ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 · all india prelims test series - 2017 quantitative aptitude...

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ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE + VERBAL ABILITY

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Q1) P and Q agreed to complete a job in 15 days for Rs. 6200. P can complete the same job in 50 days and Q in 30 days. They had to take R to complete the work in time. Find R's share in the money earned by them a) Rs 880 b) Rs 1240 c) Rs1460 d)Rs2020 Q2)15 Java programmers, working in a constant pace, finish a web page in 3 days. If after one day, 9 programmers quit, how many more days are needed to finish the remainder of the job?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Q3) Abhishek and Satya Prakash are 90 miles away from

one another. They are starting to move towards each other simultaneously, Abhishek at a speed of 10 Kmph and Satya Prakash at a speed of 5 Kmph. If every hour they double their speeds, what is the distance that Abhishek will pass until he meets Satya Prakash? a) 30 km b) 35 km c) 45 km d) 60 km Q4) A contractor employs 280 men to complete a work in 10 days. But after 3 days, it was found that only 1/4th of the work was done. How many additional men are required to finish the work on time? a) 360 b) 120 c) 140 d) 80 Q5) A batsman has a certain average runs for 11 innings. In the 12th inning he made a score of 90 runs and thereby

decreased his average by 5. His average after 12th inning is: a) 127 b) 145 c) 150 d) 217 Q6) A rectangle has a perimeter of 360 cms. The length and breadth of this rectangle is decreased by same units. Because of this the area is reduced by 4500 sq cms. Find the percentage reduction in the perimeter?

a) 50% b) 12.5% c) 75% d) 33.33% Q7) Ram has 5 sons. He distributes them chocolates in a fashion that the first Son gets double the number of chocolates given to the second son, three times the number of chocolates given to the third son, four times the number of chocolates given to the fourth son and five times the number of chocolates given to the fifth son. What is the minimum number of chocolates, the father can have? a) 15

b) 30 c) 60 d) 137 Q8) If Ram travels at a speed of 60 km/hr, from his home to class room, he reaches the class 10 mins late. If he travels at a speed of 80 km/hr, from his home to class room, he reaches the class 10 mins early. What is the distance between his home and classroom? a) 100 kms b) 80 kms c) 120 kms d) Data Insufficient

Q9) In a race Asafa beats Bolt by 12 seconds; Bolt beats Carl by 6 seconds. By how many seconds Asafa beats Carl: a) 13 seconds b) 11 seconds

c) 18 seconds d) Data Insufficient Q10) Beginning with the second day, the amount of work Aamir can do per day keeps doubling every day he works. Ajay can always do the work done by Aamir in 40 % less time. Owing to the increasing ability Aamir and Ajay can complete the job together in 2 days. How many days would it have taken if their efficiencies remained constant? a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 10 Q11) One quarter of the workers at the factory are clerical, one fifth are technical, half are administrative and the other 25 are managerial. How many workers are there in the factory, totally? a) 250 b) 366

c) 400 d) 500 Q12) A grocer bought 24Kg of coffee beans at price X per kilo. After a while one third of the stock got spoiled so he sold the rest for Rs.200 per Kilo and made a total profit of twice the cost. What must be price X? a) Rs 66 2/3 b) Rs 50 1/3 c) Rs 44 4/9 d) Rs 33 1/3

Q13) At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not together? a) 5 min past 7

b) 52

11 min past 7

c) ) 53

11 min past 7

d) ) 55

11 min past 7

Q14) A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3:2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is: a) Rs 1425


b) Rs 1500 c) Rs 1537.50 d) Rs 1576 Q15) A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation of 30º with the man's eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the angle of the elevation becomes 60º. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the point P? a) 43 units b) 8 units c) 12 units d) Data Inadequate

Q16) 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work? a) 10 b) 13

c) 14 d) 15 Q17) A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be 27, then how old is B? a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10 Q18) A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron weighs 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is: a) 3.6 kg b) 3.696 kg c) 36 kg d) 36.9 kg Q19) A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage

decrease in area is: a) 10% b) 10.8% c) 20% d) 28% Q20) A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond acertain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs.250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the thirdday etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding

day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days? a) Rs 4950 b) Rs 4250 c) Rs 3600 d) Rs 650 Q21) A Cuban cigar would cost Re.1 less than 1.5 times a French cigar, had the French cigar cost 70 paise less than it does now. An Arabian cigar costs 50 paise more than 1.5 times the Cuban cigar. The three cigars together cost Rs 74.70 What is the price of the French cigar? a) Rs 16.70 b) Rs 23

c) Rs 25.50 d) Rs 35 Q22) P and Q completed a job working together in X days. P takes (X+8) days to complete the job, Q takes (X+18) days to complete the job. Find X a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 20 Q23) In a barrel of juice there are 30 liters; in a barrel of wine there are 80 liters. If the price ratio of a barrel of juice to a barrel of wine is 3:4, what is the price ratio

