PP4- UPSCTREE PRELIMS SERIES
Transcript of PP4- UPSCTREE PRELIMS SERIES
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
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PP4- UPSCTREE PRELIMS SERIES
Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth (4th Edition)- Chapter- Part II, Part VII, Part VIII
Current Events
Q.1) Consider the following statements:-
1)In parliamentary form of government the executive is not
responsible to legislature.
2)In presidential form of government the executive is responsible to
legislature through president
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In parliamentary form of government the executive is responsible to legislature.In
presidential form of government the executive is not responsible to legislature at all.
Q.2) Consider the following statements:-
1)In parliamentary form of government the ministers are collectively
responsible only to the lower house and not to the entire parliament.
2)In presidential form of government the president is neither
responsible to the congress nor attends its sessions.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
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B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In parliamentary form of government the ministers are collectively responsible to the
lower house in particular and to the entire parliament in general.
Q.3) Consider the following statements:-
1)There is a lesser scope for deadlocks in case of parliamentary form
of government.
2)There is more fusion of power than separation of power in case of
parliamentary form of government.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.4) Consider the following statements:-
1)Definitive and continuity of policy is the strength of presidential
system .
2)Presidential system is a government of experts where as
parliamentary system is a government of amateurs.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
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B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.5) Consider the following statements:-
1)In India, the ministers are legally responsible for their acts
committed as part of ministerial functions.
2)Every act or any order that has the force of law has to be counter
signed by the respective ministers as well.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In India the ministers are not legally responsible for their acts and no act or order has
to be counter signed by them. It is done by executive such as president or governor.
Q.6) Consider the following statements:-
1)In unitary government the constitution is not supreme.
2)In federal government the constitution is supreme.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
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2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
In unitary government the constitution may be supreme(Japan) or may not be
supreme(Britain)
Q.7) Consider the following statements:-
1)U.S Federalism - Indestructible union of Indestructible states.
2)Indian Federalism - Indestructible union of destructible states.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.8) Consider the following statements:-
1)In India, the states are not given equal representation in Rajya
Sabha
2)The All India services such as IAS,IPS etc violate the principle of
federalism.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
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C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.9) Consider the following statements:-
1)The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution asking the parliament to
legislate on any subject in the State List
2)The above provision is only allowed in case there is an emergency
and significant national interest is involved.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The above provision is only allowed all the time.
Q.10) Consider the following statements:-
1)Election commission is constituted by the president, however
states are consulted in this regard because the election commission
is also responsible for state elections.
2)The president enjoys absolute veto with regards to state bills.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
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C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
States are not consulted.
Q.11) Consider the following statements:-
1)In Bommai Case , federalism became the basic feature of Indian
constitution.
2)In India, the states are not dependent on center for their legislative
and executive authority.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.12) With reference to the legislative powers of the Parliament, which of
the following statements is/are correct?
1. Parliament alone can make ‘extra-territorial’ legislation.
2. The laws made by the Parliament are applicable to Indian
citizens and their property in any part of the world.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
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C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.13) Which of the following on belongs to the Union List as per the
seventh schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Defence
2. Markets
3. Insurance
4. Prisons
Select the correct answer
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 4 only
D.
All of the above
Explanation:
Q.14) Which of the following on belongs to the State List as per the
seventh schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Public Order
2. Police
3. Agriculture
4. Gambling
Select the correct answer
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 4 only
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D.
All of the above
Explanation:
Q.15) Which of the following on belongs to the Concurrent List as per the
seventh schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Weights and Measures
4. Protection of wild animals and birds
Select the correct answer
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 4 only
D.
All of the above
Explanation:
Q.16) With reference to Finance Commission, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is constituted by the Prime Minister every fifth year of even
earlier.
2. It is a quasi-judicial body.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.17) Excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing
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alcohol and narcotics is?
A.
Levied, collected and appropriated by the Centre
B.
Levied, collected and appropriated by the States
C.
Levied by the centre and collected and appropriated by the States
D.
