Final Test
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IT Service Management Foundation Level TTT Course SAMPLE 1 ITIL V3 QUESTIONS Version 1.2 1 Page of 85
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Transcript of Final Test
IT Service Management
Foundation Level TTT Course
SAMPLE 1ITIL V3 QUESTIONS
Version 1.2
1 Page of 68
TOC of ITIL Questions (Module Wise)1 Service Strategy...................................................................................................3
1.1 Generic..........................................................................................................31.2 Financial Management...................................................................................41.3 Service Portfolio Management........................................................................51.4 Demand Management....................................................................................6
2 Service Design...................................................................................72.1 Generic..........................................................................................................72.2 Service Catalogue Management.....................................................................82.3 Service Level Management............................................................................92.4 Capacity Management.................................................................................122.5 Availability Management..............................................................................132.6 IT Service Continuity Management...............................................................152.7 Information Security Management...............................................................162.8 Supplier Management..................................................................................17
3 Service Transition............................................................................183.1 Generic.........................................................................................................183.2 Change Management...................................................................................183.3 Service Asset & Configuration Management................................................223.4 Release & Deployment Management...........................................................24
4 Service Operation............................................................................264.1 Generic.........................................................................................................264.2 Event Management......................................................................................294.3 Incident Management..................................................................................304.4 Request Fulfillment......................................................................................314.5 Problem Management..................................................................................324.6 Access Management....................................................................................34
5 Continual Service Improvement........................................................355.1 Generic.........................................................................................................355.2 7-step Improvement Process........................................................................365.3 Service Measurement...................................................................................385.4 Service Reporting.........................................................................................38
6 GENERIC..........................................................................................39Answers.....................................................................................................................52
2 Page of 68
1 Service Strategy
1.1 Generic
1. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the
following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation
and Continual Service Improvement
2. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with
the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of
time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,
continuity and security
3. During the Service Strategy, which of the following are considered?
a) Resource and Components
b) Requirements and Resources
c) Components and Requirements
d) Requirements, Resources and Components
4. Which of the following ITIL Core volumes covers the design principles
and methods for converting strategic objectives in to portfolios of services
and service assets?
a) Continual Service Improvement
3 Page of 68
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy
1.2 Financial Management
1. Give one reason why charging for IT services is an important element of
Financial Management?
a) The availability of an IT service can be measured.
b) The resources needed for an application can be determined.
c) The use of IT services can be influenced.
d) Scenarios for capacity planning can be investigated.
2. Which ITIL process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?
a) Availability Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Capacity Management
d) Financial Management for IT Services
3. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the
following will be a DIRECT benefit?
a) Better value for money
b) Clearer charging policies
c) Improved financial forecasting
d) Higher quality support
4. Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of
underpinning contracts?
a) Capacity Management
b) Availability Management
c) Financial Management for IT services
d) Service Level Management
4 Page of 68
5. Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation
system?
a) Availability Management
b) Financial Management for IT Services
c) Capacity Management
d) Service Level Management
1.3 Service Portfolio Management
1. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components
within the Service Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System
2. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document is used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle. 2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications. 3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 & 3only
c) All of above
d) 1 & 2 only
5 Page of 68
3. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio
Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
1.4 Demand Management
1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of
demand generated by the customer’s business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity
management
2. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost
3. Differential charging is a technique used in.................
a) FTA
b) Status Accounting
c) Demand Management
d) Financial Management
6 Page of 68
2 Service Design
2.1 Generic
1. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Strategy?
1. Perspectives 2. Positioning 3. Plan 4. ???
a) People
b) Product
c) Patterns
d) Partners
2. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during
the Service Design phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design2. Environmental design3. Process design4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. A Service Level Package is best described as?
a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service
package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level
Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are
willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed
reporting period
7 Page of 68
4. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services2. The design of Service Management systems and tools3. The design of technology architecture and management systems4. The design of the processes required5. ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics
5. Consider the following activities:
a) The analysis of raw data
b) The identification of trends
c) The definition of Service Management processes
d) The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service
Management software tool?
A. 1, 2 & 4
B. 2 & 3
C. All of them
D. None of them
2.2 Service Catalogue Management
1. What document will list the Services currently provided to the
Customers?
a) Service Level Agreement
b) Service Level Requirements
c) Services Catalogue
d) Services Contract
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2. Which of these statements is correct?
