IBPS PO (MAINS) .

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IBPS PO- MAINS (Memory Based Paper) TOTAL TIME:- 140 MINS

REASONING ABILITY

Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions. Four family members P, Q, R and S are going to the different Mall viz; Wave, DLF, Ambience and Sahara (not neccesarily in the same order), for the shopping of different items on the same day viz; Saree, Jewellery, Jeans, Gown but not necessarily in the same order, at different time which are 9am, 12pm, 10am and 11am (not necessarily in the same order). S is going to just after when another member is going to WAVE, which is going just after the member who is going for the shopping of Saree. The member, who is going to SAHARA, is going at least two hours later than Q. The member, who is going to AMBIENCE, is going just after the member who is going for the shopping of Gown, who is going just after P. The definite information which was given about three among four was: R, the one who is going for the shopping of Jewellery and the one who is going at 11am. 1. Who among the following is going to Wave mall? (A) S (B) Q (C) P (D) R (E) None of these 2. R is going for the shopping of which of the following item? (A) Jewellery (B) Jeans (C) Saree (D) Gown (E) None of these 3. Who among the following is going to DLF mall? (A) R (B) S (C) Q (D) P (E) None of these 4. To which of the following mall, the member is going at 12 pm? (A) AMBIENCE (B) DLF (C) SAHARA (D) WAVE (E) None of these 5. Who among the following member

is going to the shopping at last?

(A) R (B) S

(C) Q (D) P (E) None of these Directions (Q. 6-10): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, ©, % and # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below: ‘A $ B’ means A is neither smaller than nor equal to Q ‘A # B’ means A is not smaller than B ‘A @ B’ means A is not greater than B ‘A % B’ means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B. ‘A © B’ means A is neither greater than not equal to B In each of the following questions,

assuming the given statements to be

true, find out which of the two

conclusions I and II given below

them is/are definitely true.

6. Statements :

U # N, N © W, W @ R, R % D

Conclusions :

I. U # W

II. D # W

III. N © R

IV. U © D

(A) Only I is true

(B) Only II and III are true.

(C) Only I and III are true

(D) None is true

(E) None of these

7. Statements :

B % H, E © H, E @ L, L © P

Conclusions :

I. B © P

II. P $ E

III. H $ L

IV. E % B

(A) Only I is true.

(B) Only II is true.

(C) Only III and IV are true.

(D) All are true.

(E) None of these

8. Statements : M © T, T # J, J $ K, K % Q

Conclusions : I. T $ Q II. J $ Q III. T # K IV. M © Q (A) Only I and II are true (B) Only III are IV are true. (C) Only II and III are true. (D) Only I is true. (E) All are true 9. Statements : R © D, D # L, L @ M, M © P Conclusions : I. M $ R II. D # P III. L © P IV. D % M (A) Only I is true (B) Only II and IV are true. (C) Only III is true. (D) None is true. (E) All are true 10. Statements : W @ F, F $ M, M © D, D @ T Conclusions : I. F $ D II. T $ W III. M © W IV. T $ M (A) Only I, II and III are true (B) Only II and III are true. (C) Only II is true. (D) Only IV is true. (E) All are true.

Directions (Q. 11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two or three statements given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. 11. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven policemen standing in a column (not necessarily in the same order) facing east. Who is exactly in the middle? I. The number of persons between D and F is equal to that between G and D. II. A, who is 5th from left end, is 3 positions away from C. III. B and A are adjacent to each other, so are E and D. (A) Either I or II or III (B) Only II

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(C) Only I (D) All are needed (E) None of these 12. How many sons and daughters does Amit have? I. Amit’s wife says she has number of sons twice the number of daughter. II. Tom, who is one of the sons of Amit, says that he has one-and-a-half times as many sisters as brothers. III. Tinu, who is one of the daughters of Amit, says that she has 4 times as many brothers as sisters. (A) Any one of them (B) Any two of them (C) Either II or III (D) Either I or III (E) None of these 13. What is the code for ‘rope’ in a code language? I. ‘use the rope’ is written as ‘nik ta re’ in the code language. II. ‘rope is straight’ is written as ‘pe da ta’. III. ‘always use rope’ is written as ‘ma re ta’. (A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III (C) Only I and III (D) Either (A) or (B) (E) Can’t be determined 14. Who amongst Aniket, Neeraj, Saurabh, Meena and Anil is the first to take the lecture? I. Aniket takes lecture before Meena and Neeraj but after Anil. II. Saurabh is not the first to take the lecture. III. Meena is not the last to take the lecture. (A) Only I (B) Only I and II (C) Only I and either II or III (D) All I, II and III are necessary (E) Can’t be determined 15. What is Avantika’s rank from top in a class of 45 students? I. Avantika is five ranks below Samir, who is 15

th from the bottom.

II. Radha is 30th from the top and

Neera is 4th from the bottom.

III. Avantika is exactly in the middle of Radha and Neeta. (A) Only I (B) Only II and III (C) Either only I or Only II and III (D) Only III (E) None of these

Directions (Q. 16-20): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions. Ten people are sitting in two parallel

rows containing five people each in

such a way that there is equal

distance between adjacent persons. In

row 1 Brad Pitt, Brad Renfro, Brad

Garrett, Bradley cooper and Bill

Nighy are seated and all of them are

facing North and in row 2 Bill Hader,

Bill Cosby, Bill Moselcy, Bryan

Brown and Bryan Dick, are seated

and are facing south. (but not

necessarily in the same order). Each

person also reads the Novel of

different authors, namely J.K

Rowling, Jane Austen, James Joyce,

J.R.R. Tolkien, Jhumpa Lahiri ,

Jackie Collins, James Baldwin,

James Frey, James Patterson and

Jack London (not necessarily in the

same order).

Bill Nighy sits exactly in the centre

of the row and faces the one who

likes Jhumpa Lahiri . Only one

person sits between Bryan Brown

and the one who likes Jhumpa Lahiri

. Bryan Brown faces one of the

immediate neighbours of the one who

likes Jackie Collins. Only two people

sit between Brad Renfro and the one

who likes Jackie Collins. Brad

Renfro faces the one who likes James

Frey. Bill Hader faces one of the

immediate neighbours of Brad

Garrett. Bill Hader does not like

James Frey. Bradley cooper is an

immediate neighbour of Brad Garrett.

The one who likes J.R.R. Tolkien is

not an immediate neighbour of Brad

Garrett. Bryan Dick is not an

immediate neighbour of Bill Hader

and faces the one who likes Jane

Austen. Bill Moselcy faces the one

who likes James Patterson. The one

who likes Jack London faces north.

Bill Hader does not face the one who

likes Jack London. The one who likes

J.K Rowling sits on the immediate

right of the person who likes James

Baldwin. Bryan Brown does not like

J.K Rowling.

16. Which of the following pairs facing eachother represent the people sitting third to person who sit at the extreme ends of two rows? (A) Bryan Brown, Bradley cooper (B) Bill Cosby, Bradley cooper (C) Bill Hader, Bill Nighy (D) Bill Cosby, Brad Pitt (E) Bill Moselcy, Brad Pitt 17. If the position of the persons sitting at the corners are interchanged with the person facing them then who sits third to the next of Bradley Cooper ? (A) Brad Pitt (B) Bill Hader (C) Brad Garrett (D) Bill Moselcy (E) Bill Cosby 18. Who amongst the following is the immediate neighbour of the one who faces Brad Garrett,who is the immediate neighbor of one who likes Jack London? (A) The one who likes Jackie Collins (B) The one who like James Frey (C) Brad Renfro (D) The one who likes Jhumpa Lahiri (E) Bryan Dick 19. Which of the following Novels does Brad Renfro like when all persons of the both rows are arranged in the alphabetical order starting from left side of row 2 to right side of row 1? (A) J.K Rowling (B) Jhumpa Lahiri (C) Jackie Collins (D) James Baldwin (E) James Patterson 20. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of second to the left of Bryan Dick? (A) Bryan Brown (B) Bill Moselcy (C) Bryan Dick (D) Brad Renfro (E) Bill Cosby Directions (Q. 21 – 25): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow: In Guntur village of Andhra Pradesh,

a mass marriage ceremony is

organized by a NGO founder Aniket

Kumar in which eight friends P, Q,

R, S, T, U, W and Z are participating

and they are sitting in circular shape

for wedding. They are not facing

towards the Centre. Some different

types of saree which are liked by

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eight friends are Banarsi, Silk,

Sambalpuri and Taant, and each

saree is liked by two friends, but not

necessarily in the same order. These

friends are from different districts of

Kerala, viz. Ernakulum, Idukki,

Kannur, Kollam, Kottayam,

Palakkad, Wayanad and Thrissur.