Levied and collected by the centre but distributed between the
centre and the states
Explanation:
Q.18) With reference to Zonal Councils, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. These are constitutional bodies.
2. The North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of
parliament in 1971.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.19) With reference to Inter-State Water Disputes Act, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. The act empowers the Central Government to set up an ad
hoc tribunal for adjudication of dispute related to waters of an inter-
state river or river valley.
2. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on
the parties to the dispute.
Select the answer using the codes given below
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A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.20) With reference to All India Services, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Article 365 of the Constitution authorizes the Parliament to
create new All-India Services.
2. For creation of a new All India Service a resolution to that
effect must be passed in Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.21) With reference to Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade
Marks, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It supervises the working of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)
laws in India.
2. It works under the Ministry of External Affairs.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
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1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Explanation: • The Office of CGPDTM supervises the working of Intellectual Property
Rights (IPR) laws in India. • It supervises the working of the Patents Act, 1970, as
amended, the Designs Act, 2000 and the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and also renders
advice to the Government on matters relating to these subjects. • In order to protect
the Geographical Indications of goods a Geographical Indications Registry has also
been established in Chennai to administer the Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registeration and Protection) Act, 1999 under the CGPDTM. • The CGPDTM reports
to the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.
Q.22) World Happiness Report published by which of the following
agencies?
A.
World Economic Forum
B.
World Bank
C.
Sustainable Development Solutions Network
D.
United Nation Development Program
Explanation:
Q.23) With reference to Earth Day, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Earth Day is being observed on the 22nd of April every year
to build support for environmental protection around the world.
2. This year the theme of Earth Day was ‘Trees for the Earth!’
Select the answer using the codes given below
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A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.24) With reference to International Day of Older Persons, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. October 1 is celebrated as the International Day of Older
Persons.
2. ‘Sustainability and Age Inclusiveness in the Urban
Environment ‘was its theme for the year 2015
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Explanation: United Nations General Assembly voted to establish October 1 as the
International Day of Older Persons as recorded in Resolution 45/106. The holiday was
observed for the first time on October 1, 1991.
Q.25) With reference to India Biodiversity Award, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The categories for the award are aligned with Biological
Diversity Act, 2002.
2. Sunderban Tiger Reserve of West Bengal has received the
'India Biodiversity Award 2016'.
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Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The India Biodiversity Awards (IBA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change and UNDP India, to recognize and honour outstanding
models of biodiversity conservation, sustainable use and governance at the
grassroots level. The four categories of the India Biodiversity Awards 2016 are:
Conservation of threatened species (both wild and domesticated) Sustainable use of
biological resources Successful mechanisms/ models for access and benefit sharing
Biodiversity Management Committees The Winners are: Category: Conservation of
Threatened Species Conservation efforts by individuals and institutions that have led
to protection, management and restoration of habitats and population recovery
resulting in significant reduction in the threat level to at-risk wild and domesticated
species. Purnima Devi Barman and the Hargilla Army, Winner.The Greater Adjutant
bird, is found only in two areas in India and Cambodia. Purnima Devi Barman and the
women’s Hargilla army protect this endangered species increasing nests three-fold in
six years. Nature Conservation Foundation and the Ghora-Abhe Society, Winner , The
group introduced the Hornbill Nest Adoption Programme in Pakke Tiger Reserve,
Arunachal Pradesh, which has managed to protect 62 active hornbill nests and help
60 hornbill pairs breed successfully. Category: Sustainable Use of Biological
Resources Efforts resulting in sustainability of resources, best practices for their
sustainable use that integrate empowerment of weaker sections of communities.