A. An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which states what the customer
may and may not do with his computer.
B. A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT
department can offer a customer.
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both
d) Neither
3. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services
2.3 Service Level Management
1. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service
Level Management process?
a) By checking contracts with suppliers
b) By measuring customer satisfaction
c) By defining service levels
d) By reporting on all incidents
2. Which of the following best describes the goal of the Service Level
Management?
a) To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business
requirements
9 Page of 68
b) To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with
Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and
ensuring performance does not exceed these targets
c) To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and
continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at
maximum availability
d) To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
3. Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management
process. Which statement best describes what these Service Level
Requirements represent?
a) The amount of defined IT service that the customer requires.
b) What the IT organization expects of the customer.
c) The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
d) A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute
the SLA.
4. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management
responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business
perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service
5. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a
regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
6. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical
support providers and are written in business language
10 Page of 68
b) Operational Level Agreements are between internal service
providers and may be written in technical language
c) Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management
and external providers and are written in business language
d) Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service
Level Management and are written in technical language
7. Contract relating to an outsourced data center would be managed by?
a) Technical management
b) Service Desk
c) IT Operations
d) Facilities Management
8. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
a) An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
b) SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business
language
c) An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that
use that Service
d) An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the
services they use
9. There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
a) Incident Management
b) Availability Management
c) Configuration Management
d) IT Service Continuity Management
e) Change Management
A. 1, 3 & 5
B. 2 & 4
C. 2, 3 & 5
11 Page of 68
D. All of them
10. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
a) Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
b) A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be
understood by everyone
c) Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
d) Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
2.4 Capacity Management
1. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
a) Capacity Forecasts
b) Recommendations
c) Components and resource forecasts
d) Countermeasures for risks
2. Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware
necessary in order to support an application?
a) Capacity Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Change Management
d) Availability Management
3. “A steel company merges with a competitor. The IT departments, along
with the IT infrastructures of both companies will be combined. “ Which
process is responsible for determining the required disk and memory
space required for applications running in the combined IT infrastructure?
a) Application Management
b) Capacity Management
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c) Computer Operations Management
d) Release Management
4. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
a) Options
b) Management summary
c) Business workload forecasts
d) Back out plans
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. All of them
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and3
5. Consider the following list:
a) Modeling
b) Risk Analysis
c) Application Sizing
d) DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A. 1 & 2
B. 1 & 3
C. 3 & 4
D. 2 & 4
2.5 Availability Management
1. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
a) Application Management
b) Operations Management
c) Service Desk
13 Page of 68
d) Availability Management
2. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
a) Services and Resources
b) Services and Business Processes
c) Resources and Business Processes
d) Services, Resources and Business Processes
3. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed
needs of the business
4. Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?
a) Verification
b) Security
c) Reliability
d) Maintainability
5. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best
defined?
a) The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components
operable
b) The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
c) The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is
available
d) The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide
for parts of the IT infrastructure
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2.6 IT Service Continuity Management
1. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures
are taken, for example using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of
measure?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity management
c) Change Management
d) Incident Management
2. Which if the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service
Continuity Plan?
a) Contact lists
b) The version number
c) Full Service Level Agreements
d) Reference to change control procedures
3. Which activity is NOT the responsibility of IT service continuity
management?
a) Drawing up back-out scenarios
b) Analyzing risks
c) Testing back-out arrangements
d) Executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out
facilities
4. Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access to data?
a) IT service continuity management
b) Availability management
c) Release management
d) Information Security management
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5. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
a) 4 to 24 hours
b) More than 72 hours
c) 24 to 72 hours
d) 4 to 8 hours
2.7 Information Security Management
1. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security
Management Process?
a) To align IT security with business security and ensure that
information security is effectively managed in all service and
Service Management activities’.
b) To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately
managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
c) To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security
activities.
d) To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures
objectives are achieved
2. Every time when Susan (the database administrator) checks the HR
database, some records seem to be missing. After some further
investigation it looks like someone has been accessing the data without
proper authorization.
