100 Questions - Texas Optometric Associationtexas.aoa.org/Documents/TX/2015 Convention/Staff...

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11/22/2014 1 100 Questions Lynn E. Lawrence, CMSgt (ret) USAF CPOT, ABOC Question 1 Which of the following is required for normal depth perception? a) strabismus b) normal eye alignment c) poor vision d) spectacles with prism Question 2 The lensometer is calibrated in a) centimeters and diopters b) meters and diopters c) diopters and degrees d) millimeters and degrees

Transcript of 100 Questions - Texas Optometric Associationtexas.aoa.org/Documents/TX/2015 Convention/Staff...

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100 Questions

Lynn E. Lawrence, CMSgt (ret) USAF CPOT, ABOC

Question 1

Which of the following is required for normal depth perception?

a) strabismus

b) normal eye alignment

c) poor vision

d) spectacles with prism

Question 2

The lensometer is calibrated in

a) centimeters and diopters

b) meters and diopters

c) diopters and degrees

d) millimeters and degrees

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Question 3

Patient is feeling faint, which of the following should you do first?

a) notify the doctor

b) call 911

c) notify the patient’s family

d) have the patient lie down

Question 4

Which of the following is a characteristic of achromacy?

a) corneal edema

b) absence of rods

c) diplopia

d) absence of cones

Question 5

Base out prism is used for patients with

a) myopia

b) hyperopia

c) esotropia

d) exotropia

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Question 6

6. The cover/uncover is used to determine?

a) Direction

b) Movement

c) Diplopia

d) Depth perception

Question 7

The alternating cover test is used for?

a) Direction

b) Movement

c) Diplopia

d) Depth perception

Question 8

Where is the far point of accommodation of an uncorrected hyperopic eye?

a) on the retina

b) behind the retina

c) in front of the retina

d) at the nodal point of the eye

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Question 9

In addition to detecting color deficiencies, color vision testing can be used to

a) determine light sensitivity

b) assess cornea

c) measure Stereopsis

d) assess macular pathology

Question 10

In what direction does the eye turn during adduction

a) nasal

b) inferior

c) superior

d) temporal

Question 11

Which of the following best describes binocular pursuits

a) versions

b) ductions

c) saccades

d) vergence

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Question 12

What is the central corneal layer

a) stroma

b) bowman’s layer

c) descement’s layer

d) epithelial layer

Question 13

The difference in inter ocular pressure between the average right and left eye maybe considered within normal limits if it is as much as

a) 9

b) 7

c) 5

d) 3

Question 14

In the U.S., what is the most common low vision eye chronic disorder?

a) congenital cataracts

b) ARMD

c) Glaucoma

d) Presbyopia

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Question 15

When using the NCT, what should be done first

a) find the target

b) occlude opposite eye

c) find corneal reflex

d) demonstrate the test

Question 16

On the Stereo Fly test, the patient reports seeing the R steady and the L flashing, the patient is using?

a) Left eye only

b) Right eye only

c) Both eyes but left eye dominate

d) Both eyes but right eye dominate

Question 17

If no movement is noted on the unilateral cover test, but movement is detected on the alternating cover test, what condition is present?

a) Tropia

b) Phoria

c) Nystagmus

d) Accommodation Insufficiency

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Question 18

Which is most likely to cause less than normal vision?

a) Chalazion

b) Hordeolum

c) Diabetes

d) Pinguecula

Question 19

Which of the following tools is used to correct pantoscopic tilt?

a) Temple angling pliers

b) nose pad pliers

c) round nose pliers

d) temple bending pliers

Question 20

Which of the following test differentiates vision loss due to pathology?

a) color vision test

b) walk-up method

c) Stereopsis

d) Pinhole Acuity

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Question 21

Which of the following best describes aniseikonia?

a) Diplopia

b) Unequal pupils

c) Unequal eye size

d) Unequal retinal images

Question 22

Which of the following should be treated first?

a) change in refraction

b) lost contact lens

c) conjunctivitis

d) corneal trauma

Question 23

Which of the following refractive errors is revealed by cycloplegia?

a) Latent hyperopia

b) Confirmed hyperopia

c) Manifest myopia

d) Latent myopia

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Question 24

Which of the following would most likely be found in an external photograph?

a) Iridectomy

b) Pinguecula

c) Cataract

d) Choroidal lesion

Question 25

What is it called when blood vessels invade the cornea?