No two friends wearing the same

type of saree are sitting adjacent to

each other except those who is

wearing Sambalpuri saree. Friends,

who are wearing Taant saree, are

sitting opposite to each other. S is

neither from Thrissur nor from

Kannur. Friend who is from

Wayanad is sitting on the immediate

right of friend who is from Thrissur.

R, who is from Kollam, is wearing

Banarsi saree. She is sitting on the

immediate right of U, who is wearing

sambalpuri saree. U is not from

Kannur. Q, who is from Idukki, is

neither wearing Taant nor Banarsi or

Silk saree. Q is sitting opposite to T.

Only P, who is from Palakkad is

sitting between T, who is from

Wayanad and the friend who is from

Kottayam. Both the friends who is

wearing Silk saree are sitting

adjacent to friend who is wearing

Taant saree.

21. Who among the following is from

Ernakulum?

(A) W (B) U

(C) Z (D) Can’t say

(E) None of these

22. Z belongs to which district?

(A) Thrissur (B) Kottayam

(C) Kannur (D) Can’t say

(E) None of these 23. Who among the following friends wears Taant saree? (A) P and Q (B) P and R (C) W and Z (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these 24. Who among the following friend belongs to Thrissur if all of them are arranged in the alphabetical order in clockwise starting from P? (A) Z

(B) W (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Can't Say (E) None of these 25. Which of the following statements is false? (A) The person from Palakkad is sitting opposite to the person from Ernakulum. (B) The person from Idukki is sitting opposite to the person from Wayanad. (C) Z and W are sitting opposite to each other. (D) S belongs to Kannur district. (E) None of these Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digit numbers). Input: shiever 82 16 sailor 19 shares 61 91 scanty shouts 28 shorts Step I : 61 shiever 82 sailor 19 shares 61 scanty shouts 28 shorts 19 Step II : 61 91 shiever sailor shares 61 scanty shouts 28 shorts 28 19 Step III: 61 91 82 shiever sailor shares scanty shouts shorts 16 28 19 Step IV : 61 91 82 sailor shiever shares scanty shouts shorts 16 28 19 Step V : 61 91 82 sailor scanty shiever shares shouts shorts 16 28 19 Step VI: 61 91 82 sailor scanty shares shiever shouts shorts 16 28 19 Step VII: 61 91 82 sailor scanty shares shiever shorts shouts 16 28 19 Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: sovran source 18 63 soviet 36 sowars 15 81 souter sowans 51 26. Which of the following step would be step IV? (A) 51 81 63 source sovran sowars soviet souter sowans 15 36 18 (B) 51 81 63 source sovran soviet souter sowars sowans 15 36 18

(C) 51 81 63 source sovran soviet sowars souter sowans 15 36 18 (D) 51 81 63 source sovran soviet sowars sowans souter 15 36 18 (E) None of these 27. Which of the following would be at the 7

th position from the right end

in penultimate step? (A) sovran (B) souter (C) sowars (D) sowans (E) soviet 28. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘soviet’ and ‘18’ as they appear in the last step of the output? (A) Six (B) Eight (C) Four (D) Five (E) Seven 29. Which of the following

represents the position of ‘sowars’ in

the fourth step?

(A) Seventh from the left

(B) Sixth from the left

(C) Fifth from the right

(D) Sixth from the right

(E) Both (A) and (D)

30. Which step number would be the

following output?

51 81 63 source souter soviet

sovran sowars sowans 15 36 18

(A) Step IV (B) Step V

(C) Step VI (D) Step VII

(E) There will be no such step

Directions (Q. 31-37): Do as

directed in each of the following

questions.

31. The committee on sexual

discrimination in the workplace has

highlighted Mastero Company as a

chief offender. Of the twenty senior

executives in the firm, only one is a

woman. And of the forty junior

executives, only five are female.

Maestro could best defend itself

against the charges by showing that

(A) male and female executives at

the same level have the same

qualifications

(B) they pay the same salary to senior

men and senior women

(C) ten times more men than women

apply for jobs with the company

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(D) the work pressures and long

hours make jobs with the company

unattractive to married women

(E) all job applicants who were

rejected had fewer qualifications than

those accepted

32. Twenty percent of all energy consumed in the country is consumed by home appliances. If appliances that are twice as energy-efficient as those currently available are produced, this figure will eventually be reduced to about ten percent. The argument above requires which of the following assumptions? (A) Home-appliance usage would not increase along with the energy efficiency of the appliances. (B) It would not be expensive to produce home appliances that are energy-efficient. (C) Home-appliance manufacturers now have the technology to produce appliances that are twice as energy-efficient as those currently available. (D) The cost of energy to the consumer would rise with increases in the energy efficiency of home appliances. (E) None of these 33. In a recent report, the gross enrolment ratios at the primary level that is, the number of children enrolled in classes one to five as a proportion of all children aged 6 to 10, were shown to be very high for most states; in many cases they were above 100 percent! These figures are not worth anything, since they are based on the official enrolment data compiled from school records. They might as well stand for ‘gross exaggeration ratios’. Which one of the following options best supports the claim that the ratios are exaggerated? (A) The definition of gross enrolment ratio does not exclude, in its numerator, children below 6 years or above 10 years enrolled in classes one to five. (B) A school attendance study found that many children enrolled in the school records were not meeting a minimum attendance requirement of 80 percent. (C) A study estimated that close to 22 percent of children enrolled in the

class were below 6 years of age and still to start going to school. (D) Demographic surveys show shifts in the population profile which indicates that the number of children in the age group 6 to 10 years is declining. (E) None of these 34. Most of the private companies have decided against awarding annual increase in the salaries of their employees for the previous year due to current economic situations. Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the statement? (I) Majority of the employees may leave their job to protest against the decision. (II) These companies may announce hike in salaries next year. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I and II (D) Either I or II (E) Neither I nor II 35. Statement : Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Friday announced the setting up of a task force after failure of sportsperson in RIO olympics which will help to plan for the “effective participation” of Indian sportspersons in the next three Olympics, to be held in 2020, 2024 and 2028. He made the announcement at the monthly meeting of the Union Council of Ministers and said the structure of the task force would be in place in next few days. Which of the following is/are not in line in contrast with the given statement? I. The task force will prepare an overall strategy for facilities, training, selection procedures and other related matters. II. The task force will comprise of members who are in-house experts as well as those from outside. III. Poor infrastructure and training facilities for athletes and political interference in sports have been flagged as reasons for the poor performance in current year. (A) All except II (B) Only II (C) All except I (D) All of the above (E) None of these

36. Statement: A five-member committee has recommended that the government reinstate detention of students beyond Class V and also set up an all-India cadre of educational services on the lines of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) in its report on the new education policy. The committee has written strongly in favour of remedial classes for such students during holidays and after school hours. They will be given three attempts to clear the examination in the same year. Which of the following can be postulated from the given information? (A) Foreign universities are allowed to set up campuses in India under a strict regulatory framework and thus quality of education will improve in the country. (B) Under this new education policy, fewer students will move to higher classes as compared to earlier. (C) The quality audit of all higher education institutions, both private and public, leads to improving the literacy rate of the country. (D) There will be strong focus on value education. (E) None of these. 37. Statement: Reliance Jio SIM is now said to be available for purchase by anyone with a 4G phone. Multiple users on Twitter are reporting that they’ve been able to purchase a Reliance Jio SIM with their non-Lyf/ Samsung/ LG phone, though others claim that the Reliance Digital officials are unaware of this new offer. It has emerged that Reliance Jio has opened its Jio Preview offer to more Samsung smartphones and selected LG smartphones, which means owners of these smartphones can walk in to the nearest Reliance Digital or Xpress Mini Store to get a new Jio SIM with 3 months of unlimited data, voice calling, and SMS, as well as access to Jio apps and services like Jio on Demand. Which of the following can be

inferred from the given statement?

