PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY NAME OF THE POST AW may recognize any person as “Competent Person”, under...
Transcript of PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY NAME OF THE POST AW may recognize any person as “Competent Person”, under...
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEYNAME OF THE POSTIndustrial Safety and Health Services, Class II, Advt No. 100/2016-17(AAW) Preliminary Test on 16-04-2017Subeject Que : 101 - 300Publish Date : 18-04-2017Last Date to send suggestion(s) :25-04-2017Note: Candidate must ensure the compliance to send all suggestion in the given format with reference to this paper with provisional answer key only.
AAW - A ] 16 [Contd.
101. The Factory Act, 1948 extends to _______ .
(A) Whole of India, except state of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Whole of India
(C) Whole of India, except state of Tamilnadu
(D) Whole of India except North-Eastern States
102. Under which of the Section of the Factories Act, 1948, the term “Hazardous Process” has
been defined ?
(A) Section 2(d) (B) Section 2(f)
(C) Section 2(ab) (D) Section 2(cb)
103. Under Section 2(k) of the Factories Act, 1948, the definition of which word has been
defined ?
(A) Machinery (B) Worker
(C) Manufacturing process (D) Factory
104. Under which provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 general duties of the occupier have
been provided ?
(A) Section - 6 (B) Section - 7-A
(C) Section - 8 (D) Section - 8-A
105. Who will appoint “Certifying Surgeon” under Section-10 of the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(A) Central Government
(B) Medical In-charge of the State
(C) State Government
(D) Owner of the Factory with permission of the District Magistrate
106. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, Painting and Varnishing of all doors and
window frames and other wooden or metallic framework and shutters shall be carried
out at least once in every period of _______ years.
(A) Three years (B) Ten years
(C) One year (D) Five years
107. Whoever spits in contravention of the provision of Section - 20(3) of the Factories Act,
1948 shall be punished with _______ .
(A) One hundred rupees fine (B) Fine not exceeding five rupees
(C) Fifty rupees fine (D) Two hundred rupees fine
108. The occupier shall, at least _______ days before, he begins to occupy or use any premises
as a factory, sent a written notice, to the Chief Inspector.
(A) Thirty days (B) Forty Five days
(C) Ten days (D) Fifteen days
AAW - A ] 17 P.T.O.
109. Under which of the Section of the Factories Act, 1948, he provision regarding the
precaution of the use of portable electric light is provided ?
(A) Section - 36A (B) Section - 35B
(C) Section - 30A (D) Section - 47D
110. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, who shall appoint site Appraisal
Committee ?
(A) Central Government (B) Inspector of Factories
(C) District Magistrate (D) State Government
111. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, in case of death or bodily injury due to
accident in the factory, to which authority, the manager shall give immediate notice with
regard to the same ?
(A) District Judge (B) District Health Officer
(C) Municipal Council of that Area (D) Chief Inspector
112. Under which of the Section of the Factories Act, 1948 the State Government has powers
to direct enquiry into cases of accident or disease ?
(A) Section - 78 (B) Section - 90
(C) Section - 89 (D) Section - 69
113. Under which of the following Chapter of the Factories Act, 1948, the provisions regarding
“Penalties and Procedure” have been provided ?
(A) Chapter VII (B) Chapter X
(C) Chapter XI (D) Chapter VIII
114. Who may recognize any person as “Competent Person”, under Rule 2-A of the Gujarat
Factories Rules, 1963 ?
(A) Chief Inspector (B) Manager of the Factory
(C) Supervisor (D) Head of the Trade Union
115. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, up to what age of children of women
workers the facility for “Creches” is to be provided ?
(A) For all children.
(B) For children below the age of three years only.
(C) For children who cannot be left alone at home.
(D) Under the age of Six years.
AAW - A ] 18 [Contd.
116. No manufacturing process shall be carried out in any premises of a factory constructed,
reconstructed or extended or in any premises which has been taken into use as a factory
or part of the factory unit a issuance of _______ .
(A) Certificate of manufacturing (B) Certificate of Stability
(C) Certificate of Production (D) Certificate of Process
117. Under which Rule of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, provisions regarding Application
for Registration of the Factory is provided ?
(A) Rule - 3 (B) Rule - 15
(C) Rule - 4 (D) Rule - 16
118. What is the amount of fees to be charged for the application of transfer of licence, under
the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963 ?
(A) One Hundred Rupees (B) Two Hundred Rupees
(C) Fifty Rupees (D) Five Hundred Rupees
119. Who is responsible for maintaining records under Rule 12-B of the Gujarat Factories
Rules, 1963 ?
(A) Manager (B) Occupier
(C) Workers (D) Inspector General
120. Under Rule-14 of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963 which of the following provision is
provided ?
(A) Powers of Inspector (B) Appointment of Inspector
(C) Issuance of Licence (D) Renewal of Licence
121. The expression “gas-holder” under Rule 61-A of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963 means
a water-sealed gas holder which has a storage capacity of not less than _______ .
(A) 140.5 Cubic meters (B) 141.5 Cubic meters
(C) 130.56 Cubic meters (D) 132.4 Centi meters
122. In factory where there are more than _______ workers employed, then, the drinking
water supplied to the workers shall from the 1st of March to 30th of November in every
year be cooled by Ice or other effective method as per the provisions of the Gujarat
Factories Rules, 1963.
(A) 100 (B) 50
(C) 75 (D) 25
123. Under which of the rule of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, a provision for means of
escape in case of Fire is provided ?
(A) Rule 66 (B) Rule 45
(C) Rule 78 (D) Rule 59
AAW - A ] 19 P.T.O.
124. According to Rule 68-F of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, where there are more than
_______ number of workers there is need to establish safety committee.
(A) 200 (B) 500
(C) 150 (D) 250
125. What is the tenure of safety committee, appointed under Rule 68-F of the Gujarat Factories
Rules, 1963 ?