between one liter of juice and one liter of wine? a) 3:2 b) 2:1 c) 3:1 d) 4:3

Q24) A certain quantity of 40% solution is replaced with 25% solution such that the new concentration is 35%. What is the fraction of the solution that was replaced? a) ¼ b) 1/3 c) ½ d) 2/3 Q25) The average of temperatures at noontime from Monday to Friday is 50; the lowest one is 45, what is the possible maximum range of the temperatures? a) 70 b) 25 c) 35 d) 205 Q26) In an office, the average salary of all the employees is Rs.7000. If the average salary of the 22 executives is Rs.12000 and that of the others is Rs.5000, find the total number of employees in the office a) 68

b) 77 c) 78 d) 84 Q27) The dimensions of a rectangular floor are 16 feet by 20 feet. When a rectangular rug is placed on the floor, a strip of floor 3 feet wide is exposed on all sides. What are the dimensions of the rug, in feet? a) 10 X 14 b) 10 X 17 c) 13 X 14

d) 13 X 17 Q28) Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% and 37 % respectively. How much percent is the second number less than the first? a) 10% b) 7% c) 4% d) 3% Q29) Satya Prakash passed a certain bridge, which needs fee. There are 2 ways for him to choose. A : Rs130/month + Rs 2/time , B: Rs 7.50/time . He passes the bridge twice


a day. How many days at least should he pass the bridge in a month, for it to be economic by A way? a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 Q30) A group of people participate in some curriculums. 20 of them practice Yoga, 10 study cooking, 12 study weaving. 3 of them study cooking only, 4 of them study both the cooking and yoga and 2 of them participate in all curriculums. How many people study both cooking and weaving? a) 1

b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Q31) In a consumer survey, 85% of those surveyed liked at least one of three products: A, B, and C. 50% of those

asked liked product A, 30% liked product B, and 20% liked product C. If 5% of the people in the survey liked all three of the products, what percentage of the survey participants liked more than one of the three products? a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 Q32) For a certain company, operating costs and commissions totaled Rs 550 crores in 2014, representing an increase of 10 percent from the previous year. The sum of operating costs and commissions for both years was a) Rs 1,000 crores b) Rs 1,050 crores c) Rs 1,100 crores d) Rs 1,150 crores Q33) A sum of Rs.18,000 was lent under simple interest partly at 15% p.a. and partly at 20% p.a for one of year. If the total interest earned is Rs.3,330, what is the ratio of

amounts invested at the two different rates? a) 4:5 b) 3:4 c) 2:5 d) 3:7 Q34) A merchant sells an item at a 20% discount, but still makes a gross profit of 20 percent of the cost. What percent of the cost would the gross profit on the item have been if it had been sold without the discount? a) 20%

b) 40% c) 50% d) 60% Q35) What quantity of wheat at Rs.10 per kg should be mixed with 48 kg of wheat at Rs.6 per kg and 30 kg of wheat at Rs.8 per kg, such that a profit of 25% is earned on selling the mixture at Rs.10 per kg? a) 52 kg b) 48 kg c) 36 kg d) 40 kg

Q36) A trader claims to sell jeera at cost price but mixes freely available sand and thereby gains 25%. What is the percentage of sand in the mixture?

a) 162

3%

b) 20%

c) 25% d) 12.5% Q37) Juice mixture X is 40 percent mango and 60 percent banana by weight; Juice mixture Y is 25 percent mango and 75 percent grapes. If a mixture of X and Y contains 30 percent mango, what percent of the weight of this mixture is X? a) 10% b) 33 1/3% c) 40% d) 50% Q38) A hiker walked for two days. On the second day the hiker walked 2 hours longer and at an average speed 1

km per hour faster than he walked on the first day. If during the two days he walked a total of 64 kms and spent a total of 18 hours walking, what was his average speed on the first day? a) 2 kmph b) 3 kmph c) 4 kmph d) 5 kmph Q39) Envelopes can be purchased for Rs 1.50 per pack of 100, Rs 1.00 per pack of 50, or Rs 0.03 each. What is the greatest number of envelopes that can be purchased for

Rs 7.30? a) 426 b) 430 c) 443 d) 460 Q40) An amount doubles in 7 years when invested under compound interest at a certain rate. In how many years will the amount become 8 times at the same rate? a) 9 years b) 14 years c) 21 years d) 28 years Q41) If fresh grapes have 90% water, and dry grapes have 20% water, the weight of dry grapes obtained from 20kg of fresh grapes is a) 3.6 kg b) 2.4 kg

c) 3 kg d) 2.5 kg

Read the following passage and answer the 6 (six) items that follow: Most economists in the United States seem captivated by the spell of the free market. Consequently, nothing seems good or normal that does not accord with the

requirements of the free market. A price that is determined by the seller or, established by anyone other than the aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accordingly, it requires a major act of will to think of price-fixing (the determination of prices by the seller) as both “normal” and having a valuable economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal in all industrialized societies


