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IBPS POs Model Paper - 2

TEST - I: REASONING

1. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away from the

beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the

number?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

2. In a certain code COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written in

that code?

(1) MVCILEBF (2) KTAILEBF (3) MTAGJEBF (4) KTAGJEBF (5) None of these

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters IDET using each letter only

once in each word?


4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that

does not belong to that group?

(1) HK (2) BD (3) FI (4) MP (5) SV



(1) Tomato (2) Brinjal (3) Radish (4) Pumpkin (5) Gourd

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IMPORTANCE, each of which has as

many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?




(1) Dog (2) Horse (3) Wolf (4) Jackal (5) Cat


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8. In a certain code FIRE is written as #%@$ and DEAL is written as ©$Ú? How is FAIL

written in that code?

(1) #Ú%? (2) #$%? (3) #Ú@$ (4) #Ú©? (5) None of these

9. In a certain code language, ‘come again’ is written as ‘ho na’; ‘come over here’ is written as

‘pa na ta’; and ‘over and above’ is written as ‘ki ta ja’. How is ‘here’ written in that code

language?

(1) pa (2) na (3) ta (4) ja (5) None of these

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one

that does not belong to that group?

(1) 84 (2) 120 (3) 72 (4) 108 (5) 98

Directions (11 – 15): In these questions, symbols @, #,%,$ and © are used with different

meanings as follows :

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.

11. Statements: J # H, H © T, T $ R, R % F

Conclusions: I. J # R II. R # F III. J # T

(1) Only I is true (2) Only I & II are true (3) Only III is true

(4) All are true (5) None of these

12. Statements: E $ P, P % H, H @ I, I # K

Conclusions: I. P © I II. I % E III. H % K

(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true

(4) Only I and II are true (5) None of these


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13. Statements: L@K, K#R, R$H, H%N

Conclusions: I. L#R II. N#R III. L©N

(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only either I or II is true (3) Only II and III are true

(4) Only III is true (5) None of these

14. Statements: T$V, V%K, K©L, L%H

Conclusions: I. V%H II. T$L III. T$H

(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II and III are true (3) Only I and III are true

(4) All are true (5) None of these

15. Statements: V@W, W#D, D$M, M%F

Conclusions: I. V#D II. F#D III. V©F

(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only either I or II is true

(4) Both I and II are true (5) None of these

Directions (16 – 20): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by

three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true

even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions

and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements

disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements: Some plates are spoons.

All spoons are forks.

All forks are bowls.

Some bowls are utensils.

Conclusions: I. Some plates are bowls.

II. All spoons are bowls.

III. Some forks are utensils.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only I and III follow

(4) Only I and II follow (5) None of these


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17. Statements: Some books are files.

All files are discs.

Some discs are boards.

All boards are keys.

Conclusions: I. Some books are keys.

II. No book is key.

III. Some discs are keys.

(1) Only III follows (2) Only I and III follow

(3) Either I or II and III follow (4) All follow (5) None of these

18. Statements: All buses are trains.

Some trains are cars.

No car is scooter.

All scooter are jeeps.

Conclusions: I. Some cars are buses.

II. All jeeps are scooters.

III. No jeep is train.

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows

(4) Only either I or III follows (5) None of these

19. Statements: All curtains are pillows.

No pillow is mattress.

Some mattresses are beds.

All beds are sofas.

Conclusions: I. No bed is pillow

II. Some mattresses are sofas.

III. Some beds are pillows.

(1) Only either I or III follows (2) Only II follows

(3) Only II and either I or III follow (4) Only I and II follows (5) All follow


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20. Statements: Some pulses are grains.

Some grains are sprouts.

All sprouts are nuts.

No fruit is nut.

Conclusions: I. Some nuts are pulses.

II. Some nuts are grains.

III. No fruit is sprout.

(1) Only II and III follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only either I or II follows

(4) None follows (5) None of these

Directions (21 – 25): Study the following information and answer the questions.

Seven candidates Harish, Samir,Nilesh, Shilaja, Nikita, Laxamn and Sujata are to be

interviewed for selection as Trainee Officers by different panels I to VII for different companies

A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in the same order. Nilesh is interviewed by panel IV for

company A. Samir is interviewed by panel III but not for company C or D. Harish is interviewed

for company B but not by panel I or II. Nikita is interviewed by panel VI for company E. Panel

VII conducts the interview for company F. Shailaja is interviewed by panel I but not for company

C. Panel II does not interview Laxaman.

21. Shailja is interviewed for which company?

(1) A (2) G (3) F (4) D (5) None of these

22. Panel II conducts interview for which company?

(1) C (2) F (3) G (4) B (5) None of these

23. Who is interviewed for company G?

(1) Nikita (2) Samir (3) Shailaja (4) Laxman (5) None of these

24. Who is interviewed for company F?

(1) Shailaja (2) Sujata (3) Laxman (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

25. Which candidate is interviewed by panel V?

(1) Harish (2) Laxman (3) Sujata (4) Shailaja (5) None of these


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Directions (26 – 30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions

given below:

R 5 M E % 4 W 1 A 2 D # K 3 P 9 @ F B © 8 J I 7 Ú H 6 Q V Y

26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) K 3 2 (2) J 7 B (3) 4 1 M (4) 6 V 7 (5) P@#

27. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are removed, which of the following will be the

fifth to the right of the eleventh from the left end?

