140. The references planes used in lateral cephalometric analysis are the following:
A. Frankfurt plane- Po-Or
B. Cranial base plane - Po-Or
C. Mandibular plane- Nsa-Nsp
D. Maxillary plane- Nsa-Nsp
E. Y axis of growth- S-N
AD Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg155
141. In lateral cephalometry analysis, the 3 sides of the Tweed triangle are:
A. Frankfurt plane
B. Simion plane
C. The axis of upper incisor
D. Mandibular plane
E. The axis of lower incisor
ADE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg163
142. About the Ao-Bo distance the following statements are true:
A. Represents the absolute interbasal sagital discrepancy
B. It is in direct relation with angles SNA, SNB
C. Represents the relative interbasal sagital discrepancy
D. Is in invers relation with ANB angle
E. Completes the skeletal class
ABE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg164
Theme 23.
Class II/1 malocclusion
143. *The class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is characterized by the following
bilateral molar relation:
A. neutral and deep bite
B. mesialized and anterior crossbite
C. distalized and simple deep bite
D. buccal nonocclusion and deep over bite
E. lingual nonocclusion and anterior open bite
C Zegan,
pg 183
144. *The dysfunctional etiological factor of class II division 1 malocclusion is:
A. rachitism
B. hypophysal dwarfism
C. Marfan syndrome
D. simple anterior tongue-thrust
E. premature loss of deciduous teeth in posterior area
D Zegan,
pg 184
145. In class II division 1 Angle dento-maxillary anomalies,can ne observed the
following modification between alveolar and coronal base of the arch:
A. The apical base is small
B. The apical base is big
C. The coronal base is wide
D. The coronal base is narrow
E. No answer is correct
AC Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, pg.
385
146. The facial aspect in class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is characterized by:
A. Pale skin
ACDE Doroba
t,
24
B. Thick upper lip
C. Thin upper lip
D. Open labial slit
E. Hypertonic mentalis
Stanciu
, pg.
383
147. In class II division 1 Angle malocclusion the following can be observed:
A. Uni- or bilateral hypotonia of nasal muscles
B. Uni- or bilateral hypertonia of nasal muscles
C. Hypertonia of mentalis muscle
D. Hypertonia of lower lip
E. Hypotonia of lower lip
ACD Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, pg
385-
386
Theme 24.
Class II/2 malocclusion
148. *The class II division 2 Angle malocclusion is characterized by the following
bilateral molar relation:
A. neutral and deep bite
B. mesialized and anterior crossbite
C. distalized and deep over bite
D. distalized and simple deep bite
E. lingual nonocclusion and anterior open bite
C Zegan,
pg 189
149. *The etiological factors of class II division 1 malocclusion are:
A. genetic
B. functional
C. constitutional
D. general
E. local
A Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, pg
396
150. In malocclusion class II/2 Angle it can be observed:
A. Reduced premolar and molar diameters
B. Incisor retroclination and deep bite
C. Different degrees of dental spacing
D. Open bite
E. Different degrees of dental crowding
ABE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, pg
398
151. In class II/2 Angle malocclusion, the following clinical signs can be noticed:
A. Superficial labio-mental sulcus
B. Increased height lower face
C. Flattened chin
D. Firmly closed labial slit
E. Accentuated labio-mental sulcus
DE Zegan,
pg 190
152. In class II/2 Angle malocclusion, it can be observed different degrees of
abrasion on:
A. Buccal surface of upper incisors
B. Buccal surface of lower incisors
C. Lingual surface of lower incisors
D. Palatal surface of upper incisors
E. All the answers are correct
BD Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, pg.
398
25
Tema 25.
Class III malocclusion
153. *Class III malocclusion is characterized by:
A. distalized relation and simple deep bite
B. mesialized relation and anterior crossbite
C. distalized relation and deep over bite
D. normal relation and anterior crowding
E. no answer is correct
B Doroba
t,
Stanciu
,
Pg.405
154. At the clinical facial examination in class III malocclusion it can be noticed:
A. flat face
B. flattened cheeks
C. convex profile
D. concave profile
E. straight profile
ABD Doroba
t,
Stanciu
,
Pg.406
155. In class III malocclusion with mesialized closing path, the anterior dento-
alveolar region responasable for the reverse guidance is caractheryzed by:
A. lower proclination
B. upper retroclination
C. upper proclination
D. lower retroclination
E. no answer is correct
AB Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg
408
156. Facial aspect in mandibular prognathia is carachterized by:
A. concave profile
B. reverse lip step
C. rigid and voluntary aspect of the face
D. convex profile
E. flattened face
ABCE Zegan,
pg 207
Theme 26.
The open bite syndrome
157. *Dental phonemes whicg are affected in open bite syndrome are:
A. ‘’B’’
B. ‘’D’’ and ‘’T’’
C. ‘’M’’ and‘’T’’
D. ‘’D’’
E. ‘’C’’ and‘’T’’
B Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg
431
158. Which of the following esthetic modifications are seen in open bite syndrome:
A. hyper leptoprosopic pattern
B. labial slit is closed without effort
C. superficial labiomental sulcus
D. accentuated labiomental sulcus
E. a characteristic disharmonious profile
ACE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg
434-
435
26
159. In the open bite syndrome, the development disordes of the facial complex
involve:
A. the cranial base
B. the mandible
C. the upper maxillary
D. the dentition
E. alveolar process
ABCE Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg
436-
438
160. In the anterior open bite syndrome , the genetic factor appears in :
A. Rachitism
B. Down syndrome
C. Chondrodystrophies
D. The persistence of infant swallowing
E. No answer is correct
BC Doroba
t,
Stanciu
, Pg
419
Theme 27.
Anomalies of the dental system
161. *Complete dental transposition represents::
A. the partial positional interchange of two neighbouring teeth
B. the eruption of a tooth at the distance from the dental arch
C. the partial positional interchange of two antagonist teeth
D. the total positional interchange of two neighbouring teeth
E. the remaining inside the bone of a tooth with completely formed
root and with the apex closed
D Zegan,
Pg 168
162. In the etiopathogeny of dental transposition, the following local factors are
involved:
A. disorders in exfoliation of the deciduous tooth
B. disorders in the development of the dental buds
C. inversed sequence of eruption
D. dental trauma
E. delayed dental eruption
ABCE Zegan,
Pg 168
163. The differential diagnosis of heterotopy can be made with:
A. delayed dental eruption
B. dental impaction
C. ectopy
D. dental extraction
E. hipodontia
ABCE Zegan,
Pg 168
164. The surgical-orthodontic treatment of dental impaction consists in:
A. creating the space on the arch
B. removing the etiological causes
C. surgically revealing of the impacted tooth
D. anchoring and drawing of the tooth to the dental arch
E. tooth reimplantation
ABCD Zegan,
Pg 167
27
Theme 28.
The clinical examination in orthodontics
165. *The clinical facial examination of the patient establishes:
A. chronic general diseases
B. general indication for orthodontic treatment
C. the equality of face heights
D. psychological development
E. the beginning of puberty
C Zegan,
pg 101
166. *Functional examination of the patient:
A. establishes the normality or the abnormality of the dento-maxillarry
complex function
B. identifies parafunctions
C. identifies vicious habits
D. all the answers are correct
E. all the answers are incorrect
D Zegan,
pg 105
167. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following facial types:
A. Euryprosop
B. Mesocephal
C. Mesoprosop
D. Brachycephal
E. Leptoprosop
ACE Zegan,
pg 100
168. At the clinical facial examination, can be observed the following cephalic types:
A. Euryprosop
B. Mesocephal
C. Mesoprosop
D. Brachycephal
E. Leptoprosop
BD Zegan,
pg 100
169. The breathing function can be evaluated by the following tests:
A. Comanding 35 rhythmic inspirations
B. Comanding profound inspiration and expiration
C. Clamping the nostrils
D. Comanding 20 rhythmic inspirations
E. The mirror test
BCDE Zegan,
pg 105
Theme 29.
The analysis of the study model in orthodontics
170. *In Pont analysis of study model, the incisor sum is calculated by measuring
with compass the biggest mesio-distal coronar distance of:
A. The four lower incisor
B. The two central upper incisor
C. The two central lower incisor
D. The four upper incisor
E. The four lower incisor and the four upper incisor
D Zegan,
pg 111
171. In Pont analysis of study models, maxillary anterior width:
A. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper first premolars
AB Zegan,
pg 111
28
B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80
C. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper second premolar
D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64
E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/65
172. In Pont analysis of study models, maxillary posterior width:
A. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper first premolars
B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80
C. Is the distance between the landmarks of upper second premolar
D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64
E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/85
AD Zegan,
pg 111
173. In Pont analysis of study models, mandibular posterior width:
A. Is the distance between the landmarks of lower first premolars
B. Is calculate with the formula Six100/80
C. Is the distance between the landmarks of lower first molars
D. Is calculate with the formula Six100/64
E. Is calculate with the formula Six100/85
CD Zegan,
pg 111
Theme 30.
Principles in the orthodontic therapy
174. *The orthodontic treatment according to the means used is classified as follows:
A. prophylactic, interceptive and corrective treatment
B. biomechanical, functional and surgical treatment
C. precocious, normal and late treatment
D. etiological and morpho-functional treatment
E. morpho-functional and surgical treatment
B Zegan,
pg 226
175. The orthodontic forces can be classified by the intensity of the force in :
A. Extra-oral forces
B. Light forces
C. Intra-oral forces
D. Average forces
E. Intermittent forces
BD Zegan,
pg 246
176. The orthodontic forces can be classified by the rhythm applied in :
A. Extra-oral forces
B. Continuous forces
C. Intra-oral forces
D. Average forces
E. Intermittent forces
BE Zegan,
pg 246
177. Version is a dental movement:
A. tipping of the tooth
B. bodily movement of the tooth
C. the crown and the root move simulataneous, but in different
directions
D. in the long axis, towards the maxillary base
E. in the long axis, towards the occlusal plane
AC Zegan,
pg 248
29
Theme 31.
Removable orthodontic appliances
178. *Coffin’s arch has the following action:
A. Radial expansion of maxillary arch
B. Asymmetric expansion of maxillary arch
C. Distalization of teeth from maxillary lateral region
D. Mesialisation of teeth from mandibular lateral region
E. Derotation of teeth from frontal maxillary region
A Zegan,
pg 267
179. Anchorage elements of biomechanical removable appliances are:
A. Stahl clasp
B. Adams clasp
C. Cantilever spring
D. Labial shield
E. Coffin arch
AB Zegan,
pg 264-
265
180. Double loop spring is indicated in:
A. Palato-version of incisior
B. Vestibulo-version of incisior
C. Rotation of incisior
D. Mesialisation of incisior
E. Ectopy of incisior
AC Zegan,
pg 270
181. About Schwarz applice the following statements are true:
A. It is a mixed removabile appliance
B. It is indicated in maxillary symmetrical compression with
mandibular functional retrusion
C. It has a palatal baseplate and anterior guide plane
D. It has a lingual baseplate and a retroincisal bite plane
E. It is indicated in functional mandibular prognathia
ABC Zegan,
pg 273
Theme 32.