because the industrial system itself provides, as an effortless consequence of its own development, the price-fixing that it requires. Modern industrial planning requires and rewards great size. Hence, a comparatively small number of large firms will be competing for the same group of consumers. That each large firm will act with consideration of its own needs and thus avoid selling its products for more than its competitors charge is commonly recognized by advocates of free-market economic theories. But each large firm will also act with full consideration of the needs that it has in common with the other large firms competing for the same customers. Each large firm will thus avoid significant price-cutting, because price-cutting would be prejudicial to the common

interest in a stable demand for products. Most economists do not see price-fixing when it occurs because they expect it to be brought about by a number of explicit agreements among large firms; it is not Moreover, those economists who argue that allowing the

free market to operate without interference is the most efficient method of establishing prices have not considered the economies of non-socialist countries other than the United states. These economies employ intentional price-fixing, usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-fixing by cartel and informal price-fixing by agreements covering the members of an industry are commonplace. Were there something peculiarly efficient about the free market and inefficient about price-fixing, the countries that have avoided the first and used the second would have suffered drastically in their economic development. There is no indication that they have Socialist industry also works within a framework of controlled prices. In the early 1970’s, the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries some of the flexibility in adjusting prices that a more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist system. Economists in the United States have hailed the change as a return to the free market. But Soviet firms are no more subject to prices established by a free market over which they exercise little

influence than are capitalist firms; rather, Soviet firms have been given the power to fix prices Q42) The primary purpose of the passage is to a) Refute the theory that the free market plays a useful role in the development of industrialized societies b) suggest methods by which economists and members of the government of the United States can recognize and combat price-fixing by large firms c) show that in industrialized societies price-fixing and the operation of the free market are not only compatible but

also mutually beneficial d) argue that price-fixing, in one form or another, is an inevitable part of and benefit to the economy of any industrialized society Q43) The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions about price-fixing? 1. What are some of the ways in which prices can be fixed? 2. For which products is price-fixing likely to be more profitable that the operation of the free market? 3. Is price-fixing more common in socialist industrialized societies or in non-socialist industrialized societies?

a) 1 only b) 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 2 and 3 only Q44) The suggestion in the passage that price-fixing in industrialized societies is normal arises from the author’s statement that price-fixing is: a) a profitable result of economic development b) an inevitable result of the industrial system c) the result of a number of carefully organized decisions d) a phenomenon common to industrialized and non-industrialized societies

Q45) According to the author, price-fixing in non-socialist countries is often a) accidental but productive b) legal and innovative c) traditional and rigid d) intentional and widespread

Q46) According to the author, what is the result of the Soviet Union’s change in economic policy in the 1970’s? a) Soviet firms show greater profit. b) Soviet firms have less control over the free market. c) Soviet firms are able to adjust to technological advances d) Soviet firms have some authority to fix prices. Q47) With which of the following statements regarding the behaviour of large firms in industrialized societies would the author be most likely to agree? a) The directors of large firms will continue to anticipate the demand for products b) The directors of large firms are less interested in achieving a predictable level of profit than in achieving a large profit c) The directors of large firms will strive to reduce the costs of their products d) Many directors of large firms believe that the government should establish the prices that will be charged for products.

Read the following passage and answer the 5 (five) items that follow: Language is not a cultural artefact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the biological makeup of our brains. Language is a complex, specialized skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same

in every individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to process information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental organ, a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term "instinct." It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in more or less the sense that spiders know how to spin webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on having had the right education or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades. Rather, spiders spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which give them the urge to spin and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences


between webs and words, I will encourage you to see language in this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down in the canon of the humanities and social sciences. Language is no more a cultural invention than is upright posture. It is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use -symbols: a three year old, we shall see, is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics curriculum. Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living species, it

does not call for sequestering the study of humans from the domain of biology, for a magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the positions

of the constellations against the time of day and year. In nature's talent show we are simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by modulating the sounds we make when we exhale. Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness but as a biological adaption to communicate information, it is no longer as tempting to see language as an insidious shaper of thought, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature’s engineering marvels – an organ with “that perfection of structure and co-adaption which justly excites our admiration,” in Darwin’s words – give us a new respect for your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned English language (or any language). The complexity of language, from the scientist’s point of view, is part of our biological birth right; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in school – as Oscar Wilde said, “Education is an admirable thing, but it is well to remember from time to

time that nothing that is worth knowing can be taught.” A pre-schooler’s tacit knowledge of grammar is more sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human beings, even the notorious syntax-fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage skateboarder. Finally, since language is the product of a well-engineered biological instinct, we shall see that it is not nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainer-columnists make it out to be

Q48) According to the passage, which of the following does not stem from popular wisdom on language? a) Language is a cultural artefact. b) Language is learnt as we grow. c) Language is unique to Homo sapiens d) Language is a psychological faculty. Q49) Which of the following can be used to replace the “spiders know how to spin webs” analogy as used by the author? a) A kitten learning to jump over a wall b) Bees collecting nectar c) A donkey carrying a load d) A horse running a Derby

Q50) According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human beings? a) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another. b) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation c) Ability to communicate information to other members of the species d) Ability to use sound as means of communication Q51) According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school to children because

a) children instinctively know language. b) children learn the language on their own. c) language is not amenable to teaching. d) children know language better than their teachers or parents.

