DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI

Serial: 737246

PRESTORMINGTM

CSAT

TEST BOOKLET

MOCK TEST 03

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

A

1

S.1-5) Directions for Questions 1 to 5:Study the information given below to answer these questions

Six friends Pankaj, Qaseer, Ramesh, Satya, Tanmay, and Uday work in different organizations Adidas, Bata,

Caterpillar, Daimler, Exxon and Ford, and each wears different coloured t-shirt: blue, green, pink, yellow,

purple and red though not necessarily in the same order. The one wearing the blue t-shirt works in Daimler

and the one wearing a green t-shirt works in Adidas. Uday does not work in Caterpillar or Exxon. Pankaj wears

pink t-shirt and works in Bata. Satya does not work in Exxon and purple coloured t-shirt is not sponsored by

Caterpillar. Tanmay works in Ford and neither Satya nor Qaseer works in Daimler. Exxon does not give purple

or yellow coloured t-shirts and Ramesh works in Adidas.

Q.1) Which colour t-shirt is sponsored by Caterpillar?

*a) Yellow

b) Blue

c) Pink

d) Insufficient information

Solution:

Uday Blue Daimler

Ramesh Green Adidas

Pankaj Pink Bata

Tanmay Purple Ford

Qaseer Red Exxon

Satya Yellow Caterpillar

Q.2) Which pair is correctly matched?

a) Red–Caterpillar–Pankaj

*b) Red–Exxon–Qaseer

c) Green–Caterpillar–Ramesh

d) None of these

Q.3) Which of the following is true?

a) Ford sponsors green t-shirts

b) Satya is working in Exxon

c) Tanmay wears red t-shirt

*d) Red t-shirt is sponsored by Exxon

2

Q.4) What is the sequence of companies representing Pankaj, Qaseer, Ramesh, Satya, Tanmay and Uday?

a) Bata, Adidas, Exxon, Caterpillar, Ford, Daimler

*b) Bata, Exxon, Adidas, Caterpillar, Ford, Daimler

c) Bata, Adidas, Exxon, Daimler, Ford, Caterpillar

d) None of these

Q.5) If Caterpillar and Daimler decide to interchange the colours of sponsored t-shirts, then which two

persons will have to interchange their t-shirts?

*a) Satya and Uday

b) Pankaj and Ramesh

c) Satya and Tanmay

d) Qaseer and Satya

Q.6) Statements:

a) Some pests are insects.

b) Some insects are frogs.

c) Some frogs are water.

Conclusions:

I. Some water are pests.

II. Some frogs are pests.

III. Some water are insects.

IV. No water are insects.

*a) None follows

b) Only III follows

c) Only either I or IV and III follows

d) Only either I or IV and II follows

3

Solution:

Q.7) Statements:

a) All belts are buckles.

b) No buckle is watch.

c) All watches are phones.

Conclusions:

I. Some buckles are belts.

II. All buckles are belts.

III. Some phones are watches.

IV. All phones are watches.

a) Only II and IV follow

b) Only either I or II follow

*c) Only I & III follow

d) None of these

4

Solution:

S.8-10) Directions for the following 3 (Three) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that

follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE 1

We have entered the 21st year of the 21st century. The nation is on a transformative journey to fulfil the

aspirations of its citizens. A century ago, in the same decade, several historical milestones took place that

helped Indians to eventually achieve their goal of Swaraj. The planning for the future in the ongoing decade

will now go a long way towards fulfilling the aspirations of a proud democratic country. The newly-

inaugurated Parliament building is a case in point – it will showcase the broad trajectory of growth in the years

to come.

The Montague-Chelmsford reforms resulted in the participation of Indians in the governance and

administration of the country through the Government of India Act 1919. In 1921, public representatives were

elected for the first time. These reforms resulted in the creation of a bicameral legislature. To implement

these reforms on the ground and accommodate the legislators, Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker designed the

present Parliament building. Beginning in 1921, it took six years to build the structure. This building has stood

the test of time. The first Lok Sabha had 489 seats and each MP represented, on an average, seven lakh

people. As the country’s population has increased from 36.1 crores in 1951 to more than 135 crore today, so

has the number of people represented by an individual MP. Nowadays, MPs have to manage day-to-day

affairs, monitor developmental projects and schemes from their camp offices. A need was felt for an

institutional & infrastructural set up for them to facilitate coordination with various departments and to

ensure the smooth delivery of public services in the national capital.

Q.8) What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage above?

a) India cannot run its political affairs without a new parliament building

*b) The construction of the old parliament building started 100 years ago

c) An MP represents 7 lakh people in India

d) The Montague-Chelmsford reforms stated that India must build a new parliament after 100 years

5

Solution:

The passage states that ‘Beginning in 1921, it took six years to build the structure’.

Q.9) Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage above?

I. India aims to fulfil the aspirations of its citizens.

II. The smooth delivery of public services is impossible without adequate infrastructure.

*a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & II

d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

The author highlights that ‘The planning for the future in the ongoing decade will now go a long way towards

fulfilling the aspirations of a proud democratic country’, but there is no indication that smooth delivery of

public services is impossible without adequate infrastructure as this is an extreme statement not supported by

the author.