Mawkyrnot Self Help Group: The Living Root Bridges, Winner , The 52-feet long living
roots bridges in Mawkyrnot, are a marvel of bio-engineering, are resilient and
enhance ecosystem services. Category: Successful Mechanisms/ Models for Access
and Benefit Sharing Efforts resulting in equitable sharing of benefits (monetary and/
or non-monetary) arising from the utilisation of bio-resources and associated
traditional knowledge and practices. Gram Mooligai Co. Ltd., Madhya Pradesh,
Winner - Gram Mooligai Co. Ltd., Madhya Pradesh involves local communities in
developing medicinal plant products and markets, aimed at sustainable use and
equity. Category: Biodiversity Management Committees Recognizing efforts on
establishing best practices for conservation and sustainable use by documentation of
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biological resources integrating traditional knowledge; generating awareness, and
ensuring access and benefit sharing. Dudhai Biodiversity Management Committee,
Winner - The Dudhai Biodiversity Management Committee in Uttarakhand has
banned illegal sand mining and revived river ecosystems
Q.26) With reference to Animal Welfare Board of India, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It has been established under the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
2. It is a non-statutory and non-constitutional advisory body
on animal welfare laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.27) With reference to International Seabed Authority (ISA), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an organization established by the 1982 United Nations Law
of the Sea Convention.
2. ISA governs both living as well as non-living resources of seabed
lying in international waters.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
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both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.28) With reference to Janani Sewa Scheme, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Under this scheme, essential items like baby food, hot milk
and hot water will be provided at Railway Stations.
2. This scheme is launched by the Ministry of Women And
Child Welfare.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Railway ministry
Q.29) With reference to Rat hole mining, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is mainly carried out in the Northeast regions of India
mainly the state of Meghalaya.
2. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India has banned this
practice.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
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2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.30) Incheon Strategy, which was recently in news, deals with?
A.
The first set of regionally agreed disability-inclusive development
goals.
B.
Sustainable development goals
C.
Preparing a framework for fighting against man-made disasters.
D.
None of the above
Explanation:
Q.31) With reference to Vesak Poya festival which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It marks three important events in the life of Buddha —
birth, enlightenment and death.
2. It is celebrated on the New Moon day
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Explanation: It is celebrated on the Full Moon day.
Q.32) . With reference to Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV), which of the
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following statements is/are correct?
1. India recently launched the first technology demonstrator of
indigenously made Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV).
2. The project is also being called a hyper-sonic experiment
(HEX).
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Explanation: • The 6.5 meter long Re-usable Launch Vehicle – Technology
Demonstrator (RLV-TD) weighs about 1.7 tons. • Built over five years by a team of
600 scientists, the project cost around Rs 95 crore. • The project is also being called a
hyper-sonic experiment (HEX) as it will also test the ability of the vehicle to withstand
re-entry at speeds higher than that of sound. • This was the first time that ISRO flew a
winged body and brought it back to land on a make-shift runway. • Dubbed as
India’s own space shuttle, RLVs are being seen as the unanimous solution towards
achieving low cost, reliable and on-demandspace access.
Q.33) With reference to Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a concept adopted at the Third United Nations
Conference on the Law of the Sea (1982).
2. The EEZ does not include the contiguous zone.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
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C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.34) With reference to Jan Aushadhi Scheme, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is a direct market intervention scheme launched by the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. The scheme aims to make generic medicines available to all
citizens of India irrespective of here economic status.
Select the answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.35) Which of the following Indian state has the highest amount of
monazite reserves?
A.
Maharashtra
B.
Kerala
C.
Andhra Pradesh
D.
Gujarat
Explanation:
Q.36) Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of
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superintendence, direction and control of elections to:
1. Parliament
2. State legislature
3. Office of the President of India
4. Office of the Vice-President of India
Choose the correct option:
A.
1 & 2 only
B.
1 only
C.
1 , 2 & 3 only
D.
1 , 2 , 3 , 4
Explanation:
Q.37) The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by :
A.
Prime Minister
B.
President
C.
Chief Justice of India
D.
Collegium consisting of Prime Minister and 4 other Ministers.
Explanation:
Q.38) Consider the following statements:
1. Since its inception in 1950, the election commission
functioned as a single member body ,till 1989.
2. Since 1989 , the election commission has been functioning as
a multi member body,till date.
Which of the above statements are true?