Q52) Which of the following best summarizes the passage? a) Language is unique to Homo sapiens. b) Language is neither learnt nor taught. c) Language is not a cultural invention or artefact as it is made out. d) Language is instinctive ability of human beings.

Read the following passage and answer the 4 (four) items that follow: Energy efficiency and renewable energy are said to be the twin pillars of sustainable energy policy. In many countries, energy efficiency is also seen to have a national security benefit because it can be used to reduce the level of energy imports from foreign countries and may slow down the rate at which domestic energy resources are depleted.

Making homes, vehicles, and businesses more energy efficient is seen as a largely untapped solution to addressing the problems of pollution, global warming, energy security, and fossil fuel depletion. Many of these ideas have been discussed for years, since the 1973 oil crisis brought energy issues to the forefront. In the late 1970s, physicist Amory Lovins popularized the notion of a "soft energy path," with a strong focus on energy efficiency. Among other things, Lovins popularized the notion of megawatts—the idea of meeting energy needs by increasing efficiency instead of increasing energy production. Energy efficiency has proved to be a cost-effective strategy for building economies without

necessarily growing energy consumption. For example, the state of California began implementing energy-efficiency measures in the mid-1970s, including building code and appliance standards with strict efficiency requirements. During the following years, California's energy consumption has remained approximately flat on a per capita basis while the national US consumption doubled. As part of its strategy, California implemented a "loading order" for new energy resources that puts energy efficiency first, renewable electricity supplies second, and

new fossil-fired power plants last.

Lovins' Rocky Mountain Institute points out that in industrial settings, "there are abundant opportunities to save 70-91% of the energy and cost for lighting, fan, and


pump systems; 50% for electric motors; and 60% in areas such as heating, cooling, office equipment, and appliances." In general, up to 75% of the electricity used in the United States today could be saved with efficiency measures that cost less than the electricity itself. The same holds true for home owners, leaky ducts have remained an invisible energy culprit for years. In fact, researchers at the US Department of Energy and their consortium, Residential Energy Efficient Distribution Systems (REEDS) have found that duct efficiency may be as low as 50-70%.The US Department of Energy has stated that there is potential for energy saving in the magnitude of 90 billion kWh by increasing home energy

efficiency.

Other studies have emphasized this. A report published in 2006 by the McKinsey Global Institute asserted that "there are sufficient economically viable opportunities for energy-productivity improvements that could keep global energy-demand growth at less than 1 percent per

annum"—less than half of the 2.2% average growth anticipated through 2020 in a business-as-usual scenario. Energy productivity, which measures the output and quality of goods and services per unit of energy input, can come from either reducing the amount of energy required to produce something, or from increasing the quantity or quality of goods and services from the same

amount of energy.

The Vienna Climate Change Talks 2007 Report, under the auspices of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), clearly shows "that energy efficiency can achieve real emission reductions at low cost."

The estimated energy efficiency for an automobile is 280 passenger-mile/106 Btu. There are several ways to enhance a vehicle's energy efficiency. Using improved aerodynamics to minimize drag can increase vehicle fuel efficiency. Reducing vehicle weight can also improve fuel economy, which is why composite materials are widely used in car bodies. More advanced tires, with decreased tire-to-road friction and rolling resistance, can save gasoline. Fuel economy can be improved by up to 3.3% by keeping tires inflated to the correct pressure. Replacing a clogged air filter can improve cars fuel consumption by as much as 10% on older vehicles. On newer vehicles (1980s and up) with fuel-injected, computer-controlled engines, a clogged air filter has no effect on mpg but replacing it

may improve acceleration by 6-11%.

Energy-efficient vehicles may reach twice the fuel

efficiency of the average automobile. Cutting-edge designs such as the diesel Mercedes-Benz Bionic concept vehicle have achieved the fuel efficiency as high as 84 miles per US gallon (2.8 L/100 km; 101 mpg-imp), four times the current conventional automotive average.