Functional orthodontic appliances
182. *The following statements are true about the type III Frankel regulator, with one
exception:
A. is an elastic activator
B. is indicated for the correction of class III malocclusion by functional
causes, in mixed dentition
C. is indicated for the correction of class II/2 maloclusion by functional
causes, in mixed dentition
D. is a miodynamic activator
E. the principle of action is based on the concept of recovery functional
oral space
C Zegan,
pg 285
183. *Robin’s monobloc has the following characteristics, with one exception:
A. is a functional removable appliance
B. is a functional bimaxillary appliance
C. is a functional elastic appliance
C Zegan,
pg 280
30
D. is a functional passive appliance
E. is a functional rigid appliance
184. According the effects caused on the groups of muscles, functional appliances
are classified as follows:
A. myotonic appliances
B. active appliacens
C. passive appliances
D. myodynamic appliances
E. bimaxillary appliances
AD Zegan,
pg 278
185. According the site they occupied, functional appliances are classified as follows:
A. myotonic appliances
B. oral appliances
C. passive appliance
D. myodynamic appliances
E. buccal appliances
BE Zegan,
pg 278
186. According the type of action, functional appliances are classified as follows:
A. myotonic appliances
B. active appliances
C. passive appliances
D. miydynamic appliances
E. bimaxillary appliances
BC Zegan,
pg 277
Theme 33.
Retention and relapse in orthodontics
187. *Duration of retention period is influenced by many factors, except:
A. The patient's constitutional type
B. The patient's facial growth type
C. The age when the malocclusion was treated
D. The duration of active orthodontic treatment
E. Patient’s sex
E Zegan,
pg 376
188. *Duration of retention period is influenced by many factors, except:
A. The patient's constitutional type
B. The family medical history
C. The duration of active orthodontic treatment
D. The patient's facial growth type
E. The age when the malocclusion was treated
B Zegan,
pg 376
189. The general causes of relapse are:
A. The patient’s constitutional type
B. The patient’s facial type
C. The break out of third molars
D. The position of teeth outside of basal bone
E. The patient's endocrine disorders
ABE Zegan,
pg 375
190. The general causes of relapse are:
A. The patient’s facial type
B. Type the patient's facial growth
C. The position of teeth outside of basal bone
ABD Zegan,
pg 375
31
D. The patient’s constitutional type
E. Hypocorrection of malocclusion
191. The local causes of relapse are:
A. The patient’s facial type
B. The change of intercanine distance
C. The position of teeth outside of basal bone
D. The patient’s constitutional type
E. Hypocorrection of malocclusion
BCE Zegan,
pg 375
Theme 34.
The treatment of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation).
192. In deep caries, infected dentin is removed with:
A. sharp excavators and sharp spoon excavators
B. round burs made of steel rotated at low speed and using air cooling
C. round burs made of tungsten carbide rotated at low speed and using
air cooling
D. sharp dentin hatchets
E. any blunt hand instrument
ABC 67
193. Modern conservative preparation of cavities requires that preventive extension
should be done according to:
A. caries risk of each patient
B. oral hygiene
C. dietary habits
D. patient age
E. cavity depth
ABC 74
194. Retention form for traditional amalgam restorations involves:
A. parallel walls
B. flat floor
C. convergency of the walls towards occlusal
D. beveled margins
E. additional cavities (dovetail cavity)
ABCE 78
195. The following factors must be considered when finishing the enamel walls and
margins:
A. the direction of the enamel rods
B. caries risk
C. location of the margins
D. the type of restorative material
E. the matrix used for restoration
ACD 82
196. In class II Black cavities for amalgam restoration, box-only preparation is
indicated in:
A. proximal lesions in the absence of large carious lesion or defective
restoration on the occlusal surface
B. patients with low caries risk
C. patients with good oral hygiene
D. large lesions
ABC 133
32
E. proximal lesions with absence of occlusal contacts on the future
restorations
197. The amalgam restoration should be burnished:
A. using perfectly polished burnishers
B. immediately after the carving of the restoration and before the
complete hardening of amalgam
C. by moving the instrument with a light pressure from the center
towards the periphery of the restoration
D. by moving the instrument parallel with the margin of the
restoration
E. by moving the instrument from the margin towards the center of the
restoration
ABC 277
198. *When using multiple layers of light-cured composite resins for restoration,
the maximum thickness of each layer should be:
A. 4 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 1 mm
D. 6 mm
E. 0.5 mm
B 248
199. When using tunnel preparation:
A. any damage of the marginal ridge should be avoid
B. the access may be gained through the occlusal surface starting in
the adjacent pit
C. only Black spoon excavators should be used for removing infected
dentin
D. beveling of all the margins is mandatory
E. the material of choice for restoration is composite resin
AB 150
Theme 35.
The etiology and pathogeny of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation).
200. Dental caries:
A. is considered to be an infectious disease
B. is irreversible, even in early stage of the lesions
C. can involve any dental surface expose to oral environment
D. is a a dynamic process
E. is an immune disease
AD 2,3
201. Salivary lysozyme:
A. inhibits the precipitation of calcium phosphate on the enamel and
dental substitutes
B. interact with monovalent anions resulting in complexes that bind the
bacterial wall
C. activates bacterial autolysins which disrupt the bacterial cell wall
D. can determine bacterial aggregation
E. stimulates the bacterial glucydic metabolism
BCD 113
202. Salivary components with predominant antibacterial activity are:
A. lactoferrin
ABE 112,12
5
33
B. peroxidase
C. glycocalyx
D. enolase
E. Ig As
203. The salivary Ig As inhibits the bacterial adhesion by:
A. stimulating the bacterial glycolysis
B. binding to the surface of bacterial adhesins
C. neutralizing the negative charge of bacterial surface
D. neutralizing the activity of other enzymes (GTF)
E. stimulating coaggregation of bacteria
BCD 126
204. Some of the following salivary components play a major role in controlling
remineralization:
A. statherin
B. proline-rich proteins
C. histatin
D. cystatin
E. amylase
ABCD 150
205. The susceptible sites for caries are:
A. grooves
B. pits
C. cusp tips
D. surfaces situated bellow the pronounced convexities
E. incisal margins
ABD 83
206. During the pre-eruptive stage of tooth maturation:
A. the organic content of tooth increases
B. the already existing crystals grow in size
C. the intake of fluoride is not relevant
D. the optimal intake of calcium/phosphate ratio is mandatory
E. ionic exchanges between enamel and surrounding tissues cannot
influence the caries-resistance
BD 78
Theme 36.
Anatomical and clinical forms of pulpitis in permanent teeth References:
1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”
Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.
2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)
207. The differential diagnosis of pre-inflammatory hyperemia is made with:
A. dentin hypersensitivity and hyperaesthesia;
B. acute partial serous pulpitis
C. chronic open ulcerated pulpitis;
D. chronic proper closed pulpitis;
E. pulp gangrene;
AB 1/88
208. Differential diagnosis of partial acute serous pulpitis is made with:
A. simple dental caries;
B. pre-inflammatory hyperemia;
BCDE 1/91
34
C. acute total serous pulpitis;
D. acute partial purulent pulpitis;
E. acute total purulent pulpitis.
209. In acute total serous pulpitis at upper jaw tooth , the pain may be diffused to:
A. the neighboring teeth;
B. the opposing teeth;
C. opposite half of the jaw;
D. the temporal area;
E. orbital area.
ABDE 1/92
210. Physical factors that may cause pre-inflammatory hyperemia are:
A. trauma during preparing the cavities of the teeth;
B. trauma during the prosthetic preparation for crown;
C. thermal excitations transmitted by metal fillings;
D. caries therapy with simple medicinal substances;
E. endotoxins bacteria.
ABCD 1/92-
93
211. The following statements about the treatment indications for pre-inflammatory
hyperemia are true:
A. treatment of dental caries and indirect pulp capping;
B. the treatment of dental caries and direct pulp capping in a session,
when pulp chamber is accidentally open;
C. the treatment of dental caries and direct pulp capping in two
session, when accidental opening of the pulp chamber;
D. vital amputation;
E. vital extirpation.
ACDE 1/88
212. The axial percussion is positive in the next pulpitis:
A. pre-inflammatory hyperemia;
B. acute partial serous pulpitis;
C. acute total serous pulpitis;
D. acute partial purulent pulpitis;
E. acute total purulent pulpitis.
CE 1/98-
102
213. Differential diagnosis of acute partial purulent pulpitis is made with:
A. acute coronal serous pulpitis;
B. simple dental caries;
C. acute total serous pulpitis;
D. acute corono–radicular purulent pulpitis;
E. acute apical purulent periodontitis.
AD 1/94
Theme 37.
Pulp necrosis and gangrene References:
1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa”
Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.
2. Endodontic courses. ( C, slide)
214. Differential diagnosis of pulp necrosis is made with:
A. simple pulp gangrene;
B. chronic open pulpitis;
ABCE 1/106
35
C. chronic closed pulpitis;
D. dental fracture ;
E. chronic apical periodontitis.
215. Pulp necrosis:
A. is treated as a chronic closed pulpitis;
B. devital extirpation is the first choice;
C. respects the mecano-chemical treatment, completed with an
appropriate root fillings;
D. is treated as a pulp gangrene.
E. does not require antiseptic treatment step, being an aseptic
mortification;
CD 1/106
216. Devitalization with arsenic preparations can produce:
A. coagulation necrosis;
B. liquefaction necrosis;
C. the opening of the pulp chamber produces a profuse bleeding;
D. pulp necrosis looks dry;
E. pulp necrosis looks yellow-brown or black-purple.
ADE 1/106 -
109
217. Positive diagnosis of simple pulp gangrene is based on the following:
A. positive bacteriological examination;
B. the presence of deep cavities with open pulp chamber and total
insensitivity at probing;
C. bad smell (is not characteristic);
D. bad smell (is characteristic only for gangrene);
E. bacteriological examination is negative .
ABC 1/106 -
109
218. The differential diagnosis of simple pulp gangrene is made with:
A. acute pulpitis;
B. chronic pulpitis;
C. pulp necrosis;
D. tooth decay;
E. complicated gangrene.
BCE 1/106 -
109
219. Evolution and complications of pulp gangrene can be:
A. apical periodontitis;
B. pulp necrosis;
C. coronal fracture;
D. gingival disease;
E. crown-root fracture.
ACE 1/106 -
109
220. Microorganisms involved in the pathogenesis of pulp gangrene are:
A. beta-hemolytic streptococcus ;
B. white staphylococcus;
C. staphylococcus aureus;
D. gonococcus;
E. pneumococcus.
ABCE 1/106 -
109
36
Theme 38.
Acute and chronic apical periodontitis References:
1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman. ”Gr.T.Popa”
Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.