We seem to have a/an _____ issue.
a) Availability
b) Integrity
c) Stability
d) Confidentiality
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3. Which ITIL process has responsibility in preventing unauthorized access
to data?
a) IT service continuity management
b) Availability management
c) Release management
d) Information Security management
4. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of
people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
2.8 Supplier Management
1. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is
INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements
to support the delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts
Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service
lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and
Improvement
17 Page of 68
3 Service Transition
3.1 Generic
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
2. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during
the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
a) Data mining and workflow toolsb) Measurement and reporting systemsc) Release and Deployment technologyd) Process Design
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
3.2 Change Management
1. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk
representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that
according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three
hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced
within three hours?
18 Page of 68
a) Availability Management
b) Change Management
c) Configuration Management
d) Service Level Management
2. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a) The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error
Data Base (KEDB)
b) The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
c) The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
d) The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
3. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and
Change Management. What information is this?
a) Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change
Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
b) RFCs resulting from Known Errors
c) RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management
d) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to
Change Management
4. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category
for a change?
a) The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial,
significant, etc.
b) The speed with which the change is made
c) The sequence in which the change is made
d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
5. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure
called?
a) Replacement Request
b) Request for Change
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c) Request for Release
d) Service Request
6. In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible
for the entire process?
a) Change Advisory Board
b) IT Manager
c) Change Manager
d) Change Coordinator
7. "...a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path, is
relatively common, and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement
or set of requirements." Which change are we referring to?
a) Standard Change
b) Urgent Change
c) Normal Change
d) Service Request
8. For which ITIL process is the determination of priorities based on impact
and urgency an essential activity
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Level Management
9. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are
made during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes
and to decide whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change
process so that no unacceptable delays occur.
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10. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately
described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and
implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and
effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of
failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made
11. The Change Management function is NOT responsible for:
a) Scheduling a change to the network
b) Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritized
c) Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
d) Implementing the release of a software change
12. What is missing in the 7 R’s of Change Management?
Raised, Reason, Return, Risks, Resources, _________, _________
a) Responsible and Remedy
b) Responsible and Relationship
c) Remove and Refurbish
d) Remove and Remedy
13. 7 R’s of Change Management is used for
a) Change Analysis
b) Evaluation
c) Change Approval
d) Change Authorization
21 Page of 68
3.3 Service Asset & Configuration Management
1. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and
different IT components needed to deliver the services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization
2. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison
3. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
a) The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to
operate correctly after Failure of a Component part.
b) The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract.
Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability
and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component.
c) A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can
be restored to normal working after a failure.
d) A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its
agreed function without interruption
4. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most
accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and
Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service
levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
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c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were
designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure
and maintain accurate configuration records
5. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT
services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT
services?
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Financial Management for IT services
6. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of
an interruption of a Configuration Item?
a) Availability Manager
b) Incident Manager
c) Problem Manager
d) Service Level Manager
7. “Optimize the service assets, IT configurations, capabilities and
resources” is the goal of which process area
a) IT Service Continuity Management
b) Service Asset and Configuration Management
c) Information Security Management
d) Capacity Management
8. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
a) Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced
to avoid spending a lot of money
b) Be as high level as possible
c) Match the organization’s requirement for information to be held
d) Vary according to cost
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9. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and
depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
a) You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types
of CIs
b) You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not
under Change Control
c) You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective
is to get the database loaded
d) You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational
Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
a) Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
b) Education and Awareness
c) Review, Audit and Assurance
d) Ongoing Training and Testing
3.4 Release & Deployment Management
1. The following options are considered within which process?
1. Big bang vs. Phased2. Push and Pull3. Automated vs. Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management
2. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
a) Designing and building a release
b) Testing a release
c) Compiling the release schedule
d) Communicating and preparing the release
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3. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and
Deployment Management?
a) To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services
specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the
stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
b) To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design
consists of a set of related assets and service components that are
compatible with each other
c) To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked,
installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
d) To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or
changed service
4. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment
Management process?
a) To ensure there are clear release and deployment plansb) To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations
and support staffc) To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production
servicesd) To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs
of the business
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
5. Who provides the resources during the Release & Deployment?
a) Release & Deployment Manager
b) Evaluation
c) Capacity Manager
d) Early Life Support
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6. What is the entry point or the first level of V model?