(A) Five years (B) Ten years
(C) Two years (D) Three years
126. Under which of the provision of the Gujarat Factories Rules, 1963, the term “Health
Officer” has been defined ?
(A) Rule - 2(j) (B) Rule - 2(i)
(C) Rule - 2(h) (D) Rule - 2(m)
127. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, “Adolescent” means a person, who has
completed _______ .
(A) 14th year of age
(B) Completed his 15th year of age but has not completed his 18th year of age
(C) 18th year and above
(D) 15th year and above
128. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 “Young Person” means a person _______.
(A) above 18th year of age
(B) minor below 18 years of age
(C) who is either a child or an adoscent
(D) below 21 years of age
129. As per provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, “Day” means _______ .
(A) A period of twenty four hours, beginning at midnight.
(B) A period before Sunset.
(C) A period after Sunrise.
(D) A period form 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
130. Under which of the section of the Factories Act, 1948, the term “Week” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(j) (B) Section 2(i)
(C) Section 2(h) (D) Section 2(f)
AAW - A ] 20 [Contd.
131. The meaning of the term “Occupier” is _______, under the Factories Act, 1948.
(A) The owner of the factory
(B) The person who has invested for the factory
(C) The manager or owner of the factory
(D) A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory.
132. Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, who is empowered to appoint inspectors,
for the purposes of this Act ?
(A) State Government (B) Central Government
(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) The Chief Inspector of Factories
133. As per the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, if the plans / specification has been
submitted to the State Government / Chief Inspector, by Registered A.D. post and no
order is communicated then after, what period it shall be deemed that the permission
have been granted ?
(A) After one year
(B) After six months
(C) After three months from the date on which it is so sent
(D) After one month
134. What are the provisions under the Gujarat Factories Rues, 1963, where the licence granted
under these Rules is lost or destroyed ?
(A) The factory will have to be closed immediately.
(B) The plans of the building and machineries are to be resubmitted for approval.
(C) The duplicate license may be granted.
(D) The manager of the factory will be punished for loss or destroying license.
135. In which of the Form No, the leave book prescribed under Rule 95, which is to be provided
by the manager shall be maintained in ?
(A) Form No. : 16 (B) Form No. : 14
(C) Form No. : 19 (D) Form No. : 28
136. What is the object mentioned in the Preamble of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 is
to _______ .
(A) preserve the environment and matters connected therewith
(B) impose restrictions on polluted industries
(C) to initiate proper status of better environment
(D) provides for the protection and improvement of environment and matters connected
therewith
AAW - A ] 21 P.T.O.
137. As per the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 the term “Environmental
Pollutant” is defined as ;
(A) Industries which are polluting.
(B) Any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration is may be or
tend to be, injurious to environment.
(C) Hazardous and toxic chemicals which are injurious to environment.
(D) Any substance which is likely to pollute the Air.
138. Under the provisions of the Environment protecting Act, 1986, who is empowered to
take all such measures as deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and
improving the quality of environment ?
(A) State Pollution Control Board (B) State Government
(C) Central Government (D) High Court of the State
139. As per the provisions of the Environment protection Act, 1986, the measures for protecting
and improving quality of environment includes;
(A) Order to close down and dispose polluted industries
(B) Laying down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants
(C) To prosecute the polluted industries
(D) To assist the industries for manufacturing
140. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers Central government to issue direction
in writing to any person, officer or any authority to _______ .
(A) to direct stoppage or regulations of the supply of electricity or water or any other
service.
(B) to direct industries to stoppage of purchase of raw materials.
(C) to direct industries to terminate the services of the manpower deployed by them
(D) to direct industries for stoppage of selling its products
141. As per the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 any person empowered
by the central government in this behalf shall have a right to enter any place with assistance
as he considers necessary _______ .
(A) at any time
(B) during the day time from Sunrise to Sunset.
(C) at all reasonable times
(D) at the time which is given by the employer
AAW - A ] 22 [Contd.
142. Any person, empowered by the central government as per the provisions of the
Environment Protection Act, 1986, shall have power to take samples of air, water, soil or
other substance from any factory for _______ .
(A) for preserving the same
(B) for the purpose of analysis
(C) for the purpose to sell it
(D) for any reason as he deems fit and proper
143. Under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which of the following is
vested with powers of establishing Environmental Laboratory or Laboratories
(A) The Central Pollution Control Board
(B) State Government
(C) The State Pollution Control Board
(D) Central Government
144. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 shall extend to _______ .
(A) whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) whole of India except State of Andhra Pradesh
(C) whole of India
(D) whole of India except State of Tripura
145. The officers, appointed under Section 4(1) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 are
under the control of ______ .
(A) State Government
(B) Ministry of Environment of the State
(C) Pollution Control Board
(D) Central Government
146. Which of the following is not the power granted to the central government under
Section - 5 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 ?
(A) Power to order for closure of any industry.
(B) Power to issue arrest warrant against the person polluting environment.
(C) Power to stoppage of any project.
(D) Power to stop supply of water or electricity.
AAW - A ] 23 P.T.O.
147. In which of the following chapter of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, the provisions
regarding the “Prevention, control and abetment of environmental pollution” are
provided ?
(A) Chapter III (B) Chapter II
(C) Chapter IV (D) Chapter V
148. Under the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, if any person having
intention to make complaint, has to give _______ days prior notice to the respondent
before making complaint to the central government or other authority.
(A) 30 days (B) 45 days
(C) 50 days (D) 60 days
149. Under which of the provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, all the members of the
authority so constituted under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 are deemed to be
“Public Servent” ?
(A) Section 12 (B) Section 34
(C) Section 21 (D) Section 67
150. On which date, the Environment Protection Act received assent of the President of India ?
(A) 23-04-1986 (B) 23-05-1986
(C) 23-06-1986 (D) 23-07-1986
151. Which provision of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, bars the jurisdiction of the
civil court ?