(An inference is something that is not

directly stated but can be inferred

from the given information)

I. These changes would improve the

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economics of building up internet

services.

II. Reliance Jio is enhancing its cost

base in mobile infrastructure.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C)Either I or II

(D) Neither I nor II

(E) Both I and II

Directions (Q. 38 – 40): In each of the following questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 38. Statements : All papers are clips. Some clips are boards. Some boards are lanes. All lanes are roads. Conclusions : I. Only roads are boards. II. Some lanes are clips. III. Some boards being papers is a possibility. IV. All roads are clips. (A) I and II (B) Only III (C) I, II and III (D) II, I and IV (E) None of these 39. Statements : Some pencils are kites. Some kites are desks. All desks are jungles. All jungles are mountains. Conclusions : I. All mountains are not pencils. II. Some jungles are definitely pencils. III. Some mountains are not desks. IV. 20% jungles are kites. (A) I and III (B) I, II and III (C) Only IV (D) II, III and IV (E) None of these 40. Statement : All stones are hammers. No hammer is ring. Some rings are doors.

All doors are windows. Conclusions: I. At least some windows are stones. II. At most windows are rings. III. Some hammers are stones. IV. All rings being stones is a possibility. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Only I and IV (D) Only I or III (E) Only III and II Directions (Q. 41-45): Study the information given below and answer the given questions. Nine people Duplessis, Devilliers, David warner, Dinesh kartik, Dhoni, Dhawan, Duminy, De-kock and Dravid stay in a building, but not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor. All of them own one car each, and each car is of a different brand, ie Renault, Hyundai, Audi, BMW, Volkswagen, Toyota, Lamborghini, Fiat and Ford, but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 9. De-kock owns a BMW-car and stayed on an even-numbered floor. Duplessis stays on any even-numbered floor below the floor on which De-kock stays. The one who owns an Fiat- car stays on the fourth floor. Dhoni stays on the second floor and owns a Audi- car. The one who owns a Ford-car stays on the third floor. Duplessis does not own a Toyota car. There are two floors between the floors on which the people owning the Lamborghini and the BMW- car. David warner owns a Hyundai- car. There are three floors between the floors on which David warner and Duminy stay. Dinesh kartik stays on a floor immediately above Dravid’s floor. There is one floor between the floors on which Dhawan and Duminy stay. Dhawan does not own the Ford car. The one who owns the Renault car stays on the topmost floor. Dhawan does not stay on the ground floor. 41. If Dhoni is related to Fiat, Dinesh kartik is related to Volkswagen then

in the same way Which of the following is related to Duplessis? (A) Toyota (B) BMW (C) Lamborghini (D) Renault (E) None of these 42. If all the persons are arranged in the alphabetical order from 1st floor to 9th floor then who owns the Lamborghini car ? (A) Dinesh Kartik (B) Dhawan (C) Dhoni (D) Dravid (E) None of these 43. Duplessis owns a car of which of the following Brand? (A) Fiat (B) Ford (C) Volkswagen (D) Renault (E) None of these 44. Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which De-kock stays and the floor on which Duplessis stays? (A) Devilliers (B) Duminy (C) David warner (D) Dhawan (E) None of these 45. How many floors are there between the floor on which Dravid stays and the floor on which David warner stays? (A) One (B) Two (C) None (D) Three (E) More than three Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. UEFA Euro 2016 is being organized by France. Different teams are participating in the championship. Seven teams which are participating are – Spain, Slovakia, Sweden, France, Romania, Russia and Portugal. They will be playing there matches at different places, namely Bordeaux, Lens, Lille, Lyon, Marseille, Nice and Paris, but not necessarily in the same order, on different days of the week, starting from Monday. • Spain will be playing at Lens, but neither on Friday nor on Monday.

• The host country will be playing on

Thursday at Lyon.

• There is a gap of one day between

Spain and France match.

• Russia will be playing the match before Portugal but after Romania at

Marseille on Wednesday.

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• Portugal will be playing on the last

day of the week.

• Slovakia will be playing at Paris.

• No match will be played at Bordeaux on Monday.

• The match at Nice will be played on

the last day of the week.

• The match at Lille will be played on Tuesday.

• No match will be played at Paris on Tuesday and Friday.

46. Slovakia will be playing the match on which day of the week? (A) Friday (B) Tuesday

(C) Saturday (D) Wednesday (E) Monday 47. Which team will be playing the match between Thursday and Saturday? (A) Portugal (B) Sweden (C) France (D) Romania (E) Spain 48. Which of the following combinations is true? (A) France – Thursday - Lyon (B) Romania – Wednesday - Bordeaux (C) Portugal – Saturday - Nice (D) Sweden – Monday - Lens

(E) Slovakia – Friday – Lille 49. If the venue of the team France and Slovakia are interchanged, which team will be playing in Lille? (A) Slovakia (B) France (C) Romania (D) Russia (E) Portugal 50. Which of the following combinations is true? (A) Slovakia-Tuesday (B) Russia-Sunday (C) Romania-Thursday (D) Slovakia-Monday (E) None of these

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q. 51-60): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

PASSAGE Desertification sounds too triflinga problem in the world plagued by terrorism, nuclear proliferation, ethnic conflicts, AIDS and other monstrosities, but this may prove to be a dangerous oversight as the phenomenon is fast engulfing vast swathes of land across the continents, affecting about a billion people. June 17, for the past decade, is being commemorated as the World Day to Combat Desertification by the United Nations. Unfortunately, the day hardly receives any attention in India which faces a serious threat of desertification, according to the UNDP report. The report says about 12 per cent of India, stretching from the arid northwest to a broad semiarid zone from Punjab in the northwest to Tamil Nadu in the south, faces the grave possibility of desertification. The problem is assuming alarming proportions, with the United Nation’s Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) warning that one-fifth of the global population stands to bear the impact of desertification spreading its tentacles across Asia, Africa, the Americas and even parts of southern Europe. The FAO and other UN agencies estimate that 8000 to 10000 square kilometres of desert is created every year in Central Asia alone, engulfing areas where once cattle grazed and lakes existed. A study, done by the Arid Forest Research Institute of India (AFRI), on the desertification in Rajasthan, reveals that the factors responsible for the phenomenon are climatic, biotic and socio-economic. The factors include high temperatures, low rainfall, high wind velocity, overgrazing, intensive cultivation, forest removal for mining and also poverty, traditions and illiteracy of the people of the region. VinodSahni, a research assistant with the AFRI, says: “The main culprit is man. The rampant deforestation and irrational cultivation patterns are intensifying the onslaught of desertification. ”The views are shared by the FAO, which adds that though global warming is to be blamed, the prime responsibility remains with the mankind which is indulging into the over-exploitation of the natural resources. Nearly two billion hectares of land, an area about the combined size of Canada and the US, is affected worldwide by human-induced degradation of soils costing about $40 billion a year and affecting one billion people, says the UNDP. In neighbouring China, sand dunes have advanced to within 100 km of the capital Beijing, forcing the Chinese to launch massive forestation measures. The darker side of the problem is that once desertification has occurred, it is almost an irreversible process. It is high time the world community devoted its attention to a burgeoning menace which, if left unaddressed, would wreak a havoc. After all, we have only one planet to live. 51. Why does desertification sound to be a trivial problem in comparison to other problems mentioned at the beginning of the passage? (A) because unlike other problems desertification is an area-specific issue (B) because there is no consensus among the countries towards combating desertification (C) because it is a problem created by people themselves (D) because it is a novel phenomenon as compared to other problems mentioned (E) None of these

52. Indian should take urgent steps to combat desertification because

(A) China has already taken such measures in the past.

