MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY...MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY Kundapura,...

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MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY Kundapura, Moodlakatte-576217 MOODLAKATTE ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAM-MEEE DO’S RETURN THE QUESTION BOOKLET TO INVIGILATOR BEFORE LEAVING THE EXAM HALL WRITE YOUR MEEE REGISTRATION NUMBER CLEARLY ON OMR ANSWER SHEET COMPULSORILY PUT YOUR SIGNATURE AT THE SPACE PROVIDED IN OMR ANSWER SHEET. DON’T’S DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING ON QUESTION BOOKLET. DO NOT DAMAGE/MULTILATE/SPOIL THE QUESTION BOOKLET IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES 1. The question booklet contains 60 questions and each question has four different options/choices. 2. Check for any unprinted/torn/missing/mutilated pages or items etc. if so, bring it to the notice of the invigilator and get the booklet exchanged. 3. Hand over the booklet to the room invigilator after answering the questions. 4. Question booklets and OMR answer sheets are issued separately at the start of examinations 5. There is no negative marking. 6. No mark shall be awarded for marking two or more answers of same question, scratching, over writing. 7. Rough should be done only on separate sheet provided by invigilator. 8. Valid method of shading the circle on OMR answer sheet is shown below: O O O ** Question booklet contains 60 questions of PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY and MATHEMATICS subjects all together. Each question contains four different options/choices. Version: A

Transcript of MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY...MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY Kundapura,...

Page 1: MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY...MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY Kundapura, Moodlakatte-576217 MOODLAKATTE ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAM-MEEE DO’S RETURN THE QUESTION BOOKLET

MOODLAKATTE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY Kundapura, Moodlakatte-576217

MOODLAKATTE ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAM-MEEE

DO’S

RETURN THE QUESTION BOOKLET TO INVIGILATOR BEFORE LEAVING THE EXAM HALL

WRITE YOUR MEEE REGISTRATION NUMBER CLEARLY ON OMR ANSWER SHEET

COMPULSORILY PUT YOUR SIGNATURE AT THE SPACE PROVIDED IN OMR ANSWER SHEET.

DON’T’S

DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING ON QUESTION BOOKLET.

DO NOT DAMAGE/MULTILATE/SPOIL THE QUESTION BOOKLET

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES 1. The question booklet contains 60 questions and each question has four different

options/choices.

2. Check for any unprinted/torn/missing/mutilated pages or items etc. if so, bring it

to the notice of the invigilator and get the booklet exchanged.

3. Hand over the booklet to the room invigilator after answering the questions.

4. Question booklets and OMR answer sheets are issued separately at the start of

examinations

5. There is no negative marking.

6. No mark shall be awarded for marking two or more answers of same question,

scratching, over writing.

7. Rough should be done only on separate sheet provided by invigilator.

8.

Valid method of shading the circle on OMR answer sheet is shown below:

O O O ** Question booklet contains 60 questions of PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY and MATHEMATICS subjects all together. Each question contains four different options/choices.

Version: A

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1. The physical quantity having the dimensions [M-1L-3T 3A2] is

(A). Electromotive force (B). Electrical conductivity (C). resistivity (D). Resistance

2. The unit of Stefan’s constant is (A). Nm-2k4 (B). Wm-2k-4

(C). Wmk-4 (D). Wm-2k-1

3. A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upwards in quick succession in such a way that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum height. If the maximum height is 5m, the number of balls thrown per minute is (A). 40 (B). 60 (C). 80 (D). 120

4. A body falling from rest describes distances S1, S2 and S3 during the first, second and third seconds of its fall. The ratio of S1:S2 :S3 is (A). 1:4:9 (B). 1:1:1 (C). 1:3:5 (D). 1:2:3

5. Physical quantity which remains constant throughout the trajectory of a particle is (A). momentum (B). Vertical component of velocity (C). Horizontal component of velocity (D). Kinetic energy

6. A body projected with velocity u attains a horizontal range of u2/2g. The angle of projection

is

(A). 15˚ (B). 30˚ (C). 45˚ (D). 60˚

7. When a body moves in a circular path, no work is done by the centripetal force since (A). There is no displacement (B). There is no net force (C). Force and displacement are

perpendicular to each other (D). The force is always away from the

centre 8. A charge of mass 10kg is fired from cannon of 20kg with a speed of 10m/s. The velocity of

recoil of the cannon in m/s is (A). 100 (B). 50 (C). 200 (D). 5

9. If the momentum of a body is increased by 4 times, its K.E will increase (A). 4 times (B). 8 times (C). 12 times (D). 16 times