(A) Section - 22 (B) Section - 23
(C) Section - 24 (D) Section - 25
152. Under which of the section of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, makes the rules
thereunder ?
(A) Section - 20 (B) Section - 25
(C) Section - 18 (D) Section - 3
153. Every rule made under Section - 25 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 shall be laid
before the each house of parliament for the total period of how many days ?
(A) Sixty days (B) Thirty days
(C) Forty Five days (D) Fifteen days
154. From which date, the Environment Protection Act, came into force ?
(A) dt : 15-08-1986 (B) dt : 26-01-1986
(C) dt : 19-11-1986 (D) dt : 02-10-1986
AAW - A ] 24 [Contd.
155. From which date the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 has been commenced ?
(A) dt : 18-10-2010 (B) dt : 26-01-2010
(C) dt : 02-10-2010 (D) dt : 15-08-2010
156. Which of the following Court is having jurisdiction to try the offence punishable under
the Gujarat Payment of Unemployment Allowance to Workman (in Factories) Act, 1981 ?
(A) Principal Senior Civil Judge Court
(B) District Court
(C) Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate First Class Court
(D) Judicial Magistrate Second Class Court
157. Under which of the following Section of the Gujarat Payment of Unemployment Allowance
to Workman (in Factories) Act, 1981, the provision with regard to the offence committed
by the company is provided ?
(A) Section - 8 (B) Section - 9
(C) Section - 7 (D) Section - 10
158. As per the provision of Section 3 of the Gujarat Payment of Unemployment Allowance to
Workman (in Factories) Act, 1981, under which of the following situation a person would
not set unemployment allowance ?
(A) Where, the Employer fails to pay
(B) Where, the Employer refuses to pay
(C) Where, the Employer is ready to pay
(D) Where, the Employer is unable to pay
159. As per the Provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Management
Authority shall consist of not more than _______ members.
(A) Seven (B) Five
(C) Nine (D) Eleven
160. Under which of the following provision of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the
provision regarding the meeting of the National Disaster Authority is provided ?
(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4
(C) Section 5 (D) Section 6
161. On which of the following date, the Disaster Management Act, 2005 received the assent
of the President of India ?
(A) dt : 23-12-2005 (B) dt : 02-10-2005
(C) dt : 14-09-2005 (D) dt : 23-08-2005
AAW - A ] 25 P.T.O.
162. As per the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016, under which of the following section
the term “Commissioning mother” has been defined ?
(A) Section 3(ba) (B) Section 3(c)
(C) Section 3(da) (D) Section 3(a)
163. As per the provision of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016, what is the
maximum period for woman will set the maternity leave ?
(A) Twenty weeks (B) Fifteen weeks
(C) Thirty weeks (D) Twenty Six weeks
164. As per the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Bill, 2016, under which of the following section
the term “Creche facility” has been defined ?
(A) Section 10A (B) Section 11A
(C) Section 11B (D) Section 10B
165. As per the provisions of the Building and other Construction Workers (Regulation of
employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996, the term “Contractor” means a person
_______ .
(A) Who undertake to produce given result for any establishment
(B) Who supplies goods or articles of manufacture
(C) Who supplies building workers
(D) Who enters into contract
166. Under which of the rule of the Chemical Accidents (emergency planning, Preparedness)
and Response Rules, 1996, the term “Hazardous Chemical” has been defined ?
(A) Rule 2(a) (B) Rule 2(b)
(C) Rule 2(c) (D) Rule 2 (d)
167. Any industrial zone earmarked by the Industrial Development Corporation of the State
Government or by the State Government, under the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. and R.)
Rules, 1996 is known as _______ .
(A) Industrial Market (B) Industrial Board
(C) Industrial Pocket (D) Industrial Gate
168. Under which of the rule of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. and R.) Rules, 1996, the term
“Major Chemical Accident” has been defined ?
(A) Rule 2(d) (B) Rule 2(g)
(C) Rule 2(f) (D) Rule 2(h)
AAW - A ] 26 [Contd.
169. Within how many days from the enactment of these Rules, under Rule - 3 of the Chemical
Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996, the central government will constitute central crisis
group ?
(A) Sixty days (B) Ninety days
(C) Thirty days (D) One hundred twenty days
170. Under Rule - 3 of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. and R.) Rules, 1996, the central crisis
group shall meet at least once in _______ months and follow such procedure for transaction
of business as it deems fit,
(A) Six months (B) Three months
(C) Twelve months (D) Two months
171. Which of the following is not the work of the central crisis group, as per Rule - 4 of the
Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996 ?
(A) Setup a functional control room at such place as it deems fit.
(B) Publish a list of major Accident Hazards installations.
(C) Publish a list of members of the Central, State and District crisis groups.
(D) Publish a report specifying the pollutant contents used.
172. Who shall be the apex body to deal with major chemical accidents and to provide expert
guidance for handling major chemical accidents under Rule - 5 of the Chemical Accidents
(E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996 ?
(A) Central Group Crisis (B) State Crisis Group
(C) District Crisis Group (D) Local Crisis Group
173. Which of the following is not the function of the State Crisis Group, as per the provisions
of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996 ?
(A) Assist to State Government in managing chemical accidents at a site.
(B) Assist the State Government in managing the process of pollution clearance.
(C) Assist the State Government in the planning, preparedness and ruiligation of
major chemical accidents at site in the state.
(D) Review the progress report submitted by the District Crisis Group
174. As per the provisions of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996, the District
Crisis Group shall meet at every _______ days and send a report to the State Crisis
Group.
(A) 60 days (B) 30 days
(C) 90 days (D) 45 days
AAW - A ] 27 P.T.O.
175. As per Rule 8(4) of the Chemical Accidents (E.P., P. R.) Rules, 1996, to whom shall the
local crisis group submit the report of the proceedings ?
(A) State Crisis Group (B) Central Crisis Group
(C) District Crisis Group (D) Crisis Alert Authority
176. From which of the following section, the Central Government get power to enact the
Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rule, 1989 ?
