ESP-1 - ojas.gujarat.gov.in · (2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only. (3)...

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NAME OF THE POST Advertisement No. 39/2017-18 Preliminary Test held on 24-12-2017 Que No. 001200 Publish Date 26122017 Last Date to send suggestion(s) 312018 Note:(1) All Suggestions are to be sent with reference to website published Question paper with Provisional Answer Key Only. (2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only. (3) Candidate must ensure the above compliance. (1) ઉમેદવાર° વાંધા-Ʌ ૂચનો રȩૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસƚધ થયેલ િનયત નȺ ૂનાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો. (2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પરëામાં મળે લ સીરઝની ĕȶુƨતકામાં છપાયેલ ĕ ˲માંક Ⱥુજબ વાંધા- Ʌ ૂચનો રȩૂ કરતા તમામ વાંધા-Ʌ ૂચનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસƚધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આƛસર કના ĕ ˲માંક Ⱥુજબ અને તે સંદભ½માં રȩૂ કરવા (3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉƈત Ʌ ૂચનાȵુ અȧ ૂક પાલન કરɂુ અƛયથા વાંધા-Ʌ ૂચનો Ӕગે કર°લ રȩૂઆતો ƚયાને લેવાશે નહ. PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY ESP-1 GUJARAT ENGINEERING SERVICE (CIVIL) CLASS I &II

Transcript of ESP-1 - ojas.gujarat.gov.in · (2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only. (3)...

NAMEOFTHEPOST

AdvertisementNo. 39/2017-18

PreliminaryTestheldon 24-12-2017QueNo. 001– 200PublishDate 26‐12‐2017LastDatetosendsuggestion(s) 3‐1‐2018

Note:‐

(1) AllSuggestionsaretobesentwithreferencetowebsitepublishedQuestionpaperwithProvisionalAnswerKeyOnly.

(2) AllSuggestionsaretobesentinthegivenformatonly.(3) Candidatemustensuretheabovecompliance.

(1) ઉમેદવાર વાધંા- ચૂનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન નૂાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો. (2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર ામા ંમળેલ સીર ઝની ુ તકામા ંછપાયેલ માકં જુબ વાધંા-

ચૂનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાધંા- ચૂનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક ના માકં જુબ અને તે સદંભમા ંર ૂ કરવા

(3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉ ત ચૂના ુ ંઅ કૂ પાલન કર ુ ંઅ યથા વાધંા- ચૂનો ગે કરલ ર ૂઆતો યાને લેવાશે નહ . 

PROVISIONALANSWERKEY

ESP-1

GUJARAT ENGINEERING SERVICE (CIVIL) CLASS I &II

ESP-1-A ] [ 2 ] [ Contd...

001. NyS>fps“y„ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ âprQ“ bp¥Ý^ rhðrhÛpge R>¡? (A) rh¾$diugp (B) “pg„v$p (C) hëgcu (D) dp¡fbu

002. L¡$guL$p¡ çeyTued ip“p dpV¡$ â¿eps R>¡? (A) L$p‘X$ (B) L$pQ (C) rQÓp¡ (D) Apqv$hpku hõsyAp¡

003. NyS>fps“p âhpk“u kp’¡ ¼ep¡ Apqv$hpku DÐkh k„L$mpe¡gp¡ R>¡? (A) X$p„N DÐkh (B) dp¡Y¡$fp DÐkh (C) L$ÃR> DÐkh (D) ‘s„Np¡Ðkh

004. "‘u’p¡fp' iy„ R>¡? (A) Apqv$hpku “©Ðe (B) gp¡L$k„Nus (C) Apqv$hpku rQÓL$mp (D) gp¡L$“©Ðe

005. Nyfbp“u cS>“ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep ‘rhÓ N°„’“p¡ cpN R>¡? (A) Ah¡õsp (B) îudv¹$ cNhsNusp (C) Nyê$ N°„’ kpl¡b (D) bpCbg

006. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ ‘pfkuAp¡“y„ su’®õ’m R>¡? (A) ‘„X$fhpX$p (B) v$¡gdpg (C) Dv$hpX$p (D) dy„bC

007. Å¡X$L$p„ Å¡X$p¡ epv$u-I epv$u-II 1. ‘p¡fb„v$f a. lfrk[Ý^ dpsp 2. rkÝ^‘yf b. kfõhsu 3. dlºX$u c. O„V$pL$Z® 4. ‘phpNY$ d. cÖL$pgu (A) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c (B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d (C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

008. cpfs“y„ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ d„qv$f ""åg¡L$ ‘¡Np¡X$p'' sfuL¡$ ÅZusy„ R>¡? (A) k|e®d„qv$f, L$p¡“pL®$ (B) rb°lv$¡ðfp d„qv$f, sp„Å¡f (C) cNhp“ S>Nv$v¹$“p’ d„qv$f, ‘|fu (D) rd“pnu d„qv$f, dvy$fpC

009. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ NyS>fps“p¡ “©Ðe âL$pf R>¡? (A) apN (B) Np¡ça (C) ÅÓp (D) V$uà‘Zu

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ESP-1-A ] [ 3 ] [ P.T.O.

001. Which of the following is the ancient Buddhist University of Gujarat? (A) Vikramsila (B) Nalanda (C) Vallabhi (D) Morbi

002. CALICO Museum is famous for? (A) Textile (B) Glass (C) Paintings (D) Tribal Objects

003. Which is the tribal festival clubbed with tourism in Gujarat? (A) Dangs Festival (B) Modhera Festival (C) Kutch Utsav (D) Kite Festival

004. What is ‘Pithora’? (A) Tribal Dance (B) Folk Music (C) Tribal Painting (D) Folk Dance

005. Gurbani hymns are parts of which of the following holy book? (A) Avesta (B) Shrimad Bhagvadgita (C) Guru Granth Sahib (D) Bible

006. Which of the following is a pilgrim’s place of Parsis? (A) Pandarvada (B) Delmal (C) Udvada (D) Mumbai

007. Match the following: List I List II 1. Porbandar a. Harsiddhi Mata 2. Siddhapur b. Saraswati 3. Mahudi c. Ghantakarna 4. Pavagadh d. Bhadrakali

(A) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c (B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d (C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

008. Which among the following temples of India is known as Black pagoda? (A) Sun Temple, Konark (B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjore (C) Lord Jagannath Temple, Puri (D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

009. Which of the following is a dance form of Gujarat? (A) Phag (B) Gomph (C) Jatra (D) Tippani

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ESP-1-A ] [ 4 ] [ Contd...

010. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep„ õ’m¡ A„N°¡S> kfL$pf Üpfp v$¡iÖp¡l dpV¡$ kp¥ â’d hMs Np„^uÆ“u ^f‘L$X$ ’C lsu?

(A) dy„bC (B) ‘y“p (C) L$gL$Ñp (D) Adv$phpv$

011. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep¡ DÐkh ÅÞeyApfu dlu“pdp„ kp’p¡kp’ DS>hpsp¡ “’u? (A) dL$f k„¾$p[Þs (B) ‘p¢Ng (C) NyX$u ‘X$hp¡ (D) gp¡lfu

012. dpDÞV$ Apby Mps¡ Aph¡gp„ rhdg hkplu A“¡ gy“p hkplu“p d„qv$fp¡“u cps Üpfp L$fhpdp„ Aphu lsu.

(A) hõsy‘pg A“¡ s¡S>‘pg (B) Ly$dpf‘pm (C) dlphuf (D) Dv$edsu

013. dlpNyS>®fp i¡“u i¥gu R>¡? (A) d„qv$f õ’p‘Ðe (B) A¡¼kâ¡k f¡g ‘qfhl“ (C) A¡L$ fpS>L$ue Qmhm (D) D‘f“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡C “l]

014. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep NyS>fpsu L$rh“¡ 2016 dp„ op“‘uW$ ‘yfõL$pf dýep¡? (A) Q„Öhv$“ dl¡sp (B) fOyhuf Qp¥^fu (C) cfs ‘V¡$g (D) dl¡i Q„‘L$gpg

015. “¡i“g A¡V$dp¡õauefuL$ fukQ® g¡bp¡f¡V$fu (NARL) ¼ep„ Aph¡gu R>¡? (A) suê$‘rs (B) b¢Ágyê$ (C) rsfyh“„s‘yfd (D) “hu qv$ëgu

016. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep¡/¼ep v$¡i ‘fdpÏ Aâkpf k„r^“p kluL$sp® ¼epf¡e flep„ “’u? (A) cpfs (B) ‘pqL$õsp“ (C) CTfpe¡g (D) D‘f“p sdpd

017. cpfs-ey.A¡k. “pNqfL$ ‘fdpÏ L$fpf l¡W$m : (A) cpfs“p crhóedp„ ‘fdpÏ ‘qfnZ L$fhp“p l¼L$“¡ Akf ’su “’u.

(B) cpfs“p ÓZ såbL$p“p„ õhv$¡iu ‘fdpÏ L$pe®¾$d“¡ Akf ’su “’u. (C) cpfs¡ s¡“p ‘fdpÏ iõÓ L$pe®¾$d“¡ ‘X$sp¡ d|L$hp“p¡ “’u. (D) D‘f“p sdpd

018. ¼ep¡ cpfsue qfA¡¼V$f rhð“p¡ A¡L$dpÓ qfA¡¼V$f R>¡ L¡$ Äep„ sdpd ÓZ qakpCg ApCkp¡V$p¡‘, A¡V$g¡ L¡$, U-235, Pu-239 A“¡ U-233 I^Z sfuL¡$ h‘fpe R>¡?

(A) L$prd“u (B) L$pL$fp‘pf (C) Ly$X„$Ly$gd (D) L$ë‘p¼L$d

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ESP-1-A ] [ 5 ] [ P.T.O.