• Conjunctivitis

• Iritis

• Pterygium

• Neovascularization

Question 26

Which of the following test is an objective test?

a) Auto-refractor

b) Color vision testing

c) Stereo testing

d) Pinhole testing

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Question 27

Congenital color defects are usually?

a) Bilateral

b) Unilateral

c) Temporary

d) Progressive

Question 28

Which of the following muscles is involved in lid retraction is?

a) ciliary

b) superior rectus

c) orbicularis oculi

d) levator palpebrae superioris

Question 29

Which of the following is a subjective test?

a) Auto-refractor

b) NCT

c) Swinging flashlight test

d) Color vision testing

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Question 30

Which of the following does not require fusion?

a) Stereopsis

b) Worth Four Dot

c) Near point of convergence

d) Pseudoisochromatic Plates

Question 31

How should stereo testing be done?

a) without correction at 12 inches

b) with correction at 12 inches

c) without correction at 16 inches

d) with correction 16 inches

Question 32

What instrument is most valuable in determining the total objective refractive error?

a) Alphascope

b) Retinoscope

c) Tonometer

d) Radiuscope

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Question 33

The part of the brain responsible for analyzing the neutral signals representing sight is the

a) Choroid

b) Optic nerve

c) Optic tract

d) Visual cortex

Question 34

Which of the following is measured using an Amsler Grid

a) Corneal Curvature

b) inter ocular pressure

c) central visual fields

d) peripheral visual fields

Question 35

Beta blockers are commonly used to treat what disease?

a) optic drusen

b) GPC

c) Glaucoma

d) EKC

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Question 36

Which are parts of the crystalline lens?

a) Capsule, nucleus, and cortex

b) Capsule, nucleus, and stroma

c) Nucleus, stroma, and epithelium

d) Nucleus, epithelium, and ciliary muscle

Question 37

How does an eye with an axial myopic eye differ from a normal eye?

a) The cornea is irregular

b) The cornea is steeper

c) The eyeball is longer

d) The eyeball is shorter

Question 38

Which of the following is the average diameter of most rigid contact lens?

a) 7.0

b) 9.0

c) 13.8

d) 15.0

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Question 39

How long do the effects of a topical anesthetic usually last?

a) 5-10 minutes

b) 15-30 minutes

c) 30-45 minutes

d) 45-60 minutes

Question 40

• 40. What percent of the male population has color vision deficiency?

a) 0.2%

b) 0.8%

c) 1%

d) 8%

100 Questions

Lynn E. Lawrence, CMSgt (ret) USAF CPOT, ABOC

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Question 41

What type of movement is displayed when eyes follow a moving target?

a. Reflex

b. Saccade

c. Pursuit

d. Convergence

Question 42

Which of the following is the first step before using a lensometer?

a. rotate the power wheel to +9.00

b. rotate the axis wheel to 180

c. focus the eye piece

d. adjust the table height

Question 43

At which of the following ages would the amplitude of accommodation most likely be highest?

a. 8

b. 15

c. 29

d. 40

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Question 44

The main function of the choroid is to provide?

a. nutrition

b. protection

c. light perception

d. color perception

Question 45

Mucin keeps the cornea?

a. hypotonic = low salt

b. hypertonic = high salt

c. hydrophobic = incapable of dissolving in water

d. hydrophilic = strong affinity for water

Question 46

A soft contact lens with an overall diameter of 14.0 and an optic zone of 8.6 would have a peripheral curve width of?

a. 2.7

b. 4.5

c. 5.4

d. 6.4

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Question 47

A normal monocular field usually measures 60 degrees in which of the following directions?

a. Nasally

b. inferior

c. superiorly

d. temporally

Question 48

How will the result of a visual acuity test usually be affected if the patient squints while taking it?