(A) Section 6, 8 and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(B) Section 4, 7 and 20 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(C) Section 5, 9 and 22 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(D) Section 10, 12 and 27 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
177. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical
Rules, 1989, the term “Hazardous Chemical” has been defined ?
(A) Rule 2(c) (B) Rule 2(d)
(C) Rule 2(e) (D) Rule 2(f)
178. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical
Rules, 1989, the term “Threshold quantity” has been defined ?
(A) Rule - 2(m) (B) Rule - 2(h)
(C) Rule - 2(o) (D) Rule - 2(n)
179. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical
Rules, 1989, general responsibility of the occupier has been provided ?
(A) Rule 4 (B) Rule 6
(C) Rule 8 (D) Rule 5
180. Under which of the rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical
Rules, 1989, the term “Transitional Provision” is provided ?
(A) Rule 11 (B) Rule 12
(C) Rule 9 (D) Rule 8
181. As per Rule 10(5) of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical Rules,
1989, the occupier shall forward a copy of the auditors report along with his comments
to the concerned authority within _______ days after the completion of such audit.
(A) 60 days (B) 30 days
(C) 15 days (D) 45 days
AAW - A ] 28 [Contd.
182. As per the Rule 13(4) of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical
Rules, 1989, the occupier shall ensure that a mock drill of the on-site emergency plan is
conducted at least once in every _______ months.
(A) Three months (B) Four months
(C) Twelve months (D) Six months
183. Under which of the following rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous
Chemical Rules, 1989, the provision with regard to information to be given to person
liable to be affected by a major accident is given ?
(A) Rule 20 (B) Rule 11
(C) Rule 15 (D) Rule 19
184. Under which of the following rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous
Chemical Rules, 1989, the power of the central government to modify the schedules has
been provided ?
(A) Rule 20 (B) Rule 34
(C) Rule 40 (D) Rule 29
185. In which of the following rule of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous
Chemical Rules, 1989, the term “Importer” has been defined ?
(A) Rule 2(g) (B) Rule 2(f)
(C) Rule 2(e) (D) Rule 2(i)
186. The payment of wages Act, 1936 extends to_______ .
(A) Whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Whole of India except the Presidency Towns
(C) Whole of India
(D) Whole of India except the North-East states
187. In which of the following Section of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the term “Employed
Person” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(i) (B) Section 2(ia)
(C) Section 2(ib) (D) Section 2(ic)
188. Which of the following is not included under the definition of “Wage” as defined under
Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(A) any remuneration payable under any award or settlement between the parties or
order of a Court.
(B) any additional remuneration payable under the term of employment.
(C) any sum to which the person employed is entitled under any scheme framed under
any law for the time being in force.
(D) any travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession.
AAW - A ] 29 P.T.O.
189. As per Section - 5 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, any railway factory or industrial
or other establishment upon or in which less than one thousand person are employed,
wages to all the employee shall be paid before the expiry of the _______ day.
(A) First (B) Seventh
(C) Forth (D) Tenth
190. Where the employment of any person is terminated by or on behalf of the employer, the
wages earned by him shall be paid before the expiry of the _______ working day from
the day on which his employment is terminated.
(A) second (B) same day
(C) seventh (D) fifteenth
191. Under which of the following section the provision regarding payment of wages shall be
made in the currency notes and coin is provided ?
(A) Section - 10 (B) Section - 8
(C) Section - 9 (D) Section - 6
192. Which of the following is not a part of deduction as specified under Section 7(2) of the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(A) Fine
(B) Deductions from absence from duty
(C) Suspension allowance
(D) Deduction for house-accommodation supplied by the employer
193. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, No fine shall be imposed on any
employed person, who is under the age of _______ years.
(A) Twenty years (B) Twenty one years
(C) Fifteen years (D) Eighteen years
194. Under which of the following provision of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the provision
regarding deduction in absence of duty has been provided ?
(A) Section - 9 (B) Section - 10
(C) Section - 11 (D) Section - 12
195. Who shall appoint an inspector, under Section - 14 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(A) Central Government (B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court (D) State Government
196. Under which of the following Section of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, a penalty for
malicious or vexatious claims has been provided ?
(A) Section 13 (B) Section 15
(C) Section 21 (D) Section 19
AAW - A ] 30 [Contd.
197. Under which of the following Section of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the powers of
authorities appointed under Section 15 are provided ?
(A) Section 18 (B) Section 19
(C) Section 20 (D) Section 21
198. Within how many days an appeal against the order, made under Subsection (2) or
Subsection (3) or Subsection (4) of Section - 15 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 may
be preferred ?
(A) Sixty days (B) Forty Five days
(C) Thirty days (D) Fifteen days
199. Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the “Appropriate Government”
for all cases except Railway, Air Transport Services, Mines and Oil Fields means _______ .
(A) Central Government (B) Territorial Government
(C) State Government (D) None of the above
200. Who is the responsible person for the payment of all wages in factories, as per the
provisions of the Payment Wages Act, 1936 ?
(A) All directors of the Board
(B) Departmental Head
(C) General Manager
(D) Manager, who is named as per the provisions of the Act
201. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the “Wage Period” fixed shall
not exceed _______ .
(A) One month (B) Fifteen days
(C) Quarterly (D) Weekly
202. For a claim of unauthorised deduction from wages or delay in payment of wages, as per
the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the Appropriate Government may
appoint _______ .
(A) any special court
(B) any commissioner for workmen compensation
(C) any officer of the labour department
(D) special officer for recovery
203. What are the provisions, under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, for the wrongful
deductions or unpaid wages to the group of unemployed person in the same wage period ?
(A) All employed person have to file an applications.
(B) A single application may be presented.
(C) Trade union of the employed person should give an application.
(D) The government officer can file an application for recovery.
AAW - A ] 31 P.T.O.
204. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the power to make rules is
vested with the _______ .
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) State Government by notification in official gazette.
