Exam Name PGP - CET 2019 Total Questions 100 1....
Transcript of Exam Name PGP - CET 2019 Total Questions 100 1....
Total Questions
PGP - CET 2019
100
Exam Name :
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Questions 1.
Bronchopulmonary segment contains the following structure EXCEPT.
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Bronchial arteryA
Segmental bronchusB
Pulmonary venuleC
Pulmonary arterioleD
Questions 2. Anterior interventricular groove contains
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Left anterior descending arteryA
Circumflex coronary arteryB
Middle cardiac veinC
Anterior cardiac veinD
Questions 3. Superior radioulnar joint is which type of synovial joint
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Hinge jointA
Pivot jointB
Ellipsoid jointC
Ball and socket jointD
Questions 4.
Anatomical snuff box is formed by all EXCEPT
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Extensor pollicis longusA
Extensor pollicis brevisB
Abductor pollicis longusC
Abductor pollicis brevisD
Questions 5. Surfactant is secreted by
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Endothelium of the pulmonary capillaryA
Type 2 alveolar epithelial cellsB
Bronchial cellsC
Type 1 alveolar epithelial cellsD
Questions 6. Which of the following is an activated rhodopsin
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Metarhodopsin IIA
Metarhodopsin IB
LumirhodopsinC
BathorhodopsinD
Questions 7. Maximum ventricular filling occurs during
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Isovolumetric contraction periodA
Ejection PeriodB
Atrial diastoleC
Atrial systoleD
Questions 8. The structural and functional unit of muscle is
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SarcolemmaA
SarcoplasmB
SarcomereC
Motor end plateD
Questions 9. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin causes Pellagra.
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RiboflavinA
ThiamineB
PyridoxineC
NiacinD
Questions 10. In competitive inhibition of enzymes, the correct statement is
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Km increases and Vmax decreasesA
Km increases and Vmax remains unchangedB
Km decreases and Vmax increasesC
Km remains unchanged and Vmax decreasesD
Questions 11. Toe standing is an example of ____________.
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Stable equilibriumA
Unstable equilibriumB
Neutral equilibriumC
Positive equilibriumD
Questions 12. The following is an example of third order of lever:
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BrachialisA
BrachioradialisB
Calf musclesC
Hip extensorsD
Questions 13. When the angle of pull is obtuse, energy is wasted in:
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PullingA
MobilityB
StabilityC
PushingD
Questions 14. The following is a technique of progressive resistance exercise
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de Lorme’s techniqueA
Theraband exercise techniqueB
Yoga exerciseC
Aquatic exerciseD
Questions 15. Laura Mitchell technique of relaxation is based on the following principle
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Passive MovementsA
Progressive RelaxationB
Reciprocal RelaxationC
Active RelaxationD
Questions 16. Originally, Faradic current was ___ current.
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AlternatingA
DirectB
InterruptedC
ModifiedD
Questions 17. While applying DC, the important parameter for therapeutic purpose is
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Current intensityA
Circuit resistanceB
Current densityC
Treatment durationD
Questions 18.
What is the best therapeutic use of iontophoresis?
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For local anaesthesiaA
To apply antibioticsB
To apply anti inflammatory drugC
For treatment of hyper hydrosisD
Questions 19.
Which is NOT TRUE for iontophoresis
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Eliminates first pass metabolismA
Uncontrolled drug deliveryB
Avoids pain that accompanies injectionC
Decreases risk of infection.D
Questions 20. For Calcific deposit , the ion selected while treating with iontophoresis is
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CopperA
AcetateB
CalciumC
MagnesiumD
Questions 21. Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first passmetabolism:
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OralA
SublingualB
SubcutaneousC
RectalD
Questions 22.
The following general anaesthetic has poor muscle relaxant action:EXCEPT
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EtherA
Nitrous oxideB
HalothaneC
IsofluraneD
Questions 23.
The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation, EXCEPT
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ExudationA
VasodilationB
MarginationC
Granuloma formationD
Questions 24. Collapse of lung is called
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EmphysemaA
BronchiectasisB
AtelectasisC
BronchitisD
Questions 25.