(1) F (2) D (3) 8 (4) B (5) None of these

28. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant?


29. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the

above arrangement?

(1) © (2) % (3) D (4) H (5) None of these

30. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

(1) None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Directions (31 – 35): In each questions below is given a statement followed two courses of

action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken

for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the

basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the

statement, to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow

(s) for pursuing.

Give answer (1) if only I follows.

Give answer (2) if only II follows.

Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.


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31. Statement: The local college principal has ordered that all the students must strictly

adhere to the dress code stipulated by the college authority in the admission brochure.

Courses of action:

I. Those students who are found to violate the dress code should be restigated from the

college.

II. Those students who are found to violate the dress code for the first time should be

reprimanded and be warned against further violation,

32. Statement: The railways have decided to repair the main tracks within the city on the

following Sunday and have decided to suspend operations for the whole day.

Courses of action:

I. The railway authority should issue public notification well in advance to ease

inconvenience to the passengers.

II. All the long-distance trains entering the city during the repair hours should be turned

outside the city limit.

33. Statement: Many motorists driving on the highway within the city are found to be driving

much beyond the permissible speed limit.

Courses of action:

I. The traffic police officials should personally monitor the movement of vehicles on the

highway within the city.

II. The govt. should immediately put in place a mechanism to identify and punish erring

drivers.

34. Statement: Majority of the city employees in the renowned BPO company have left their

jobs to protest against inhuman treatment meted out to them by the company.

Courses of action:

I. The Govt. should immediately order the BPO company to close down its operation.

II. The BPO company should shift its operations.

35. Statement: The management of the organisation has issued a circular to all its employees

stating that each employee must report for duty at 10.00 A.M. sharp and should remain in

his/her workplace till 5.30 P.M. every day.


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Courses of action:

I. The management should evolve a mechanism to identify such employees who may not

adhere to the time schedule.

II. All such employees who are found to be failing to maintain time schedule should be

summarily suspended.

Directions (36 – 40): Below is given a passage following by several possible inferences

which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage? You have to examine each

inference separately in the context of the passage an decide upon its degree of truth or

falsity.

Mark answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, ie it properly follows from the statement

of facts given.

Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of

the facts given.

Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether

the inference is likely to be true or false.

Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light

of the facts given.

Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the

facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

The latest data to show that the overall power situation has got worse, with the ratio

for peak load shortages now the highest in a decade. In absolute terms, the power deficit has hit

record levels and seems almost certain to further deteriorate without real reforms on the ground.

Even as aggressive technical and commercial losses in the power system remain much high at

over a third of total generation, pan-India capacity addition is now well below target. A short age

of equipment and skills is blamed for the marked slow-down in augmenting power capacity. But

the dearth of resources can only be relative. In fact, the real bane of the sector is continuing

revenue leakage in the state power utilities and unacceptably high aggregate technical and

commercial losses, much of it plain theft of electricity. Given the preponderance of state utilities

in power supply, the fact that they remain very much in red does affect investor comfort and

return funds flow.


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36. Indian power generation is commonly controlled by private sector.

37. Reform in power sector in India has yet not attained its desired level.

38. Indian power sector is yet to attain status comparable to developed countries.

39. Power theft is one major component of revenue losses in power sector.

40. Aggregate technical and commercial loss is much less than thirty per cent of the total power

generation.

Directions (41 – 45): In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer

figure on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, If the sequence were

continued.

44.

45.


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Directions (46 – 50): In each of the following questions a related pair of figures is

followed by five numbered pairs of figures selected the pair that has a relationship similar

to that in the unnumbered pairs.


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TEST - II: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (51 – 55): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

questions?

51. (47 × 588) ÷ (28 × 120) = ?

(1) 6.284 (2) 7.625 (3) 8.225 (4) 8.285 (5) None of these

52. 45% of 224 × ? % of 120 = 8104.32

(1) 67 (2) 62 (3) 59 (4) 71 (5) None of these

53. 51 + 374 = (?)2√7921 ×

(1) 16 (2) 19 (3) 15 (4) 21 (5) None of these

54. 6573 ÷ 21 × (0.2)2 = ?

(1) 7825 (2) 62.6 (3) 1565 (4) 12.52 (5) None of these

55. 74156 -? -321 – 20 + 520 = 69894

(1) 3451 (2) 4441 (3) 5401 (4) 4531 (5) None of these

Directions (56 – 60): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following

number series?

56. 1548 516 129 43 ?

(1) 11 (2) 10.75 (3) 9.5 (4) 12 (5) None of these

57. 949 189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328

(1) 48.24 (2) 53.86 (3) 74.26 (4) 56.94 (5) None of these

58. 121 144 190 259 ? 466

(1) 351 (2) 349 (3) 374 (4) 328 (5) None of these

59. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188

(1) 3168 (2) 3176 (3) 1587 (4) 1590 (5) None of these

60. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696

(1) 104244 (2) 94644 (3) 94464 (4) 102444 (5) None of these


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61. Two numbers are less than the third number by 50%and 54%respectively. By how much

percent is the second number less than the first number?

