Manager Admin 1. The first work on the study of public ...

Manager Admin

1. The first work on the study of public administration is attributed to:

(a) Woodrow Wilson (b) Frederick Taylor

(c) Henry L Gant

(d) Max Weber

2. The study of government decision making, the analysis of the policies themselves, the various inputs that have produced them, and the inputs necessary to produce alternative policies is called (a) Administration of Authority

(b) Public administration (c) Property administration

(d) Administrative Capacity

3. What is not an advantage of a hierarchical structure? (a) Clear chain of command

(b) Discipline and stability

(c) Small span of control (d) All of these

4. A theory of administration which describes the idea that the state was created by “man”

to serve the people and act in their interests is called: (a) Historical Theory

(b) Locational Theory (c) Mechanistic Theory (d) Human Relations Theory

5. Which country started civil service competition first?

(a) USA

(b) British India (c) China (d) Germany

6. Which of the following is one of the features of bureaucracy conceived by Max

Weber? (a) Administrative Authority (b) Hierarchy (c) Public Policy

(d) Civil society

7. What is an example of a workplace behavioral hazard?

a) An overworked employee b) Fumes from cleaning agent spillage c) Exposure to electromagnetic radiation

d) A workstation that does not include ergonomic furniture

8. What type of mail requires proof of delivery?

a) Express Post

b) International post

c) Key post

d) Registered post

9. Which of the following storage systems would be most suitable for a client register of

a large organization?

a) Electronic

b) Image based

c) Microfilm

d) Paper based

10. Your stationary order was incorrectly filled. Which document would you use to compare

with the order form to identify the discrepancies?

a) Credit note

b) Delivery docket

c) Receipt

d) Tax Invoice

11.

You have been given a twelve-page document printed on A4 paper. You are printed to

produce a double-sided booklet that when folded will be A4 size.

How many sheets of paper do you need for each booklet?

a) Three A3

b) Three A5

c) Six A3

d) Six A4

12. Communication strengthens & relationship is an organization.

a) employer-father b) employer-employer c) mother-employer

d) mother-child

13. Communication includes tone of voice body language, facial expressions

etc.

a) non verbal b) verbal c) letter

d) notice

14. When there is similarity of background between the sender and the receiver such as age, language nationality, religion, gender then this is called context.

a) social b) cultural c) physical

d) dynamic

15. When taking disciplinary action, you should a) Argue with the employee b) Allow employee to speak for the others involved

c) Make the disciplinary process as formal as possible d) Enforce policies and rules with consistency

16. Which of the following three factors affects an employee’s motivation?

a) Attitude, interests and needs b) Attitude, interests and salary

c) Attitude, interests and working conditions

d) Attitude, needs and salary

17. Managers are judged by: a) What they get others to do b) Their personality

c) What they do

d) How fast they work

18. The process or activity of optimally utilizing human resources to achieve predetermined goals and objectives in the most efficient and effective way possible is: a) Directing b) Controlling

c) Planning

d) Organizing

19. As a manager, you cannot evaluate: a) The performance of the employee

b) The behavior of the employee

c) The risk taking characteristics of the employee d) The attitude of the employee

20. Which of the following will help motivate employees? a) Compromise on poor performance

b) Ask for performance and set standards c) Use positive reinforcement, and generalize it

d) Use the same methods of reinforcement for everyone

21. Managers should know and use the three types of planning. These are:

a. Emergency, Task, & Contingency.

b. Goal, Long range, & Contingency. c. Short range, Long range, & Contingency. d. Task, Long range, & Emergency.

22. To be able to formulate a workable plan you must first:

a. Have knowledge of utilities’ policies & rules.

b. Know of available resources. c. State the objective to be achieved. d. Understand the utilities’ methods & procedures.

23. When preparing a budget you should:

a. Add a per cent increase to last year’s budget values.

b. Ask more than you need so you can cover contingencies.

c. Do not budget for any contingencies. d. Be realistic in projecting needs.

24. A job description should contain which of the following?

a. Benefits. b. Duties. c. Number of positions required.

d. Salary.

25. Which is not a characteristic of a good directive?

a. Open time element b. Appropriate wording.

c. Compatibility with objectives.

d. .Reasonableness.

26. Things such as, titles, promotions, and a private office would be placed into which

level of “Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs”

a. Belongingness.

b. Physiological.

c. Security.

d. Self-esteem/Ego.

27. Which of the following is an advantage of group decisions?

a. Compromise & bargaining.

b. Majority decision making.

c. Time. d. Variety of approaches.

28. What is the most common type of employee training?

a. On the job training. b. Seminars.

c. Trade schools.

d. Work delegation programs.

29. When open-ended time assignments are given, which of the following is true:

a) Accountability is non-exisstent. b) All tasks are completed when manager expected.

c) Employee procrastination level is low.

d) Projects are worked on at a consistent pace.

30. Managers who direct the work of the rank and file employees are known as:

a) Top Managers. b) First Line Managers. c) Middle Managers.

d) Operative.

31. Name the wife of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) who was daughter of Umar Farooq (R.A)?

a) Aisha (R.A)

b) Juwairyyah (R.A) c) Hafsah (R.A) d) Maimoonah (R.A)

32. What was the relation between Prophet Ismail (A.S) and Prophet Ishaq (A.S)? a) Prophet Ismail (A.S) was father of Prophet Ishaq (A.S)

b) Prophet Ishaq (A.S) was father of Prophet Ismail (A.S) c) Brothers d) Cousins

33. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) lived in Madina for years.

a) 8

b) 9 c) 10 d) 11

34. Al-Hudaibiyah Treaty was scribed by .

a) Abu Bakr Siddique (R.A)

b) Umar Farooq (R.A) c) Usman Ghani (R.A)

d) Ali Al-Murtaza (R.A) 35. Who become the first Pakistani wicket keeper batsman to make century across all

formats? a) Kamran Akmal

b) Babar Azam c) Mohammad Rizwan d) Sarfaraz Ahmed

36. Senate elections 2021 will be held on ?

a) 1St March 2021

b) 2nd March 2021 c) 3rd March 2021 d) None of these

37. First meeting of 10th National Finance Commission (NFC) was held on ?

A. February 16, 2021

B. February 17, 2021 C. February 18, 2021 D. None of these

38. Pakistan needs how many votes from FATF members to exit from grey list?

A. 12 B. 15

C. 20

D. None of these 39. The seventh edition of the multinational maritime exercise Aman-2021 was held in

from Feb 11 to 16?

A. India

B. Russia

C. Turkey D. Pakistan

40. Which cricket team became the 1st team to reach a Century of T20I Wins?

A. India

B. Bangladesh

C. Pakistan D. Srilanka

41. Sheena is a local language of ?

A. Gilgit Baltistan B. Sindh

C. Punjab

D. None of them 42. The severity of 2005 earthquake in Pakistan on Richter scale was ?

A. 6.9

B. 7.6 C. 7.1

D. none

43. The common value among the people of Pakistan is?

A. Dress

B. Language

C. Habits D. Islam

44. Who was the first governor general of Pakistan?

A. Quaid e Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah B. Iskander Mirza

C. Khawaja Nazimuddin

D. Ghulam Muhammad 45. Which country is situated in the east of Pakistan?

A. China B. India

C. Afghanistan

D. Iran 46. When was the first Pakistani Postal Stamp issued?

A. August 1948

B. December 1947

C. February 1948 D. July 1948

47. Who was the first President of Pakistan?

A. Malik Ghulam Muhammad B. Iskander Mirza C. Muhammad Ali Jinnah

D. Sir Khawaja Nazimuddin 48. Who was the first Commander-in-Chief of Pakistan Army?

A. G.M. Ayub Khan

B. Gen. George Murphy

C. Gen. Sadique Chaudhry D. Gen. Frank Meservy

49. The Indian Councils Act (Minto-Morley Reforms) was enacted into law in

?

A. 1909 B. 1910

C. 1911

D. 1912

50. Rowlatt Act came into operation in ?

A. 1917

B. 1918

C. 1919 D. 1920

Manager Finance

1. Which of the following measure reveals how much profit a company generates with the money shareholders have invested?

A. Profit Margin B. Return on Assets C. Return on Equity D. Debt-Equity Ratio

2. If you have Rs. 850 and you plan to save it for 4 years with an interest rate of 10%, what will be the future value of your savings?