010. At which place was Gandhiji arrested for the first time by the British Government for sedition?

(A) Bombay (B) Pune (C) Calcutta (D) Ahmedabad

011. Which of the following festivals is not celebrated almost simultaneously in the month of January every year?

(A) Makar Sankrati (B) Pongal (C) Gudi Padwa (D) Lohri

012. Temple Vimal Vasahi and Luna Vasahi at Mount Abu were designed by

(A) Vastupal and Tejpal (B) Kumarpal (C) Mahavir (D) Udaymati

013. Maha Gurjara is a style of (A) Temple architecture (B) Express rail transportation (C) A political movement (D) None

014. Which of the following Gujarati poet received Jnanapith award in 2016? (A) Chandravadan Mehta (B) Raghuveer Chaudhari (C) Bharat Patel (D) Mahesh Champaklal

015. Where is National Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL) Located? (A) Tirupati (B) Bengaluru (C) Thiruvanathapuram (D) New Delhi

016. Which of the following countries has never been a signatory to the nuclear non proliferation treaty?

(A) India (B) Pakistan (C) Israel (D) All of the above

017. Under Indo-US civil nuclear Agreement: (A) India’s right to conduct nuclear test in future does not get

affected. (B) India’s indigenous three stage nuclear programme does not get

affected. (C) India does not have to give up its nuclear weapons programme. (D) All of the above.

018. Which Indian reactor is the only reactor in the world where all the three fissile isotopes viz., U-235, Pu-239 & U-233 are used as fuel?

(A) Kamini (B) Kakrapar (C) Kudankulam (D) Kalpakam

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ESP-1-A ] [ 6 ] [ Contd...

019. cpfsdp„ apõV$ b°uX$f qfA¡¼V$f (FBR) “p r“dp®Z A“¡ L$pe®fs L$fhp“y„ DAE l¡W$m L$C cpfsue L„$‘“u“¡ kp¢‘pey„ R>¡?

(A) Þey[¼gef ‘phf L$p¡‘p£f¡i“ Ap¡a CÞX$uep gu. (NPCIL) (B) A¡V$duL$ A¡“Æ® f¡Ágyg¡V$fu bp¡X®$ (AERB) (C) cpcp A¡V$duL$ A¡“Æ® fukQ® k¡ÞV$f (BARC) (D) cpfsue “prcL$ue rhÛys r“Nd gu. (BHAVINI)

020. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C “¡V$-b¡ÞL$]N k¡hpAp¡ sdpd kde¡ D‘gå^ lp¡e R>¡? (A) NEFT (“¡i“g Cg¡¼V²$p¡“uL$ a„X$k V²$pÞaf) (B) IMPS (CduX$ue¡V$ ‘¡d¡ÞV$ kh}k) (C) RTGS (fueg V$pCd N°p¡k k¡V$gd¡ÞV$) (D) D‘f“p sdpd

021. X$uApfX$uAp¡ (DRDO) Üpfp rhL$kphpe¡g “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ dp“hfrls lhpC hpl“ (UAV) gÿep„L$ X²$p¡“ (target drone) “’u?

(A) Aæepk (B) DëL$p (C) gÿe (D) r“ip„s

022. cpfs“p dpk® Ap¡b}V$k® rdi“ (MOM) “p Ap¡“-bp¡X®$ ‘¡gp¡X$k¹“p¡ ¼ey„ kp^“ rlõkp¡ “’u?

(A) gpCd“ Apëap ap¡V$p¡duV$f (B) dpk® L$gf L¡$d¡fp (C) lpC‘f õ‘¡¼V²$g Cd¡Æk (D) ’d®g CÞafpf¡X$ Cd¡Æ„N õ‘¡¼V²$p¡duV$f

023. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡“p T¡f“p L$pfZ¡ CV$pC-CV$pC fp¡N ’pe R>¡? (A) ‘pfp¡ (B) “pCV²¡$V$ (C) L¡$X$rded (D) Apk£r“L$

024. kpdpÞe fus¡ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep M„X$dp„’u dlÑd k„¿epdp„ Ly$v$fsu Ap‘rÑAp¡“p Al¡hpg dm¡ R>¡?

(A) A¡iuep (B) ApqäL$p (C) eyfp¡‘ (D) DÑf Ad¡fuL$p

025. cfs‘yf Mps¡“y„ L¡$Ap¡g¡X¡$ep¡ fp[óV²$e DÛp“ i¡“p k„fnZ dpV¡$ â¿eps R>¡? (A) hpO (B) L$pmuepf (C) OqX$epg (D) ‘nuAp¡

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ESP-1-A ] [ 7 ] [ P.T.O.

019. Which government company under the DAE is entrusted the construction and commissioning of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBR) in India?

(A) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL) (B) Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) (C) Bhabha Atomic Energy Research Centre (BARC) (D) Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI)

020. Which of the following net-banking services are available all the time? (A) NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) (B) IMPS (Immediate Payment Service) (C) RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) (D) All of the above

021. Which one of the following Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) developed by DRDO is not a target drone:

(A) Abhyas (B) Ulka (C) Lakshya (D) Nishant

022. Which instrument is not a part of on-board payloads of Mars Orbiters Mission (MOM) of India:

(A) Lyman Alpha Photometer (B) Mars Color Camera

(C) Hyper Spectral Images (D) Thermal Infrared Imaging Spectrometer

023. Itai-itai disease is caused by the poisoning of which one of the following? (A) Mercury (B) Nitrate (C) Cadmium (D) Arsenic

024. Maximum number of natural disasters, are generally reported from which of the following continents?

(A) Asia (B) Africa (C) Europe (D) North America

025. The Keoladeo National Park at Bharatpur is famous for the conservation of:

(A) Tiger (B) Black Buck (C) Gharial (D) Birds

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ESP-1-A ] [ 8 ] [ Contd...

026. ¼ep v$¡i¡ D‘N°l-rhfp¡^u iõÓp¡“y„ âv$i®“ L$ey¯ “’u? (A) Qu“ (B) cpfs (C) ey.A¡k.A¡. (D) fiuep

027. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C Å¡X$u Aep¡Áe fus¡ Å¡X$pe¡gu R>¡? fpóV²$ue DÛp“ fpÄe (A) L$pTuf„Np - Apkpd (B) dp¡g¡d - Np¡hp (C) L$pÞlp - dÝeâv$¡i (D) bp„v$u‘yf - fpS>õ’p“

028. v$¡hv$pf“p h©np¡ kpdpÞe fus¡ âL$pf“p S>„Ngp¡dp„ Å¡hp„ dm¡ R>¡. (A) rldpge“p ‘lp¡mp„ ‘p“hpmp„ S>„Ng (B) rldpge“p i„Ly$Öºd S>„Ng (C) ‘p“Mf c¡S>hpmp„ S>„Ng (D) ‘p“Mf k|L$p„ S>„Ng

029. Apr’®L$ kdunp 2016-17 (CL$p¡“p¡duL$ kh£ 2016-17) dp„ ÓZ rhcpNp¡ R>¡. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep¡ kpQp¡ ¾$d R>¡?

(A) ‘qf‘¡ÿe (The Perspective), A“ydp“ (The Proximate), A“hfs (The Persistent)

(B) ‘qf‘¡ÿe (The Perspective), A“ydp“ (The Proximate), k„crhs (The Prospective)

(C) A“ydp“ (The Proximate), ‘qf‘¡ÿe (The Perspective),A“hfs (The Persistent)

(D) A“hfs (The Persistent), ‘qf‘¡ÿe (The Perspective), A“ydp“ (The Proximate)

030. hëX®$ l¡‘u“¡k fu‘p¡V®$ 2017 A“ykpf cpfs“y„ 155 v$¡ip¡dp„ ¼ey„ õ’p“ R>¡? (A) 122 (B) 119 (C) 118 (D) 124

031. Å¡X$L$p„ Å¡X$p¡. epv$u-I epv$u-II a. L$p¡‘p£f¡V$ L$f 1. rdëL$s“y„ h¡QpZ b. A¡¼kpCT X$éyV$u 2. L„$‘“u“u AphL$ c. L$õV$d X$éyV$u 3. Apeps-r“L$pk d. d|X$u gpc L$f 4. v$¡i“u A„v$f DБpv$“ ’e¡g dpg (A) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4 (B) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 (C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (D) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

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ESP-1-A ] [ 9 ] [ P.T.O.

026. Which country has not demonstrated anti-satellite weapons? (A) China (B) India (C) USA (D) Russia

027. Which one of the following pair is incorrectly matched? National Park State (A) Kaziranga – Assam (B) Mollem – Goa (C) Kanha – Madhya Pradesh (D) Bandhipur – Rajasthan

028. Pine trees are generally found in type of forests. (A) Himalayan broad leaved forest (B) Himalayan coniferous forest (C) Deciduous Moist forest (D) Deciduous dry forest

029. Economic Survey 2016-17 has three section. Which one is the correct sequence?

(A) The Perspective, The Proximate, The Persistent (B) The Perspective, The Proximate, The Prospective (C) The Proximate, The Perspective, The Persistent (D) The Persistent, The Perspective, The Proximate

030. What is the rank of India amongst 155 countries as per World Happiness Report 2017?

(A) 122 (B) 119 (C) 118 (D) 124

031. Match the following: List I List II a. Corporate Tax 1. Sale of Property b. Excise Duty 2. Income of a Company c. Custom Duty 3. Exports & Imports d. Capital Gain Tax 4. Good produced within a country

(A) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4 (B) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 (C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (D) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

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ESP-1-A ] [ 10 ] [ Contd...

032. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ NyS>fps“y„ b„v$f “’u? (A) kgpep (B) Åafpbpv$ (C) ‘u‘phph (D) ^pdfp

033. Np¥Z L©$rj A¡V$g¡ iy„? (A) N°prdZ n¡Ó“p¡ rhL$pk (B) Ap„sfdpmMp“p¡ rhL$pk (C) N°prdZ DÛp¡N“u â’pAp¡ A“¡ âq¾$epAp¡ (D) â’pAp¡ A“¡ âq¾$epAp¡ L¡$ S>¡ âp’rdL$ L©$rj hõsyAp¡“y„ d|ëeh^®“ L$f¡

034. cpfsdp„ rhL$pk“u õhcprhL$ âZpgudp„ A“Þe iy„ R>¡? (A) îd“p¡ L©$rjdp„’u Ap¥Ûp¡rNL$ n¡Ódp„ ku^p¡ bv$gph (B) îd“p¡ Ap¥Ûp¡rNL$dp„’u k¡hp n¡Ódp„ ku^p¡ bv$gph (C) îd“p¡ L©$rjdp„’u k¡hp n¡Ódp„ ku^p¡ bv$gph (D) k¡hp n¡Ódp„ îd“u [õ’fsp

035. “hu“ rhL$kphpe¡g A¡àguL¡$i“, ÆA¡kV$u kyrh^p âp¡hpCX$f (GSPs) “p¡ D‘ep¡N Üpfp ’pe R>¡.