(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

62. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘BLOATING’ be arranged?

(1) 40320 (2) 5040 (3) 2520 (4) 20160 (5) None of these

63. The average of 5 numbers is 306.4. The average of the first two numbers is 431 and the

average of the last two numbers is 214.5. What is the third number?


64. Fifty-six men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men

complete the same piece of work?

(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 98 (4) 48 (5) None of these

65. A man takes 6 hours 35 minutes in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would

have taken 2 hours less by riding both ways. What would be the time he would take to

walk both ways?

(1) 4hrs 35 mins (2) 8hrs 35 mins (3) 10 hrs (4) 8 hrs 25 mins (5) None of these

Directions (66 – 70): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given

below.


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66. What is the ratio of the number of adult females to the total number of female children

staying in all the societies together?

(1) 243 : 82 (2) 112 : 71 (3) 82 : 243 (4) 71 : 112 (5) None of these

67. What is the total number of female children staying in all the societies together?

(1) 314 (2) 433 (3) 410 (4) 343 (5) None of these

68. What is the ratio of the total number of adult males in Societies A and B together to the

total number of adult males in Societies E and F together?

(1) 75 : 79 (2) 14 : 17 (3) 79 : 75 (4) 17 : 14 (5) None of these

69. What is the total number of members staying in all the societies together?

(1) 3520 (2) 3360 (3) 4100 (4) 3000 (5) None of these

70. What is the difference between the number of male children in Society B and the number

of male children in Society F?

(1) 84 (2) 14 (3) 96 (4) 26 (5) None of these

Directions (71 – 75): Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the questions

given below.

71. What is the ratio of the men to the women working in night shifts from the Call Centre

industry?

(1) 9 : 11 (2) 7 : 5 (3) 8 : 13 (4) 11 : 7 (5) None of these

72. What is the approximate average number of females working in night shifts from all the

industries together?

(1) 2227 (2) 4481 (3) 3326 (4) 2823 (5) 4107


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73. What is the total number of men working in night shifts from all the industries together?

(1) 28297 (2) 25788 (3) 28678 (4) 26887 (5) None of these

74. The number of women from the gaming industry is what per cent of the total number of

people working in the night shifts from all the industries together?

(1) 5.6 (2) 3.6 (3) 3.2 (4) 4.4 (5) None of these

75. What is the difference between the total number of men and the total number of women

working in night shifts from all the industries together?

(1) 13254 (2) 13542 (3) 13524 (4) 13363 (5) None of these

Directions (76 – 80): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given

below.

76. The total number of employees working in the legal department is approximately what

per cent of the total number of employees working in HR department of the entire

organisation together?

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 6 (5) 10

77. What is the approximate difference between the average numbers of people working in

Marketing and Production departments from the entire organisation together?

(1) 578 (2) 231 (3) 330 (4) 1156 (5) 300

78. What is the ratio of the total number of employees working in organisation A to the total

number of employees working in organisation E?

(1) 225 : 233 (2) 71 : 75 (3) 75 : 71 (4) 233 : 215 (5) None of these

79. What is the total number of employees from all the departments working in all the

organizations together?

(1) 26960 (2) 28910 (3) 28190 (4) 29660 (5) None of these


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80. The number of people working in the Finance department from organisation B is approxi -

-mately what per cent of the total number of employees working in organisation B?

(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 17 (5) 25

Directions (81 – 85): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given

below.

Out of a total number of commuters commuting daily in a city, 17,171 commuters

commute only by trains. 7359 commuters commute only by bikes and 22,077 commuters

commute only by buses. 14,718 commuters commute only by their private cars and 4,906

commuters commute only by autos. 7,359 commuters commute only by taxis. 26,983 commuters

commute by buses as well as trains. 9812 commuters commute by autos as well as trains. 12265

commuters commute by buses as well as autos.

81. The total number of commuters commuting by trains forms what per cent of the total

number of commuters commuting daily?

(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 14 (4) 36 (5) None of these

82. The total number of commuters commuting by autos forms what per cent of the total


(1) 10 (2) 18 (3) 22 (4) 4 (5) None of these

83. The total number of commuters commuting by bikes and taxis together forms what

per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?

(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 16 (5) None of these

84. What is the total number of commuters in the city commuting daily?

(1) 122650 (2) 126250 (3) 162250 (4) 152260 (5) None of these

85. The number of commuters commuting only by bus forms what per cent of the total


(1) 40 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 18 (5) None of these


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Directions (86 – 90): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given

below.

86. What is the average number of units sold over the years?

(1) 440000000 (2) 4400000 (3) 440000 (4) 44000000 (5) None of these

87. What is the ratio of the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in

the year 2005 to the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the

year 2006?

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 5 (5) None of these

88. What is the ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year 2003 to the number of

units manufactured in the year 2007?

(1) 7 : 11 (2) 9 : 14 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 9 : 11 (5) None of these

89. What is the approximate per cent increase in the number of units sold in the year 2007

from the previous year?