The mainstream trend in automotive efficiency is the rise of electric vehicles. Hybrids, such as the Toyota Prius, use regenerative braking to recapture energy that would dissipate in normal cars; the effect is especially pronounced in city driving. Plug-in hybrids also have increased battery capacity, which makes it possible to drive for limited distances without burning any gasoline; in this case, energy efficiency is dictated by whatever

process (such as coal-burning, hydroelectric, or

renewable source) created the power. Plug-ins can typically drive for around 40 miles (64 km) purely on electricity without recharging; if the battery runs low, a gas engine kicks in allowing for extended range. Finally, all-electric cars are also growing in popularity; the Tesla Roadster sports car is the only high-performance all-electric car currently on the market, and others are in preproduction Q53) How is Energy Efficiency important for Sustainable development? a) Though it is not cost effective, it is need of the hour. b) It helps in meeting energy needs by increasing energy production

c) It increases energy consumption. d) It helps in meeting energy needs without increasing energy production Q54) What is true in context of "California" as per the author?

i) It began implementing energy efficiency measures in the mid-1980s ii) Its energy consumption has been lower in comparison to that of the United States. iii) It emphasizes more on energy efficiency rather than fossil-fired power plants a) Both (ii) and (iii) are correct. b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. c) Both (i) and (iii) are correct. d) Only (ii) is correct. Q55) According to the passage, the Vienna Climate Change Talks 2007 states that a) There is need of more energy production rather than enhancing energy efficiency b) Energy efficiency can help little in sustainable development c) At low cost, emission reduction can be lowered with energy efficiency d) It takes too much money and effort to enhance energy efficiency

Q56) What is not correct in context of plug-in hybrids? a) They help in plugging in vehicles. b) They make vehicles consume more fuel. c) They are too costly to afford by common man. d) They have more battery capacity.

Read the following passage and answer the 4 (four) items that follow: The first-ever census of marine life (CoML), a mammoth

decade-long exercise involving more than 2700 scientists

from over 80 countries, has been successfully completed.

The painstaking research has unearthed nearly 250,000

marine species of an estimated one million. About 6000

new species have also been discovered. The landmark

exercise marks a remarkable beginning in identifying and

mapping the diversity, distribution, and abundance of

marine organisms. Though long-distance migration of

many predators such as tuna and sharks was tracked,

large areas of the oceans, mainly the Indian Ocean, have

not been fully explored. While 10 marine hotspots were

identified, including one in the Indian Ocean, many

biodiversity hotspots await detailed investigation. This is

because the oceans cover 75% of the earth's surface, and


investigating their surface and depths requires

tremendous scientific expertise and huge investments.

The good news is that even though the census has been

completed, several national and regional initiatives

started during the CoML program will continue to operate

with support from government and non-government

agencies.

Unlike other major projects such as the mapping of the

human genome, the scope of this study is undefined.

Thus, the CoML provides an ideal platform for

incorporating diverse inputs from future studies to help

us understand the big picture. It will also serve as the

baseline for evaluating the future impact of human

intervention on sea animals. The CoML facilitated the use

of diverse technologies on a large scale, technologies that

are of continuing use. For instance, there are special

sonar devices which allow us to see how marine life

assemble in schools and move both vertically and laterally

over thousands of square kilometers. Thanks to the use

of modern techniques, scientists were also able to have a

glimpse of the hitherto unknown world of marine animals.

One finding of the study which is a cause for concern is that the fate of many animals living in easily accessible habitats appears gloomy. Large fishes and marine mammals such as sea turtles and tuna have declined by 90% on an average due to over- fishing and/or pollution. Apart from being an invaluable source of food, the oceans

produce 70% of oxygen present in the atmosphere, and also absorb one-third of the global carbon dioxide emissions. All these are warning signs that oceans, the lifeline for all things living on earth, may well turn into a watery grave if damage to marine life continues unabated Q57) What is true in context to the census of marine life? i) The census of marine life discovered about one million species ii) The census will guide further human activities on marine life iii) The amount of oxygen produced in ocean is little more than that on land a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. b) Both (ii) and (iii) are correct. c) Both (i) and (iii) are correct. d) Only (ii) is correct. Q58) Which of these statements is incorrect in context to CoML in the Indian Ocean? i) Much of the information is gathered after the full exploration of the Indian Ocean

ii) Ten marine hotspots were found in the Indian Ocean iii) Due to the vastness of predators, they could not be tracked a) Only (iii) b) Both (i) and (ii)

c) Both (ii) and (iii) d) All of the above Q59) Which of the facts mentioned below came out after the CoML? i) There has been a decline of about 90% in the population of marine mammals ii) The census brought forward around 6000 new species

iii) Either over-fishing or pollution has been the reason the Indian Ocean is still not explored well. a) Only (ii) is correct. b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. c) Both (ii) and (iii) are correct d) Only (iii) is correct. Q60) Why is marine life so important for the human beings? i) It plays a crucial role in the balance of oxygen, and carbon dioxide in our environment ii) It checks melting of glaciers, hence is very important against global warming iii) Oceans are a big source of food.

a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. b) Both (ii) and (iii) are correct. c) Both (i) and (iii) are correct. d) All are correct.