All are the flagellated organisms EXCEPT
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Escherichia coliA
ProteusB
KlebsiellaC
Vibrio choleraeD
Questions 26. Reflected light is used in
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Light microscopeA
Dark field microscopeB
Electron microscopeC
Fluorescent microscopeD
Questions 27. “Mind and behaviour are adaptive- they enable an individual to changing environment” is seenin which school of psychology
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StructuralismA
BehaviourismB
Gestalt psychologyC
FunctionalismD
Questions 28. Preoccupation with body diseases is seen in
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ObsessionA
SomatizationB
HypochondriasisC
Conversion DisorderD
Questions 29. The most susceptible peripheral nerve fibres affected by cold are
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BA
CB
A alphaC
A deltaD
Questions 30. The Progression of E2 dosage in UVR is
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25%A
50%B
75%C
100%D
Questions 31. Name the ion that is used for the treatment of wounds
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ChlorideA
SalicylateB
IodineC
AcetateD
Questions 32. Conventional TENS is ____ stimulation
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High intensity, low frequencyA
Low intensity, low frequencyB
High intensity, high frequencyC
High frequency, low intensityD
Questions 33. What would be the ideal positioning of the SWD electrodes relative to the tissues
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Placing at an angle to each otherA
Placing parallel to each otherB
Placing parallel to the skinC
Placing perpendicular to each otherD
Questions 34. The shape of curve in a strength duration curve indicates
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The site of lesionA
Onset of lesionB
Proportion of denervationC
Duration of lesionD
Questions 35. Whenever deeply placed structures are to be treated with the capacitor field method, which ofthe following is used
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Co planarA
Cross fireB
Contra planarC
Cable methodD
Questions 36. Which descriptive term is not associated with stance phase of the gait cycle?
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Heel strikeA
decelerationB
Loading responseC
midstanceD
Questions 37. If the axillary nerve is severed, what muscle could laterally rotate the humerus?
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Teres majorA
SubscapularisB
InfraspinatusC
Teres minorD
Questions 38. The most common site for an ulnar nerve injury is at the
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Brachial plexusA
Medial epicondyle of the humerusB
Superficial surface of the retinaculumC
Distal wrist creaseD
Questions 39. During hydrotherapy,following factor is responsible for the patient’s ability to walk in water
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buoyancyA
pressureB
cohesionC
viscosityD
Questions 40. A physical therapist performs manual muscle test on a patient with unilateral lower extremityweakness. The therapist should test the patient’s hip adductor with patient positiend in
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proneA
side lyingB
standingC
supineD
Questions 41. A physical therapist designs a treatment plan for a 8 year old boy with cystic fibrosis. Which ofthe following lung segments would be inappropriate for bronchial drainage?
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Left middle lobeA
Left upper lobeB
Right upper lobeC
Right lower lobeD
Questions 42. A patient positioned in supine lying on a mat is instructed to bring her right hip and kneetowards chest. This evaluative technique can be used to assess the length of the
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Hamstring on the leftA
Hamstring on the rightB
Hip flexor on the rightC
Hip flexor on the leftD
Questions 43. The worst position for scars is
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BackA
ShoulderB
SternumC
AbdomenD
Questions 44. The most commonly affected peripheral nerve in leprosy is
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UlnarA
RadialB
MedianC
Lateral popitealD
Questions 45. Dupuytrens contracture of the hand commonly starts in
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ThumbA
Index fingerB
Middle fingerC
Ring fingerD
Questions 46. The pathognomonic sign of traumatic fracture is
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CrepitusA
RednessB
SwellingC
TendernessD
Questions 47. Gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis is -
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Qualitative computed tomographyA
DEXAB
Single beam densitometryC
Bone histomorphometryD
Questions 48.
True about fracture healing EXCEPT-
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Nutrition affects healingA
Stable fixation promotes healingB
Compression at fracture site causes nonunion.C
Hormonal status may affect healingD
Questions 49.
All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 EXCEPT
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Opening snapA
Pericardial knockB
Ejection clickC
Tumor plopD
Questions 50. Bad prognostic factor in Lupus Nephritis
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Anti ds DNAA
HyponitramiaB
Persistent proteinuria ( > 3 gm/day)C
Anti-La (SS-B)D
Questions 51. Transfusing blood after prolonged storage could lead to
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Citrate intoxicationA
Potassium intoxicationB
Circulatory overloadC
Hemorrhagic diathesisD
Questions 52. In facial palsy, food accumulated in the mouth due to paralysis of
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MasseterA
TemporalisB
MentalisC
BuccinatorD
Questions 53. Earliest valvular lesion in a case of rheumatic fever is
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Mitral regurgitation(MR)A
Aortic regurgitation (AR)B
Mitral stenosis (MS)C
Aortic stenosis (AS)D
Questions 54.