(1) 190 (2) 70 (3) 60 (4) 95 (5) 117

90. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the number of units

sold over the years?

(1) 50000000 (2) 5000000 (3) 500000000 (4) 500000 (5) None of these


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91. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the fraction in

increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is 7/10. What is the original fraction?

(1)43 (2) 7

12 (3) 7

11 (4) 9

11 (5) None of these

92. Samiara, Mahira and Kiara rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs. 578. If they used it for 8

hours, 12 hours and 14 hours respectively, what is Kiara's share of rent to be paid?

(1) Rs. 238 (2) Rs. 204 (3) Rs. 192 (4) Rs. 215 (5) None of these

93. Kamlesh bought 65 books for Rs 1,050 from one shop and 50 books for Rs 1,020 from

another. What is the average price he paid per book?

(1) Rs. 36.40 (2) Rs. 18.20 (3) Rs. 24 (4) Rs. 18 (5) None of these

94. In an election between two candidates, one got 52%of the total valid votes. 25% of the

total votes were invalid. The total number of votes was 8400. How many valid votes did

the other person get?


95. The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangular plot is 8 : 5 respectively. If the breadth is 60

metres less than the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular plot?

(1) 260mts (2) 1600mts (3) 500mts (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions (96 – 100): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark

(?) in the following questions?

(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

96. 3719 = ?73 × 9

4 × 52 ×

(1) 341 (2) 283 (3) 274 (4) 301 (5) 288

97. 0.008 + 6.009 ÷ (o.7)2 = ?

(1) 21 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 8 (5) 18

98. × 7 ÷ (3.8 × 5.5) = ?√795657

(1) 48 (2) 22 (3) 43 (4) 26 (5) 31


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99. 98 × 785 ÷ (285)2 = ?

(1) 0.3 (2) 1.8 (3) 2.2 (4) 0.9 (5) 0.08

100. × 0.56 + 14.38 = ?√749

(1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 42 (4) 25 (5) 45

TEST - III: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (101 – 115): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while

answering some of the questions.

Political ploys initially hailed as masterstrokes often end up as flops. The Rs. 60000-crore

farm loan waiver announced in the budget writes off 100% of over dues of small and marginal

farmers holding up to two hectares, and 25% of over dues of larger farmers. While India has

enjoyed 8%-9% GDP growth for the past few years, the boom has bypassed many rural areas

and farmer distress and suicides have made newspaper headlines. Various attempts to provide

relief (employment guarantee scheme, public distribution system) have had little impact, thanks to

huge leakages from the government's lousy delivery systems. So, many economists think the loan

waiver is a worthwhile alternative to provide relief.

However, the poorest rural folk are landless labourers., who get neither farm loans nor

waivers. Half of small and marginal farmers get no loans from banks and depend entirely on

money lenders, and will not benefit, besides, rural India is full of family holdings rather than

individual holdings, and family holdings will typically be much larger than two hectares even for

dirt-poor farmers, who will, therefore, be denied the 100% waiver. It will thus fail in both its

economic and political objectives. IRDP loans to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that

crooked bank officials demand bribes amounting to one-third the intended benefits. Very few of

the intended beneficiaries who merited relief received it. After the last farm loans waiver in 1990,

many banks went slow on fresh farm loans for some years. This waiver will similarly slow down

fresh loans to deserving farmers. While overdues to co-operatives may be higher, economist

Surjit Bhalla says less than 5% of farmer loans to banks are overdue, ie overdues exist for only


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2.25 million out of 90 million farmers. If so, then the 95% who have repaid loans will not benefit.

They will be angry at being penalised for honesty.

The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of beneficiaries. It also underestimates

the negative effects of the waiver–encouraging wilful defaults in future and discouraging fresh

bank lending for some years. Instead of trying to reach the needy through a plethora of leaky

schemes we should transfer cash directly to the needy, using new technology like biometric smart

cards, which are now being used in many countries, and mobile phone bank accounts. Then

benefits can go directly to phone accounts operable only by those with biometric cards, ending

the massive leakages of current schemes.

The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been exaggerated since if only a small

fraction of farm families benefit, and many of these have to pay massive vote-winner? Members

of joint families will feel aggrieved that, despite having less than one hectare per head, their family

holding is too large to qualify for the 100% waiver. All finance ministers, of the central or state

governments, give away freebies in their last budgets, hoping to win electoral regards. Yet,

four-fifths of all incumbent governments are voted out. This shows that beneficiaries of favours

are not notably grateful, while those not so favoured may feel aggrieved, and vote for the

Opposition. That seems to be why election budgets constantly fail to win elections in India and

the loan waiver will not change that pattern.

101. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?

(1) It will improve the standard of living of those farmers. who can afford to repay their

loans but are exempted.

(2) Other government relief measures have proved ineffective.

(3) Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver.

(4) Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual

holdings.

(5) The government will be forced to re-examine and improve the public distribution

system.


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102. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have repaid loans?

(1) The government will readily provide them with loans in the future.

(2) As opposed to money lenders, banks are a safer and more reliable source of credit.