Q.10) The author will not agree with which of the following statements?

a) India is a proud democratic nation

b) India has a bicameral legislature

c) The current parliament of India is a structurally sound building

*d)It is not necessary to locate the parliament in the national capital

Solution:

The author explains the need for a Parliament to ‘facilitate coordination with various departments and to

ensure the smooth delivery of public services in the national capital’. Therefore, he will not agree with the

view that it is not necessary to locate the parliament in the national capital.

S.11-12) Directions for the following 2 (Two) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that


PASSAGE 2

It was in 2005, when Emami was the first company to launch a fairness cream, Fair and Handsome, created

exclusively for men in India. Since then, men’s grooming market has gained a lot of attention and is flourishing

at an unprecedent rate. Also, there is a transition in the business and marketing approach of the products sold

by male grooming majors. As the traditional definition of masculinity is changing, so is the approach towards

branding and marketing of grooming products. From being a non-entity to multi-billion-dollar market

6

opportunity, male grooming market is on an upswing with rising share of male population in India engaging in

one or another form of grooming regimes. Increasing popularity and adoption of different products for body

care, skin care, grooming and hair care is leading to surging sales of male grooming products in India.


a) The male grooming industry in India is in its nascent stages

b) Emami is the only brand catering to the male grooming sector in India

*c) The male grooming industry in India is witnessing strong growth

d) The male grooming industry is sure to grow exponentially in the future

Solution:

The passage states that ‘men’s grooming market has gained a lot of attention and is flourishing at an

unprecedent rate’.

Q.12) Which of the following is the best explanation of the passage above?

a) Emami is focusing on the male grooming industry in the Indian subcontinent

*b) The male grooming industry in India has undergone a transformation

c) Care for men is mostly limited to hair care and basic grooming

d) Branding is more important than marketing when preparing marketing campaigns for male-oriented

grooming products

Solution:

The author emphasizes that ‘From being a non-entity to multi-billion-dollar market opportunity, male

grooming market is on an upswing with rising share of male population in India engaging in one or another

form of grooming regimes’.

S.13) Direction for the following 1 (One) item: Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow.

Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE 3

At the close of the 19th century, when Rudyard Kipling penned the Jungle Book, between 50,000 and 100,000

tigers were thought to roam the Indian subcontinent; by 1971, about 1,800 were left alive and the Tiger Task

Force predicted they would be extinct by the end of the century. That year, the Delhi High Court banned tiger

killing, despite opposition from the trophy hunting industry that was raking in $4 million a year. Then in 1973,

Gandhi launched “Project Tiger,” which still stands as the world’s most comprehensive tiger conservation

initiative. She established nine tiger reserves, hired guards to patrol them, and forcibly moved whole villages

outside their perimeters. At the time of Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, tiger numbers topped 4,000, their prey

had increased, and India had created a global model for wildlife conservation.

7


a) Hunting was the only reason for the rapid decrease in the number of tigers in India

b) Indira Gandhi based her election campaign on Project Tiger

c) The trophy hunting industry is not defunct in India

*d) Project Tiger was instrumental in increasing the number of tigers in India in the 20th century

Solution:

The passage states that ‘in 1973, Gandhi launched “Project Tiger,” which still stands as the world’s most

comprehensive tiger conservation initiative’ and that ‘At the time of Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, tiger

numbers topped 4,000, their prey had increased, and India had created a global model for wildlife

conservation’.

S.14) Directions for the following 1 (One) item: Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow.


PASSAGE 4

Tobacco is a leading preventable cause of death, killing nearly six million people worldwide each year.

Reversing this entirely preventable manmade epidemic should be our top priority. This global tobacco

epidemic kills more people than tuberculosis, HIV/AIDS and malaria combined. This epidemic can be resolved

by becoming aware of the devastating effects of tobacco, learning about the proven effective tobacco control

measures, national programmes and legislation prevailing in the home country and then engaging completely

to halt the epidemic to move toward a tobacco-free world. India is the second largest consumer of tobacco

globally, and accounts for approximately one-sixth of the world's tobacco-related deaths. The tobacco

problem in India is peculiar, with consumption of variety of smokeless and smoking forms. Understanding the

tobacco problem in India, focusing more efforts on what works and investigating the impact of sociocultural

diversity and cost-effectiveness of various modalities of tobacco control should be our priority.

Q.14) What is the most logical, rational and important message conveyed by the passage above?

a) India is one of the world’s leading tobacco consumers

b) Smokeless tobacco is more popular than smoking tobacco in India

c) India will be at the forefront of a tobacco-free world

*d) Tobacco control should be given priority in India as it is a leading cause of preventable death

Solution:

The author states that ‘Tobacco is a leading preventable cause of death, killing nearly six million people

worldwide each year’ and that ‘Reversing this entirely preventable manmade epidemic should be our top

priority’.