a. it will be improved

b. it will be depressed

c. it will be unaffected

d. it depends on the type of test performed

Question 49

Which of the following instruments would be used to detect warpage of a rigid contact lens?

a. shadowgraph

b. radiuscope

c. thickness gauge

d. hand magnifier

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Question 50

In what direction does the eye turn during abduction?

a. Nasal

b. Inferior

c. Superior

d. Temporal

Question 51

The “L” and “R” on the depth perception test is used to determine?

a. Stereopsis

b. Suppression

c. Vertical imbalance

d. Near vision acuity

Question 52

Which of the following would be a reason not to use the Goldman Tonometer?

a. Anterior uveitis

b. Flashes and floaters

c. Ptosis

d. Corneal foreign body

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Question 53

Which of the following is used when testing Stereopsis with the Stereo Fly test?

a. Maddox rod

b. Risley prisms

c. Polarized lenses

d. anaglyph

Question 54

In addition to assessing color deficiencies, color vision testing should be accomplished?

a. Perform test with best stereopsis

b. Measure highest level of fluorescent lighting

c. Perform test monocularly

d. Allow patient 45 seconds per test plate

Question 55

Following a normal blink, how long should the tear remain uniform on the cornea?

a. 5-10 seconds

b. 5-10 minutes

c. 15-20 seconds

d. 25-30 seconds

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Question 56

What is used to check the power of a contact lens?

a. lens clock

b. lens loupe

c. radiuscope

d. lensometer

Question 57

At what time of day is intraocular pressure at a maximum in most people?

a. When you first wake up

b. At noon time

c. At bed time

d. In the middle of the night

Question 58

Visual threshold is determined by a target’s

a. size

b. color

c. brightness

d. location

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Question 59

The retina’s main blood supply comes from the

a. Central Retinal Veins

b. Central Retinal Arteries

c. Central Capillaries

d. Central Macular Veins

Question 60

Which of the following conditions indicates an immediate ocular emergency?

a. Pinguecula

b. Optic Neuritis

c. Open-Angle Glaucoma

d. Central Retinal Arterial Occlusion

Question 61

What is indicated when you see five dots when using the Worth 4-Dot test?

a. Normal response

b. Only one eye can see through the red lens

c. Only one eye can see through the green lens

d. Possible muscle imbalance

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Question 62

All of the following are required in diagnosing glaucoma but

a. Tonometry

b. Biomicroscopy

c. Ophthalmoscopy

d. Visual field testing

Question 63

What type of bridge follow the nose smoothly and spread the weight of the frame evenly on the sides and the crest of the nose

a. Saddle

b. keyhole

c. high crest

d. adjustable nose pads

Question 64

If a lens has a focal length of 25 cm, what is the power of the lens

a. 2.50D

b. 4.00D

c. 25.00D

d. 40.00D

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Question 65

What section of the conjunctiva stops a contact lens from going behind the eye

a. palpebral

b. scleral

c. Fornix

d. bulbar

Question 66

If a systolic or diastolic pressure is missed, what is the minimum length of the time that should elapse before the procedure can be repeated?

a. 30 seconds

b. 1 to 3 minutes

c. 10 to 15 minutes

d. 1 hour

Question 67

Rose Bengal may be used to determine the presence of

a. dry eye

b. cataract

c. cells and flare

d. corneal abrasion

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Question 68

Which of the following ocular medications should be in a bottle with a red cap

a. Timolol

b. Tropicamide

c. Pilocarpine

d. Proparacaine

Question 69

The Schirmer’s test is performed to

a. determine the quantity of tears

b. determine the quality of tears

c. examine tear drainage system

d. examine anterior chamber

Question 70

Which of the following best describes account receivable

a. Total cash receipts

b. Bills owed by the doctor

c. amount owed to doctor

d. Total charges minus payments

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Question 71

Which of the following materials would produce the most chromatic aberration

a. CR-39

b. Crown glass

c. Flint glass

d. High Index

Question 72

Which of the following visual field testing methods evaluates the central 20 degrees only

