------ -------( DO NOT OPEN THE SEALOF THE BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 100Read the following instruction carefully before you begin to answer the question. This booklet containsquestions in English Only.

INSTRCUTIONS TO CANDIDATE1. Every candidate is required to satisfy that the Question Paper Booklet given to him / her contains

the number of pages as printed on the cover page of the booklet. In case of any discrepancy,he/ she should ask for replacement of the Question Paper Booklet immediately.

2. The Question Paper Booklet will consist of 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ's). Eachquestion will be of one mark and for every question, four answer options designated as A, B, Cand D are given in the Question Paper Booklet. The candidate is required to select one amongstthe options corresponding to the question as his/her right answer and darken the circle i.e. A or Bor C or D as the case may be, to be the answer in the OMR Answer Sheet with black ball pointPf!J. only.Example:

f<>: OJ("~Ji('•• '<I ro. ,: lh' ~1U1.:Udl't ~Of",f'<kn.

~::'::~~::>S'o'--!I""<.b~.h~~.a'\t"fJ;'\u;"" : :0 A

" • :>, tu "

to A' Ii 0 ,;

X, A • ~ ~

"A, • • l)

\. -- . .-..... ...--_.----._--' ..__ .....- ....•

3. Candidates are required to sign in the OMR Answer Sheets and Attendance Sheet in the samemanner as they have signed in their application form and Admit Card. They must affix their LeftHand Thumb Impression in the attendance sheet.

4. The OMR Answer Sheet contains the serial number of questions as given in the Question PaperBooklet. Against each question number, there are four circles marked as A, B, C, and D whichcorrespond to the four answer options of which one is to be darkened on the OMR Answer Sheetonly. No marking should be done on the Question Paper Booklet.

5. Candidates are required to correctly fill in the Question Paper Booklet Code (as mentioned on thetop of the Question Paper Booklet) in the OMR Answer Sheet, as the same will be considered finalfor result computation. Candidates not filling the Question Paper Booklet Code will not beawarded any marks.

6. The candidate must write his Roll Number, as allotted to him/her and printed in the Admit Card,on OMR Answer Sheet in boxes and darken appropriate circles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.Similarly, write Question Paper Booklet Number as also the codes viz A or B or C or D; as thecase may be, subject code and Exam Centre' code on OMR Answer Sheet. The candidate shouldnot make noting/ scribbling on the Answer Sheet and Question Paper Booklet except in the spaceprovided for rough work. In case any candidate fills in the information wrongly, the Institute willnot take any responsibility of rectifying the mistake. The Question Paper Booklet Code asdarkened by the candidate will be final and the result will be processed on the basis of the circledarkened by him/her.

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P.T.O

7. Candidates should not open the seal of the Question Paper Booklet before the time specified forthe commencement of the examination.

8. Multiple darkened circles for a question will be treated as wrong answer. For question/ s notanswered i.e. blanks, no marks will be given or deducted.

9. Candidate should not change / erase / overwrite on the options while answering the questions inthe event of any such act zero marks shall be given for the said question. Use of white/ correctionfluid, eraser, blade, etc. is not allowed on the OMR Answer Sheet.

10. The candidate will be required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet at the conclusion of each sessionof examination against acknowledgement by the Invigilator on the admit card.

11. Candidates may bring a card board or clip board on which nothing has been written so as toavoid any difficulty in darkening the circles in OMR Answer Sheet as the tables/furnitureprovided in the examination hall mayor may not have even or smooth surface.

***************************************************J\ll the best*******************************************************

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Written Examination for the Post: Lecturer (CIVIL)

Q1. Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping ofA) large water bodies B) heavenly bodiesC) mountaineous region D) canal system

Q2. Ifh is the difference in level between end points separated by 1, then the slope correction is/12 r,4-+-2/ S,r3 . The second term may be neglected if the value of h in a 20 m distance is less than

A) 1/2 m B) 1 m C) 2 m D) 3 m

Q3. An ideal vertical curve to join two gradients, isA) circular B) parabolic C) elliptical D) hyperbolic

Q4. Pick up the correct statement from the following:A) the eyepiece plays no part in defining the line of sightB) the diaphragrn plays no part in defining the line of sightC) the optical centre of the objective plays no part in defining the line of sightD) none of these.

Q5. The intercept of a staffA) is maximum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.B) is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.C) decreases if the staff is tilted away from normalD) increases if the staff is tilted towards normal.

Q6. The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally keptA)lOm B)25m C)50m D) 100m

Q7.. If S is the length of a sub-chord and R is the radius of simple curve, the angle of deflectionbetween its tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal toA) 573 SIR B) 573 RlS C) 171.9 SIR D) 1718.9 SIR

Q8. The real image of an object formed by the objective, must lieA) in the plane of cross hairs B) at the centre of the telescopeC) at the optical centre of the eye-piece D) anywhere inside the telescope.

Q9. In chain surveying tie lines are primarily providedA) to check the accuracy of the survey B) to take offsets for detail surveyC) to avoid long offsets from chain lines D) to increase the number of chain lines.

QI0. Pick up the correct statement from the following:A)the tangent screw enables to give small movement under conditions of smooth and positive control -B) standing on the tripod is the levelling head or trib archC) the levelling screws are used to tilt the instrument so that its rotation axis is truly verticalD) all the above.

