Airframes and Systems

I. Fuselage

II. Cockpit and Cabin Window III. Wing IV. Stabilizing surfaces V. Landing gear

VI. Flight controls (construction and operation) VII. Hydraulics

VIII. Air Driven System (Piston Engine) IX. Air Driven System (Turbo propeller And Jet

Aircraft) X. Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice

systems XI. Fuel System

Fuselage: 1.What are the most frequent used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure?

A) Wood.

B) Composite fibres.

C) Aluminium or magnesium alloy.

D) Steel.

A framework of truss type fuselage is used in:

A) Supersonic aircraft

B) Medium range commuter type turbo-props

C) Heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft

D) Light training aircraft mainly

A semi-monocoque fuselage has... in the longitudinal direction. Together with the frames, they resist... moments and axial forces. The skin panels are loaded mainly in...

A) Bars, buckling, bending. B) Stringers, bending, shear. C) Spars, torsion, shear.

D) Stringers, bending, buckling.

Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

A) Magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength.

B) Light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

C) Aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

D) Aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

What is the purpose of the stringers?

A) To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses.

B) To support the primary control surfaces.

C) To produce stress risers. D) To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.

The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

A) House the crew and payload.

B) Support the wings. C) Keep out adverse weather.

D) Provide access to the cockpit.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is mostly based on:

A) Number of explosive decompressions.

B) Number of cycles at maximum differential.

C) Number of pressurisation cycles.

D) Number of times a certain load factor is exceeded.

A damage tolerant structure:

A) Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life. B) Is a structure which is free of cracks.

C) Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area.

D) Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance.

In a stressed skin airframe structure for a pressurised aircraft:

A) The rivets and skin are under tensile loads.

B) The rivets and skin are under compressive loads. C) The rivets take a shear load and the skin is under compressive loads. D) The rivets are under shear loads and the skin is under tensile loads.

During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was

subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is

certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification

requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its

conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe:

A) rupture of one or more structural components

B) a permanent deformation of the structure

C) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure D) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

A) Compass alignment markings. B) Passenger seat locations.

C) A means of locating airframe structure and components. D) Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.

The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:

A) Provide sound and thermal isolation. B) Assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.

C) Withstand the shear stresses.

D) Integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected

and convert them into a tensile stress.

The Design Ultimate Load is minimum:

A) 1.5 x Design Limit Load.

B) 1.125 x Proof Load.

C) 1.125 x Design Limit Load.

D) 1.5 x Proof Load.

Aircraft wing construction which employs the principle of the skin taking part of the load is termed:

A) Semi monocoque. B) Stressed skin.

C) Fail safe.

D) Monocoque.

Which of the following statements about fuselage loading is true?

A) Frames, stringers and skin take the full load.

B) Skin and frames take the full load. Stringers are used to prevent skin buckling.

C) Frames and stringers take the full load. Skin is only used as a cover.

D) Frames have no structural function. Skin and stringers take the full load.

For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts:

1. The mounting principle is parallel mounting. 2. No routine check is necessary. 3. The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.

4. Certain components may not be accessible. 5. The principle is the redundancy of components 6. The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4

C) 2,5,6

D) 1,5,6 The stresses present in all aircraft are:

A) Tension, Drag, Shear, Compression, Bending.

B) Tension, Compression, Shear, Bending, Torsion. C) Drag, Thrust, Weight, Lift.

D) Tension, Compression, Strain, Shear. Station numbers and water lines are:

A) Passenger seat locations.

B) A means of locating airframe structure and components.

C) Compass alignment markings.

D) Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

A) The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor.

B) The design limit load plus the design ultimate load.

C) The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.

D) Three times the safety factor.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

A) Number of landings only.

B) Number of explosive decompressions.

C) Number of pressurisation cycles.

D) Number of cycles at maximum differential.

21. Strain is defined as the:

A) Expansion due to temperature rise

B) Ultimate load

C) Yield point D) Deformation due to stress The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft:

A) Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.

B) Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather.

C) Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads. D) Houses the crew and the payload. Which of the following is true?

A) Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear resistance and high temperature tolerance.

B) Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor corrosion resistance.

C) Super alloys are used because of their excellent corrosion resistance.

D) Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because it is light, easily machined and has good wear resistance.

Aircraft skin is usually made of Al2024-alloy. This is...

A) Pure aluminium with copper.

B) Pure aluminium with zinc.

C) Pure aluminium.

D) Pure aluminium with bronze. Repetitive pressurisation cycles induce... stresses which...

A) Hoop, cause fatigue cracks. B) Differential, are negligible.

C) Hoop, are negligible.

D) Differential, cause fatigue cracks.

DURALUMIN alloys: 1. Have an aluminium-copper base.

2. Have an aluminium-magnesium base. 3. Are easy to weld. 4. Are difficult to weld. 5. Have a good thermal conductivity.

6. Have a poor air corrosion resistance The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1,3,6

B) 2,3,6

C) 2,4,5 D) 1,4,5 Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:

1. normal bending stresses

2. tangent bending stresses 3. torsional moment 4. shear stresses

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1, 3, 4

C) 1, 2, 3 D) 2, 3, 4

On an aircraft which employs stressed skin construction:

A) The skin of the airplane takes the majority of the structural load.

B) Composite material should be used. C) The skin of the airplane takes no part of the load. D) The skin is fabric which is stretched over a structure, which in turn takes all of the load.

The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that:

A) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which

stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way B) The lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a

determined load spectrum. C) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights D) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time The fatigue life of an aircraft's pressure hull is based on:

A) The total number of explosive decompressions. B) The total number of negative differential pressure applications.

C) The total number of pressurisations.

D) The total number of landings. 'Fail safe construction' is:

A) A simple and cheap type of construction. B) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if

a part of the structure fails.

C) A type of construction for small aircraft only. D) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

Which components do a semi-monocoque fuselage consists of?

A) A stressed skin structure in which the skin is supported by a lightweight framework, such

as longerons, stringers and formers. B) Metal stringers, bulkheads and fabric covering.

C) A stressed skin type of construction in which the stiffness of the skin provides a large

measure of the strength of the structure. No truss or substructure is required. D) Steel tubing, longerons and bulkhead wires.

In the construction of airframes, the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

A) Form the entrance door posts.

B) Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels. C) Support the wings.

D) Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is mainly based on:

A) The number of negative differential pressure applications.

B) The number of explosive decompressions. C) The total number of pressurisations. D) The total number of landings. Of a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are:

A) Ribs. B) Spars.

C) Webs. D) Skin. When a mechanical shaft or linkage passes through the aft pressure bulkhead it:

A) Needs to be sealed if motion is rotary. B) Needs to be sealed if the motion is linear. C) Must not be sealed.

D) Must always be pressure sealed. Friction clutches are fitted to actuators for:

A) protection against brake on loads

B) protection against mechanical overload

C) protection against non return valve failure

D) protection against supply failures

During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is

certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe:

A) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion

B) rupture of one or more structural components

C) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure

D) a permanent deformation of the structure

Cockpit and Cabin Window: Flight deck windows are constructed from:

A) An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals.