8

Q.15) A company’s profit increased from March to April by 25%. If the profit in April was Rs. 1,00,000 then

what was the profit in March?

a) Rs. 75,000

*b) Rs. 80,000

c) Rs. 1,20,000

d) Rs. 1,25,000

Solution:

M * 125/100 = 100000 M = 100000 * 100/125 = Rs. 80,000

Q.16) Sukhwinder buys a Taj Mahal replica in Agra for Rs. 500, but after coming home he remembers that the

shopkeeper did not give him a 30% discount as promised. What percentage extra did Sukhwinder pay for

the souvenir compared to the discounted price?

a) 30%

b) 33.33%

c) 40%

*d) 42.85%

Solution:

Price after discount = 500 * 70/100 = Rs. 350

Extra money paid = 500 – 350 = Rs. 150

Extra as a % of discounted price = (150/350)*100 = 100 * 3/7 = 42.85%

Q.17) If guns and bullets are in the ratio of 1:8 in an arsenal, then how many guns need to be added to make

the ratio 1:2 if there are 16 bullets at present?

a) 4

b) 5

*c) 6

d) 7

Solution:

Let the no. of guns = x Bullets = 8x 8x = 16 x = 2

Let extra guns = a

2+𝑎

16=

1

2 4 + 2a = 16 2a = 12 a = 6

9

Q.18) Suresh can complete a piece of work in 8 days, Ramesh can complete it in 6 days, while Jayesh is a

distraction and can spoil the entire work in 24 days. How many days will Suresh and Ramesh take to finish

the work if Jayesh is also there to distract them?

*a) 4 days

b) 6 days

c) 8 days

d) 10 days

Solution:

Combined rate of work = 1

8+

1

6−

1

24=

3+4−1

24=

6

24=

1

4

W = R * T 1 = (1/4) * T T = 4 days

Q.19) Saqib takes 30 min to complete a race at a constant speed of 18 km/hr. If he runs for the same distance

on a circular track and completes one round of the track in the same time at the same speed, then what is

the radius of the track?

a) 9 km

b) 4.5 km

c) 9π km

*d) 9/2π km

Solution:

Distance = 18 * 0.5 = 9 km 2πr = 9 r = 9/2π km

Q.20) An investment earns an interest of Rs. 1272 in 2 years at 12% p.a. compound interest. What was the

initial investment?

a) Rs. 4000

*b) Rs. 5000

c) Rs. 6000

d) Rs. 7000

Solution:

Let initial investment = A A + 1272 = A * (112/100) * (112/100)

A + 1272 = A*(28/25)2 A*(28/25)2 – A = 1272 A(784/625 – 1) = 1272

A*159/625 = 1272 A = 1272*625/159 = 8 * 625 = Rs. 5,000

10

Q.21) A swimming pool has 2000 cubic metres of water when it is 80% full, if the capacity of the pool is

increased by 60%, then how many cubic metres of additional water will it need to be 70% full?

a) 500

b) 650

*c) 800

d) 1000

Solution:

Capacity * 80/100 = 2000 Current capacity = 2500

New capacity = 2500*160/100 = 4000 70% full = 4000*70/100 = 2800

Additional water needed = 2800 – 2000 = 800 cubic metres

Q.22) An article of clothing sells for a discount of 80% in a clearance sale, resulting in a 20% loss for the

proprietor. If the selling price of the item was Rs. 100, then what was the difference between the cost

price and the marked price of the product?

a) Rs. 500

b) Rs. 125

*c) Rs. 375

d) Rs. 400

Solution:

CP * 80/100 = SP CP = 100 * 100/80 = Rs. 125

MP * 20/100 = SP MP = 100*100/20 = Rs. 500

MP – CP = 500 – 125 = Rs. 375


a + b means a is the brother of b

a # b means a is the daughter of b

a - b means a is the sister of b

Q.23) Which of the following shows the relationship p is the paternal uncle of n?

a) n – o # p

b) n # o - p

c) n # o + p

*d) None of these

Solution:

Gender of p is not defined.

11

Q.24) From the following statement, what is the relationship between n and s?

n – o # p + q – r + s

a) Grandmother

b) Grandfather

c) Aunt

*d) Insufficient information

Solution:

Gender of s is undefined.

Q.25) If a – b – c # d # e + f + g, then how many males and females are there respectively?

a) 4, 3

b) 3, 4

c) 5, 2


Solution:

The gender of d is not defined.

Q.26) Sanjay started walking towards north, he walks 10 furlongs and then turns to his right, walks 5 furlongs

and turns to his right again and walks 10 furlongs and turns to his left, walks 7 furlongs and then turns to

his right. At this point in which direction is Sanjay facing?

a) East

*b) South

c) South-east

d) South-west

Solution:

12

Q.27) If a compass is rotated 45® in the anti-clockwise direction, then what will be the direction for north?

*a) North-west

b) South-east

c) South-west

d) North-east

Solution:

Q.28) If a compass is rotated clock-wise so that north-west becomes south, then what will be the direction for

south?

a) Southeast

*b) Northeast

c) North

d) None of these

Solution:

13



PASSAGE 1

In Indochina, during the past decade we have the first modern instance in which the environment has been

selected as a ’military’ target appropriate for comprehensive and systematic destruction. Such an occurrence

does not merely reflect the depravity of the high-technology sensibilities of the war-planners. It carries out the

demonic logic of counterinsurgency warfare, especially when the insurgent threat is both formidable and set

in a tropical locale. Recourse to deliberate forms of environmental warfare is part of the wider military

conviction that the only way to defeat the insurgent is to deny him the cover, the food, and the life-support of

the countryside. Under such conditions, bombers and artillery seek to disrupt all activity, and insurgent forces

find it more difficult to mass for effective attack. Such policies have led in Indochina to the destruction of vast

tracts of forest land and to so-called ’crop-denial programs’.