(A) GST kdS>hp dpV¡$ fpÄekfL$pf (B) GST kdS>hp dpV¡$ L¡$ÞÖ kfL$pf (C) GSTN kp’¡ q¾$epârs¾$ep dpV¡$ L$fv$pspAp¡ (D) GST kp’¡“y„ ‘pg“ L$fhp dpV¡$ fpS>L$ue ‘np¡

036. cpfsue L©$rj“p¡ dy¿e âL$pf ¼ep¡ R>¡? (A) ìep‘pfu L©$rj (B) ìep‘L$ L©$rj (C) h“õ‘rs L©$rj (D) r“hp®l L©$rj

037. QgZ“y„ Ahd|ëe“ h^pf¡ apev$pL$pfL$ ’pe Å¡ (A) õ’pr“L$ QuS>hõsyAp¡“p cph [õ’f fl¡ (B) Apeps“p cph [õ’f fl¡ (C) r“L$pk“p cph [õ’f fl¡ (D) r“L$pk“p cph âdpZkf h^¡

038. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C ArhL$rks v$¡ip¡“u dy¿e gpnrZL$spAp¡ R>¡? i. M¡su D‘f Ap^pf ii. “uQp¡ dp“h rhL$pk k|QL$p„L$ iii. r“ç“ Æh“ ^p¡fZ A“¡ ìep‘L$ Nfubu iv. Ly$v$fsu k„kp^“p¡“y„ ip¡jZ A“¡ Ap¥Ûp¡rNL$ n¡Ó“p¡ rhL$pk

(A) a¼s i, ii A“¡ iii (B) a¼s ii, iii A“¡ iv (C) a¼s i, iii A“¡ iv (D) a¼s i, ii A“¡ iv

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ESP-1-A ] [ 11 ] [ P.T.O.

032. Which of the following is not a port of Gujarat? (A) Salaya (B) Jafrabad (C) Pipavav (D) Dhamra

033. What is secondary agriculture? (A) Development of rural sector (B) Development of infrastructure (C) Practices & processes in rural industries (D) Practices and processes that add value to primary agriculture

commodities

034. What is unique in the idiosyncratic pattern of development in India? (A) Shift of labour from agriculture to industrial sector directly (B) Shift of labour from industrial to service sector directly (C) Shift of labour from agriculture to service sector directly (D) Stagnation of labour in the service sector

035. The GST Suvidha provider (GSPs), a newly developed application, is used by:

(A) State Government to understand GST (B) Central Government to understand GST (C) Taxpayers for interacting with GSTN (D) Political parties to comply with GST

036. What is the predominant type of Indian agriculture? (A) Commercial agriculture (B) Extensive agriculture (C) Plantation agriculture (D) Subsistence agriculture

037. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if (A) Prices of domestic goods remain constant (B) Prices of import remains constant (C) Prices of export remains constant (D) Prices of export rise proportionately

038. Which of the following are the basic characteristics of underdeveloped countries?

i. Dependence on agriculture ii. Low human development index iii. Poor standard of living and mass poverty iv. Exploitation of natural resources and the development of industrial

sector (A) i, ii & iii only (B) ii, iii & iv only (C) i, iii & iv only (D) i, ii & iv only

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ESP-1-A ] [ 12 ] [ Contd...

039. cpfsdp„ Nfubu f¡Mp“p¡ A„v$pS> L$pY$hp dpV¡$ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡Z kdep„sf¡ “d|“p dp¡S>Zu lp’ ^f¡ R>¡?

(A) L¡$ÞÖue Ap„L$X$pipõÓue k„õ’p (k¡ÞV²$g õV¡$V$ukV$uL$g Ap¡N£“pCT¡i“) (B) cpfsue Ap„L$X$pipõÓ k„õ’p“ (CÞX$ue“ õV¡$V$ukV$uL$g CÞõV$uV$ueyV$) (C) cpfsue fp[óV²$e AphL$ A„v$pS> krdrs (CÞX$ue“ “¡i“g CÞL$d L$rdV$u) (D) fpóV²$ue “d|“p dp¡S>Zu k„õ’p (“¡i“g k¡ç‘g kh£ Ap¡N£“uCT¡i“)

040. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$ep ArhL$rks lp¡hp A„N¡“p dy¿e r“v$£iL$p¡ R>¡? i. dp“h A“¡ Ly$v$fsu k„kp^“p¡“p¡ dep®qv$s D‘ep¡N ii. k¡hpn¡Ó D‘f h^y Ahg„b“ iii. îdL¡$ÞÖus sL$“uL$p¡ D‘f h^y Ahg„b“ iv. Nfubu, AphL$“p “uQp õsf A“¡ b¡fp¡S>Npfu (A) a¼s i A“¡ iii (B) a¼s ii A“¡ iv (C) i, ii, iii A“¡ iv (D) a¼s i, iii A“¡ iv

041. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep A„sN°®lp¡ R>¡? 1. ‘©Õhu 2. by^ 3. iy¾$ 4. Nyfy

(A) 1 A“¡ 4 (B) 2 A“¡ 3 (C) 3 A“¡ 4 (D) 1 A“¡ 3

042. ‘©Õhu D‘f“p sp‘dp““p rhsfZdp„ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ kp¥’u ANÐe“y„ AkfL$sp® OV$L$ R>¡?

(A) Anp„i (B) f¡Mp„i (C) ‘pr’®h (D) v$fuep’u A„sf

043. cpfs“u 2011 “u hõsuNZÓu“u rhNs âdpZ¡, NyS>fps“u hõsuNuQsp R>¡.

(A) 397 (B) 365 (C) 319 (D) 308

044. fpÄe“p h“ Al¡hpg-2011 (õV¡$V$ ap¡f¡õV$ fu‘p¡V®$-2011) âdpZ¡, NyS>fps“p¡ Ly$g L¡$V$gp V$L$p rhõspf h“pApÃR>pqv$s R>¡?

(A) 7.46% (B) 3.64% (C) 10.14% (D) 16.86%

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ESP-1-A ] [ 13 ] [ P.T.O.

039. Which one of the following conducts periodical sample survey for estimating the poverty line in India?

(A) Central Statistical Organization (B) Indian Statistical Institute (C) Indian National Income Estimates Committee (D) National Sample Survey Organization

040. Which of the following are the major indicators of underdevelopment? i. Underutilized human and natural resources ii. More dependence on service sector iii. More dependence on labour intensive techniques iv. Poverty, low levels of income and unemployment (A) i, iii only (B) ii, iv only (C) i, ii, iii and iv (D) i, iii and iv only

041. Which of the following are the internal planets? i. Earth ii. Mercury iii. Venus iv. Jupiter (A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3

042. Which one of the following is the most important influencing factor for the distribution of temperature on the earth?

(A) Latitude (B) Longitude (C) Terrestrial (D) Distance from the sea

043. According to 2011 Census of India data, population density of Gujarat is

(A) 397 (B) 365 (C) 319 (D) 308

044. According to State Forest Report 2011, percentage of total area under forest of Gujarat is

(A) 7.46% (B) 3.64% (C) 10.14% (D) 16.86%

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ESP-1-A ] [ 14 ] [ Contd...

045. ^pfhpX$ kd|l“p MX$L$p¡ ip“p dpV¡$ â¿eps R>¡? (A) d¸N¡“uT c„X$pf (B) gp¡l AeõL$“p c„X$pf (C) bp¡¼kpCV$ (D) Q|“p‘Õ’f

046. ""L$pf¡hp r“n¡‘Zp¡'' dp„ Å¡hp dm¡ R>¡. (A) L$p[ídf MuZ (B) Apkpd MuZ (C) rldpge“u sm¡V$u (D) dyMrÓL$p¡Z âv$¡i

047. bp¡¼kpCV$ c„X$pfdp„ dlÑd AN°Zu fpÄe R>¡. (A) TpfM„X$ (B) Ap„^° âv$¡i (C) NyS>fps (D) Ap¡qfõkp

048. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u fpÄep¡“y„ ¼ey„ S|>’ L$W$p¡m ‘pL$ DБpv$“ dpV¡$ rh¿eps R>¡? (A) Apkpd, ‘ròd b„Npm A“¡ rk[¼L$d (B) dÝeâv$¡i, dlpfpóV²$ A“¡ fpS>õ’p“ (C) L¡$fm, L$Zp®V$L$ A“¡ Ap„^° âv$¡i (D) lfuepZp, TpfM„X$, rldpQg âv$¡i

049. “d®v$p sV$âv$¡idp„ kfpkfu hfkpv$ Apif¡ R>¡. (A) 1178 rdrgduV$f (B) 904 rdrgduV$f (C) 1415 rdrgduV$f (D) 1300 rdrgduV$f

050. b°ûp„X$“u DБrÑ bpbs“p rkÝ^p„sp¡ A„N¡“u “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C Å¡X$u/Å¡X$uAp¡ kpQu fus¡ Å¡X$pe¡gu R>¡?

1. buN b¢N rkÝ^p„s : C Äep¡S>® g¡d¡Ó Üpfp 2. õ’peu Ahõ’p rkÝ^p„s : ’p¡dk Np¡ëX$ A“¡ ld®“ bp¡ÞX$u Üpfp 3. L„$‘“ b°ûp„X$ rkÝ^p„s : A¡g“ kÞX¡$k¹ Üpfp

(A) a¼s 1 kpQy„ R>¡. (B) a¼s 2 kpQy„ R>¡. (C) a¼s 1 A“¡ 3 kpQp„ R>¡. (D) sdpd kpQp„ R>¡.

051. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep MX$L$ ep¡Áe fus¡ Å¡X$pe¡g “’u? (A) A[Á“L©$s MX$L$p¡ - b¡kpëV$ (B) âõsf MX$L$p¡ - i¡g (C) rhL©$s MX$L$p¡ - f¡Nyf (D) D‘f“p sdpd

052. DÑf cpfsdp„ DÑf-‘ròd A“¡ ‘ròd-‘|h® sfa’u hpsp Nfd A“¡ k|L$p ‘h““¡ L$l¡ R>¡.

(A) Nfd (B) kd|“ (C) g| (D) b|

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ESP-1-A ] [ 15 ] [ P.T.O.