A. Rs. 1,000 B. Rs. 1,244 C. Rs. 1,331 D. Rs. 1,464

3. In case of international business which of the given factor(s) must be considered?

A. Role of foreign exchange B. Balance of payments C. Attitude of Governments D. All of the given options

4. Which of the following refers to the difference between the sale price and cost of inventory?

A. Net loss B. Net worth C. Markup D. Markdown

5. Who of the following make a broader use of accounting information?

A. Accountants B. Financial Analysts C. Auditors D. Marketers

6. The Yield to Maturity of a bond is the same as_____________?

A. The present value of the bond B. The bonds internal rate of return C. The future value of the bond D. None of these

7. Choose from the following a symptom which is not relating to “Over Trading”?

A. Cash shortage B. Low inventory turnover ratio C. Low current ratio D. High inventory turnover ratiO

8. The formula to calculate the present value of a single cash flow is given by:

A. CF1 / (1+r)n B. C2 / (1+r) C. C0 + C (1+r)n D. None of these

9. The effect of purchasing power or inflation on present value is important because _________?

A. It increases the real value of cash flows received in the future B. It reduces the real value of cash flows received in the future C. It has no effect on real value of cash flow received in the future D. None of these

10. An Asset is __________?

A. Sources of funds B. Use of funds C. Inflow of funds D. None of these

11. Identifying and executing the firm’s mission by matching its capabilities with demands of its environment is the firm’s:

A. Strategic Management B. Mission statement C. Vision D. SWOT analysis

12. _____________examination may protect the company against unwarranted claims under workers compensation laws?

A. Written B. Physical C. Mental D. Reference

13. Creating an environment that facilitates a continuous and . two-way exchange of information between the superiors and the subordinates is the core of_____________?

A. High involvement management model B. Low commitment management model C. High performance management model D. Low performance Management model

14. Formulating and executing HR systems that produce employee competencies and behaviors needed to achieve the company’s strategic aims is/are_____________?

A. Strategic HR Management B. Strategy executjon C. HR strategies D. Strategic implementation

15. The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around____________?

A. Machine B. Motivation C. Money D. Men

16. Which of the following is closely associated with strategic human resource management?

A. Infficient utilisation of human resources B. Not attracting the best human resources C. Providing Superficial training D. Providing Best training method

17. Human Resource Management aims to maximize employees as well as Organizational_________________?

A. Effectiveness B. Economy C. EffiCiency D. Performativity

18. Strategic human resource management aims to achieve competitive advantage in the market through__________?

A. Price B. Product C. People D. Process

19. Strategic management process usually consists of _________steps.

A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven Read More Details about this Mcq

20. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are___________methods of recruitment.

A. Direct B. Indirect C. Third-party D. E-recruitment

21. What is the basic accounting equation?

A. Capital+Liabilities=Assets B. Assets+ liabilities =Capital C. Capital+assets=liabilities D. Liabilities+Capital

22. Which of the following is a liability?

A. Cash B. Equipment C. Debtors D. Creditors

23. What is equity?

A. Cash from the business B. liability of a business C. Owner’s claim on total assets D. Owner’s claim on total liabilities

24. Identify the asset from the following:

A. Cash and cash equivalent B. Creditors C. Notes payable D. Bank loan

25. _______ the withdrawal of cash and goods by the owner of the busienss for his/her personal use?

A. Depreciation B. Drawings C. Outflow of cash D. Appreciation

26. Net loss occurs when______________?

A. Expenses are greater than Income B. Expenses are less than Income C. Expenses=Income D. Liabilities are greater than income

27. Double entry implies that

A. Recording entries in journal B. Recording entries in Ledger account C. Recording two aspects of every transaction D. Recording every transaction in books

28. Identify the nominal account

A. Machinery account B. Building account C. Creditors account D. Rent expenses account

29. Which of the following accounts can be classified as a real account?

A. Rent expenses account B. Rent income account C. insurance expenses account D. Cash account

30. Transferring entries from journal to ledger account is commonly known as____________?

A. Recording B. Transferring C. Posting D. Entry making

31. The largest Railway workshop Mughalpura is situated in?

A. Gujranwala B. Multan C. Karachi D. Lahore

32. The ruins of Harrapa are situated in district?

A. Multan B. Okara C. Lahore D. Sahiwal

33. Abdul Rehman Chughtai was attached with the art of?

A. Construction B. Music C. Painting D. None of them

34. Thal desert is located in?

A. Sindh B. Gilgit C. KPK D. Punjab

35. The founder of All India Muslim League Nawab Salimullah Khan belonged to?

A. Madras B. Karachi C. Dhaka D. Delhi

36. Who is the first Punjab poet?

A. Baba Farid B. Shah Hussain C. Bullhay Shah D. None of them

37. Who was the hero of Pak India 1965 war?

A. Major Raja Aziz Bhatti B. Major Tufail C. Lalik Jan D. Mulla Faqir

38. The name of poet whose collection of poetry is called “Shah jo Risalu”?

A. Khushal Khan Khattak B. Waris Shah C. Makhdum Muhammad Hashim D. Shah Abdul Latif Bhatai

39. Which is the first book of Pushto language?

A. Pata Khazana B. Tazkra-tul-Aulia C. Jat di Kartut D. Aasar-ul-Sanadeed

40. Urdu is a word of Turkish language, it means?

A. Wth B. Arms C. Army D. Literature

41. Ivory Coast’s Prime Minister Hamed Bakayoko has died of cancer at the age of 56 in which of the following country?

A. USA B. Germany C. France D. UK

42. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated the _________ bridge to strengthen connectivity with Bangladesh?

A. Bogibeel Bridge B. Maitri Setu C. Mahatma Gandhi Setu D. None of these

43. The AZD1222 Covid-19 vaccine has been developed by ___________?

A. Oxford-Astrazeneca B. Pfizer-BioNTech C. SinoVac D. None of these

44. WHO recognises _______ as the healthiest city in the world?

A. China B. America C. Pakistan D. Madina

45. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated a bridge on connecting India with which of the following country?

A. Bhutan B. Nepal C. Bangladesh D. None of these

46. To what Prophet the Zabur was revealed by Allah?

A. Prophet Ibraheem (A.S) B. Prophet Dawood (A.S) C. Prophet Moosa (A.S) D. Prophet Essa (A.S)

47. To what Prophet the Injeel was revealed by Allah?

A. Prophet Ibraheem (A.S) B. Prophet Dawood (A.S) C. Prophet Moosa (A.S) D. Prophet Essa (A.S)

48. What companion of Prophet (PBUH) was awarded with the title of “The sword of Allah”?

A. Abu Bakr Siddique (R.A) B. Umar Farooque (R.A) C. Ali Al-Murtaza (R.A) D. Khalid bin Waleed (R.A)

49. What companion of Prophet (PBUH) was awarded with the title of “The lion of Allah”?

A. Umar Farooque (R.A) B. Ali Al-Murtaza (R.A) C. Hamza bin Abdul Mattalib (R.A) D. Khalid bin Waleed (R.A)

50. What was the name of Imam Bukhari (R.A)?

A. Muhammad bin Ismaeel B. Muhammad Ismaeel C. Muhammad Ibraheem D. Ismaeel bin Ibraheem

Assistant Manager Finance

1. Situation in which firm limits expenditures on capital is classified as________?

A. Optimal rationing B. Capital rationing C. Marginal rationing D. Transaction rationing

2. An internal rate of return in capital budgeting can be modified to make it representative of_________?

A. Relative outflow B. Relative inflow

C. Relative cost D. Relative profitability

3. Other factors held constant, greater project liquidity is because of___________?

A. Less project returns B. Greater project return C. Shorter payback period D. Greater payback period

4. Project whose cash flows are sufficient to repay capital invested for rate of return then net present value will be_________?

A. Negative B. Zero C. Positive D. Independent

5. Process in which managers of company identify projects to add value is classified as__________?

A. Capital budgeting B. Cost budgeting C. Book value budgeting D. Equity budgeting

6. Number of years forecasted to recover an original investment is classified as________?

A. Payback period B. Forecasted period C. Original period D. Investment period

7. In capital budgeting, a negative net present value result in______________?

A. Zero economic value added B. Percent economic value added C. Negative economic value added D. Positive economic value added

8. Modified rate of return and modified internal rate of return with exceed cost of capital if net present value is____________?

A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. One

9. Set of projects or set of investments usually maximize firm value is classified as_________?

A. Optimal capital budget B. Minimum capital budget C. Maximum capital budget D. Greater capital budget

10. In internal rate of returns, discount rate which forces net present values to become zero is classified as__________?

A. Positive rate of return B. Negative rate of return C. External rate of return D. Internal rate of return

11. Which of the following is not an elements of traditional job design?

A. Formal Organisation charts B. Clear and precise job descriptions C. Well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths D. Employee number chart

12. The Scope of human resource management includes:___________?

A. Production B. Marketing C. Inventory management D. Training & Development

13. Which of the following act represents a situation in which employment decisions are NOT affected by illegal discrimination?

A. Fair employment B. Legal compliance C. Litigation Process D. Affirmative action

14. The first step in the e-selection process is____________?

A. consider how the various new stakeholders and clients will use the system B. train the employees that will be responsible for the administration of the process C. draw-up a flow chart of the current assessment process D. draft the desired flow process that will result from the E-selection process

15. Motivating the employees is classified as___________?

A. Informational role B. Interpersonal role C. Decisional role D. Conceptual role

16. The Mental Process to interpret environment as’ per one’s own understanding is known as:____________?

A. Perception B. Personality C. Attitude D. Ability

17. Under which of the following authority, an HR manager took the decision to provide training to its employees regarding the operations of newly installed machine?