(3) Honesty is the best policy

(4) It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since their rates of interest are lower.

(5) None of these

103. What is the author's suggestion to provide aid to farmers?

(1) Families should split and joint holding to take advantage of the loan waiver.

(2) The government should increase the reach of the employment guarantee scheme

(3) Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts of the farmer using the latest

technology.

(4) Government should ensure that loan waivers can be implemented over a number of

years.

(5) Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes which were successful abroad.

104. What was the outcome of IRDP loans to the rural poor?

(1) The percentage of bank loans sanctioned to family owned farms increased

(2) The loans benefited dishonest money lenders, not landless laboures.

(3) Corrupt bank officials were the unintended beneficiaries of the loans.

(4) It resulted in the government sanctioning thrice the amount for the current loan waiver.

(5) None of these

105. What are the terms of the loan waiver?

(A) One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless labourers will be written off.

(B) The Rs. 60000-crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for 2.25 million marginal

farmers.

(C) Any farmer with between 26 per cent and 100 per cent of their loan repayments

overdue will be penalised.

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)

(5) None of these


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106. What is the author's view of the loan waiver?

(1) It will have an adverse psychological impact on those who cannot avail of the waiver.

(2) It is justified measure in view of the high suicide rate among landless labourers.

(3) It makes sound economic and political sense in the existing scenario.

(4) It will ensure that the benefits of India's high GDP are felt by the rural poor.

(5) None of these

107. Which of the following cannot be said about loan waiver?

(A) Small and marginal farmers will benefit the most.

(B) The loan waiver penalises deserving farmers.

(C) A large percentage ie: ninety-five percent of distressed farmers will benefit.

(1) Only C (2) Both(A) & (C) (3) Only (A) (4) Both (B) & (C)

(5) None of these

108. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of loan waiver?

(A) Family holdings will be split into individual holdings not exceeding one hectare.

(B) The public distribution system will be revamped.

(C) Opposition will definitely win the election

(1) None (2) Only (A) (3) Both (A) & (B) (4) Only (C)

(5) All (A), (B) & (C)

109. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?

(1) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write-off.

(2) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers.

(3) Corruption among bank staff will increase

(4) Farmers will make it a habit to default on loans.

(5) None of these

110. According to the author, what is the government's motive in sanctioning the loan waiver?

(1) To encourage farmers to opt for bank loans over loans from moneylenders

(2) To raise 90 million farmers out of indebtedness

(3) To provide relief to those marginal farmers who have the means to but have not

repaid their loans


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(4) To ensure they will be reelected

(5) None of these

Directions (111 – 113): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the

word printed in bold as used in the passage.

111. incumbent

(1) mandatory (2) present (3) incapable (4) lazy (5) officious

112. ploys

(1) surveys (2) entreaties (3) ruses (4) conspiracies (5) assurances

113. aggrieved

(1) vindicated (2) intimidated (3) offensive(4) wronged (5) disputed

Directions (114 – 115): Choose the word/phrase which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of

the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

114. plethora

(1) dearth (2) missing (3) superfluous (4) sufficient (5) least

115. merited

(1) ranked (2) unqualified for (3) lacked (4) inept at (5) unworthy of

Directions (116 – 125): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The

error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If

there is no error, the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

116. Some of the world (1) /largest water bodies are (2) /drying up thus threatening (3) /the

livelihoods of millions (4)/. No error (5)

117. Among the many (1)/challenges facing the country (2) /in the next decade(3) /is poverty

and unemployment(4)/. No error (5)

118. According to economists (1)/not more than five per cent (2) / of education loans taken (3)

/ by students are overdue(4)/. No error (5)

119. The two candidates share (1)/ a reputation for(2) / competency as well as(3) / for good

communication skills(4)/. No error (5)


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120. His main qualification (1)/ on the job is(2) / his extensive experience(3) /in foreign

branches(4)/. No error (5)

121. A representative from the (1)/ Reserve Bank will provide students an(2) / insight into the(3)

/economic future of our country(4)/. No error (5)

122. As one of the leader (1)/ insurance companies in (2) / India they offer (3) / comprehensive

financial services(4)/. No error (5)

123. There is a rumour that (1)/ this multinational company will (2) / set up its regional

headquarters (3) / in India in short(4)/. No error (5)

124. Despite taking steps to (1)/ encourage foreign investment (2) / there has been any (3) /

substantial improvement in our economy (4)/. No error (5)

125. We had made every effort (1)/ to ensure that (2) / a compromise is reached and (3) / that

the deal was signed (4)/. No error (5)

Directions (126 – 130): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should

replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence

grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required,

mark 5), ie ‘No correction required’, as the answer.

126. During the recession many companies will be forced to lay off workers.

(1) have the force to (2) be forced into (3) forcibly have (4) forcefully to

(5) No correction required

127. He wanted nothing else excepting to sleep after a stress full day at work.

(1) nothing better than (2) anything else unless (3) nothing but having

(4) nothing else than (5) No correction required

128. Ramesh took charge of the project within a few days of having appointed.

(1) having an appointment (2) being appointed (3) after being appointed

(4) appointing (5) No correction required

129. It is difficult to work with him because he is one of those persons who think he is always

right.

