IBPS PO's PRELIMS MODEL PAPER - eenadupratibha.net · sports is in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively....

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www.eenadupratibha.net www.eenadupratibha.net IBPS POs MODEL PAPER TEST - I: REASONING 1. In a class of 60 students number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls from the class not participating in the sports is 5 more than the boys from the class who are not par- ticipating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the sports is 15, how many girls are there in the class? (1) Data inadequate (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 30 (5) None of these Directions (2 - 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given below: (i) P, Q, R, S and T finished the work, working from Monday to Saturday, one of the days being holiday, each working overtime only on one of the days. (ii) R and T did not work overtime on the first day. (iii) Q worked overtime the next day after the holiday. (iv) The overtime work done on the previous day of the holiday was by R. (v) There was a two days gap between the days on which P and Q worked overtime. (vi) P worked overtime the next day of the overtime day of S. 2. When did T work overtime? (1) On the day previous to that on which S worked overtime (2) On the next day of the day on which Q worked overtime (3) Two days after the day on which S worked overtime (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 3. How many days gap was there between the days on which P & T worked overtime? (1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these www.eenadupratibha.net www.eenadupratibha.net

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IBPS POs MODEL PAPERTEST - I: REASONING

1. In a class of 60 students number of boys and girls participating in the annual

sports is in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls from the class not

participating in the sports is 5 more than the boys from the class who are not par-

ticipating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the sports is 15,

how many girls are there in the class?

(1) Data inadequate (2) 20 (3) 25

(4) 30 (5) None of these

Directions (2 - 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given

below:

(i) P, Q, R, S and T finished the work, working from Monday to Saturday, one

of the days being holiday, each working overtime only on one of the days.

(ii) R and T did not work overtime on the first day.

(iii) Q worked overtime the next day after the holiday.

(iv) The overtime work done on the previous day of the holiday was by R.

(v) There was a two days gap between the days on which P and Q worked

overtime.

(vi) P worked overtime the next day of the overtime day of S.

2. When did T work overtime?

(1) On the day previous to that on which S worked overtime

(2) On the next day of the day on which Q worked overtime

(3) Two days after the day on which S worked overtime

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

3. How many days gap was there between the days on which P & T worked

overtime?

(1) Three (2) Two (3) One

(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

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4. On what day did R work overtime?

(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Thursday

(4) Friday (5) None of these

5. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(1) P worked overtime, last among them

(2) P worked overtime earlier than S

(3) The holiday was on Friday

(4) S worked overtime earlier than Q

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code 'acquisition or construction should be completed within

three years' is written as 'three be or within should years construction com-

pleted acquisition'. How will 'interest paid on loan will be allowed for

deduction' be written in that code?

(1) for will paid allowed loan on deduction be interest

(2) for will allowed paid loan deduction on be interest

(3) for will paid allowed loan deduction on be interest

(4) for will paid allowed loan deduction be on interest

(5) None of these

7. Which of the following will be the changed form of the word OBLIQUE when

word is written again by substituting each vowel by the 2nd letter following it in

the English alphabet and each consonant is substituted by the 3rd letter

following it in the English alphabet?

(1) MEDGTSD (2) RDNLSXH (3) QEOKTXG

(4) QEOKTWG (5) None of these

8. If a meaningful word can be formed using the five letters NWROD, each only

once, then the fourth letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such

word can be formed then Y is your answer and if no such word can be formed

then 'Z' your answer.

(1) D (2) W (3) R

(4) Y (5) Z

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9. Pointing towards a girl in the picture Sunita said, "She is the mother of Renu

whose father is my son". How Sunita is related to that girl in the picture.

(1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Cousin

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

10. P's father is Q's son. M is the paternal Uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. How

is N related to M?

(1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Cousin

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

Directions (11 - 15): Read the following information and answer the questions

given below :

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F & G are sitting along a circle facing at the centre and are

playing cards.

(ii) E is neighbour of A & D

(iii) G is not between F and C.

(iv) F is to the immediate right of A

11. Who are the neighbours of B?

(1) C and D (2) F and C (3) A and F

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

12. Which pair given below has the second person sitting immediately to the rightof the first?

(1) CB (2) DG (3) EA

(4) AB (5) None of these

13. Which of the following has the persons sitting adjacent to each other from leftto right in order as given?

(1) CDG (2) EDG (3) BGC

(4) FBC (5) None of these

14. What is the position of F?

(1) To the immediate left of A

(2) To the immediate right of B

(3) 2nd to the right of C

(4) 3rd to the left of D

(5) None of these

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15. Which of the following does not have the pair sitting adjacent to each other?

(1) BA (2) CB (3) DE

(4) GD (5) All are sitting adjacent to each other

Directions (16 - 20): To answer these questions study the following arrangement:

J Y 2 = S £ δδ E G M * 7 $ H P 9 K L ββ @ W Q 1 3 # C D ©

16. How many such letters are there each of which is either immediately followedby a number or immediately preceded by a letter, but not

(1) Nil (2) 1 (3) 2

(4) 3 (5) None of these

17. How many such letters are there each of which is either immediately followedby a number or immediately preceded by a symbol, but not both?