045. Dharwar system of rocks is famous for : (A) Manganese reserves (B) Iron ore reserves (C) Bauxite (D) Limestone

046. ‘Karewa Deposits’ are found in (A) Kashmir Valley (B) Assam Valley (C) Himalayan foothills (D) Delta region

047. The most prominent state in ‘bauxite’ reserves is : (A) Jharkhand (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Gujarat (D) Orissa

048. Among the following which group of states are famous for pulses crop prouction?

(A) Assam, West Bengal and Sikkim (B) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan (C) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh (D) Haryana, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh

049. The average rainfall in Narmada Basin is almost . (A) 1178 Millimeter (B) 904 Millimeter (C) 1415 Millimeter (D) 1300 Millimeter

050. Which one of the following theories regarding the origin of the universe are correctly matched :

1. Big Bang Theory ; By E George Lamaitre 2. Steady State Theory : By Thomas Gold and Herman Bondy 3. Pulsating Universe Theory : By Allen Sundes (A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct (C) Only 1 and 3 are correct (D) All are correct

051. Which one of the following rocks is not correctly matched? (A) Igneous Rocks-Basalt (B) Sedimentary Rocks-Shale (C) Metamorphic Rocks-Regur (D) All the above

052. The hot and dry wind blowing in the northern India from the north-west and west-east are called :

(A) Garam (B) Samoon (C) Loo (D) Boo

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ESP-1-A ] [ 16 ] [ Contd...

053. rhõspf“p k„v$c£, cpfsdp„ NyS>fps“p¡ ¾$d R>¡. (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 6

054. ‘|h® ’u ‘ròd sfa S>sp„ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u“p¡ ‘h®sp¡“p¡ ¼ep¡ ¾$d kpQp¡ R>¡? (A) Mpku, Npfp¡, S>¥[Þsep, “pNpV¡$L$fuAp¡ (B) “pNpV¡$L$fuAp¡, S>¥[Þsep, Mpku, Npfp¡ (C) S>¥[Þsep, Npfp¡, Mpku, “pNpV¡$L$fuAp¡ (D) “pNpV¡$L$fuAp¡, Mpku, Npfp¡, S>¥[Þsep

055. cpfsdp„ f¡C“bp¡ ¾$p[Þs (f¡C“bp¡ f¡hp¡ëeyi“) i¡“u kp’¡ k„L$mpe¡gu R>¡? (A) qaëd DÛp¡N“p rhL$pk kp’¡ (B) AhL$pi k„ip¡^“ rhL$pk (C) bpm õhpõÕe L$pe®¾$d (D) L©$rj“p rhrh^ n¡Óp¡“p¡ rhL$pk

056. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep v$¡i“u hõsuNuQsp kp¥’u h^y R>¡? (A) bp„Ágpv$¡i (B) ‘pqL$õsp“ (C) îug„L$p (D) cpfs

057. hõsuNZÓu-2011 A“ykpf cpfsdp„ 60 hj®’u h^y he ^fphsu hõsu“u V$L$phpfu Ly$g hõsu“u hÃQ¡ R>¡.

(A) 2-5 (B) 5-10 (C) 10-12 (D) 12-15

058. S>¥“ ‘f„‘fp“p„ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡“¡ su’¯L$f sfuL¡$ Ýep“¡ g¡hpdp„ Aphsp„ “’u? (A) ê$jc“p’ (B) Apqv$“p’ (C) râev$i®“ (D) ‘pð®“p’

059. “p kdeNpmp v$fçep“ L¡$ÞÖue kcpdp„ CgbV®$ bug fSy> L$fhpdp„ Apìey„. (A) gp¡X®$ “p¡’®b°yL$ (B) gp¡X®$ rgàV$“ (C) gp¡X®$ fu‘“ (D) gp¡X®$ X$afu“

060. kepÆfph NpeL$hpX$-III A¡ “¡ DÃQ Aæepk ‘|Z® L$fhp dpV¡$ “pZpL$ue klpe Ap‘u lsu.

(A) X$p¡. bu. Apf. Ap„b¡X$L$f (B) rhW$W$g fpdpÆ riÞv$¡ (C) rihfpd S>¡. L$pçg¡ (D) qL$kp“ ap¥Æ bÞkp¡v$

061. Dvy$®“¡ A¡L$ Qp¡¼L$k õhê$‘, sÐh A“¡ i¥gu L$p¡Z¡ Ap‘u lp¡hp“y„ L$l¡hpe R>¡? (A) hgu v$¿MZu (B) “Tufu (C) Dsbu (D) Aåvy$k kpdv$

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ESP-1-A ] [ 17 ] [ P.T.O.

053. In the terms of Area, in India Gujarat is ranked at no. (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 6

054. Which of the following is the correct sequence of mountains from east to west

(A) Khasi, Garo, Jaintia, Nagahills (B) Nagahills, Jaintia, Khasi, Garo (C) Jaintia, Garo, Khasi, Nagahills (D) Nagahills, Khasi, Garo, Jaintia

055. Rainbow revolution in India is related with : (A) Development with film industry (B) Space research development (C) Child health programme (D) Development of various sectors of Agriculture

056. Which one of the following countries has the highest density of population? (A) Bangladesh (B) Pakistan (C) Srilanka (D) India

057. According to 2011 Census the percentage of aged population (60+) to total population in India lies between

(A) 2-5 (B) 5-10 (C) 10-12 (D) 12-15

058. Who among the following is not considered as a Tirthankar in the Jain tradition?

(A) Rishabhnath (B) Adinatha (C) Priyadarshana (D) Parsvanatha

059. Ilbert Bill was introduced in the Central Assembly during the time of . (A) Lord Northbrook (B) Lord Lytton (C) Lord Ripon (D) Lord Dufferin

060. Sayyajirao Gaekwad III gave financial help to to complete Higher education

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Vithal Ramaji Shinde (C) Shivaram J. Kamble (D) Kisan Fauji Bansod

061. Who is stated to have given a definite form, content and style to Urdu? (A) Wali Dakkhani (B) Naziri (C) Utbi (D) Abdus Samad

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ESP-1-A ] [ 18 ] [ Contd...

062. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ rh^p“ v$¡hb„v$ ipmp bpbs¡ kpQy„ “’u? (A) s¡“p¡ Aæepk“p¡ d|m L$pe®¾$d 10 hj®’u OV$pX$u“¡ 5 hj® L$ep£. (B) s¡“p rhÛp’}Ap¡“¡ Dg¡dpAp¡“u c|rdL$p N°lZ L$fhp s¥epf L$ep®. (C) CõgpduL$ N°„’p¡ D‘f Ýep“ L¡$ÞÖus L$ey¯. (D) A„N°¡Æ A’hp ‘pòpÐe cpjp“p¡ kdph¡i “ L$ep£.

063. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u“y„ ¼ey„ fp¡d¡[ÞV$L$ “pV$L$ ‘yíelc|rs fpS>hu, lj® Üpfp gMpe¡gy„ R>¡? (A) fГphgu (B) “pN“„v$p (C) gugphsu (D) L©$Ðe L$ë‘sfy„

064. buÆ bp¥Ý^ ‘qfjv$ õ’m¡ ep¡ÅC lsu. (A) h¥ipgu (B) fpS>N©l (C) ‘pV$gu‘yÓ (D) L$p[ídf

065. NyS>fps kës“s“p R>¡ëgp„ i[¼sipmu kygsp“, blpvy$fipl“¡ L$p¡Z¡ dpfu “p¿ep¡? (A) i¡f ipl k|fu (B) lºdpey (C) b¥fpdMp“ (D) ‘p¡Vy®$NuT

066. Np„^uÆ Üpfp iê$ L$fhpdp„ Aph¡g v$p„X$u kÐepN°l“p kde v$fçep“ cpfs“p hpCkfp¡e L$p¡Z lsp„?

(A) gp¡X®$ Cfhu“ (B) Ag® Ap¡a rhtgÁV$“ (C) dpL®$k Ap¡a rg“rg’Np¡ (D) Ag® Ap¡a fuX$]N

067. ‘ròd cpfsdp„ Nyàs fpÅ Q„ÖNyàs-II Üpfp s¡“p rk¼L$p dpV¡$ L$C ^psy ‘k„v$ L$fhpdp„ Aphu lsu?

(A) V$u“ (B) L$p„ky (C) Qp„v$u (D) kuky„

068. AL$bf“p¡ NyS>fps“p¡ kyb¡v$pf (Nh®“f) L$p¡Z lsp¡? (A) Crsdv$ Mp“ (B) duTp® ATuT L$p¡L$p (C) b¥fpd Mp“ (D) dl„dv$ lºk¡“ duTp®

069. NyS>fpsdp„ fpS>L$p¡V$ L$p¡g¡S>“u õ’p‘“p ¼ep„ A„N°¡S> hpCkfp¡e¡ L$fu lsu? (A) gp¡X®$ L¡$“]N (B) gp¡X®$ S>lp¡“ gp¡f¡Þk (C) gp¡X®$ d¡ep¡ (D) gp¡X®$ fu‘“

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ESP-1-A ] [ 19 ] [ P.T.O.

062. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Deoband School? (A) It reduced its original programme of study from 10 years to 5 years (B) It prepared its students to assume the role of Ulemas (C) It focused on the Islamic texts (D) It did not introduce English or Western learning.

063. Which in the following is a romantic play written by Harsha, the Pushyabhuti ruler?

(A) Ratnavalli (B) Nagananda (C) Lilavati (D) Kritya Kalpataru

064. The venue of the Second Buddhist Council was held at (A) Vaisali (B) Rajagriha (C) Patliputra (D) Kashmir

065. The last powerful sultan of Gujarat Sultanate, Bahadur Shah, was killed by .

(A) Sher Shah Suri (B) Humayun (C) Bairam Khan (D) Portuguese

066. Who was the Viceroy of India during the time of Dandi Satyagrah launched by Gandhi?

(A) Lord Irwin (B) Earl of Willington (C) Marquess of Linlithgow (D) Earl of Reading

067. Which metal was chosen by the Gupta Emperor Chandragupta II for his coinage in Western India?

(A) Tin (B) Bronze (C) Silver (D) Lead

068. Who was Akbar’s Governor of Gujarat? (A) Itimad Khan (B) Mirza Aziz Koka (C) Bairam Khan (D) Muhammad Husain Mirza

069. Which British Viceroy esatablished the Rajkot College in Gujarat? (A) Lord Canning (B) Lord John Lawrence (C) Lord Mayo (D) Lord Ripon

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ESP-1-A ] [ 20 ] [ Contd...