The US Government has altered tactics in recent years, shifting from chemical herbicides to Rome Plows as the

principal means to strip away the protective cover of the natural landscape, but the basic rationale of

separating the people from their land and its life-support characteristics persists. Such policies must be

coupled with the more familiar tenets of counterinsurgency doctrine which seek to dry up the sea of civilians

in which the insurgent fish attempt to swim. This drying up process is translated militarily into making the

countryside unfit for civilian habitation.


*a) The environment is being made unfit for civilization in Indochina for military purposes

b) The US policy in Indochina has been widely condemned internationally

c) Bombers find it easy to clear vast tracts of forests

d) Clearing tropical lands leads to better war strategies

Solution:

The author highlights that ‘In Indochina, during the past decade we have the first modern instance in which

the environment has been selected as a ’military’ target appropriate for comprehensive and systematic

destruction’.

Q.30) Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage above?

I. Engaging in war is a demonic ideology.

II. Crop-denial programs are being used as a war tactic in Indochina.

a) Only I

*b) Only II

c) Both I & II

14

d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

The author does not call war ‘demonic’ but it is stated in the passage that ‘Such policies have led in Indochina

to the destruction of vast tracts of forest land and to so-called ’crop-denial programs’’.



PASSAGE 2

The World Health Organisation (WHO) has announced a review into the potential risks of plastic in drinking

water after a new analysis of some of the world’s most popular bottled water brands found that more than

90% contained tiny pieces of plastic. A previous study also found high levels of microplastics in tap water. In

the new study, analysis of 259 bottles from 19 locations in nine countries across 11 different brands found an

average of 325 plastic particles for every litre of water being sold. In one bottle of Nestlé Pure Life,

concentrations were as high as 10,000 plastic pieces per litre of water. Of the 259 bottles tested, only 17 were

free of plastics, according to the study.

Q.31) What is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage above?

a) Micro-plastics are an unavoidable eventuality of drinking bottled water

*b) Bottled water may not be as safe as we think it is

c) Bottled water is unfit for human consumption

d) A bottle of water should not have more than 100 plastic pieces per litre of water

Solution:

The author states that ‘a new analysis of some of the world’s most popular bottled water brands found that

more than 90% contained tiny pieces of plastic’.

Q.32) Which of the following assumptions are implicit in the passage above?

I. Plastic pieces in drinking water may pose a risk to health.

II. Tap water is no less pure than bottled water.

*a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & II

d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

The author states that ‘The World Health Organisation (WHO) has announced a review into the potential risks

of plastic in drinking water’ after the water was found to contain tiny pieces of plastic.

15



PASSAGE 3

India is witnessing a pet care boom. Urban centres are abuzz with pet dedicated retail outlets, for grooming

and holiday boarding. There are even luxury pet hotels. For instance, Gurgaon-based Critterati, started in late

2017, is a dedicated luxury pet hotel that boasts of royal suites and family suites for overnight stays, and also

offers day boarding, spa services, pet boutique and many other dedicated services. Bengaluru-based Petcart-

nest is a pet resort that opened last year. Spread over two acres, it features 70 small bamboo 'huts' for pets.

Pet care chains such as HUFT and Tail Lovers Company and dedicated pet cafes such as the Delhi-based

Puppychino, Cat Cafe in Mumbai or Twisty Tails in Chennai are doing brisk business.


*a) The pet-care industry has seen an increase in business potential in India

b) There are more pet hotels for cats than there are for dogs

c) Pets prefer hotels rather than homes and that is the reason for the increase in demand

d) Mumbai, Bengaluru and Chennai are the only cities in India with pet hotels

Solution:

The author states that ‘India is witnessing a pet care boom’ and that ‘Urban centres are abuzz with pet

dedicated retail outlets, for grooming and holiday boarding’.

Q.34) Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage above?

I. Some pet hotels in India have luxury accommodation.

II. Pet owners have become more empathetic than they were in the past.

III. Spa services are essential for the well-being of pets.

*a) Only I

b) Only I & III

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

Solution:

The passage states that ‘There are even luxury pet hotels’. There is no indication whether pet owners have

become more empathetic than they were in the past and neither is there any evidence to support that spa

services are essential for the well-being of pets.

16

Q.35) If a + b = 9 and a2 – b2 = 36, then what is the value of a?

a) 5

*b) 6.5

c) 7

d) 2.5

Solution:

a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b) a – b = 36/9 = 4 ; a + b = 9 2a = 13 a = 6.5

Q.36) If a/8 is an integer and a/5 is also an integer, then what is the smallest possible value of a if a is a

positive integer?