2. Endodontic courses. (C, slide)
221. The pain in chronic apical periodontitis may include the following aspects:
A. is absent
B. neuralgia
C. the feeling of slight egression
D. ache with tiredness after mastication
E. pulsatile
BCD C7,
S 110
222. The simple connective granuloma:
A. is a chronic apical osteitis
B. is a chronic apical periodontitis
C. it is called Palazzi 's internal granuloma
D. it has 4 zones
E. diagnosis is based mostly on the radiological exam
ABDE 1/129
223. The symptoms of apical hyperemic periodontitis:
A. are different depending on the etiological factors
B. positive lateral percussion
C. negative axial percussion
D. the dominant pain is located at the causal tooth
E. positive axial percussion
ADE 1/117
224. The swelling of acute serous apical periodontitis involves:
A. upper lip zone by the upper incisors teeth
B. upper eyelid region by canines
C. chin region by lower incisors
D. genian region by lower molars
ACD 1/119
225. The differential diagnosis of hyperemic acute apical periodontitis is made with:
A. acute partial serous pulpitis
B. acute total serous pulpitis
C. acute partial purulent pulpitis
D. acute total purulent pulpitis
E. chronic apical fibrous periodontitis
BD 1/117
226. The radiographies are eloquent in:
A. acute hyperemic apical periodontitis
B. acute total serous apical periodontitis
C. the early stages of acute purulent apical periodontitis
D. chronic apical periodontitis
E. final stage of acute apical purulent periodontitis
ADE 1/128
227. Specify the correct answers regarding the possible evolution of the acute serous
apical periodontitis:
A. acute purulent apical periodontitis
B. complication with osteomyelitis process
C. chronicity
D. maxillary sinusitis
E. coverage of the apex of adjacent teeth
AC 1/119
37
Theme 39.
Treatment of pulp necrosis and gangrene References:
1. Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria Vataman. ”Gr.T.Popa”
Publisher,UMF Iasi 2014.
2. Endodontic courses. (C, slide)
228. The presence of obstacles like mineralizations inside the canal may determine
to associate the mechanical treatment with the use of:
A. EDTA solution 17%
B. 50-60% sulfuric acid solution
C. 30% chlorhidric acid solution
D. 1% chlorhexidine solution
E. EDTA gel, 17%
AE 1/194
229. Among general factors that may cause intracanalar bleeding during endodontic
treatment can be mentioned:
A. pregnancy
B. hemophilia
C. bleeding disorders
D. hepatic diseases with altered blood clotting mechanisms
E. congestive physiological states: menstruation
BCDE 1/ 157
230. The content of the Walkhoff-iodoform paste presents:
A. iodoform
B. chlor phenol
C. thymol
D. zinc oxide
E. formalin
ABCD 1/ 157
231. The following statements are true about quaternary ammonium compounds:
A. they are cationic detergents
B. they reduce the surface tension of the solution
C. they are less active in acidic environment
D. they are more active in acid environment
E. all the above is correct
ABC C12 ,
S27
232. Permeability of root canals can be achieved with the following instruments:
A. fine and very fine Kerr files
B. Miller files
C. fine and very fine tirre-nerf files
D. fine Gates- Glidden drills for enlarging the canal entrance
E. fine Hedstroem files
AD 1/ 173
233. Mechanical treatment in pulp gangrene includes the following:
A. providing of access to the pulp chamber
B. permeability and removal of gangrenous content
C. removing dentin from the infected canal walls
D. establishing the root canal length (working length)
E. definitive root canal filling in the same session
ABCD 1/ 173
234. Which endodontic medication has antifungal effect:
A. tricrezolformaline
DE 1/ 195
38
B. trioxymethylene
C. Chlumski solution
D. chlorhexidine
E. Walkhoff solution
Theme 40.
Root canal filling techniques
235. The warm gutta percha injection technique must respect several conditions:
A. proper root canal cleaning
B. respecting the rules for root canals preparation
C. needs a sealing cement to achieve a good apical closure
D. needs a correct placement of the cannula tip
E. excessive widening of the root canal
ABCD 1/ 195
236. The apical obturation using the condensation of dentin chips is indicated in:
A. large canals
B. curved canals
C. wide apical foramen
D. apical delta
E. perforations in the coronal third of the canal
AC C14 ,
S53
237. The election of Lentulo file is done after following criteria,:
A. the volume of the canal
B. topographyof the tooth
C. the physical integrity of the Lentulo file
D. the degree of canals curvature
E. the number of canals
ABCD 1/ 206
238. The benefits of gutta percha thermoplastic condensation (Mc Spadden) are:
A. is faster
B. possible compactor fracture
C. obturating all canal space
D. facilitate overfilling in the absence of a proper apical stop
E. no possibility of thermal lesions of periodontal support
AC 1/ 213
239. The disadvantages of using silver cones in root obturation are:
A. untight sealing of the canal
B. does not ensure a perfect sealing in the apical area
C. intense cone radioopacity gives a false impression of filling seal
D. questionable oligodynamic action
E. greater flexibility than gutta-percha cones.
ABCD C14 ,
S54
240. The addition of disinfectant in root filling pastes is not beneficial because:
A. increases the risk of canal overfillings
B. significantly increases marginal microleakage
C. irritate the apical tissue
D. are not inactivated by the periapical fluids
E. cause discoloration of teeth
BC C 13,
S24
241. Root canal obturation with gutta-percha calibrated (ISO) cones includes:
a. individualizing by cuting the gutta cone
b. clinical and radiological evidence of the cone
BC 1/206
39
c. drying the canal with paper point
d. placing cement sealing only in the appical part of the canal
e. condensing the sealing cement with a spreader
Theme 41.
Treatment of acute and chronic apical periodontitis
242. If abundant serous secretion comes from canal in chronic apical periodontitis,
it’s indicated:
A. endodontic drainage
B. leaving the tooth open
C. creating a medicamentous artificial fistula
D. provisional filling paste based on calcium hydroxide
E. chemical cauterization with trichloroacetic acid
ABCD C17 ,
S17
243. The therapeutic attitude towards apical acute arsenical periodontitis, the mild
form, includes:
A. treatment with calcium hydroxide
B. abundant irrigations
C. application in canal of thin braids with dimercaptopropanol
solution
D. introduction in canal of antibiotics paste
E. expectation of pathological phenomena remission
CD C17 ,
S7
244. Iatrogenic causes of the persistence of the canal secretion in chronic apical
periodontitis are:
A. cotton pushed beyond the apex
B. chemical irritation inside canal
C. improper use of the isolation system
D. position of the tooth on the dental arch
E. patient’s age
AC C17 ,
S9
245. To prevent progression of apical serous periodontitis to purulent forms, is
recommended a medication treatment:
A. antibiotics
B. anticoagulants
C. antispasmodics
D. antidepressants
E. analgesics
AB C17 ,
S11
246. Treatment plan in chronic fistulising apical periodontitis includes the
following steps:
A. pulpectomy
B. abundant irrigation through tooth -fistula tract
C. obturation in the same session
D. canal medication
E. retrograde tooth obturation
BD C17 ,
S18
247. Treatment of acute apical periodontitis may be dictated by:
A. patient’s profession
B. patient’s general health status
C. number of teeth
BD 1/ 122
40
D. anatomic and clinical form of inflammation
E. the number of the roots
248. Acute apical periodontitis requires a more complex treatment, which consists
of:
A. eliminating the cause of inflammation, represented in 99% of cases
by a pulp affection
B. providing a permanent canal filling in the same session
C. providing a drainage pathway
D. apicoectomy
E. extraction
AC C17 ,
S13
Theme 42.
The Morphology of the marginal periodontium
249. Gingiva:
A. Its role is to provide the connective attachment
B. Begins at the muco-gingival line
C. Begins at the gingiva line
D. Covers the alveolar processes around the cervical of the tooth parts
E. Covers the alveolar processes around the coronal tooth
BD
5
250. The specialized junctional epithelium of free marginal gingiva:
A. It forms gingival epithelial attachment at the tooth surface
B. Has a width of about 1 mm at coronal-apical direction
C. Represents the connection between gum and root surface
D. It did not shall be renewed along the entire life
E. Surrounds each tooth at cervical level
AE 10
251. Gingival sulcus (sulcus):
A. The average depth of the sulcus is 1,8 mm (1-3 mm)
B. Clinical depth of gingival sulcus is bigger than its histological
depth
C. Represents the space created when the marginal gingiva is removed
from the tooth surface
D. Begins from the base of the marginal gingiva to the most coronal
level of the junction epithelium
E. The clinical depth of the gingival sulcus does not correspond to the
histological depth
ACE 11
252. Gingival innervation is provided by:
A. The collateral branches of the maxillary and mandibular branch of
the trigeminal nerve
B. The inferior alveolar nerve, for the vestibular gingiva of lower
anterior teeth
C. The maxillary alveolar nerve for the entire superior gingiva
D. The posterior palatine nerve for the entire palatine gingiva
E. The buccal nerve for the vestibular gingiva of lower molars and
premolars
ACE 12
253. The periodontal ligament (desmodontium): AC 13
41
A. The average width of desmodontal space at a functional tooth adult
is 0.18 mm
B. The narrower area is at the apex
C. Basically it is a lax connective tissue
D. Has the widest portion in the rotation area (hypomochlion)
E. The dental-alveolar total space varies depending on the dental arch
morphology
254. The collagen fibers are arranged in several groups:
A. Circular fibers
B. Apical fibers
C. Oblique fibers
D. Vertical fibers
E. Horizontal fibers
BCE 13-14
255. What is the function of the periodontal ligament:
A. Mechanical function
B. Nutritional function
C. Vegetative function
D. Sensorial Function
E. Chemical Function
ABD 14
256. The alveolar bone has following functions:
A. It is an intra-alveolar lever arm
B. It takes over the mechanical stress and transforms it into dispersed
traction forces
C. It fixes the periodontal ligament fibers
D. It provides support for the whole dental crown
E. It is an intra-alveolar lever arm of 1/3 from the tooth length
ABC 16
Theme 43.
The etiopathogeny of chronic marginal periodontitis
257. Plaque has the following characteristics:
A. It has a homogeneous composition
B. It is a deposit with a certain ordering
C. Its composition does not change
D. It is formed of matrix material
E. It represents a mineral deposit from saliva
BD
19
258. Calculus acts on periodontium:
A. By the mechanical action
B. By the chemical action
C. By the action of microorganisms
D. By the physico-chemical action
E. By the biological action
AC 23
259. The consistency of food:
A. Can play the role on the rate formation of plaque
B. Soft and sticky foods produce less plaque
C. Favors the production of lactic acid
D. Acts on lithic bacteria
AE 23
42
E. Soft and sticky foods act as favorable environment to the plaque
retention
260. The absence of teeth can lead to:
A. Root resorption of adjacent teeth
B. Dental inclusions
C. Dental migrations
D. Tippings
E. Extrusions
CDE 24
261. Malocclusion:
A. Is mostly due to incomplete labial occlusion
B. Can suppress the attached gingiva
C. May aggravate parafunctions
D. Create liminal forces on periodontal tissue
E. Can cause harmful occlusal forces
CE 24
262. The clinical symptoms of severe deficiencies in proteins, calories, iron, zinc,
vitamins A, B, C are manifested by:
A. Occlusal disorders
B. Color and topography alterations of oral mucosa
C. Color and topography alterations of lingual mucosa
D. Specific lesions
E. Cervical caries lesions
BCD 26
263. Certain medications that cause tissue modifications that are accentuated by the
presence of plaque are:
A. Chemotherapeutic agents
B. Nifedipine
C. Cephalosporins of third generation
D. Cyclosporin A
E. Diphenylhydantoin
BDE 26
264. Reactive phenomena of the periodontium are:
A. Vascular modifications
B. Inflammatory edema
C. Leukocyte margination
D. Changes in tissue
E. Cells of the inflammatory exudate
ABCE 28
Theme 44.