A. Staff B. Functional C. Line D. Implied

18. Human resource management is the formal part of an organization responsible for all of the following aspects of the management of human resources except:

A. systems, processes, and procedures B. policy making, implementation, and enforcement C. strategy development and analysis D. management of the Organisation’s finances

19. A practice used by different companies to reduce costs by transferring portions of work to outside provider rather than completing it internally is termed as:

A. Planning B. Decentralization C. Restructuring D. Outsourcing

20. The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics, duties, and responsibilities is known as__________?

A. Job evaluation B. Job design C. Job specification D. Job description

21. Which of the following error is an error of principle

A. 5,000 received from Sham credited to Ram A/c B. 5,000 incurred on installation of new plant debited to travelling expenses A/c C. 500 paid for wages debited to salary A/c D. 500 being purchase of raw material debited to purchase A/c ` 50

22. Which of the following is an one sided error?

A. 500 purchase of old equipment not recorded in the books of A/c at all B. 500 being expense on travelling expense credited to travelling expenses C. Both D. None

23 Any gain on the sale of non-current assets should be _________ from the net profit and the loss must be _________to the net profit in determining fund from operation?

A. Added, Reduced B. Added, Added C. Deducted, Added D. Deducted, Deducted

24. Cash book records?

A. Only cash sales B. All types of cash receipts and payments C. Only revenue receipts D. Only capital receipts

25. In a three column cash book_______________does not exist?

A. Cash column B. Bank column C. Petty cash column D. Discount column

26. Which of these transactions will not be recorded in cash book?

A. Cash received from debtors B. Cash paid to creditors C. Salary remained outstanding D. Cash deposited with bank

27. The closing balance of a petty cash book is a / an___________?

A. Liability B. Gain C. Assets D. Loss

28. Which column of a cash book will not have credit balance___________?

A. Bank column B. Discount column C. Cash column D. None

29. Petty cash balance is a/an___________?

A. Assets B. Expenditure C. Liability D. None

30. Which of these is a Part of cash in hand?

A. Postage stamps B. B/R C. Cheque Deposited with Bank D. B/R endorsed

31. Clifton Beach is located in _________ ?

A. Hyderabad B. Karachi C. Jamshoro D. Kotri

32. Haleji Lake, Kadeiro Lake and keenjhar Lake are located in _________ ?

A. Sindh B. Balochistan C. Sindh & Balochistan D. None of them

33. Shah Jahan Mosque is located in __________ ?

A. Thatta B. Jacobabad C. Sibi D. Larkana

34. Manchar Lake is situated in ___________ ?

A. Larkana B. Dadu C. Thatta D. Jamshoro

35. University of Karachi is located in _________ ?

A. Jamshoro B. Hyderabad C. Larkana D. Karachi

36. The___________Moterway connects the cities of Hyderabad and Karachi in the Sindh province of Pakistan?

A. M-1 Moterway B. M-4 Moterway C. M-5 Moterway D. M-9 Moterway

37. The Sindh Provincial Museum is located in __________ ?

A. Jamshoro B. Karachi

C. Larkana D. Hyderabad

38. Who was King Umar ?

A. First King of the Sumarh Dynas B. Second King of the Sumarh Dynasty C. Third King of the Sumarh Dynasty D. Fourth King of the Sumarh Dynasty

39. Marvi is a folk story of ____________ ?

A. Sindh B. Thar C. Seraiki D. Thal

40. How many Barragas are there in Sindh ? A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 7

41. Who is the Current Federal Minister for Information?

A. Firdous Ashiq Awan B. Fawad Chaudhry C. Lt Gen (Rtd) Asim Saleem Bajwa D. Shibli Faraz Read More Details about this Mcq

42. which country passes ‘Malala Yousafzai Scholarship Act in 1st January 2021?

A. UK B. Pakistan C. US D. Turkey

43. The Pakistan Air Force (PAF) has announced the production of the state-of-the-art JF-17 Thunder__________ latest fighter jets:

A. Block 2 B. Block 3

C. Block 4 D. None of these

44. After Taftan, Gwadar _______ is the second international border crossing point between Iran and Pakistan ,has recently inaugurated by defense minister in production ,Ms Zubaida Jalal , on 19 December 2020.

A. Rehela B. Ramdhan C. Rina D. None

45. Who has been appointed as new Chairman of Ruet-i-Hilal Committee?

A. Hafiz Abdul Qudoos B. Noor-ul-Haq Qadri C. Maulana Abdul Khabeer Azad D. None of these

46. How much camels were sacrificed on the occasion of Hajj by Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H)?

5

A. 60 camels B. 63 camels C. 65 camels D. 67 camels

47. Who performed first Hajj Bait-Ullah?

A. Hazrat Ibrahim and Hazrat Ismail (A.S) B. Hazrat Adam (A.S) and Hazrat Hawa (A.S) C. Hazrat Ibrahim (A.S) and Hazrat Hajira (A.S) D. None of them

48. What is verbal meaning of divine revelation (Wahi)?

A. To point out or to give message B. To Talk C. To order D. None of these

49. How many kinds of Wahi are there?

A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Seven

50. Which angel came to Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) with Wahi?

A. Hazrat Mekail (A.S) B. Hazrat Esrafeel (A.S) C. Hazrat Jibbrail (A.S) D. Hazrat Ezrail (A.S)

Assistant Manager Legal

1. There are ___________ seats for technocrats in the Senate ?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. None of above

2. There are _________ seats for non Muslims in the Senate of Pakistan ?


3. A person shall not be qualified to be elected or chosen a member of Parliament unless he fulfill the qualification according to Article __________, of the Constitution of 1973?

A. 61 B. 62 C. 73 D. Non of these

4. A person who holds fual citizenship is disqualified for membership of Parliament as provided in_____________?

A. Article 63(a) B. Article 63(b)

C. None of above D. None of above

5. Article 66 of the Constitution deals with privileges of ____________________?

A. Members of Parliament B. President C. None of above D. None of above

6. Minimum age for candidate of Senate is_______________?

A. 25 years B. 30 years C. 35 years D. None of above

7. Article _________ of the Constitution of 1973 describes procedure for introduction and passing of bills in Parliament?

A. Article 70 B. Article 71 C. Article 72 D. None of above

8. According the Constitution of 1973 money bill can only be introduced in ____________________?

A. Senate B. National Assembly C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of above

9. Article 89 of the Constitution of 1973 empowers ____________ to promulgate Ordinances?

A. Minister of Law B. Prime Minister C. President D. None of above

10. Under Article 90 of the Constitution of 1973 the executive authority of the Federation shall be exercised in the name of President by ?

A. The President B. Prime Minister C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of above

11. A Judge of Supreme Court or High Court may resign from his office by writing uner his hand addressed to the ___________________ ?

A. Chief Justice of Pakistan B. Prime Minister C. President D. None of above

12. Article __________ of the Constitution deals with formation of Supreme Judicial Council ?


13. Supreme Judicial Council consists_________________?

A. Chief Justice of Pakistan and two next most Senior Judges of the Supreme Court B. The two most Senior Chief Justices of High Courts C. All of above D. None of above

14. Chief Election Commissioner before entering office shall make oath before_________________?

A. Chief Justice of Pakistan B. President C. Chief of army staff D. None of above

15. Can any person can hold membership of 2 houses at the same time ?

A. Yes B. No C. Both A and B D. None of above

16. Articles ________ to _________ of the Constitution of 1973 deals with Electoral laws and conduct of elections ?

A. 222 to 226 B. 222 to 230 C. 222 to 235 D. None of above

17. Article _________ of the Constitution deals with composition of Islamic Council ?


18. Function of Islamic Council are provided in__________________?

A. Article 228 of the Constitution of 1973 B. Article 229 of the Constitution of 1973 C. Article 230 of the Constitution of 1973 D. None of above

19. The President has power to issue proclamation in case of failure of constitutional machinery in a Province as provided in Article ____________ of The Constitution of Pakistan?


20. Constitution can be amended by __________ majority in both Houses of the Parliament ?

A. Simple majority B. 2/3 majority C. 1/4 majority D. None of above

21. Constitution tenth Amendment was enacted on ___________________?

A. 25th February, 1987 B. 25th March, 1987

C. 25th April, 1987 D. None of above

22. Tenth Amendment of the Constitution amended ____________ Articles?


23. Constitution Twelfths Amendment was enacted on____________________?

A. 28th June, 1981 B. 27th July, 1991 C. 28th August, 1991 D. None of above

24. Constitution of 1973 was amended by the Thirteenth Amendment on___________________?

A. 3rd April, 1997 B. 3rd May, 1997 C. 3rd June, 1997 D. None of above

25. Through __________ Amendment new Article 63A (Disqualification on ground of defection) was added ?

A. Thirteenth B. Fourteenth C. Fifteenth D. None of above

26. Constitutional Fourteenth Amendment was published in official Gazette on ________________?

A. 3rd July, 1997 B. 4th July, 1997 C. 5th July, 1997 D. None of above

27. Constitution Fifteenth amendment bill was passed by National Assembly on_________________?

A. 15th October, 1997 B. 15th October, 1998 C. 15th October, 1999 D. None of above

28. Constitution Sixteenth Amendment Act was enacted on__________________?

A. 3rd August, 1997 B. 3rd August, 1998 C. 3rd August, 1999 D. None of above

29. Constitution Sixteenth Amendment amended __________ Articles?

A. 1(27) B. 2(27, 29) C. 3(27, 29, 40) D. None of above

30. It was provided through ______ Amendment in the Constitution Article 58, after clause (2) the following new clause shall be added, namely (3) the President in case of dissolution of the National Assembly under paragraph (b) of clause (2) shall, within fifteen days of the dissolution, refer the matter to the Supreme Court and te Supreme Court shall decide the reference within thirty days whose decision shall be final?