*a) 40

b) 80

c) 120

d) 160

Solution:

LCM of 8 and 5 = 8*5 = 40 a ≥ 40

Q.37) What is the remainder when 7754 is divided by 6?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 2

*d) 1

Solution:

7754/6 554/6 or (-1)54/6 1/6 remainder is 1

Q.38) If a and b are prime numbers and ab is a multiple of 7, then which of the following numbers will be a

multiple of 49?

a) a2

b) b2

c) a2 / b2

*d) a2 * b2

Solution:

If ab is a multiple of 49 either a = 7 or b = 7 a2 * b2 is definitely a multiple of 7*7 = 49

17

Q.39) How many unique prime numbers are factors of 21500?

a) 1

b) 2

*c) 3

d) 4

Solution:

21500 = 215*100 = 5*43*10*10 = 5*43*2*5*2*5 = 431*53*22 There are 3 unique prime numbers

Q.40) What is the angle formed between the minute and hour hands of a clock when the time is 10:10 am?

a) 120®

*b) 115®

c) 110®

d) 105®

Solution:

Minute-hand = 10*6 = 60® ; Hour-hand = 30*10 + 30/6 = 300 + 5 = 305®

Angle formed = 305 – 60 = 245® (clock-wise) or 360 – 245 = 115® (anti-clockwise)

Q.41) If the tip of the minute hand of a grandfather clock travels 10 cm from 1:55 pm to 2 pm, then what will

be the distance travelled by tip from 3 pm to 3:25 pm?

a) 48 cm

*b) 50 cm

c) 59 cm

d) 65 cm

Solution:

Distance travelled per minute = 10/5 = 2 cm 25*2 = 50 cm

Q.42) In a leap year, 18th January was a Saturday. Which of the following days will be a Thursday?

*a) 14th May

b) 15th May

c) 16th May

d) 17th May

Solution:

16th Jan was a Thursday Add 15 + 29 + 31 + 30 + remaining days of May = 105 + 14 = 119

Divisible by 7 14th May is a Thursday

18

Q.43) In a certain language, ARITHMETIC is written as BQJSILFSJB, how will HISTORY be written in the same

language?

a) NDHSCTD

b) MSDHCTS

*c) IHTSPQZ

d) IHSTPQZ

Solution:

The first letter is moved forward by one place and the second letter is moved back by one place. The pattern

repeats.

Q.44) If CAMERA is coded as 930256 and PIC is coded as 178, the what will be the code for PRIME?

a) 93021

b) 85032

c) 01926

*d) 15702

Solution:

P = 1 ; R = 5 ; I = 7 ; M = 0 ; E = 2 PRIME = 15702

Q.45) What is the next term in the following series: 19, 28, 46, 82, ______?

a) 160

b) 174

c) 164

*d) 154

Solution:

An = An-1*2 – 10 82*2 – 10 = 164 – 10 = 154

Q.46) Arrange the following in a proper order: 1. Clouds, 2. Flood, 3. Rain, 4. Rescue.

a) 4231

*b) 1324

c) 4132

d) 2413

Solution:

Clouds Rain Flood Rescue 1324

19

Q.47) If Grooming: Salon, then Exercise: ________?

a) Medicines

b) Health

*c) Gymnasium

d) Workout

Solution:

Grooming is done in a salon, just as exercise is done in a gymnasium.

Q.48) If Gambling: Luck, then __________: Income?

a) Sleep

*b) Lifestyle

c) Appetite

d) Beliefs

Solution:

Gambling depends on luck, just as lifestyle depends on income.



PASSAGE 1

One of the most dangerous and unsettling effects of deforestation is the loss of animal and plant species due

to their loss of habitat. 70% of land animals and plant species live in forests. Not only does deforestation

threaten species known to us, but also those unknown. The trees of the rainforest that provide shelter for

some species also provide the canopy that regulates the temperature. Deforestation results in a more drastic

temperature variation from day to night, much like a desert, which could prove fatal for many inhabitants. In

addition to the loss of habitat, the lack of trees also allows a greater amount of greenhouse gases to be

released into the atmosphere. Healthy forests absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, acting as valuable

carbon sinks. Deforested areas lose that ability and release more carbon.


a) Forests are not useful apart from acting as carbon sinks

b) All forest species are known

*c) Deforestation does not lower the quantum of greenhouse gases that are released into the atmosphere

d) All unknown species live in forests

20

Solution:

The passage states that ‘the lack of trees also allows a greater amount of greenhouse gases to be released into

the atmosphere’.

Q.50) Which of the following statements are true according to the passage above?

I. A majority of plant and animal species live in forests.

II. Deforestation can be harmful to unknown plant species.

III. A healthy forest cover helps in temperature regulation.

a) Only I

b) Only II & III

c) Only III

*d) All of the above

Solution:

The author states that ‘70% of land animals and plant species live in forests’, that ‘Not only does deforestation

threaten species known to us, but also those unknown’ and that ‘The trees of the rainforest that provide

shelter for some species also provide the canopy that regulates the temperature’.



PASSAGE 2

In the post-independence era, the BSE dominated the volume of trading. However, the low level of

transparency and undependable clearing and settlement systems, apart from other macro factors, increased

the need of a financial market regulator, and the SEBI was born in 1988 as a non-statutory body. It was made a

statutory body in 1992.