Diagnosis of gingival-periodontal disease
265. Aspects of establishing the diagnosis are:
A. The degree of gingival bleeding
B. Type of disease
C. Status of gingival inflammation
D. Dental malocclusion
E. The importance of attachment loss
BE
75
266. The criteria for evaluation of periodontal disease activity are:
A. Biological
B. Biochemicals
ACD 76
43
C. Clinical
D. Microbiological
E. Genetic
267. The necessary conditions for the loss of attachment are:
A. Effective host defense systems
B. A favorable environment for virulent bacteria
C. Poor host defense systems
D. The presence of protective bacteria
E. The presence of virulent bacteria
BCE 77
268. Pathogenicity of bacteria consists of:
A. Antigenic action
B. Lack of production of exo and endotoxins
C. Chemical action
D. Enzymes produced
E. Bacterian degradation products
ADE 77
269. Plaque microorganisms produce tissue alterations through mechanisms such
as:
A. Bacterial antigens
B. Inhibition of antibody production
C. Bacterial degradation products
D. Production of enzymes
E. Production of toxins
ACDE 77
270. Pathogenic bacterias are:
A. Anaerobic gram negative
B. Spirochetes
C. Coccobacillus
D. Parasites
E. Mycoplasma
ABD 78
271. The main characteristics of bacteria virulence are:
A. The cocoide form
B. The filamentous aspect
C. The secretion of hydrogen peroxide
D. The lack of mobility
E. The presence of mobility
ABD 79
272. The sulcus and periodontal pocket contains:
A. Osteoclasts
B. Vascular elements
C. Ions
D. Osteocytes
E. Gingival fluid
BCE 81
Theme 45.
Classification of marginal periodontium diseases
273. Hyperplasic gingivitis, as a secondary effect to some drugs can be induced by:
A. vitamin C
B. calcium channel blockers
BCD 95
44
C. cyclosporine
D. hidantoine
E. anticoagulants
274. A patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, the patient complains of:
A. headache
B. increase of pain on contact with cold foods
C. affected general status
D. fever
E. halitosis
CDE 101
275. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis has the following local factors:
A. unsatisfactory oral hygiene
B. smoking
C. age
D. seasons
E. spirochettes, fusiform bacteria
ABE 100
276. From a clinical point of view, gingivitis manifestations are:
A. real periodontal pockets
B. color modification
C. volume modification
D. gingival pruritus
E. form modification
BCDE 125
277. Conditioned gingival overgrowths are represented by:
A. rapidly progressive periodontitis
B. pregnancy epulis
C. puberty gingivitis
D. necrotizing-ulcerative periodontitis
E. pregnancy gingivitis
BCE 97
278. Chronic gingivitis (simple, uncomplicated) has the following objective clinical
signs:
A. the gingiva is red in color
B. viscous hypersalivation
C. frequent false pockets
D. bleeding on probing
E. gingival pruritus
ACD 92
279. Gingival hyperplasia in hyperplasic gingivitis has the following clinical
aspects:
A. the gingival color varies from light red to congestive red
B. it appears only in relation to teeth, disappears in areas where teeth
have been extracted
C. it is generalized and more severe in the maxillary frontal area
D. the gingival hyperplasia is of nodular type in most of the cases
E. it presents color modifications such as red, red-blue, with a high
tendency to bleeding
BCE 96
45
Theme 46.
Clinical forms – symptoms in marginal periodontitis Cap: Semnele clinice ale gingivitelor, pag 102-104
Cap : Semne clinice ale parodontitelor marginale, pag 105-136
280. *Hystopathologically, color modification of the gingiva means:
A. edema
B. circulatory stasis
C. atrophy
D. ulcerations
E. inflammation
B 108
281. Prepubescent periodontitis can be asociated with:
A. Down syndrome
B. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
C. Kaposi sarcoma
D. HPV viral infections
E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
AB 125
282. Juvenile periodontitis is:
A. a rare disease which affects 0.06-0,22% of children between 14 and
25 years old
B. a necrotizing-ulcerative periodontitis
C. an aggressive periodontitis
D. a periodontal atrophy
E. a form of hyperplasic gingivitis, as a secondary effect to some
drugs
AC 126
283. The main signs of juvenile periodontitis are not:
A. pathological dental mobility
B. false periodontal pockets
C. gingival overgrowth
D. low gingival inflammation
E. diminished bone support
BC 126
284. Periodontal manifestations in AIDS are asociated with:
A. HIV gingivitis
B. allergic gingivitis
C. oral candidosis
D. Kaposi sarcoma
E. HIV periodontitis
ACDE 102
285. The objective signs in adult periodontitis are:
A. mastication deficiency
B. gingival inflammation
C. mobility
D. periodontal pockets
E. pain
BCD 130
286. Radiographic signs of occlusal trauma are:
A. mild pain
B. enlargement of periodontal space
C. prolonged pains
D. violent passing pain (few seconds)
E. thickening of lamina dura
BE 136
46
Theme 47.
Evolution, prognostic and complications of periodontal diseases
287. The objective symptoms in acute periodontal abscess are:
A. the covering mucosa is shiny stippled and purple in color
B. painful gingiva
C. oval or round tumefaction of the gingiva
D. pain in vertical percussion of the respective tooth
E. spontaneous pain of medium intensity
BC 138
288. The following statements about acute periodontal abscess are not true:
A. it is not a chronic marginal periodontitis complication
B. it is localized only buccal
C. it is accompanied by radiological modifications of the bone
D. it is produced by virulent germ exacerbation within the periodontal
pockets when natural way drainage is low or blocked
E. is localized only palatal or lingual
ABE 138-
139
289. Radicular hypersensitivity is represented by:
A. gingival bleeding
B. pain at contact with chemical agents
C. false periodontal pocket
D. pain at contact with physical agents
E. pain at contact with thermal agents
BDE 142
290. The favorable prognostic of the periodontal disease is given by:
A. adequate remaining bone support
B. 3rd degree interradicular lesions
C. there is no bone loss
D. adequate patient cooperation
E. high dental mobility
AD 148
291. The cuneiform lesions:
A. appear in the cervical portion of the crown
B. are more frequent in the vestibular 1/3 of the tooth
C. is a lack of substance
D. have a triangular shape with the base towards the longitudinal axis
of the tooth and the tip towards the exterior
E. appear in the middle third of dental surfaces
ABCD 141
292. In the chronic periodontal abscess:
A. the general status of the patient is surely altered
B. there are not many symptoms
C. it has an evolution towards an acute state
D. the fistula orifice can be hard to detect
E. a fistula appears, that opens on the gingival mucosa
BCDE 139
293. A role in the formation of cuneiform lesions is played by:
A. the occlusion trauma
B. the acid chemical erosion
C. the wearing down of cement and dentin through excessive brushing
D. the nervous system - bulimia
ABCD 141
47
E. none of the above
Theme 48.
The gingivitis treatment
294. The means of autocontrol of the bacterial plaque are:
A. dental brushes
B. professional brushing
C. interdental hygiene means
D. special oral hygiene means
E. supragingival scaling
ACD 214
295. Bacterial plaque autocontrol at home is done:
A. in the beginning, at 2-3 days
B. once a week
C. every other week
D. until dental brushing is corrected
E. it is not mendatory
ABD 214
296. Soft dental brushes:
A. are more flexible
B. are indicated in all brushing techniques
C. are less traumatizing
D. are indicated in gingival sulcus brushing
E. are indicated for interdental areas, with low accesibility
ABD 215
297. The BASS brushing technique has the following characteristics:
A. it is a secvential technique
B. it is recommended only for patients with periodontal diseases
C. it establishes the cleaning of the distal face of the last molar
D. it uses vibratory motions
E. it is recommended only to patients with periodontal recessions
ACD 216
298. The modified BASS technique is not recommended:
A. in all clinical situations
B. when no other technique can be used
C. for children
D. when interdental papillas are retracted
E. for the elderly
ABCE 216
299. The CHARTERS technique has the following indications:
A. cleaning of interproximal spaces in case of gingival papilla
recession
B. gingival massage
C. it does not have special indications
D. cleaning gingival areas that are healing post gingivectomy
E. it is not indicated for children
ABD 217
300. Dentifrices are presented under the form of:
A. paste
B. gel
C. powder
D. paste, gel or powder
ABCD 217
48
E. mouthwash
Theme 49.
The marginal periodontitis treatment ( pag 222-264, 229-235, 258-260,292-294 )
301. *The attack angle in the use of Gracey curettes is:
A. 20 degrees
B. an angle with values between 45-90 degrees
C. there is no particular angle
D. the angle in which the best adaptation of the curette is achieved
E. 10 degrees
B 224
302. Tetracycline has the following advantage in the periodontal disease treatment:
A. has a high concentration in serum and crevicular fluid
B. it inhibits bone resorbtion
C. it can be administered in lupus
D. it can be administered in cases of renal diseases
E. has an anti-inflammatory effect
ABE 239
303. The counter indications of administering tetracycline are:
A. pregnancy
B. children under 12 years
C. renal affections
D. schizophrenia
E. lupus
ABCE 240
304. Metronidazole is indicated in:
A. NUG
B. infections with more than 50% contents of spirochetes
C. can be administered to patient who also take lithium
D. infections with trichomonas present
E. patients with anticoagulant therapy
ABD 241
305. Major indications of temporary dental immobilization are:
A. stabilizing teeth before and after periodontal surgery
B. prevention of pathological migration
C. when mobility is not reduced after occlusal equilibration
D. evaluation of the prognostic
E. to restore the aesthetic function
ABCD 231
306. The general principles of immobilizations are:
A. the multidirectional inclusion of teeth
B. the inclusion of the lowest number of teeth possible
C. applying the system as close to the rotation axis of the tooth as
possible
D. superficial periodontium protection
E. the inclusion of the highest number of teeth possible
ADE 232
307. Temporary immobilizations are used:
A. to prevent the pathological tooth migration
B. to facilitate the scaling
C. in teeth with odontal crown lesions
ABD 232
49
D. to facilitate the periodontal curettage
E. in teeth with gingival hyper growth
Theme 50.