A. 15th B. 16th C. 17th D. None of above

31. Quaid-e-Azam Day is observed on ___________ ?

A. 1st May B. 15th May C. 21st May D. 25th Dec

32. On which date is Death Anniversary of Quaid e Azam observed ?

A. 9th November B. 11th September C. 21st March D. 11th October

33. World Tuberculosis Day is observed on ____________?

A. 21st March B. 24th March C. 26th March D. 25th March

34. World Inventor’s Day is celebrated on _____________?

A. 9th November B. 8th April C. 31st April D. 23rd April

35. Oldest mountains of the world are present in india and youngest mountain of the world are present in ?

A. Pakistan B. China C. India D. Burma

36. Which is the Highest peak of Pakistan ?

A. Broad Peak B. Sia kingri Peak C. K-2 D. Kilik Peak

37. K-2 peak is the _________ Highest peak of the World ?

A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

38. K-2 is Also Known As _______________ ?

A. Godwin Austin B. Broad Peak C. Roshan Peak D. Sia Kingri

39. Which is the youngest mountain range on the earth ?

A. Hindu kush B. Korakoram C. Himalayas D. Alps

40. K-2 is present in which mountains range ?

A. Pamir B. Hindu kush C. Karakoram D. Himalayas

41. Who became first female ASP of Balochistan?

A. Sadaf Batool Assadi B. Syeda Tahira Safdar C. Fazila Aliani D. Pari Gul Tareen E. None of these

42. The University Of Baltistan is Situated in___________?

A. Gilgit B. Skardu C. Astore D. Ghancha

43. Who is the Current Minister of Water & Power in Gilgit-Baltistan?

A. Mr. Muhammad Jaffar B. Mr. Deedar Ali C. Mr. Mushtaq Hussain D. Muhammad Akbar Khan

44. Who is the Current Minister of Health Department in Gilgit-Baltistan?

A. Gulbar Khan B. Mr. Aftab Haider C. Mr. Farman Ali D. Mr. Fida Khan

45. Who is the Current Minister of tourism in Gilgit-Baltistan?

A. Haidar Khan

B. Mr. Mohammad Shafiq

C. Raja Nasir Abbas

D. Mr. Muhammad Naseer Khan

46. How many Madni Surahs of the Holy Quran are there?

A. 26 B. 28 C. 29 D. 30 (more…)

47. Basic pillars of Islam are?

A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7

48. The Touheed (Kalmah) is__________ pillar of Islam?

A. First Pillar of Islam B. Second Pillar of Islam C. Third Pillar of Islam D. Fourth Pillar of Islam

49. The Second Pillar of Islam is?

A. Namaz B. Fast C. Touheed D. Zakat

50. The third pillar of Islam is?

A. Zakat B. Fast C. Touheed D. Namaz

Assistant Manager Audit

1. Institute of Chartered Accountants of Pakistan was established in____________?

A. 1949 B. 1956 C. 1961 D. 1972

2. Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?

A. It is conducted at regular interval B. It may be carried out on daily basis C. It is needed when the organization has a good internal control system D. It is expensive

3. Internal check is carried on by___________?

A. Staff specially appointed for the purpose B. Internal auditor C. Supervisor of the staff D. Members of the staff

4. Errors of Omission are_____________?

A. Technical errors B. Errors of principle C. Compensating errors D. None of the above

5. Window dressing implies_______________?

A. Curtailment of expenses B. Checking of Wastages C. Under valuation of assets D. Over Valuation of assets

6. Test Checking refers to___________?

A. Testing of accounts and records B. Checking of selected number of transactions

C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries D. Checking of all transactions recorded

7. Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

A. Materiality is a relative concept B. Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments C. Auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of an informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements D. At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only

8. ______the audit risks_______the materiality and_________the audit effort.

A. Lower, Higher, Lower B. Lower, Lower, Higher C. Higher, Lower, Lower D. Lower, Higher, Higher

9. When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should be satisfied that the___________?

A. Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers B. Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level C. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level D. Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made

10. In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?

A. Prior year’s errors B. The auditor’s remuneration C. Adjusted interim financial statements D. Prior year’s financial statements

11. Audit in depth is synonymous for_____________?

A. Complete audit B. Completed audit C. Final audit D. Detailed audit

12. Balance sheet audit includes verification of____________?

A. Assets C. Income and expense accounts where appropriate B. Liabilities D. All of the above

13. Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?

A. It is conducted at regular interval B. It may be carried out on daily basis C. It is needed when the organization has a good internal control system D. It is expensive

14. Balance sheet does not include:_____________?

A. Verification of assets and liabilities B. Vouching of income and expense accounts related to assets and liabilities C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries D. Routine checks

15. Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

A. Materiality is a relative concept B. Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments C. Auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of an informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements D. At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only

16. _______the audit risk,_______the materiality and _______the audit effort?

A. Lower, Higher, Lower B. Lower, Lower, Higher C. Higher, Lower, Lower D. Lower, Higher, Higher

17. When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should be satisfied that the_____________?

A. Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers B. Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level C. Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level D. Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made

18. In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?

A. Prior year’s errors B. The auditor’s remuneration C. Adjusted interim financial statements D. Prior year’s financial statements

19. Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally?

A. helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures B. directs attention to potential risk areas C. indicates important aspects of business D. All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is most closely associated with analytical procedure applied at substantive stage?

A. It helps to study relationship among balance sheet accounts B. It helps to discover material misstatements in the financial statements C. It helps to identify possible oversights D. It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance

21. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. An auditor may serve on the board of directors of an audit client. B. An auditor who is an immediate family member of the director of an audit client must not be assigned to the audit team. C. Purchasing goods from an audit client on normal commercial terms does not create a threat to the auditor’s independence. D. An auditor who was recently a director of an audit client must not be assigned to the audit team for that client.

22. An auditor should not accept a loan on favourable commercial terms from an audit

client because of the threat to his or her independence. The threat would be

a___________?

A. Self-interest threat B. Self-review threat C. Advocacy threat D. Familiarity threat

23. Which of the following are fundamental ethical principles for professional

accountants?

1 Competence

2 Compliance

3 Integrity

4 Objectivity

A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 4 only

24. Which one of the following may auditors NOT perform for their client?

A. Taking management decisions B. Preparation of accounting records C. Preparing tax computations D. Advising on weaknesses in the internal control systems

25. You have been proposed as auditor of a company. What is the first step that you

should take?

A. Obtain the client’s permission to communicate with the existing auditor B. Obtain the existing auditor’s working papers C. Obtain a copy of the company’s most recent board minutes D. Obtain a copy of the existing auditor’s letter of engagement

26. Which of these are types of Audit Report?

A. Unqualified opinion B. Qualified opinion C. Adverse opinion D. Disclaimer of opinion. All of above

27. Pick the odd one:

A. Checking the vouchers B. Preparation of vouchers C. Evaluation of internal control D. None of the above

28. Which of the following is not type of engagement standard?

A. Standards on Auditing B. Standard on Quality Control C. Standards on Review Engagement D. Standards on Assurance Engagement

29. How many Standards on Auditing have been issued?

A. 32 B. 34 C. 36 D. 38

30. Auditing engagement can be performed w.r.t.

A. Profit making entity B. Non-profit making entity C. Corporate entity only D. Any entity

31. World largest dam made of mud is__________?

A. Mangla B. Warsak C. Tarbela D. Barotha

32. Number of divisions in Gilgit Baltistan is ______?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 7 D. 4

33. When was the Gas discovered from sui?

A. 1950 B. 1954 C. 1953 D. 1952

34. The first Urdu newspaper in Indian subcontinent was ____________?

A. Jam-e-Jahan Numa B. Nawai-e-waqt

C. Imroz D. Indian Gazette

35. “Dehli proposal” was published in which year ?