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6

(4) 7 (5) None of these

18. How many such numbers are there each of which is either immediately followedby a symbol or immediately preceded by a letter, but not both?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3

(4) 5 (5) None of these

19. '2 Y S' is to 'E G £' in the same way as 'PHK' is to-

(1) @ W L (2) W Q β (3) @ β Q

(4) @ W K (5) None of these

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the positions of theelements in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does notbelong to the group?

(1) 2 Y C D (2) £ S 13 (3) J S © 3

(4) £ E 1 W (5) = # 2 C

Directions (21 - 25): Below in each questions are given two statements (A) and (B).These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effectof the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the followinganswer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Mark answer (1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.Mark answer (2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.

Mark answer (3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

Mark answer (4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independentcauses.

Mark answer (5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some commoncause.

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21. (A) Huge tidal waves wrecked the vast coastline early in the morning killingthousands of people.

(B) Large number of people gathered along the coastline to enjoy the spectacular view of sunrise.

22. (A) The Govt. has suspended several police officers in the city.

(B) Five persons carrying huge quantity of illicit liquor were apprehended bypolice.

23. (A) The traffic police removed the signal post at the intersection of two roads ina quiet locality.

(B) There have been many accidents at the intersection involving vehicles moving at high speed.

24. (A) The local steel company has taken over the task of development and maintenance of the civic roads in the town.

(B) The local civic body requested the corporate bodies to help them maintainthe civic facilities.

25. (A) Majority of the students in the college expressed their opinion against thecollege authority's decision to break from the university and becomeautonomous.

(B) The university authority has expressed its inability to provide grants to itsconstituent colleges.

Directions (26 - 30): In each questions below is given a statement followed by twoassumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken forgranted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions anddecide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer (1) if only Assumption I is implicit.

Give answer (2) if only Assumption II is implicit.

Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit.

Give answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.

26. Statement: The General Administration Department has issued a circular to allthe employees informing them that henceforth employees can avail their lunchbreak at any of the half-hour slot between 1.00 p.m. to 2.30 p.m.

Assumptions: I. The employees may well come the decision and avail lunchbreak at different time slots.

II. There may not be any break in the work of the organization as theemployees will have their lunch break at different time slots.

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27. Statement: The Government has decided against reduction of prices of petro-leum products though there is a significant drop in the crude oilprices in the international market.

Assumptions: I. The prices of crude oil in the international market may againincrease in the near future.

II. The present price difference of petroleum products will helpthe government to withstand any possible price rise in future.

28. Statement: The Govt. has made an appeal to all the citizens to honestly payincome tax and file returns reflecting the true income level to helpthe Government to carry out developmental activities.

Assumptions: I. People may now start paying more taxes in response to theappeal.

II. The total income tax collection may considerably increase inthe near future.

29. Statement: The state Government has decided to appoint four thousand pri-mary school teachers during the next financial year.

Assumptions: I. There are enough schools in the state to accommodate fourthousand additional primary school teachers.

II. The eligible candidates may not be interested to apply as theGovernment may not finally appoint such a large number ofprimary school teachers.

30. Statement: The school authority has decided to increase the number of studentsin each classroom to seventy from the next academic session tobridge the gap between income and expenditure to a larger extent.

Assumptions: I. The income generated by way of fees of the additional stu-dents will be sufficient enough to bridge the gap.

II. The school will get all the additional students in each classfrom the next academic session.

Directions (31 - 35): In making decisions about important question, it is desirableto be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguement. 'Strong'arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question.'Weak' arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not bedirectly related to the question or may be related to a trival aspect of the questions.Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have todecide which of the arguments is a 'strong' arguments and which is a 'weak argu-ment'

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Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong.

Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.

Give answer (3) if either I or II is strong.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong.

Give answer (5) if both I and II are strong.

31. Should the parents in India in future be forced to opt for only child as against

two or many at present?

Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to check the ever-increasing population

of India.

II. No, this type of pressure tactic is not adopted by any other coun-

try in the world.

32. Should the sex determination test during pregnancy be completed banned?

Arguments: I. Yes, this leads to indiscriminate female foeticide and eventually

will lead to social imbalance.

II. No, people have a right to know about their unborn child.

33. Should all the slums in big cities be demolished and the people living in such

slums be relocated outside the city limits?

Arguments: I. No, all these people will lose their home and livelihood and

hence they should not be relocated.

II. Yes, the big cities need more and more spaces to carry out

developmental activities and hence these slums should be

removed.

34. Should there be completed ban of mining coal in India?

Arguments: I. Yes, the present stock of coal will not last long if we continue

mining at the present rate.

II. No, we do not have alternate energy source sufficient quantity.

35. Should there be uniforms for students in the colleges in India as in the schools?

Arguments: I. Yes, this will improve the ambience of the colleges as all the

students will be decently dressed.

II. No, college students should not be regimented and they should

be left to choose their clothes for coming to college.

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Directions (36 - 40): In the following questions, the symbols@, #, %, * and $ are

used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

'P @ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'

'P # Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'

'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'

'P * Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'

'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.'

Now each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,

find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely

true and give your answer accordingly.