Main therapeutical directions and treatment schemes in gingivitis and
periodontitis (pg. 306-320)
308. The treatment for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is:
A. amendment of acute inflammation
B. amendment of the generalized toxic symptoms
C. amendment of the chronic inflammation
D. correction of the general status
E. biostimulation periodontal methods
ABD 306
309. Clinical manifestations of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis can be associated
with:
A. flu states
B. menstrual cycle
C. some foods
D. psychological stress
E. tiredness
BCDE 307
310. A patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is treated like a non-ambulatory
patient if he / she:
A. has symptoms of general status alteration
B. presents a localized adenopathy
C. presents fever
D. suffers from asthenia
E. does not present systemic complications
ACD 307
311. In the first session, in the case of a patient with necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis it is recommended:
A. the treatment is limited to the acute inflammation areas
B. the necrotic pseudo membranes are eliminated with a cotton pad
imbibed in peroxide
C. systemic antibiotics
D. the treatment will involve the entire oral cavity
E. oral rinses 2 times a day
ABC 307
312. In the first stage of treating a patient with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, oral
rinses have the following characteristics:
A. are repeated every 2 hours
B. are done as many times a day as possible
C. consist of a mix of equal parts warm water and peroxide 3%
D. can use chlorhexidine 0,12%
E. are repeated every 4 hours
ACD 307
313. For the necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis patient treated in ambulatory it is
recommended:
A. to isolate the inflammation area and then it is dried
B. to administer injectable anesthesia after which the false membranes
are removed
ACE 308
50
C. before removing the pseudo membranes, to apply a topic anesthesia
D. to use wiping motions for areas as large as possible using the same
cotton pad
E. to wash the area with warm water and then remove the superficial
calculus
314. In the first treatment stage of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis:
A. subgingival scaling is contraindicated
B. supra and sub gingival scaling are indicated
C. periodontal curettage in closed field is indicated
D. periodontal curettage is contraindicated
E. ultrasonic scaling is preferred
ADE 308
Theme 51. Dental occlusion
Surse bibliografice:
1. Gnatologie clinica - Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001
2. Examenul clinic in gnatologie- Gabriela Ifteni, Alina Apostu, Oana Tanculescu, ed. Gr. T.
Popa, UMF Iasi, 2014
315. We cannot name as bone components of TMJ:
A. Mandible condyle
B. Temporal condyle
C. Coronoid process
D. Disc
E. Glenoid cavity
CD 1, 42-
54
316. Posterior insertion of lateral pterygoid muscle is not placed at the level of:
A. Mandible condyle neck
B. Joint disc
C. Zygomatic arch
D. Coronoid process
E. Schaphoid fossa
CDE 1, 64
317. There are descending muscles:
A. Temporal
B. Lateral Pterigoid
C. Anterior belly of digastric
D. Maseter
E. Milohyoid
CE 1, 55
318. Maximum value of free way space is:
A. Less then 2mm
B. 2-4mm
C. Over 4mm
D. 4 mm
E. 3 mm
D 1, 159
319. Maxilla occlusal aria is formed by:
A. Maxilla dental arch
B. Lingual incisal edges
C. Occlusal faces of mandible teeth
D. Mandible occlusal surfaces
BE 1, 188
51
E. Maxillar occlusal surfaces
320. Maxillar occlusal aria can be interupted by:
A. Dyastema
B. Partial Removable dentures
C. Overcontour fillings
D. Trema
E. Dental implant
AD 1, 189
321. Guiding cusps are:
A. Mandible buccal cusps
B. Maxillar lingual cusps
C. Mandible lingual cusps
D. Maxillar buccal cusps
E. Mandible incical edges
CD 1, 191-
192
Theme 52.
Temporomandibular disorder-TMD References:
3. Gnatologie clinica - Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001
322. TMD periodontal clinical signs are
A. Pain
B. Inflammation
C. Redness
D. Local heat
E. Retraction
ABE 318-
319
323. Mandible deviation in opening is TMD signs for:
A. TMJ
B. Muscle
C. Teeth
D. Periodontum
E. Bones
AB 314,
317
324. Stillman fissure represents:
A. Part of dental crowns
B. Periodontal retraction
C. A specific kind of caries
D. A TMD periodontal sign
E. A TMD odontal sign
BD 319
325. Clinical dental signs of TMD are:
A. Dental pain
B. Periodontal pain
C. The lack of contact point
D. Dental fracture
E. The articular pain
AD 320
326. There are static occlusion signs of TMD:
A. Symmetric sagittal curves
B. Asymmetric sagittal curves
C. Symmetric transversal curve
BD 323
52
D. Asymmetric transversal curve
E. Increased over-jet
327. Extra-postural malrelations with the increased inferior face level dimension is
a consequence of muscle tone modification:
A. Increased on elevators
B. Decreased on elevators
C. Increased on depressors
D. Decreased on depressors
E. Increased on propulsors
BC 330
328. Ex-centric malrelations with the increased inferior face level dimension is
consequence of muscle contractions modification:
A. Increased on elevators
B. Decreased on elevators
C. Increased on depressors
D. Decreased on depressors
E. Increased on propulsors
BC 334-
335
Theme 53
Clinical and paraclinical examinations in coronary odontal lesions and partially
reduced edentoulism
Bibliographic references
2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna,
Gabriela Ifteni, ed. Apollonia, 2001
329. The Condylocomp LR 3 method allows:
A. relative accuracy of limit and functional movements recording
B. very faithful recording, but without the possibility of handling errors
correction
C. establishing the location of the hinge axis
D. drawing the Posselt scheme
E. recording inter-incisor point trajectories
CD 189
330. The gnatho-foto-static exam can be used:
A. to assess dental occlusion
B. in order to analyze the cranio-mandibular relations
C. to evaluate the size of mandibular deviation
D. for the analysis of mandibular dynamic dysfunctions
E. to provide details to the gingival zenith (to the dental laboratory)
ABCE 189-
190
331. By dynamic palpation of the articular joint (ATM) we can detect:
A. symmetry, synergy and amplitude of the mandibular condyles
excursions
B. joint sounds
C. amplitude of mouth opening
D. chin excursions from the front and from profile
E. sensitivity of the pre-tragian regions
ABE 128
332. The static examination of the mouth orifice may reveal: BC 130
53
A. an increased amplitude of mouth opening due to capsular-ligament
laxity
B. lips texture modifications
C. Cupidon's bow symmetry or asymmetry
D. a reduced amplitude of mouth opening
E. the diminishing of the lip red mucosa due the upper lip depression in
case of EPR Kennedy cl. I
333. We consider the dentoalveolar arch interrupted if:
A. the interproximal contact point is absent through a diastema
B. EPR Kennedy class I, without any changes, is present
C. third or fourth degree of abrasions is present
D. the interproximal contact point is absent through edentation
E. the arch is restored by intercalated prosthesis
AD 133
334. Vitality tests are appreciated for:
A. warmth, by heating the tooth with a special instrument
B. sour
C. cold, by using Kelen or ice sticks
D. sweet
E. electricity, by electrical excitation of the pulp neural elements
ACE 134-
135
335. The painful phenomenon:
A. is determined by the amplitude and age of the edentulous space
B. appears during mastication
C. is localized in the muscles or joints, depending on case particularities
D. can extend with time in the muscles and joints
E. is one of the main reasons for consulting a specialist
BCE 117
Theme 54.
Treatment principles in unidental restorations by using dental bridges
Bibliographical sources:
3. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela
Ifteni, Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)
4. Terapia protetic conjuncta unitara - Gabriela Ifteni, Vasile Burlui, Ed. Gama, 2002( The
Conjunct Unitary Prosthetic Therapy)
336. *The prophylactic concept in fixed prosthetic therapy:
A. Is based on the preventive nature of the work performed in the
nonspecific treatment
B. Is implemented on the basis of epidemiological studies
C. It refers only to the biological principle
D. Is applied selectively in the treatment, i.e. only in the case of pro-
prosthetic therapy
E. Is only materialized in sanitary education measures
B 3, 203
337. *Knowing the risk groups of patients is reflected in:
A. Pre-prosthetic delayed treatment in patients with severe periodontal
disease
B. General preventive measures
D 3, 204
54
C. Aseptic and antisepsis measures
D. Application of nonspecific prophylaxis and gnatho-protective
specific prophylaxis
E. Applying individualized treatment principles
338. Avoiding the crossed contamination the stomatological cabinet aims at:
A. Observing the basic rules of asepsis and antisepsis
B. Maintenance of the sterilisers
C. Use of cold sterilisation when warm sterilisation is possible
D. Re-use of a disposable material, even sterilised
E. Use of a protection mask
ABE 3, 210
339. General prophylaxis:
A. It has a systemic feature specific to the proteic treatment
B. It grants a special importance to the process of avoiding the crossed
contamination
C. It has a non-specific systemic feature
D. d) It has to be considered in the integrated context of the
stomatognathic system
E. None of the above answers is correct
BCD 2, 209
340. The chlorinated compounds are used for pre-sterilisation of the instruments
because they present the following advantages:
A. They have a persistent smell
B. In increased concentrations they present a sporicidal activity
C. They have an large spectrum
D. They do not produce corrosion of metals
E. They have a slow and latent action in time
BE 2, 211
341. The pre-eruptive prophylaxis aims at:
A. Preventing some serious diseases (congenital syphilis, rubella)
B. A correct nutrition of the mother
C. The prophylaxis of the endocrine diseases
D. The prophylaxis of the circadian rhythm troubles
E. Il is also named local primary prophylaxis
ABC 2, 213
342. Local secondary prophylaxis refers to:
A. Conjunct prosthetic therapy
B. It takes into account the treatment and the prevention of consequent
complications of the carious disease
C. It takes into account the treatment and the prevention of consequent
complications of the parodontal disease
D. It emphasises the necessity of maintaining the rigorous oral hygiene
E. It addresses to the dental caries free teeth
BCD 2, 213
343. The EPR curative principle refers to:
A. The patient’s awareness through health education programs
B. Morphological recovery
C. The assuring of an optimal static and dynamic stability of the fixed
functional device
D. Functional recovery
E. Aesthetical recovery depending on the social position of the patient
BD 2, 215
55
Theme 55.
Intracoronal and extracoronal unidental restorations
Bibliographical sources:
2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela
Ifteni, Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)
3. Terapia protetică conjuncta unitara - Gabriela Ifteni, Vasile Burlui, Ed. Gama, 2002
(The Conjunct Unitary Prosthetic Therapy)
344. The indications for the inlays are:
A. in abnormal colorations on the limited parts of teeth
B. for small amplitude bridges
C. for patients under 18 years old
D. to immobilise the teeth with periodontopathies
E. in extended decays
ABD 3, 138
345. In order to stabilise the partial restoration (inlay) we can use supplementary
retention like:
A. steps or thresholds
B. axial or horizontal ditches
C. dentine wells and radicular pin
D. wings
E. inlay box
ABDE 3,142
346. The carious process opening for achieving a inlay cavity is performed with:
A. chisels for enamel cu and hatchets for dentine
B. spherical mills
C. thinning mills
D. wheel mills
E. chamfer mills
AB 3, 143
347. The retention form achievement for inlay cavity is made through :
A. reciprocity ( parallel walls, 2 by 2)
B. lateral walls convergent to the occlusal plane
C. the angles between the wall and the side walls pulp that are not well
defined
D. optimal ratio between the length and the depth
E. smooth lateral walls
AD 3, 145
348. The cavity edges bevelling for inlay I class:
A. is done at 35-45º for the external angles of the enamel
B. is also made for ceramic or composite inlay
C. is done at 15-25º for external angles of the enamel
D. The bevelling is not indicated for the ceramic or composite inlay
E. The bevelling is not made when the cavity edges are placed on the
first part of the cusp slope near the occlusal groove.
ADE 3, 145
349. For the partial crown 7/8 we prepare:
A. all tooth sides
B. the occlusal side, vestibular side and ½ of the vestibular mesial side
C. in addition, comparing to 4/5 crown, the distal half of the vestibular
surface
D. a ditch parallel to the insertion axis, placed on the middle of the
vestibular surface
CDE 3, 167
56
E. a chamfer groove to protect the mesial half of the unprepared
vestibular surface
350. Positioning of the dentin wells for pinledge is:
A. inside of the dentine and at distance from the pulp
B. at 1.5 mm inside the external contour of the tooth
C. made by preparing 3 pits, on the incisal threshold
D. made by preparing 3 pits, para-pulpal, para-incisal, and one above
the -cingulum
E. one pit above the cingulum and 2 proximal grooves
ABD 3, 176
Theme 56.