a) Service Requirements
b) Customers/Business needs
c) Service Solution
d) Service Release
7. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
a) The RFCs that it satisfies
b) The number of updates to the OHS
c) Service Level metrics
d) The DSL configuration
4 Service Operation
1.1 Generic
1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
a) Thorough testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet
business needs
b) To deliver and support IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
2. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
1. Incident Management2. Problem Management3. Access Management4. ?5. ?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
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b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management
3. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are
CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
4. Which activity is NOT a Service Desk activity?
a) Relating an incident to a Known Error
b) Registering incidents
c) Solving a problem
d) Applying temporary fixes
5. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and
support Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the business
6. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal
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7. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and
support the IT infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures
8. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out
Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to
monitor and manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT
view and an external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is
the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of
the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute
processes defined by Service Design
9. Which is a good metric to measure the performance of Service Desk
a) Customer Satisfactionb) Number of incidents resolvedc) Number of issues resolved to number of issues resolved per
engineerd) Number of issues resolved within the agreed timelines
10. Consider the following:
a) Incident diagnostic scripts b) A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents c) A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure
supported d) A Forward Schedule of Change
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Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A. 1&2 B. 3&4 C. 1, 2 &3 D. All four
4.2 Event Management
1. The BEST definition of an EVENT is?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and
an agreed Service Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT
infrastructure or delivery of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service
or improvement program
2. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event
Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the
appropriate control action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the
uptime of infrastructure devices
3. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
a) A change of state which has significance for the management of a
Configuration Item or IT service.
b) The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by
any IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
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c) Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and
often lead to Incidents being logged
d) All of above
4.3 Incident Management
1. The priority of an Incident refers to?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and
urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it
is resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the
incident
2. An Incident occurs when:
a) A user is unable to access a service during service hours
b) An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during
service hours
c) A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any
disruption to service
d) A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an
application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
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3. What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an
incident?
a) Solving and restoring
b) Analysis and diagnosis
c) Matching
d) Classification
4. Incident Management has a value to the business by?
a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact
5. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of
implementing a formal Incident Management process?
a) Improved user satisfaction
b) Incident volume reduction
c) Elimination of lost incidents
d) Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
4.4 Request Fulfillment
1. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met
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2. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the
functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to
an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of
software from a list of approved options
3. What is the term for user requests which are classified as incidents, but
do not involve a failure in the IT infrastructure?
a) Service Requests
b) Non-standard Changes
c) Error Reports
d) Priority Requests
4.5 Problem Management
1. A user calls the Service Desk with a complaint that, when using a
particular application, an error always occurs that breaks his connection to
the network. Which process has overall responsibility for tracing the
underlying cause?
a) Service Desk
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) System Management
e) Incident Management
2. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?
a) Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
b) Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error
database.
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c) Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
d) Recognising user's requirements and subsequently implementing
changes to the IT infrastructure.
3. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on...
a) The category to which the problem belongs.
b) The impact of the problem.
c) The priority of the problem.
d) The urgency of the problem.
4. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem
Management?
a) Co-ordinating major problem reviews
b) Determining the root cause of incidents
c) Providing management information on incidents, problems and known
errors
d) Implementing error resolutions
5. Which of the following is an example of proactive problem management?
a) A trend analysis
b) An urgent change
c) A change request
d) A report regarding the problem management process
6. Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate
structural errors?
a) Availability management
b) Problem Management
c) IT service continuity management
d) Security Management
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7. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident
Management process in place?
a) Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place
there is no reliable information available
b) No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little
importance to proactive Problem Management
c) No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing
Problems
d) Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of
accurate Incident Management information
4.6 Access Management
1. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
e) The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services,
data, or other Assets.
f) Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and
Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to
access or modify the Assets.
g) Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or
Identity Management.
h) All of the above
2. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access
Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users3. Defining security policies for system access4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2
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5 Continual Service Improvement
5.1 Generic
1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
2. Consider the following statements:
1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
3. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the
following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation
and Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
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4. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
5. What activity happens as part of the “Where should we be” step of the
CSI model
a) Define Measurable targets to achieve
b) Baseline
c) Assign Resources
d) Verify the measures
5.2 7-step Improvement Process
1. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a
business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity
and performance modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident
and problem management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships
between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages
2. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data,
processing the data and using it to take corrective action
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3. Deming - one of the people behind the philosophy of TQM (Total Quality
Management) uses a cyclic model with four recognized stages. What is the
right sequence of these stages?
a) Plan - Do - Review - Check
b) Do - Check - Plan - Act
c) Plan - Do - Check - Act
d) Do - Check - Act – Plan
4. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step
Improvement Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure,
gather data and process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we
get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define
what you can measure
5. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual
Service improvement (CSI) Model?
a) Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production;
Operate the Solution; continually improve
b) Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we
arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?
c) identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the
outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly
implemented; improve the solution
d) What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?;
How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the
momentum going?