36. Statement: M % R, R # T, T * N

Conclusion: I. N * R II. N $ R III. N $ M

(1) All follow

(2) Only either I or II follows

(3) Only either I or II and III follow

(4) Only either I or III and II follow

(5) None of these

37. Statements: J # N, K @ N, T $ K

Conclusions: I. J % T II. T $ N III. N @ J

(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow

(3) Only I and III follow (4) Only II and III follow

(5) All follow

38. Statements: B * D, D @ H, H % F

Conclusions: I. B * F II. B $ F III. D $ F

(1) None follows

(2) Only either I or II follows

(3) Only either I or II and III follow

(4) Only III follows

(5) All follow

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39. Statements: T $ K, K # R, R * M

Conclusions: I. M * K II. M % T III. M $ K

(1) All follow

(2) Only either I or III follows

(3) Only either I or II follows

(4) Only either II or III follows

(5) None of these

40. Statements: V @ M, A $ M, R # V

Conclusions: I. R # A II. V @ A III. R $ M

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows

(4) None follows (5) All follows

Directions (41 - 45): Each of the questions below contains three elements. These three

elements may or may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into

one of the diagrams at (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to indicate groups of

elements in each of the questions fit into which of the diagrams given below. The

number of the diagrams is the answer.

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (e)

41. Cloth, Cotton, Shirt

42. Paper, Stationery, Ink

43. Iron, Lead, Nitrogen

44. Classroom, Blackboard, School

45. Hockey, Football, Cricket

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Directions (46 - 50): Below is given a passage followed by several possible

inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to

examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its

degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer (1) If the inference is 'definitely true', i.e. it properly follows

from the statement of facts given.

Mark answer (2) If the inference is 'probably true' though not though not

'definitely true' in the light of the facts given.

Mark answer (3) If the 'data are in adequate', i.e. from the facts given cannot

say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

Mark answer (4) If the inference is 'probably false', though not 'definitely

false' in the light of the facts given.

Mark answer (5) If the inference is 'definitely false', i.e. it cannot possibly be

drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

Economic liberalization and globalization have put pressures on Indian industry,

particularly on the service sector, to offer quality products and services at low costs

and with high speed. Organizations have to compete with unequal partners from

abroad. It is well recognized that developing countries like India are already behind

other countries technologically, in many areas, although some of them particularly

India, boast of huge scientific and technical man power. In addition to this, if an entre-

preneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his time, money and energy in dealing

with unpredictable services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it can have

a significant dampening effect on business.

46. No other developing country except India claims that they have highly trained

technical man power.

47. Foreign companies are more equipped than domestic companies to provide qual-

ity service in good time.

48. Official formalities are less cumbersome in almost all the countries except India.

49. Indian service industry was more comfortable before economic liberalization.

50. India at present is to some extent on par with developed countries in terms of

technological development.

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TEST - II: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (51 - 55): What approximate value should come in place of the question

mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 724.998 ÷ 24.048 ÷ 14.954 =?

(1) 8 (2) 13 (3) 2 (4) 10 (5) 16

52. (848.999 + 274.052) ÷ 3.0054 =?

(1) 940 (2) 836 (3) 184 (4) 298 (5) 374

53. 3√ 84899 =?

(1) 56 (2) 44 (3) 67 (4) 33 (5) 21

54. 18.5% of 425 + 16.2% of 388 =?

(1) 141 (2) 224 (3) 116 (4) 183 (5) 215

55. 18.345 × 19.068 ×? = 11538.93375

(1) 46 (2) 16.2 (3) 18.4 (4) 25.6 (5) None of these

Directions (56 - 60): Study the following Pie-chart carefully and answer the

questions given below:

Statistics of Survey on the food item's prefernce of the people

conducted on a sample of 30000 people

56. What is the total number of people preferring vegetables and those preferring

sprouts?

(1) 11900 (2) 12300 (3) 12500 (4) 11500 (5) None of these

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13%Sprouts

15%Salad

20%Bread

30%Vegetables

5%Fish

6% M

eat11%Fruits

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57. What is the difference between the total number of people preferring meat to the

total number of people preferring fish?

(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 350 (5) None of these

58. People preferring fruits are approximately what per cent of the people preferringvegetables?

(1) 48 (2) 35 (3) 46 (4) 37 (5) 30

59. Out of the total sample population, how many people have given preference forfish?

(1) 1600 (2) 1800 (3) 1500 (4) 1400 (5) None of these

60. What is the respective ratio of the number of people preferring meat to the number of people preferring salad?

(1) 2 : 5 (2) 3 : 5 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 (5) None of these

Directions (61 - 65): In the following number series only one number is wrong.Find out the wrong number.

61. 529 841 961 1296 1681 1849 2209

(1) 1296 (2) 841 (3) 961 (4) 1681 (5) None of these

62. 13 14 27 45 68 109 177

(1) 27 (2) 109 (3) 45 (4) 68 (5) None of these

63. 14 22 34.5 55.5 87.25 135.875 209.8125

(1) 55.5 (2) 34.5 (3) 135.875 (4) 87.25 (5) None of these

64. 274 301 426 769 1498 2824 5026

(1) 301 (2) 426 (3) 769 (4) 2824 (5) None of these

65. 4 28 160 990 6970 55832 502560

(1) 160 (2) 990 (3) 55832 (4) 6970 (5) None of these

Directions (66 - 70): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the

following questions?

66. 89.4 × 412.8 × 64 9.1 = 16?