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(B) it is the country with largest desert-prone areas in the world.

(C) a vast stretch of the country is desert-prone.

(D) it can place an example before the world in this regard.

(E) None of these

53. As per the passage, desertification is a grave threat because (A) it is fast turning 'man's land' into 'no man's land'. (B) there is no short-term solution for this problem. (C) it is a malady without any cure. (D) little research has been carried out in this field to gauge its impact. (E) None of these 54. Which of the following is/are the contribution(s) the common man can make in checking desertification? (i) Indulge in plantation and forest conservation activities. (ii) Settle in non-green areas (iii) Take part in anti-industrialisation movement (iv) Adopt natural and logical way of farming (A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (iii) and (iv) (D) Only (i) and (iv) (E) All of the above 55. Which of the following is 'true' in the context of the passage? (A) Desertification has caught little attention of mankind till date. (B) India does not commemorate the World Day to Combat Desertification on 17th of June every year. (C) According to the FAO, we are witnessing continuous expansion of marshy lands across the globe. (D) Mankind is solely responsible for the problem of desertification. (E) None of these 56. Which of the following is 'false' in the context of the passage? (A) India has not paid serious attention to the menace of desertification so far. (B) According to the FAO, the expansion of arid areas has become a continuous process in the world. (C) Mankind is mainly responsible for the problem of desertification. (D) Central Asia is the least affected by the problem of desertification. (E) None of these 57. What does the author mean when he says “Once desertification has occurred, it is almost an irreversible process”? (A) When green pastures become deserts it is almost impossible to convert them into their old form again. (B) Nothing can improve the condition of deserts if earlypreventive measures is not taken. (C) There is no mechanism to check the pace of desertification at present. (D) Desertification is a process that goes on without any hindrance. (E) None of these 58. What point does the author want to highlight through this passage? (A) Desertification can be checked only if it is seen as a global problem. (B) Desertification threatens the survival of mankind. (C) Desertification can be reversed through changed human behaviour. (D) India will pay heavy price for ignoring the problem of desertification like China. (E) None of these 59. Choose the word which is the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. MENACE (A) intensity (B) danger (C) pressure (D) tragedy (E) extinction 60. Choose the word which is the opposite in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage. RAMPANT (A) critical (B) unwarranted (C) restrained (D) unintended (E) credible Directions (Q. 61 – 70): Read the following passage carefully and certain words in the passage are printed in bold letters to help you locate them easily while answering some of these questions.

PASSAGE A star’s life cycle is inversely determined by its mass. A star’s mass is determined by the amount of matter that is available in its nebula, the giant cloud of gas and dust from which it was born. Over time, the hydrogen gas in the nebula is pulled together by gravity and it begins to spin. As the gas spins faster, it heats up and becomes as a protostar. Eventually the temperature reaches 15,000,000 degrees and nuclear fusion occurs in the cloud’s core. The cloud begins to glow

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brightly, contracts a little, and becomes stable. It is now a main sequence star and will remain in this stage, shining for millions to billions of years to come. This is the stage our Sun is at right now. As the main sequence star glows, hydrogen in its core is converted into helium by nuclear fusion. When the hydrogen supply in the core begins to run out, and the star is no longer generating heat by nuclear fusion, the core becomes unstable and contracts. The outer shell of the star, which is still mostly hydrogen, starts to expand. As it expands, it cools and glows red. The star has now reached the red giant phase. It is red because it is cooler than it was in the main sequence star stage and it is a giant because the outer shell has expanded outward. In the core of the red giant, helium fuses into carbon. All stars evolve the same way up to the red giant phase. For low-mass stars, after the helium has fused into carbon, the core collapses again. As the core collapses, the outer layers of the star are expelled. A planetary nebula is formed by the outer layers. The core remains as a white dwarf and eventually cools to become a black dwarf. Like low-mass stars, high-mass stars are born in nebulae and evolve and live in the Main Sequence. However, their life cycles start to differ after the red giant phase. A massive star will undergo a supernova explosion. If the remnant of the explosion is 1.4 to about 3 times as massive as our Sun, it will become a neutron star. The core of a massive star that has more than roughly 3 times the mass of our Sun after the explosion will do something quite different. The force of gravity overcomes the nuclear forces which keep protons and neutrons from combining. The core is thus swallowed by its own gravity. It has now become a black hole which readily attracts any matter and energy that comes near it. What happens between the red giant phase and the supernova explosion is described below. Once stars that are 5 times or more massive than our Sun reach the red giant phase, their core temperature increases as carbon atoms are formed from the fusion of helium atoms. Gravity continues to pull carbon atoms together as the temperature increases and additional fusion processes proceed, forming oxygen, nitrogen, and eventually iron. When the core contains essentially just iron, fusion in the core ceases. This is because iron is the most compact and stable of all the elements. It takes more energy to break up the iron nucleus than that of any other element. Creating heavier elements through fusing of iron thus requires an input of energy rather than the release of energy. Since energy is no longer being radiated from the core, in less than a second, the star begins the final phase of gravitational collapse. The core temperature rises to over 100 billion degrees as the iron atoms are crushed together. The repulsive force between the nuclei overcomes the force of gravity, and the core recoils out from the heart of the star in a shock wave, which we see as a supernova explosion. As the shock encounters material in the star’s outer layers, the material is heated, fusing to form new elements and radioactive isotopes. While many of the more common elements are made through nuclear fusion in the cores of stars, it takes the unstable conditions of the supernova explosion to form many of the heavier elements. The shock wave propels this material out into space. The material that is exploded away from the star is now known as a supernova remnant. The hot material, the radioactive isotopes, as well as the leftover core of the exploded star, produce X-rays and gamma-rays. 61. According to the passage, a supernova….. A. ends up being a black dwarf. B. ends up being a neutron star. C. ends up being a black hole. (A) A or B (B) A, B and C (C) A or B or C (D) B or C (E) None of (A), (B) and (C) 62. It can be deduced from the passage that after the giant molecular cloud, a Black Hole has….. (A) Three clearly defined stages including the supernova in its evolution. (B) Four clearly defined stages including the supernova in its evolution. (C) Five clearly defined stages including the supernova in its evolution. (D) Six clearly defined stages including the supernova in its evolution. (E) None of these 63. The passage supports all these inferences EXCEPT: A. At about a 100 billion Celsius, iron molecules are fused into heavier elements. B. The larger a star’s mass, the shorter its life cycle. C. Main sequence stars are sustained by nuclear fission for millions or billions of years. D. The sun would most likely end up as black dwarf. (A) A and B (B) C and D (C) A and C (D) B, C, and D (E) B and D 64. Which of the following best describes the explosion of a supernova?

(A) A massive star may run out of fuel, ceasing to generate fusion energy in its core, and collapsing inward under the force

of its own gravity to form a neutron star or a black hole.

(B) A massive star may run out of fuel, it may undergo sudden gravitational collapse into a neutron star or black hole,

releasing energy that heats and expels that star’s outer layers.

(C) After the core of an aging massive star ceases to generate energy from unclear fusion, it may undergo sudden

gravitational collapse into a neutron star or black hole.