Structural elements of dental bridges Bibliographic references:
2. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela
Ifteni, Ed. Apollonia, 2001 (A Clinical Therapy of Partial Intercalated Edentation)
351. *To respect the tissue economy for the abutment teeth is indicated to use like
retainers:
A. partial veneer crowns instead of inlays, if the abutment teeth are
healthy
B. partial veneer crowns instead of inlays, if the abutment teeth are
affected by extensive carious processes
C. all ceramic crowns because these require a smaller reduction
comparing to the metal-ceramic crowns
D. all metal crowns because these require a smaller reduction
comparing to partial veneer crowns
E. regarding tooth preparations, full veneer crowns are the most
economical comparing to other covering crowns.
A 2, 305
352. Perforated plate pontic:
A. is used when the metal structure is made of Cr-Co alloys
B. allows the obtaining of a totally physiognomic metal-ceramic
prosthesis
C. has the structure of a flexible metallic strip
D. is indicated for the economy of frame precious material
E. especially indicated for metal-acrylic and metal-composite bridges
BD 2, 339
353. In descending order, the most biological retainers are
A. adhesive bridges, all metal crowns, all ceramic crowns
B. partial veneer crowns, inlays, all metal crowns
C. partial veneer crowns, adhesive bridges, metal-acrylic crowns
D. all metal, metal ceramic, all ceramic crowns
E. all ceramic, metal-acrylic, Richmond crowns.
ABD 2, 305
354. Biological conditions of retainers consist of:
A. unique insertion axis
B. minimal sacrifice of amelo-dentinal substance
C. pulp prophylaxis
D. possibility of sterilising the metallic frame of the retainers
E. periodontal prophylaxis.
BCE 2, 305-
307
57
355. Subgingival positioning of the retainers cervical borders is conditioned by:
A. special aesthetic demand
B. biomechanical conditions which require reduced occlusal forces
C. decay with a subgingival extension
D. Very high tooth crown
E. Pre-existent prosthetic restorations with subgingival placed edges.
ACE 2, 308
356. Morphological restoration for retainers suppose:
A. respecting the form and the dimension of lateral sides in order to
restore the contact points
B. morphological restoration should be done according to morphology
of the teeth replaced
C. respecting of the habitual occlusion parameters, even if the
mandibular-cranial relations are eccentric
D. morphological shaping must remake the form, the volume and the
position for dental arch harmony restoring
E. Building up some emphasized convexities of the lateral sides in
view of parodontal protection.
ABD 2, 309
357. The retention for the prosthetic crowns can be:
A. partial intrinsic
B. partial extrinsic
C. corono-radicular
D. occlusal
E. total extrinsic
BCE 2, 311
Theme 57.
Stages of therapy through dental bridges – the dental molding print
358. *The process of imprinting for the long-term bridges requires:
A. Sanitation of the prosthetic field
B. A balanced prosthetic field
C. The best moment for imprinting is achieved through pre- and pro-
prosthetics interventions,
D. Using the provisional prosthesis for a period of 2 weeks, in order to
get the marginal periodontium compliance
E. Precise and non-bleeding techniques and hiqh-quality imprinting
materials
C 464
359. The total/global impression is used due to the following advantages:
A. Is the only method which can accurately reproduce the tooth-
prosthetic joint.
B. It can be used no matter the edentulous class
C. It gives occlusal stability in maximal intercuspal position for the
future prosthesis
D. It offers the necessary details for a functional and aesthetic
restoration
E. It allows the making of composite prosthesis on the same working
model
CDE 467
58
360. Single/Unitary guidance impression indications include:
A. Clinically difficult cases
B. Making very precise prostheses
C. Making prostheses from very expensive materials
D. The impossibility of taking a total impression without
single/unitary guidance
E. Using materials wiyh high fluidity
ABC 473
361. Choose the incorrect answer:
A. The unitary models are obtained by sectioning the working model
B. Making the global impression in 3 steps represents the unitary
model of the dental arch, because all the necessary elements for
making a prosthesis are reproduced.
C. Metalic ring impression is a step in obtaining the unitary model
D. The most used materials for making the global impression with
unitary guidance are thio-rubber and thermo-plastic masses
E. The final impression in unitary guidance tehnique is made with
silicone-based materials
ABD 468-
471
362. Using the standard trays for the impressions of the entire dental arch are
mandatory:
A. No matter the number of prepared teeth
B. In three steps global imprinting methods
C. When there are more than two successively teeth prepared
D. In order to obtain a model which respects the relations with the
other teeth, especially with the antagonist ones
E. In order to offer to the technician additional information regarding
homonym teeth
CE 472
363. Thomson described an impression method which uses no unitary guidance:
A. The main feature of the technique regards the physical and
chemical properties of the thio-rubbers
B. The technique uses special devices to keep the optimal
temperature for setting time
C. Displacement of the gingival sulcus requires an astringent or
hemostatic substance
D. Trays impressions are equipped with cold water irrigation canals
E. It uses reversible hydro-colloid impression materials
DE 474
364. Displacement of the gingival sulcus is necessary:
A. No matter the topography of the gingival threshold, because the
materials should be able to show the entire limit of the preparation
B. Every time when the bony threshold has to be located
C. In order to obtain, on a working model, the entire tooth
preparation limit
D. In order to not harm the biological space with the imprinting
materials
E. To obtain the depth of the gingival sulcus
CE 475
59
Theme 58.
Fixed prosthodontics stages: Registration of mandibular-cranial relationships
(MCR)
References:
2. Examenul clinic în gnatologie - Gabriela Ifteni, Alina Apostu, Oana Tanculescu, Ed. Gr. T.
Popa, UMF Iasi, 2014 3. Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate – Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, Ed.
Apollonia, 2001
365. *Relative to Frankfurt plan, the inclination of the articular slope can be of:
A. 0-5°,
B. 15-25°
C. 30-40°
D. 40-55°
E. 60°.
D 3, 172
366. * The recording of the craniomandibular relationship can be done as such:
A. In the same time with the impression
B. Only as a separate stage
C. With occlusal simulator
D. By using T-Scan
E. By using Coe Pak Automix (polyether silicone type)
A
3, 504
367. The occlusion key:
A. Is the oldest method of simulating ATM movements
B. Cannot be used in the absence of a transfer face-bow
C. Can simulate only the opening and closing movements
D. It's also called articulator
E. Is indicated for fixed restorations of large amplitude
AC 3, 184
368. In terms of indications, the face-bows can be:
A. For hinge axis determining
B. For transfer
C. To simulate mandibular kinematics
D. For investigation of mandibular kinematics
E. To determine the suborbital point
ABD 3, 185
369. Among the fully adjustable articulators are:
A. Granger articulator
B. Hanau articulators
C. Protar articulators
D. Dentatus articulators
E. Denar D3 and D3-A-B articulators
AC 3, 184-
185
370. In a normal occlusion the dental contact points must meet certain conditions,
including:
A. The existence of 0-2 mm over-jet
B. Be multiple and uniformly distributed
C. 1/3 frontal overbite
D. Be stable
E. Be precisely located
BDE 3, 146-
147
371. When using the SAM 2PX articulator, fitting the maxillary model will be:
A. Parallel to the pupillary eye line
B. In the maximum intercept position
C. Parallels to the Frankfurt plan
ACD 3, 513
60
D. Perpendicular to the sagittal plane
E. In the centric position
372. The verification and evaluation of movements and test positions performed
with dental contacts are made:
A. from maximum intercuspation position to the centric relation
B. in right and left laterality
C. in maximum opening and closing movements of the mouth
D. in protrusive and retrusive movement
E. through the Dawson method
ABD 3, 149
Theme 59.
Clinical and paraclinical examinations in partial and total edentulism:
partial edentulism
373. Computer tomography (CT) highlights :
A. the structure of the bone;
B. the volume changes of the bone;
C. the static and dynamic evaluation of meniscus position;
D. the correlation with articular disorders;
E. All the answers are incorrect
ABCD PAG
133
374. The investigations using NMR reveal:
A. The structure of the bone;
B. The volume changes of the bone;
C. the soft tissues;
D. the muscular structures;
E. The discoligamentary and cartilaginous structures.
CDE PAG
133
375. Tonometry offers information regarding:
A. muscular tonus;
B. evaluating the inequalities of muscular tensions in the phases of
rest;
C. evaluating the inequalities of muscular tensions in the functional
phases;
D. the presence of neuro-muscular imbalances;
E. All the answers are incorrect
ABCD PAG
135
376. In the case of bone deformations, examination will record:
A. localization;
B. limits;
C. size, aspect of the surface;
D. consistency;
E. relation with soft tissues.
ABCD
E
PAG
92
377. The dynamic inspection, at the opening and closing if the mouth, assesses:
A. The condylar path;
B. The movement path of the menton;
C. The amplitude of mouth opening;
D. The labial commissure;
E. The Facial indexes
ABC PAG
94
61
378. The occlusal parameters are:
A. morphology of occlusal areas;
B. supporting and guiding cusps ;
C. sagittal and transversal occlusion curve ;
D. front curving;
E. occlusal plane.
ABCD
E
PAG
114
379. *All are true but one:
A. The cardio-vascular problems impose precautions regarding
anaesthesia.
B. The cardio-vascular problems do not impose precautions regarding
duration of the treatment sessions.
C. Special precautions are required by the ischemic cardiac disease.
D. The hypertensive patients require similar anaesthesia precautions.
E. The diseases with infectious risk need a special attention, especially
if during one of the stages transiently germs will be produced.
B C7/p95
THEME 59.
Clinical and laboratory examinations in edentulous and partially edentation
total: COMPLETE EDENTATION (p. 32 -83)
380. The dental heredocolateral history is used for detection of:
A. metabolic disorders;
B. heart disease;
C. neurological disorders;
D. dento-maxillary anomalies;
E. multiple caries.
DE p.33
381. The cervico-facial exam is performed:
A. by superficial and deep palpation;
B. by inspection of front and profile;
C. only answers A and B are correct;
D. through auscultation;
E. all answers are correct.
ABD p.34
382. Palpation:
A. accompanies and completes the inspection;
B. It is superficial and profound;
C. Is for the joints noises;
D. seeks the developement of the Gongiac angle;
E. answers A and D are correct.
AB p.36
383. Living and working conditions are recording:
A. type of food
B. stereotype of mastication;
C. the existence of possible professional tics;
D. ganglion shape;
E. TMJ modifications.
ABC p.34
384. Eisenring bag:
A. shall be examined by shallow palpation;
BD p.43
62
B. is examined by inspection by removal of the soft tissues with the
mirror;
C. is an area with physiognomy role;
D. width appraisal is made by swinging the mandible against the side
examined;
E. is examined by pulling the lip outwards for maximum visibility.
Theme 60.