A. 1927 B. 1928 C. 1929 D. 1930

36. Which city is Called the Heart Of Pakistan?

A. Islamabad B. Lahore C. Karachi D. Faisalabad

37. Indo-Pak war of 1965 lasted for_________?

A. 17 days B. 27 days C. 37 days D. 47 days

38. Kharan desert is situated in_____________?

A. Punjab B. Balochistan C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa D. Sindh

39. When Pakistan NH&MP Motorway Police was established?

A. 1987 B. 1990 C. 1997 D. 2000

40. Pakistan NH&MP Motorway Police deal with following law:

A. Business law B. Traffic Law C. NHSO D. None of These

41. Squash legend Azam Khan dies of coronavirus at 95 in_________?

A. United Kingdom B. Pakistan C. Spain D. United States of America

42. Asian Development Bank (ADB) stated in its report that the virus outbreak could cost

Pakistan economy in the range of__________?

A. $16.3 million to $4.95 billion B. $19.5 million to $6.6 billion C. $20 million to $2 billion S. $19 million to $1 billion

43. Pakistan decided to fly white Flag for giving courage to Doctors, Nurses & medical staff

on__________?

A. Thursday, 26th March 2020 B. Friday, 27th March 2020 C. Wednesday, 25th March 2020 D. Monday, 23rd March 2020

44. Who has been appointed as Prime Minister Imran Khan focal person on coronavirus?

A. Zafar mirza B. Faisal Sultan C. Babar Atta D. None of these

45. China donates 500,000 surgical masks, 50,000 test kits to Pakistan on____________?

A. 21 March 2020 B. 22 March 2020 C. 23 March 2020 D. 25 March 2020

46. How many times word zakat is uesd in Makki surahs?

A. 22 B. 21

C. 19 D. 23

47. Who was the leader of pagans in the Battle of Badr?

A. Abu Sufyan B. Utba C. Abu Jehl D. None

48. ______ battle participants were bestowed with the highest rewards by Allah (SWT).

A. Tabook B. Khyber C. Badr D. Hunain

49. Hazrat Nooh (AH) name mentioned in the Holy Quran _____ times.

A. 41 B. 42 C. 43 D. 44

50. How many doors are there in Masjid-e-Haram?

A. 19 KB. 21 C. 23 D. 25

Assistant Manager (Developer)

1. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects ?

A. Size of the project B. Customers Complaints C. Project staff D. Mission criticality Read More Details about this Mcq

2. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known

as______________________?

A. BCWS

B. EVA

C. BAC

D. CBSE

3. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software

process should be applied on a project ?

A. Degree of Rigor B. Adaptation criteria C. Task Set D. Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

4. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software

development ?

A. PERT B. CPM C. CMM D. Both PERT and CPM Read More Details about this Mcq

5. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of

project scope ?

A. Concept scoping B. Preliminary concept planning C. Technology risk assessment D. Customer reaction to the concept

6. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given

time in Software Scheduling is known as ________________?

A. Time Allocation B. Effort Validation C. Defined Milestone D. Effort Distribution

7. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed

as_________________?

A. Compartmentalization B. Defined milestones C. Defined responsibilities D. Defined outcomes Read More Details about this Mcq

8. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables

that must be accomplished to complete a particular project ?

A. Task set B. Degree of milestone C. Adaptation criteria D. All of the mentioned

9. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by_________________?

A. Henry Gantt B. Barry Boehm C. Ivar Jacabson D. None of the mentioned

10. _________________ view shows the system hardware and how software components

are distributed across the processors in the system ?

A. physical B. logical C. process D. all of the mentioned Read More Details about this Mcq

11. Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects

or object classes ?

A. physical B. development C. logical D. process Read More Details about this Mcq

12. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-

based systems ?

A. architecture B. repository pattern C. model-view-controller D. different operating system Read More Details about this Mcq

13. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions ?

A. type of application B. distribution of the system C. architectural styles D. testing the system Read More Details about this Mcq

14. Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting

processes at run time ?

A. physical B. development C. logical D. process

15. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data ?

A. model-view-controller B. architecture pattern C. repository pattern D. none of the mentioned

16. Which of the following is an architectural conflict ?

A. Using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability B. Introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult C. Localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance D. All of the mentioned

17. The UML was designed for describing _______________________?

A. object-oriented systems B. architectural design C. SRS D. Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

18. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used

?

A. Asynchronous communication B. Observe and React C. Environmental Control D. Process Pipeline

19. Which of these following sensor is a useful as part of a burglar alarm system for

commercial buildings ?

A. Movement detector B. Door sensor C. Window sensor D. All of the mentioned

20. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a high-

speed_________________?

A. data distributing system B. data acquisition system C. data collector system D. none of the mentioned

21. ____________________ can be associated with a separate processor or core, so that

the processing steps can be carried out in parallel ?

A. Process Pipeline B. Environmental Control C. Observe and React D. None of the mentioned

22. ETL stands for____________________?

A. Data Extraction Transformation & Loading B. Data Execution Transformation & Loading C. Extraction Transformation & Loading D. Execution Transformation & Loading

23. A monitoring system examines its environment through __________________?

A. operating system B. communication C. set of sensors D. none of the mentioned

24. Which of the following is applicable on software radio ?

A. Environmental Control B. Process Pipeline C. Distributed system D. None of the mentioned

25. Control systems may make use of the Environmental Control pattern, which is a

general control pattern that includes ______________processes?

A. sensor B. actuator C. pipeline D. both sensor and actuator

26. Which of the following examples is/are models of application architectures ?

A. a means of assessing components for reuse B. a design checklist C. a vocabulary for talking about types of applications D. all of the mentioned

27. Transaction processing systems may be organized as a ____________ architecture

with system components responsible for input, processing, and output ?

A. Repository B. Client–server

C. Model-View-Controller D. Pipe and Filter

28. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s) ?

A. Model-View-Controller B. Layered Architecture C. Client–server D. All of the mentioned

29. What translates a natural or an artificial language into another representation of that

language and, for programming languages also execute the resulting code ?

A. ERP systems B. Transaction-based information systems C. Language processing systems D. None of the mentioned

30. A language-processing systems may translate an XML data description

into__________________?

A. a machine code

B. an alternative XML representation

C. machine code and alternative XML representation

D. a software module

31. Fort Munro was built as a summer resort by British officials in_____________?

A. 1910 B. 1920 C. 1930 D. 1875

32. Rann of Kutch boundary line is known as__________?

A. 24th parallel line B. 19th parallel line C. 17th parallel line D. 39th parallel line

33. The Punjab Tianjin University of Technical Education is in__________?

A. Rawalpindi B. Faisalabad C. Lahore D. Multan

34. NA stands for ________?

A. National Army B. National Academy C. National Assembly D. National Assets

35. Member of National Assembly is called ________?

A. MNA B. MPA C. LA D. MLA

36. MNA stands for ________?

A. Medical Nurse Association B. Multi-National Architecture C. Media Networking Area D. Member of National Assembly

37. Member of Provincial assembly is called________?

A. MNA B. MPA C. MGA D. MKA

38. MPA stands for _________?

A. Member of Provincial Assembly B. Motion Picture Artist C. Member of Pakistan Assembly D. Master in Public Accounts

39. The constituency of Punjab Assembly is called ________?

A. PS B. PP C. PB D. PK

40. PP stands for _______?

A. Pakistans Party B. Pay policy C. Primary Position D. Province of Punjab

41. Pakistan and ______ Sign Agreement for exemption of visa requirement for diplomatic

and official passport holders on 30th October 2019.

A. Afghanistan B. Birtain

C. Cuba ✓ D. None of these

42. Who became Pakistan’s First Female Google Developer Expert in Machine Learning?

A. Kiran Khan

B. Aqsa Kausar ✓ C. Rabia shehzad D. None of these

43. Who became the second Female police officer to have earned a “Sword of Honour” at

National police academy?

A. Squadron Leader Saira Amin

B. ASP Maham Khan ✓ C. ASP suhai Aziz Talpur D. None of these

44. Govt replaces PMDC with Pakistan Medical Commission on___________?

A. 21st October, 2019 ✓ B. 21st September, 2019 C. 23rd October, 2019 D. 23rd September, 2019

45. When Vice Admiral Muhammad Fayyaz Gilani has been appointed as Vice Chief of the

Naval Staff at Pakistan Navy?