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A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 & 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.39) Consider the following statements:
1. The chief election commissioner and the two other election
commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary,
allowances and other perquisites.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election
Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the
will of the Chief Election Commissioner prevails.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.40) Consider the following statements:
1. Election Commisioners hold office for a term of five years or
until they attain the age of 65 years.
2. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before
the expiry of their term.
Which of the above statements are true?
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A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.41) Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from his
office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a
judge of the Supreme Court.
2. He can be removed by the president on the basis of a
resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of
Parliament with simple majority, either on the ground of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.42) Which of the following are the functions of Election Commission:
1. To determine the territorial areas of the electoral
constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the
Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
2. To grant recognition to political parties and allot election
symbols to them.
3. To advise the president whether elections can be held in a
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state under president’s rule in order to extend the period of
emergency after one year.
4. To register political parties for the purpose of elections and
grant them the status of national or state parties on the basis
of their poll performance.
A.
1 & 2 only
B.
2,3,4 only
C.
2,3 only
D.
1,2,3,4
Explanation:
Q.43) Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is an
independent constitutional body.
2. The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members
appointed by the president of India.
3. The Constitution has explicitly specified the strength of the
Commission.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
2 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1,2,3
Explanation:
Q.44) The chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:
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A.
2 yrs
B.
4 yrs
C.
5 yrs
D.
6 yrs
Explanation:
Q.45) The Central Vigilance Commission falls under:
A.
Ministry of Home Affairs
B.
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
C.
Ministry of Personnel
D.
Ministry of Finance
Explanation:
Q.46) The President can remove the chairman or any other member of
UPSC from the office under the following circumstances:
1. If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt).
2. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid
employment outside the duties of his office.
3. If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in
office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
Choose the correct option:
A.
2,3 only
B.
3 only
C.
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1,2 only
D.
1,2,3
Explanation:
Q.47) Consider the following statements:
1. UPSC is consulted while making reservations of appointments
or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens.
2. UPSC is consulted while taking into consideration the claims
of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in making
appointments to services and posts.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.48) Consider the following statements:
1. A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and
other members appointed by the President.
2. The Constitution also authorises the President to determine
the conditions of service of the chairman and members of the
Commission.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
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C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.49) Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states
can be created by:
A.
President
B.
Governor
C.
An act of state legislature
D.
An act of parliament
Explanation:
Q.50) Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is a constitutional body.
2. It is presided by the Prime Minister.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.51) Consider the following statements:
1. The National Human rights Commission is a constitutional
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body.
2. The Chairman of National Human rights Commission should
be a retired Chief-Justice of India.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.52) The ex-officio members of the National Human rights Commission
include the Chairmen of:
1. National commission for minorities
2. National commission for SC’s
3. National commission for ST’s
4. National commission for Women
Choose the correct option:
A.
1 & 4 only
B.
2 & 3 only
C.
1 , 2 & 3 only
D.
1,2,3,4
Explanation:
Q.53) Consider the following statements regarding NHRC:
1. The Chairman and members hold office for a term of 5 years
or until they attain the age of 70 years.
2. There is no bar on their employments under the central or
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state govt. after their tenure.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.54) Consider the following statements regarding NHRC:
1. The Commissions HQ is at Delhi.
2. It has all the powers of a high court & its proceedings have a
judicial character.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.55) The Central Information Commission was established by central
government in:
A.
2002
B.
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2004
C.
2005
D.
2010
Explanation:
Q.56) The Chief Information Commissioner & other commissioners are
appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee
consisting of:
1. Prime minister
2. Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
3. Chief justice of India
4. A union cabinet minister
Choose from the options given below:
A.
1&2 only
B.
1 , 2 & 3 only
C.
1 , 2 & 4 only
D.
1, 2,3,4
Explanation:
Q.57) Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information
Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they
attain the age of 65 years.
2. They are not eligible for reappointment
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
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2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.58) Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Information Commission can suo-moto order
inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds .
2. While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil
court.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither nor 2
Explanation:
Q.59) The Central Information Commission falls under:
A.
Ministry of Personnel
B.
Ministry of Finance
C.