6. Which of the following is the 4th step for the Continual Service
improvement (CSI) Model?
a) What is the vision?
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b) Where are we now?
c) Where do we want to be?
d) How do we get there?
7. CSI is applicable during which of the Service Lifecycles
a) Service Strategy and Service Design
b) Service Strategy, Service Design and Service Transition
c) Continual Service Improvement
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service
Operations
5.3 Service Measurement
1. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in
Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics2. Supplier Metrics3. Service Metrics4. Technology Metrics5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
5.4 Service Reporting
1. What aspects would you NOT expect to see in a Service Level report
designed for the customer?
a) The average utilization level of the Service Desk
b) The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
c) The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
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d) The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
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6 GENERIC
1. What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a
process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service
Management
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy
3. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology
tool?
a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product
4. What does the Service V model represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management
projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and
effective utilization of resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service
Capability
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d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of
services
5. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what
attributes of the service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology
6. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
a) They provide structure and stability to organizationsb) They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and
resourcesc) They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and
controld) They are costlier to implement compared to processes
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
7. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM
processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level
8. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it
serves
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d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses
telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the
same location
9. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release
10. Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events
and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure
and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of
the infrastructure when Operators are not available
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of every process?
a) It is measurable
b) It is timely
c) It delivers a specific result
d) It responds to a specific event
e) It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All of the above
12. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Recommending improvements
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b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a
Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services
13. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
14. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle
15. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities
for improvement?
a) Service Owner
b) Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
c) Process Owner
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. All of the above
D. d) 2 and 3 only
16. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating
value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production
management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
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d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
17. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the
following?
a) Service Portfolio Management
b) Demand Management
c) Financial Management
A. Service Operations
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Continual Service Improvement
18. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process
19. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual
Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties
involved in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program
which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be
established to implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial
planning
20. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within
which of the following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
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c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)
21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is always documented in international standards
c) It is something that is in wide industry use
d) It is always based on ITIL
22. Consider the following statements:
1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only
23. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and
Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on
external organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies
on internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies
on application service provisioning
24. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve
services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
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c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
25. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that supports the business strategy
26. Consider the following statements:
1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an organization are defined 2. The RACI model is beneficial to design a Function”
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 Only
b) Both of the above
c) Neither of the above
d) 2 only
27. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Guidelines 5. Standards 6. Governance Framework
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) All of the above
c) 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
28. A Service Provider is?
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a) An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
b) An organization supplying services to one or more internal
customers or external customers
c) An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
d) An organization supplying IT services
29. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and
deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which
of the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role?
a) Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
b) Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved
services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems
that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organization
c) Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the
Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
d) Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and
supporting processes
30. What is the difference between a process and a project?
a) A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a
finite lifespan.
b) A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has
a finite lifespan
c) A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a
project does not stop when the objective is met.
d) In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the
result is important
31. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
a) The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
b) The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
c) The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported
by maintenance contracts
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d) The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement
(SLA) are complied with.
32. The PDCA cycle can be used to plan and implement Service
Management Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
a) There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should
be carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
b) Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-
Act
c) The entire cycle should be repeated hundred times to Implement
Continual Improvement
d) There should be a single and then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be
repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement
33. Facilities Management refers to?
a) The Management of “utilities”, such as printers or network access
b) The Management of an Insourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data
Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations
staff
34. According to ITIL ‘The Service Level Management Process' has a
responsibility to cover the following areas:
a) Monitoring and Reporting on Targets being met , service failures,
total cost of providing the service, Resources being used and any
shortfall, creating and updating the service catalogue
b) Non negotiation on SLA
c) 3rd party suppliers are ignored
d) negotiate with the co sourcing agency
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35. DML is a
a) Data management library
b) Secure library where software that has been properly reviewed and
authorized is stored.