070. “uQ¡“p rh^p“p¡ Ýep“¡ gp¡. 1. Ly$ipZp¡A¡ dp¡V$u k„¿epdp„ kp¡“p“p rk¼L$pAp¡ Åfu L$ep®. 2. s¡Ap¡A¡ sp„bp“p rk¼L$pAp¡ ‘Z Åfu L$ep®.

(A) b„“¡ rh^p“p¡ kpQp R>¡. (B) b„“¡ rh^p“p¡ Mp¡V$p R>¡. (C) 1 kpQy„ R>¡, ‘Z 2 Mp¡Vy„$ R>¡. (D) 1 Mp¡Vy„$ R>¡, ‘Z 2 kpQy„ R>¡.

071. “uQ¡ v$ip®h¡g kÐepN°lp¡“¡ L$pg¾$d âdpZ¡ Np¡W$hp¡. 1. bp¡fkv$ kÐepN°l 2. M¡X$p kÐepN°l 3. Q„‘pfZ kÐepN°l 4. rdg-L$pdv$pfp¡ kÐepN°l

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4 (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

072. cpfs“p b„^pfZ“p ¼ep ky^pfp“¡ ""‘y“:õ’p‘“ ky^pfp¡'' L$lu iL$pe? (A) 42 dp¡ ky^pfp¡ (B) 44 dp¡ ky^pfp¡ (C) 52 dp¡ ky^pfp¡ (D) 73 dp¡ ky^pfp¡

073. N©ldp„ ¼epf¡ õ‘uL$f ‘p¡sp“p dspr^L$pf“p¡ D‘ep¡N L$fu iL¡$? (A) A¡“u ‘p¡sp“u dfÆ âdpZ¡ (B) Äepf¡ gp¡L$kcp s¡d“¡ ds A‘phhp CÃR>¡ Ðepf¡ (C) Äepf¡ fpóV²$‘rs s¡d“¡ ds A‘phhp CÃR>¡ Ðepf¡ (D) ds kfMp ‘X¡$ s¡ qL$õkpdp„

074. Qu“ A“ykpf, Aê$ZpQgâv$¡i ¼ep„ rhõspf“p¡ A¡L$ cpN R>¡? (A) AL$kpC Qu“ rhõspf (B) Qu“ (C) v$rnZ sub¡V$ (D) c|sp“

075. v$rnZ A¡riep dy¼s h¡‘pf L$fpf (^ kpD’ A¡iue“ V²¡$X$ A¡N°ud¡ÞV$) (SAFTA) kam ’ey„ “’u L$pfZL¡$

1. v$¡ip¡“p¡ M|bS> dep®qv$s r“L$pkagL$ 2. qÜ‘nue dy¼sh¡‘pf L$fpfp¡“p¡ Acph 3. fpS>L$ue CÃR>pi[¼s“p¡ Acph “uQ¡ S>Zph¡g L$p¡X$“p¡ D‘ep¡N L$fu kpQp¡ S>hpb ‘k„v$ L$fp¡. (A) a¼s 1 A“¡ 2 (B) a¼s 1 A“¡ 3 (C) a¼s 2 A“¡ 3 (D) 1, 2 A“¡ 3

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ESP-1-A ] [ 21 ] [ P.T.O.

070. Read the following statements: 1. The Kushanas issued a large number of gold coins 2. They also issued copper coins (A) Both statements are true (B) Both statements are wrong (C) 1 is true, but 2 is false (D) 1 is false, but 2 is true

071. Arrange the following satyagrahas in a chronological order : 1. Borsad Satyagrah 2. Kheda Satyagrah 3. Champaran Satyagrah 4. Mill-worker’s Satyagrah

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4 (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

072. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India can be called as ‘Restorative Amendment’?

(A) 42nd Amendment (B) 44th Amendment (C) 52nd Amendment (D) 73rd Amendment

073. When can the speaker of the Lok Sabha exercise his right to vote in the house?

(A) On his own desire (B) When the Lok Sabha wants him to vote (C) When the President wants him to vote (D) In the event of equality of votes

074. According to China, Arunachal Pradesh is a part of which region (A) Aksai Chin region (B) China (C) South Tibet (D) Bhutan

075. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) has not been a success because of

1. Narrow export base of countries 2. Lack of bilateral free trade agreements 3. Lack of Political will Select the correct answer using the codes given below (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

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ESP-1-A ] [ 22 ] [ Contd...

076. cpfs k|rQs dy¼s h¡‘pf L$fpf’u ASEAN A“¡ AÞe 5 v$¡ip¡ kp’¡ Å¡X$phhp CÃR>¡ R>¡. Ap k|rQs Apr’®L$ kp¡v$p“y„ “pd R>¡.

(A) A¡iue“ CL$p¡“p¡duL$ L$p¡Ap¡‘f¡i“ ‘pV®$“fiu‘ (B) A¡iue“ L$p¡çâul¡Þkuh CL$p¡“p¡duL$ A¡N°ud¡ÞV$ (C) fuÆep¡“g L$p¡çâul¡Þkuh CL$p¡“p¡duL$ ‘pV®$“fiu‘ (D) fuÆep¡“g CL$p¡“p¡duL$ A¡N°ud¡ÞV$

077. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep fpÄedp„ fpÄe‘pg¡ b„^pfZue afrS>eps fus¡ Apqv$hpku bpbsp¡“p d„Óu“u r“dÏ„L$ L$fhu ‘X¡$ R>¡?

(A) rblpf (B) L$Zp®V$L$ (C) dÝeâv$¡i (D) Ap„^°âv$¡i

078. cpfs kfL$pf Üpfp “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep qv$hk“¡ ""rkrhg k¡hp qv$hk'' (Civil Service Day) sfuL¡$ DS>hhpdp„ Aph¡ R>¡?

(A) 12 du ÅÞeyApfu (B) 15 du dpQ® (C) 21 du A¡râg (D) 24 du A¡râg

079. fp¡ (R.A.W.) (qfkQ® A¡ÞX$ A¡“prgkuk h]N) “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡“p¡ rlõkp¡ R>¡? (A) N©l d„Ópge (B) L¡$bu“¡V$ krQhpge (C) ‘u.A¡d.Ap¡. (D) rhv$¡iu bpbsp¡“y„ d„Ópge

080. A¡L$kV$“®g ‘ågukuV$u A¡ÞX$ ‘åguL$ X$uàgp¡dku (XPD) rhcpN cpfs“p ¼ep d„Ópge“p¡ rlõkp¡ R>¡?

(A) rhv$¡iu bpbsp¡“y„ d„Ópge (B) N©l d„Ópge (C) k„fnZ d„Ópge (D) dp“h k„kp^“ A“¡ rhL$pk d„Ópge

081. L$p¡Z¡ Ål¡f“urs“¡ ""kfL$pfp¡ S>¡ L$C ‘Z L$fhp“y„ L¡$ “ L$fhp“y„ ‘k„v$ L$f¡ s¡'' dyS>b ìep¿epres L$fu R>¡?

(A) bu Npe ‘uV$k® (B) C.A¡a. d¡gp¡“ (C) ’p¡dk Apf X$pe (D) ¼gp¸L$ C L$p¡Qf“¹

082. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ b„^pfZ“u ANuepfdu A“yk|rQdp„ “’u? (A) N°prdZ N©lr“dp®Z (B) ‘uhp“y„ ‘pZu (C) kpdyv$preL$ rdëL$s“u ÅmhZu (D) kp„âv$preL$ k„hpqv$sp kyfnp

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ESP-1-A ] [ 23 ] [ P.T.O.

076. India wants to join a proposed Free Trade Agreement with ASEAN and 5 other countries. The name of this proposed economic deal is :

(A) Asian Economic Cooperation Partnership (B) Asian Comprehensive Economic Agreement (C) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (D) Regional Economic Cooperation Agreement

077. In which of the following state it is constitutionally obligatory for the Governor to appoint a minister of tribal affairs?

(A) Bihar (B) Karnataka (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Andhra Pradesh

078. Which of the following day is celebrated as ‘Civil Service Day’ by Government of India?

(A) 12th January (B) 15th March (C) 21st April (D) 24th April

079. R.A.W. (Research and Analysis Wing) is a part of which of the following? (A) Ministry of Home Affairs (B) Cabinet Secretariat (C) P.M.O. (D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs

080. External Publicity and Public Diplomacy (XPD) Division is part of which Ministry of India

(A) Ministry of External Affairs (B) Ministry of Home Affairs (C) Ministry of Defence (D) Ministry of Human Resources and Development

081. Who defined Public Policy as “Whatever governments choose to do or not to do”?

(A) B Guy Peters (B) EF Malone (C) Thomas R Dye (D) Clarke E Cochran

082. Which one of the following is not there in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?

(A) Rural housing (B) Drinking water (C) Maintenance of community assets (D) Securing communal harmony

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ESP-1-A ] [ 24 ] [ Contd...

083. NyS>fpsdp„ ‘„Qpes A“¡ il¡fu õ’pr“L$ k„õ’pAp¡dp„ õÓuAp¡“p ApfnZ“u V$L$phpfu R>¡.

(A) 30% (B) 33% (C) 40% (D) 50%

084. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep fpÄe“¡ 73 dp¡ ky^pfp Ar^r“ed, 1992 gpNy ‘X$sp¡ “’u? (A) Apkpd (B) dZu‘yf (C) rdTp¡fpd (D) Aê$ZpQg âv$¡i

085. v$f¡L$ d„Ópgedp„ “urs OV$L$p¡“u õ’p‘“p L$fhp“u cgpdZ L$p¡Z¡ L$fu? (A) â’d hluhV$u ky^pfZp Apep¡N (B) qÜrse hluhV$u ky^pfZp Apep¡N (C) rinZ Apep¡N (D) A¡d.ku. QpNgp Apep¡N

086. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ rh^p“ L¡$ÞÖue ‘ep®hfZ d„Ópge Üpfp Ål¡f L$fhpdp„ Aph¡gp„ h¡V$g¡ÞX$ ê$ëk, 2017 bpbs¡ kpQp “’u?

(A) “hp r“edp¡A¡ h¡V$g¡ÞX$ ê$ëk Ap¡a 2005 “y„ õ’p“ gu^y„ R>¡. (B) “hp r“edp¡ âÐe¡L$ fpÄe A“¡ L¡$ÞÖiprks âv$¡idp„ õV¡$V$ h¡V$g¡ÞX$ Ap¡’p¡fuV$u“y„

NW$“ L$fhp“p¡ ApN°l fpM¡ R>¡. (C) “hp r“edp¡A¡ h¡V$g¡ÞX$ ê$ëk Ap¡a 2010 “y„ õ’p“ gu^y„ R>¡. (D) D‘f“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡C “l].

087. L¡$ÞÖue k„fnZ d„ÓuA¡ Mps¡ â’d-íep¡L$ ‘yg“y„ Dv¹$OpV$“ L$ey¯. (A) v$p¡L$gpd¹ (B) “p’ygp ‘pk (C) g¡l (D) Å¡Ægp‘pk

088. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C L„$‘“u“¡ cpfs kfL$pf sfa’u 10,000 Cg¡¼V²$uL$g hpl“p¡“p¡ Ap¡X®$f dýep¡ R>¡?

(A) dluÞÖp A¡ÞX$ dluÞÖp (B) ISUZU (C) r“ip“ (Nissan) (D) V$pV$p dp¡V$k®

089. âp¡ L$åbX$u bpbs¡ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C Å¡X$u ep¡Áe fus¡ Å¡X$pe¡gu “’u? (A) fpCX$ diu“ - fplºg Qp¥^fu (B) Xy$bL$u qL„$N - k„v$u‘ “pfhpg (C) bp¡“k L$p bpv$ipl - A“y‘ Ly$dpf (D) h“ d¡“ Apd} - d“Æ’ rQgf

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ESP-1-A ] [ 25 ] [ P.T.O.

083. The percentage of Reservation of women seats in panchayats and Urban local bodies in Gujarat is

(A) 30% (B) 33% (C) 40% (D) 50%

084. To which of the following state, the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 does not apply?

(A) Assam (B) Manipur (C) Mizoram (D) Arunachal Pradesh

085. Who recommended the establishment of policy units within each Ministry? (A) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission (B) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission (C) The Education Commission (D) The M.C. Chagla Commission

086. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Wetland Rules 2017, which are notified by the Union Environment Ministry.

(A) The new rules replaced the Wetland rules of 2005 (B) the new rules insist setting up of a State Wetland Authority in

every state and union territory. (C) The new rules replaced the Wetland rules of 2010 (D) None of the above

087. The Union defence minister inaugurated the Pratham-Shyok Bridge at

(A) Doklaham (B) Nathula Pass (C) Leh (D) Jojila Pass

088. Which of the following company got order of 10,000 electrical vehicles from government of India?

(A) Mahindra and Mahindra (B) ISUZU (C) Nissan (D) Tata Motors

089. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched regarding Pro Kabaddi?

(A) Ride Machine - Rahul Chaudhary (B) Dubki King - Sandeep Narwal (C) Bonus ka Badshah - Anoop Kumar (D) One man Army - Manjeeth Chillar

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ESP-1-A ] [ 26 ] [ Contd...

090. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep v$¡idp„’u k„ey¼sfpóV²$ k¥r“L$p¡A¡ s¡d“p 13 hj}e gíL$fu ip„rsõ’p‘“p rdi“ ‘|Z® ¼ep® bpv$ rhv$pe gu^u?

(A) rS>b|su (B) l¥su (C) kp¡dprgep (D) õgp¡hpL$uep

091. ‘fdpÏiõÓ r“j¡^ A„N¡“y„ Ap„sffpóV²$ue Arcep“, ICAN (CÞV$f“¡i“g L¡$ç‘¡C“ Vy$ A¡bp¡gui Þey[¼gef h¡‘Þk) bpbs¡ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u“y„ ¼ey„ rh^p“ kpQy„ “’u?

(A) ICAN “y„ dy¿ed’L$ rS>r“hp Mps¡ Aph¡gy„ R>¡. (B) s¡“u õ’p‘“p hj® 2007 dp„ ’C lsu. (C) s¡“u õ’p‘“p d¡gbp¡“®, Ap¡õV²¡$rgep Mps¡ ’C lsu. (D) D‘f“p ‘¥L$u L$p¡C “l].

092. ""‘e®V$“ ‘h®'' A¡ L¡$ÞÖ kfL$pf Üpfp 2017 dp„ iê$ L$fhpdp„ Aph¡gp¡ âhpk“ DÐkh R>¡ S>¡dp„ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ey„ Ap DÐkh“p¡ rlõkp¡ “’u?

(A) v$¡Mp¡ A‘“p v$¡i (B) âhpk“ - kh® dpV¡$ (C) âhpk“ A“¡ ipk“ (D) õhv$¡iu cpfs

093. spS>¡sfdp„ cpfs¡ “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep v$¡i kp’¡ b¡ “hp kudp ‘pf“p ‘p¡CÞV$ Myëgp„ dy¼ep„?

1. ‘pqL$õsp“ 2. bp„Ágpv$¡i 3. çep“dpf 4. cysp“

(A) a¼s 2 (B) a¼s 2 A“¡ 3 (C) a¼s 2, 3 A“¡ 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 A“¡ 4

094. ""NyX$ ap¡f rhd¡“, NyX$ ap¡f CÞX$uep, NyX$ ap¡f ey'', i¡“p¡ rhjehõsy R>¡? (A) rhd¡“ Ap¡a CÞX$uep Ap¡N£“uL$ a¡õV$uhg 2017 (B) rhd¡“ Ap¡a CÞX$uep kyfnp a¡õV$uhg 2017 (C) rhd¡“ Ap¡a CÞX$uep CÞV$f“¡i“g a¡õV$uhg 2017 (D) rhd¡“ Ap¡a hëX®$ A“¡ CÞX$uep a¡õV$uhg 2017

095. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep fpÄe A¡ ""“p¡ l¡ëd¡V$, “p¡ ‘¡V²$p¡g'' “p¡ r“ed Adgdp„ d|¼ep¡? (A) NyS>fps (B) dÝeâv$¡i (C) Ap„^°âv$¡i (D) Np¡hp

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ESP-1-A ] [ 27 ] [ P.T.O.

090. From which of the following countries, the UN soldiers left after finishing their 13 year military peacekeeping mission?

(A) Djibouti (B) Haiti (C) Somalia (D) Slovakia

091. Which of the following statement is incorrect about ICAN (International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons)

(A) ICAN head quarter is located at Geneva (B) It was established in the year 2007 (C) It was established in Melbourne, Australia (D) None of the above

092. “Paryatan Parv” is a tourism festival is launched by central government in 2017, which of the following is not a part of this festival.

(A) Dekho Apana Desh (B) Tourism for All (C) Tourism and Governance (D) Indigenous India

093. With which of the following countries India opened two new border crossing points recently?

1. Pakistan 2. Bangladesh 3. Myanmar 4. Bhutan (A) Only 2 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 2, 3, and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

094. “Good for women, Good for India, Good for you,” is the theme of

(A) Women of India Organic Festival 2017 (B) Women of India Suraksha Festival 2017 (C) Women of India International Festival 2017 (D) Women of World and India Festival 2017

095. Which of the following state passed the rule “No Helmet No Petrol” recently?

(A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Goa

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ESP-1-A ] [ 28 ] [ Contd...

096. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u L$C Å¡X$u Mp¡V$u fus¡ Å¡X$pe¡gu R>¡? (A) d¡fp lp¡ Qp¸„Nbp - drZ‘yf (B) bVy$L$L$dp - s¡g„NpZp (C) bp¡ÞX$fpd DÐkh - fpS>õ’p“ (D) rQÓrhrQÓ d¡mp¡ - NyS>fps

097. S>¥rhL$ rhïg¡jZ dpV¡$ bpep¡ V¡$¼“p¡gp¡Æ rhcpN¡ L$C “v$u D‘f ""g¡b Ap¡“ bp¡V$'' âpep¡S>“p Ål¡f L$fu R>¡?

(A) N„Np (B) edy“p (C) b°û‘yÓp (D) kfey

098. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep„ v$¡i õhpõÕe klL$pf Ap‘hp dpV¡$ ""g¡V$f Ap¡a CÞV¡$ÞV$'' ‘f lõspnf L$ep® R>¡?

(A) “p¡h£ (B) õhuX$“ (C) rb°V$“ (D) ey.A¡k.A¡.

099. “uQ¡“p ‘¥L$u ¼ep¡ v$¡i cpfs A“¡ ey.A¡k. kp’¡ qv$ëlu Mps¡ kp¥ â’d hMs k„ey¼s h¡‘pf A“¡ fp¡L$pZ ip¡ L$fhp dpV¡$ Å¡X$pey„ R>¡?

(A) îug„L$p (B) ‘pqL$õsp“ (C) AaOpr“õsp“ (D) bp„Ágpv$¡i

100. cpfs“p â’d CÞV$f“¡i“g apC“pÞiueg kh}kuk k¡ÞV$f GIFT-IFSC A¡ spS>¡sf“p Ágp¡bg apC“pÞiueg CÞX¡$n 22 (GFCI) dp„ õ’p“ d¡mìey„ R>¡.

(A) 7 dy„ (B) 8 dy„ (C) 9 dy„ (D) 10 dy„

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ESP-1-A ] [ 29 ] [ P.T.O.

096. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched (A) Mera Houchongba - Manipur (B) Batukamma - Telangana (C) Bonderam festival - Rajasthan (D) Chitra Vichitra Fair - Gujarat

097. On which river the department of Bio-technology announced ‘Lab on Boat’ project for biological analysis?

(A) Ganga (B) Yamuna (C) Brahmaputra (D) Sarayu

098. Which country has signed ‘Letter of Intent’ with India to extend health co-operation?

(A) Norway (B) Sweden (C) Britain (D) USA

099. Which of the following country has joined with India and US to conduct a joint trade and investment show for the first time, in Delhi?

(A) Sri Lanka (B) Pakistan (C) Afghanistan (D) Bangladesh

100. India’s first International Financial Services Centre GIFT-IFSC has got place in the latest Global Financial Centers Index 22 (GFCI).

(A) 7th (B) 8th

(C) 9th (D) 10th

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ESP-1-A ] [ 30 ] [ Contd...

101. Following figures show the population forecasting of some city.Year 2011 2021 2031 2041Population 100000 150000 225000 337500

The growth pattern of forecast values follows which of the following method.

(A) Arithmetical increase method (B) Geometrical increase method (C) Incremental increase method (D) Logistic curve method

102. Choose the appropriate word at (?) which bears the same relationship with the given forth word as the first two bears.