Read the following passage and answer the 6 (six)

items that follow: Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results and preserving the sites once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that would

at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archeological expeditions and governmental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and

the publication of results. At the

same time, they would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal activities.

You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, which should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply, everything that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming

that every artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong. I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard. Even precious royal seal impressions known as melekh handles have been found in abundance, more than 4,000 examples so far.

The basements of museums are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become as inaccessible as if they had never been discovered.


Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be photographed and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer. A purchaser could even be required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the

professional archaeologist who excavated it? Q61) The primary purpose of the passage is to propose a) an alternative to museum display of artifacts b) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession

c) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value d) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites Q62) The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT: a) A market for such artifacts already exists. b) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value. c) Museums are well supplied with examples of such artifacts. d) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality than those already catalogued in museum collections Q63) Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum basements? a) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts b) Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage. c) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become

separated from each other d) Such artifacts often remain uncatalogued and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage Q64) The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus to emphasize which of the following points? a) Artifact that is very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists b) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are available in large quantities c) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing

large quantities of salable artifacts d) Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread, particularly on the island of Cyprus Q65) The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is based on which of the following assumptions? a) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts b) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise. c) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts. d) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only duplicate artifacts

Q66) The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal? a) Museum officials will become unwilling to store artifacts b) An oversupply of salable artifacts will result and the demand for them will fall c) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors d) Counterfeiting of artifacts will become more commonplace

Read the following passage and answer the 4 (four) items that follow: The word democracy may stand for a natural social equality in the body politic or for a constitutional form of government in which power lies more or less directly in the people’s hand. The former may be called social democracy and the later democratic government. The two differ widely, both in origin and in moral principle.

Genetically considered, social democracy is something primitive, unintended, and proper to communities where there is general competence and no marked personal eminence. There will be no aristocracy, no prestige, but instead an intelligent readiness to lend a hand and to do in unison whatever is done. In other words there will be that most democratic of governments—no government at all. But when pressure of circumstances, danger, or inward strife makes recognized and prolonged guidance necessary to a social democracy, the form its government takes is that of a rudimentary monarchy established by election or general consent. A natural leader emerges and is instinctively obeyed. That leader may indeed be freely criticized and will not be screened by any pomp or traditional mystery; he or she will be easy to replace and every citizen will feel essentially his or her equal. Yet such a state is at the beginnings of monarchy and aristocracy Political democracy, on the other hand, is a late and artificial product. It arises by a gradual extension of aristocratic privileges, through rebellion against abuses,

and in answer to restlessness on the people’s part. Its principle is not the absence of eminence, but the discovery that existing eminence is no longer genuine and representative. It may retain many vestiges of older and less democratic institutions. For under democratic governments the people have not created the state; they merely control it. Their suspicions and jealousies are quieted by assigning to them a voice, perhaps only a veto, in the administration. The people’s liberty consists not in their original responsibility for what exists, but merely in the faculty they have acquired of abolishing any detail

that may distress or wound them, and of imposing any new measure, which, seen against the background of existing laws, may commend itself from time to time to their instinct and mind. If we turn from origins to ideals, the contrast between social and political democracy is no less marked. Social democracy is a general ethical ideal, looking to human equality and brotherhood, and inconsistent, in its radical form, with such institutions as the family and hereditary property Democratic government, on the contrary, is merely a means to an end, an expedient for the better and smoother government of certain states at certain junctures. It involves no special ideals of life; it is a


question of policy, namely, whether the general interest will be better served by granting all people an equal voice in elections. For political democracy must necessarily be a government by deputy, and the questions actually submitted to the people can be only very large rough matters of general policy or of confidence in party leaders Q67) The author suggests that the lack of “marked personal eminence” (lines 09-10) is an important feature of a social democracy because a) such a society is also likely to contain the seeds of monarchy and aristocracy b) the absence of visible social leaders in such a society will probably impede the development of a political

democracy c) social democracy represents a more sophisticated form of government than political democracy d) the absence of visible social leaders in such a community is likely to be accompanied by a spirit of cooperation

Q68) Which one of the following forms of government does the author say is most likely to evolve from a social democracy? a) monarchy b) government by deputy c) political democracy d) representative democracy Q69) According to the author of this passage, a social democracy would most likely adopt a formal system of government when a) recognized leadership becomes necessary to deal with social problems b) people lose the instinctive ability to cooperate in solving social problems c) a ruling monarch decides that it is necessary to grant political concessions to the people d) citizens no longer consider their social leaders essentially equal to themselves.

Q70) The author of the passage suggests that a political democracy is likely to have been immediately preceded by which one of the following forms of social organization? a) a social democracy in which the spirit of participation has been diminished by the need to maintain internal security b) an aristocratic society in which government leaders have grown insensitive to people’s interests c) a primitive society that stresses the radical equality of all its members d) a state of utopian brotherhood in which no government

exists

Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow: We dare not forget today that we are the heirs of that first revolution. Let the word go forth from this time and place, to friend and foe alike, that the torch has been passed to a new generation of Americans, born in this century, tempered by war, disciplined by a hard and bitter peace, proud of our ancient heritage, and unwilling to witness or permit the slow undoing of those human rights to which this nation has always been committed, and to which we are committed today at home and around the world.