c) Data Migration library
d) Data Multiplication Linguistic
36. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the
following elements of Service Life Cycle
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation
and Continual Service Improvement
37. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2. Only one person can be accountable for an activitya) All of the above
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above
38. Business drivers and requirements for new services should be
considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The post implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
39. The four stages of the Deming cycle are?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
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c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
40. Identify the correct sequence of the CSI improvement cycle as per the
PDCA
a) Identify Resources to perform the tasksb) Measure & Verify the performancec) Set the objectivesd) Action on the CSI activities
Correct sequence of activities as per PDCA is
A. 2, 1,4,3
B. 3,2,1,4
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 1,2,3,4
41. The best way to get automation is by adopting
a) People, Process, Partners, Technology
b) People, Patterns, Partners, Technology
c) People, Process, Products, Partners
d) People, Process, Products, Patterns
42. Best Practices is a set of activities
a) Which is followed at the organisation level
b) Which is followed by multiple organisations
c) Is easy to follow
d) Which is followed by many people
43. Automation is best suited for which area
a) Service Operationb) Release and Deploymentc) Business critical mission tasksd) Desktop monitoring
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44. An organization “CORP” is in need of a service from an external
supplier. Two or more organizations come together to offer this service. It
is called as
a) Multi-sourcingb) In-sourcingc) Co-sourcingd) Outsourcing
45. In ITIL V3, what statement below describing a customer is FALSE?
a) A customer pays for the service on behalf of the userb) A customer cannot be the business itselfc) A customer can also be a userd) A customer can be anyone who makes use of an IT service to achieve
their specific outcomes
46. Staffs in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology,
but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What
imbalance does this represent?
a) Extreme focus on responsivenessb) Extreme focus on costc) Vendor focusedd) Extreme internal focus
47. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external
suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best
description of this approach?
a) The going rate that is agreed with Customers b) Market rate c) Cost-plus d) Profitable
48. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational
Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
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a) Develop Procedures and Initial Testing b) Education and Awareness c) Review, Audit and Assurance d) Ongoing Training and Testing
49. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems
with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
a) Network Management b) The Service Desk c) Capacity Management d) Problem Management
50. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is BEST described as:
a) A capital cost b) A type of charging policy c) An uplift to allocated costs d) A revenue stream
51. Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
a) Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
b) Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value c) Cost centers are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed) d) Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or
activity
52. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organization resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
a) Root Cause Analysis b) Business Impact Analysis c) Service Outage Analysis d) Component Failure Impact Analysis
QUESTION :1 Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?1: What services should we offer and to whom?
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2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?3: How do we truly create value for our customers?A.1 onlyB.2 onlyC.3 onlyD.All of the aboveAnswer: D
QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design Manager?A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packagesB.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processesor measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisationC.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the servicedesigns that are producedD.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processesAnswer: A
QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?1: Customer retention2: Time to market3: Service Architecture4: Market shareA.1 and 2 onlyB.2 and 4 onlyC.All of the aboveD.1, 2 and 4 onlyAnswer: D
QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process?TestInside EX0-101A.Service Portfolio ManagementB.Service Level ManagementC.Component Capacity ManagementD.Demand ManagementAnswer: D
QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level
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Management is:A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT servicesB.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of servicesC.To create and populate a Service CatalogueD.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT servicesAnswer: D
QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)2: Designing technology architectures to support the service3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in placeA.All of the aboveB.2 and 3 onlyC.1 and 2 onlyD.1 and 3 onlyAnswer: D
QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management?A.Customer satisfaction scoreB.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agentC.Number of services in the Service PortfolioD.Number of services deployed within agreed timesAnswer: A
TestInside EX0-101
QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require:A.Separate proceduresB.Less urgencyC.Longer timescalesD.Less documentationAnswer: A
QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be loggedA.1 only
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B.Both of the aboveC.2 onlyD.None of the aboveAnswer: B
QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request themB.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service DeskC.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesD.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requestedAnswer: B
QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media)B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval andqualification process existsC.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure forobtaining themD.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standardsAnswer: D
QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process?A.7B.4C.6D.11Answer: A
QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?A.Network Management and Application ManagementB.Technical Management and Application ManagementC.IT Operations Control and Facilities ManagementD.Facilities Management and Technical ManagementAnswer: C