After the Harshad Mehta scam in 1992, there was a pressing need for another stock exchange large enough to

compete with the BSE and bring transparency to the stock market. This gave birth to the National Stock

Exchange (NSE). It was incorporated in 1992, became recognized as a stock exchange in 1993, and trading

began on it in 1994. It was the first stock exchange on which trading took place electronically. In response to

this competition, BSE also introduced an electronic trading system known as BSE On-line Trading (BOLT) in

1995.

Q.51) Which of the following assumptions are implicit in the passage?

I. Financial markets need regulation.

II. The NSE was established in response to problems faced by the BSE.

a) Only I

21

b) Only II

*c) Both I & II

d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

The author mentions that ‘the low level of transparency and undependable clearing and settlement systems,

apart from other macro factors, increased the need of a financial market regulator’ and that ‘After the

Harshad Mehta scam in 1992, there was a pressing need for another stock exchange large enough to compete

with the BSE and bring transparency to the stock market. This gave birth to the National Stock Exchange

(NSE)’.

Q.52) Which of the following statements can be concluded from the passage above?

I. The BSE suffered from low levels of transparency before 1992.

II. The Harshad Mehta scam was the biggest stock market scam in India.

III. The BSE now is completely electronic.

a) I, II & III

*b) Only I

c) Only I & II

d) Only I & III

Solution:

It is given in the passage that ‘the low level of transparency and undependable clearing and settlement

systems’ and this was the reason for establishing the NSE in 1992. This implies that the BSE suffered from low

levels of transparency before 1992. It is not indicated that the Harshad Mehta scam was the biggest stock

market scam in India and neither is it given that the BSE now is completely electronic.



PASSAGE 3

It is important for providers to distinguish between CCTV surveillance for security purposes, and the use of

such a system to monitor staff behaviour and their performance. CCTV should generally not be used to

monitor the performance of workers, but application to staff may be appropriate in some cases, such as if

criminal behaviour is suspected. Any use of CCTV to monitor staff should be justified as part of the impact

assessment. In some instances, better training or greater supervision would be a more appropriate solution.

Staff should be informed when they are being monitored. Provided that employees have been informed of the

CCTV surveillance and do not object, it is assumed that they have waived their right to object. However, an

22

employee who feels that they are being singled out for CCTV surveillance may resign and claim constructive

dismissal on the grounds of breach of implied duty of trust and confidence owed by the employer.


a) Employers are free to monitor their employees as they deem fit

b) CCTV surveillance of employees is illegal

c) Constructive dismissal is mandatory if an employer is found snooping around on an employee

*d) Employees must give their consent before they can be put under surveillance by a company

Solution:

The passage states that ‘Staff should be informed when they are being monitored’ and that ‘Provided that

employees have been informed of the CCTV surveillance and do not object, it is assumed that they have

waived their right to object’.

Q.54) Which of the following assumptions are implied in the passage?

I. CCTV for surveillance and CCTV for performance monitoring are one and the same thing.

II. Employees are allowed to switch off CCTV cameras in office if they do not feel comfortable.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I & II

*d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

Neither of the statements are supported by the information provided in the passage.

Q.55) The average marks of A, B and C were 75. If the marks of D are added, the average increases by 5. There

is also a 5th student E, who scored 20% more than the average of A, B, C and D. What are the average

marks of A, B, C, D and E?

a) 81.5

b) 82.6

*c) 83.2

d) 83.8

Solution:

Average (A, B, C & D) = 75 + 5 = 80

E = 80*120/100 = 96

Avg of all 5 = (80*4 + 96)/5 = (320 + 96)/5 = 416/5 = 83.2

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Q.56) In a solution of 2 litres of grape juice and orange juice, there is 40% grape juice. How much grape juice

needs to be added to make its concentration 50%?

*a) 400 ml

b) 550 ml

c) 600 ml

d) 800 ml

Solution:

G = 2 * 40/100 = 800 ml O = 2*60/100 = 1.2 litres

Let F = final solution

1.2 L of orange juice = 50% of the final solution

1200 ml = F * 50/100

F = 2400 ml or 2.4 L

2.4 L – 2 L = 0.4 L or 400 ml

Q.57) In a company, there are 5 men and 4 women. In how many ways can a team be formed so that it has 2

men and 1 woman?

a) 30

b) 35

*c) 40

d) 45

Solution:

Team = 5C2 * 4C1 = 5!/(3!*2!) * 4 = 10*4 = 40 ways

Q.58) There are 10 players in a tennis tournament and each must play every other player exactly 3 times.

Then the top two players will have a final match to decide the winner. How many matches will be played

in total?

a) 90

b) 135

c) 45

*d) 136

Solution:

Total matches = 10C2*3 + 1 = [10!/(8!*2!) * 3] + 1 = 45*3 + 1 = 135 + 1 = 136

24

Q.59) What is the probability of getting a head both times if a disfigured coin with a 40% chance of heads and

60% chance of tails is tossed twice?

*a) 16%

b) 36%

c) 48%

d) 52%

Solution:

P (H & H) = 0.4 * 0.4 = 0.16 or 16%

Q.60) The average age of a class of 35 students increased by 1 when the professor was included. If the new

average age was 29, then what was the age of the professor?

a) 55 years

b) 59 years

*c) 64 years

d) 65 years

Solution:

Professor’s age = 35*1 + 29 = 64 years

Q.61) John sold two shirts at the same price. One was sold at a loss of 20%, while the other was sold at a

profit of 25%. What was his net profit or loss as a percentage?