A. 15 Nov 2019

B. 17 Nov 2019 ✓ C. 19 Nov 2019 D. None of these

46. What is the name of the Surah that was last revealed on the Quran?

A. Al- Nas B. Al- Nasr C. Al- Alaq D. Al- Falaq

47. When Hazrat Imam Shafi was born in Gaza?

A. 140 AH B. 150 AH C. 160 AH D. 170 AH

48. Hazrat Imam Shafi died in _______ at Egypt?

A. 204 AH B. 212 AH C. 220 AH D. 223 AH

49. Fatwa kazi khan is the authentic fatwa of which sect?

A. Fiqah Hanbali B. Fiqah Shafi C. Fiqah Hanfia D. Fiqah Jafriya

50. Name the Prophet who was the first man to write?

A. Hazrat Ibrahim (A.S) B. Hazrat Dawood (A.S) C. Hazrat Shoaib (A.S) D. Hazrat Idrees (A.S)

SENIOR MANAGER PROCUREMENT & CONTRACTS

1. Where alternative technical proposals are possible, the bidding process used is

a. single stage one envelope procedure

b. single stage two envelope procedure

c. two stage bidding procedure

d. two stage two envelope bidding procedure

2. Where the bids are to be evaluated on technical and financial grounds and price is

taken into account after technical evaluation, the bidding process used is





3. In large and complex contracts where technically unequal proposals are likely to be

encountered, or there are two or more equally acceptable technical solutions

available to the procuring agency, the bidding process used is





4. Any bidder feeling aggrieved by any act of the procuring agency may lodge a written

complaint concerning his grievances not later than _______ days after the

announcement of the bid evaluation report.

a. 7

b. 10

c. 15

d. 30

5. The committee shall investigate and decide upon the complaint within _______ days

of the receipt of the complaint.

a. 15

b. 30

c. 45

d. 60

6. The bids for procurement opportunities shall be submitted in a/an _______ package

or packages.

a. open

b. sealed

c. transparent

d. none of these

7. Where the procuring agency require the bidders to furnish a bid security, the bid

security should not exceed _______ of the bid price.

a. 5.0%

b. 7.5%

c. 10.0%

d. 12.5%

8. All bids shall be opened

a. randomly

b. privately

c. secretly

d. publicly

9. There are _____ procedures of open competitive bidding.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

10. The main open competitive bidding procedure is

a. single stage one envelope bidding




11. All procurement opportunities over _______ rupees should be advertised in the

newspaper.

a. 0.5 million

b. 1.5 million

c. 1.5 million

d. 2.0 million

12. The procurement opportunities over two million rupees should be advertised in at

least _______ newspaper(s).

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

13. The principal method for the procurement of goods, services and works is

a. open competitive bidding

b. close competitive bidding

c. FIFO

d. LIFO

14. The bidder with the _______ evaluated bid shall be awarded the procurement

contract.

a. highest

b. lowest

c. average

d. zero variance

15. Where needed the procuring agency shall require the successful bidder to furnish a

performance guarantee which shall not exceed _______ of the contract amount.

a. 5%

b. 7.5%

c. 10%

d. 12.5%

16. The terms purchasing and procurement should not be seen as synonymous. As such,

which of the following statements do you think has greatest validity?

a. Procurement has a broader meaning than purchasing

b. Purchasing has a broader meaning than procurement

c. Procurement is broadly equivalent to purchasing

d. None of the above

17. The electronic integration and management of all procurement activities including

purchase request, authorization, ordering, delivery and payment between a purchaser

and supplier is known as:

a. E-procurement process

b. E-procurement system

c. E-procurement

d. All of the above

18. The range of potential options for improving purchasing processes are indicated by

benefits described by the Chartered Institute of Purchasing and Supply such as:

a. Evaluation of end-to-end trading cycles

b. Multimedia

c. Content management

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

19. Generally, which sequence is most typical of the procurement process?

a. Originator to buyer to approver to supplier

b. Approver to originator to buyer to supplier

c. Originator to approver to buyer to supplier

d. Supplier to originator to approver to buyer

e. None of the above

20. E-procurement aims to improve performance of what is known as the 'five rights of

purchasing'. One aim of e-procurement is increasing savings by sourcing items:

a. Of the right quality

b. From the right source

c. Of the right quantity

d. At the right price

21. Another aim of e-procurement is increased choice of supplier leading to sourcing

items:

a. Delivered at the right time

b. Of the right quantity

c. From the right source

d. At the right price

22. A recent simple classification of different types or applications of e-procurement was

produced by Smart. Which of the following is NOT one of these?

a. E-tendering

b. E-informing

c. E-sourcing

d. E-transparency

23. What is the term used to describe where supply chain partners manage the

replenishment of parts or items for sale? They do this through the sharing of

information on variations in demand and stock levels for goods used for manufacture

or sale.

a. Vendor-managed inventory

b. E-procurement drivers

c. E-business value and stock level grid

d. Efficient customer response

24. There are barriers and risks involved in adopting e-procurement. Which of the

following is NOT regarded as a risk or barrier?

a. Creation and cost of catalogues

b. Competition issues

c. Possible positive perception from suppliers

d. Negotiated procurement benefits may be shared with other exchange users who

may be competitors

25. In future, some suggest that the task of searching for suppliers and products may be

taken over by a programme which automatically gathers information from the

Internet:

a. Electronic B2B marketplaces

b. Software intelligent agents

c. Metamediaries

d. Spider search engines

26. Of the following, which is an e-procurement benefit related to budgetary control?

a. Enabling them to concentrate on strategic purchasing issues

b. Rules to limit spending and improved reporting facilities

c. Correcting errors is traditionally a major part of a buyer's workload

d. Reduced purchase cycle

27. Which of the following describes the stock control system element of an e-

procurement system?

a. Re-ordering is automated when the number in stock falls below re-order

thresholds

b. Integrates the entry of the order by the originator, approval by manager and

placement by buyer

c. Staff in the buying department to enter an order which can then be used by

accounting staff to make payment when the invoice arrives

d. Possible to integrate all e-procurement functionality and may also include

integration with suppliers' systems

28. Production related procurement refers to the purchasing of:

a. Office supplies

b. Furniture

c. Raw materials

d. Information systems

29. Negotiated contracts with regular suppliers typically in long-term relationships is an

example of:

a. MRO sourcing

b. Spot sourcing

c. E-procurement

d. Systematic sourcing

30. Fulfillment of an immediate need, typically of a commoditized item for which it is less

important to know the credibility of the supplier is an example of:

a. MRO sourcing

b. Spot sourcing

c. Systematic sourcing

d. E-procurement

31. For B2B transactions involved with e-procurement, the merchant site should facilitate:

a. Partially complete orders

b. Initial purchases

c. Straight rebuys

d. Modified rebuys

e. All of the above

32. On 13th May 2019 which Amendment of the Constitution of Pakistan was passed in

National Assembly of Pakistan?

A. 27th Amendment B. 26th Amendment C. 28th Amendment D. 25th Amendment

33. Former Governor Tariq Bajwa , was the ___________ Governor of the State Bank of

Pakistan?

A. 25th B. 26th C. 18th D. 19th.

34. How many consecutive years Pakistan Army team has been the winner of Pace

Sticking Competition?

A. Second B. Third C. Fourth D. None of these

35. The World Bank has approved a package of_______ million to support Pakistan’s

efforts to raise revenue, reduce compliance cost?

A. $515 B. $518

C. $520 D. None of above

36. MQM founder Altaf Hussain was arrested in London over ___________speech?

A. incendiary 2016 Speech B. incendiary 2015 Speech C. incendiary 2012 Speech D. incendiary 2013 Speech

37. The Federal budget for the fiscal year 2019-2020 announced on _____________?

A. June 9, 2019 B. June 10, 2019 C. June 11, 2019 D. June 12, 2019

38. British Airways after 11 years has arrived at Islamabad International Airport on

___________ ?

A. June 1, 2019 B. June 2, 2019 C. June 3, 2019 D. June 4, 2019

39. Which country for the First time in judicial history has started hearing of cases via

video Link with the lunch of new e-Court system?

A. Pakistan B. Bangladesh C. Nepal D. India

40. On 25th May 2019, Young mountaineers Amina Hanif and Siddiqa Batool set a record

to summit the highest peak in__________?

A. Norway B. Australia C. Spain D. Africa

41. In the year 1719 how many Mughal Kings sat on throne?

A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

42. When was the 18th Amendment Bill passed by National Assembly of Pakistan?

A. February 8, 2010 B. March 8, 2010 C. April, 08, 2010 D. May 12, 2010

43. Harappa City is situated on the bank of____________ ?

A. Ravi River B. Chenab river C. Sutlej river D. Jhelum river

44. The Indus valley civilization is know as Pre-Aryan Civilization because of the evidence

of ?

A. Art B. Copper C. Pottery D. Script

45. When The National Olympic Committee for Pakistan was created in _______?

A. 1948 B. 1950 C. 1952 D. 1954

46. What was the age of Hazrat Khadija (RA) when married to Hazrat Muhammad (SAW)?

A. 25 B. 30 C. 35 D. 40 E. 45

47. Hazrat Khadija (RA) was _______ years older than Hazrat Muhammad (SAW).

A. 5 B. 9 C. 13 D. 15 E. 18

48. ____________ died on the tenth of Ramadan 10 Nabvi.

A. Hazrat Salma (RA) B. Hazrat Khadija (RA) C. Hazrat Memona (RA) D. Hazrat Safia (RA) E. Hazrat Sauda (RA)

49. _____________ was buried at Jannat-e-Moalla in Macca.