Partial removable prosthesis. Structure of removable prosthesis
385. Types of palatin acrylic main connectors:
A. Dento-mucosal plate.
B. Distal cut plate.
C. Decolletated.
D. Window-shaped.
E. Yvory.
ABCD Cap
2,261
386. The Acrylic resin saddles:
A. are the secondary elements of the removable partial dentures;
B. transfer mastication forces towards the soft and hard tissues support
and tooth support ;
C. Transfer the stress forces to the major connector;
D. Their number is in accordance with the number of potential
prosthetic spaces;
E. Are made of methyl polymetacrylate of 3 mm thickness;
BCD PAG.
164
387. Alveolar acrylic simple clasps:
A. are extensions of the saddles ;
B. are extensions of the main connector;
C. are using the buccal or oral retentive areas on the alveolar ridge;
D. transfer mastication forces towards the soft and hard tissues
support;
E. Transfer the stress forces to the major connector;
AC PAG.1
71
388. The Dento-alveolar acrylic simple clasps:
A. Have the shape of a interrupted circle;
B. leaning on the tooth;
C. leaning partially on the tooth, partially on the alveolar process;
D. Can be acrylic or mixed, metallic-acrylic;
E. Correct answers B,C,D.
ACD PAG.1
72
389. Flexible acrylate Valplast:
A. It belongs to the Nylon family;
B. Valplast removable partial dentures are the most flexible of the
acrylic removable partial dentures ;
C. it can be processed in very thick and flexible form;
D. Valplast removable partial dentures are the first choice in treating
patients with a large torus or with palatal clefts.
E. Correct answers C,D.
ABD PAG.1
76
390. *The Saddles:
A. Transmit the soliciting forces toward the main connector.
A cap 2,
252
63
B. They can’t oppose to the moving forces.
C. Don’t have an anti-movable function.
D. The saddles can be metallic.
E. All answers are correct.
391. *The next affirmations are correct but one:
A. The acrylic saddles are made of polymethacrylate methyl of 2 mm
thickness.
B. The vestibular versant shapes itself and stretches till the reflection
zone of the mobile mucosis.
C. This oral versant can miss from the saddle when the edentulous
ridge from this area is outlined.
D. At the tuberosity level the acrylic saddle will cover this biostatic
area.
E. The acrylic saddle will cover the piriform tuberculus.
C cap
2,253
Theme 61.
Structural elements of partially skeletized prosthesis
392. The Retentiometer allows:
A. Drawing the prosthetic equator;
B. Establishing the most acceptable insertion axis and uninsertion of
the denture;
C. measuring the dental retentivities ;
D. establishment of the position place of the terminal part, flexible, of
the retentive arm of the clasp
E. All the answers are correct
CD Pag.19
9
393. *The stabilitation represents::
A. function through which the clasp opposes to horizontal movements;
B. function through which the clasp hampers the involuntary
separation of the denture from the prosthetic field;
C. function of the clasp through which the effect of the flexible part of
the retentive arm is neutralized ;
D. function of the clasp through which, after being correctly applied
on the abutment tooth, does not have to exert active forces.
E. function through which the clasp opposes to vertical movements in
mucosal direction, ensuring the periodontal support;
A Pag.20
3
394. Back action clasp:
A. Applied especially on molars ;
B. Applied especially on premolars and canines ;
C. Has a very good elasticity ;
D. the occlusal rest doesn’t have a minor connector ;
E. All the answers are correct.
BCD Pag.21
4
395. *Secondary connectors:
A. Are rigid elements.
B. The secondary connectors can be: elastic, rigid, articulated.
C. Elastic secondary connectors are "S" shaped and link the segmented
saddles with the main connector in the Rigolet system.
E
64
D. Rigid secondary connectors are frequently used and can be
localized proximally.
E. All answers are correct.
396. *The path of insertion:
A. The path followed by the denture from its first contact with the
teeth until it is fully seated.
B. This path doesn’t coincide with the path of withdrawal.
C. This path may or may not coincide with the path of displacement.
D. Correct answers A,C.
E. Correct answers A,B,C.
D
397. *The Ney system:
A. The rigid structures are located in the supportive cone or supra-
equatorial areas.
B. The groove where the rest will be fixed will be 2.5 mm deep and will
have an oval form with rounded angles.
C. The groove length will be 1/4 of the vestibular-oral diameter of the
occlusal face.
D. The groove width is 1/3 of the mesio-distal diameter of the occlusal
face.
E. The groove has a round shape.
A
Theme 62.
Biodynamics of skeletized prosthesis in oral cavity
398. *The dynamic diagram is useful in :
A. Marking the stability arches.
B. Orientate the RP vector.
C. Marking the maximum stability point of the palate.
D. Marking the gravity point of the palate.
E. Establish the teeth that will support the maintenance and stability
elements.
B
399. *The maxilla gravity centre is on the sagittal axis:
A. Found at the junction of posterior 2/5 with anterior 3/5.
B. Found at the junction of anterior 2/5 with posterior 3/5.
C. On the middle of the axis.
D. Found at the junction of anterior 2/3 with posterior 1/3.
E. Found at the junction of anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3.
A
400. *The medial movements of the prosthesis appears :
A. Inverse occlusal sagittal curve .
B. Accentuated occlusal sagittal curve.
C. Incorrect bite.
D. Sticky foods.
E. Because of the weight of the prosthesis.
C
401. *The axis of insertion:
A. Mc. Cracken defined as the direction of motion of a fixed
prosthesis
B. consider Ackermann insertion axis as bisector axis formed by the
B
65
teeth adjacent to edentation
C. believes that the American concept can be chosen depending on the
model retentive areas
D. draw the axis is done with compass
E. no correct answer.
402. *About the radiary forces are true the next affirmation but one:
A. Are directed from the arch.
B. Are generated by the inclining of the teeth towards inside for the
maxilla.
C. They tend to interrupt the arch's continuity.
D. The vitality of the teeth insures certain elasticity to the pillar teeth,
giving them a wider resistance than that of the non-vital teeth that
are friable.
E. Due to the dental mobility, the teeth spread in fan, especially in the
frontal region.
B
403. *The active forces:
A. Act on the teeth.
B. Act on the fix or removable gnatho-prosthetic appliance.
C. The active muscles that impose movement on the mandible
generate the active forces.
D. All answers are correct.
E. All answers are incorrect.
D
404. *Passive forces:
A. Act on the teeth.
B. Act on the fix or removable gnatho-prosthetic appliance.
C. Are given by the mandible's weight.
D. The active muscles that impose movement on the mandible
generate the pasive forces.
E. The temporal muscles, by contracting bilaterally, determine the
movement in a postero-inferior sense.
C
Theme 63.
Stages of therapy using partially removable prosthesis: dental impression
405. Which of the following statements show features of the muco-static functional
impression:
A. it uses short-rimmed individual impression trays
B. it uses high fluidity impression materials
C. it records the tonicity of musculature from the periphery of the
prosthetic field
D. the margins of the impressions are thin and tall
E. impressions which evidence suction are obtained.
ABD
406. Which are the types of standard impression trays used in the removable
denture therapy
A. Metallic impression tray with retention device
B. Impression tray with water spraying device
C. Compression impression tray
ABD
66
D. Impression tray made of plastic material
E. None of the previous.
407. The Movements made during the Preliminary impression are:
A. Non-functional movements performed by the doctor’
B. Non-automatic functional movements;
C. Automatic functional movements;
D. Non-functional movements performed by the patient
E. Correct answers C, D
ABC PAG.3
22
408. The mucostatic functional impressions are recorded using:
A. Standard trays;
B. individual trays with short margins;
C. using impression material of great fluidity (mucoseal);
D. The margins of the impression are thin and tall;
E. are recorded with individual trays functionalised on the basis of
functionalisation of mobile peripheral structures by tests
BCD PAG.3
27
409. Final impression with dentally carved port impression:
A. It is an impression technique in two times;
B. a functional tray carved at the level of teeth freeing their vestibular
and oral face;
C. a functional tray carved at the level of teeth freeing occlusal face;
D. a functional tray is equipped with pressure buttons at the level of
the edentulous crest.
E. a functional tray is equipped with pressure buttons at the level of
the teeth.
ABD PAG.3
34
410. *Which of the following statements are features of the muco-dynamic
functional impression:
A. It uses standard dental impression trays
B. It uses customized individual dental impression trays
C. Impressions which fail to by-pass peripheral mobile formations are
obtained
D. Non-functional impressions are obtained
E. Exceedingly short-rimmed impressions are obtained.
B
411. *In prosthetic therapy using partial removable prosthesis, the masticatory
movements made within the functional impression of the prosthetic field are
not carried out with:
A. Occlusion braces
B. Individual impression trays fitted with lingualized occlusion
C. With the help of old prostheses
D. With occlusion wax
E. Correct answer A, D.
E
Theme 64.
Clinical stages of partial edentation through removable means - Mandibulo-
cranial relations record in treatment of partial edentation.
67
412. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, the method of determining the
centric relation by stimulating the molar occlusion reflex is characterized by
the following particularities:
A. It aims at reawakening the old periodontal-muscular reflexes of
centric positioning
B. The practitioner touches with the fingers the occlusion rims in front
of the molars
C. It is made through bilateral compressions on the temporal muscle
D. The practitioner touches with the fingers the occlusion rims in front
of the central incisive
E. The practitioner touches with the fingers the occlusion rims in front
of the canines
AB
413. The objective conditions of determining the mandibular-cranial relationships
postulated by LEJOYEUX are:
A. Prior to any attempt to determine and record a centric relation, the
patient should be placed in ideal conditions of physiological and
psychological balance
B. The determination of DVO constitutes the indispensable previous
element for the determination of the centric relation
C. The stabilization of the occlusion moulds base on the model is a
necessary and sufficient condition so that in the process of
determination of the centric relation the tissues of the support
surface are in the same condition as at the moment of impression
taking.
D. The centric relation is determined prior to the DVO
E. The pressure should correspond to that exerted during the
impression process.
ABCE
414. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, the causes of incorrect
recording of mandibular-cranial relationships are:
A. forcing the mouth to close
B. realization of occlusion rims out of soft wax
C. the super-extension of the occlusion mould base
D. the construction of the occlusion mould out of acrylate
E. the contact of mandibular anterior teeth with the maxillary
occlusion mould
ABCE
415. In the therapy using partial removable dentures, in the stage of recording
mandibular-cranial relationships one should consider the predetermination of
certain parameters of centric occlusion, such as:
A. The level and orientation of the occlusion plane
B. The inter-arch relationships
C. The realization of the oral corridor
D. Occlusive clearance
E. The realization of masticating units
ABD
416. The difference between the vertical dimension in posture and that in centric
relation is:
A. 5-6 mm;
B. 1-2 mm
C. representing the space of physiological inocclusion.
D. approximately 2-4 mm
E. 3 mm
CD PAG.3
45
68
417. *In the partial removable denture therapy, the stage of recording the inter-
maxillary relationship follows after:
A. The test of standard impression tray
B. Preliminary impression
C. Adjustment of individual impression tray
D. Functional impression and the realization of the functional mould
E. The test of teeth mould
D
418. *In the partial removable denture therapy, in the case the two arches are
mutilated by partial edentation, the main issue of prosthesis is:
A. The evaluation of the support teeth
B. Preliminary impression
C. Restoration of posture relationship and centric relationship
D. Verification of metallic skeleton
E. Sealing the terminal saddles
C
THEME 65.