All are seen in ARDS EXCEPT
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Pulmonary edemaA
HypoxiaB
HypercapniaC
Stiff lungD
Questions 55. Ovarian cycle is initiated by
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LHA
FSHB
GRHC
EstrogenD
Questions 56. In primigravida during active phase of labor, the rate of cervical dilatation per hour is
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1.2 cmA
1.5 cmB
1.7 cmC
2 cmD
Questions 57.
Contraindications to use of oral contraceptive pills are all EXCEPT
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Breast CAA
Kidney diseaseB
SmokingC
Liver diseaseD
Questions 58. A weak and painful contraction on isometric assessment of contractile structure indicates:
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TendinitisA
Partial TearB
Complete TearC
Neurological InvolvementD
Questions 59. The supply to the following region of the tongue will be affected by a Facial Nerve Palsy:
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Anterior 2/3rdA
Posterior 2/3rdB
Anterior 1/3rdC
Posterior 1/3rdD
Questions 60. Obesity, Diabetes and Hypertension together present as:
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Metabolic disorderA
HypermetabolismB
Metabolic SyndromeC
HypometabolismD
Questions 61. An objective measurement of the extent of Oedema can be brought about by:
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Gravimetric measurementsA
Palpatory analysisB
Observatory analysisC
Volumetric measurementsD
Questions 62. A large amplitude mobilisation which reaches the end range is referred to as ______ Maitlandtechnique
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Grade IA
Grade IIB
Grade IIIC
Grade IVD
Questions 63. When there is a significant base deficit, the appropriate terminology is
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AcidosisA
AcidaemiaB
AlkalaemiaC
AlkalosisD
Questions 64. The ULTT3 is a test that is biased towards______ Nerve
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MedianA
RadialB
AxillaryC
UlnarD
Questions 65. A Faradic Galvanic Test is performed to assess
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Tendon continuityA
Nerve continuityB
ChronaxieC
RheobaseD
Questions 66. The following movement restriction needs to be imposed in the case of a Total HipReplacement with a posterior lateral approach:
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Hip Flexion beyond 90° and abductionA
Hip adduction and Internal RotationB
Hip Extension and external rotationC
Hip flexion to 90° and external rotationD
Questions 67. Close chain exercises are helpful following an ACL reconstruction surgery as they:
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Offer compressive forcesA
Increase Shear StressesB
Eliminate co-contraction of musclesC
Offer Proprioceptive loadsD
Questions 68. Presence of the scoliotic curvature in the standing position and not in sitting could be due to
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Unilateral Gluteal AtrophyA
Congenital segmental BarB
Limb length discrepancyC
Unilateral Rib fusionD
Questions 69. MET technique of Post Isometric relaxation to the triceps will help to increase:
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Passive Elbow FlexionA
Passive Elbow ExtensionB
Active Elbow FlexionC
Active Elbow ExtensionD
Questions 70. The mainstay of management of Phase III Periarthritis of the shoulder is:
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Pain managementA
Restoration of Scapulo Humeral RhythmB
Strengthening of the Gleno Humeral MusclesC
Mobility of Scapulothoracic JointD
Questions 71. Inability of a patient to perform active abduction at the shoulder in the absence of aneurological involvement may indicate:
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Capsular restrictionA
Ligamentous InstabilityB
Muscular tendinitisC
Muscular TearD
Questions 72. The following is the most common long term complication of a stress shielding device used to fixa fracture of a long bone:
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Decreased mobility of the adjacent jointsA
Reduced weight bearing capacity of the boneB
Decreased strength of the surrounding musclesC
Non Union of the fractureD
Questions 73. Flexion biased exercises are preferred in a patient with Spinal Canal Stenosis because:
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They have a stabilizing effect on the spineA
They are functional in natureB
They cause a decrease in painC
They increase the neural canal diametersD
Questions 74. The initial phase physiotherapy management of a patient post TKR focusses on preventingfollowing complication:
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Knee flexion deformityA
DVTB
AtelectasisC
TA tightnessD
Questions 75. The type of exercises that should be administered in a patient with Osteoporosis is:
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CyclingA
High impact weight bearingB
Low impact weight bearingC
SwimmingD
Questions 76. While conducting EMG studies the characteristic picture at rest in normal subject shows…….