*a) 2.4% loss

b) 10% profit

c) 5% profit

d) No profit, no loss

Solution:

Let both SP = Rs. 100

Shirt (Loss) SP = CP * 80/100 CP = 100 * 100/80 = Rs. 125

Shirt (Profit) SP = CP * 125/100 CP = 100 * 100/125 = Rs. 80

Total CP = 80 + 125 = Rs. 205 ; Total SP = 100 + 100 = Rs. 200

Loss = 205 – 200 = Rs. 5

Loss % = (5/205)*100 = 100/41 = ~2.4% loss

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S.62-64)Directions for Questions 62 to 64:Study the information given below to answer these questions

a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

Q.62) Assertion: Electric engines are more efficient that internal-combustion engines.

Reason: Electric engines deliver instant torque with no carbon emissions.

Solution: a)

Both A and R are true and it is correct that electric engines are more efficient that internal-combustion

engines because electric engines deliver instant torque with no carbon emissions.

Q.63) Assertion: It is dangerous to self-medicate.

Reason: Only a trained medical professional can say with certainty what the effect of a medicine will be.

Solution: a)

Both A and R are true and it is correct that it is dangerous to self-medicate because only a trained medical

professional can say with certainty what the effect of a medicine will be.

Q.64) Assertion: The Indian stock market is likely to grow in the following ten years.

Reason: A bronze statue of a bull has been installed at the gate of the BSE.

Solution: b)

Both A and R are true but it is not evident how the installation of a bronze statue of a bull at the gate of the

BSE can lead to the Indian stock market’s growth in the following ten years.


A college is scheduling eight classes—A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H for 3 subjects—Design Thinking, AutoCAD and

Modelling. The classes are spread over three days. Design Thinking is to be covered first in 3 classes followed

by Modelling and then AutoCAD in 2 classes. Lectures A, C and D have to be on different days. (Lectures B and

F have to be on the same day), but lecture B cannot be clubbed with A or G or D. Lecture G and H should come

on the same day. Lecture A is a lecture on Design Thinking and Lecture C cannot be on the last day. It is also

known that there are at least 3 classes on day 1.

26

Q.65) Which of the following pairs of classes can go along with lecture ‘A’ on Design Thinking?

a) B, C

*b) G, H

c) D, E

d) Insufficient information

Solution:

Day 1 A (DT), G, H

Day 2 C , B, F

Day 3 D

DT = 3 classes ; M = 3 classes AutoCAD = 2

BF, GH, E is unknown

Q.66) Which combination of classes was arranged on the second day of the series?

a) D, E, F

b) B, C, E

c) C, G, H


Q.67) Which of the following classes were for AutoCAD?

a) D, F

b) B, C

c) G, H


S.68-70) Directions for the following 3 (Three) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that


PASSAGE 1

Food production began to lag behind the population growth in 1962, and in 1963 the spring harvest, which

provides two-thirds of India's food grains and all her wheat, was unsatisfactory. From February, 1963, to April,

1964, the price curve steepened, rising by more than 4 per cent. Meanwhile, unusual winter frosts took a

heavy toll on the crops that were due in the spring. Foreseeing trouble, Mr. Nehru's Government divided the

country into food zones in February, forbidding grain shipments across zonal lines. The purpose was to isolate

27

non-producing regions and to feed them with imported grain instead of spreading the shortage all over India.

The results were disastrous. Grain dealers in the zones where the supply was adequate saw prices rising in the

shortage zones: Maharashtra (Bombay), Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh. They began to hoard stocks in hope the

Government would lift the zonal barriers and give them a chance to make great profits in the zones of

shortage.

From May to mid‐August the grain price index shot up by 18 per cent. Government efforts to combat hoarding

were not effective, and the urban workers began to feel the pinch. The price rise was not constant

geographically, some areas suffering from prices almost twice as high as others. As far as is known, there has

been little or no actual starvation, but the poor in the cities have had to skimp and devote a larger and larger

share of their meagre incomes to food. The problem is complicated by the fact that Indians are extremely

conservative in their diet and bitterly resist substitutes for their habitual nourishment. Rice eaters do not want

wheat, and wheat eaters do not want rice.


a) Food production in India is highly regimented

*b) Division of the nation into food zones produced disastrous results

c) Dealers hoard grains whenever they expect a rise in price

d) It is unethical to deprive people of proper nourishment for profit

Solution:

The author states that ‘Mr. Nehru's Government divided the country into food zones in February, forbidding

grain shipments across zonal lines. The purpose was to isolate non-producing regions and to feed them with

imported grain instead of spreading the shortage all over India. The results were disastrous’.


a) Dietary habits of people in India are flexible

*b) India faced a food crisis beginning in the year 1962

c) Most regions in India have similar prices of food items

d) Indian people follow a fixed diet and never try different types of food

Solution:

The passage states that ‘Food production began to lag behind the population growth in 1962, and in 1963 the

spring harvest, which provides two-thirds of India's food grains and all her wheat, was unsatisfactory’. This

was the beginning of India’s food crisis.