Stages of Complete DenturesTherapy: Impression (p. 465-544)
419. *Functional impression technique ALL-ORAL:
A. is described by Lejoyeux;
B. Is a combined impression method;
C. Is an impression method that requires sr Ivotray trays;
D. during functional impression, metallic trays are used;
E. does not require recording devices for intermax relationships.
B p. 519
420. Choosing the standard tray:
A. Is made obligatory with the rapporteur;
B. Is done through repeated attempts;
C. Responses A and B are incorrect;
D. Involves the choice of a slightly oversized tray;
E. Involves the choice of an oversized tray.
CD p. 474-
475
421. *For impression with thermoplastic material:
A. Trays with a lesser profile can be used;
B. Larger trays can be used;
C. Material that deforms after it hardens;
D. Answers A and C are correct;
E. No answer is correct.
A p. 476
422. Anatomical landmarks in the maxillary bearing area are:
A. Lingual frenulum;
B. Medial palatine suture;
C. Buccal frenulum;
D. Palatine fovea;
E. No answer is correct.
BCD p. 481
423. Anatomical landmarks in the mandibular bearing area are:
A. Vestibular frontal zone;
B. Oblique internal line;
C. The sublingual fold;
D. genioglossus muscle;
CE p. 481-
482
69
E. Mylohyoid muscle.
424. The armentarium for preliminary impression are:
A. Shellac base trays ;
B. Fluid silicone;
C. Water at 240 C;
D. spatula;
E. wax.
CDE p.482
425. Preliminary maxillary impression technique is :
A. mixing alginate with water at 210 C ;
B. Applying alginate in the center of the palate if it is deep;
C. Choosing a tray that provides 3 mm of space to the tissues;
D. Applying initially the tray in the frontal side;
E. Loading the tray in 1 min max.
BE p.486
THEME 66.
Stages of therapy dentures: determining intermaxillary relations (p.550-564)
426. Molar occlusion reflex stimulation:
A. It is a simple method for determining the relationship of posture;
B. Produces the re-awakening of the old periodontal muscle reflexes of
postural positioning;
C. Is a simple method of determining the centric relationship;
D. Aims to induce the posture relationship;
E. Produces the re-awakening of the old periodontal muscle reflexes of
centric positioning.
CE p. 559
427. *Straight profile:
A. represents the normal prototype and therefore the Camper and
Occlusion plans will be divergent to the distal;
B. It occurs in patients with Class III Angle and therefore Camper and
the occlusion plans are distally divergent;
C. It occurs in patients with II Class Angle and therefore Camper and
the occlusion plans will be converging toward distal;
D. represents the normal prototype and therefore the Camper and
Occlusion plans will be parallel;
E. no correct answer.
D p. 552
428. Extraoral ccheck up of occlusion rims:
A. is done in the absence of the patient;
B. verifies compliance with the indications given by the rims and the
laboratory sheet;
C. answers A and B are correct;
D. Is a simple method that uses pre-extraction landmarks;
E. All answers are correct.
ABC p. 550
429. Anthropometric methods, without pre-extraction landmarks, for determining
vertical dimension of the lower floor are:
A. Sears profile;
B. Wright method;
C. Boianov method;
CD p. 554-
555
70
D. Landa method;
E. Swenson method.
430. Among the lower-floor vertical dimension determination functional methods are
also:
A. Frankfurt plane method ( Landa method);
B. Silvermann method;
C. Robinson method;
D. Willis method;
E. all answers are correct.
BC p. 556
431. Among the simple methods of determining centric relation are also included:
A. Green temporal maneuver
B. Willis method ;
C. Silvermann method;
D. Wild method;
E. Gysi masseter maneuver.
AE p. 558-
559
432. Patterson method:
A. Ensures the stimulation of vestigial postural positional reflexes;
B. Uses wax dentures specially prepared;
C. Is a simple method of determining centric relation.;
D. The patient performs closing and opening movements of the mouth
E. Uses occlusion rims specially prepared.
CE p.559
TEMA 67.
STAGES OF COMPLETE DENTURE THERAPY: WAX DENTURE TRY IN
(p. 568 -582)
433. Retentive zone:
A. Can not create prosthetic problems;
B. Can change the insertion of the denture;
C. When they have mucosal substrates, raises problems with insertion
of the denture
D. The edges of the denture that exceed the retentions will be made of
resilient material
E. No correct answer
BD p. 582
434. *The control of artificial arches aims to:
A. The lateral teeth have increased cuspidation;
B. The median line must correspond to the direction of the palatine
rugae;
C. The vestibular curvature must be concave;
D. lateral teeth are mounted including tuberosities and tubercles
E. lower lateral teeth to satisfy the rule of Pound.
E p. 569
435. Controlling the occlusion and master casts involves.
A. The incisal line is drawn on the cast;
B. The American lines are drawn on the cast;
C. the sagittal curvature of the edentuous mandibular ridge is drawn on
the cast;
D. The screw is locked
CD p. 568-
569
71
E. The occlusor has a gentle play in the hinge for easy maneuverability.
436. Mandibula wax denture:
A. Its maintenance is easy to verify;
B. The posterior position of the tongue can make a significant
contribution to maintaining the wax denture
C. Flanges are controlled by inspection and palpation;
D. Its stability is checked by alternative pressures at the lower premolars
E. All answers are correct.
CD p. 570-
571
437. The aesthetic control of the wax dentures implies:
A. Verifying the restoration of the vertical posture dimension;
B. The assessment of naso-labial and labial ditches that need to be
duller than before dentures;
C. That the upper lip be more prominent than the lower one by fitting
with the frontal super-occlusion (most of the cases);
D. That the complete dentures are inserted into the oral cavity regardless
of whether the practitioner is fully satisfied with them;
E. All answers are correct.
BC p. 572-
573
438. In restoring the dento-facial aesthetics for a complete edentulous patient:
A. The shape of the central incisors must reflect the contour of the
patient's face;
B. Masculinity is characterized by the round, smooth teeth;
C. The difference between the facial width and that of the dental arch
produces the natural impression;
D. Incision edges can simulate natural abrasion with age;
E. No correct answer.
AD p. 573
TEMA 68.
Dentures try in appointment and adapting
(583-593)
439. In the immediate adaptation stage:
A. wearing dentures should least less than 24 hours;
B. There is no full mouth feeling;
C. Painful spots may appear in the mouth;
D. Daily, gums should be cleaned and massage with a soft brush;
E. Dentures should be cleaned with a brush and toothpaste.
CD p. 591
440. In phonetic control with the dentures in the mouth:
A. correct any premature contacts
B. occlusion paper is used on both sides at the same timese
C. is verified the existence of the neutral corridor by pronouncing the
word mississippi
D. answers A and B are false
E. we check if the S phonem sounds like a buzz.
DE p. 591-
592
441. To adjust complete dentures:
A. Requires polishing if it is interested in the internal face of the
dentures
BD p.583
72
B. It is advisable to rigorously remove the aniline traces with alcohol
from the mucosa
C. It is recommended to mark the lesion itself
D. It is recommended to mark the perilesional area
E. It is advisable to rigorously remove the aniline traces with distilled
water from the mucosa.
442. In the upper jaw the areas of decubitus occur in particular:
A. In the area of the internal oblique line
B. Vestibular, in tuberosities area
C. Palatal in tuberosity area
D. At upper labial frenulum level
E. At the level of the retentive ednetulous ridge.
BDE p. 583
443. The lack of maintenance of the denture can be caused by:
A. Occlusal vertical dimension too big
B. Foreign body under the denture
C. weak peripherical closure
D. occlusal vertical dimension too small
E. Perforated base.
CE p. 584
444. Lack of denture stability can be caused:
A. too long flanges
B. too short flanges
C. occlusal vertical dimension too big
D. occlusal vertical dimension too small
E. no correct answer.
BCD p. 585
445. Xerostomia treatment is done with :
A. Sialogogue medication;
B. Choleretic medication type of sulfane;
C. adrenalin;
D. pilocarpine
E. Artificial saliva.
ADE p. 588
446. Mandibular areas where sores injuries occur mainly are:
A. in palatal rugae area;
B. at the level of pyriform tubercle covered by resilient mucosa;
C. at the level of pyriform tubercle covered by movable mucosa;
D. at external oblique line area
E. at internal oblique line area.
BC p. 583
TEMA 69.
DENTURES LESIONS (593-601)
447. In the etiology of dentures stomatitis, the following local factors can be
incriminated:
A. increased temperature under the denture base
B. diabetes
C. pauses in denture wearing
D. microporosityof the acrylate
AD p.593
73
E. ageing.
448. *The treatment of epithelio-conjunctive hyperplasia consists of:
A. Removal of aggressor material
B. Correct occlusal balancing
C. Polishing denture flanges
D. Surgical removal and restoration of the denture
E. No correct answer.
D p.598
449. Oral candidias:
A. is a freqvent disease
B. its appearance is not related to the presence of pre-existing local or
general factors
C. Is favored by local chronic irritation of improperly adapted dentures
D. Is favoured with ageing
E. no correct answer.
CD p.599
450. Treatment of chronic atrophic candidiasis:
A. Is surgical;
B. Requires dentures hygiene;
C. Requires dentures removal during night time;
D. Consists in rinsing with hydrogen peroxide;
E. It consists in restoring the denture.
CE p.601
451. In situ erosions:
A. are the consequence of an impression mistake;
B. clinically they look like limited congestive areas with or without
ulceration;
C. are ulcerated areas;
D. give pain ranging from discomfort to severe pain;
E. do not cause pain.
ABD p.595
TEMA 70.
Dentures reoptimization (693-703)
452. In case of repair of a simple fracture of the denture with two fragments :
A. the two fragments will be isolated with water carefully put back
toghether
B. two fragments are glued with provisional bonding Repin
C. The fragments can be solidarized by dropping the wax along the
fracture line
D. The area where the repair was carried out is not processed or
polished
E. Inside the dentures, fluid silicone for the impression will be poured.
CE p.699
453. *The indications of lining are all except:
A. Advanced atrophy of the denture bearing area
B. improving support to a small denture
C. In clinical and laboratory deficiencies
D. In the event of a deterioration of the master cast
E. Prophylaxis of tissues sensitive to masticatory pressures.
B p.693
74
454. The objectives of the lining are:
A. Increasing succion
B. stopping horizontal movements
C. obtaining a balanced support for the remaining teeth and bone-
mucous support
D. answers B and C are correct
E. Muco-bone prophylaxis.
BCD p.693-
694
455. Direct lining:
A. Is done in the laboratory and the private practice;
B. Is done directly on the mucosa without a cast
C. It does not have the risk of irritation to the oral mucosa;
D. Requires hygiene of the prosthetic field;
E. It is a quick method.
CE p.694
456. Indirect lining:
A. Is done in the laboratory;
B. It does not have the risk of irritation to the oral mucosa;
C. It is a quick method.
D. Has low consumption of materials;
E. no correct answer.
AB p.695
457. Closed mouth lining:
A. In the laboratory phase the boxing is replaced by a lining press;
B. The material used is slowly progressive viscosity;
C. The material used in the clinical phase is thermoplastic;
D. have the risk of irritation to the oral mucosa;
E. no correct answer.
AC p.694