Scale : Length :: ?: Pressure (A) Pascal (B) Atmosphere (C) Barometer (D) Water

103. Choose the odd pair of the word. (A) Augur : Bore (B) Microscope : Magnify (C) Filter : Purify (D) Brick : Frog

104. Read the following two statements

All framed structures are commercial buildings. Some framed structures have pile foundation.

Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above two statements?

(A) All framed structures have pile foundation. (B) All buildings having pile foundation are commercial buildings. (C) All commercial buildings are framed structure. (D) Some commercial buildings have pile foundation.

105. If 30 men can build a wall 40 meters long in 5 days, what length of a similar wall can be built by 25 men in 3 days?

(A) 20 (B) 80 (C) 11.25 (D) 29

106. If 36 workers can complete a work in 18 days, how many days are required to complete the same work by 27 workers?

(A) 12.5 (B) 22 (C) 26 (D) 24

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ESP-1-A ] [ 31 ] [ P.T.O.

107. A tank has inlet pipe which can fill it in 4 minutes. There is also a waste pipe in the tank. When both inlet and waste pipes are opened, the empty tank takes 20 minutes to fill. How long will the waste pipe take to empty the full tank when inlet pipe is closed?

(A) 10 minutes (B) 5 minutes (C) 16 minutes (D) 24 minutes

108. A rectangular park 50 m long and 40 m wide is surrounded by 5 m wide continuous concrete road. The area of the road is

(A) 1000 sq. m (B) 180 sq. m (C) 900 sq. m (D) 100 sq. m

109. A tank of 5 m long, 3 m wide and 2 m deep is dug in a field of 31.5 m long and 10 m wide. If the earth dug out is evenly spread out over the area of a field excluding tank area, the rise in the level of field is

(A) 1 m (B) 0.5 m (C) 0.1 m (D) 0.3 m

110. A rectangular garden has length twice the width. Posts are placed on all sides at equal interval including all corners. If 10 posts are placed along one short side, find how many posts are there in all the four sides.

(A) 60 (B) 58 (C) 56 (D) 54

111. Find the differentiation of x4 + y4 = 0

(A) – x3/y3 (B) – x3/y4

(C) – x4/y3 (D) x3/y3

112. f (x, y, z) = x2 + xyz + z Find: fx at (1, 1, 1) (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) –1

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ESP-1-A ] [ 32 ] [ Contd...

113. f (x, y) = x2 + y3; x = t2 + t3; y = 1 + t3

Find df dt at t = 1

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 19 (D) 56

114. If 0 < x < 1, which of the following terms increases as x increases?

(i) 1 – x3

(ii) x – 1 (iii) 1/x2

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (i) and (iii)

115. In the matrix equation Px = q, which of the following is a necessary condition for existence of at least one solution for unknown vector x?

(A) Matrix P must be singular. (B) Matrix P must be square. (C) Augmented matrix [Pq] must have the same rank as matrix P. (D) Vector q must have only non-zero elements.

116. Consider the function y xx2502= +

At x = 5, the function attains. (A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) 0 (D) 1

117. The mean of set of observations is x . If each observation is divided by k and then increased by 5, then the mean value of new set is.

(A) kx (B)

kx 5+

(C) xk5

(D) k

x k5+

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ESP-1-A ] [ 33 ] [ P.T.O.

118. f (x) = x2 + 1 If xi is very close to the root then according to Newton Raphson iterative

procedure, xi+1 is

(A) x

x21i

i2-

(B) xx1

2

i

i2-

(C) xx1

2

i

i2+

(D) x

x21i

i2+

119. The function f ( x) is evaluated at four values of x at regular interval as follows.

x 0 1 2 3f (x) 1 0.5 0.2 0.1

Evaluate ( )f x dx0

3

w using Trapezoidal rule.

(A) 0.9 (B) 1.8

(C) 1.25 (D) 2.5

120. A gradually varied flow profile can be governed by equation ( , )dxdy

f x y=

where x is distance and y is the depth of water above the bed level. Which of the following methods can be used for solution?

(A) Linear regression method (B) Simplex method (C) Gauss elimination method (D) Runge-Kutta Method

121. Maximum effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive loads resulting from dead loads and imposed loads should not exceed

(A) 180 (B) 250 (C) 300 (D) 350

122. According to IS 800:2007 the maximum bearing pressure between the base plate and the concrete bedding should not exceed.

(A) 0.4 fck (B) 0.6 fck (C) 0.45 fck (D) 0.7 fck

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ESP-1-A ] [ 34 ] [ Contd...

123. According to IS 456:2000 the concrete in sea-water shall be of the minimum grade of in case of reinforced concrete.

(A) M10 (B) M25 (C) M20 (D) M30

124. As per IS:456-2000 the lateral sway at the top of the building shall not exceed for transient wind loads, where H is total height of the building.

(A) H/500 (B) H/100 (C) H/5000 (D) H/50

125. In limit state design, partial safety factors are applied to (A) Loads (B) Material stresses (C) Both loads and material stresses (D) Size of structural member

126. What is the minimum number of longitudinal bars provided in a reinforced concrete column of circular section?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

127. In steel structure design, check for lateral torsional buckling is required for

(A) Axial column (B) Laterally unsupported beam (C) Tension member (D) Column bases

128. Effective length of column, having length L and both ends hinged, is (A) L (B) 2L (C) 0.5L (D) 0.7L

129. ISMB 200 is a hot rolled Standard Indian Steel Section in which 200 indicates.

(A) Depth (B) Width (C) Weight (D) Thickness

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ESP-1-A ] [ 35 ] [ P.T.O.

130. Crack width restriction of concrete is of prime importance during design of

(A) Multi storeyed structures (B) Earthquake resisting structures (C) Industrial structures (D) Water retaining structures

131. Under reamed piles are adopted as foundation when the soil strata consists of

(A) Non expansive soil (B) Soft soil with filled up ground (C) Sandy soil (D) Hard rock

132. Match the listsType of Survey (p) Building survey (q) Topographical survey (r) Route Survey

Recommended Scale (i) 1:25000 (ii) 1:10000 (iii) 1:1000

(A) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii) (B) p-(iii), q-(i), r-(ii) (C) p-(iii), q-(ii), r-(i) (D) p-(ii), q-(i), r-(iii)

133. As per IS:13920, ductile detailing is not mandatory for lateral load resisting systems of RC structures in seismic zone .

(A) Four (B) Two (C) Three (D) Five

134. For normal M20 reinforced concrete, the minimum time of removing the props of form work for slabs with spans less than 4.5m is

(A) 21 days (B) 3 days (C) 7 days (D) 28 days

135. For normal M20 reinforced concrete, the time of removing the vertical form work for columns as per IS 456 is

(A) 1 day (B) 3 days (C) 14 days (D) 28 days

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ESP-1-A ] [ 36 ] [ Contd...

136. 53 grade OPC cement lying in bag storage at local vendor should be tested before it’s use, if the period of storage is more than (A) 9 months (B) 3 months

(C) 1 year (D) 2 year

137. A cement bag stored for two years is likely to result in (A) Change in the colour of cement (B) Increase in the strength of cement (C) Loss of strength of cement (D) Increase in fineness of cement

138. Compaction of soil is measured in terms of (A) Dry density (B) Moisture content (C) Compressibility (D) Permeability

139. The main observation of the plate load test is . (A) Settlement of the test plate (B) Rotation of test plate (C) Bending of the test plate (D) Settlement of soil

140. For verifying characteristics compressive strength the M25 grade of concrete, which is the test done in the laboratory as per IS 456?

(A) Compression test on 15 cm cubes at 28 days (B) Compression test on 10cm cubes at 28 days (C) Split test on 15 cm dia cylinder on 28 days (D) Compression test on 15 cm cubes at 7 days

141. Which of the following is not a mode of failure of a single riveted joint?

(A) Tearing of Plate (B) Shearing of Plate (C) Shearing of Rivet (D) Crushing of Rivet

142. Creep of concrete is (A) Deformation due to sudden load (B) Deformation due to seismic load (C) Shrinkage due to temperature (D) Deformation due to sustained load

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ESP-1-A ] [ 37 ] [ P.T.O.

143. Shrinkage crack in RCC slab can appear due to (A) Improper curing (B) Improper loading (C) Improper formwork (D) Improper mixing of concrete

144. According to IS 1641, The fire resistance of an RCC structural element is expressed in terms of

(A) Strength in N/mm2 (B) Temperature in deg. Celsius (C) Time in hours (D) Deformation in mm

145. Acidity in natural water in surface water bodies is mainly due to (A) Oxygen (B) BOD (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulfuric and nitric acids

146. EIS is acronym of (A) Efficient Import Strategy (B) Environmentally Important Strategy (C) Energy Impact Statement (D) Environmental Impact Statement

147. SO2 and CO as air pollutants adversely affect (A) Oxygen carrying capacity of blood and functioning of lungs

respectively (B) Functioning of the respiratory system and oxygen carrying capacity

of blood respectively (C) Functioning of the respiratory system and brain respectively (D) Functioning of air passages and chest respectively

148. Column I lists various impurities in drinking water and Column II lists effects/ diseases caused by these impurities.

Column I Column IIP. Nitrate > 45 ppm 1. Minamata diseaseQ. Mercury > 0.001 ppm 2. Discoloration of teethR. Fluoride < 1.0 ppm 3. Cavities in teethS Fluoride > 1.5 ppm 4. Methemoglobenemia

5. Pneumoconiosis

The correct match of the column I with column II is (A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

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ESP-1-A ] [ 38 ] [ Contd...

149. The ozone layer thickness is measured in (A) Dobson units (B) Decibels (C) Becquerel (D) Hazen units

150. Among the following which one has the highest Global warming potential? (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane (C) Nitrous oxide (D) Chloroflorocarbons

151. Thermal Pollution refers to (A) Discharge of hot flue gases from chimney (B) Discharge of high temperature liquid effluents in water bodies (C) Discharge of hot exhaust gases from vehicles (D) Release of foul gases from solid waste dumps during summer

152. Identify from the following, energy source/s which is / are not renewable (i) Biomass energy (ii) Geo-thermal energy (iii) Wind energy (iv) Tidal and wave energy (v) Natural gas

(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (v) only (C) (v) only (D) (i) and (iv)

153. One of the following is not the effect of climate change (A) Increase in global temperature (B) Change in rainfall pattern leading to heavy floods and draughts (C) Ozone layer depletion (D) Loss of biodiversity

154. The chemical compounds responsible for production of photochemical smog are

(A) Oxides of nitrogen only (B) Hydrocarbons only (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Oxides of nitrogen and Hydrocarbons

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ESP-1-A ] [ 39 ] [ P.T.O.