Ministry of Home Affairs
D.
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
Explanation:
Q.60) The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information
Commissioners are appointed by:
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30
A.
The President
B.
The Governor
C.
Chief Minister of the state
D.
Chief justice of the High Court
Explanation:
Q.61) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established on the
recommendation of :
A.
Malhotra Committee
B.
Santhanam Committee
C.
Parekh Committee
D.
Tarpore Committee
Explanation:
Q.62) Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established by a
law enacted by Parliament in 1964.
2. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) acts as the main agency
for preventing corruption in the Central government.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
31
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.63) Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and vigilance
commissioners are appointed by the president on the
recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of:
1. Prime minister as its head
2. Union minister of home affairs
3. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
4. Chief justice of India
5. Union Minister of law
Choose from the options given below:
A.
1 , 4 & 5 only
B.
1,2 & 3 only
C.
1 , 3 & 5 only
D.
1 ,3 & 4 only
Explanation:
Q.64) Consider the following statements:
1. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the
Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
2. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the
Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
32
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.65) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) falls under:
A.
Ministry of Home Affairs
B.
Ministry of Personnel
C.
Ministry of Law
D.
Ministry of Finance
Explanation:
Q.66) The institution of lokayukta was established first in:
A.
Odisha
B.
Maharastra
C.
Bihar
D.
Rajasthan
Explanation:
Q.67) Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and
vigilance commissioners hold office for a term of four years or
until they attain the age of sixty five years.
2. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further
employment under the Central or a state government.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
33
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.68) The National Human Rights Commission falls under
A.
Ministry of Home Affairs
B.
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
C.
Ministry of Personnel
D.
Ministry of Finance
Explanation:
Q.69) Consider the following statements with reference to Election
commission of India.
1. It has the power of superintendence of election to the office
of President and vice-president.
2. It advises the President and Governors on matters of
disqualification of members of the parliament and state
legislatures respectively.
3. The constitution has not specified the term of the members of
the election commission.
Select the correct option using the codes given below.
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
34
1 and 3 only
D.
1,2,3
Explanation:
Q.70) Consider the following statements and find out the correct one.
A.
The chairman of UPSC is eligible for a second term in the same
office but not eligible to be appointed to any other government
office.
B.
A member of UPSC can be appointed as the chairman of a state
election commission.
C.
Both of the above.
D.
None of the above.
Explanation:
Q.71) Consider the following statements about UPSC.
1. Its jurisdiction can be extended by an act made the
parliament.
2. The president can exclude posts, services and matters form
the purview of UPSC.
3. It is not consulted during selection of members of the
tribunals and commissions.
4. An individual ministry or department has no power to reject
he advice tendered by UPSC.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A.
1 and 4 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
35
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Q.72) Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service
Commission.
1. The constitution did not specify the strength of the
commission.
2. The constitution did not specify any qualification for its
members.
3. The president can remove the members only on the ground
of misbehavior.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.
1 only.
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1, 2 and 3.
Explanation:
Explanation- The constitution had provided for that one –half of its members should
be such persons who have served at least for 10 years either under the GoI or
Government of a state. The president can remove the members if he is involved in
any paid employment and if adjudged an insolvent etc.
Q.73) Which of the following officers cannot be removed by the president
though he appoints him?
1. Chief election commissioner
2. CAG
3. Chairman of State public service commission
4. Attorney general of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
36
A.
1 and 4 only.
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
1, 2 and 3 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4.
Explanation:
Q.74) Which of the following is a statutory body?
1. National commission for SC
2. National commission for minorities
3. National human rights commission
4. National commission for women
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A.
1 and 4 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
2, 3 and 4 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Q.75) The proper authority to specify which tribe shall be deemed to be
scheduled tribe is the
A.
Parliament
B.
President of India
C.
National commission for scheduled castes
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37
D.
Ministry of tribal affairs
Explanation:
Q.76) Consider the following statements
1. The chief election commissioner and the two other election
commissioners are appointed by the president and holds the
office till his pleasure
2. The chief election commissioner and the other election
commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary.