(1) think they are always (2) always thinks he is (3) is always thinking they are

(4) always thing his (5) No correction required


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130. Foreign businesses in developing countries have usually problems with lack of

infrastructure and rigid laws.

(1) usual problems as (2) usually problems on (3) as usual problems like

(4) the usual problems of (5) No correction required

Directions (131 – 135): In each of the following questions four words are given, of which

two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are

most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter

combination by darkening the appropriate oval on your answer sheet.

131. (A) waive (B) speculate (C) pursue (D) revise

(1) A–B (2) C–B (3) D–C (4) C–A (5) D–B

132. (A) contrary (B) compatible (C) incomparable (D) ambiguous

(1) A–B (2) B–C (3) C–D (4) A–C (5) B–D

133. (A) pliable (B) dependable (C) flexible (D) viable

(1) A–D (2) B–C (3) B–D (4) C–D (5) A–C

134. (A) contingent (B) permissive (C) confirmed (D) endorsed

(1) B–A (2) C–A (3) C–B (4) B–D (5) D–C

135. (A) repeat (B) reverberate (C) retaliate (D) reciprocate

(1) B–D (2) C–D (3) A–C (4) A–B (5) B–C

Directions (136 – 140): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequences to form meaningful paragraph : then answer the questions given below them.

(A) In this early period a good memory was a prerequisite for success and poets like

Homer memo rised their work before it was ever written down.

(B) If we have to remember everything will it not increase the feeling of stress?

(C) Today memory is widely regarded as a useful aid to survival.

(D) However, it is not what we grasp but what we fail to----forgetting a file, key points at

an interview– which causes stress.

(E) Some people, however, are of the view that having an exceptional memory in a world

of high pressure working is a disadvantage.

(F) To our ancestors, though, in the absence of the printing press it was much more–it

was the slate on which history was recorded.


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136. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

137. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

138. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

139. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

140. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

Directions (141 – 150): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been

numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/

phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate

word/phrase in each case.

Mobile banking (M banking) involves the use of a mobile phone or any other mobile device

to (141) financial transactions linked to a client's account. M banking is new in most countries

and most mobile payments models even in developed countries today operate on a (142) scale. A

mobile network offers a (143) available technology platform onto which other services can be

provided at low cost with effective results. For example, M banking services which use (144)

such as SMS can be carried at a cost of less than one US cent per message. The low cost of

using existing infrastructure makes such services more (145) to be used by customers with lower

purchasing power and opens up access to services which did not reach them earlier due to (146)

cost of service delivery. Although M banking is one aspect in the wider (147) of e-banking there

are reasons to single it out for focus– especially because there are a lot more people with mobile

phones than bank accounts in India. M banking could provide a (148) solution to bring more

“unbanked” people to the financial mainstream. Without traditional credit, individuals are (149) to

exploitation by abusive lenders offering very high interest rates on short term loans. Also of

considerable importance are public safety implications for the unbanked–they are often victims of


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crime because many operate on a cash-only basis and end up carrying significant amounts of

cash on their (150) or store cash in their homes.

141. (1) disburse (2) undertake (3) subscribe (4) lure (5) amass

142. (1) full (2) voluminous (3) substantial (4) limited (5) rapid

143. (1) readily (2) tangible (3) routinely (4) securely (5) unique

144. (1) process (2) waves (3) deliveries (4) connection (5) channels

145. (1) valuable (2) answerable (3) amenable (4) exposed (5) responsible

146. (1) waning (2) stable (3) proportionate (4) marginal (5) high

147. (1) archive (2) domain (3) purpose (4) component (5) aspect

148. (1) law-abiding (2) tried (3) reassuring (4) cost-effective (5) stop-gap

149. (1) inclined (2) immune (3) vulnerable (4) surrendered (5) pressured

150. (1) person (2) own (3) relatives (4) purses (5) self

TEST - IV: CURRENT AFFAIRS AND COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

151. Indian Govt. has approved the proposal of providing loans to Woman Self-Help Groups

(SHGs) at a lower interest rate of ___% to eradicate poverty through women

empowerment recently?

(1) 7% (2) 7.5% (3) 8% (4) 8.5% (5) 10%

152. Recently which among the following government has introduced ‘Shiksha Setu cards ’.....

a report card to assess the performance of

students to teachers and guardians/parents in Government schools?

(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Rajasthan

(3) Bihar (4) Haryana

(5) Andhrapradesh

153. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is a nuclear power station in Koodankulam in Tamil

Nadu with a capacity of generating ____?

(1) 2000 MW (2) 3000 MW (3) 5000 MW (4) 10000 MW (5) 4000 MW


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154. Who among the following has won the Whitley Award for a project to conserve “Hornbill”

bird in Arunachal Pradesh State?

(1) Ravindra Sakia (2) Anupam Sarmah (3) NeeraJ Baunthiyal

(4) Aparajita Datta (5) Other than given options

155. World Press Freedom Day is observed on ____?

(1) 3 May (2) 3 April (3) 13 May (4) 15 April. (5) 31 july

156. The sixth commodity platform that went live on 19 April 2013 with 100 members on

board.