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(D) After the core of an aging star may undergo sudden gravitational collapse releasing gravitational potential energy that

heats and expels the star’s outer layers.

(E) None of these

65. The author expects which of the following to be his/ her readers?

(A) Astronomy professors (B) Training astrophysicists (C) Secondary school students

(D) Stellar scientists (E) veteran scientists

66. The writer does not make use of which of the following in the construction of this essay? (A) Specific examples. (B) Definitions of specific vocabulary. (C) Comparison of different phenomena. (D) Explanation of physical laws. (E) All the above options have been used 67. The style of expression adopted by the writer can be best describes as (A) Factual and elucidative (B) Speculative and instructional (C) Revelatory and educative (D) Scientific and edifying (E) Sarcastic and ironic Directions (Q. 68-69): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 68. EXPELLED (A) Allow (B) Absorb (C) Take in (D) Imbibe (E) Evacuate 69. REMNANT (A) Whole (B) Vestige (C) Base (D) Need (E) Unabridged 70. Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. REPULSIVE (A) Abhorrent (B) Hateful (C) Abominable (D) Agreeable (E) Vile Directions (Q. 71 – 75): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.) 71. The auditions for India’s first ever (A)/ reality based pop band hunt, is (B)/ going on in full swing, (C)/ with numerous entries coming in. (D)/ No error (E) 72. To curbing the spread of violence, (A)/ authorities brought under curfew (B)/ more areas in the State, where (C)/ three youths were killed. (D)/ No error (E) 73. Demand for diesel cars, which has (A)/ been on the rise for the last few years, (B)/ may dip as the government is increasing the price (C)/ of the fuel, bringing it closer to that of petrol. (D)/ No error (E) 74. Not only was the actress over the Moon (A)/ as winning an award, but was (B)/ also deeply touched by the support (C)/ she got from the industry. (D)/ No error (E) 75. The protestors went on a rampaging (A)/ and set ablaze three shops (B)/ resulting in injuries to 30 people (C)/ including women and children. (D)/ No error (E) Directions (Q. 76- 80): The Following questions have two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 76. The poor quality of water in Ramanagaram district was _________after samples from all 1,180 villages in the _________was tested recently. (A) supplied; city (B) rejected; locality (C) tested; state (D) sampled; laboratory (E) reinforced; district 77. _________after Darwin put forth his theory of evolution, his cousin Sir Francis Galton began to ________the implications. (A) Soon; bring down (B) Only; take up (C) Not; write down (D) Shortly; draw out (E) Nearly; think about 78. Albert Murray, who died in 2013 at the age of 97, was a/an _________novelist, a kind of modern-day oral philosopher

and the _________of a sprawling, idiosyncratic, and consistently astonishing body of literary criticism.

(A) renowned; creater (B) accomplished; writer (C) critical; critic

(D) acknowledged; author (E) established; editor

79. Barack Obama who _________the Nobel peace prize, is now the President at war longer than any of his _________.

(A) got; presidents (B) has; precedents (C) received; predecessors

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(D) bears; ancestors (E) adorned; counterparts

80. The talking man was the _________of the British artist Ed Atkins, who purchased the avatar for five hundred dollars

from a website called Turbosquid and brought it to life using the software program faceshift, which _________the

movements of facial expressions.

(A) invention; copies (B) creation; maps (C) discovery; traps

(D) idea; intimate (E) concept; replicate

Directions (Q. 81-85): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (H) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) The days of whims and fads and centralisation of all powers in a few hands are nearly gone. (B) This would also result in the creation of a congenial atmosphere where the usual tactics and tricks like spying would become a thing of the past. (C) It makes the job more interesting and increases their motivation and sense of involvement. (D) In order to keep pace with the quality and culture of a growing economy, we must realise that a new look at the employer-employee relationship is the crying need of the hour. (E) Employer-employee relationships can improve a lot and the employees work better if they are ‘empowered’. (F) The policy of hiring and firing an employee on one pretext or the other should be thrown into the nearest drain. (G) Instead, selection, promotion and other benefits should go to those who show merit, skill and aptitude for the job. (H) One of the benefits of a well-trained and committed work-force can be the projection of the right kind of image of the organisation. 81. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) G 82. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (A) E (B) G (C) C (D) D (E) F 83. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (A) A (B) G (C) E (D) D (E) F 84. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (A) H (B) B (C) G (D) D (E) E 85. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (last) sentence after rearrangement? (A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E (E) F Directions (Q. 86- 90): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

PASSAGE Caution prevails ahead of the ….86…. of U.S. elections, which will …..87…. filtering starting early Wednesday India time, and on renewed doubts .…88.... Greece’s political ability to push through severe fiscal ….89….. Software services exporters gain after the rupee falls to a more than 1-1/2 month low against the dollar. Infosys (INFY.NS) gains 1 percent. Cipla gains 2.8 percent, having hit earlier a record high , after posting a 61.8 percent surge in July-September ….90…. 86. (A) outcome (B) cause (C) whole (D) circumstances (E) issue 87. (A) end (B) start (D) process (D) depart (E) exercise 88. (A) under (B) over (C) again (D) recently (E) after 89. (A) scheme (B) reforms (C) agenda (D) programme (E) schedule 90. (A) earnings (B) spending (C) providing (D) distributing (E) month

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

91. Five persons entered the lift on the ground floor of an 8-floor apartment. Assuming that each one of them independently and with equal probability can leave the lift at any floor beginning with the first. What is the probability that all five persons are leaving the lift at different floors?

(A) (B) C57

(C) (D) C55

(E) None of these 92. There are two vessels containing the mixture of milk and water. In the first vessel the water is 2/3 of the milk and in the second vessel water is just 40% of the milk. In what ratio these are required to mix to make 24 litre mixture in which the ratio of water is to milk is 1 : 2 ?

(A) 7 : 5 (B) 4 : 7 (C) 7 : 4 (D) 5 : 7 (E) None of these 93. A car mechanic purchased four old cars for Rs. 1 lakh. He spent total 2 lakh in the maintenance and repairing of these four cars. What is the average sale price of the rest three cars to get 50% total profit if he has already sold one of the four cars at Rs. 1.2 lakh ?

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(A) 1.5 lakh (B) 1.1 lakh (C) 1.2 lakh (D) 1.65 lakh (E) None of these 94. 19 person went to a hotel for a combined dinner party. 13 of them spent Rs. 79 each on their dinner and the rest spent Rs. 4 more than the average expenditure of all the 19. What was total money (in Rs) spent by them?(approximate) (A) 1628.4 (B) 1534 (C) 1492 (D) 1496 (E) 1536.07 95. A can complete a work in 10 days, B can complete the same work in 20 days and C in 40 days. A starts working on the first day, B works for second day and C works for third day and so on. If they continued working in the same way, in how many days will the work be completed ? (A) 15 days (B) 16. 5 days (C) 15.5 days (D) 17 days (E) None of these Directions (Q. 96-100): Find the wrong one in the following number series. 96. 3553, 3742, 3889, 3994, 4069, 4078 (A) 4069 (B) 3742 (C) 3553 (D) 3889 (E) None of these 97. 2, 16, 432, 27649, 3456000 (A) 2 (B) 16 (C) 432 (D) 27649 (E) 3456000 98. 39, 38, 72, 219, 872 (A) 39 (B) 38 (C) 72 (D) 219 (E) 472 99. 1706, 1202, 866, 656, 541 (A) 1706 (B) 1202 (C) 866 (D) 656 (E) 541 100. 56, 75, 105, 183.75, 367.5 (A) 56 (B) 75 (C) 105 (D) 183.75 (E) 367.5 101. A bag contains 4 red and 3 black balls. A second bag contains 2 red and 4 black balls. One bag is selected at random. From the selected bag, one ball is drawn. Find the probability that the ball drawn is red. (A) 23/42 (B) 19/42 (C) 7/32 (D) 16/39 (E) None of these

