Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

1/8

1. (2)

2. (4)

3. (2)

4. (3)

5. (4)

6. (4)

7. (2)

8. (3)

9. (3)

10. (2)

11. (2)

12. (1)

13. (4)

14. (2)

15. (3)

16. (2)

17. (1)

18. (2)

19. (4)

20. (4)

21. (1)

22. (2)

23. (1)

24. (3)

25. (1)

26. (2)

27. (3)

28. (1)

29. (3)

30. (2)

31. (2)

32. (4)

33. (1)

34. (4)

35. (1)

36. (3)

37. (1)

38. (3)

39. (4)

40. (1)

41. (4)

42. (4)

43. (2)

44. (3)

45. (1)

46. (4)

47. (1)

48. (4)

49. (1)

50. (1)

51. (4)

52. (2)

53. (3)

54. (3)

55. (1)

56. (2)

57. (3)

58. (2)

59. (3)

60. (4)

61. (2)

62. (4)

63. (3)

64. (2)

65. (3)

66. (1)

67. (4)

68. (4)

69. (4)

70. (2)

71. (4)

72. (3)

ANSWERS

TEST - 6 (Code-E)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Test Date : 28-02-2016

73. (1)

74. (4)

75. (4)

76. (4)

77. (1)

78. (2)

79. (3)

80. (4)

81. (4)

82. (2)

83. (3)

84. (4)

85. (1)

86. (4)

87. (3)

88. (1)

89. (1)

90. (4)

91. (2)

92. (1)

93. (2)

94. (4)

95. (1)

96. (3)

97. (1)

98. (2)

99. (1)

100. (2)

101. (4)

102. (1)

103. (4)

104. (4)

105. (3)

106. (3)

107. (3)

108. (3)

109. (3)

110. (2)

111. (4)

112. (4)

113. (1)

114. (2)

115. (4)

116. (2)

117. (3)

118. (4)

119. (4)

120. (2)

121. (3)

122. (2)

123. (4)

124. (1)

125. (1)

126. (4)

127. (4)

128. (1)

129. (2)

130. (2)

131. (1)

132. (4)

133. (1)

134. (3)

135. (1)

136. (2)

137. (2)

138. (4)

139. (2)

140. (1)

141. (3)

142. (1)

143. (4)

144. (3)

145. (1)

146 (1)

147. (3)

148. (3)

149. (4)

150. (3)

151. (2)

152. (1)

153. (3)

154. (4)

155. (4)

156. (3)

157. (4)

158. (3)

159. (2)

160. (3)

161. (4)

162. (2)

163. (4)

164. (3)

165. (2)

166. (4)

167. (3)

168. (2)

169. (2)

170. (1)

171. (2)

172. (3)

173. (3)

174. (4)

175. (3)

176. (3)

177. (2)

178. (4)

179. (4)

180. (2)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

2/8

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]

1. Answer (2)

0

04

iB

r

[sin 53° – sin37°]

2. Answer (4)

0 02 1

2 2 ( )

I I

x a x

2

1 2

I ax

I I

3. Answer (2)

4. Answer (3)

5. Answer (4)

In parallel LC circuit

l = IL ~ I

C

If IL > I

C,

IL – I

C = 1

0.6 – IC = 1 I

C = 0.4 A

If IC > I

L,

IC – I

L = 1

IC – 0.6 = 1 I

C = 1.6 A

6. Answer (4)

M B

7. Answer (2)

8. Answer (3)

M = il2, M = ir2, 2r = 4l

9. Answer (3)

10. Answer (2)

11. Answer (2)

12. Answer (1)

tantan

cos

apparent angle of dip

true dip

13. Answer (4)

14. Answer (2)

15. Answer (3)

0

4

iB

r

[sin + sin]

16. Answer (2)

Fm [ ]q V B

17. Answer (1)

18. Answer (2)

19. Answer (4)

20. Answer (4)

21. Answer (1)

22. Answer (2)

23. Answer (1)

24. Answer (3)

i = i0[1 – e–t/]

L

R

⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

25. Answer (1)

26. Answer (2)

0

2

iB

R

and

n.2R = L

n = 2

27. Answer (3)

0

4

iB

R

[sin + sin]

4sin

5 and sin = 1

28. Answer (1)

29. Answer (3)

11.5 rad A

i

V i V

SS S RS

R

⇒

30. Answer (2)

∵ = BA cosand

.inde

t

31. Answer (2)

Steady current is at t = and inductor offers zero

resistance.