(1) Multi Commodity Exchange

(2) Universal Commodity Exchange

(3) National Multi Commodity Exchange

(4) Ace Commodity Exchange

(5) Other than given options

157. The company’s retail outlet entered into the Guinness World Records when it opened

record 315 outlets in 10 states of India, just at one time on 1 April 2013?

(1) Reliance (2) Tata (3) Mahindra and Mahindra

(4) Sahara India Pariwar (5) Techmahindra

158. The Railway Budget 2013-14 has proposed to introduce a new hyper luxury class to be

called-

(1) Udaan (2) Anand (3) Apoorva (4) Anubhuti


159. The film has won the award in the best film category at the BAFTA award 2013.

(1) Life of Pie (2) Les Miserables (3) Lincoln (4) Argo


160. The following has announced its plans to launch the world’s largest solar sail in 2014

(1) ISRO (2) NASA (3) European Space Agency

(4) Japanese Space Agency (5) BARC


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161. Which of the follwing becomes 28th EU member state?

(1) France (2) Itly (3) Croatia (4) Japan


162. Which of the bank launch Door step banking service?

(1) The State Bank of Travancore (2) The State Bank of Bikaner

(3) The State Bank of Masoor (4) The State Bank of india

(5) Punjab National Bank

163. DoctorsDay is celebrated on the day of...

(1) 30 june (2) 1 july (3) 2 july (4) 3 july


164. Dicky Rutnagur, who passed away recently, was a____?

(1) Cricket player (2) Sports journalist (3) Writer (4) musician


165. Recently, which state has made possession of Adhaar card is mandatory for teaching and

Non teaching staff to draw salaries?

(1) Pondichery (2) MP (3) Maharastra (4) Assam (5) Tripura

166. Which Nation has became the first European nation to make military service compulsory

for women’s?

(1) Egypt (2) France (3) Norway (4) India (5) Other than given options

167. Which of the following true giving of the statement.

(A) Govt aims to bring over half of India under e-district scheme

(B) In a major push to e-governance at grass root level for transparency, govt has

decided to cover 339 of around 620 districts by March next year by a system under

which govt. services can be accessed through instruments like mobile phones.

(C) Under the e-district programme, internet and mobile phones would be used for

delivery of government services like ration card, birth certificate and driving licences

in 339 of around 620 districts of the country by March next year

(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) All are true (5) None is true


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168. Who will be India's next Foreign Secretary?

(1) Ranjan Mathai (2) Nirupama Rao (3) Sujata Singh

(4) Chokila Iyer (5) Other than given options

169. Who will be appointed Meghalaya governor?

(1) K K Paul (2) Ranjit Shekhar Mooshahary (3) Amita Paul

(4) K Rosaiah (5) Other than given options

170. Which among the following countries has filed the challenge with the World Trade

Organisations (WTO) about India’s national solar programme restrictions?

(1) United States (2) Japan (3) Germany (4) China


171. Recently, which country has been granted the Association membership of the international

cricket council?

(1) India (2) Afghanistan (3) Pakistan (4) India (5) Kuwait

172. Which country will host 2016 ICC world T20 cricket cup tournament?

(1) India (2) Afghanistan (3) Srilanka (4) Pakistan (5) Australia

173. Adli Mansour sworn as interim President of...

(1) iran (2) Bangladesh (3) Egypt (4) Australia (5) Saudi Arabia

174. Who honored with “Emirates Woman Award”?

(1) Sujata Singh (2) Vandana Gandhi (3) Nirupama Rao

(4) Aishwarya rai (5) Other than given options

175. India International leather fair starts in ....

(1) New Delhi (2) Bombay (3) Agra (4) Kanpur (5) Hyderabad

176. Recently Chris Martin announced Retirement he is famous....

(1) Football Player (2) Cricketer (3) Bolyball Player

(4) Chess player (5) Other than given options

177. Who host 9th Islamic economic forum?

(1) Dubai (2) Iran (3) Pakistan (4) London (5) Iraq


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178. Recently Douglas Engelbart died , he is famous as a...

(1) Father of the Computer

(2) Father of the Keyboard

(3) Father of the Mouse

(4) Father of the Modern Computer

(5) Father of the Xerox

179. Who Wins Wimbledon Men's Singles trophy recently?

(1) Andy Murray (2) Novak Djokovic (3) Rafal Nadal

(4) Roger federer (5) Other than given options

180. Who got the Best Actress Award at IIFA 2013?

(1) Vidya Balan (2) Deepika Padukone (3) Priyanka Choppra

(4) Katrina kaif (5) None of the above

181. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are

known as—

(1) Hardware (2) Networked Software (3) Shareware

(4) Applications (5) None of these

182. A………shares hardware, software, and data among authorized users.

(1) network (2) protocol (3) hyperlink (4) transmitter (5) None of these

183. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human

readable version of a program is called—

(1) cache (2) instruction set (3) source code (4) word size

(5) None of these

184. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th

paragraph is—

(1) copy and paste (2) copy, cut and paste

(3) cut, copy and paste (4) cut and paste

(5) None of these


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185. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit?