(1) 41.8 (2) 16.2 (3) 18.4 (4) 25.6 (5) None of these

8 ÷ ? × 3.567. = 0.7

4 × 5 ÷ 2

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 3 (5) None of these

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16 11 768. 4 × 1 ÷ = ?

17 16 38

3 9 21 8(1) 12 (2) 45 (3) 12 (4) 36 (5) None of these

17 34 34 17

69. (15)2 + (10)2 + (6)2 = (?)2

(1) 130321 (2) 361 (3) 103041 (4) 17 (5) None of these

70. 12% of 840 × 0.25% of 148 =?

(1) 37.296 (2) 101.17 (3) 68.432 (4) 97.046 (5) None of these

71. A shopkeeper sells 200 metres of cloth for Rs. 9000 at profit of Rs. 5 per metre.

What is the cost price of 1 metre of cloth ?

(1) Rs. 45 (2) Rs. 40 (3) Rs. 35 (4) Rs. 30 (5) None of these

72. The area of a circle is 1386 sq. cms. What is th circumference of the circle?

(1) 142 cms. (2) 160 cms. (3) 130 cms. (4) 132 cms. (5) None of these

73. In a college a total number of 27 professors are appointed for all the facultiesviz. Arts, Commerce and Science. If equal number of professors are appointedfor each of the faculties, how many professors are assigned to each faculty?

(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 3 (5) None of these

74. If (11)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 135.

What is the number?

(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) 13 (5) None of these

75. If the cost of 7 kgs. of rice is Rs. 168, what is the cost of 105 kgs. of rice ?

(1) Rs. 2580 (2) Rs. 2530 (3) Rs. 2520 (4) Rs. 2500 (5) None of these

76. Seema and Meena divide a sum of Rs. 2500 in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. If

Rs. 500 are added to each of their shares, what would be the new ratio formed?

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 5 : 4 (4) 4 : 3 (5) None of these

77. Sridhar invests Rs. 3750 in shares, which is 25% of his monthly income. What

is his monthly income?

(1) Rs. 12000 (2) Rs. 15000 (3) Rs. 10000

(4) Rs. 16000 (5) None of these

78. Find the average of the following set of scores. 302, 152, 132, 122, 112

(1) 184 (2) 165 (3) 152 (4) 176 (5) None of these

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79. A bus covers a distance of 172 kms in 4 hours. What is the speed of the bus?

(1) 52 kms./hr. (2) 47 kms./hr. (3) 43 kms./hr.

(4) 38 kms./hr. (5) None of these

80. The total number of students in the school are 4800, out of which 60% are girls.

What is the total number of boys in this school?

(1) 1920 (2) 1934 (3) 1980

(4) 1910 (5) None of these

Directions (81 - 85): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two

statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the

statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the

question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient

to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficientto answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II aloneare sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer.

81. What is Nidhi's age?

I. Nidhi is 3 times younger to Rani.

II. Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the Sum of their ages is 72.

82. What is ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys in theschool?

I. The ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls, last year was4 : 5.

II. There are 3500 students in the school out of which 60% are boys.

83. What is the speed of the bus?

I. The bus covers a distance of 80 kms. in 5 hrs.

II. The bus covers a distance of 160 kms. in 10 hrs.

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84. What is the ratio of the number of freshers to the number of seniors in a college?

I. The ratio of males and females in the college is 2 : 3

II. There are 1125 female freshers in the college.

85. What is Mr. Mehta's present income ?

I. Mr. Mehta's income increases by 10% every year.

II. His income will increase by Rs. 2500 this year.

Directions (86 - 90): Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.

86. For which of the following pair of year the total production of the two

commodities together is equal?

(1) 1997 & 2000 (2) 2002 & 2003 (3) 2001 & 2003

(4) 1998 & 1999 (5) 1998 & 2000

87. What is the respective ratio between total production of commodities X & Y

respectively for all the seven years together?

(1) 26 : 27 (2) 13 : 14 (3) 27 : 26

(4) 14 : 13 (5) None of these

88. During which year the percentage increase/decrease in production of

commodity 'X' from the previous year was the maximum?

(1) 1998 (2) 2000 (3) 2003 (4) 2002 (5) None of these

89. Approximately, what was the average production (in lakh tonnes) of

commodity 'Y'?

(1) 225 (2) 216 (3) 195 (4) 185 (5) 205

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90. What is the ratio between total production of the two commodities together for

years 1997, 1998 & 1999 and the total production of the two commodities

together for years 2001, 2002 & 2003 respectively?

(1) 9 : 13 (2) 13 : 18 (3) 18 : 13

(4) 10 : 13 (5) None of these

91. The owner of a furniture shop charges his customers 12%more than the costprice. If a customer paid Rs. 14056 for a dining table, what is the cost priceof the dining table?

(1) Rs. 14000 (2) Rs. 12500 (3) Rs. 13450

(4) Rs. 11550 (5) None of these

92. The difference between 55%of a number and 25%of the same number is11.10.What is 75%of that number?

(1) 27.75 (2) 37 (3) 21.25 (4) 45 (5) None of these

93. The product of two successive numbers is 1980.Which is the smaller number?

(1) 34 (2) 44 (3) 35 (4) 45 (5) None of these

94. Which of the following smallest number should be added to 41116 to make itexactly divisible by 8?

(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 12 (5) None of these

95. The difference between 34 th of 25 th of a number and 45 th of 14 th of same

number is 5. What is the number?