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Small Action potentialA
Electrical silenceB
Positive sharp waveC
Fibrillation potentialD
Questions 77. Vertigo is seen in a lesion of ……
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IVth cranial nerveA
Vth cranial nerveB
VIIth cranial nerveC
VIIIth cranial nerveD
Questions 78. The ability to integrate information from environment to produce movement is……
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Stimulus identificationA
Sensory integrationB
Information processingC
PerceptionD
Questions 79.
All are seen in Horner’s syndrome EXCEPT ….
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mutismA
ptosisB
miosisC
Decreased sweating on opposite side of faceD
Questions 80. Decreased arm swing in case of Parkinson’s Disease is due to…
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Reduced arm strengthA
Trunk muscle weaknessB
Truncal rigidityC
Decreased ROM at shoulderD
Questions 81. Primitive grasp reflex disappears by the age of….
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0-1monthA
2-3monthsB
4-5monthsC
12-18 monthsD
Questions 82. In Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy ,EMG picture shows …..
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PolyphsiaA
Increased amplitudeB
Short duartionsC
Large MUP with fast firing rateD
Questions 83. The ability of brain to change and adapt is called…..
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Neural substitutionA
Neural irradiationB
NeuroplasticityC
Neural ReinforcementD
Questions 84. Scanning speech is characteristic of
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ACA infarctA
Cerebellar disorderB
Parkinson’s DiseaseC
Cerebral PalsyD
Questions 85. ……..approach gives emphasis on environment and musculoskeletal components
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Motor re-learning programmeA
NDTB
PNFC
Sensory integrationD
Questions 86. Unstick phase of autogenic drainage involves following lung volume
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Low lung volumeA
Mid lung volumeB
High lung volumeC
Tidal volumeD
Questions 87.
Pump handle movement of thorax is a feature of -----------
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Lower ribsA
Upper ribsB
Mid ribsC
DiaphragmD
Questions 88. Mediastinal shift towards the affected side is seen in which of the following condition?
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Lung collapseA
Pleural effusionB
PneumoniaC
PneumothoraxD
Questions 89.
PEP devices can be used in any position EXCEPT one device that is position dependent
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AcapellaA
Thera PEPB
FlutterC
CornetD
Questions 90. Following acts as a pacemaker in the human heart
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SA nodeA
AV nodeB
Bundle of HisC
Purkinje fibersD
Questions 91. Which of the following AV blocks are considered as incomplete heart blocks
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Only First degreeA
Only Second degreeB
First and Second degreeC
First and Third degreeD
Questions 92. In metabolic acidosis which of following respiration is seen?
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Biot’sA
Chyne Stoke’sB
EupneaC
KussmaulD
Questions 93. As the respiratory rate increases the inspiration to expiration (I:E) ratio------
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IncreasesA
decreasesB
Remains sameC
Can increase or decreaseD
Questions 94. Loud, high pitched, hollow quality, louder on expiration, distinct pause between inspiration andexpiration are the characteristics of the ------- breath sounds
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BronchialA
Broncho-vesicularB
VesicularC
CracklesD
Questions 95.
How many centimeters above the sternal angle, normally the jugular pulse is Not Visible when theindividual is positioned at a 45 degree angle?
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1 cmA
2 cmsB
5 cmsC
7 cmsD
Questions 96. Cystocoele involves prolapse of
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RectumA
IntestinesB
BladderC
VaginaD
Questions 97. The following is age related change in the respiratory system
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decrease in the pulmonary diffusion pressureA
increase in the pulmonary arterial pressureB
decrease in the airways resistanceC
increase in the diastolic blood pressureD
Questions 98.
Factors contributing to work related cumulative trauma disorders are the following EXCEPT
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Nature of workA
Work postureB
Force applicationC
Work durationD
Questions 99. The energy system utilised in aerobic exercises is
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PhosphocreatineA
ATPB
PhosphorylationC
lactic acidD
Questions 100. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment is a component of which rehabilitation domain?
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PrimordialA
PrimaryB
SecondaryC
TertiaryD