(C) Central Government by notification in official gazette.
(D) Governor of the State.
205. If any contract or agreement made before or after commencement of the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, whereby any employed person has relinquishes any right conferred by
this Act.
(A) Such contract or agreement shall prevail.
(B) The appropriate Government will decide and direct.
(C) The Authority under the Act will decide and direct.
(D) Such contract or agreement shall be considered as null and void.
206. As per the provision of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 in case of death of the employed
person, the payment of an undisbursed wages shall _______ .
(A) be deposited in the State Bank of India
(B) be paid to the successor of the deceased
(C) be paid as per the order of the Civil Court
(D) be paid to the persons nominated by him as per the provisions of the Act
207. As per the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the property of employer or
other persons responsible for the payment of wages _______ .
(A) may be attached by the Authority under the Act
(B) Can not be attached by the Authority
(C) Can be attached by Trade Union only
(D) None of the above
208. The preamble of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 confirms to _______ .
(A) to give wages to employed persons
(B) to regulate payment of certain classes of employed persons
(C) to disburse wages weekly
(D) to disburse wages to the right person
209. On which date, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 was enacted ?
(A) dt : 15-08-1961 (B) dt : 01-11-1963
(C) dt : 12-12-1961 (D) dt : 26-01-1961
AAW - A ] 32 [Contd.
210. As per the provision of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, in case of a woman, who is
pregnant, notice for claim of maternity benefit and payment shall state the date from
which she will be absent from work, not being a date earlier than _______ weeks from
the date of her expected delivery.
(A) Ten weeks (B) Six weeks
(C) Four weeks (D) Twelve weeks
211. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 applies to _______ .
(A) All government offices
(B) All educational institutions
(C) All shops and establishments in a state, where Ten or more persons are employed
(D) All industries
212. May the State Government apply the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 to
any other establishment ?
(A) When it deems fit and necessary.
(B) On the direction or order of High Court.
(C) If the Trade Union demand for the same.
(D) After giving not less than two months notice of its intention of so doing and after
approval of the Central Government.
213. Whether a “still born child” is included in the definition of the “Child” under the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 ?
(A) A child up to Six years of age
(B) Yes
(C) A child up to Fourteen years of age
(D) Any child
214. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the term “Wages” does not
include _______ .
(A) Incentive bonus
(B) Overtime earnings
(C) Money value of the concessional supply of food grains
(D) Such cash allowances as a woman, is time being entitle
215. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman is prohibited to work
_______ .
(A) when she is pregnant
(B) on her weekly holiday
(C) during the Six weeks immediately following the day of delivery or her micarriage
(D) before delivery
AAW - A ] 33 P.T.O.
216. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, no woman shall be entitled to
maternity benefits, unless _______ .
(A) she has completed 240 days working days in service
(B) she has actually worked in an establishment for a period not less than 80 days
from whom she claims maternity benefits
(C) she has completed her probation period
(D) she is permanent workman
217. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the amount of the maternity
benefit for the period preceding the date of her accepted delivery shall be paid _______.
(A) on completion of next wage period
(B) after the delivery
(C) in advance on production of proof that she is pregnant
(D) when she resumes her work after delivery
218. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, if the woman entitled to maternity
benefit fails to give notice to her employer _______ .
(A) she will loose all benefits
(B) she will get benefits only after the date of delivery
(C) it will be presumed that she has waived her right for maternity benefit
(D) she shall not be disentitled for maternity benefit
219. What are the provisions under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, in case of a death of a
woman, who is entitled for maternity benefit or any other amount before receiving benefit
or amount ?
(A) Her child will get the benefit
(B) The employer shall pay such benefit or amount to the person nominated by a
deceased woman
(C) It will be presumed as unclaimed amount
(D) Employer has to deposit such amount with State Government
220. Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a woman is entitled for leave, in
case of miscarriage for a period of _______ .
(A) One month extra
(B) Twelve weeks from the date of miscarriage
(C) Six weeks for the date of miscarriage
(D) Three months from the date of miscarriage
AAW - A ] 34 [Contd.
221. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the woman who returns to
work after such delivery shall be entitled to _______ .
(A) take rest for two hours from her duty
(B) take two weekly holidays
(C) two breaks in addition to interval, for nursing the child
(D) leave her duty thirty minutes early
222. As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the employer is prohibited to
______ .
(A) take resignation from woman entitled for maternity benefit
(B) take extra work
(C) discharge or dismiss her during or on account of such absence
(D) to withheld her wages due
223. What are the provisions under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, if after the woman is
permitted to absent herself by her employer and if that woman works at any other
establishment during authorised absence ?
(A) She shall be dismissed from her services
(B) She shall forfeit her claim for maternity benefit for such period
(C) she will have to face disciplinary actions
(D) she has to leave the job
224. Under which of the following section of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, an appointment
of inspector has been done ?
(A) Section 13 (B) Section 14
(C) Section 16 (D) Section 15
225. Under which of the following section of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provision of
“Nursing break” is provided ?
(A) Section 11 (B) Section 10
(C) Section 15 (D) Section 17
226. Under which precision of the Maternity benefit Act, 1961, The “Application of the Act is
provided” ?
(A) Section 2 (B) Section 3
(C) Section 4 (D) Section 4-A
227. Which of the following in not considered as “Establishment” under section 3(e) of the
Maternity benefit Act, 1961 ?
(A) Factory (B) Shop
(C) Mine (D) Household work
AAW - A ] 35 P.T.O.
228. Under which of the following section of the maternity benefit Act, 1961, the precision of
“Payment of Medical Bonus” is provided ?
(A) Section - 10 (B) Section - 8
(C) Section - 9 (D) Section - 7
229. When the buildings and other construction workers (Regulation of Employment and
conditions of service) Act, 1996 came into force ?
(A) dt : 01-03-1996 (B) dt : 05-06-1996
(C) dt : 06-04-1996 (D) dt : 12-08-1996
230. The buildings and other construction workers (Regulation of Employment and conditions
of service) Act, 1996 extends to _______ ?