A. Hazrat Ayesha (RA) B. Hazrat Khadija (RA) C. Hazrat Maria Qibtiya (RA) D. Hazrat Safia (RA) E. Hazrat Sauda (RA)

50. Hazrat Khadija (RA) belonged to the tribe of __________.

A. Banu Hashim B. Banu Khazeema C. Banu Asad D. Banu Atiyah

Assistant Manager Procurement

1. Where alternative technical proposals are possible, the bidding process used is

e. single stage one envelope procedure

f. single stage two envelope procedure

g. two stage bidding procedure

h. two stage two envelope bidding procedure

2. Where the bids are to be evaluated on technical and financial grounds and price is

taken into account after technical evaluation, the bidding process used is





3. In large and complex contracts where technically unequal proposals are likely to be

encountered, or there are two or more equally acceptable technical solutions

available to the procuring agency, the bidding process used is





4. Any bidder feeling aggrieved by any act of the procuring agency may lodge a written

complaint concerning his grievances not later than _______ days after the

announcement of the bid evaluation report.

e. 7

f. 10

g. 15

h. 30

5. The committee shall investigate and decide upon the complaint within _______ days

of the receipt of the complaint.

e. 15

f. 30

g. 45

h. 60

6. The bids for procurement opportunities shall be submitted in a/an _______ package

or packages.

e. open

f. sealed

g. transparent

h. none of these

7. Where the procuring agency require the bidders to furnish a bid security, the bid

security should not exceed _______ of the bid price.

e. 5.0%

f. 7.5%

g. 10.0%

h. 12.5%

8. All bids shall be opened

e. randomly

f. privately

g. secretly

h. publicly

9. There are _____ procedures of open competitive bidding.

e. 2

f. 3

g. 4

h. 5

10. The main open competitive bidding procedure is

e. single stage one envelope bidding




11. All procurement opportunities over _______ rupees should be advertised in the

newspaper.

e. 0.5 million

f. 1.5 million

g. 1.5 million

h. 2.0 million

12. The procurement opportunities over two million rupees should be advertised in at

least _______ newspaper(s).

e. one

f. two

g. three

h. four

13. The principal method for the procurement of goods, services and works is

e. open competitive bidding

f. close competitive bidding

g. FIFO

h. LIFO

14. The bidder with the _______ evaluated bid shall be awarded the procurement

contract.

e. highest

f. lowest

g. average

h. zero variance

15. Where needed the procuring agency shall require the successful bidder to furnish a

performance guarantee which shall not exceed _______ of the contract amount.

e. 5%

f. 7.5%

g. 10%

h. 12.5%

16. The terms purchasing and procurement should not be seen as synonymous. As such,

which of the following statements do you think has greatest validity?

e. Procurement has a broader meaning than purchasing

f. Purchasing has a broader meaning than procurement

g. Procurement is broadly equivalent to purchasing

h. None of the above

17. The electronic integration and management of all procurement activities including

purchase request, authorization, ordering, delivery and payment between a purchaser

and supplier is known as:

e. E-procurement process

f. E-procurement system

g. E-procurement

h. All of the above

18. The range of potential options for improving purchasing processes are indicated by

benefits described by the Chartered Institute of Purchasing and Supply such as:

f. Evaluation of end-to-end trading cycles

g. Multimedia

h. Content management

i. All of the above

j. None of the above

19. Generally, which sequence is most typical of the procurement process?

f. Originator to buyer to approver to supplier

g. Approver to originator to buyer to supplier

h. Originator to approver to buyer to supplier

i. Supplier to originator to approver to buyer

j. None of the above

20. E-procurement aims to improve performance of what is known as the 'five rights of

purchasing'. One aim of e-procurement is increasing savings by sourcing items:

e. Of the right quality

f. From the right source

g. Of the right quantity

h. At the right price

21. Another aim of e-procurement is increased choice of supplier leading to sourcing

items:

e. Delivered at the right time

f. Of the right quantity

g. From the right source

h. At the right price

22. A recent simple classification of different types or applications of e-procurement was

produced by Smart. Which of the following is NOT one of these?

e. E-tendering

f. E-informing

g. E-sourcing

h. E-transparency

23. What is the term used to describe where supply chain partners manage the

replenishment of parts or items for sale? They do this through the sharing of

information on variations in demand and stock levels for goods used for manufacture

or sale.

e. Vendor-managed inventory

f. E-procurement drivers

g. E-business value and stock level grid

h. Efficient customer response

24. There are barriers and risks involved in adopting e-procurement. Which of the

following is NOT regarded as a risk or barrier?

e. Creation and cost of catalogues

f. Competition issues

g. Possible positive perception from suppliers

h. Negotiated procurement benefits may be shared with other exchange users who

may be competitors

25. In future, some suggest that the task of searching for suppliers and products may be

taken over by a programme which automatically gathers information from the

Internet:

e. Electronic B2B marketplaces

f. Software intelligent agents

g. Metamediaries

h. Spider search engines

26. Of the following, which is an e-procurement benefit related to budgetary control?

e. Enabling them to concentrate on strategic purchasing issues

f. Rules to limit spending and improved reporting facilities

g. Correcting errors is traditionally a major part of a buyer's workload

h. Reduced purchase cycle

27. Which of the following describes the stock control system element of an e-

procurement system?

e. Re-ordering is automated when the number in stock falls below re-order

thresholds

f. Integrates the entry of the order by the originator, approval by manager and

placement by buyer

g. Staff in the buying department to enter an order which can then be used by

accounting staff to make payment when the invoice arrives

h. Possible to integrate all e-procurement functionality and may also include

integration with suppliers' systems

28. Production related procurement refers to the purchasing of:

e. Office supplies

f. Furniture

g. Raw materials

h. Information systems

29. Negotiated contracts with regular suppliers typically in long-term relationships is an

example of:

e. MRO sourcing

f. Spot sourcing

g. E-procurement

h. Systematic sourcing

30. Fulfillment of an immediate need, typically of a commoditized item for which it is less

important to know the credibility of the supplier is an example of:

e. MRO sourcing

f. Spot sourcing

g. Systematic sourcing

h. E-procurement

31. For B2B transactions involved with e-procurement, the merchant site should facilitate:

f. Partially complete orders

g. Initial purchases

h. Straight rebuys

i. Modified rebuys

j. All of the above

32. Which Pakistani soldier awarded the Dag Hammarskjold medal by U.N Secretary

General António Guterre on 25 May 2019?

A. M. Aslam B. Naik Muhammad Naeem Raza C. Rashid khan D. None of these

33. pakistan has contributed over_________ troops to 46 UN peacekeeping mission over

the last six decades?

A. 100,000 B. 200,000 C. 300,000 D. None of these

34. _________ becomes first Pakistani to conquer world’s seven 8000m peaks?

A. Mooen Ali B. Nazir Sabir C. Hanbal Mahboob D. Ali Sadpara

35. Pakistan on 23rd, May 2019 successfully conducted a “training launch” of a ballistic

missile __________ capable of carrying both nuclear and conventional warheads up to

_________ kilometers.

A. Shaheen I , 1,200 kilometers B. Shaheen II, 1,500 kilometers C. Ghori II, 1,800 kilometers D. Al. Khalid, 1,300 kilometers

36. Saudi Arabia to give Pakistan $______ billion oil on deferred price from July?

A. $ 3 billion B. $ 3.1 billion

C. $ 3.4 billion D. $ 3.2 billion

37. Which country stopped issuing visas for all categories to Pakistanis recently in May

2019?

A. Bangladesh B. UK C. United States D. India

38. __________ becomes the first Pakistani man climbed 7 Summits in 7 Continents?

A. Sadpara B. Mirza Ali C. Sultan Mirza D. None of these

39. Federal Minister for Narcotics Control Sardar Ali Muhammad Khan Mahar died

on_____________?

A. 22nd May 2019 B. 15th April 2019 C. 21st May 2019 D. None of these

40. Pakistan’s Prime Minister Imran Khan met Irani leader ” Ali Khamnaye” on ________?

A. 22nd April 2019 B. 24th April 2019 C. 16th April 2019 D. 12th May 2019

41. What document was firstly drafted to give pace to constitution making process?

A. Representative Act B. Pakistan Act C. Independence Act D. Objective Resolution

42. When the Constituent Assembly passed the Objective Resolution?

A. 14th February 1949 B. 12th March 1949

C. 9th June 1949 D. 15th August 1949

43. When Mohammad Ali Bogra presented Bogra Formula in the assembly?

A. January 1953 B. April 1953 C. September 1953 D. October 1953

44. Who was Mohammad Ali Bogra?

A. Prime Minister B. Foreign Minister C. Law Minister D. Parliament Minister

45. What is the other name of Mohammad Ali Bogra Formula?

A. New Law of Pakistan B. Pakistan Report C. Third Report D. Constitutional Formula

46. Arbeen is the book of Hadith in which there are _______ Hadith?

A. 40 Hadith B. 50 Hadith C. 20 Hadith D. 30 Hadith

47. Kitab-ul-Assar is compiled by__________?

A. Imam Abu Hanifah (RA) B. Imam Shafi (RA) C. Imam Malik (RA) D. Imam Humbal (RA)

48. Batha Valley is situated in________?

A. Makkah B. Madina C. Egypt D. Jordan

49___________ is the title of Hazrat Abdullah bin Amir?