(1) 25 (2) 40 (3) 45 (4) 50 (5) None of these

Directions (96 - 100): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.

96. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the students in Science?(rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 99 (2) 82.78 (3) 88.72 (4) 78.88 (5) None of these

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Subject MARKS OBTAINED OUT OF

studentHistory Geography Science Maths English HIndi

(75) (75) (120) (150) (80) (60)

P 45 53 100 117 50 45Q 56 58 96 132 46 50T 48 60 112 120 52 42D 62 67 88 108 48 34G 66 55 92 140 60 32F 54 64 108 116 53 40

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97. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in all subjects? (roundedoff to two digits after decimal)

(1) 72.88 (2) 76.28 (3) 73.17 (4) 72.68 (5) None of these

98. What are the average marks obtained by all students in English?

(1) 52.5 (2) 64.38 (3) 56.38 (4) 60.5 (5) None of these

99. What is the ratio between total marks obtained in all subjects by F and G respec-tively?

(1) 87 : 89 (2) 89 : 87 (3) 67 : 69 (4) 69 : 67 (5) None of these

100. Which student has scored in maths closest to the average marks in Maths?

(1) P (2) Q (3) T (4) F (5) None of these

TEST - III: ENGLISH LANGUAGEDirections (101 - 110): Read each sentence to find out if there is any error in it. Theerror, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is theanswer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore errors in punctuation if any).

101. In spite of the extreme cold (1)/ she insisted on (2)/ taking a trip to Shimla

(3)/where is her birth place (4)/. No error (5)

102. The government decision (1)/ will benefit all (2)/ the software companies regis-

tered (3)/under the scheme (4)/. No error (5)

103. The trustee has agreed (1)/ not only to fund the construction (2)/ of the auditori-

um (3)/but also the new research centre (4)/. No error (5)

104. Keeping in mind the rivalry (1)/ between Vinod and Sachin (2)/the manager has

assigned him (3)/ to different teams (4)/. No error (5)

105. In recent times companies have found (1)/ the internet to be ideal place (2)/ to

hire personnel (3)/ and form business partnerships (4)/. No error (5)

106. These rules were created (1)/ to protect the interests of the student (2)/who live

away from home (3)/and have no local guardian (4)/. No error (5)

107. Concerned over (1)/ the loss of revenue (2)/ the Government plan (3)/to review

the policy immediately (4)/. No error (5)

108. Having heard all the evidence (1)/ the Chairman should now(2)/ be able to arrive

(3)/to a fair decision (4)/. No error (5)

109. There are very fewer hotels (1)/ providing facilities for (2)/quests who want to

bring their pets (3)/ along with them (4)/. No error (5)

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110. The report states that (1)/ in several parts of the country (2)/ there has not been

(3)/adequately rain this year (4)/. No error (5)

Directions (111 - 125): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given below each sen-

tence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence gram-

matically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (5) i.e. 'No correction

required' as the answer.

111. The meeting is attempted to mend the strained relations between the manage-ment and the employees.

(1) was attempted for mending (2) is an attempt to mend

(3) is attempted at mending of (4) will be attempted by mending

(5) No correction required

112. He arrived at the hotel, which a reception was held in his honour.

(1) in which a reception is (2) while a reception being

(3) where a reception was (4) since a reception going on

(5) No correction required

113. Since his college days he has been standing up with the rights of the weak andthe oppressed.

(1) stood up along with (2) standing in for

(3) for standing beside (4) standing up for

(5) No Correction required

114. Unless a man with plenty of money can afford a house in this locality.

(1) Until a man has (2) When a man possesses

(3) Except a man of (4) Only a man with

(5) No correction required

115. They lost the vote because they could not express clearly.

(1) express themselves clearly (2) express each other clearly

(3) clearly express (4) be clearly expressed

(5) No correction required

116. Ramesh must be punished for acting in opposite to my wishes.

(1) opposing to (2) in opposite with

(3) opposite against (4) in opposition to

(5) No correction required

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117. India is a diverse and breath taking country with many places worthwhile to

see.

(1) worth sight (2) worth seeing

(3) worthwhile scene (4) worthy seeing

(5) No correction required

118. The sales conference cannot be began till the festive season is over.

(1) cannot have beginning (2) unable to begin

(3) cannot begin (4) has no beginning

(5) No correction required

119. It was surprising to note that she enjoyed the game of cricket same as her broth-

er did.

(1) as much as (2) with the same liking as (3) alike

(4) same like (5) No correction required

120. They are very much enterprising of all the other students I have taught.

(1) so much enterprising like (2) more enterprising than

(3) very much enterprising than (4) much enterprising of

(5) No correction required

121. Taken everything into consideration, we feel that the principal was justified in

suspending the student.

(1) Taking all things into considering

(2) To take everything with consideration

(3) Taking everything into consideration

(4) While taking everything for consideration

(5) No correction required

122. He succeeded in getting the promotion as he performed well than the other can-

didates in the written test.

(1) performed best of (2) performed better

(3) performance was better (4) performing very well

(5) No correction required

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123. The inquiry found that both the secretary and the treasurer had been negligent

in their duties.