Let every nation know, whether it wishes us well or ill, that we shall pay any price, bear any burden, meet any hardship, support any friend, oppose any foe to assure the survival and the success of liberty. This much we pledge – and more. To those old allies whose cultural and spiritual origins we share, we pledge the loyalty of faithful friends. United there is little we cannot do in a host of cooperative ventures. Divided there is little we can do; for we dare not meet a powerful challenge at odds and split asunder. To those new states whom we welcome to the ranks of the free, we pledge our word that one form of colonial control

shall not have passed away merely to be replaced by a far more iron tyranny. We shall not always expect to find them supporting our view. But we shall always hope to find them strongly supporting their own freedom; and to remember that, in the past, those who foolishly sought power by riding the

back of the tiger ended up inside Q71) What does "torch" in line 4 refer to? i) Knowledge ii) Revolution iii) Political power iv) Leadership a) i, ii and iv b) iii and iv only c) i and iv only d) i, ii, iii and iv Q72) What does "tiger" in the last line of the passage refer to? a) Revolutionaries b) Suppressed people c) Independent people d) Martyrs Q73) What could be the likely source of the passage? a) A revolutionary journal

b) A speech c) A newspaper editorial d) A book

Read the following passage and answer the 4 (four) items that follow: Some people are simply born with a happiness gene. They lead a happy life irrespective of their circum-stances—whether they are materially successful or not, marry a loving partner or not, or are healthy or ailing. However, they are a minority. The rest of us instinctively drift towards experiencing incompleteness, sadness, and anxiety, as if we carry a dominant unhappiness gene within us. Coined as an acronym "MOODS," here are five key symptoms of our unhappiness gene. Developing an understanding of these can be greatly helpful in working through our moments of anxiety and depression, and with conscious effort, discover real happiness.

Me: "Me" represents our self-centered instincts to take things personally. We are quick to judge our successes and failures, compliments and critique, and take them


personally. Every untoward incident raises the question of "why is it happening to me?" Happiness lies in grasping the laws of nature and acknowledging that life is unfolding as it needs to and that every change in our circumstances is not a reflection of us. Also, nothing is happening uniquely to us—everyone has their share of

challenges; instead, it is how we react to them that makes the real difference.

Overwhelmed: Next is our tendency to get totally consumed by unpleasant events. Feeling anxious, we are often unable to isolate such events from the rest of our daily life; instead, we let them completely grip our psyche. Troubling issues at work overflow into our family time and anxiety around children's future occupies our mind while

watching TV. Dealing with this requires conscious efforts toward living in the present— compartmentalizing different aspects of our life and not getting identified with any, realizing that thoughts have the habit of amplifying

the regrets of the past and fears about the future, and becoming open to accepting the reality as it is and not pondering over how it should have been Obsessive: This is about our strong need to be perfect. It is an obsession that moulds our outlook at work, with the family, towards diet and exercise, and even in our spiritual pursuits. Accordingly, our mind invariablylooks out for what is not going well and that means there is always a sense of lack within. We need to identify, and attend to, our big priorities in life, rather than trying to be perfect with every single aspect. Further, building a deeper sense of gratitude for all the things that are going well for us supports us in feeling centered.

DIY: Another one is the preference to deal with problems on our own—a kind of a "do it yourself" approach. When faced with a setback, many of us habitually retreat into a shell to work through our problems. Not seeking help also means brooding over problems longer. Sharing problems with others lightens our load and creates possibilities for new solutions to emerge. This demands a greater willingness to be vulnerable though. Trying it with people you trust—those who are not likely to be judgmental

about your situation—offers a suitable starting point.

Set in stone: Finally, the unhappiness gene relates to our conditioned belief that the impact of any negative events would last forever, that there is a certain permanency to the unfavorable aspects of our life. Clearly, this thought process overlooks the reality that nothing is permanent. Favorable and unfavorable events come and go in our life

with the regularity of four seasons. Life is a journey of experiences and every setback is indeed a new experience for greater learning and growth. As we create positive beliefs around our setbacks, we feel more empowered and experience greater equanimity Q74) According to the passage what do you think are the steps that should be taken to lead a happy life? i) Take birth with a happiness gene. ii) Take care of various moods in life. iii) One should not blame himself for all the failures in life. iv) One should not blame himself for the failures in life rather should look for the reason behind the failures In society as society plays an important role in shaping our destiny

a) All of the above b) (ii) and (iv) c) Only (iv) d) Only (iii) Q75) What according to you is the crux of the story? i) Neither happiness is permanent nor is sorrow. ii) We must ask help from several people while working on a project. iii) Ways to be happy in life. iv) Getting happiness through gene therapy. a) (i) and (iii) b) (ii) and (iii) c) Only (iii)