102. A box contains two red, three green and four blue balls. In how many ways can three balls be drawn from the box if atleast one green ball is to be included in the draw ? (A) 23 (B) 64 (C) 46 (D) 56 (E) None of these 103. Hari Lal and Hari Prasad have equal amounts. Hari Lal invested all his amount at 10% compounded annually for 2 years and Hari Prasad invested 1/4 at 10% compound interest (annually) and rest at r% per annum at simple interest for the same 2 years period. The amount received by both at the end of 2 year is same. What is the value of r ? (A) 14% (B) 12.5% (C) 10.5% (D) 11% (E) None of these 104. During our campaign against child labour we have found that in three glass making factories A, B and C there were total 33 children aged below 18 were involved. The ratio of boys to girls in A, B and C was 4 : 3, 3 : 2 and 5 : 4 respectively. If the no. of girls working in the factories B and C be equal then find the no. of girls working in factory A ? (A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 6 (E) None of these 105. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 30 hours while B can fill it in 45 hours. Pipe A and B are opened and closed alternatively i.e., first pipe A is opened, then B, again A and then B and so on for 1 hour each time without any time lapse. In how many hours the tank will be filled if it was empty, initially ? (A) 36 (B) 54 (C) 48 (D) 60 (E) None of these Directions (Q. 106-110): Each question is followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all the three statement given and decide whether any information provided in the statements is redundant and can be dispensed

with while answering the questions 106. What will be the sum of the ages of father and the son after five years? I. Father’s present age is twice son’s present age. II. After ten years the ratio of father’s age to the son’s age will become 12 : 7. III. Five years ago the difference between the father’s age and son’s age was equal to the son’s present age. (A) I or II only (B) II or III only (C) I or III only (D) III only (E) I or II or III only 107. What will be the difference between share of P and share of Q in the profit earned by P, Q & R together? I. P, Q & R invested total amount of Rs. 25,000 for a period of two years. II. The profit earned at the end of two years is 30% III. The amount invested by Q is equal to the amount invested by P & R together. (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) All I, II & III are required to answer the question (E) Question cannot be answered even with the information given in all three statements. 108. What is the total compound interest earned at the end of three years? I. Simple interest earned on that amount at the same rate and for the same period is Rs. 4500. II. The rate of interest is 10 p.c.p.a. III. Compound interest for three years is more than the simple interest for that period by Rs. 465. (A) Only I or II (B) Only II (C) Only I or only III (D) only III (E) only I or only II or only III 109. At what time will the train reach city ‘X’ from city ‘Y’? I. The train crosses another train running at 75% of its speed and of

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equal length of 200 metres and running in opposite direction in 15 secs. II. The train leaves city ‘Y’ at 7.15 a.m. for city ‘X’, situated at a distance of 560 kms. III. The 200 metre long train crosses a signal pole in 10 secs. (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) either I or III (E) All I, II and III are required to answer the question. 110. What will be the cost of fencing a circular plot? (π=22/7) I. Area of the plot is 616 square metres. II. Cost of fencing a rectangular plot whose perimeter is 120 metres is Rs. 780. III. Area of a square plot with side equal to the radius of the circular plot is 196 sq metres. (A) I only (B) III only (C) I or III only (D) II only (E) Question cannot the answered even with information in all three statements. 111. Soniya and Priyanka started from Amethi and Bellari for Bellari and Amethi respectively , which are 645 km apart. They meet after 15 hours. After their meeting, Sonia increased her speed by 3 km/h and Priyanka reduced her speed by 3 km/h, they arrived at Bellari and Amethi

respectively at the same time. What is their initial speeds ? (A) 24 km/h and 30 km/h (B) 25 km/h and 18 km/h (C) 18 km/h and 21 km/h (D) 20 km/h and 23 km/h (E) None of these 112. A large solid sphere of diameter 15 m is melted and recast into several small spheres of diameter 3 m. What is the percentage increase in the surface area of the smaller spheres over that of the large sphere ? (A) 200% (B) 400% (C) 500% (D) Can’t be determined (E) None of these 113. A man row 9 kmph in still water and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is (in km/hr)

(A) 3 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 4½ (E) None of these 114. In IBT Institute, 60% of the students are boys. In a Sunday all India mock test, 80% of the girls scored more than 40 marks (out of a maximum possible 150 marks). If 60% of the total students scored more than 40 marks in the same test, find the fraction of the boys who scored 40 marks or less ? (A) 7/15 (B) 4/15

(C) 7/13 (D) 1/15 (E) None of these 115. Sapna borrowed a certain sum of money from Kavita under the following repayment scheme based on simple interest. 8% p.a. for the initial 2 years, 9.5% p.a. for the next 4 years, 11% p.a. for the next 2 years, 12% p.a. after the 8 years. Find the amount which a sum of Rs. 9,000 taken for 12 years becomes at the end of 12 years ? (A) 20160 (B) 22350 (C) 23470 (D) 24567 (E) None of these Directions (Q. 116-120): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer (A) if x > y (B) if x ≥ y (C) if x < y (D) if x ≤ y (E) if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

116. I. x² – 8√ x + 45 = 0

II. y² – √ y – 24 = 0

117. I. x – √ x + 24 = 0

II. y – 5√ y + 12 = 0 118. I. 12x² – 17x + 6 = 0 II. 20y² – 31y + 12 = 0 119. I. 12x² – 16x + 5 = 0 II. 18y² – 45y + 25 = 0 120. I. x² – 16x + 63 = 0 II. y² – 2y – 35 = 0

Directions (Q. 121 – 125): Given below is the number of viewers of 4 different channels in 6 different districts. Read the following table carefully and answer the following questions:

121. What is the difference between average number of viewers of channel X and average

number of viewers of channel Z in all districts together? (A) 23 (B) 15 (C) 11 (D) 19

(E) None of these 122. Number of viewers of channels X in districts P,R and T together is approximately what

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percent of number of viewers of channel W in districts Q,S and U together? (A) 85 (B) 89 (C) 93 (D) 81 (E) 77 123. Number of viewers of Channel Y in district Q,S,T together is what times of viewer of channel Z in district R (round off to 2 decimal places)?

(A) 1.82 (B) 1.63 (C) 1.59 (D) 1.22 (E) 1.53 124. Total number of viewers of channel W,X and Z together in district Q are how much more or less then total number of viewers of district R in all district together? (A) 459 more (B) 455 more (C) 459 less (D) 455 less (E) None of these

125. If 84% people of district S and 40% of district P are educated, then uneducated people of district P is approximately what times of educated people of district S? (A) 0.81 (B) 0.85 (C) 0.89 (D) 0.77 (E) 0.95

Directions(Q. 126-130): Given below is the graph showing the profit(in crore) of two mobile manufacturing

companies from 2010 to 2015 . The table shows the percentage distribution of the profit among the 4 quarter of the

years. Study these graphs carefully and answer the following questions:

126. Total profit earned by

Xiaomi in Ist quarter of 2010 and

the same of 2012 together is

approximately what percent more

or less than the profit earned by

Gionee in IIIrd quarter of 2013

and the same of 2015?

(A) 21% (B) 23%

(C) 27% (D) 29%

(E) 32%

127. What is the difference

between profit earned by both

companies together in Ist and III

rd

quarter of 2012 and the profit

earned by both companies

together in IInd

and IVth Quarter of

2014?

(A) 52.8 Cr (B) 51.8 Cr

(C) 54.8 Cr (D) 53.8 Cr

(E) None of these

128. Find the difference between

the average profit of Xiaomi and

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average profit of Gionee over the

years?

(A) 22.5 Cr (B) 11.5 Cr

(C) 12.1 Cr (D) 12.5 Cr

(E) None of these

129. Find the average profit

earned in IInd

quarter by Gionee

over the years.