32. Answer (4)

1 1

2

NM

i

33. Answer (1)

34. Answer (4)

q = q0 cos(t) and i = i

0 sin(t).

Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

3/8

35. Answer (1)

36. Answer (3)

2

2 2

1

2effective

II I

37. Answer (1)

38. Answer (3)

39. Answer (4)

40. Answer (1)

41. Answer (4)

42. Answer (4)

43. Answer (2)

44. Answer (3)

45. Answer (1)

[ CHEMISTRY]

46. Answer (4)

O

HH

⇒

OHO H

(Phenol)

47. Answer (1)

6 -electron

(Aromatic)

4 -electron

(Antiaromatic)

10 -electron

Non-planar(Non-aromatic)

H

H

(tub-shape)Non-planar

Non-aromatic

(8 -electron)

⇒

48. Answer (4)

sp2

Weak overlapping

sp2

N N

H H

sp2

49. Answer (1)

50. Answer (1)

51. Answer (4)

*

, Number of chiral carbon = 1

52. Answer (2)

C CCl Cl

Cl Cl

Cl Cl–

C CCl Cl

Cl Cl

Cl Cl–

i.e. —CCl3 group acts as meta-directing due to

reverse hyperconjugation

53. Answer (3)

54. Answer (3)

55. Answer (1)

Alcohol Ether

a. CH3CH

2CH

2CH

2OH (i) CH

3—O—CH

2CH

2CH

3

b. CH —CH—CH OH3 2

CH3

(ii) CH —O—CH—CH3 3

CH3

c. CH —CH—CH —CH3 2 3

OH

(iii) CH3CH

2—O—CH

2CH

3

d. CH —C—OH3

CH3

CH3

56. Answer (2)

Cis-but-2-ene on bromination in CCl4 gives racemic

mixture of product but trans-but-2-ene gives meso

form of product.

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

4/8

57. Answer (3)

CH3

CH3

CH3C

OH

OH

O

CH —C3

Cl

Cl

CH C—CH2 3

CH —C—CH3 3

+ HCHO

CH3

O

O /Zn

H O

3

2

aq. KOH

H O2

PCl5

–H O2

CH —C—CH3 3

58. Answer (2)

59. Answer (3)

+ O

CCH

2

CH2 C

AlCl3

anhy.

C

C

OO

O

OO

O

O

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

OH—C

NaO—C

(A)

Sodalime

or NaOH/CaO

–Na CO2 3

NaOH

60. Answer (4)

61. Answer (2)

Order of melting point

> >

62. Answer (4)

ClBr

HC NaC CNa2g.eq.

NaNH2

2g.eq.

NaNH2

CH

63. Answer (3)

Clean water has minimum BOD value.

64. Answer (2)

65. Answer (3)

4 2 3CH I CH I HI � ,

RCH COOAg + I2 2

RCH COOR + AgI +CO2 2

CCl4

66. Answer (1)

U.V.6 6 2 6 6 6Light

Benzene BHC

C H 3Cl C H Cl

67. Answer (4)

CH CH—CH2 3

(Allylic bromination reaction) Succinimide

CH CH—CH2 2

Br + NBS

N—H

O

O

68. Answer (4)

69. Answer (4)

70. Answer (2)

> > >

71. Answer (4)

Percentage of P =62

222

× 2 2 7

Mass of Mg P O formed100

Mass of the organic compound

= 62 0.444

100222 0.40

= 31%

72. Answer (3)

Photochemical smog contains O3, PAN & NO

x.

73. Answer (1)

MIC : Methyl isocyanate

74. Answer (4)

75. Answer (4)

3 CH CHRed hot

Fe tube

(Benzene)Aromatic

Heterocyclicaromatic(Thiophene)S

8

1S

8

76. Answer (4)

CF —CH CH3 2

+ H

CF —CH—CH3 3

(Less-stable)

(More stable)

CF —CH —CH

3 2 2

Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

5/8

77. Answer (1)

78. Answer (2)

CH2

CH2

CH2

Br Br

Zn-dust+ ZnBr

2

CH2

CH2

CH2

MgBr Br–MgBr

2

CH2

CH2

CH2

Mg

dry ether

Cyclopropane

79. Answer (3)

H

–H

4 -electron

(Antiaromatic)

–H

6 -electron

(Aromatic)

80. Answer (4)

81. Answer (4)

CHCl + KOH3

C + KCl + H O2

Cl

Cl

(Dichlorocarbene)

82. Answer (2)

E1CB

Mechanism :

CCH3

CH3

CH —CH—CH2 2

CH3

F H

OH

–H O

2

C

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH —CH—CH2 2

CH —CH CH2 2

CH3

CH3

F

–F

(Major)

83. Answer (3)

Inductive effect is a permanent effect but electromeric

effect is a temporary effect.