d) (iii) and (iv) Q76) After reading the passages which of the following statements according to you are incorrect? i) Some people in the world are born with natural instincts to be happy in life. They are not affected by material,

emotional dissatisfactions ii) There are a small percentage of people who find it difficult to remain happy in life as they are affected and surrounded by countless negativities of life iii) When challenges and setbacks come in our life we must take them as part and parcel of life and must deal tactfully with them iv) The right way to deal with various problems in life is to look at them collectively and not in an isolated manner. a) (i), (ii), and (iv) b) (ii) and (iv) c) (i) and (iv) d) (i) and (iii) Q77) After reading the passage which of the following statements do you think can be said to be inferences of the passage? a) We need to work in an obsessed manner to succeed in life. Being obsessed with each and every finer aspects of our life ensures happiness b) We must focus on the larger picture of life and if bigger

issues of life are going well then we must not waste our energy in perfecting each and every aspect of our life c) (i) and (ii) both. d) None of the above

Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow: Buddha remarked on the enormous impact of perspective on human psychology when he said, "life is a creation of the mind." Shakespeare put it this way when

he said, "there is nothing good or bad, but thinking makes it so." And Flip Wilson’s character, Geraldine, brought this idea to life with a laugh when he said "what you see is what you get." A big part of therapy is working do with how we see it. Perspective influences everything. We do not see our lives in purely objective terms. We are subjective creatures. We see through a filter. We have biases. As I like to say, everyone has a personality. And that personality alters our perceptions. Introverts see life differently than do extraverts. Pessimists have a different take on life than optimists or even realists. If you have a leaning toward depression, your sense of life takes on that gray sheen. If you are somewhat anxious, everything revs at a slightly higher speed.


I think that these filters are relatively fixed aspects of our personalities. Some of you might feel relieved to hear that. I know a lot of folks get worried that a therapist is going to try to turn them into a completely different person! Let me be the first to reassure you that cannot happen. What therapists seek to do is to help you shift perspective so that you can see the world more accurately and therefore live your life more effectively. That is what I mean by filters being relatively fixed. There is room for tweaking. The good news is that when relative changes can be made in one's basic approach to life, it makes a big difference.

A modest change in your filter does not change who you are at the fiber of your being. It helps you become a better version of yourself. Think about it this way. A cognitive behavioral therapy corrects distortions and misperceptions. If you have a basic distortion such as "nothing ever works out for me," you inevitably would not

invest in your life with much confidence or effort. If you can come to see that, in fact, sometimes things work out and sometimes they do not, you are likely to try harder and with a more hopeful attitude. Just that shift can change a lot. Or think about it in another way. Since Carl Rogers, most therapists have a basic approach to clients of empathy, understanding, and positive regard. It sounds like such a simple approach but it really can be transformational. Sadly, many people have never had someone listen to them with great interest, understand both their troubles and their talents, and affirm their best qualities and efforts. Just having someone understand and believe in you can change the filter you have about yourself and about other people—which can make life seem more worth living and living well. One of the unique aspects of the psychoanalytic approach is that the client's perspective on his or her relationship with the therapist—what we call transference—is the focus of attention. The therapist allows himself to become a

guinea pig in the client's psychological world, considering and exploring the perceptions and misperceptions that the client has of him. The therapeutic relationship becomes a laboratory in which the client can live out these biases in the relationship with the therapist in a way that is more vivid and emotionally alive. This experience paves the way for deeper understanding and those "aha!" moments in which the client can see how he or she is distorting reality in real time. That can lead to transformation of perspective in the root of the client's personality. And that

is why the changes that people make in psychoanalysis tend to stick. It is challenging to take the risk to get into therapy or to keep at it once you are in. But if the experience could help you shift perspective so that you could see your life as half full and live accordingly, would not it be worth it? Q78) Which of the following statements go well with the passage? i) An introvert sees life differently than an extrovert but has a similar perspective to pessimist ii) A therapist can help you become a completely new personality if you help him change your perspective iii) Results of psychoanalysis are more or less permanent

iv) Successful people do not need psychoanalysis. a) None of the above. b) (i), (ii), and (iii) c) Only (ii) d) Only (iii) Q79) Consider the following inferences. a) Change in perspective can change your life completely. b) Therapy aims at making us understand that how we see things in our surroundings is what decides what we see. c) None of the above d) (i) and (ii) both.

Q80) Which of the following is incorrect according to the passage? i) Our personality decides our perception. ii) Our perception decides our personality. iii) Our success and failure is influenced by our perspective.

iv) Our perception decides our perspective which in turn decides our personality. a) (ii) and (iii) b) (ii) and (iv) c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) d) None of the above

ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017 · all india prelims test series - 2017 quantitative aptitude...

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