(A) 489350000 Rs

(B) 48935000 Rs

(C) 416250000 Rs

(D) 42435000 Rs

(E) None of these

130. If the overall profit

percentage of Xiaomi is 16%, in

2011 while the ratio of income of

Xiaomi in 2011 and income of

Gionee in the same year is 29 : 32,

then find the approximate overall

profit percentage of Gionee in

2011. (Profit is calculated on

expenditure, expenditure =

income - profit)

(A) 11% (B) 14%

(C) 15% (D) 16%

(E) 18%

Directions (Q. 131 – 135): Read the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below:

Production of tea and coffee by a factory in different years

131. What was approximate percentage increase in quantity of exported tea in 2009 in comparison to previous year? (A) 42 (B) 37 (C) 35 (D) 45 (E) 49 132. What is the average quantity of exported coffee in 2008 and 2010 together?(in kg) (A) 975 (B) 965 (C) 935 (D) 948 (E) None of these

133. The quantity of exported coffee in 2007 is approximately what percent of quantity of exported tea in the same year? (A) 57 (B) 53 (C) 66 (D) 70 (E) 60 134. What is the difference between total quantity of exported tea in 2007 and 2008 and total quantity of exported coffee in both the same years? (A) 408 (B) 412

(C) 416 (D) 422 (E) None of these 135. What is the total quantity of exported coffee in all the years?(in kg). (A) 9330 (B) 9545 (C) 9214 (D) 9528 (E) None of these Directions (Q. 136 – 140): Study the information carefully to answer the question that follow- In a sport event there are 5 sports viz. Polo, Volleyball, Boxing,

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Rowing and Basketball. There is a total number of 800 players in the sports event. The ratio between female and male players is 1 : 3 respectively. Twenty five percent of the total players are in Volleyball. There are 110 Rowing players. 10 percent of the total players are in Boxing. Polo players are double the number of Rowing players. Remaining players are in Basketball. 30 percent of Volleyball players are female. Half the female Volleyballers are equal to female rowing players. 10 percent of total polo players are equal to the number of female players in Boxing. There are equal numbers of female in Polo and Basketball.

136. Female players in polo is what percent less than male players in rowing? (A) 45% (B) 54% (C) 44% (D) 55% (E) None of these 137. Male players in polo ,volley and basket together is what percent of female players in polo, volley and rowing together?(round off to 2 decimal places) (A) 324.78% (B) 344.78% (C) 342.78% (D) 144.24% (E) None of these 138. What is the ratio of number of females in basket ball and rowing together to male player in polo and boxing together? (A) 117:37 (B) 29:84

(C) 28:97 (D) 24:73 (E) None of these 139. In which game the numbers of female players are minimum percent of the number of male players in the same game? (A) basketball (B) boxing (C) polo (D) rowing (E) None of these 140. If female player in basketball are increased by 75% and male player in the same are reduced by 50% then find the ratio of male to female players in basketball? (A) 73 : 77 (B) 1 : 7 (C) 77 : 73 (D) 55 : 73 (E) None of these

GENERAL AWARENESS 141. The BeiDou Navigation Satellite System, as an alternative to Global Positioning System (GPS) of the US, is being developed by

(A) Japan (B) India

(C) China (D) Russia

(E) None of these

142. The Indian unit of search giant Google Inc and which of the following Indian company have jointly launched ‘Internet Saathi’ program in Purulia district of West Bengal?

(A) HCL (B) Tata Trust (C) Wipro (D) TCS

(E) None of these

143. The World Day against Child Labour is celebrated each year on?

(A) 15 June (B) 10 June

(C) 12 June (D) 11 June

(E) None of these

144. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency(MIGA) is a part of the

(A) IMF

(B) World Bank

(C) United Nations (D) World Economic Forum

(E) None of these

145. Foreign Currency Non Resident Account can be opened in the form of?

(A) Current Account (B) Term deposit only

(C) Saving deposit only

(D) Recurring deposit

(E) None of these

146. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched which portal to curb illegal and unauthorized pooling of funds by unscrupulous firms?

(A) Chetavani (B) Sachet (C) Savdhan (D) Tez

(E) None of these

147. The Dr. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on western tip of the Island of Chorao along the Mandovi River in which state?

(A) Kerala

(B) Assam

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Goa

(E) None of these

148. The Union Government has set a Consumer Price Inflation (CPI) target of how many percents for the period from August 2016 to March 31, 2021 under monetary policy framework?

(A) 3% (B) 4 %

(C) 6.6% (D) 7.6%

(E) 5%

149. Who was the first Governor of RBI?

(A) P. C. Bhattacharya

(B) Benegal Rama Rau

(C) Osborne Smith

(D) James Braid Taylor (E) C.D.Deshmukh

150. Who has been re-elected for a 2nd term as the President of the Asian Development Bank (ADB),

which is beginning from November 2016?

(A) Haruhiko Kuroda

(B) Idris Haron

(C) Takehiko Nakao

(D) Hart Schafer (E) None of these

151. The 2016 Global Bamboo Summit will be hosted by which city of India?

(A) Bhopal (B) Indore

(C) Jaipur (D) Pune

(E) None of these

152. The securities that are purchased by banks with the intention to take advantage of price movement or interest movement are classified as: (A) Held till maturity

(B) Available for sale

(C) Held for trading

(D) Fluctuating securities

(E) None of these

153. The market for short term financial for short term financial assets / instruments,that are close substitutes of money, is called: (A) Money market (B) capital market (C) forex market (D) financial market (E) None of these

154. Under the marginal standing facility (MSF), the eligible entities can avail the facility, up to ______ per cent of their respective Net Demand and Time Liabilities

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(NDTL) outstanding at the end of the second preceding fortnight. (A) 1% (B) 2%

(C) 3% (D) 5%

(E) None of these

155. Non-Convertible Denominations with a min of ________ (face value) and in multiples of _______: (A) Rs. 1 lakh, Rs. 1 lakh

(B) Rs. 5 lakh. Rs. 1 lakh

(C) Rs. 5 lakh, Rs. 5 lakh

(D) Rs. 5 lakh, Rs. 10 lakh

(E) None of these

156. The Cabinet Committee on

Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved

four-laning of how many national

highways in Punjab, Odisha and

Maharashtra, at an investment of

nearly Rs 6,000 crore?

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 5

(E) 6

157. SEBI, a regulator of securities

market in India was established in the

year 1988, but was empowered with

statutory Powers in the form of Act

in the year ___________.

(A) 1990 (B) 1991

(C) 1992 (D) 1993

(E) None of these

158. The medium range surface-to-

air missile (MR-SAM) developed

jointly by India and which country

was successfully test-fired and during

the test, the missile was launched

from a mobile launcher in the

Integrated Test Range (ITR) at

Chandipur, Odisha?

(A) US (B) Israel

(C) Ukraine (D) Russia

(E) None of these

159. A private limited company should have a minimum of 2 members and a maximum of (A) 10 members (excluding employees and ex-employees) (B) 20 members (excluding employees and ex-employees) (C) 50 members (excluding employees and ex-employees) (D) Unlimited

(E) None of these

160. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) H R Khan has announced that

it will soon set up a committee to study the use of which technology?