a. Humphrey’s Visual Field

b. Bowl perimeter

c. Amsler Grid

d. Harrington-Flocks

Question 73

If visual acuity improves using a multiple pin-hole, the patient most likely has

a. Emmetropia

b. Ametropia

c. Extorsion

d. Intorsion

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Question 74

If a patient is able to read the 20/40 line at 10 feet, how would should it be recorded

a. 10/40

b. 20/40+

c. 80/40

d. 40/10

Question 75

Which corneal refractive surgery utilizes spoke-like incisions

a. RK

b. PRK

c. LASIK

d. LASEK

Question 76

What is the frame size for a frame with the following measurements

A measurement = 50

B measurement = 40

Distance between lenses = 20

a) 50

b) 60

c) 70

d) 90

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Question 77

A 20/20 letter on a Snellen chart viewed from 20 feet subtends how many minutes of arc at the eye

a. 20

b. 10

c. 5

d. 1

Question 78

Transpose the following Rx to Near Vision Only aka NVO, SVN, reading glasses

-2.00 -1.00 x 080

-1.50 -2.00 x 180

+3.00 OU

Answer ___________________

Question 79

Transpose the following Rx to Near Vision Only aka NVO, SVN, reading glasses

-1.00 – 0.50 x 010

-2.00 -0.75 x 100

+1.25 OU

Answer____________________

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Question 80

Transpose the following Rx to Near Vision Only aka NVO, SVN, reading glasses

-4.00 -0.25 x 090

-1.00 -0.50 x 098

+2.00 OU

Answer ___________________

Question 81

Transpose the following Rx to Near Vision Only aka NVO, SVN, reading glasses

+2.50 -1.00 x 090

+1.00 -0.75 x 180

+2.25 OU

Answer ___________________

Question 82

Convert to spherical equivalent

- 1.50 – 1.00 X 180

- 2.25 – 1.50 X 120

Answer____________________

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Question 83

If a patient has K readings of 42.00 at 180 and 44.00 at 090 on the right eye and fit 0.50D steeper than K, what would be the power of the contact lens?

a. +0.50 D

b. +1.25 D

c. +1.50 D

d. +2.50 D

Question 84

If a patient selects a frame of size 54/20 for a reading only prescription, and the patient’s pupillary distance is 62/58, what is the decentration for each eye?

a. 6 mm in

b. 8 mm in

c. 12mm in

d. 16mm in

Questions 85-89

American Optometric Association Paraoptometric Section

Optical Cross minus cylinder

1 32

54

- 1.25

- 2.50 090

180

+ 2.50 - 1.25

120 030

+ 1.75

+ 3.25 110

020

-4.25

- 2.75025

115

+3.25 -1.75

035 125

If you don’t get all of these correct, please see me after class

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Questions 90-94

American Optometric Association Paraoptometric Section

Optical Cross plus cylinder

1 32

54

- 1.25

- 2.50 090

180

+ 2.50 - 1.25

120 030

+ 1.75

+ 3.25 110

020

-4.25

- 2.75025

115

+3.25 -1.75

035 125

Question 95

What is the total prismatic effect of prisms placed before the eyes with O.D. 0.50 prism diopters base out and OS 0.25 prism diopters base in?

a. 0.25 prism diopters base in

b. 0.25 prism diopters base out

c. 0.50 prism diopters base in

d. 0.75 prism diopters base out

Question 96

If a lens has a focal length of 40 cm, what is the power of the lens?

a. +1.25 D

b. +2.50 D

c. +12.50 D

d. +25.00 D

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Question 97

What is the focal length in meters of a refracting surface with a power of 5.00 D?

a. 0.2

b.0.5

c. 2.0

d.5.0

Question 98

Draw an optical cross with an Rx of -2.00 -2.00 X 180 lens?

Question 99

Draw an optical cross with the Rx of +1.75 – 1.50 X 150 lens?

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Question 100

Draw an optical cross with the Rx of Pl – 1.50 X 130 lens?

Thank you

Lynn Lawrence, CMSgt (ret) USAF, CPOT, ABOC

[email protected]