B) Strengthened glass with rubber seals.

C) Laminated Acrylic

D) Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing

and rubber pressure seals. On a modern wide-body jet the windscreen is heated primarily to:

A) prevent condensation of water on the windscreen.

B) prevent the vinyl from getting too warm.

C) keep the windscreen free of ice.

D) prevent the vinyl from losing strength at low outside air temperature.

In flight, if a windscreen overheat warning light illuminates:

A) windscreen heating will be removed automatically and the windscreen will cool down.

B) the windscreen heating will continue to operate satisfactorily at a temperature 10 - 15 degrees C higher than normal.

C) immediately switch off all heat to the windscreen. D) there is no overheat protection for windscreens.

The purpose of a rain repellent system is to:

A) increase the surface tension of the water.

B) prevent the water droplets from freezing when impacting on the cold windscreen.

C) decrease the surface tension of the water. D) clean the windscreen when used with windscreen wipers.

For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:

A) normally kept to a minimum size.

B) specially treated during construction.

C) heated internally to increase their elasticity.

D) only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 C in precipitation.

Pilots cockpit windows are heated:

A) only to prevent condensation occurring. B) with a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging.

C) by passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating.

D) by agitating the window molecules with an AC current.

On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:

A) Electric heating.

B) Anti-icing fluid.

C) Vinyl coating. D) Rain repellent system.

The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:

A) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the

rainfall is very heavy.

B) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

C) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain

protection. D) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate

view through the cockpit windows.

Pilots cockpit windows are:

A) made of polarised glass. B) made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating.

C) only heated by air from the de-misting fan. D) constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare.

What is the effect of heating flight deck windows?

A) to protect the windows against ice formation.

B) to protect the windows against bird strike. C) to demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function

correctly. D) to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation.

Wing: In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a bending moment:

A) lowest at the wing root.

B) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span. C) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span.

D) highest at the wing root. In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is:

A) lowest at the wing root.

B) highest at the wing root.

C) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span. D) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span. A wing structure consists primarily of:

A) A front and rear main spar B) A front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers

C) Ribs and stringers only D) Ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction The Control Surfaces on a wing are usually attached to:

A) the rear spar. B) the main spar.

C) the wing trailing edge stiffeners.

D) the torque tube. On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending

moments Mx are:

A) the webs.

B) the ribs. C) the spars.

D) the skin. Stall fences mounted on an aircraft wing are used:

A) to prevent the tendency of the outer portion of the wing to stall first, B) to avoid the formation of shock waves,

C) to increase the maximum speed of the aircraft,

D) to increase the lift coefficient in landing,

A lightening hole in a rib:

A) provide a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure

bulkhead.

B) prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage.

C) collects and disposes of electrical charges.

D) lightens and stiffens the structure. What is the purpose of the stiffeners which are riveted to the upper and lower skin panels of the wing

torsion box?

A) To increase the bending stiffness of the wing.

B) To prevent buckling of the skin panels.

C) To prevent yielding. D) To increase the torsional stiffness of the wing. What is the purpose of the wing main spar:

A) To withstand bending and shear loads. B) To withstand compressive and torsional loads.

C) To withstand bending and torsional loads. D) To withstand compressive and shear loads. A " slot" on a wing is?

A) A leading edge flap. B) A leading edge device that causes some of the high energy air to flow

over the upper surface of the wing. C) A split flap along the leading edge of the wing.

D) Another expression for fowler flap. When do you say that an aircraft has a cantilever wing?

A) When the wing is supported by braces or strut, linked to the fuselage. B) When the wing is attached to the lower part of the fuselage.

C) When the wing planform is other than rectangular. D) When the wing is attached to the fuselage at or near one end only. The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending

moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:

A) compression. B) tension.

C) tension, then in compression.

D) compression, then in tension. What is the purpose of wing ribs:

A) To shape the wing and support the skin.

B) To withstand the fatigue stresses.

C) To house the fuel and the landing gear.

D) To provide local support for the skin.

Wing mounted engines are often mounted on pylons which set them well ahead of the aerofoil (wing) in order to:

A) Move the C of G forward as a way of mass balancing to reduce flutter. B) Allow gravity feed of fuel in emergency situations.

C) Keep the wing clean to improve aerodynamic efficiency.

D) Provide a pitching up moment arm to assist in trimming the aircraft. A cantilever wing:

A) Is supported at one end only with no external bracing.

B) Folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces. C) Has both an upper an lower airfoil section.

D) Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires. A torsion box:

A) is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.

B) is a structure designed to reduce the weight. C) is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist

bending and twisting loads. D) is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls

and landing gear. The component of an aircraft wing which can be considered to be the primary structural member is called:

A) the control surface spar.

B) the lateral datum. C) the rib.

D) the main spar.

Stabilizing surfaces: What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top of the fin?

A) No need for anti-icing.

B) Create a pitch up by making the aeroplane tail heavy.

C) To be out of the way of the wing down wash.

D) To be more efficient at high speed. The advantage of mounting the tail plane on top of the vertical stabilizer is:

A) that it does not require a de-icing system

B) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence.

C) to have greater effectiveness at high speed D) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the aircraft about its:

A) Longitudinal pivot point

B) Lateral axis C) Vertical axis

D) Longitudinal axis The empennage consists of the:

A) Horizontal stabilizer only

B) Vertical stabilizer only C) Horizontal and vertical stabilizer

D) Tail plane only The rudder limiters on several aircraft have a specific function, which is to:

A) Reduce rudder load during take-off and landing. B) Prevent large rudder deflections on ground.

C) Prevent heavy gusts from damaging the rudder. D) Prevent excessive loads from acting on the rudder. The function of the rudder limiter on some aircraft is to?

A) Prevent large rudder deflections on ground.

B) Prevent that heavy gust damages the rudder. C) Reduce rudder load during take-off and landing.

D) Prevent excessive loads from acting on the rudder.

Landing gear: Tyre creep is most likely to occur:

A) when the tyre shelf life limit is reached.

B) when the tyre is worn to its limits.

C) when the tyre is over-inflated.

D) when the tyre is newly fitted.

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:

1. idle wheel speed (measured) 2. braked wheel speed (measured) 3. brake temperature (measured) 4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate

5. tire pressure The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 4.

B) 1, 2, 4.

C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. D) 1, 3.

The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:

A) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function.

B) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping

function.

C) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies

the damping function. D) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen

supplies the heat-dissipation function.

A high pressure tyre would typically be inflated to:

A) up to 50 psi. B) between 50 and 70 psi.

C) between 80 and 180 psi.

D) between 120 and 250 psi.

If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:

A) Repaired several times.

B) Used on the nose wheel only.

C) Never repaired. D) Repaired once. When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:

A) 0.5 B) 0.1

C) 1

D) zero

On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:

A) the brake actuators. B) the master cylinders.

C) the aeroplane's hydraulic system.

D) pressure to the rudder pedals.