(A) Rootchain (B) Whitechain

(C) Blockchain (D) Swingchain

(E) None of these

161. The amount invested by a single investor in the Commercial Paper(CP)should not be less than____

(A) Rs.5 lakh (B) Rs. 10 lakh

(C) Rs.15 lakh (D) Rs.25 lakh

(E) None of these

162. The ethically questionable practice of a salesperson misrepresenting or misleading an investor about the characteristics of a product or service is termed as

(A) Over-the-counter sale

(B) Misbehavior (C) Misselling

(D) Persuasion

(E) None of these

163. The depositories of India,Which have the mandate to help firms convert their physical shares or securities into dematerialized demat forms are regulated by

(A) RBI (B) FMC

(C) SEBI (D) NPCI (E) None of these

164. The Urban cooperative banks are controlled by two entities. One of them is the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the other is/are

(A) Union Finance Ministry

(B) State Govt (C) NABARD

(D) SIDBI

(E) None of these

165. As per the prevailing rules,

microfinance institution can lend to a

single borrower at_______

(A) Rs.25,000 (B) Rs. 50,000

(C) Rs.1 lakh (D) Rs. 2 lakh

(E) None of these

166. The lending by the scheduled commercial banks, on a fortnightly average basis, should not exceed what percent of their owned fund (paid-up capital and reserves)?

(A) 20% (B) 15%

(C) 50% (D) 25%

(E) None of these

167. Which of the following pairs of international organizations and their headquarters is NOT matched correctly?

(A) Bank of International Settlements (BIS)- Basel Switzerland

(B) OECD –Paris, France

(C) Swift – La Hulpe,Belgium

(D) WTO-Geneva,Switzerland

(E) None of these

168. Even if you do not have any of the documents listed by the govt to show your ‘proof of identity’ you can open a bank account with a bank named

(A) Micro account (B) BSBDA

(C) No frills account (D) Small account (E) None of these

169. Which Bank has launched cheaper home loan schemes for defense and other government employees with installment tenure extending up to 75 years of age?

(A) Axis Bank

(B) ICICI Bank

(C) SBI Bank

(D) NABARD Bank

(E) IDBI Bank

170. Turkey has launched a major military operation “Euphrates Shield” against the Islamic State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS) to liberate the strategic Syrian city of Jarablus on the border with Turkey. What is the currency of the Turkey?

(A) Won (B) Yen

(C) Lira (D) Kyat (E) None of these

171. Name the former local and

regional affairs minister, has been

appointed as the new Prime Minister

of Tunisia by the Tunisia’s President

Beji Caid Essebsi.

(A) Mehdi Jomaa

(B) Zine El Abidine Ben Ali

(C) Youssef Chahed

(D) Habib Essid

(E) None of these

172. Some major banks and financial institutions in various Western countries were to wind up their business and/or declare themselves inn financial problems during last few years .This trend is technically known as?

(A) Global Slowdown

(B) Devaluation

(C) Deformation

(D) Political backdrop

(E) None of these

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173. A Transaction in which the real beneficiary is not the one in whose name a property has been purchased is defined as (A) Fraud

(B) Benami (C) Proprietary

(D) Insider Trading

(E) None of these

174. “Multi-currency basket” means?

(A) A number of international

currencies to which the value of

SDRs is linked

(B) Number of major international

currencies to which the external

value of the Indian rupee is linked

(C) The name given to a group of

West European currencies.

(D) An inflationary situation where

the external forces are the primary

contributing factors

(E) None of these

175. The Union Information and

Broadcasting ministry has framed a

New Print Media Advertisement

Policy for DAVP. What is the full

form of DAVP?

(A) Directorate of Audio Visual

Publicity

(B) Directorate of Advertising and

Visual Publicity

(C) Department of Audio-Visual

Publicity

(D) Doctrinal Audio-Visual Program

(E) None of these

176. The SBI and MasterCard have

announced their partnership with

which company for distribution of its

prepaid forex card?

(A) Elite (B) Visa

(C) Centrum (D) Smarttech

(E) None of these

177. Which of the following ministry has launched an e-marketplace portal for online purchase of goods and services by various central government ministries and departments?

(A) Union Consumer Affairs Ministry

(B) Union Commerce Ministry

(C) Union Women and Child Development Ministry

(D) Union Finance Ministry

(E) None of these

178. Who became the first Indian Junior athlete to create a World Record in Junior athletics Championship?

(A) Neeraj Chopra

(B) Dharambir Singh

(C) Bahadur Prasad

(D) Anil Singh

(E) None of these

179. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking services’? 1. Eligible financial services rendered by banks 2. Utility services provided by banks 3. Services provided through business correspondents 4. Services provided to armed force personnel (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Only 4 (D) Both 1 and 3

(E) Both 2 and 4

180. Reserve Bank will shortly start monitoring banks on issues relating to customer rights in which broad areas? I. Right to fair treatment and transparency II. Right to privacy III. Right to suitability IV. Fair and honest dealing V. Right to grievance redress & compensation. (A) Only I and II (B) Only II, III and IV

(C) Only III, II and V

(D) Only I, II, III and V

(E) All of the above

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

181. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is? (A) memory-only (B) write-only (C) read-only (D) Run-only (E) non-changeable 182. One benefit of dial up interact access is? (A) It uses broad band technology (B) It uses present telephone service. (C) It uses router for security (D) Modem speed is very fast. (E) None of these 183. Text and graphics that have been cut or copied are stored in an area called the ………….? (A) Paste board (B) Copy board (C) Clipboard (D) Cutting board (E) None of these 184. Numbers and formulae entered in a cell are called ……………….?

(A) Labels (B) numeric entries (C) intersection (D) text (E) fillers 185. How can the user determine what programs are available on a computer? (A) Checking the hard disk properties (B) Viewing the installed programs during the booting process (C) Checking the operating system for a list of installed programs (D) Checking the existing files saved on the disk (E) None of these 186. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different _________ to process data and different operating system. (A) Language (B) Methods

(C) CPUs (D) Storage devices (E) None of these 187. __________ controls the way in

which the computer system function

and provides a means by which users

can interact with the computer.

(A) The platform

(B) The operating system

(C) Application software

(D) The motherboard

(E) None of these

188. What happens when your boot

up a PC?

(A) Portions of the operating system

are copied from disk into pen drive

(B) Portions of the operating system

are copied from memory onto disk

(C) Portions of the operating system

are compiled

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(D) Portions of the operating system

are emulated

(E) None of these

189. Which of the following can

handle most system functions that

aren’t handed directly by the

operating system?

(A) Vertical market application

(B) Utilities

(C) Algorithms

(D) Integrated software

(E) Compilers

190. In which generation was

microprocessor introduced?

(A) First (B) Second

(C) Third (D) Fourth

(E) None of these

191. Processing capacity of

microcomputer is?

(A) Ten lac (B) two lac

(C) four lac (D) five lac

(E) none of these

192. Which material is layered at

magnetic disk?

(A) Iron oxide

(B) Phosphorus bent oxide

(C) Magnesium oxide

(D) Sodium peroxide

(E) None of these

193. Printing head and paper is

touched in—?

(A) Non-impact printer

(B) Impact printer

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Thermal printer

(E) None of these

194. In any current available

keyboard, how many times number

keys are repeated?

(A) One (B) Two

(C) Three (D) Four

(E) None of these

195. Why is the Caps Lock key referred to as a toggle key? (A) Because its function goes back and forth every time it is pressed (B) Because it cannot be used for entering numbers (C) Because it cannot be used to delete (D) Because it cannot be used to insert (E) None of these 196. The device that assembles group of characters into complete messages prior to their entering the CPU is called (A) An interpreter (B) A compiler (C) A communication processor (D) An editor

(E) A translator 197. The subsystem of the kernel and hardware that cooperates to translate virtual to physical addresses comprises to translate virtual to physical addresses comprises (A) Process management subsystem (B) Memory management subsystem (C) Input/output management subsystem (D) All of the above (E) None of these 198. Which of the following types of tables constraints will prevent the entry of duplicate rows? (A) Primary key (B) Unique (C) Null (D) Foreign Key (E) None of these 199. Most application software today come with an interface called a (n) _____? (A) Graphical User interface (B) Character user interface (C) Icon user interface (D) Voice instructions system (E) Button user interface 200. Which menu option can be used to split windows into two? (A) Format -> windows (B) View > Windows > Split (C) Windows > split (D) View ? Split (E) None of these