84. Answer (4)

CH COOK2

CH2

+ 2CO + KOH + H2 2

CH COOK

2CH

2

Kolbe'selectrolysis

CH—COOK CH

+ CO + KOH + H2 2

CH COOK— CH

Kolbe'selectrolysis

+ CO + KOH + H2 2

Kolbe'selectrolysis

COOK

COOK

85. Answer (1)

CH C CH2 2

O C O + HCHO

(B)

O /Zn

H O

3

2

Mo O /O

543 K / 100 atm

2 3 2

sp-hybrid(A)

CH4

(C)

(C H )3 4

86. Answer (4)

87. Answer (3)

+I-effect decreases the acidic strength of carboxylic

acid and –I-effect increases the acidic strength of

carboxylic acid.

88. Answer (1)

Cl

ClCl

Cl

, , ,

Cl

Cl,

89. Answer (1)

90. Answer (4)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

6/8

91. Answer (2)

(a) Bacteria - 70S ribosome

(b) Three enzymes

(d) Prototroph

92. Answer (1)

QB-Bacteriophage–RNA as the genetic material.

93. Answer (2)

SnRNA in splicing.

94. Answer (4)

95. Answer (1)

5-Methyl uracil is thymine which provides extra

stability.

96. Answer (3)

Pribnow box is promoter site in prokaryotes.

97. Answer (1)

hnRNA synthesis is catalysed by RNA pol II.

98. Answer (2)

George Gammow, the physicist.

99. Answer (1)

UAG is a stop codon.

100. Answer (2)

101. Answer (4)

Translocase

102. Answer (1)

103. Answer (4)

104. Answer (4)

Distance between two bp is 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m

Length of DNA = 1.7 m or 1.7 × 109 nm

Number of base pairs = 1.7 × 109 nm × 0.34 nm

= 5 × 109 bp

105. Answer (3)

N14 and N15

106. Answer (3)

Lactose / Allolactose.

107. Answer (3)

108. Answer (3)

Rho factor is required for chain termination in

transcription.

109. Answer (3)

Splicing of hnRNA in eukaryotes

110. Answer (2)

111. Answer (4)

A+T

G+Cis constant for a species e.g., 0.93 for E. coli

112. Answer (4)

Both strands of DNA act as template for synthesis

of daughter DNA.

113. Answer (1)

Reverse transcription

114. Answer (2)

Euchromatin is loosely packed DNA.

115. Answer (4)

116. Answer (2)

Chilli

117. Answer (3)

118. Answer (4)

Vitamin content

119. Answer (4)

Statins – Monascus

120. Answer (2)

Trichoderma polysporum

121. Answer (3)

122. Answer (2)

123. Answer (4)

Somatic hybridisation.

124. Answer (1)

125. Answer (1)

126. Answer (4)

127. Answer (4)

128. Answer (1)

129. Answer (2)

130. Answer (2)

Cottage cheese – Streptococcus lactis and

Lactobacillus

Geotrichum – Lipase

Shakti and Protina – Maize

131. Answer (1)

Butyric acid

[ BIOLOGY

]

Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

7/8

132. Answer (4)

Methanogenesis as last step

133. Answer (1)

134. Answer (3)

Nitrogen fixing bacteria

135. Answer (1)

Cyanobacteria

136. Answer (2)

Gametocytes are formed in RBC of human.

137. Answer (2)

Typhoid is spread through contaminated food and

water. Rabies is caused by Rhabdo virus. Diphtheria

spreads through respiratory discharge.

138. Answer (4)

Mast cells are not phagocytic. Kupffer cells are

phagocytic cells of liver. Histiocytes/clasmatocytes

are macrophages.

139. Answer (2)

NK cells do not mature in thymus.

140. Answer (1)

141. Answer (3)

142. Answer (1)

MALT (Mucosal associated lymphoid tissues) is

secondary or peripheral lymphoid organ.

143. Answer (4)

Fact

144. Answer (3)

Tetanus toxoid provides artificial active immunity.

145. Answer (1)

146 Answer (1)

IgA is secretory antibody.

147. Answer (3)

148. Answer (3)

Diphtheria – Schick test

149. Answer (4)

Schizogony takes place in liver cells and RBC of

man.

150. Answer (3)

151. Answer (2)

Fact

152. Answer (1)

Secondary immune response is due to subsequent

encounter of the body with antigen. It is heightened,

lasts much longer and is a rapid response.

153. Answer (3)

154. Answer (4)

Histamine hastens allergy response

155. Answer (4)

Skin and mucous membrane are a part of anatomic

barriers.

156. Answer (3)

Sibling species are almost identical morphologically

but are distinct from each other due to absence of

interbreeding.

157. Answer (4)

158. Answer (3)

Free or molecular oxygen was absent on primeval

earth.

159. Answer (2)

160. Answer (3)

161. Answer (4)

162. Answer (2)

Mule and hinny are sterile.

163. Answer (4)

Darwin’s finches is an example of adaptive radiation.

164. Answer (3)

Neanderthal man lived near east and central Asia.

They had prognathous face.

165. Answer (2)

166. Answer (4)

167. Answer (3)

Bryophytes have been evolved from chlorophyte

ancestors.

168. Answer (2)

169. Answer (2)

q = 0.3

p = 1 – 0.3 = 0.7

2pq = 2(0.3)(0.7) = 0.42

Number of heterozygous individuals = 0.42 × 200

= 84

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

8/8

� � �

170. Answer (1)

171. Answer (2)

Non-random mating affects HWE.

172. Answer (3)

Germ theory of disease and lmmunology was given

by Louis Pasteur.

173. Answer (3)

Australopithecus give rise to homo habilis and also

increase in cranial capacity.

174. Answer (4)

In Pliohippus, each fore limb and hind limb had one

complete finger and one complete toe respectively

and two splints hidden beneath skin.

175. Answer (3)

Dinosaurs became dominant in Jurassic period of

mesozoic era.

176. Answer (3)

Nipples in male is an example of vestigeal organ.

177. Answer (2)

178. Answer (4)

179. Answer (4)

180. Answer (2)

Test - 6 (Code F) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

1/8

1. (3)

2. (1)

3. (4)

4. (2)

5. (2)

6. (3)

7. (4)

8. (1)

9. (3)

10. (1)

11. (3)

12. (2)

13. (3)

14. (2)

15. (4)

16. (4)

17. (1)

18. (3)

19. (1)

20. (4)

21. (3)

22. (1)

23. (3)

24. (4)

25. (3)

26. (2)

27. (2)

28. (4)

29. (3)

30. (4)

31. (1)

32. (4)

33. (2)

34. (3)

35. (4)

36. (4)

37. (1)

38. (1)

39. (4)

40. (2)

41. (2)

42. (1)

43. (2)

44. (2)

45. (4)

46. (2)

47. (3)

48. (3)

49. (1)

50. (2)

51. (3)

52. (4)

53. (3)

54. (4)

55. (4)

56. (4)

57. (1)

58. (4)

59. (3)

60. (2)

61. (2)

62. (4)

63. (3)

64. (1)

65. (2)

66. (4)

67. (4)

68. (4)

69. (4)

70. (3)

71. (3)

72. (4)

ANSWERS

TEST - 6 (Code-F)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Test Date : 28-02-2016

73. (1)

74. (2)

75. (2)

76. (4)

77. (1)

78. (4)

79. (1)

80. (4)

81. (3)

82. (1)

83. (1)

84. (4)

85. (2)

86. (3)

87. (3)

88. (2)

89. (3)

90. (2)

91. (3)

92. (1)

93. (3)

94. (4)

95. (3)

96. (4)

97. (4)

98. (3)

99. (2)

100. (2)

101. (3)

102. (3)

103. (2)

104. (4)

105. (1)

106. (4)

107. (2)

108. (2)

109. (1)

110. (4)

111. (4)

112. (4)

113. (3)

114. (2)

115. (2)

116. (4)

117. (1)

118. (1)

119. (3)

120. (1)

121. (1)

122. (2)

123. (2)

124. (3)

125. (2)

126. (4)

127. (3)

128. (4)

129. (3)

130. (1)

131. (3)

132. (2)

133. (4)

134. (3)

135. (4)

136. (4)

137. (2)

138. (4)

139. (4)

140. (1)

141. (1)

142. (2)

143. (1)

144. (1)

145. (4)

146. (3)

147. (4)

148. (4)

149. (1)

150. (4)

151. (4)

152. (1)

153. (2)

154. (4)

155. (2)

156. (1)

157. (4)

158. (1)

159. (2)

160. (1)

161. (2)

162. (4)

163. (1)

164. (3)

165. (4)

166. (3)

167. (2)

168. (1)

169. (1)

170. (3)

171. (3)

172. (1)

173. (2)

174. (3)

175. (1)

176. (3)

177. (4)

178. (2)

179. (4)

180. (4)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code F) (Answers & Hints)

2/8

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]

1. Answer (3)

2. Answer (1)

3. Answer (4)

4. Answer (2)

5. Answer (2)

6. Answer (3)

7. Answer (4)

8. Answer (1)

9. Answer (3)

10. Answer (1)

2

2 2

1

2effective

II I

11. Answer (3)

12. Answer (2)

q = q0 cos(t) and i = i

0 sin(t).

13. Answer (3)

14. Answer (2)

1 1

2

NM

i

15. Answer (4)

Steady current is at t = and inductor offers zero

resistance.

16. Answer (4)

∵ = BA cosand

.inde

t

17. Answer (1)

11.5 rad A

i

V i V

SS S RS

R

⇒

18. Answer (3)

19. Answer (1)

0

4

iB

R

[sin + sin]

4sin

5 and sin = 1

20. Answer (4)

0

2

iB

R

and

n.2R = L

n = 2

21. Answer (3)

22. Answer (1)

i = i0[1 – e–t/]

L

R

⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

23. Answer (3)

24. Answer (4)

25. Answer (3)

26. Answer (2)

27. Answer (2)

28. Answer (4)

29. Answer (3)

30. Answer (4)

Fm [ ]q V B

31. Answer (1)

0

4

iB

r

[sin + sin]

32. Answer (4)

33. Answer (2)

34. Answer (3)

tantan

cos

apparent angle of dip

true dip

35. Answer (4)

36. Answer (4)

37. Answer (1)

38. Answer (1)

M = il2, M = ir2, 2r = 4l

39. Answer (4)

40. Answer (2)

M B

Test - 6 (Code F) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

3/8

41. Answer (2)

In parallel LC circuit

l = IL ~ I

C

If IL > I

C,

IL – I

C = 1

0.6 – IC = 1 I

C = 0.4 A

If IC > I

L,

IC – I

L = 1

IC – 0.6 = 1 I

C = 1.6 A

42. Answer (1)

43. Answer (2)

44. Answer (2)

0 02 1

2 2 ( )

I I

x a x

2

1 2

I ax

I I

45. Answer (4)

0

04

iB

r

[sin 53° – sin37°]

[ CHEMISTRY]

46. Answer (2)

47. Answer (3)

48. Answer (3)

Cl

ClCl

Cl

, , ,

Cl

Cl,

49. Answer (1)

+I-effect decreases the acidic strength of carboxylic

acid and –I-effect increases the acidic strength of

carboxylic acid.

50. Answer (2)

51. Answer (3)

CH C CH2 2

O C O + HCHO

(B)

O /Zn

H O

3

2

Mo O /O

543 K / 100 atm

2 3 2

sp-hybrid(A)

CH4

(C)

(C H )3 4

52. Answer (4)

CH COOK2

CH2

+ 2CO + KOH + H2 2

CH COOK

2CH

2

Kolbe'selectrolysis

CH—COOK CH

+ CO + KOH + H2 2

CH COOK— CH

Kolbe'selectrolysis

+ CO + KOH + H2 2

Kolbe'selectrolysis

COOK

COOK

53. Answer (3)

Inductive effect is a permanent effect but electromeric

effect is a temporary effect.

54. Answer (4)

E1CB

Mechanism :

CCH3

CH3

CH —CH—CH2 2

CH3

F H

OH

–H O

2

C

C

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH —CH—CH2 2

CH —CH CH2 2

CH3

CH3

F

–F

(Major)

55. Answer (4)

CHCl + KOH3

C + KCl + H O2

Cl

Cl

(Dichlorocarbene)

56. Answer (4)

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57. Answer (1)

H

–H

4 -electron

(Antiaromatic)

–H

6 -electron

(Aromatic)

58. Answer (4)

CH2

CH2

CH2

Br Br

Zn-dust+ ZnBr

2

CH2

CH2

CH2

MgBr Br–MgBr

2

CH2

CH2

CH2

Mg

dry ether

Cyclopropane

59. Answer (3)

60. Answer (2)

CF —CH CH3 2

+ H

CF —CH—CH3 3

(Less-stable)

(More stable)

CF —CH —CH

3 2 2

61. Answer (2)

3 CH CHRed hot

Fe tube

(Benzene)Aromatic

Heterocyclicaromatic(Thiophene)S

8

1S

8

62. Answer (4)

63. Answer (3)

MIC : Methyl isocyanate

64. Answer (1)

Photochemical smog contains O3, PAN & NO

x.

65. Answer (2)

Percentage of P =62

222

× 2 2 7

Mass of Mg P O formed100

Mass of the organic compound

= 62 0.444

100222 0.40

= 31%

66. Answer (4)

> > >

67. Answer (4)

68. Answer (4)

69. Answer (4)

CH CH—CH2 3

(Allylic bromination reaction) Succinimide

CH CH—CH2 2

Br + NBS

N—H

O

O

70. Answer (3)

U.V.6 6 2 6 6 6Light

Benzene BHC

C H 3Cl C H Cl

71. Answer (3)

4 2 3CH I CH I HI � ,

RCH COOAg + I2 2

RCH COOR + AgI +CO2 2

CCl4

72. Answer (4)

73. Answer (1)

Clean water has minimum BOD value.

74. Answer (2)

ClBr

HC NaC CNa2g.eq.

NaNH2

2g.eq.

NaNH2

CH

75. Answer (2)

Order of melting point

> >

76. Answer (4)

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77. Answer (1)

+ O

CCH

2

CH2 C

AlCl3

anhy.

C

C

OO

O

OO

O

O

CH2

CH2

CH2

CH2

OH—C

NaO—C

(A)

Sodalime

or NaOH/CaO

–Na CO2 3

NaOH

78. Answer (4)

79. Answer (1)

CH3

CH3

CH3C

OH

OH

O

CH —C3

Cl

Cl

CH C—CH2 3

CH —C—CH3 3

+ HCHO

CH3

O

O /Zn

H O

3

2

aq. KOH

H O2

PCl5

–H O2

CH —C—CH3 3

80. Answer (4)

Cis-but-2-ene on bromination in CCl4 gives racemic

mixture of product but trans-but-2-ene gives meso

form of product.

81. Answer (3)

Alcohol Ether

a. CH3CH

2CH

2CH

2OH (i) CH

3—O—CH

2CH

2CH

3

b. CH —CH—CH OH3 2

CH3

(ii) CH —O—CH—CH3 3

CH3

c. CH —CH—CH —CH3 2 3

OH

(iii) CH3CH

2—O—CH

2CH

3

d. CH —C—OH3

CH3

CH3

82. Answer (1)

83. Answer (1)

84. Answer (4)

C CCl Cl

Cl Cl

Cl Cl–

C CCl Cl

Cl Cl

Cl Cl–

i.e. —CCl3 group acts as meta-directing due to

reverse hyperconjugation

85. Answer (2)

*

, Number of chiral carbon = 1

86. Answer (3)

87. Answer (3)

88. Answer (2)

sp2

Weak overlapping

sp2

N N

H H

sp2

89. Answer (3)

6 -electron

(Aromatic)

4 -electron

(Antiaromatic)

10 -electron

Non-planar(Non-aromatic)

H

H

(tub-shape)Non-planar

Non-aromatic

(8 -electron)

⇒

90. Answer (2)

O

HH

⇒

OHO H

(Phenol)

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91. Answer (3)

Cyanobacteria

92. Answer (1)

Nitrogen fixing bacteria

93. Answer (3)

94. Answer (4)

Methanogenesis as last step

95. Answer (3)

Butyric acid

96. Answer (4)

Cottage cheese – Streptococcus lactis and

Lactobacillus

Geotrichum – Lipase

Shakti and Protina – Maize

97. Answer (4)

98. Answer (3)

99. Answer (2)

100. Answer (2)

101. Answer (3)

102. Answer (3)

103. Answer (2)

Somatic hybridisation.

104. Answer (4)

105. Answer (1)

106. Answer (4)

Trichoderma polysporum

107. Answer (2)

Statins – Monascus

108. Answer (2)

Vitamin content

109. Answer (1)

110. Answer (4)

Chilli

111. Answer (4)

112. Answer (4)

Euchromatin is loosely packed DNA.

113. Answer (3)

Reverse transcription

114. Answer (2)

Both strands of DNA act as template for synthesis

of daughter DNA.

115. Answer (2)

A+T

G+Cis constant for a species e.g., 0.93 for E. coli

116. Answer (4)

117. Answer (1)

Splicing of hnRNA in eukaryotes

118. Answer (1)

Rho factor is required for chain termination in

transcription.

119. Answer (3)

120. Answer (1)

Lactose / Allolactose.

121. Answer (1)

N14 and N15

122. Answer (2)

Distance between two bp is 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m

Length of DNA = 1.7 m or 1.7 × 109 nm

Number of base pairs = 1.7 × 109 nm × 0.34 nm

= 5 × 109 bp

123. Answer (2)

124. Answer (3)

125. Answer (2)

Translocase

126. Answer (4)

127. Answer (3)

UAG is a stop codon.

128. Answer (4)

George Gammow, the physicist.

129. Answer (3)

hnRNA synthesis is catalysed by RNA pol II.

130. Answer (1)

Pribnow box is promoter site in prokaryotes.

131. Answer (3)

5-Methyl uracil is thymine which provides extra

stability.

[ BIOLOGY

]

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132. Answer (2)

133. Answer (4)

SnRNA in splicing.

134. Answer (3)

QB-Bacteriophage–RNA as the genetic material.

135. Answer (4)

(a) Bacteria - 70S ribosome

(b) Three enzymes

(d) Prototroph

136. Answer (4)

137. Answer (2)

138. Answer (4)

139. Answer (4)

140. Answer (1)

Nipples in male is an example of vestigeal organ.

141. Answer (1)

Dinosaurs became dominant in Jurassic period of

mesozoic era.

142. Answer (2)

In Pliohippus, each fore limb and hind limb had one

complete finger and one complete toe respectively

and two splints hidden beneath skin.

143. Answer (1)

Australopithecus give rise to Homo habilis and also

increase in cranial capacity.

144. Answer (1)

Germ theory of disease and lmmunology was given

by Louis Pasteur.

145. Answer (4)

Non-random mating affects HWE.

146. Answer (3)

147. Answer (4)

q = 0.3

p = 1 – 0.3 = 0.7

2pq = 2(0.3)(0.7) = 0.42

Number of heterozygous individuals = 0.42 × 200

= 84

148. Answer (4)

149. Answer (1)

Bryophytes have been evolved from chlorophyte

ancestors.

150. Answer (4)

151. Answer (4)

152. Answer (1)

Neanderthal man lived near east and central Asia.

They had prognathous face.

153. Answer (2)

Darwin’s finches is an example of adaptive radiation.

154. Answer (4)

Mule and hinny are sterile.

155. Answer (2)

156. Answer (1)

157. Answer (4)

158. Answer (1)

Free or molecular oxygen was absent on primeval

earth.

159. Answer (2)

160. Answer (1)

Sibling species are almost identical morphologically

but are distinct from each other due to absence of

interbreeding.

161. Answer (2)

Skin and mucous membrane are a part of anatomic

barriers.

162. Answer (4)

Histamine hastens allergy response

163. Answer (1)

164. Answer (3)

Secondary immune response is due to subsequent

encounter of the body with antigen. It is heightened,

lasts much longer and is a rapid response.

165. Answer (4)

Fact

166. Answer (3)

167. Answer (2)

Schizogony takes place in liver cells and RBC of

man.

168. Answer (1)

Diphtheria – Schick test

169. Answer (1)

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� � �

170. Answer (3)

IgA is secretory antibody.

171. Answer (3)

172. Answer (1)

Tetanus toxoid provides artificial active immunity.

173. Answer (2)

Fact

174. Answer (3)

MALT (Mucosal associated lymphoid tissues) is

secondary or peripheral lymphoid organ.

175. Answer (1)

176. Answer (3)

177. Answer (4)

NK cells do not mature in thymus.

178. Answer (2)

Mast cells are not phagocytic. Kupffer cells are

phagocytic cells of liver. Histiocytes/clasmatocytes

are macrophages.

179. Answer (4)

Typhoid is spread through contaminated food and

water. Rabies is caused by Rhabdo virus. Diphtheria

spreads through respiratory discharge.

180. Answer (4)

Gametocytes are formed in RBC of human.