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QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the followingstatements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?A.It is also structured around the Service LifecycleB.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organizationC.It consists of five publicationsD.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000Answer: B
QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data2: Control of user desk-tops3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts4: Visibility of overall IT Service performanceA.2, 3 and 4 onlyB.1, 2 and 3 onlyC.1, 3 and 4 onlyD.All of the aboveAnswer: D
QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?A.KnowledgeB.InformationC.WisdomD.DataAnswer: C
QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:A.Carried out by Service OperationsB.Carried out by lots of peopleC.Critical to the success of the business missionD.Simple and well understoodAnswer: D
QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operationphase of the Lifecycle?1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged2: Control of user desk-top PCs
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3: Create and use diagnostic scripts4: Dashboard type technologyA.1, 2 and 3 onlyB.All of the aboveC.1, 3 and 4 onlyD.2, 3 and 4 onlyAnswer: B
QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)B.Customer and User satisfactionC.Understanding Service Requirements and WarrantyD.Utility and WarrantyAnswer: D
QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline?A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testingB.All services except those that have been retiredC.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)D.All complex multi-user servicesAnswer: A
QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?A.Activity based, Access ManagementB.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profilesC.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profilesD.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviourAnswer: B
QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supportedB.To provide training and certification in project managementC.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment ManagementD.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a ReleaseAnswer: B
QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST
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describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are heldB.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored andprotectedC.A database that contains definitions of all media CIsD.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protectedAnswer: B
QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or function for anotherorganisation. This is know as:A.Business Process ManagementB.Business Function OutsourcingC.Business Process OutsourcingD.Knowledge Process OutsourcingAnswer: C
QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?A.Service Catalogue ManagementB.Service Level ManagementC.IT Service Continuity ManagementD.Capacity ManagementAnswer: D
QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management LifecycleB.To proactively prevent all outages to IT ServicesC.To design and build processes that will meet business needsD.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customersAnswer: D
QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of:A.Services and ComponentsB.Services and Business ProcessesC.Components and Business ProcessesD.Services, Components and Business ProcessesAnswer: A
QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of
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Capacity Management?A.Component Capacity ManagementB.Process Capacity ManagementC.Technology Capacity ManagementD.Capability Capacity ManagementAnswer: A
QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the:A.Technical ManagementB.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)Answer: B
QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that willaccomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectivesB.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and servicecomponents that are compatible with each otherC.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalledor backed out if appropriateD.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed serviceAnswer: A
QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?A.Prepare for actionB.Define what you should measureC.Where are we now?D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievementAnswer: B
QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?A.Application ManagementB.Service DeskC.Incident Management
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D.Technical ManagementAnswer: C
QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contactB.A dedicated number of staff handling service requestsC.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from usersD.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requestsAnswer: D
QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis3: Restoring service4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problemsA.All of the aboveB.1, 2 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 4 onlyD.2, 3 and 4 onlyAnswer: B
QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?A.Technical ManagementB.Service DeskC.IT Operations ControlD.Facilities ManagementAnswer: D
QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with:A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processesB.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followedC.Reducing the total cost of providing servicesD.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are metAnswer: B
QUESTION :37. A risk is:A.Something that won't happenB.Something that will happenC.Something that has happened
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D.Something that might happenAnswer: D
QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised?A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been foundB.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do soC.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be foundD.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in caseof a recurrenceAnswer: B
QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity,that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levelsB.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsivenessC.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomesD.They should escalate this decision to Service StrategyAnswer: B
QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?A.Service Level ManagementB.Service Portfolio ManagementC.Service Asset and Configuration ManagementD.Incident ManagementAnswer: C
QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:A.The RACI ModelB.A Release PackageC.A Request ModelD.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycleAnswer: B
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QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident could be managed?1: Incident Model2: Known Error RecordA.1 onlyB.2 onlyC.Both of the aboveD.Neither of the aboveAnswer: C
QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?A.Demand ManagementB.Incident ManagementC.Release and Deployment ManagementD.Request FulfilmentAnswer: D
QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation?A.The Service Level Manager
B.The Business Relationship ManagerC.The Service OwnerD.The Service Continuity ManagerAnswer: C
QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?A.Overall business risk is optimisedB.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all ChangesC.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration ManagementSystem (CMS)D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted forAnswer: D
QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service CatalogueB.The design of new or changed servicesC.The design of Market SpacesD.The design of the technology architecture and
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management systemsAnswer: C
QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of thefollowing does this include?A.Only capabilities needed and agreedB.Only resources and capabilities neededC.Only requirements needed and agreedD.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreedAnswer: D
QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?A.ConfigurationB.ConsultedC.ComplexD.ControlledAnswer: B
QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for?A.Performance analysisB.Recording Configuration ItemsC.Monitoring servicesD.Defining roles and responsibilitiesAnswer: D
QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organisational structure?A.RACI ModelB.Service ModelC.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) ModelD.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) ModelAnswer: A
QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurateB.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurateC.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service PortfolioD.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service CatalogueAnswer: B
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QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between twoor more organisations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"?A.OutsourcingB.Application Service ProvisionC.Multi-sourcingD.Knowledge Process OutsourcingTestInside EX0-101Answer: C
QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?A.Validate; Direct; Justify; InterveneB.Report; Manage; Improve; ExtendC.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; InterveneD.Plan; Predict; Report; JustifyAnswer: A
QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues duringRelease and Deployment?A.Early Life SupportB.Service Test ManagerC.EvaluationD.Release Packaging and Build ManagerAnswer: A
QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to customers?A.ApplicationsB.InfrastructureC.ValueD.ResourcesAnswer: C
QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?A.The Service ProviderB.The Service Level ManagerC.The CustomerD.ResourcesAnswer: A
QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is
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MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?A.Service DesignB.Service TransitionC.Service StrategyD.Service OperationAnswer: C
QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?A.Change ManagementB.Service TransitionC.Service StrategyD.Service DesignAnswer: D
QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business?1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements2: Reduced cost to design new services3: Improved success in implementing changesA.1 and 2 onlyB.2 and 3 onlyC.1 and 3 onlyD.All the aboveAnswer: C
QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?A.A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelinesB.A Change that correctly follows the required Change processC.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedureD.A Change that is made as the result of an auditAnswer: C
QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by Supplier Management?1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs)2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers3: Ongoing management of suppliersA.1 and 2 onlyB.1 and 3 onlyC.2 and 3 only
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D.All of the aboveAnswer: C
QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?A.Service OperationB.Service Transition and Service OperationC.Service Design, Service Transition and Service OperationD.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service ImprovementAnswer: D
QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?A.A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of ChangesB.A seven step process for releasing Changes into productionC.A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent ChangeD.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change ManagementAnswer: A
QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by:1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized ConfigurationItem (CI) being detected on the network2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipientA.2 onlyB.1 onlyC.Both of the aboveD.Neither of the aboveAnswer: C
QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesB.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating togetherfor a common purposeC.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activitiesD.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain
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activitiesAnswer: A
QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective andefficient use of:A.People, Process, Partners, SuppliersB.People, Process, Products, TechnologyC.People, Process, Products, PartnersD.People, Products, Technology, PartnersAnswer: C
QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value tocustomers in the form of services".These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?A.Applications and InfrastructureB.Functions and ProcessesC.Service Pipeline and Service CatalogueD.Markets and CustomersAnswer: B
QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and specifications.What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?A.Validation and TestingB.The business value that can be expected from a given serviceC.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructureD.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementationAnswer: A
QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has startedto suffer. What imbalance does this represent?A.Extreme focus on costB.Extreme focus on qualityC.Excessively proactiveD.Excessively reactiveAnswer: A
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QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:1: What is the vision?2: Where are we now?3: Where do we want to be?4: How do we get there?5: Did we get there?6: ?A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?B.How much did it cost?C.How do we keep the momentum going?D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?Answer: C
QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correctsequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI4: Implement CSI enhancementA.3-1-2-4B.3-4-2-1C.1-3-2-4D.2-3-4-1Answer: A
QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual ServiceImprovement (CSI) Model?A.Implementing service and process improvementsB.Aligning the business and IT strategiesC.Creating a baselineD.Defining measurable targetsAnswer: D
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