10. A rotating platform is (A). An inertial frame (B). A non-inertial frame (C). Not a frame of reference at all (D). Equivalent to a fixed platform

11. When a liquid is flowing through a tube of variable diameter, the pressure is (A). Minimum where the velocity is

minimum (B). Maximum where the velocity is

minimum (C). Maximum where the velocity is

maximum (D). Is same everywhere

12. The gas contained in a box of 0.1m3 at atmospheric pressure is connected to another empty vessel of 0.09m3. Consequent change in pressure is x m of Hg is (A). 0.4 (B). 0.5 (C). 0.36 (D). 0.3

13. The work done by all the forces on a body is equal to the increase in the kinetic energy of the body. This is known as (A). Mass-energy relation (B). Fermat’s principle (C). D’Alembert’s principle (D). Work-energy principle

14. A sphere, a cube and disc all of the same material quality and volume are heated to 600˚c and left in air. Which of these will have the lowest rate of cooling (A). Sphere (B). Cube

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(C). disc (D). All will have the same rate 15. Which of the following is NOT a thermodynamic co-ordinate

(A). Temperature(T) (B). Gas Constant(R) (C). Pressure(P) (D). Volume(V)

16. A simple pendulum is oscillating in a lift. If the lift starts moving upwards with uniform acceleration, the period will (A). Remain unaffected (B). Be longer (C). Be shorter (D). May be shorter or longer, depending on

the magnitude of acceleration 17. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal like charges Q, the system

of the three will be in equilibrium if q is (A). Q/2 (B). -Q/2 (C). Q/4 (D). -Q/4

18. A cell of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 2 ohm is connected to two resistors 5 ohm and 8 ohm in series . The potential difference across 5 ohm resistor will be (A). 1 V (B). 0.33 V (C). 3.3V (D). 0.5 V

19. Which of the following is NOT the unit of energy (A). Nm (B). J (C). Wh (D). kW

20. A refractive index of a transparent material is 1.54. This means that the speed of light in this material is (in cm/sec) (A). 1.54x1010 (B). 4.62x1010

(C). 1.94x1010 (D). 3.00x1010

21. While charging the Lead storage battery, --- (A). PbSO4 on anode is reduced to Pb (B). PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to Pb (C). PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to Pb (D). PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to PbO2

22. Adenosine is an example of (A). Nucleotide (B). Purine base (C). Pyrimidine base (D). Nucleoside

23. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, white phosphorous gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas? (A). It is less basic than NH3 (B). It is more basic than NH3

(C). It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish

(D). Its solution in water decomposes in the presence of light

24. Sodium metal crystallizes in BCC lattice with edge length of 4.29A˚. The radius of sodium atom is, (A). 2.857 A˚ (B). 1.601 A˚ (C). 2.145 A˚ (D). 1.857 A˚

25. In a first order reaction the concentration of the reactant is reduced to 12.5% in one hour. When was its half life completed? (A). 3 Hr (B). 20 Min (C). 30 Min (D). 15 Min

26. The electronic configuration of Gd2+ is (Atomic number of Gd is 64) (A). [Xe] 4f8 (B). [Xe] 4f7 (C). [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 (D). [Xe] 4f7 5d1

27. To distinguishing test between Methanoic acid and Ethanoic acid is (A). Litmus test (B). Tollen’s test (C). Esterification test (D). Sodium bicarbonate test

28. Which of the following aqueous solution has the highest Freezing point? (A). 0.1M Sucrose (B). 0.01M NaCl (C). 0.1M NaCl (D). 0.01M Na2SO4

29. A crystalline solid XY3 has CCP arrangement for its element Y. X occupies

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(A). 66% of tetrahedral voids (B). 33% of tetrahedral voids (C). 66% of octahedral voids (D). 33% of octahedral voids

30. Water softening by Clark’s process uses (A). CaHCO3 (B). NaHCO3

(C). Na2CO3 (D). Ca(OH)2

31. The correct statement is (A). BF3 is the strongest Lewis acid among

the other boron halides (B). BI3 is the weakest Lewis acid among the

boron halides (C). There is maximum pπ – pπ back

bonding in BF3

(D). There is minimum pπ – pπ back bonding in BF3

32. The chemical formula for Iron hexacyanoferrate(II) is (A). Fe[Fe(CN6)] (B). Fe3[Fe(CN)6] (C). Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4 (D). Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

33. Specify the oxidation number of the metal in the following co-ordination entity K3[Fe(CN)6] (A). +3 (B). +2 (C). -2 (D). -3