(A) Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Whole of India
(C) Whole of India except Manipur and Nagaland
(D) Whole of India except Sikkim
231. How many building workers shall be employed for the application of the buildings and
other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act,
1996 ?
(A) Ten or more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.
(B) Five of more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.
(C) Fifteen or more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.
(D) Twenty or more workers on any day of preceding twelve months.
232. Which authority has power to constitute central Advisory committee under Section - 3 of
the buildings and other construction workers (Regulations of employment and conditions
of service) Act, 1996 ?
(A) State Government (B) Central Government
(C) Judiciary (D) Executive Magistrate
233. When shall an employer applies for registration of establishments under the buildings
and other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of service)
Act, 1996 ?
(A) Within period of thirty days from commencement of the Act.
(B) Within period of sixty days from commencement of the Act.
(C) Within period of ninety days from commencement of the Act.
(D) Within period of ten days from commencement of the Act.
AAW - A ] 36 [Contd.
234. Any change in ownership or management after the registration of an establishment shall
be intimated to registering authorities within _______ days of such change, under the
building and other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of
service) Act, 1996 ?
(A) Thirty days (B) Twenty days
(C) Ninety days (D) Sixty days
235. Any person aggrieved by an order made under Section 8 may within _______ days prefer
and appeal to the appellate officer from the date on which the order is communicated to
him ?
(A) Ten days (B) Thirty days
(C) Sixty days (D) Ninety days
236. Who is a beneficiary under Section 12 of the buildings and other construction workers
(Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 ?
(A) a building worker registered under Section - 12
(B) Children of building worker only
(C) all the dependents of building workers only
(D) legal heir of building worker only
237. Under which of the following Section of the buildings and other construction workers
(Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 the term “Building or
other construction work” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(b) (B) Section 2(c)
(C) Section 2(d) (D) Section 2(e)
238. What is the meaning of the term “Director General", as per the provision of Section 2(h)
of the building and other construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions
of service) Act, 1996 ?
(A) Director General of the Factory (B) Director General of inspection
(C) Director General of company (D) Director General of building
239. Under which of the following Section of the buildings and other construction workers
(Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 the term “Employer”
has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(i) (B) Section 2(j)
(C) Section 2(k) (D) Section 2(l)
240. Who shall constitute “State welfare fund” as per the provision of the buildings and other
construction workers (Regulation of employment and conditions of service) Act, 1996 ?
(A) Welfare committee of the centre (B) Central government
(C) State government (D) Welfare board of the centre
AAW - A ] 37 P.T.O.
241. What is the meaning of the term “Certifying surgeon", under the Gujarat State Physically
Handicapped persons (Employment in factories) Act, 1982 ?
(A) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 9 of the factories Act, 1948
(B) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 37 of the industrial disputes Act, 1942
(C) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 10 of the factories Act, 1948
(D) Certifying surgeon appointed under section 28 of the industrial disputes Act, 1942
242. As per the provisions of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment
in factories) Act, 1982, “Person registered as physical handicap” means the physical
handicap person whose name is registered with ................ ?
(A) Employment exchange (B) Registered doctors
(C) Government hospitals (D) Central Government
243. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person
(Employment in factories) Act, 1982, the term “Physically handicapped person” has been
defined ?
(A) Section 2(g) (B) Section 2(f)
(C) Section 2(h) (D) Section 2(e)
244. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person
(Employment in factories) Act, 1982 “Certificate of fitness” has been granted to the person
who is handicapped ?
(A) Section 7 (B) Section 9
(C) Section 6 (D) Section 5
245. Under which of the following provision of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person
(Employment in factories) Act, 1982, who will pay the required fee for the certificate of
fitness ?
(A) Person who is handicapped
(B) Legal guardian of the handicapped person
(C) State government
(D) Occupier
246. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person
(Employment in factories) Act, 1982, the powers and duties of the inspector has been
provided ?
(A) Section 19 (B) Section 7
(C) Section 17 (D) Section 9
AAW - A ] 38 [Contd.
247. Under section 9 of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment in
factories) Act, 1982, an occupier who is not following any of the provisions of the Act,
shall be punished with the _______ ?
(A) Imprisonment which max extent to six months or fine which may extent to 1000
Rupees or both.
(B) Imprisonment which may extent to three months or fine which may extent to 100
Rupees or both.
(C) Imprisonment which may extent to two months or fine which may extent to 500
Rupees of both.
(D) Imprisonment which may extent to one month or fine which may extent to 3000
Rupees of both.
248. Under section 11 of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment in
factories) Act, 1982 the court shall take cognisance after the previous sanction of the
_______ ?
(A) High court (B) Supreme court
(C) Inspector (D) Central Government
249. When the Gujarat state physically handicapped person (Employment in factories)
Act, 1982, received the assent of the president of India ?
(A) dt : 21-02-1982 (B) dt ; 19-02-1982
(C) dt ; 28-02-1982 (D) dt : 16-02-1982
250. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat state physically handicapped person
(Employment in factories) Act, 1982 the term “New factory” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(d) (B) Section 2(f)
(C) Section 2(e) (D) Section 2(g)
251. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowances to workmen
(in factories) Act, 1982, the term “Badli workman” means _______ ?
(A) Who is employed in place of another workman who is temporarily absent
(B) Who is not permanent workman
(C) Workman who is changed everyday
(D) Outside workman
252. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workman
(In factories) Act, 1981, the definition of “Factory” excludes ?
(A) Government factories
(B) Non registered factories
(C) Factories where the central government is appropriate government
(D) Private factories
AAW - A ] 39 P.T.O.
253. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workman
(in factories) Act, 1981, unemployment allowance is to be paid when the employer fails,
refuses or is unable to provide employment on any day due to _______ ?