Which formula should be used to calculate the minimum speed in knots at which aquaplaning could

occur?

A) 19 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).

B) 9 x AUW (in pounds) x square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).

C) 9 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in psi). D) 9 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in MPa).

Tyre wear can be reduced while taxiing by:

A) taxiing at 25 knots or less.

B) taxiing at 50 knots or less. C) staying on the smooth part of the taxiway.

D) restricting the use of engine reverse.

A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of ... is reached.

A) 177 C

B) 155 C C) 199 C

D) 277 C

An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:

A) 145 knots.

B) 145 mph. C) 135 mph.

D) 135 knots.

Auto brakes are disengaged:

A) when the speed falls below 20 kts.

B) on the landing roll when the auto-pilot is disengaged. C) by the pilot.

D) when the ground spoilers are retracted.

The " ply rating" of a tire is?

A) The ratio between the section width and the section diameter.

B) The inner liner used as a container for the air.

C) A parameter indicating the tire relative strength. D) The read design.

The operating principle of an anti skid system. The brake pressure will be:

A) Increased on the faster turning wheels. B) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.

C) Increased on the slower turning wheels.

D) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.

What is the purpose of a Twin Contact Tyre?

A) to reduce shimmy.

B) to deflect surface water away from engine intakes. C) for grass runway operation.

D) to reduce hydroplaning.

On large modern transport aircraft, the brake assembly consists of:

A) boosted rotor type.

B) multiple disk brake type.

C) boosted expander tube type. D) single disk brake type.

Thermal plugs are installed in:

A) fire warning systems

B) wheel rims C) cabin windows

D) cargo compartments

The purpose of a fusible plug is to:

A) slowly allow the tyre to deflate if the tyre pressure is excessive due to over-inflation.

B) slowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive wheel speed. C) slowly reduce tyre pressure if the tyre pressure becomes excessive.

D) slowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive temperature at the tyre.

The inner cylinder of the shock absorber is prevented from rotating inside the outer cylinder by:

A) The Steering Jacks.

B) Restrictors.

C) Torque Links. D) None of the above since it is designed to be able to rotate to allow

steering.

The cause of rather violent vibration of the nose wheel, described as shimmy, is often:

A) An uneven surface.

B) Both a and c are correct.

C) Looseness of the nose wheel support mechanism.

D) Tyre imbalance.

21. A ribbed tyre is worn to its limits when it is worn to:

A) 4 mm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves.

B) 2 mm from the bottom of any groove.

C) 2 mm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves.

D) 4 mm from the bottom of any groove.

If the gas pressure in a brake accumulator is too low:

A) the number of brake applications remains unchanged. B) the energy for braking is low.

C) the energy for braking is high.

D) the brakes cannot be applied at all.

During a walk round pre-flight inspection, a main oleo leg is observed to be lower than the other leg with no sign of leakage and the aircraft is parked on a level pan:

A) check the load extension requirement and have the leg charged with oil.

B) check the load extension requirement and have the leg charged with air.

C) the problem is due to sloping ground. D) the oleo leg extension is unaffected by the air and/or oil charge.

Landing gear torque links are used to:

A) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.

B) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off. C) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.

D) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

Brake " fade" is:

A) ineffective braking due to heating. B) the reduction in braking as the anti-skid cuts in.

C) ineffective breaking due to worn tyre treads. D) ineffective braking due to worn pads.

Apart from the advantage of increased stability the advantages of a nose wheel tricycle landing gear arrangement include:

A) all of the above.

B) improved pilot visibility making landing and taxiing easier. C) easier loading with a level floor line.

D) aerodynamic drag on take off is reduced.

With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed, the brakes will be automatically applied if:

A) Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance.

B) reverse thrust is selected at any time.

C) V1 is not reached after a predetermined distance. D) one of the thrust levers is returned to idle.

The autobrake system modulates hydraulic pressure to the brakes to obtain...

A) a constant deceleration during the landing roll.

B) a decreasing deceleration during the landing roll.

C) a constant acceleration during the take=off roll.

D) an increasing deceleration during the landing roll.

Lowering the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear doors:

A) remaining open. B) closing mechanically.

C) being jettisoned.

D) closing hydraulically.

Which of the following are considered advantages of using tubeless tyre assemblies on aircraft compared to a tube tyre?

A) they are cooler in operation when subjected to high speeds and high

loads.

B) they are not capable of blow-outs during operation. C) they operate at higher temperatures and so provide better grip. D) they permit easier wheel change.

An oleo-type landing nose gear shock absorber is often equipped with a torque link, why?

A) Both b and c are correct

B) To allow the piston to move freely in and out the landing gear cylinder

C) To prevent the nose wheel from shimmying D) To prevent the landing gear cylinder from rotating

Light aircraft brake pad wear is measured by:

A) measuring the wear indicator pins.

B) measuring individual pad thickness.

C) measuring across the brake calliper with brakes 'OFF'.

D) measuring across the brake calliper with brakes 'ON'.

A hydraulically operated nose gear steering cylinder has at least two functions. The first is to allow the pilot to steer the aeroplane, and the second function is?

A) Shimmy dampener. B) Supporting actuator to lower and rise the landing gear.

C) An emergency extension cylinder for the nose gear.

D) Down lock mechanism for the nose gear.

In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle and the

flaps down and the gear up , the warning given to the pilot will be a:

A) stick shaker.

B) buzzer.

C) horn. D) continuous bell.

The advantage of using a tricycle landing gear is:

A) Braking is more efficient as the landing gear can be made stronger.

B) Spoilers can be incorporated into the wings to increase drag to assist

braking.

C) Fuselages can be made larger to allow the undercarriage to be retracted.

D) Heavy braking will not cause the aircraft to nose over.

In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of:

A) An aural warning horn. B) A latch located in the landing gear lever.

C) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels)

sensor system. D) A bolt.

Creep (slippage):

A) never occurs on new tyres. B) may cause excess wear. C) can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.

D) can damage the braking system.

The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:

A) Vp = 34 x sqrt(P) where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph.

B) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is psi and Vp is in mph. C) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots.

D) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is psi and Vp is in knots.

In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided.

A) Wheel/Undercarriage bay.

B) Cabin.

C) Tyres. D) Fuel tank.

Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft?

A) Springs. B) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.

C) Nitrogen.

D) Oxygen.

41. The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber (shock strut) employs:

A) air and a coil spring.

B) oil only.

C) oil and air (or nitrogen).

D) oil and spring.

Creep:

A) can be prevented by painting white lines on the tyre and wheel. B) is not a problem with tubeless tyres.

C) refers to the movement of the aircraft against the tyre.

D) can rip out the inflation valve and deflate the tyre.

A back-up to the normal landing gear extension system may be:

A) an alternative emergency hydraulic system.

B) a mechanical free-fall system. C) high pressure air from air storage bottles.

D) any of these systems.

After an emergency free fall landing gear extension (extension by gravity), the landing gear doors:

A) will be closed mechanically.

B) will remain open.

C) will be closed hydraulically. D) will take up an intermediate position depending on the airspeed.