3. The constitution has not debarred the retiring election
commissioners from any further appointed by the
government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.
1 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Q.77) Consider the following statements with reference to the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India
A.
He controls the entire financial system of the country at both
central and state level.
B.
He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
C.
Both of the above
D.
None of the above
Explanation:
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
38
Q.78) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India exercises his control
over state finances through his power to
A.
Recommend allocation of grant-in-aid to states
B.
Prescribe the form and norms in which the Accounts of the state
shall be maintained
C.
Reallocation of revenues between the centre and the state from
time to time
D.
Make suggestion for affecting the economies in expenditure of
the state.
Explanation:
Q.79) With reference to the duties and powers of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India consider the following.
1. He audits the accounts related to all the expenditures from
the consolidated fund of India and Contingency fund of India
2. He also audits the accounts related to all the expenditures
from the consolidated fund of each state.
3. He has no power to audit the expenditure from Public
account of India
4. He can also audit the accounts of local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.
1 and 4 only
B.
1, 2 and 3 only
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Q.80) Who appoints the returning officer for the state assembly elections?
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
39
A.
Election commission of India.
B.
Election commission of respective state.
C.
Governor in consultation with the chief Election commissioner of
India.
D.
None of the above
Explanation:
Explanation- the District collector acts as the ex-officio returning officer.
Q.81) Which of the following report is not placed before the parliament?
A.
CAG
B.
UPSC
C.
Finance commission
D.
Election commission
Explanation:
Q.82) Which of the following are the objectives of Commission of
Agricultural prices?
1. To stabilize agricultural prices
2. To ensure meaningful real income level to the farmers.
3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing
essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates
through public distribution system
4. To ensure maximum price for the farmers
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A.
1, 2 and 3 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
40
B.
1, 2 and 4 only
C.
1, 3 and 4 only
D.
2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Q.83) With reference to the state public service commission, consider the
following statements.
1. The chairman and the members are appointed by the
governor of the concerned state.
2. During removal on the grounds of misbehavior the president
has to refer the matter to the high court for an inquiry.
3. The chairman of SPSC on ceasing to hold the office is eligible
for appointment as the chairman of any other SPSC.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
2 and 3 only
D.
1,2,3
Explanation:
Explanation- During removal on the grounds of misbehavior the president has to
refer the matter to the high court for an inquiry
Q.84) Who among the following has not been the chairman of Finance
commission?
A.
K Santhnam
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41
B.
Mahavir Tyagi
C.
Y B Chavan
D.
Dr K C Aiyr
Explanation:
Q.85) Assertion(A)- The attorney general of India is the first legal officer of
the government of India.
Reason(B)- He advises the president on all legal matters and
represents the centre and the states in the courts.
A.
Both A and B are individually true and B is the correct explanation
of A.
B.
Both A and B are individually true but B is not the correct
explanation of A.
C.
A is true but B is false.
D.
A is false but B is true
Explanation:
Q.86) With reference to Attorney General of India consider the following.
1. The constitution did not specify any qualification criteria.
2. The constitution also does not contain the procedure and
grounds for his removal.
3. He resigns when the government resigns or is replaced.
4. He is not debarred from private legal practice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
42
C.
2, 3 and 4 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Explanation- He must be qualified to be a judge of the supreme court.
Q.87) Which of the following is true about CAG?
1. It compiles and maintains the accounts of the central
government.
2. It submits audit report on public undertakings to the
president.
3. Its report is examined by the Public accounts committee
before it is laid down in the parliament.
4. It has no control over the issue of money from the
consolidated fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 4 only
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Explanation- It compiles and maintains the accounts of the state governments only.
In 1976 it has relived of this function with regard to the centre. Its report is examined
by the Public accounts committee after it is laid down in the parliament.
Q.88) With reference to the finance commission, consider the following.
1. The strength of the commission is decided by the president
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
43
from time to time as per the requirement.