34. What is the emf of the voltaic cell constructed by using std aluminium electrode and std copper electrode; E0 Al= -1.66V and E0 Cu= +0.34V (A). -2.00V (B). -1.32 V (C). +2.00V (D). None of above

35. What is the order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards SN2 reaction (A). 1˚>2˚>3˚>CH3X (B). CH3X>1˚>2˚>3˚ (C). 3˚>2˚>1˚>CH3X (D). CH3X>3˚>2˚>1˚

36. What is the cause for blue colour of the sky? (A). Diffraction of light (B). Absorption of light (C). Deflection of light (D). Scattering of light

37. Name the drug which act both as analgesic and antiseptic (A). Aspirin (B). Equanil (C). Salvarsan (D). Seldane

38. Name the protein present in hair (A). Alanin (B). Keratin (C). Glycine (D). Proline

39. Name the metal present in group 16 (A). Bismuth (B). Lead (C). Polonium (D). Antimony

40. The role of catalyst is to change (A). Gibbs free energy of reaction (B). Enthalpy of reaction (C). Activation energy of the reaction (D). Equilibrium constant

41. Which of the following is an empty set? (A). {x\ x is a real number and x2 – 1 = 0} (B). {x\ x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0} (C). {x\ x is a real number and x2 – 9 = 0} (D). {x\ x is a real number x2 = x + 2}

42. The central angle of a sector of circle of area 9 sq. cm is 600, the perimeter of the sector is (A). (B). 3 + (C). 6 + (D). 6

43. cos – 1(– x) is equal to (A). cos – 1( x) (B). – cos – 1 ( x) (C).

x

1cos 1

(D). – cos – 1( x)

44. Sum of 1 + 2 + 22 + ………+ 2 n – 1 is (A). 2n (B). 2n + 1 (C). 2n – 1 (D). 2 n – 1

45. The complex number i , is represented by the point

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(A). (0, i) (B). (i, 0) (C). (1, 0) (D). (0, 1)

46. If α and are the roots of x2 – px + q = 0 then p3 – 3pq is (A). α3 + 3 (B). α3 – 3 (C). α3 + 3+ α (D). α3 – 3+ α

47. For the inequality 5

23

xx, the interval is

(A). (– ∞, 6) (B). (– ∞, 6] (C). [– ∞, 6) (D). [– ∞, 6]

48. The number of all possible different arrangements of the word ‘BANANA’ is (A). 6! (B). 6! 2! 3! (C).

!3!2

!6

(D). 6

49. The 9th term in the expansion of (2 + xy)12is (A). 7920 (B). 7920x8 (C). 7920y8 (D). 7920x8y8

50. Sum of 1 + 4 + 7 + …… + (3n – 2) is (A).

2

24 2 n

(B).

4

13 2 n

(C).

2

3 2 nn

(D). 2n2 – 1

51. If

132

24

xx

xA is symmetric then x is

(A). 3 (B). 5 (C). 2 (D). 4

52.

The value of 2

2

2

1

1

1

zz

yy

xx

is

(A). 0 (B). (x – y)(y – z)(z – x) (C). (y – x)(y – z)(z – x) (D). 1

53. If jia ˆ3ˆ2

, kjb ˆ3ˆ2

, then )).(( baba

is

(A). 0 (B). – 8 (C). 9 (D). – 10

54. The distance of (3, – 7) from the X- axis is (A). 3 (B). 7 (C). 4 (D). 2

55. The centre of the circle x2 + y2 – 8x + 16y – 17 = 0 is (A). (4, – 8) (B). (– 2, – 16) (C). (– 8, 16) (D). (– 2, 8)

56. Equation of the plane perpendicular to the plane 2x + 6y + 5z = 11 is (A). 2x + 3y – 4z = 5 (B). 3x – 2y + 4z = 7 (C). 4x + 5y – 5z = 3 (D). X + 3y – 4z = 5

57. The value of

xx

x

x 44lim

0 is

(A). 2 (B). – 2 (C).

2

1

(D).

2

1

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58. If

1

4)(

2

x

xxf then f(x) is

(A). continuous at x = 2 (B). discontinuous at x = 2 (C). discontinuous at x = 0 (D). discontinuous at x = 4

59. The largest rectangle with a given perimeter is a (A). trapezium (B). parallelogram (C). square (D). rhombus

60. The value of dx

xx 22 cossin

1 =

(A). tan x + cot x + c (B). tan x – cot x + c (C). tan x cot x + c (D). tan x – cot 2x + c