(1) Read instructions (2) Execute instructions (3) Interpret instructions

(4) Direct operations (5) None of these

186. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a(n)—

(1) operating system (2) database (3) database program

(4) data warehouse (5) None of these

187. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n)—

(1) algorithm (2) hardware program (3) software bug

(4) firmware program (5) None of these

188. Which of the following is not true about RAM?

(1) RAM is a temporary storage area

(2) RAM is the same as hard disk storage

(3) RAM is volatile

(4) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off

(5) None of these

189. The main directory of a disk is called the………directory.

(1) root (2) sub (3) folder (4) network

(5) None of these

190. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s……

(1) features (2) format (3) pagination (4) grid

(5) None of these

191. = SUM (B1 : B8) is an example of a—

(1) function (2) formula (3) cell address (4) value

(5) None of these

192. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only?

(1) Floppy disk (2) Magnetic disk (3) Magnetic tape (4) Optical disk

(5) None of these


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193. Compilers and translators are one form of—

(1) ROM (2) RAM (3) Hard disk (4) Software

(5) None of these

194. Data representation is based on the………number system, which uses two numbers to

represent all data.

(1) binary (2) biometric (3) bicentennial (4) byte

(5) None of these

195. The most common input devices include—

(1) Monitor and keyboard (2) Monitor and mouse (3) Mouse and keyboard

(4) Printer and mouse (5) None of these

196. www means—

(1) worldwide wonder (2) worldwide wizard (3) world wide web

(4) wide world web (5) None of these

197. ………processing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders and

processes them together in one large set.

(1) Batch (2) Online (3) Real-time (4) Group (5) None of these

198. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW?

(1) They are the same—just two different terms used by different manufacturers

(2) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot

(3) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from

(4) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW

(5) None of these

199. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as—

(1) Moving (2) Dragging (3) Dropping (4) Highlighting

(5) None of these

200. A………is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table.

(1) spreadsheet (2) presentation (3) database (4) web page

(5) None of these


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KEY

1.(4) 2.(2) 3.(4) 4.(2) 5.(3) 6.(5) 7.(2) 8.(1) 9.(1) 10.(5) 11.(3) 12.(5) 13.(1) 14.(4)

15.(4) 16.(4) 17.(3) 18.(5) 19.(3) 20.(1) 21.(4) 22.(1) 23.(2) 24.(3) 25.(1) 26.(1) 27.(4)

28.(3) 29.(1) 30.(1) 31.(2) 32.(1) 33.(4) 34.(4) 35.(5) 36.(5) 37.(1) 38.(3) 39.(1) 40.(5)

41.(3) 42.(1) 43.(2) 44.(2) 45.(2) 46.(3) 47.(2) 48.(3) 49.(4) 50.(3) 51.(3) 52.(1) 53.(5)

54.(4) 55.(2) 56.(2) 57.(4) 58.(1) 59.(5) 60.(3) 61.(5) 62.(1) 63.(5) 64.(2) 65.(2) 66.(1)

67.(3) 68.(4) 69.(2) 70.(3) 71.(5) 72.(1) 73.(4) 74.(2) 75.(3) 76.(1) 77.(2) 78.(5) 79.(3)

80.(4) 81.(2) 82.(3) 83.(1) 84.(1) 85.(4) 86.(4) 87.(3) 88.(2) 89.(5) 90.(1) 91.(2) 92.(1)

93.(4) 94.(3) 95.(5) 96.(2) 97.(3) 98.(5) 99.(4) 100.(1) 101.(2) 102.(5) 103.(3) 104.(3)

105.(3) 106.(5) 107.(4) 108.(1) 109.(4) 110.(4) 111.(2) 112.(3) 113.(2) 114.(1) 115.(5)

116.(1) 117.(4) 118.(4) 119.(4) 120.(2) 121.(3) 122.(1) 123.(4) 124.(3) 125.(3) 126.(5)

127.(4) 128.(3) 129.(1) 130.(4) 131.(4) 132.(1) 133.(5) 134.(2) 135.(2) 136.(1) 137.(3)

138.(5) 139.(3) 140.(2) 141.(2) 142.(4) 143.(1) 144.(1) 145.(3) 146.(5) 147.(2) 148.(4)

149.(3) 150.(4) 151.(1) 152.(4) 153.(1) 154.(4) 155.(1) 156.(2) 157.(4) 158.(4) 159.(4)

160.(1) 161.(3) 162.(1) 163.(1) 164.(2) 165.(3) 166.(3) 167.(4) 168.(3) 169.(1) 170.(1)

171.(2) 172.(1) 173.(3) 174.(2) 175.(1) 176.(2) 177.(2) 178.(3) 179.(1) 180.(1) 181.(4)

182.(1) 183.(3) 184.(4) 185.(4) 186.(3) 187.(1) 188.(2) 189.(1) 190.(2) 191.(2) 192.(2)

193.(4) 194.(1) 195.(3) 196.(3) 197.(1) 198.(3) 199.(2) 200.(3)


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IBPS PO's PRELIMS MODEL PAPER - eenadupratibha.net · In a certain code COMPUTER is written as...

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