2. The members are eligible for reappointment
3. It makes recommendations to the president of India the
principles that should govern the grant-in-aid to the state.
4. The recommendations are only advisory in nature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 4 only
C.
2, 3 and 4 only
D.
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Q.89) National commission for Scheduled tribe is a
A.
Constitutional body
B.
Statutory body
C.
Neither constitutional nor statutory
D.
It was made by a special act of parliament
Explanation:
Q.90) Consider the following statements:-
1)Midori prize is given for bidiversity excellence.
2)Kamal Bawa was receipient of Midori prize in 2014 for his excellent
research on tropical forests and conservation.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
44
B.
2 only
C.
Both 1 and 2
D.
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.91) Consider the following statements:-
1)National Pension Scheme is open to citizens of between the ages
of 18 and 60 on a voluntary basis
2)NRIs can now open NPS Accounts online if they have Aadhaar
Card or PAN card
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.92) Consider the following statements with regards to Indian diaspora at
present:-
1)India has the second-largest diaspora in the world, with around 29
million people living in over 200 countries
2)Out of the total diaspora 25% live in the Gulf countries
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
45
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.93) Consider the following statements:-
1)Yellow fever is endemic to tropical regions of the world
2)It is caused by a virus and transmitted by mosquitoes, belonging
to the Aedes and Haemogogus species
3)There is no vaccine at present for this disease
4)In tropical rainforests, monkeys, which are the primary reservoir of
yellow fever, are bitten by wild mosquitoes which pass the virus on
to other monkeys. Occasionally humans working or travelling in the
forest are bitten by infected mosquitoes and develop yellow fever.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 and 3 only
B.
1 and 4 only
C.
1,2 and 4 only
D.
1,2,3,4
Explanation:
Q.94) Consider the following statements:-
1)The UJALA scheme envisages to replace the inefficient CFL and
candescent bulbs with LED , which consumes half the energy as that
of CFLs and one tenth as that of incandescent bulbs.
2)The estimated annual greenhouse gas emission reductions is 1
crore tonnes of CO2 annually
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
46
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.95) Consider the following statements:-
1)Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) was created as a Public
Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Companies Act of 1956 for the
execution of the National Optical Fibre Network Project.
2)The National Fibre Netwrok Project envisages to provide
broadband connectivity to 250,000 Gram panchayats of India
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.96) Consider the following statements:-
1)Fiber-optic communication is a method of transmitting
information from one place to another by sending pulses of light
through an optical fiber.
2)An optical fiber (or optical fibre) is a flexible, transparent fiber
made by drawing glass (silica) or plastic to a diameter slightly thicker
than that of a human hair
3)Because of its advantages over electrical transmission, optical
fibers have largely replaced copper wire communications in core
networks in the developed world.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
47
A.
1 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1,2,3
D.
1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Q.97) Consider the following statements:-
1)Pattachitra is a traditional scroll painting form from Odisha
2)Chitrakars do not just paint, they also sing as they unfurl the scroll
to audiences. These songs are known as pater gaan
3)The songs range from traditional mythological tales and tribal
rituals to stories based on modern Indian history and contemporary
issues like protecting forests and 9/11 attacks.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
1 and 3 only
C.
1,2,3
D.
3 only
Explanation:
Q.98) Consider the following statements:-
1)Chaderi is a town in Madhya Pradesh and is known as one of the
handloom city of India
2)Chanderi is famous for its sarees, made with mix of indigenous
cotton and silk .
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
48
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.99) Consider the following statements:-
1)Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body
under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the
public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph
Act 1952.
2)The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of
whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with
headquarters at Mumbai
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Q.100) Consider the following statements:-
1)The Zangger Committee, also known as the Nuclear Exporters
Committee, originated from the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of
Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
2)The NSG was founded in response to the Indian nuclear test in
May 1974 and if India signs NPT then IAEA will have supervising
authority on all Indian nuclear installations.
Which of the above statement/s are correct ?
UPSCTREE [PRELIMS TEST – PP4 –POLITY]
49
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
both 1 and 2
D.
neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: