Live Leak NIACL AO Prelims Model Question Paper (Predicted … · 2019-01-28 · Live Leak –...

Live Leak – NIACL AO Prelims Model

Question Paper (Predicted Pattern 2018)

Quant

Q1. The ratio of expenses to savings for

Ashutosh is 6 ∶ 4. If his expenses

increased by 50% and income increased

by 20%, there is a deficit of Rs. 500 in

his savings. Find the amount in Rupees

by which his income was increased?

1) 2000

2) 1000

3) 1500

4) 750

5) 1200

Q2. You are given a mixture of 18 litres,

where the ratio of milk and water is 3 ∶

2. If 3 litres of this mixture is replaced

by 3 litres of milk, then what will be the

ratio of milk and water in the newly

formed mixture?

1) 12 ∶ 3

2) 8 ∶ 5

3) 2 ∶ 1

4) 1 ∶ 1

5) 1 ∶ 2

Q3. A receives 1/15th of the total profit

and the remaining is divided between B

and C in the ratio of 3 : 4. If the

difference between the profit shares of C

and A is Rs. 2800. What is B’s share?

1) Rs. 2000

2) Rs. 2200

3) Rs. 2300

4) Rs. 2400

5) None of these

Q4. If the simple interest on a certain

sum of money at 15% p.a. for 2 years is

Rs. 8,100 then what is the compound

interest on the same sum for 2 years at

the same rate?

1) Rs. 8,710

2) Rs. 8,870

3) Rs. 8,707.5

4) Rs. 8,807

5) Rs, 8,700

Q5. A bus travels with an average speed

of 57.5 km/hr in its journey of 690 km.

If it covered 1/3 of its journey in 3 hours

27 minutes and the next 400 km in 6

https://testbook.com/pass

https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.testbook.tbapp&hl=en

hours 24 minutes, find the time taken by

the bus to cover the remaining distance.

1) 1 hr 3 min

2) 1 hr 6 min

3) 2 hr 9 min

4) 2 hr 12 min

5) 2 hr 15 min

Comprehension Start

Directions 6 to 10: There are 5 trains running on Monday and Tuesday. In the radar graphs the distance travelled by the trains on Monday and speed has been shown. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions.

Q6. What will be the percentage change in the distance covered by train B on Tuesday if the time of travel is increased by 20 minutes but the speed is reduced by 15 km/hr.

1) 16.5% increased

2) 18% decreased

3) 12.5% increased

4) 17.5% decreased

5) None of these

Q7. If the average of the speed of train A on Monday and Tuesday is 69 km/hr, while the time of travelling is same on both the days. Find the ratio of distance travelled on Monday and Tuesday by train A.

1) 21 ∶ 25

2) 5 ∶ 4

3) 25 ∶ 21

4) 5 ∶ 6

5) None of these



Q8. If the speed of train C is increased

by 20% on Tuesday and speed of train D

is decreased by 16% on Tuesday then,

find the total distance covered by them

on Tuesday (time of travel remains

same).

1) 654 km

2) 650 km

3) 646 km

4) 600 km

5) None of these

Q9. If the distance travelled by train E

on Tuesday is increased by 162

3% of

initial travel distance, while the time of

travel is decreased by 1 hour then find

the percentage change in the speed.

1) 30% increment

2) 40% increment

3) 25% increment

4) 50% increment

5) None of these

Q10. Find the difference between the

time taken in the crossing of train A and

train C (running in opposite direction)

and in crossing of train B and train D

(running in same directions). The length

of each train is 1550 m.

1) 4 minutes 37 seconds




5) None of these

Comprehension End

Q11. What should come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

[1729 ÷ (53 × 23 + 33 ÷ 3-3) + 1729] = (39 – 390) ÷ 1.3 + ? × 102

1) 18

2) 19

3) 20

4) 22

5) 21


4579.53 + 1240.39 – 17 × ?2 = 2059.23 – 1152.31

1) 19.1

2) 17

3) 21.3

4) 20

5) 17.7




(4913)1/3 – (14641)1/4 + (?)1/2 = 22½% of 80

1) 289

2) 12

3) 132

4) 144

5) 120


(3.3/0.9) of (9/16) of (0.2/√121) of 1/?-

1 = 3-2/[2 × (12-2)]

1) 2131

3

2) 22010

3

3) 221

3

4) 216

5) 221


676 × 21 ÷ 273 + (5041)1/2 – 625/√? = 98

1) 575

2) 175

3) 225

4) 675

5) 625

Q16. Tap P and Q can fill a tank in 7 and

10 hours, respectively. Pipe R can empty

the same tank in 15 hours. If all the

three pipes are opened simultaneously,

then in how much time the tank will be

filled completely?

1) 437

25hours

2) 525

37 hours

3) 925

37 hours

4) 1137

25 hours

5) None of the above

Q17. The base of a triangle and a

rectangle are same and equal. The

dimensions of rectangle are 10 cm and

12 cm. If the longer side of the rectangle

is the base and the area of both figures is

equal, find the distance between the side

of rectangle opposite to the base

(parallel to base of rectangle) and the

vertex of triangle not lying on base.

1) 20 cm

2) 30 cm

3) 10 cm

4) 15 cm

5) 5 cm

Q18. A travels a distance of 300 km

with a speed of 72 kmph in time t. To

travel a distance of 560 km taking



double amount of time, what should

be the speed?

1) 67.2 kmph

2) 116.6 kmph

3) 120 kmph

4) 56 kmph


Q19. There are five wooden sticks A, B,

C, D and E in a bunch. The weight of D

stick is 400 gm and is 20% less than E

stick. The weight of A stick is 150 gm

and weight of B stick is 10% more than

weight of the C stick. The weight of B

stick is 25% more than A stick. Find the

average weight of all five sticks bunch.

1) 253.89 gm

2) 225.63 gm

3) 281.59 gm

4) 352.36 gm

5) 348.95 gm

Q20. In 2015, Testbook had n questions

in its question bank. It increased by 25%

in 2016 and further 60% in 2017. In

2018, the number of questions declined

to 60%. If, in 2015, the percentage of

hard questions was 30% of the total

questions and that of, in 2018, it is 40%,

then what is the percentage change in

the hard questions in this duration?

1) 60% Increase

2) 50% Increase

3) 60% Decrease

4) 50% Decrease


Q21. Directions: In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give an answer.

I. 2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0

II. 2y2 – 13y + 20 = 0

1) If x < y

2) If x ≤ y

3) If x > y

4) If x ≥ y

5) If x = y or relationship between x

and y cannot be established


I. x = (2744)1/3

II. y2 – 28y + 160 = 0

1) If x > y

2) If x ≥ y

3) If x < y

4) If x ≤ y

5) If x = y or relationship between x and

y cannot be established




I. 2x2 + 5x - 25 = 0

II. 3y2 – 14y + 8 = 0

1) If x > y

2) If x ≥ y

3) If x < y

4) If x ≤ y



Q24. In the following question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give an answer:

I. x² + 12x + 36 = 0

II. y² + 7y - 30 = 0

1) If x > y

2) If x < y

3) If x ≥ y

4) If x ≤ y




I. x² - 3x - 88 = 0

II. y² + 8y - 48 = 0

1) If x > y

2) If x < y

3) If x ≥ y

4) If x ≤ y

5) If x = y, or no relation can be

established between x and y.

Comprehension Start

Directions 26 to 30∶ The given bar graph represents the market capitalization of top 5 private banks. Refer to the chart given below and answer the given questions.

Q26. If market capitalisation of ICICI Bank is interchanged with the market capitalisation of Kotak Bank and the market capitalisation of HDFC Bank is interchanged with the market capitalisation of Yes Bank, then what is the difference (in trillion) between market capitalisation of Yes Bank and ICICI Bank?

1) 1.2



2) 1.1

3) 1.5

4) 2

5) 1.4

Q27. What is the percentage of market capitalisation of Axis Bank as compared to total market capitalisation?

1) 19%

2) 19.9%

3) 20.09%

4) 21%

5) 22%

Q28. If DCB bank is also added having market capitalisation of 4.5 trillion, calculate the average market capitalisation.

1) 2.234

2) 3.124

3) 4.316

4) 5.7

5) 4.77

Q29. Kotak Bank went into liquidation. Its shares are taken by HDFC and ICICI Bank in a ratio of 2 ∶ 3. What will be the market capitalisation of these two banks after it?

1) 6.56 and 7.14

2) 5 and 6

3) 5.12 and 6.34

4) 7.12 and 6.36

5) 7 and 8

Q30. If the market capitalisation of Yes

Bank is increased to 4.9 trillion and the

market capitalisation of HDFC, ICICI,

and Kotak Bank does not change. What

should be the increment in market

capitalisation of Axis Bank to make the

average of all Banks 5 trillion?

1) 2 trillion

2) 2.4 trillion

3) 2.5 trillion

4) 2.1 trillion

5) 3 trillion

Comprehension End

Q31. Find the wrong term in the series.

3, 5, 8, 15, 16, 16

1) 3

2) 5

3) 16 at 5th position

4) 15

5) 16 at 6th position


1, 10, 18, 82, 107, 323

1) 10

2) 18



3) 82

4) 107

5) 323


30, 56, 90, 132, 185, 240

1) 30

2) 56

3) 90

4) 132

5) 185


6, 3, 11, 1, 18, -1

1) 6

2) 3

3) 11

4) 1

5) -1


41, 67, 237, 434, 552.

1) 41

2) 67

3) 237

4) 434

5) 552

Reasoning

Q36. How many pairs of letters are there in

the word “PSYCHOLOGY” that has as many

letters between them in the word as in the

English alphabetical series?

1) Four

2) Three

3) Two

4) One

5) None of these

Q37. How many meaningful words can be

formed with the first, fourth, seventh and

eleventh letters of the word SUPERFLUOUS without repeating any of those four letters

within that word?

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) More than three

5) None

Comprehension Start

Directions 38 to : Read the following information and choose the right alternative in the questions that follow.

A is the mother of B. H like F, has only two

children B and C. B is the sister of C. E is the brother of D. D is the son of C. G is the

granddaughter of A but C is not her father. F is

the mother of E.



Q38. How E related to A?

1) Son-in-law

2) Daughter-in-law

3) Father-in-law

4) Grandson

5) Cannot be determined

Q39. Who is the mother of D?

1) C

2) B

3) F

4) Either B or F

5) Either C or F

Comprehension End

Comprehension Start

Directions 40 to 42: The following questions are based on the five five-digit numbers given below.

23459 56781 32416 16987 97654

Q40. If one is subtracted from the second

and third digit of each number and then the digits are arranged in ascending order, then

which one will be the second largest number?

1) 23459

2) 56781

3) 32416

4) 16987

5) 97654

Q41. If the first and the fifth digits, the

second and the fourth digits of each number

are interchanged with each other, then how

many numbers will be divisible by 5?

1) Zero

2) Two

3) One

4) Five

5) Three

Q42. If all the digits of the numbers are added and then subtracted from fifty, how many of them will be divisible by three?

1) One

2) Two

3) Zero

4) Five

5) Three

Comprehension End

Q43. Directions: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.



On which day of the same week is Ramesh’s exam scheduled (Monday being the first day of the week)?

I. Ramesh correctly remembers that his exam is scheduled on a day after Tuesday, but before Thursday of the same week.

II. Ramesh’s friend correctly remembers that Ramesh’s exam is scheduled on the third day of the week.

1) Data in statement I alone are sufficient to

answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer

the question.

2) Data in statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer

the question.

3) Data in either statement I alone or

statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4) Data in both the statements I and II

together are not sufficient to answer the

question.

5) Data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.

Q44. Directions: The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give the answer.

Is ‘EAST’ the word formed after performing the following operations on a word containing these four letters?

I. There is only one letter between A and T. E is to the left of A.

II. The word does not begin with T. There is

only one letter between E and S. T is not an immediate neighbor of E.

1) Data in statement I alone are

sufficient to answer the question, while

the data in statement II alone are not

sufficient to answer the question.

2) Data in statement II alone are

sufficient to answer the question, while

the data in statement I alone are not

sufficient to answer the question.

3) Data in either statement I alone or in

statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.

4) Data in neither statement I alone or

in statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.

5) Data in both the statements I and II

together are necessary to answer the

question.

Q45. Directions: The question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.

How many children are there in a class?

I. Saurabh is fifth from the top if arranged in descending order of marks.

II. Sulabha, who is ten ranks below Saurabh, is 25th from the bottom.

III. Jatin is four ranks above Sulabha.

1) Only I and III

2) Only II and III

3) Only I and II

4) Any two of the three



5) None of these

Comprehension Start

Direction 46 to 48: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language ‘lo by er’ means ‘moon shine brightly’, ‘po puke er ron’ means ‘light come from moon’, ‘pol by lus ria’ means ‘house are brightly lit’, and 'us lus bp po lq’ means ‘lit lamp bring illusion light’.

Q46. Which of the following means ‘house’ in that code language?

1) pol

2) lo

3) ria

4) er

5) Either (1) or (3)

Q47. Code ‘po’ is for which word in the given

language?

1) moon

2) light

3) shine

4) from

5) Either (1) or (2)

Q48. What would be the code for ‘light lit

moon brightly’?

1) po by er ria

2) po er by lq

3) po lus er by

4) po us bp lq

5) po lus lq ron

Comprehension End

Comprehension Start

Direction 49 to 53: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:

There are eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W. They are sitting around a circular table, but not necessarily in the same order, four of them are facing inside and the other four are facing outside. Each of them is having a different drink that is Maaza, Tea, Lassi, Thums Up, Red Bull, Slice, Fanta, and Sprite but not necessarily in the same order.

R sits third to the left of the one who is drinking Slice. The one who is having Slice faces outward. Only two friends sit between R and Q. Q faces outward and likes Thums Up. Only one person is sitting between Q and U who likes Slice. The one who is drinking Red Bull sits to the immediate right of Q. The one who is having Lassi sits second to the right of W, who is not an immediate neighbour of Q and R. The one who is having Sprite is an immediate neighbour of U. U is an immediate neighbour of both V and the one who is having Fanta. W is not drinking Sprite. The one who is having Fanta is an immediate neighbour of S. S is consuming Tea. Only one friend sits between T and one who is having Lassi. Q sits to the immediate left of the one who is drinking Sprite. T and R are facing the opposite direction of U. P and S are facing the same direction as Q.

Q49. Who is having Lassi?

1) P

2) Q



3) R

4) S

5) T

Q50. Who is sitting opposite to U?

1) P

2) Q

3) S

4) V

5) W

Q51. Find the odd one out.

1) V

2) R

3) T

4) S

5) W

Q52. Who is sitting diagonally opposite to

W?

1) V

2) The one who likes Lassi

3) Q

4) U

5) The one who is having Red Bull

Q53. Who among the following likes Maaza?

1) R

2) P

3) T

4) U

5) V

Comprehension End

Q54. Directions: In the question below three statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some bag are blue.

No blue is box.

No box is square.

Conclusions:

I. Some blue are square.

II. No square is bag.

III. Some bag are box.

IV. Some box are blue.

1) Only I follows

2) Only II follows

3) Only III follows

4) Only IV follows

5) None follows



Q55. Directions: In the question below three statements are given below followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some basket are round.

All round are circle.

No circle is oval.

Conclusions:

I. No basket is oval.

II. No oval is round.

III. Some basket are circle.

IV. No circle is basket.

1) Only I follows

2) Only II follows

3) Only I and II follow

4) Only II and III follow

5) Only III and IV follow

Comprehension Start

Directions 56 to 58: Study the following information to answer the given question.

Amit goes to a new city. He follows Google maps to explore the places of the new city. He wants to visit an amusement park with his friend who lives in the same city. First of all, Amit wants to go to his friend's house and from there they will be going to the amusement park.

In order to go to his friend’s house, Amit faces west and moves 60° towards the North-East

and travels 4 km, then he moves 10 km to the South and turns 90° to his right and covers 20 km from the bus and finally, he reaches his friend’s place. After meeting his friend, they both travel 15 km to the North and turn 90° to their right and travel for the next 5 km to reach an amusement park.

Q56. In which direction is his friend is

located with respect to Amit’s starting location?

1) South

2) South-East

3) South-West

4) North-East

5) North-West

Q57. What is the total distance traveled by

Amit in order to reach the amusement park

from his starting point?

1) 74 Km

2) 44 Km

3) 54 Km

4) 64 Km

5) None of these

Q58. How many turns did Amit take to

reach amusement park?

1) 4

2) 5

3) 6

4) 3



5) 7

Comprehension End

Q59. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P ≤ T, T ≥ L, J > L, U < P

Conclusions:

I. U < T

II. P > L

III. J < U

1) All the conclusions are true

2) Both Conclusions I and II are true

3) Only conclusion I is true

4) Both conclusions II and III are true

5) None of the conclusions is true

Q60. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely True and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: P ≤ Q > W = K; K < X; X = P > L; N < L

Conclusions:

I. Q = P

II. Q > P

1) None is true

2) Both I and II are true

3) Only II is true

4) Only I is true

5) Either I or II is true

Comprehension Start

Directions 61 to 65: Study the given information and answer the following questions.

There are seven different Players named as Virat, Rohit, Yuvraj, Dhoni, Kedar, Raina and Rahul playing against different opposition - Australia, Pakistan, England, Bangladesh, South Africa, New Zealand and Ireland (not necessarily in the same order). Different players wearing different numbers of Jersey as well – 19, 10, 25, 24, 20, 15 and 22.

Jersey number of Dhoni is less than Raina and the jersey number of the player playing against New Zealand is more than the player playing against Bangladesh. 15 number Jersey is worn by Virat against Pakistan. Rahul is playing against Ireland. Rohit is playing against Australia. Jersey number 22 is worn by Yuvraj. The player playing against England is wearing jersey number 10. Kedar is wearing jersey number 25 against South Africa. Jersey number 20 is not worn by the player who is playing against either Bangladesh or Ireland. Jersey number of player who is playing against New Zealand is less than the player playing against Ireland and player playing against Australia is less than the player playing against New Zealand. Neither Virat nor Dhoni is playing against New Zealand.

Q61. What is number of jersey worn by Rohit?

1) 24

2) 25

3) 20

4) 19

5) 15



Q62. Which pair is incorrect among all?

1) Bangladesh – 22 Jersey

2) Ireland – 24 Jersey

3) England – 10 Jersey

4) South Africa – 25 Jersey

5) Pakistan – 15 Jersey

Q63. Who is playing against New Zealand?

1) Raina

2) Yuvraj

3) Dhoni

4) Either Raina or Yuvraj

5) None

Q64. Which opposition is Dhoni playing

against?

1) South Africa

2) England

3) Australia

4) Pakistan

5) Ireland

Q65. How many players' jersey number is

more than the player playing against New Zealand?

1) One

2) Two

3) Three

4) Four

5) Five

Comprehension End

Comprehension Start

Directions 66 to 68: Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

There are six students Ankita, Rudra, Drona, Raksha, Sadhna and Om of Shiksha University. Each of them got different marks. Ankita got a higher CPI (Cumulative Performance Index) than Om. Raksha got a higher CPI than only four of them. Rudra got a lesser CPI than Sadhna. Drona got the lowest CPI. Om is the third ranker of that University and got a 8.67 CPI.

Note: CPI (Cumulative Performance Index) is measured out of 10.

Q66. Who got the highest rank in the

university?

1) Rudra

2) Om

3) Ankita

4) Can’t be determined

5) Sadhna

Q67. Which of the following might be the

possible CPI of Rudra?

1) 8.77

2) 9.0

3) 8.7

4) 8.6

5) 8.8



Q68. Which of the following statements is

correct?

1) Raksha got higher CPI than Ankita.

2) Rudra got a 8.71 CPI.

3) If Rudra got 8.80 CPI then Raksha’s

CPI may be in between 8.67 to 8.71

4) Om got higher CPI than Rudra.

5) 8.61 may be the highest CPI among

them.

Comprehension End

Q69. Directions: One statement is given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can be definitely drawn from the given statement.

Statement: Cheetahs are the fastest animal on earth whereas humans can run longer distances than cheetahs.

Conclusions:

I. Cheetahs can outrun humans if they chase us.

II. Escaping from cheetahs is impossible to do so.

1) Only conclusion I is true.

2) Only conclusion II is true.

3) Either I or II is true.

4) Neither I nor II is true.

5) Both I and II are true.

Q70. Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: Sea levels are rising all around the world due to the increase in global warming.

Assumptions:

I. Most major cities located in the coastal

areas can be flooded. II. All low lying areas on the earth’s surface

can get inundated.

1) Only assumption I is implicit.

2) Only assumption II is implicit.

3) Either assumption I or II is implicit.

4) Neither assumption I nor II is

implicit.

5) Both the assumptions I and II are

implicit.

English

Q71. Given below is a sentence with three blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used to fill in the given blanks.

Bengaluru-based digital payments firm Obopay has _________ Infosys Co-founder Nandan Nilekani-backed app Mubble for an _________ sum, the company statement reported. As part of the _________, the Co-founder and CEO of Mubble, Ashwin Ramaswamy, will join Obopay, the statement added.

A) Acquisition

B) Acquired



C) Indisclosed

D) Undisclosed

E) Inquisition

F) Disclosed

1) B, D and A

2) E, F and C

3) A, B and E

4) E, C and D

5) C, B and A


In the third _________ this month in West Bengal, an under-construction bridge on Monday collapsed in South 24 Parganas district, however, no _________ were reported. Earlier on September 4, at least three people died and 24 were injured when a bridge _________ in Majerhat.

A) Collapsed

B) Casualties

C) Incident

D) Loitered

E) Collapse

F) Causal

1) B, D and Ac

2) E, F and C

3) A, B and E

4) E, C and D

5) C, B and A


The mother of AG Perarivalan, one of the _________ in Rajiv Gandhi assassination case, met Tamil Nadu Governor Banwarilal Purohit seeking her son's release following a cabinet _________ to him on the matter. Along with her petition, she presented Judge KT Thomas' reported _________ of ‘serious flaws’ in CBI investigation and details about her son's behaviour during his earlier parole.

A) Convicts

B) Recommendation

C) Rampant

D) Implicit

E) Remarks

F) Repercussions

1) B, D and A

2) E, F and C

3) A, B and E

4) E, C and D

5) C, B and A


Libya has asked the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to _________ as 115 people have been killed and 383 others left injured in month-long clashes between _________ factions in the capital Tripoli. The Seventh Brigade launched an assault following reports on the wealth and _________ lifestyles of the militant commanders of Tripoli's two largest armed groups.



A) Marvel

B) Gospel

C) Rival

D) Lavish

E) Intervene

F) Companion

1) B, D and A

2) E, F and C

3) A, B and E

4) E, C and D

5) C, B and A


Rejecting Iran's _________ of its involvement in the parade attack, US _________ to the UN Nikki Haley told Iranian President Hassan Rouhani to "look in the mirror" to find the causes behind the _________.

A) Accusations

B) Ambassador

C) Stipulations

D) Draught

E) Attack

F) Mismatch

1) B, D and Ac

2) E, F and C

3) A, B and E

4) E, C and D

5) C, B and A

Comprehension Start

In the passage given below there are 7 blanks, each followed by a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective blank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is your answer. i.e. No Change Required.

I tend, as a reader, to prize and admire clarity, precision, plainness, __(A)__ [solidarity], and the sort of magical compression that enriches instead of __(B)__ [instigates]. Someone's ability to write this way, especially in nonfiction, fills me with envy, and awe. That might help explain why a fair number of Best American Essay pieces tend to be short, __(C)__ [verse], and informal in usage/syntax. Readers who enjoy noodling about genre might welcome the news that several of this year's Best Essays are arguably more like __(D)__ [veneries] or propos than like essays per se, although one could counter argue that these pieces tend, in their essential pithiness, to be closer to what's __(E)__ [relatively] been meant by 'essay.' Personally, I find taxonomic arguments like this dull and irrelevant. What does seem __(F)__ [revenant] is to assure you that none of the shorter essays in the collection were included merely because they were short. Limpidity, compactness, and an absence of verbal methane were simply part of what made these pieces valuable; and I think I tried, as the Decider, to use overall value as the prime __(G)__ [triage] - and filtering mechanism in selecting this year's top essays. The idea is not to be repetitive, but conveying your arguments persuasively. You may not consciously realize it when you’re reading, but sophisticated sentence structures make the __(H)__ [ocean] of difference to how intelligent you sound. The most important consideration when you’re writing is making yourself easy for readers to __(I)__ [diligent]; but you can still do this



and utilize a range of interesting syntax at the same time. Employ a variety of sentence structures, long and short, but don’t let your sentences become too long and __(J)__ [trembling], or they become difficult to read.

Q76. Which of the following words most

appropriately fits the blank labelled (J)?

1) Rustling

2) Rambling

3) Hustling

4) Hassling

5) No Change Required


appropriately fits the blank labelled (I)?

1) Sap

2) Stultify

3) Understand

4) Stupefy



appropriately fits the blank labelled (H)?

1) Earth

2) Universe

3) Sea

4) World



appropriately fits the blank labelled (G)?

1) Triad

2) Trident

3) Enrage

4) Pilferage



appropriately fits the blank labelled (F)?

1) Prevalent

2) Relevant

3) Inherent

4) Covenant


Q81. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (E)?

1) Historically

2) Recently

3) Periodically

4) Meaningfully



appropriately fits the blank labelled (D)?



1) Endorses

2) Sanctuaries

3) Causeries

4) Repositories



appropriately fits the blank labelled (C)?

1) Trans

2) Mars

3) Farce

4) Terse



appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?

1) Illustrates

2) Appreciates

3) Vitiates

4) Dubious



appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?

1) Rigidity

2) Lucidity

3) Priority

4) Cupidity


Comprehension End

Q86. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it or not.

The error, if any, will be in one part of

the sentence. The number of that part (which has the error) is the answer. If

there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.

After the competition, (A)/ some of the (B)/ participants felt (C)/ completely done out. (D)/ No error (E)

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

Q87. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it or not. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part (which has the error) is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.

The Second Anglo-Maratha War has (A)/ shattered the power of (B)/ the Maratha chiefs but (C)/ not their spirit. (D)/ No error (E)

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E



Q88. Below are some alternatives which may be used to improve the sentence by replacing the word in bold. You may choose option 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case 'No Improvement' is needed, choose 5.

69% of girls aging between 10 to 18 confirm that photographs of models and celebrities in magazines flummoxed their idea of the perfect body shape.

1) Affected

2) Inspired

3) Effect

4) Coerced

5) No improvement.

Q89. In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

BJP does not consider (A)/govt's fiscal deficit (B)/target as sacrosanct (C)/, says party spokesperson.(D)

1) A

2) C

3) B

4) D

5) No error

Q90. In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the 'No error' option.

Humans craved companionship and (A) that’s what a relationship is all about (B) – having someone to share your worries, (C) sorrows, dreams, joys, and anguishes. (D)

1) C

2) B

3) D

4) A

5) No error.

Comprehension Start

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:

In the last few weeks, Karnataka Chief Minister Siddarmaiah and DMK working president M. K. Stalin have both criticised the use of the 2011 population census by the 15th Finance Commission as a basis for the devolution of taxes from the Central government to the States. Both expressed concern that this move would result in lower resource allocation to the southern States.

But why does the year of the census become a deciding factor? And are the southern States particularly affected? To understand this issue, we will need to dive into the Constitution, India’s family planning programmes and the issue of delimitation.

The Finance Commission, set up in 1951 under Article 280 of the Constitution, basically decides how revenue has to be distributed between the Centre and the States. In addition, the Commission also decides the



https://www.thehindu.com/tag/1353-1349/constitution/?utm=bodytag

principles on which grants-in-aid will be given to the States.

The constitution of each Finance Commission is announced by a gazette notification. The notification comprises terms that list out the Commission’s work and considerations, called the Terms of Reference. In the notification issued on November 27, the ToR recommended, “the Commission shall use the population data of 2011 while making its recommendation".

According to the Constitution, there are four areas in which population is used as a factor - Manner of Election of President (Article 55), Composition of the House of the People (Article 81), Composition of the Legislative Assemblies (Article 170) and Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States (Article 330). Articles 55 and 170 are especially important as they deal with the delimitation of constituencies for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The population figure is also used for the devolution of taxes.

Before the 42nd Constitutional Amendment of 1976, the calculations behind the number of Lok Sabha seats was based on “population as ascertained at the last preceding Census of which the relevant figures have been published.”

But the 1971 Census figures showed a dramatic increase in population, after which the concept of family planning was introduced at the policy level, according to research. This meant that the states which complied with the policy would lose out on all the areas where the population was taken into account. Hence, the 42nd Amendment picked the 1971 census as the base for all calculations and froze it till the 2001 Census. The 84th Amendment further extended that to the first census after 2026, which will be the census of 2031.

According to the Constitution, aside from what is written down, the Union government can “refer any other matter to the Finance Commission in the interest of sound finance”, R. Srinivasan, a former member of the Tamil

Nadu State Planning Commission, writes in The Hindu. “Using this provision in the Constitution, the Union government has been including in the terms of reference to successive Finance Commissions, provisions that reflect the Union government’s view of the States’ fiscal situation”. The decision to adopt the 1971 Census first appeared in ToR of the Seventh FInance Commission, in 1976.

The usage of the 2011 census is being opposed for the same reason the usage of 1971 Census was made mandatory - to make sure States that have worked on population control do not lose out on benefits. While states like Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bihar have more than doubled their numbers in the intervening years, southern states like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala have relatively slower growths. The exception to this is Andhra Pradesh — the state went from around four-and-a-half crore people to more than eight-and-a-half crores.

Uttar Pradesh’s population grew at a steady rate of just above 25% in the decades succeeding the 1971 census, whereas the growth rate of Kerala dropped from 19.24% in 70s to 14.32% and 9.43% in the next two decades. UP’s growth rate for the 2000s is 20.09%. Kerala’s is just 4.86%. “The concerns expressed by the States in 1976 which necessitated the freezing of seat allocation on the basis of 1971 population figures would appear to hold good even today and have to be addressed to the satisfaction of all stakeholders,” T.K. Viswanathan, former Law Secretary and former Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, writes in The Hindu.

That argument will hold water in the matter of tax distribution as well.

Q91. Why has the use of the 2011 population

census been criticised?

1) It would be unconstitutional

2) The census has been largely wrong



https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/Unilateralism-and-the-Finance-Commissions/article15196422.ece

3) The Finance commission does not

hold executive functions

4) It would mean lower tax inflow for

the southern states


Q92. Which of the following functions fall

within the purview of the Finance

commission?

1) Control the legislative in case of a

financial emergency

2) Determine tax laws and follow them

accordingly

3) Distribution of revenue between the

Centre and the States

4) Creating diverse policies for financial

inclusion on socialist norms

5) Create ceilings for income tax returns

without prior intimation from the

Parliament

Q93. What is essential for forming a Finance

commission ?

1) Reservation of the backward class

2) Rajya Sabha MPs

3) Adequate gender representation

4) Gazette notification

5) Reference points

Q94. Which of the following best describes

the function of the Terms of Reference?

1) A list of the reference work the

commission needs to follow

2) The broader outlines which regulate

the jurisdiction

3) A list of the considerations that the

commission should abide by

4) A probationary order restricting the

functions of the commission


Q95. In which of the four articles is

population used as a factor?

1) Article 55, Article 81, Article 170 and

Article 303

2) Article 55, Article 81, Article, 719 and

Article 330


Article 330


Article 330


Article 330

Q96. After which census was family planning

policy introduced?

1) 1966

2) 1971

3) 2011

4) 2026

5) 2031



Q97. Which is the only southern state which

does not adhere to the general trend noticed

among other southern states?

1) Uttar Pradesh

2) Tamil Nadu

3) Bihar

4) Andhra Pradesh

5) Kerala

Q98. Which of the words is similar in

meaning to 'devolution' as used in the

passage?

1) Decentralization

2) Disposition

3) Destruction

4) Delineation

5) Docile

Q99. Which of the following phrases is

opposite in meaning to the word 'froze' as

used in the passage?

1) Cooling

2) Change

3) Peg

4) Cap

5) Heating

Q100. Which of the following words can be

used in the phrase instead of the highlighted word "basically decides how revenue has to

be distributed between" ?

1) Toll

2) Duty

3) Income

4) Surcharge

5) Levy



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