(A) Reduction of not less than 25% of the maximum demand of electrical energy
(B) Closure of factory due to shortage of raw material
(C) Lock out declared in the factory
(D) for any reason of failure to give employment
254. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment Allowance to workman
(In factories) Act, 1981, “Temporary workman” means _______ ?
(A) All workmen of factory other than permanent
(B) Who has not completed to 240 working day in the last year
(C) Who is a Badli workman
(D) Who is employed temporarily with temporary increase in work
255. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workman
(In factories) Act, 1981, “Permanent workman” means _______ ?
(A) Who has completed 240 working days in the last year
(B) Who has been employed on permanent basis and whose appointment has been
confirmed in writing
(C) All workman of the factories
(D) Who is entitled for unemployment allowance
256. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen
(in factories) Act, 1981, the workman is deprived of unemployment allowances if _______?
(A) He refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same factory
(B) He is on Sick leave
(C) He has resigned
(D) The employer is not willing to give him the allowance
257. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen
(in factories) Act, 1981, the workman is entitled for unemployment allowances for
maximum days is to be counted as _______ ?
(A) Equal to the average of the total number of days in each month of last one year
(B) 240 days in year
(C) Days of his attendance of the last month
(D) One day for every twenty working day
AAW - A ] 40 [Contd.
258. What are the provisions under the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to
workman (in factories) Act, 1981, for recovery of money of unemployment allowances
due from employer in case of death of a workman ?
(A) His advocate can recover
(B) His assignee or heirs may make an application to the state government
(C) The trade union of which he was a member can recover
(D) His borrower can recover
259. What is the normal time limit for making an application for recovery under the provisions
of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen (in factories) Act, 1981 ?
(A) At any time but within 30 days
(B) One year from the date on which the money became due
(C) End of the financial year
(D) No time limit is prescribed
260. As per the provisions of the Gujarat payment of unemployment allowance to workmen
(in factories) Act, 1981, the authority hearing an application for recovery of money due
from employer shall issue certificate for that amount to the collector _______ .
(A) within thirty days of the application
(B) after the fees for filing application paid
(C) after the publication in the official gazette of the state government
(D) after the employer has been given an opportunity to show cause why he has not paid
261. What are the provisions regarding “Filing up at vacancy” under which of the Gujarat
safety officers, Duties qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983 ?
(A) Rule 3 (B) Rule 5
(C) Rule 6 (D) Rule 4
262. Under which of the following rule the duties of the safety officer has been provided,
under the Gujarat safety officers duties qualification and service conduct rules, 1983 ?
(A) Rule 5 (B) Rule 6
(C) Rule 7 (D) Rule 8
263. As per the schedule to the Gujarat safety officers duties qualification and service conduct
rules, 1983, when there are 1501-3000 workers working in the factory, how many safety
officers are required ?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Five
AAW - A ] 41 P.T.O.
264. As per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983, a
person may be continued as a safety officer not withstanding that he has not obtained
the degree or diploma in any branch of engineering or technology, if he _______ ?
(A) is working as safety officer in a factory
(B) has experience of five years as an inspector
(C) has special knowledge of safety measures
(D) is willing to serve as safety officer
265. As per the Gujarat safety officers duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983,
No person shall be allowed to be and appointed as a safety officer nor shall be allowed to
hold such post, if _______ ?
(A) he has reached to the age of 58 years
(B) He completes ten year of service on the same post
(C) he is directly or indirectly interested in any factory or in any patent or machinery
connected with it or after he becomes so interested in the factory
(D) He is found doing unsafe work in the factory
266. As per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983, it
is obligatory for the occupier of a factory to fill up the post of safety officer, from the
publication of notification _______ ?
(A) within a reasonable time
(B) Within a period of three months
(C) Immediately when the suitable person as per the specified rule is found
(D) Within a period of nine months
267. It shall be the duty of the safety officer as per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualification
and service conduct rules, 1983, to _______ ?
(A) maintain accident free factory
(B) work and superwise the working of the factory
(C) advise and assist the factory management in the fulfilment of its statutory
obligation and to maintain safe working
(D) give direction to the management to close the factory if it is found unsafe
AAW - A ] 42 [Contd.
268. What is the procedure to be adopted in case the vacancy in the post of a safety officer
caused by death, dismissal, resignation or discharge of a person holding such post, under
the Gujarat safety officers, duty qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983 ?
(A) to be notified to the chief inspector of factory and shall be filled up in three months
from the occurrence
(B) shall be notified to chief inspector of factory and to be filled immediately to run the
factory in safe condition
(C) filled up when the suitable and eligible person is found to be
(D) notified to the employment exchange of the area and to invite candidates from
them
269. As per the Gujarat safety officers, duty, qualification and service conduct rules, 1983,
the chief safety officer or safety officer who is required to be appointed shall be given the
status of senior executive and he shall work directly under the control?
(A) the occupier of the factory
(B) the manager of the factory
(C) the chief executive officer of the factory
(D) the chairman of the safety committee
270. As per the Gujarat safety officers duty, qualifications and service conduct rules, 1983,
the person shall not be eligible to be appointed as safety officer unless ....... ?
(A) he is appointed by the director
(B) he possesses a recognised degree in any branch of engineering or technology and
has practical experience for two year
(C) he has acquired the sufficient knowledge of safety in the factory
(D) he is registered with an employment exchange for this category
271. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the term “Mitigation” means
_______ .
(A) Measures to be taken for Disaster
(B) Measures already taken for Disaster
(C) Measures to find out affected area
(D) Measures aimed at reducing the risk, impact or effect of Disaster or threatening
Disaster situation
AAW - A ] 43 P.T.O.
272. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the term “Resources” includes
_______ .
(A) manpower, services, materials and provisions
(B) the fund required to meet Disaster in the specified area
(C) the fund which is allotted by National Disaster Management Authority
(D) the amount kept reserve to meet any situation in case of Disaster
273. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the powers of appointment
of National Disaster Management Authority are vested with _______ .