Q.70) Which of the following statements is true according to the passage above?

I. Grain prices in India increased in the 1960s.

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II. Indians had to spend a higher percentage of their incomes on food during the food crisis.

a) Only I

b) Only II

*c) Both I & II

d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

The author states that ‘From May to mid‐August the grain price index shot up by 18 per cent’ and also that

‘the poor in the cities have had to skimp and devote a larger and larger share of their meagre incomes to

food’.

S.71) Directions for the following 1 (One) item: Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow.


PASSAGE 2

The impact of COVID-related measures is likely to accelerate already established trends, such as de-

globalisation, automation and sustainability and reverse decade-long trends, such as international mobility

and urbanisation. Health fears over close human contact and global travel, combined with concerns about the

secure supply of essential goods and services, are likely to change the way people, businesses and economies

behave.


*a) COVID is likely to change the way human interactions are shaped and may have a drastic impact on the

global economy

b) COVID will make the world more automatic

c) Supply of essential goods and services will assume primary importance after COVID

d) Businesses will go into a severe recession after COVID

Solution:

The author concludes that ‘Health fears over close human contact and global travel, combined with concerns

about the secure supply of essential goods and services, are likely to change the way people, businesses and

economies behave’.



PASSAGE 3

The Canadian public has held favourable views of immigration for decades. In a 2019 poll, only about one-

third of Canadians felt immigration levels were too high. Canadians generally view both immigrants and their

29

country’s immigration system more positively than their counterparts in the United States. This is due in part

to the Canadian government’s efforts to promote and embrace a policy of multiculturalism and make diversity

part of the national identity. Canada also does not have large-scale unauthorized migration, a challenge that

has fuelled backlash against immigrants in many other countries, including the United States. Still, some

research suggests public support for immigration could slip easily.


a) Canadians generally do not prefer increased immigration into their country

b) Unauthorized immigration is a pressing problem for the Canadian government

c) The major reason for immigration into Canada is a lack of manpower and an ageing local population

*d) The United States views immigration less favourably than does Canada

Solution:

The author mentions that ‘Canadians generally view both immigrants and their country’s immigration system

more positively than their counterparts in the United States’.

Q.73) Which of the following assumptions are implicit in the passage above?

I. The Government of Canada views multi-culturalism favourably.

II. Some countries other than Canada have a problem of unauthorized migration.

a) Only I

b) Only II

*c) Both I & II

d) Neither I nor II

Solution:

The passage cites the ‘Canadian government’s efforts to promote and embrace a policy of multiculturalism’

and also that ‘Canada also does not have large-scale unauthorized migration, a challenge that has fuelled

backlash against immigrants in many other countries’.

Q.74) If a right-circular cylinder has a base diameter of 10 cm and a height of 8 cm, then what is its curved

surface area (exclude the top and bottom discs)?

a) 40 cm

b) 80 cm

c) 40π cm

*d) 80π cm

Solution:

Radius = 10/2 = 5 cm Curved surface area = 2πr*h = 2*π*5*8 = 80π cm

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Q.75) What is the area of the largest triangle that be enclosed using wooden rods of a combined length of 24

cm? There is no restriction on the length of wood that can used for any side.

a) 16 cm2

*b) 16√3 cm2

c) 32√3 cm2

d) 64√3 cm2

Solution:

Maximum area = All sides are equal Make an equilateral triangle

Area = (1/2)* base* height = (1/2)*8*4√3 = 16√3 cm2


Out of 41 people, 16 people like kheer, 18 like rasmalai, and 20 like gulabjamun. Moreover, 6 people like both

kheer and rasmalai, and of these people, 3 also like gulabjamun. 10 people only like rasmalai, 8 people only

like kheer, and all of the 41 people like at least 1 of the three sweets.

Q.76) How many people like all the three sweets?

a) 2

*b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Solution:

31

Q.77) How many people like only gulabjamun?

a) 8

b) 5

*c) 13

d) 10

Q.78) How many people like exactly one sweet?

a) 28

*b) 31

c) 29

d) 33

Solution:

Exactly one sweet = 10 + 8 + 13 = 31 people

Q.79) Rajesh started driving from Chennai to Goa at 6 am. He drove the first half of the journey at 80 km/hr

and the second half at 120 km/hr as he wanted to reach before sunset. What was Rajesh’s average speed

during the journey?

a) 85 km/hr

b) 100 km/hr

c) 110 km/hr

*d) 96 km/hr

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Solution:

S = 2𝑑

𝑑

80+

𝑑

120

=2𝑑

3𝑑+2𝑑

240= 2𝑑 ∗

240

5𝑑= 96 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟

Q.80) If we divide 29! By 6a, then what is the maximum possible value of a?

a) 10

b) 11

c) 12

*d) 13

Solution:

6 = 2*3 The number of 2*3 combinations will determine the number of 6s

Since 3s are rarer than 2s, we can easily find a 2 for every 3

Find the number of 3s to get the number of 6s

29

31 +29

32 +29

33 = 9 + 3 + 1 = 13

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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