(1) neglecting his duty (2) neglected by their duties

(3) neglecting in their duty (4) negligence for their duties

(5) No correction required

124. I with my family have resided in a small village near the sea for the past two

decades.

(1) My family along with I has (2) My family and me have

(3) My family and I have (4) I together with my family has

(5) No correction required

125. The channel has brought the rights to the cricket series for a huge sum ofmoney.

(1) paid the rights for (2) bought the rights for

(3) been paid the rights to (4) bought off the rights

(5) No correction required

Directions (126 - 132): Read the following passage carefully and answer the ques-tions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you to locatethem while answering some of the questions.

Aviation is an essential link for travel, trade and connectivity. While full serv-ice carriers attract passengers with the overall quality of their services, low cost air-lines compete on cost. They offer bare-bone services, fly more sectors a day and oper-ate from smaller secondary airports that have lower charges. These may be very farfrom the city centres costing passengers more time and money to get into town. Someservices like London's Luton are aimed at eliminating the problems of connectingflights. They tend to avoid head on competition with each other and prey on full serv-ices. airlines. Staff are usually less well paid, more intensively used and in shortersupply as compared to full service airlines. There are numerous exceptions though inother countries. Easy jet operates from major airports and Jet Blue offers live pro-grammes for free. In India 70% of the operating costs of low cost airlines are the sameas that of full service carriers, leaving just 30% to juggle with to gain an overall advan-tage over full service carriers. Many of these costs like fuel are above global levels.Exorbitant State and Central government taxes and duties are the main culprits. AirDeccan envisions that their airline fares will match rail fares unattainable because ofthe economies of scale that the railways enjoy. Few secondary airports and faresfalling faster than their costs have hurt low cost airlines to utilize non-metro airportsat lower charges during off -peak hours while providing full services airlines peakhour slots but at higher rates could help.

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Low cost airlines can aid economic development and the current economicboom has been the right time to launch India's low cost revolution though in theirefforts to achieve economies of scale and greater market share they have been reck-less and have gone deep into the red. India has to await second-generation low costairlines to deliver the goods.

126. The primary purpose of low cost airlines is to (1) provide connectivity at low rates

(2) enhance economic development

(3) do away with the inconvenience of connecting flights

(4) reduce congestion at crowded city airports

(5) reduce the passenger pressure on the railways

127. The author's view of Indian low cost airlines is that(1) they are based on global models allowing them to compete with railways.

(2) they benefit from certain exemptions on tax and duties.

(3) with only 70% of the operating cost being the same as full service airlinesthey have a major advantage.

(4) they are loss-making enterprises as their efforts to expand have been hasty

(5) None of these

128. Which of the following is / are TRUE in the context of the passage?

(A) Indian low cost carriers though launched at the right time have been mis-managed.

(B) Jet Blue is one of the premier full service air carriers in the world

(C) Business for low cost carriers is good enough to allow them to compete withrailways.

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C) (3) Only (B)

(4) Both (B) & (C) (5) None of these

129. Which of the following measures can boost the low cost carrier business?

(1) Increasing rail fares to allow low cost carriers a chance to compete.

(2) Government should own a stake in low cost airlines.

(3) Preference for low cost carriers during peak hours at major airports.

(4) Developing adequate secondary airports

(5) Equivalent charges for full services and low cost airlines at metro airports.

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130. The growth of low cost airlines in India has been hampered by (A) inadequate airport infrastructure.

(B) attracting and retaining staff in spite of higher pay packages.

(C) costs of providing additional quality services.

(1) Only C (2) Both A & B (3) Only A

(4) Both B & C (5) All A, B & C

131. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

(1) The low cost airline industry has very recently come to India.

(2) Full services airlines operate from secondary airports to meet the costs offree services.

(3) Indian low cost airlines have not been able to make even a marginal profit.

(4) Staff of low cost airlines has longer working hours as compared to full serv-ice airlines

(5) None of these

132. A benefit of low cost airlines is ----

(1) they operate away from crowded cities

(2) their fares are more reasonable than rail fares

(3) decrease in fares despite a rise in costs

(4) efficient bare minimum services at affordable rates

(5) utilizing secondary airports despite their higher charges.

Directions (133 - 140): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fillin the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

133. You must ensure the correctness of the information before ------- to conclusion.

(1) drawing (2) enabling (3) leaning (4) jumping (5) examining

134. The rocket--------the target and did not cause any casualty.

(1) sensed (2) reached (3) missed (4) exploded (5) aimed

135. It is desirable to take_____in any business if you want to make profit.

(1) advice (2) risk (3) loan (4) recourse (5) perseverance

136. They wasted all the money on purchase of some______items.

(1) excellent (2) important (3) significant (4) quality (5) trivial

137. When he found the wallet his face glowed but soon it faded as the wallet was--

-----------

(1) empty (2) vacant (3) recovered (4) stolen (5) expensive

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138. The Government stated that it had the ___ right to use as much force as was nec-

essary to regain control of areas ___ by terrorists.

(1) free, marked (2) practical, left

(3) fundamental, infest (4) basic, undertaken

(5) legitimate, dominated

139. Obesity and alcohol ___ together to ___ the risk of liver disease in both men andwomen.

(1) act, increase (2) result, aggravate (3) taken, arrest

(4) put, heighten (5) mix, lower

140. There were screams, chills and thrills ___ at the discotheque the other night asthe director along with the producers hosted a party to ___ the success of theirlatest horror flick.

(1) combined, downplay (2) alike, mourn

(3) experiences, mark (4) galore, celebrate (5) risen, generate

Directions (141 - 150): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find outthe appropriate word in each case.

Jamshedji Tata is (141) to be the path-finder of modern industrial builders. He isknown as the grand-father of the Indian industry for his acumen and enthusiasm.Nobody else could have (142) of the new industries started by Jamshedji at that timewhen industrial (143) and revolution was yet to come to India.

Jamshedji's father NasarvanjiTata used to trade in jute with China and Britain.He started (144) from India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that time almost all the (145) used to come from Lancashire inEngland. What Jamshedji (146) was praiseworthy. Jamshedji (147) very well that anindustrial revolution can only be brought in the country by setting up iron and steelindustry (148) he did not live to see the industry he had in mind. he had done all (149)work. In fact, he laid the ground work for it. He had planned the entire steel city nowknown as Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, churches. etc. His (150) was fulfilled by his sons, Sir Dorabji Tataand Sir Rattan Tata, when they started the Tata Iron & Steel Factory in 1907 just afterthree years of his death.

141. (1) rewarded (2) agreed (3) empowered (4) determined (5) considered

142. (1) absolved (2) thought (3) ventured (4) set (5) planned

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143. (1) imports (2) acts (3) machinery (4) awakening (5) factories

144. (1) export (2) industries (3) import (4) trade (5) dispatch

145. (1) goods (2) imports (3) cloth (4) machines (5) industries

146. (1) did (2) dreamt (3) agreed (4) told (5) meant

147. (1) felt (2) advocated (3) planned (4) thought (5) knew

148. (1) Because (2) Although (3) Surprisingly (4) Luckily (5) Even

149. (1) Insignificant (2) complete (3) trivial (4) preliminary (5) external

150. (1) need (2) task (3) dream (4) industry (5) sentiment

|TEST - IV: CURRENT AFFAIRS AND COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE151. Who won 5th Man Booker International Prize 2013?

(1) Lydia Davis (2) UR Ananthamurthy

(3) Daya Dissanayake (4) Ravuri Bharadvaj (5) None of these

152. The Person who was appointed as the new chairman of the NASSCOM for its

the Executive Council for 2013-14.

(1) Krishna kumar Natarajan (2) N.Chandrasekaran

(3) Rajendra Pawar (4) C.Rangarajan

(5) None of these

153. Who was arrested by Delhi Police on 16 May 2013 on charges of Spot Fixing in

Indian Premier League (IPL).

(1) Ankeet Chavan (2) Ajit Chadila (3) S. Sreesanth

(4) Sachin (5) None of these

154. Interest of PF deposit....

(1) 8.25% (2) 8.50% (3) 8.60% (4) 9.00% (5) None of these

155. Recently China PM (Premier Li Keqiang) visited in india at ...

(1) Gujraat (2) Mumbai (3) New Delhi

(4) Jaipur (5) None of these

156. How many pacts were signed between india and china in the month of May

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 (5) None of these

157. India-US Homeland Security dialogue begins in ...

(1) Washington (2) Jakarta (3) New Delhi

(4) Jaipur (5) None of these

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158. Hamid Karzai arrives in on a three day visit to India in the month of May, he is ...

(1) Afghan Foreign Minister (2) Afghan Prime Minister

(3) Afghan President (4) No (5) None of these

159. Nunshi and Tashi Malik Became First Twins to Scale Mount Everest recently,

they are from....

(1) Dehrahdun (2) Roorkee (3) Shimla (4) Haridwar (5) None of these

160. Samina Baig Became the First Woman to Scale Mount Everest,she belongs to..

(1) Iran (2) Pakistani (3) Vietnaam

(4) South Korea (5) None of these

161. Who is Penne Hackforth-Jones?

(1) Australian Actress (2) Australian Director

(3) Australian Singer (4) Australian Musician (5) None of these

162. Who win seventh Italian Open title 2013?

(1) Roger Federar (2) Andy Murray (3) Rafael Nadal

(4) Novak Djokovic (5) None of these

163. Rafael Nadal reached in which Position on the rankings ladder after winning

Italian Open 2013 title?

(1) Fourth (2) Fifth (3) Third (4) First (5) None of these

164. Anti Terrorism Day Observed....

(1) 20 May (2) 21 May (3) 22 May (4) 30 May (5) None of these

165. Which organization acquires Tumblr in $1.1B deal?

(1) Google (2) Yahoo (3) Rediff (4) Facebook (5) None of these

166. Who Conferred With the Lata Mangeshkar Samman Alankaran 2013?

(1) Sharmila Tagore (2) Hema malini

(3) Singer Hariharan (4) Jaya Batchan (5) None of these

167. Indian National Defence University to be set up in ....

(1) Dehrahdun (2) Bhubaneswar (3) Sonipat

(4) Gurgaon (5) None of these

168. International Day for Biological Diversity observed....

(1) 12 April (2) 12 May (3) 22 April (4) 22 May (5) None of these

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169. Who is Appointed as the New CAG of India by the President on 21 May 2013 ?

(1) Vinod Rai (2) Shashi Kant Sharma (3) Krishna K. Natrajan

(4) J K Aanand (5) None of these

170. Who has won the United Nation's Public Service Award for his Mass Contact

Program?

(1) Kerala CM Oommen Chandy (2) UP CM Akhilesh Yadav

(3) Gujarat CM Narendra Modi (4) AP CM N Kiran Kumar Reddy

(5) None of these

171. Who was selected for UNA-USA's Global Leadership Award called Champion

for Global Change Award for 2013, in the month of May 2013?

(1) Anna Hazare (2) Arvind Kejriwal

(3) Malala Yousafzai (4) Nirbhaya (5) None of these

172. Which city Ranked First on List of Top 10 Favorite Indian Destinations for

Foreigners?

(1) New Delhi (2) Mumbai (3) Goa (4) Jaipur (5) None of these

173. Which of the team withdraw from the IPL 2013?

(1) Rajasthan Royals (2) Mumbai Indians

(3) Chennai Super Kings (4) Pune Warriors India (5) None of these

174. Which of the actor got a jail in the 1993 Mumbai serial blasts case?

(1) Salman Khan (2) Sanjay Dutt (3) Irfan khan

(4) Rajnjkanth (5) None of these

175. Who is the chairman of IPL at present?

(1) Rajiv Shukla (2) Lalit Modi (3) Anil Kumble

(4) Ajay Jadeja

176. How many teams participated in the current season of IPL?

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10 (5) None of these

177. Winner of IPL 2013 is ...

(1) Mumbai Indians (2) Chennai Super Kings

(3) Royal Challengers Bangalore

(4) Kolkata Knight Riders (5) None of these

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178. Which of the team reached IPL final in maximum time?

(1) Mumbai Indians (2) Royal Challengers Bangalore

(3) Kolkata Knight Riders (4) Chennai Super Kings (5) None of these

179. Who is awarded by Orange cap in IPL 2013?

(1) Sachin Tendulkar (2) Michael Hussey (3) Chris Gayle

(4) Matthew Hayden (5) None of these

180. Who is awarded by Purple cap in IPL 2013?

(1) RP Singh (2) Pragyan Ojha (3) Lasith Malinga

(4) D J Bravo (5) None of these

181. The ............ primarily take(s) care of the behind-the-scenes details and manage(s) the hardware.

(1) operating system (2) application software

(3) peripheral devices (4) hard disk (5) None of these

182. A ....... is a professionally designed 'empty' document that can be adapted to theusers needs.

(1) file (2) guide (3) template (4) user guide file

(5) None of these

183. A group of 8 bits is known as a-

(1) Byte (2) Kilobyte (3) Binary digit

(4) Megabit (5) None of these

184. The hardware device commonly referred to as the 'brain' of the computer is the-

(1) RAM chip (2) Data input (3) CPU

(4) Secondary storage (5) None of these

185. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called?

(1) Column (2) Value (3) Address (4) Cell (5) None of these

186. .............. are often delivered to a PC through an e-mail attachment and are oftendesigned to do harm.

(1) Viruses (2) Spam (3) Portals

(4) Email messages (5) None of these

187. What is the storage area for e-mail messages called?

(1) A folder (2) A directory (3) A mailbox

(4) The hard disk (5) None of these

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188. A desktop computer is also known as a-

(1) Palm Pilot (2) PC (3) Laptop

(4) Mainframe (5) None of these

189. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it isoften called a (n) - file.

(1) data (2) information (3) executable

(4) application (5) None of these

190. Documents converted to ........... can be published to the Web.

(1) a.doc file (2) http (3) machine language

(4) HTML (5) None of these

191. If a user needs information instantly available to the CPU, it should be stored-

(1) on a CD (2) in secondary storage (3) in the CPU

(4) in RAM (5) None of these

192. To what temporary area can you store text and other data, and later paste themto another location?

(1) The clipboard (2) ROM (3) CD-ROM

(4) The hard disk (5) None of these

193. In a spreadsheet, a ............ is a number you will use in a calculation.

(1) label (2) cell (3) field (4) value (5) None of these

194. After slide-directed time, if you want to move ahead automatically, click in......... check box in transition of this slide group in tab of animations----

(1) Transition timer (2) Automatically opter

(3) Transition opter (4) Automatic timer (5) None of these

195. All are included in removable media except the following-

(1) CD-ROMs (2) Diskette (3) DVDs

(4) High disk drive (5) None of these

196. If you open some menu and then decide that you do not want to select someoption, then click the menu title again or press the ....... key to layout the menu.

(1) shift (2) tab (3) escape (4) F1 (5) None of these

197. Using the ......... process, it is easy to change the name of the file.

(1) transforming (2) crash (3) renaming

(4) retagging (5) None of these

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198. .......... view shows that how will content on printed page, along with footer andmargin header, appear.

(1) Draft (2) Full screen reading (3) Outline

(4) Page layout (5) None of these

199. Using ......., the text can be entered and edited very efficiently.

(1) spreadsheet

(2) typewriter

(3) word processing programme

(4) desktop publishing programme

(5) None of these

200. Other folders, named subfolders, can remain in the folders while creating hier-archical structure-

(1) Mini folder (2) Teard folder (3) Subfolders

(4) Object (5) None of these

MOCK TEST KEY

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