The function of a fusible plug is to:

A) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.

B) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. C) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

D) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system.

Aircraft wheels are usually made of:

A) magnesium or aluminium. B) steel or titanium.

C) magnesium or steel. D) copper or tin.

The illumination of the green lamp indicator corresponding to a landing gear means that the landing gear is:

A) in the required position.

B) not in the required position. C) locked-down.

D) locked-down and its door is locked.

The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is the:

A) loaded pressure when the tyre is hot.

B) loaded pressure when the tyre is cold.

C) unloaded pressure when the tyre is hot. D) unloaded pressure when the tyre is cold.

If the normal method of lowering the hydraulic operated retractable landing gear fails, there has to be an alternate method, this usually works as?

A) A fully mechanical system that replace the hydraulic system if this one fails. Such a system is activated with separate controls.

B) A system integrated with the original that allows the gear, by mean of its

own weight and aerodynamic resistance, to mechanically lock in place. C) A fully hydraulic system in parallel with the normal system.

D) A system that is activated by shaking of the aeroplane, by means of

abrupt movement of the aeroplane controls to lower and lock the landing gear.

When fitting a new tyre to an aircraft, creep:

A) will only occur when the tyre is over inflated. B) is normal.

C) will only occur if tubeless tyres are used.

D) will only occur if high performance tyres are used.

Main and nose wheel bays are:

A) different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised.

B) unpressurised. C) conditioned.

D) pressurised.

The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:

A) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

B) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.

C) release air from the tyre in case of overheating. D) prevent the brakes from overheating.

The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is:

A) Touch down with crosswind B) Gear down selection

C) Taxiing with a small turning radius D) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system

Tyre " creep" may be described as the:

A) the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature

B) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear

C) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange. D) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature Creep is:

A) increase of tyre diameter due to centrifugal force on take-off and landing. B) circumferential movement of the tyre around the fringe of the wheel.

C) lateral movement of the tyre around the flange. D) circumferential movement of the tyre around the flange due to the coriander effect.

Associate the correct legend to each of the

numbered diagrams:

A) 1 - cantilever; 2 - dual wheels;

3 - half fork; 4 - fork

B) 1 - cantilever; 2 - fork; 3 - half

fork; 4 - dual wheels

C) 1 - half fork; 2 - fork; 3 - cantilever; 4 - tandem

D) 1 - half fork; 2 - single trace;

3 - cantilever; 4 - dual wheels

" Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as:

A) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing. B) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

C) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.

D) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.

The nose wheel extension of an aircraft is 2 inches more than normal when the aircraft is correctly

loaded, the most likely cause is:

A) too much nitrogen in the oleo strut. B) too little nitrogen in the oleo strut.

C) too little oil in the oleo strut. D) a down draught at the tail.

The advantage of tricycle type landing gear over a tail wheel system is that:

A) the landing speed is much less. B) it is lighter and less complicated.

C) the braking system is less complicated. D) there is no danger of tipping over when applying brakes with a strong tailwind.

On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:

A) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature

(thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre. B) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.

C) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.

D) the " Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to

the tyre temperature.

61. The shock strut extension of nose landing gear is 2 inches more than normal when the aircraft is correctly loaded. The most likely cause is:

A) a damaged torsion link. B) not enough oil in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.

C) not enough nitrogen in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.

D) too much nitrogen in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.

Aircraft nose wheel shimmy is:

A) rapid oscillation of the wheel about the wheel axis.

B) oscillation of the wheel about its track.

C) rapid vertical displacement of the wheel due to uneven ground.

D) commonly caused low shock absorber gas pressure.

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

A) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway. B) it's tread will deteriorate faster.

C) will wear at the shoulders.

D) will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed.

An emergency air bottle:

A) is primed by the operation of the hand pump.

B) is primarily for use when braking. C) can lower and raise the undercarriage. D) is used to lower the undercarriage.

What are purpose and placing of a " fusible plug" on the tires?

A) It is placed in the wheel and reacts on temperature. At excessive temperatures it melts which allows the air to escape from the tire, leaving

the tire unpressurised. B) It is placed in airplane tires to seal holes.

C) It is placed in the wheel and by feeling the tire pressure it automatically

regulates the pressure to the desired. D) It is placed in the brake assembly and when the brakes are overheated it

turns off the hydraulic pressure fed to the brakes, allowing the brakes to

cool.

The anti-skid system would be used:

A) on landing runs only.

B) for both take off and landing runs.

C) for take off on icy runways.

D) on take off runs only.

If there is a fluid leakage from a jack:

A) the incorrect fluid must have been used.

B) the jack lubrication system is working normally. C) there are air bubbles in the fluid.

D) an oil seal has failed.

A tubeless tyre is a tyre:

1. which requires solid or branched wheels

2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3. whose mounting rim must be flawless

4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device

5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 5, 6

B) 2, 3, 6

C) 1, 2, 5

D) 3, 4, 5

Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised

to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:

A) 2000 psi

B) 1500 psi C) 500 psi

D) 1000 psi

In a Landing Gear hydraulic system how can emergency operation of actuators be achieved?

A) By electric emergency actuators.

B) By any of the above methods. C) By pulling a gravity release.

D) By operating the actuator pneumatically by discharging a pressurised gas

bottle into the hydraulic lines.

When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the pressure indicated on the gauge should read... above the rated inflation pressure:

A) 10 psi B) 4 psi

C) 4 percent. D) 10 percent.

A wheel brake anti-skid unit is sensitive to:

A) aircraft speed.

B) hydraulic system fluid pressure, and temperature.

C) hydraulic system fluid pressure. D) angular deceleration.

With the antiskid system unserviceable, how should brake application be made?

A) Releasing the pressure on the pedals after the wheels have touched the

runway. B) Fully applying the brakes.

C) With an on and off braking action.

D) By carefully moderating the pressure on the pedals.

To prevent the landing gear from collapsing when the aircraft is parked on the ground by, following device is used:

A) torque links. B) locking pins with flags.

C) hydraulic pressure.

D) chocks.

Side loads imposed on an undercarriage unit on landing are absorbed by:

A) the shock absorber.

B) locking pins. C) the side load strut or link.

D) the torque links.

A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

A) aircraft is overweight.

B) a torque link is worn or damaged.

C) the tyres pressures are too high. D) the aircraft is incorrectly loaded.

Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when:

A) after take-off. B) during crosswind landings.

C) during pushback.

D) making tight turns when taxiing.

In a modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.

A) By hydraulic accumulators.

B) Electrically. C) Mechanically.

D) Pneumatically.

If the braking system shuttle valve gets jammed in the normal position:

A) both systems will operate.

B) main braking would not be available. C) the brakes will jam when selected.

D) emergency braking would not be available.

A tubeless tyre has: 1. a built-in-air tube.

2. no built-in-air tube. 3. a crossed side casing. 4. a radial side casing.

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 2, 4.

B) 1, 4. C) 1,3.

D) 2, 3.

81. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed gear, which of the mentioned factors will differ from a

retractable landing gear?

A) horizontal stability. B) parasite drag.

C) lift.

D) induced drag.

During maintenance, the main undercarriage of an aircraft is normally prevented from collapsing on the ground by:

A) locking pins with flags.

B) a mechanical lock.

C) a mechanical lock and hydraulic pressure. D) a hydraulic lock and aerodynamic lock.

The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

A) to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.

B) to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system normally powering the brakes does not function anymore.

C) to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.

D) to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel blocking.

Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

A) the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.

B) prevented by the ground/air logic system.

C) not possible because the system is not powerful enough. D) always a danger after the ground locks have been removed.

The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is recommended by:

A) the Aviation Authority of the country from which the aircraft operates. B) the aircraft operator. C) the European Aviation Authority.

D) the tyre manufacturer.

What is the most probable cause of insufficient extension of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber?

A) low oil level and low air pressure. B) low air pressure.

C) high oil level with air pressure correct.

D) low oil level with corrected air pressure.

The main purpose of using anti-skid units in the wheel-brake system is to:

A) reduce tyre wear.

B) prevent brake unit heating becoming excessive. C) increase the landing distance.

D) reduce the landing speed.

In a HP brake hydraulic system:

A) A PRV is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft

hydraulic system fails

B) The aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by

operation of a dual brake control valve

C) A NRV is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to

that of the brake operating pressure D) A separate handbrake system is always fitted together with its own

accumulator and its own system components

A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:

A) absorb the spring tension.

B) lock the landing gear.

C) control the wheels. D) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.

Oil is required in an oleo-pneumatic shock strut to:

A) limit the speed at which the strut compresses. B) lubricate the piston within the cylinder.

C) limit the speed of extension and compression of the shock strut. D) support the weight of the aircraft.

How is the undercarriage normally locked down on a down selection?

A) by a hydraulic lock with a mechanical locking pin.

B) by a mechanical lock and overcenter lock. C) by a mechanical loch and hydraulic pressure.

D) by a mechanical lock and locking pins with flags.

Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics:

1. high heating

2. valve fragility 3. lower risk of bursting

4. better adjustment to wheels The combination containing all the correct statements is:

A) 2, 3.

B) 2, 4.

C) 3, 4. D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:

A) The tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.

B) The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.

C) There is limited space in the nose wheel bay. D) It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.

Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:

1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground

2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions This effect is overcome by means of:

3. the torque link 4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 2, 4

B) 1, 4

C) 2, 3

D) 1, 3

In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

A) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.

B) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.

C) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.

D) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.

What is reducing the shocks on the landing gear on an oleo shock absorber?

A) Springs inside the strut.

B) The oil that is forced through a metering orifice. C) Cushion of compressed air.

D) Compression of the oil. When the main undercarriage gear is selected 'DOWN' in flight, it is locked down by:

A) Hydraulic down locks.

B) sequence valves. C) spring loaded jacks imposing a geometric lock on the side stays or drag struts.

D) locking pins with warning flags.

The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have:

A) risen by 10% of their original value.

B) fallen by 15% from their rated value.

C) remained constant. D) risen by 15% from their rated value.

Multi Disc brake units are assessed for wear:

A) by measuring individual brake pad thickness. B) by wear indicator pins that retract into the torque plate as brake wear occurs.

C) by wear indicator pins which extend as brake wear takes place.

D) by wear indicators that change colour as brake wear takes place.

The most probable cause of main wheel shimmy is:

A) shock absorber extension low.

B) excessive shock absorber extension.

C) worn torque links or toggles.

D) low tyre inflation pressure.

101. An accumulator may be fitted in a brake system to:

A) Prevent thermal expansion from being transmitted from the main system.

B) Modulate the response when the brakes are initially applied. C) Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of main system pressure failure.

D) Compensate for fluid loss when the brakes are applied.

Gear retraction systems are classified according to the power source used for retraction and

extension. Which are the most frequently used on larger aircraft?

A) Electrical and pneumatic.

B) Mechanical. C) Hydraulic.

D) Electrical and hydraulic.

If the oleo-pneumatic shock strut extension of a landing gear on the ground is designed to be 6 inches, but it is found to be 2 inches:

A) the hydraulic fluid pressure is more than required. B) the hydraulic fluid pressure is insufficient.

C) the nitrogen (or air) pressure is insufficient. D) the nitrogen (or air) pressure is more than required.

The disk brakes have more or less replaced the drum brakes. Why?

A) Because disk brakes allow an antiskid action.

B) Owing to a loss of braking action due to heat generation problem. C) Because disk brakes weighted less and lasted longer. D) Because disk brakes allow a greater dissipation kinetic energy.

A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:

A) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the

rotational movement of the nosewheel B) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears C) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.

D) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20 The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

A) Counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast. B) Prevent the fluid becoming aerated.

C) Prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated.

D) Make the lowering time greater than the raising time.

Oil is required in an oleo strut to:

A) support the weight of the aircraft.

B) lubricate the piston within the cylinder.

C) limit the speed at which the strut compresses.

D) limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.

If the gas pressure is too high in an oleo leg it will:

A) Cause the leg extension to be more than normal B) The leg extension will be lower than normal.

C) Not affect the functioning as a pressure relief valve will ensure pressure is

brought within limits. D) The leg extension will not change.

A main landing gear is said to be LOCKED DOWN when:

A) the strut is locked by an overcenter mechanism B) the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel C) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber

D) it is in the down position

At an aircraft taxiing speed of l0 mph the antiskid braking system is:

A) operative only on the main wheel brakes.

B) operative. C) operative only on the nosewheel brakes.

D) inoperative.

The most likely cause of brake fade is:

A) worn stators. B) oil or grease on the brake drums.

C) the pilot reducing the brake pressure. D) overheating.

The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

A) Drum type brake. B) Multiple disk brake.

C) Belt brake

D) Single disk brake.

The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:

A) the hydraulic reservoir.

B) a self contained power pack.

C) the aircraft main hydraulic system. D) the pilots brake pedals.

Prior to landing, what considerations should be given to the aircraft tyres?

A) aircraft mass, tyre pressure and type of tyre tread.

B) tyre pressure, aircraft mass, and rwy surface conditions.

C) aircraft mass, landing speed, and tyre pressures.

D) aircraft mass, rwy conditions and landing speed.

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

A) Mechanically driven. B) Hydraulically driven.

C) Electrically driven.

D) Pneumatically driven.

What is an essential requirement in a Nose Wheel Steering System?

A) A follow-up mechanism.

B) An emergency air back up. C) Feedback. D) Triplicate servo operation.

The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing:

A) automatically B) by pilot action

C) the system is always armed D) at a certain low speed

A red band painted on the wall of a tyre is a:

A) creep mark.

B) heavy spot. C) light spot.

D) balance mark.

Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

A) Support the weight of the aircraft.

B) Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut. C) Lubricate the piston within the cylinder.

D) Limit the speed of compression of the strut.

On the brake assembly there is an anti-skid system. From which device does the anti-skid control box get the information to regulate the brake pressure?

A) From a wheel speed sensor.

B) From the airspeed indicator, corrected to ground speed. C) From a hydraulic pressure sensor.

D) From the pitot static system.

121. Control on the ground for small aeroplanes is provided by steering the nose wheel through connections to the rudder pedals, but large aeroplanes have normally:

A) mechanical power steering. B) hydraulic power steering.

C) pneumatic power steering.

D) electrical power steering.

During the landing run, when wheel brake anti-skid units are activated:

A) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid to the reservoir via the

brake control valve. B) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid from the brake unit

direct to return.

C) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid from the brake unit direct to the accumulator.

D) full brake pressure is applied to the brake units.

Flight controls (construction and operation):

On an aircraft, the Kruger flap is a:

A) trailing edge flap.

B) leading edge flap close to the wing tip.

C) leading edge flap close to the wing root.

D) leading edge flap.

Some aircraft uses a fly by wire system to move the primary flight controls, this system is based on:

A) Hydraulic power only. B) Secondary controls such as speed brakes.

C) Electrical signals from a computer sent to hydraulic actuators.

D) Mechanical power transmitted by steel wires.

A q feel unit is:

A) used to give the pilot some control feedback dependent on the rate of acceleration.

B) used to give the pilot some control feedback at varying altitudes by sensing static pressure changes.

C) also known as an Artificial feel Unit. D) used to give the pilot some feedback of flap position by sensing the dynamic pressure.

Which of the following helps to prevent flutter?

A) Inset Hinges. B) Horn Balance.

C) Balance Tabs. D) Mass Balance.

What are " Kruger" flaps?

A) Leading edge flaps

B) Aileron trim tabs C) Trailing edge flaps.

D) Cowling flaps

The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is:

A) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs. B) Because there are two trim motors.

C) To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway.

D) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed.

Control surface flutter:

A) is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.

B) is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.

C) provides additional lift for take-off and landing in the event of engine failure. D) occurs at high angles of attack.

The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

A) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.

B) trim the aeroplane during normal flight.

C) lower manoeuvring control forces.

D) reduce or to cancel control forces.

On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

A) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip B) trailing edge flaps close to the wing root

C) leading edge flaps close to the wing root

D) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip

One type of flap used on aircraft moves down and increases the wing area by moving aft when lowered. This flap is known as:

A) Split flap.

B) Slotted flap.

C) Fowler flap. D) Aft moving flap.

What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its longitudinal or roll axis?

A) The elevator. B) The ailerons.

C) The trim tabs.

D) The rudder.

How do differential ailerons work?

A) equalise the lift on up going and down going wings. B) Increase lift on down going wing and decrease lift on up going wing.

C) increase drag on up going wing and decrease drag on down going wing.

D) equalise the drag on up going and down going wings. The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:

1. Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces 2. Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike

3. Direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems 4. Immunity to different interfering signals 5. Improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1 and 5

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 5 D) 1 and 2

A Yaw Damper is:

A) A roll trim tab.

B) An elevator augmenter.

C) A rudder damper designed to avoid the " Dutch roll" . D) An elevator augmenter to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.

If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:

A) in series with the secondary controls.

B) in series with the primary controls.

C) in parallel with the secondary controls.

D) in parallel with the primary controls.

The elevators of a conventional airline are used to provide rotation about the:

A) Lateral axis. B) Directional axis.

C) Vertical axis.

D) Longitudinal axis.

An artificial feel unit system:

A) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.

B) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab. C) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit. D) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.

To yaw the aircraft to the right:

A) the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.

B) the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right.

C) the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.

D) the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

A) to change the direction of the control cable.

B) to prevent the cable from slackening. C) to ensure smooth operation of the system. D) to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system.

The trim tab:

A) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

B) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

C) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.

D) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

21. A Kruger flap is:

A) A trailing edge flap which is operating automatically.

B) A leading edge flap type which is formed by extending an area of the wing

downwards and forward at the leading edge.

C) An anti balanced type of flap with the purpose of making the controls smoother. D) To give the aircraft better short field performance.

An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:

A) there is a trimmable stabilizer.

B) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.

C) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.

D) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move:

A) down and the elevator will move up.

B) down and the elevator will move down. C) up and the elevator will move down.

D) up and the elevator will move up.

If the control stick of an aircraft is moved forward to the right, the left aileron will move:

A) Up, and the elevator will move up.

B) Up, and the elevator will move down.

C) Down, and the elevator will move down. D) Down, and the elevator will move up.

On an aeroplane, spoilers are:

A) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical. B) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.

C) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.

D) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers...

A) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.

B) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.

C) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler

will retract and the left one will extend. D) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler

will retract and the left one will extend.

Control surface flutter is minimised by:

A) reducing the moment of the critical engine. B) aerodynamic balance of the control cables.

C) mass balance of the control surfaces.

D) changing the wings before they reach their critical life.

A servo tab moves?

A) In the same direction of the control surface to which it's hinged.

B) According to he airflow that surrounds it.

C) Opposite of the control surface to which it is hinged.

D) Parallel to the control surface to which it is hinged.

"Feel" units are fitted when:

A) Power assisted controls are fitted to the aircraft.

B) Servo tabs are fitted to the aircraft.

C) Spring tabs are fitted to the control system.

D) Powered controls are fitted to the aircraft. The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

A) to keep the cable straight and clear of structure. B) to attach the cables to chain drives.

C) alter the angle of deflection of the cables.

D) to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels.

With which system is differential control associated?

A) Aileron system.

B) Rudder system. C) Elevator system. D) Trim system.

Trailing edge flaps:

A) Increase lift at a higher AOA B) Reduce lift at a higher AOA

C) Increase lift at a lower AOA D) Reduce lift at a lower AOA

If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:

A) in series with the primary controls.

B) close to the control column. C) to the secondary flight controls.

D) in parallel with the primary controls.

The control surface that rotates the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is/are the:

A) Flaps.

B) Ailerons. C) Rudder.

D) Elevator.

Hydraulics: Hydraulic fluid is considered to be:

A) compressible.

B) compressible inside it's rated operating temperature range only.

C) compressible at high temperatures only.

D) incompressible.

Slow, sluggish operation of a hydraulic system is:

A) low accumulator charge pressure causing rapid system pressure

fluctuations.

B) an indication of air in the system and it requires bleeding.

C) an indication of water in the hydraulic system.

D) caused by a blocked high pressure filter element.

A circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require:

A) an automatic cut out and accumulator.

B) a relief valve.

C) an automatic cut out.

D) a hand pump.

A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

A) is used to increase pressure in the sys.

B) is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.

C) enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.

D) is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system

pressure.

When a variable volume pump is stationary:

A) it is at minimum stroke.

B) the stroke does not alter. C) the aircraft engines are unserviceable.

D) it is at maximum stroke.

If one uses the incorrect fluid in a hydraulic system:

A) inspection intervals will decrease.

B) damage to the seals could result. C) the hydraulic system will function properly.

D) corrosion problems could arise in all affected system components.

In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used?

A) Vegetable. B) Mineral/alcohol.

C) Synthetic. D) Mineral.

DTD 585 (MIL-H 5606) is coloured:

A) purple. B) green.

C) red.

D) blue.

A shuttle valve is used for:

A) preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack.

B) maintaining fluid pressure when the emergency system fails. C) selecting the direction of fluid flow to a jack (e.g.: flaps in or out.)

D) changeover from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure.

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is controlled by:

A) a control piston which adjusts the swash plate angle.

B) an automatic cut-out valve in combination with an accumulator.

C) maintaining engine RPM. D) a swash plate that senses fluid temperature.

Hydraulic fluids:

A) Are irritating to eyes and skin. B) Cause high fire risk.

C) Do not require special care.

D) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:

A) high operating fluid temperature. B) seal damage and jack corrosion.

C) system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible

corrosion.

D) normal operation.

A 100lb force is applied to each of two unconnected actuators. The area of one is 2 inch2 and the area of the other is 4 inch2:

A) The pressure inside the both actuators will be 200lbf. B) The pressure inside the small actuator will be 200 psi and the pressure

inside the large one will be 400 psi.

C) The pressure inside the small actuator will be 50 psi and the pressure inside the large one will be 25 psi.

D) The pressure inside the both actuators will be 200psi.

Hydraulic fluids used in systems of modern airliners are:

A) Mineral base fluids.

B) Phosphate ester base fluids.

C) Water base fluids.

D) Vegetable base fluids.

When air is found in a hydraulic system:

A) ignore it, it has no effect. B) allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.

C) have the air bled from the system.

D) expect services to operate faster.

In a hydraulic system fitted with a constant volume pump, when maximum system pressure is

reached:

A) the pump maintains a small leak rate through the pump, whilst in the off load position.

B) the pump off loads completely.

C) an idling circuit is created via the reservoir.

D) the pump is disengaged by a pressure operated clutch.

If the system pressure is 3,000 psi the force provided by a 4 square inch jack compared to the force provided by a 2 square inch area jack will be:

A) 6,000 Ib greater. B) 3,000 lb in total. C) 6,000 lb less.

D) the same.

The function of the selector valve is to:

A) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator. B) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high. C) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.

D) automatically activate the hydraulic system. The purpose of pressurising some hydraulic reservoirs is to:

A) provide emergency pressure if the pump should fail B) prevent cavitation at the pressure filter

C) provide a positive feed to the main pump D) provide a positive pressure to the return line

In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge

which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:

A) 1200 psi

B) 4200 psi C) 3000 psi

D) 1800 psi

21. In a closed cylinder filled with fluid, pressure is:

A) the same in all directions on all surfaces.

B) higher on the cylinder walls than on the piston.

C) inversely proportional to cylinder volume. D) higher on the piston than on the cylinder walls.

A hydraulic fuse is fitted in a hydraulic system, to prevent excessive fluid loss in the event of a leak:

A) downstream of the fuse. B) upstream of the fuse.

C) anywhere in the system.

D) in the reservoir. Assume that piston A has an area of 2 cm2 and

Piston B has an area of 10 cm2. If piston A is depressed 5cm (input stroke), what will be the corresponding upward movement of piston B?

A) 10 cm B) 5 cm

C) 1 cm

D) 0.5 cm

Hand pumps are usually fitted to aircraft systems to:

A) Maintain the level of fluid in the reservoir. B) Allow the normal operation of in-flight services. C) Ensure that the gas charge in the accumulator remains at the correct value.

D) Provide a ground service facility and for emergency use.

The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

A) high pressure and small flow.

B) high pressure and large flow. C) small pressure and small flow.

D) small pressure and large flow.

Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?

A) In the reservoirs. B) At the coolers.

C) At the pumps.

D) At actuators.

The hydraulic hand pump fitted to aircraft is:

A) Used on flaps and landing gear only.

B) Generally single acting.

C) Generally double acting. D) Rotary acting.

The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:

A) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure. B) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.

C) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.

D) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.

A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system is fitted in the:

A) supply to the undercarriage retraction actuator.

B) undercarriage up line and the flap down line.

C) undercarriage down line and the flap up line.

D) EDP.

In an aircraft hydraulic system it is permitted to use:

A) Only an oil specified for use in that system. B) Any oil that is available.

C) Any oil of the same colour.

D) Any oil of the same specific gravity.

A hydraulic fluid should possess:

A) A low viscosity at all ambient temperatures.

B) A low flash point and should remain free flowing. C) A degree of compressibility with no increase in viscosity at high

temperatures.

D) A high viscosity at all ambient temperatures.

An Automatic Cut Out Valve is installed in a hydraulic system:

A) before the electrically driven pump

B) to provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is full C) before the engine driven pump

D) to prevent excessive pump temperatures

If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two actuators are equal, the pressure on a 4 inch sq. jack compared to the pressure on a 1 inch sq. jack will be:

A) four times as much.

B) half as much.

C) twice as much.

D) the same.

Where in the hydraulic system are the overheat indicators?

A) At the pumps.

B) At the coolers. C) At the reservoirs.

D) At the using units.

An automatic cut-out valve is used in a:

A) Both of these B) Constant pressure system

C) Fixed volume pressure control system

D) Neither of these

What is the purpose of a pressure switch in a hydraulic supply system?

A) to operate the pressure gauge.

B) to switch off the pump when maximum pressure is reached.

C) to prevent excess pressure build-up in the system.

D) to operate a warning light in the event of system pressure failure.

The indication of an internal leak in a hydraulic system will be:

A) a fall in reservoir fluid level. B) excessive system pressure.

C) a rise in fluid temperature.

D) a rise in reservoir fluid level.

When topping up a system with fluid, the correct type can be recognised by:

A) its specific gravity.

B) its colour. C) its specific pressure capacity. D) its smell.

The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:

A) generally distinguishable by colour. B) generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same

manufacturer. C) always distinguishable by taste and smell.

D) not generally distinguishable by colour.

To prevent leakage of a mineral based fluid in two directions which seal is used?

A) a butyl chevron seal. B) a butyl '0' seal.

C) a synthetic '0' seal. D) a natural 'U' seal.

41. In a simple hydraulic system a pressure relief valve is fitted to:

A) The suction side of the system.

B) The vent side of the system. C) The return side of the system.

D) The pressure side of the system. Prevention of damage to components in the closed part of a hydraulic system due to heat expansion:

A) Is achieved by using a pressure release valve.

B) Is achieved by using a thermal relief valve.

C) Is achieved by pressurising the reservoir.

D) Is achieved by the use of expansion joints in the pipelines.

An accumulator air charge is 1000 psi. When the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1800 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:

A) 1800 psi. B) 800 psi.

C) 2800 psi.

D) 1000 psi. In a hydraulic system the master cylinders inner diameter is 10 mm2, and the actuator cylinders inner diameter is 100 mm2. If you press the master-cylinder 2 cm by using a 100 N force, the actuator

cylinder will move: :

A) 2 mm and produce a force of 1000 N

B) 2 cm and produce a force of 100 N

C) 1 mm and produce a force of 500 N

D) 2 mm and produce a force of 100 N

In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

A) more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder. B) more at the cylinder end than the piston head.

C) more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary. D) the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.

A restrictor valve operates to:

A) restrict the number of services available. B) controls the rate of movement of a service.

C) controls the distance an actuator moves.

D) controls the rate of pressure build up in the system.

A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system:

A) controls the distance the jack moves. B) controls the rate of movement of a service.

C) controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system. D) restricts the maximum pressure in the system.

In a modern hydraulic system, " hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:

A) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.

B) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake

system. C) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.

D) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive

pressure, without further damage to the system. A ... valve is used where two different values of pressure are required in a system.

A) Pressure relief.

B) Pressure release. C) Restrictor.

D) Pressure reducing.

An accumulator has a gas charge pressure of 800 psi and the aircraft system has a residual hydraulic pressure of 600 psi. The accumulator gas gauge should read:

A) 200 psi. B) 1400 psi.

C) 800 psi.

D) 600 psi.

The colour of hydraulic fluid MIL-H-5606 is:

A) green.

B) red. C) purple.

D) blue.

The purpose of a pressure maintaining valve is to:

A) maintain system pressure at all times.

B) give priority to one system over another.

C) ensure essential services operate in an emergency. D) maintain pressure to the hydraulic reservoir.

The main reasons for using pressurised hydraulic reservoirs on jet transport aircraft is/are:

A) To maintain a minimum system pressure in case of hydraulic pump failure and enabling the pilot to lower flaps and gear with the help of this

reservoir pressure.

B) To assure that an adequate supply of fluid free from foaming always is present at the pump inlet.

C) To compress the hydraulic fluids.

D) To increase the output pressure of the system.

Skydrol 7000 is... A ... in colour, requires a...B... seal and is often used because...C...

A) A green B Teflon C it is cheap and easily produced.

B) A green B Butyl-rubber C has better fire retardant properties. C) A straw B Teflon C has better fire retardant properties.

D) A yellow B Butyl-rubber C has better fire retardant properties.

For calculation purposes, hydraulic fluid is considered to be:

A) compressible at low temperatures only.

B) compressible at high temperatures only.

C) incompressible.

D) compressible.

The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full level. The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:

A) remain at the same level.

B) rise above the " full" mark.

C) fall below the " full" mark.

D) fall to a position marked 'full accs charged'.

The hydraulic pressure gauge provides information regarding the pressure of:

A) the hydraulic pressure in the system. B) the air and hydraulic fluid pressure in the system.

C) the air in the accumulator.

D) the proportional pressure in the system.

Hydraulic fluid should have which of the following properties?

A) Freezing point not lower than 0 degrees " C" .

B) High freezing point and low boiling point. C) High flash point.

D) Low flash point.

When a hydraulic system is pressurised, the hydraulic quantity in the reservoir:

A) remains at the same level.

B) falls.

C) rises. D) initially falls then rises.

What is the purpose of a flop tube, as fitted to a hydraulic reservoir?

A) to compensate for thermal expansion.

B) to pressurize the hydraulic reservoir. C) to prevent total loss of fluid in the event of leakage in the main supply.

D) to compensate for changes in aircraft attitude.

61. Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2:

A) the smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1200N.

B) both jacks will move at the same speed. C) the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.

D) both have the same force. What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet airliner?

A) Pink.

B) Purple.

C) Yellow.

D) Red.

An airspace is provided above the fluid in a reservoir to:

A) Allow for the carriage of extra fluid on a long haul flight.

B) Allow for jack ram displacement.

C) Allow the fluid to boil at attitude. D) Provide an emergency reserve of air should the accumulator fail.

The reason for the pressure accumulator in the hydraulic system is:

A) It works as a backup fluid reservoir, which increases the capacity of the

system.

B) It serves as a water reservoir that collects water from the hydraulic fluid.

C) The accumulator serves as an internal shock absorber for the hydraulic

system.

D) The accumulator compensates for fluid-volume variation due to changes in temperature.

Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:

1. thermal stability

2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistance

4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility

7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 3, 4, 5

C) 1, 3, 4, 6 D) 1, 2, 5, 7

Restrictor valves are fitted:

A) to limit jack travel.

B) to limit pump rotation.

C) to slow down the rate of pressure build-up. D) to slow down the operation of a service in one direction.

Emergency air bottle may be used for:

A) an emergency power supply in the event of main system fluid pressure loss.

B) an emergency power supply to raise the undercarriage. C) to charge the accumulators in an emergency.

D) to compensate for a low fluid level in reservoir.

The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:

A) water and glycol

B) synthetic oil

C) mineral oil D) vegetable oil

A non return valve or check valve:

A) closes if inlet pressure ceases. B) can only be fitted if provided with a by pass selector.

C) closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.

D) opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure.

One hydraulic system can be pressurised by another hydraulic system without fluid mixing using a hydraulic motor-pump device, also called...

A) APU B) SEC

C) RAT D) PTU

The attached diagram illustrates a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic

pressure throughout:

A) the jack will move to the left due to

pressure acting on differential areas

B) the jack will move to the right due to

equal pressure acting on differential areas

C) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place

D) since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external

forces

Hydraulic pressure of 3000psi is applied to a jack whose area is 2sq in. If the same pressure is applied to a jack of 4sq in:

A) both jacks will move at the same speed. B) both jacks exert the same force.

C) the smaller jack will exert a force of 6000lb, and the larger jack a force of 12000lb.

D) the smaller jack will exert a force of 50lb, and the larger a force of 25lb. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

A) a control piston.

B) a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature. C) engine RPM.

D) an automatic cut out. Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:

A) pink.

B) red.

C) purple. D) blue.

Hydraulic accumulators are normally charged to:

A) Half system pressure.

B) 75% of system pressure.

C) System pressure.

D) 1000 psi. A variable displacement hydraulic pump on start up will always be at:

A) a position decided by the fluid temperature. B) minimum stroke.

C) maximum stroke.

D) mid stroke.

One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:

A) limit pump wear.

B) maintain the fluid at a constant viscosity. C) prevent hydraulic lock. D) prevent hydraulic hammering.

One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:

A) prevent hydraulic lock. B) maintain the fluid at a constant viscosity.

C) prevent hydraulic hammering. D) limit pump wear. Total number of hydraulic

pumps in this hydraulic

system (excluding the PTU pump) is:

A) 5. B) 3.

C) 2. D) 6

The purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is to:

A) pressurise the system.

B) allow the engineer to check that enough fluid is in the system. C) provide a reservoir of pressure for emergency operations.

D) allow for jack movements, thermal expansion and small leaks.

81. For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:

A) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves,

the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve.

B) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must

deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm2).

C) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under

pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.

D) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not

applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump can be discovered by a loud irregular sound. What might be the reason for a pump to cavitate?

A) There is not enough fluid in the reservoir and the pump picks up too

much air.

B) The fluid is too hot due to frequ