(A) the President of India
(B) The department of Disaster Management of Central Government
(C) the Central Government by notification in the official gazette
(D) the office of the Prime Minister
274. Who is the Chair Person of the National Disaster Management Authority under the
provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 ?
(A) The Managing Director of the Authority
(B) The President of India
(C) The Speaker of Loksabha
(D) The Prime Minister of India
275. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Executive
committee may _______ .
(A) act as the coordinating and monitoring body for Disaster Management
(B) supervise the functions of National Disaster Management Authority
(C) execute the policy to be framed for disaster management
(D) any other function which committee may decide
276. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the term “National Plan”
includes _______ .
(A) Planning for whole of nation
(B) Roles and responsibilities of different ministries or departments of Government of
India
(C) The plan to be prepared for nation
(D) all plans which are other than state plans
AAW - A ] 44 [Contd.
277. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Authority
shall recommend guidelines for minimum standard of relief to be person affected by
Disaster includes _______ .
(A) giving them permanent employment
(B) giving them monitory benefits for the rest of life
(C) special provisions to be made for widows and orphans
(D) provide insurance facility for future
278. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Authority when it
considers necessary to constitute an advisory committee the persons will be included
_______ .
(A) Who are from Disaster Management
(B) Who are members of legislative Assembly
(C) Who are experts in the fields of Disaster Management having practical experience
of Disaster Management
(D) Persons who are recommended by affected people
279. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, which authority can establish
District Disaster Management Authority ?
(A) The District Collector
(B) The Chief Minister of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) The State Government after issue of notification in the official gazette
280. As per the provisions of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, who shall take all measures
specified in the guidelines laid down by the National Authority for the purpose of Disaster
Management ?
(A) National Executive Committee
(B) District Disaster Management Authority
(C) State Government
(D) National Authority
281. As per the provision of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2016, who
amongst the following is not considered as “Dependant” ?
(A) Widow (B) Son-in-law
(C) Unmarried daughter (D) Widow mother
AAW - A ] 45 P.T.O.
282. Employer's liability for the compensation has been provided under which of the following
section of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2016 ?
(A) Section 10 (B) Section 8
(C) Section 3 (D) Section 15
283. Under which of the following Provision of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment)
Act, 2016, the term “Compensation” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(a) (B) Section 2(b)
(C) Section 2(c) (D) Section 2(d)
284. Which of the following Section of the Employee's Compensation Act, 1923 has been
omitted by the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016,
(A) Section 31 (B) Section 24-A
(C) Section 11 (D) Section 30-A
285. As per the definition of “Seaman", whom of the following is not included in the definition
of Seaman as per the provision of the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016 ?
(A) Master of ship (B) Owner of ship
(C) Possessor of ship (D) Captain of ship
286. Under which of the following section of the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016, the
term “Wage” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(g) (B) Section 2(h)
(C) Section 2(m) (D) Section 2(o)
287. Under which of the following section of the Employee's Compensation Act, 2016, the
“Amount of Compensation” has been determined ?
(A) Section 8 (B) Section 10
(C) Section 18 (D) Section 4
288. No claim of compensation shall be made under Employee's Compensation Act, 2016,
unless giving notice to the commissioner within _______ years of occurrence or death of
the person.
(A) Three years (B) Four years
(C) Two years (D) One year
289. As per Section 30 of the Employee's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2016, no appeal
shall lie against any order, unless substantial question of law is involved in appeal or the
issue of appeal is as specified under Section 30(1)(b), if the amount in dispute of appeal is
not less than _______ rupees.
(A) One Thousand Rupees (B) Five Thousand Rupees
(C) Ten Thousand Rupees (D) Three Thousand Rupees
AAW - A ] 46 [Contd.
290. On which date the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013 has
obtained assent of the Governor ?
(A) dt : 01-04-2013 (B) dt : 01-06-2013
(C) dt : 01-03-2013 (D) dt : 01-08-2013
291. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety
Measures Act, 2013, the term “Chief Fire Officer” has been defined ?
(A) Section 2(b) (B) Section 2(c)
(C) Section 2(d) (D) Section 2(e)
292. What is the full form of G.D.R.C., under the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety
Measures Act, 2013 ?
(A) Gujarat District Control Regulations
(B) General Development Control Regulation
(C) General Development Commission Rules
(D) General Development Control Rules
293. As per Section - 3 of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013, at
least how many fire service shall be there in the state ?
(A) ONE (B) THREE
(C) SIX (D) TWO
294. Who shall appoint the Director of Fire Services as per the provision of the Gujarat Fire
Prevention and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013 ?
(A) Chairman of Fire Service (B) Central Government
(C) State Government (D) High Court
295. Under which of the following section of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety
Measures Act, 2013, the powers, duties and functions of the Director has been provided ?
(A) Section 5 (B) Section 6
(C) Section 7 (D) Section 9
296. Who shall appoint regional fire officer under Section 8(3) of the Gujarat Fire Prevention
and Life Safety Measures Act, 2013 ?
(A) Chairman of the Fire Service (B) Central Government
(C) State Government (D) Director of Fire
297. As per the provision of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures Rule,
2014, who shall identify the place of establishment of Fire Station ?
(A) Manager (B) Director
(C) Central Government (D) Inspector
AAW - A ] 47
298. Under which of the following chapter of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety
Measures Act, 2013, the provision with regard to “Training of Fire Personnels” is
provided ?
(A) Chapter IV (B) Chapter V
(C) Chapter III (D) Chapter VII
299. Under which of the following rule of the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety Measures
Rules, 2014, the provision of restriction respecting “Right to form Association” has been
provided ?
(A) Rule 7 (B) Rule 8
(C) Rule 9 (D) Rule 10
300. Under which of the following section the provision relating to “Appointment of Fire
Safety Officer” has been provided under the Gujarat Fire Prevention and Life Safety
Measures Act, 2013 ?
(A) Section 14 (B) Section 16
(C) Section 12 (D) Section 11