A. Fath-e-Khurasan B. Sheikh-ul-Islam C. Maseeh-ul-Islam D. None of these

50 Maizban-e-Rasool (SAW) is the title of ____________?

A. Hazrat Abi Ka’ab (RA) B. Hazrat Salman Farsi (RA) C. Hazrat Abu Ayub Ansari (RA) D. Hazrat Mugaira bin Shuaba (RA)

Manager Workshop

1. The unit of power in S.I. units is______________?

A. newton meter B. watt C. joule D. kilogram meter/sec E. pascal per sec

2. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will

be________________?

A. P/2 cos 9/2 B. IP sin 9/2 C. 2P tan 9/2 D. IP cos 9/2 E. Psin 9/2

3. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?

A. Momentum and impulse B. Torque and energy

C. Torque and work D. Kinetic energy and potential energy E. Moment of a force and angular momentum

4. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

A. kW (kilowatt) B. hp (horse power) C. kcal/sec D. kg m/sec E. kcal/kg sec

5. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is

equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the

principle of__________________?

A. forces B. independence of forces C. dependence of forces D. balance of force E. resolution of forces

6. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be

in________________?

A. non-equilibrium B. partial equilibrium C. full equilibrium D. unpredictable E. none of the above

7. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of__________________?

A. zeioth order B. first order C. second order D. third order E. fourth order

8. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as

follows_________________?

A. W between P and F B. F between W and P C. P between W and F D. W, P and F all on one side E. none of the above

9. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

A. kg/cm B. ata C. atmosphere D. mm of wcl E. newton

10. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?

A. discharge B. velocity of gas C. pressure intensity of gas D. pressure intensity of liquid

11. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called

______________?

A. compression index B. compression ratio C. compressor efficiency D. mean effective pressure E. compressor effectiveness

12. The net work input required for compressor with increase in clearance

volume_____________________?

A. increases B. decreases C. remains same D. increases/decreases depending on com-pressor capacity E. unpredictable

13. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential

__________________?

A. to accommedate Valves in the cylinder head B. to provide cushioning effect

C. to attain high volumetric efficiency D. to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head E. to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head

14. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume ________________?

A. increases with increase in compression ratio B. decreases with increase in compression ratio C. in not dependent upon compression ratio D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity E. unpredictable

15. Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for air

compressor_________________?

A. from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C B. from outside atmosphere at 1°C C. from coal yard side D. from a side where cooling tower is located nearby E. from any one of the above locations

16. Which is false statement about multistage compression ?

A. Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low B. Volumetric efficiency is high C. It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1 D. The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler E. Outlet temperature is reduced

17. Euler’s equation is applicable for__________________?

A. centrifugal compressor B. axial compressor C. pumps D. all of the above E. none of the above

18. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as__________________?

A. compressor efficiency B. isothermal efficiency C. volumetric efficiency

D. mechanical efficiency E. adiabatic efficiency

19. The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum

because____________________?

A. it allows maximum compression to be achieved B. it greatly affects volumetric efficiency C. it results in minimum work D. it permits isothermal compression E. none of the above

20. Which is false statement about air receivers ___________________?

A. These are used to dampen pulsations , B. These act as reservoir to- take care of sudden demands C. These increase compressor efficiency D. These knock out some oil and moisture E. These reduce frequent on/off operation of compressors

21. The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow comperssor is of

the order of________________?

A. 1 : 1.2 B. 1 : 2 C. 1 : 5 D. 1 : 10 E. 1 : 1

22. Surging is the phenomenon of___________________?

A. air stream blocking the passage B. motion of air at sonic velocity C. unsteady, periodic and reversed flow D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour E. production of no air pressure

23. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on_______________?

A. isothermal compression B. adiabatic compression C. isentropic compression D. polytropic compression E. none of the above

24. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the order

of__________________?

A. 6 kg/cm2 B. 10 kg/cm2 C. 16 kg/cm2 D. 25 kg/cm2 E. 40 kg/cm2

25. Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal

compressor__________________?

A. larger air handling ability per unit frontal area B. higher pressure ratio per stage C. aerofoil blades are used D. higher average velocities E. none of the above

26. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air

pressure will be_____________________ ?

A. 1.03 kg/cm2 B. 1.06 kg/cm2 C. 1.00 kg/cm2 D. 0.53 kg/cm2 E. 0.5 kg/cm2

27. Axial flow compressor resembles____________________ ?

A. centrifugal pump B. reciprocating pump C. turbine D. sliding vane compressor E. none of the above

28. The vloumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will

___________________?

A. increase B. decrease C. remain same D. may increase/decrease depending on clearance volume E. none of the above

29. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on_________________?

A. pressure ratio B. maximum cycle temperature C. minimum cycle temperature D. all of the above E. none of die above

30. Open cycle gas turbine works on___________________?

A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle B Rankine cycle C. Carnot cycle D. Erricsson cycle E. Joule cycle

31. Who is the Current Chairman of Sindh Public Service Commission (SPSC)?

A. M.H Bhutto B. Muhammad Saleem Bhonur C. Noor Muhammad Jadmani D. S. N. Abbasi

32. According to World Bank Report 2018, Trade between Pakistan and South Asia Valued

at___________ Billion?

A. $ 2 Billion B. $ 4 Billion C. $ 5.1 Billion D. $ 39.7 Billion

33. According to World Bank Report 2018, trade between Pakistan and India Valued little

over 2 Billion, whereas without trade barriers, it could reach _________ Billions?

A. $25 Billion B. $31 Billion C. $37 Billion D. $48 Billion

34. According to Henley passport index 2018, Pakistani Passport has visa free access to

how many countries?

A. 25 B. 30 C. 33 D. 40

35. The week-long US $15,000 Fourth Shaheed Benazir Bhutto ITF Future Tennis

Tournament will begin at ___________ from 17th DEC 2018?

A. Lahore Tennis Complex B. Islamabad Tennis Complex C. Rawalpindi Tennis Complex D. Karachi Tennis Complex

36. The Supreme Court has ordered the government of Pakistan not to appoint

_____________ on top posts and to draft laws in this regard after approval from the

cabinet?

A. Minority B. Dual nationals C. An individual having age less than 25 years D. All of the above

37. Who has resigned from the portfolio of Parliamentary Secretary for Petroleum due to

not being taken into confidence by his party on 12th Dec 2018?

A. Shaukat Ali Yousafzai B. Raja Riaz C. Sahibzada Nazir Sultan D. Shah Farman

38. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has proposed a ___________ lending programme

for Pakistan for next three years on 14th Dec 2018?

A. $3 billion B. $5 billion C. $7.5 billion D. $10 billion

39. Which of the following muslim leader was awarded a chance by S.Arabia to sew

Ghilaf-e Kaaba with gold thread in Dec 2018?

A. Dr. Mahathir Bin Mohamad B. Dr. Arif-ur-Rehman Alvi

C. Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum D. Abdul Hamid

40. Who has resigned from his post on 14th DEC 2018 due to Pakistan’s dismal Hockey

World Cup 2018 performance?

A. Khalid Sajjad Khokhar (President PHF) B. Touqeer Dar (Chief coach) C. Muhammad Rizwan Sr (Captain) D. All of the above

41. First Tea-processing plant of Pakistan was inaugurated at________?

A. Mansehra B. Sawat C. Ziarat D. Malakand

42. The first &only Pakistani served as Secretary General of the OIC ?

A. Muneer Akram B. Sharif-ud-Din Pirzada C. Yaqoob A. Khan D. S.M Zafar

43. Arya Samaj was against of__________?

A. Muslims B. Christians C. Sikhs D. All of above

44. Which Congress leader was called “Show Boy of Congress” by Quaid-e-Azam ?

A. Gopal Acharia B. Gandhi C. Maulana- Abu Kalam D. Moti lal Nehru

45. Which city is to be called Madinat-Ul-Auliaya ?

A. Multan B. Sehwan

C. Ajmeer D. Pakpattan

46. Which Prophet invented ‘Soap’?

A. Prophet Isa (A.S) B. Prophet Ismail (A.S) C. Prophet Saleh (A.S) D. Prophet Idress (A.S)

47. Bird Hudhud (Woodpecker) is mentioned in Quran, Surah_________?

A. Surah Nahl B. Surah Namal C. Surah Qasas D. Surah Saba

48. Bibi Balqees was the Ruler of__________?

A. Iran B. Yemen C. Israel D. Syria

49. Bird Hud-Hud told Hazrat Sulaiman that “The Queen Balqees and her followers had

been worshiping?

A. Moon B. Sun C. Stars D. Idols

50. Which Sahabi was known as “Brain of Arab”?

A. Hazrat Umar Farooq B. Hazrat Khalid bin Walid C. Hazrat Amr bin Al-Aas D. Hazrat Ameer Hamza

Manager Admin 1. The first work on the study of public ...

Documents

Transcript of Manager Admin 1. The first work on the study of public ...