155. Anthropogenic emission of chlorofluorcarbons (CFCs) is likely to deplete the ozone layer in troposphere leading to increase on earth surface

(A) Radioactivity (B) Air temperature (C) Ultraviolate radiation (D) Acid rain

156. Ganga water pollution is mainly due to discharge of (A) Agricultural runoff (B) Wastes from forests (C) Industrial and domestic wastewater (D) Spillages from mines

157. The nature of tasks assigned to construction project management consultant generally includes

(A) Promoting and financing the project (B) Preparing architectural and structural drawings (C) Tendering, supervising works and controlling of project time, cost

and quality. (D) Supplying key equipments.

158. Which of the following parameters is not a part of typical construction project lifecycle till commissioning?

(A) Mobilization stage (B) Operation and maintenance stage (C) Construction stage (D) Formulation stage

159. Which of the following represent the construction management functions? (i) Planning (ii) Marketing (iii) Controlling (iv) Organizing

(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

160. Negative value of cost variance (CV) of construction project indicates that project is

(A) Behind schedule (B) Over budget (C) Under budget (D) On schedule

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ESP-1-A ] [ 40 ] [ Contd...

161. BOT in infrastructure projects delivery model means (A) Buy, own and transport (B) Bridge overload test (C) Bill of transfer (D) Build, operate and transfer

162. In project network analysis, which of the following statements is TRUE? (A) All critical activities must join two critical events (B) All activities joining two critical events are necessarily critical (C) Some activities having non zero floats can be critical (D) Dummy activities can never become critical

163. In PERT, how much probability is considered for expected activity duration?

(A) 33% (B) 50% (C) 67% (D) 99%

164. In PERT, If To and Tp are optimistic time and pessimistic time which an activity takes for its performance, then assumed standard deviation to measure uncertainty is taken as

(A) (To + Tp)/6 (B) (4To + 2Tp)/6 (C) (2To + 4Tp)/6 (D) (Tp – To)/6

165. To prepare the feasibility report of the fly over project for MDR at railway crossing, which of the following points are examined?

(i) The basic model of the fly over with respect to width, length of the approach road, etc.

(ii) Approximate cost of construction and source of fund. (iii) Detail drawings (iv) Specifications of each items with complete description

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

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ESP-1-A ] [ 41 ] [ P.T.O.

166. Quality assurance in construction project refers to (A) Identification of relevant quality standards and determining how to

satisfy them. (B) Monitoring of project results related to the compliance to quality

standards (C) Identification of means to eliminate non-conformity of quality standard (D) Consistent evaluation of project performance to provide confidence

that the project satisfies the relevant standards.

167. Which of the following is not the tool in Total Quality Management Process.

(A) Histograms (B) Cause and effect diagrams (C) Pareto diagram (D) Chromatogram

168. As a part of safety management in construction projects, which of the following actions is taken?

(A) Management of disposal of waste from construction site (B) Periodic review of performance of workers (C) Regular and stipulated inspection of works and machinery/equipments

for enforcement of mandatory regulations. (D) Control and monitoring cost changes

169. Gypsum is added to Portland cement during its manufacturing to (A) Accelerate the setting time (B) Retard the setting time (C) Decrease the burning temperature (D) Improve grinding

170. White cement is white in colour due to (A) Use of limestone and china clay free from metal oxides (B) Its modified manufacturing process (C) Specific chemical treatment given to ordinary cement (D) Marble powder

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ESP-1-A ] [ 42 ] [ Contd...

171. Which one of the following is relatively purest form of iron? (A) Cast iron (B) Low carbon steel (C) Wrought iron (D) Pig iron

172. Seasoning of timber is done (A) To make it water proof (B) To remove knots and twisted fibers (C) To reduce moisture content (D) To harden its outer surface

173. The property of materials by which they can be drawn into wires is known as

(A) Ductility (B) Melleability (C) Creep (D) Hardness

174. Brass cannot be used as reinforcement in concrete because (A) Its density is greater than concrete (B) It density is smaller than iron (C) It is very expensive (D) Its coefficient of thermal expansion is higher than concrete

175. A relatively high water absorption of a common burnt clay brick indicates (A) High bond strength with mortar (B) High shrinkage of brick (C) High strength of brick (D) Need for more mortar for plastering

176. A brass tube fits tightly into a steel tube. To loosen the brass tube from steel tube.

(A) The assembly should be cooled (B) The assembly should be heated (C) Only steel tube should be cooled (D) Only brass tube should be heated

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ESP-1-A ] [ 43 ] [ P.T.O.

177. Which of the following properties of an electromagnetic wave will change when it passes through a piece of glass?

(i) Speed (ii) Frequency (iii) Wave length

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iii) only

178. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 80°C to 70°C in time T1 minutes and from 70°C to 60°C in time T2 minutes. The relationship between T1 and T2 is

(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 > T2 (C) T1 < T2 (D) T1 = T2 + 10

179. A tensile strength of concrete is determined by (A) Cube test (B) Flexural test (C) Box shear test (D) Axial tensile test

180. In stress-strain curve, the area up to elastic limit stress indicates which mechanical property?

(A) Ductility (B) Strength (C) Resilience (D) Hardness

181. List - 1 and List - 2 shows functions and web portals. Match the list

List - I List - II(p) computerization of land records

across the state(i) n-procure

(q) process of property registration in Gujarat

(ii) e-Dhara

(r) To monitor both budgeted and non budgeted works of R & B department

(iii) swagat

(iv) gARVi(v) rnbwms

(A) p-i, q-iii, r-v (B) p-ii, q-iv, r-v (C) p-ii, q-i, r-iv (D) p-iii, q-ii, r-i

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ESP-1-A ] [ 44 ] [ Contd...

182. Select the correct purposes. By government departments the e-tendering process is carried out on

n-procure portal (i) to save processing time (ii) to release the cashless payment toward work done (iii) to bring transparency in the procurement process

(A) only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) only (ii) (D) (i) and (iii)

183. Which of the following is a web service application that provides a mapping interface with detailed imagery and embedded map data by ISRO?

(A) 2D Bhuvan (B) E-Dhara (C) E-Jamin (D) INSAT2D

184. The automation in operation of public utility services such as bulk water supply and distribution system can be achieved by implementation of

(A) EPANET (B) CCTV (C) SCADA (D) Automatic Weather Stations

185. To provide a support to all academic levels, a framework of virtual repository of learning resources with a single - window search facility is provided by

(A) IITK Library (B) NDL of India (C) RUSA (D) Google Classroom

186. SWAYAM is indigenously developed IT platform, that facilitates (A) Hosting of the courses, taught in classrooms to be accessed by

anyone at free of cost. (B) Online job applications in government departments (C) Hosting national talent search competitions (D) Grievances redress

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ESP-1-A ] [ 45 ] [ P.T.O.

187. The backbone of Government of Gujarat providing advanced communication infrastructure for exchange of Data, Voice and Video to support for e-Governance for State Government other Government bodies is

(A) SANCHARNET (B) GUJNET (C) GTPL (D) GSWAN

188. Which of the following is not a smart solution for urban mobility of smart cities?

(A) Video crime monitoring (B) Smart Parking (C) Intelligent Traffic Management (D) Integrated Multi Modal Transport

189. Which project provides ‘Single Window Solution’ for all water resources data and information in a standardized national GIS framework?

(A) Sujalam (B) QGIS (C) National Water Grid (D) India-WRIS

190. In construction stage of the projects, the information reflecting status of project are actual execution time for each activity, cost incurred, resources used, quality control, material management and bills. A tool to integrate the information flow within and among various agencies is known as

(A) MIS (B) HRM (C) GIS (D) SCADA

191. Ethical Values are associated with? (A) Social system (B) Rule making (C) Compassionate living (D) Devotional living

192. What is the main aim of Human Rights? (A) To teach morals and ethics (B) To develop friendly relations (C) To establish peace and security (D) To make people sensible

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ESP-1-A ] [ 46 ] [ Contd...

193. Engineers shall not reveal facts, data, or information without the prior consent of the employer. This is observed to follow

(A) Trade secret agreement (B) Copy right act (C) Code of ethics (D) Patent act

194. Which of the following statements may not be considered as a code of ethics for professional engineers?

(A) Engineers shall hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of the public

(B) Engineers shall extend help to poor workers (C) Engineers shall perform services only in areas of their

competence (D) Engineers shall issue public statements only in an objective and

truthful manner.

195. An engineer supervising a concreting work observes major defect in some portion after opening formwork. What step is required to be performed first?

(A) Impose penalty to the contractor (B) Change the contractor’s manpower (C) Consult the designer to investigate the consequences and perform

corrective measures (D) Recommend patch up work to hide the defected portion.

196. Codes of ethics state the engineer’s duties to various stack holders. However, when these duties conflict, which group should take precedence?

(A) Colleagues and subordinates (B) Employers and clients (C) Society (the public) (D) Investors

197. Which of the following unacceptable actions of an engineer is clearly a conflict of interest in professional practice?

(A) Accepting a part time remunerative work from a supplier (B) Making public statements that are not based on firm knowledge

and conviction (C) Permitting for their names to be used in commercial advertisements

published by contractors (D) Failing to correct or report a situation that may endanger the public.

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ESP-1-A ] [ 47 ]

198. A structural engineer used a newly developed software for analysis and design. Later he found that the design is not safe due to software bug. It could cause the supporting columns to buckle. What should the engineer do?(A) Destroy all evidence of the analysis.(B) Tell the client to sue the software developer.(C) Hire a good defense lawyer to defend action in case of failure or

damage to structure. (D) Disclose the problem to client and try to negotiate a way to reinforce

the columns.

199. An industry is consistently polluting air due to its hazardous gas emission. The product has high export value and the industry provides employment to hundreds of workers. What action is required by pollution control authority first?(A) Order immediate shutdown(B) Allow production with heavy penalty(C) Distribute free mask to nearby area (D) Appoint expert committee for solution to reduce emission

200. Which of the following are the social responsibility to uphold ethical values of the society?(i) Public safety(ii) Environmental protection(iii) Compliance with social order(iv) Honesty and integrity

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iv)(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (iv) only

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