Ql1. A rectangular bar of width b and height h is being used as a cantilever. The loading is in aplane parallel to the side b )The section modulus is

bh3 bh2 b2hA) 12 B) 6 C) 6 D) none of these.

i

Q12. As compared to uniaxial tension or compression, the strain energy stored in bending is only1 1 1 1- - - -

~8 m4 q~ m2

Q13. The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollowhaving inside diameter D/2, in torsion, isA) 114 B) 112 C) 1116 D) 15/16

Q14. The weakest section of a diamond riveting, is the section which passes throughA) first row B) second row C) central raw D) one rivet hole of end row.

Q15. In a loaded beam, the point of con-traflcxturc occurs at a section whereA) bending moment is minimum B) bending moment is zero or changes signC) bending moment is maximum D) shearing force is maximum

Q16 i1 three-hinged arch I'S said tA hi> .•• 11. L1IJ.\..I\..I lil.! V'-I. \. l. (..1 LV VV •

A) •.taticallv determinate structure~lUl1. 'lll) Uvl\.l .1.1J.U tv .:J \.I UJ. ""

C) a bent beamB) staticallv indeterminate structure.~...... V<..A II J ••• "'-'"•.......I.l..l •. LL. ,......, v~. .......•.•.....

D) none of these.

Q 17. The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load,is alwaysA) linear B) parabolic C) cubical D) circular.

Q18. The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of a square cross-section of 2.5 cm sides and 300 ernlength, isA} 200 B) 240 C) 360 D) 416

Q19. If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse powerbeing transmitted by the shaft, is

2nNT 2nNTA) 550 B) 750

2nNTC) 4500

2nNTD) 55

Q20. The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, isA) directly proportional to its weight B) inversely proportional to its widthC) inversely proportional to the cube of its depth D) directly proportional to the cube of its length

Q21. The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from.A) 1.10 to 1.20 B) 1.20 to 1.30 C) 1.30 to 1.40 D) 1.40 to 1.50

Q22. The point of contraflexure is the point whereA) B.M. changes sign B) B.M. is maximum C) B.M. is minimum D) S.F. is zero.

Q23. In the truss shown in the given figure, the force in member Be is

100 t -B:.+.::------+---r--:7C

30°

A) 100 t compressive B) 100 t tensile C) zero D) indeterminate

o

E

Q24. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

;t~[l- 2~JA)Hoop strain of the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is

. :~[~~JB)Longitudinal strain in the walls of a cylinder due to iiquid is

Pd[S 2]C)Volumetric change in the cylinder due to liquid is 2tE 2 m

D)AlI the above.

Q25. ,t... truss containing j joints and m members; will be <I simple truss ifA)m=2j-3 B)j=2m-3 C)m=3j-2 D)j=3m-2

Q26. The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress or a circular beam, is~ 3 3

A) 3 D) 4

Q27. The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load wlunit length over entire span of acantilever of length 1and of flexural rigidly EI, is

vf ~IftC) BEl

vftD) 12EIA) 3EI B) 3El

Q28. A spring of mean radius 40 111m contains 8 action coils of steel (N = 80000 N/mm2), 4 mm indiameter. The clearance between the coils being 1 mm when unloaded, the minimum compressiveload to remove the clearance, isA) 25 N B) 30 N C) 35 N D) 40 N

QZ9. If LH and LV are the algebraic sums of the forces resolved horizontally and verticallyrespectively, and LM is the algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point, for theequilibrium of the body acted uponA) LH= O' B) LV = 0 C) 2M= 0 D) all the above.

Q30. The total strain energy of a beam of length L, having moment of inertia of its section I, whensubjected to a bending moment M, is

M2 ftA25)( _,v'_ Ox

EI 2EIA)

fL f'.12

- OX02EI

C)B)

Q31. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceedA) 0.15% B) 1.5% C) 4% D) 1%

Q32. Dimensions of a beam need be changed if the shear stress is more thanA) 10 kg/ern? B) 15 kg/ern? C) 20 kg/ern/ D) 25 kg/em/

Q33. The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, isA) one half of the width of the stem at the bottomB) one-third of the width of the stem at the bottomC) one fourth of the width of the steam at the bottomD) width of the stem at the bottom

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Q34. A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral axisA) remains within the flange B) remains below the slabC) coincides the geometrical centre of the beam D) none of these.

Q35. The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based uponA) minimum bending moment B) maximum bending momentC) maximum shear force D) minimum shear force.

Q36. The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, isA)O.lO% B)0.12% C)0.15% D)0.18%'

Q37. 1fT and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, thenA)2R+T=60 B) R + 2T = 60 C) 2R + T = 30 D) R + 2T= 30

Q38. If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at thecentre of the slab, is

16A) B) C) 16 D)zero

Q39, Pick up the correct statement from the following:A) A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strataB) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soilC) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by frictionD) A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the ioad at a depth greater than its width.

Q40. The effective span of a simply supported slab, isA) distance between the centres of the bearingsB) clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wallC) clear span plus effective depth of the slabD) none of these.

Q41. The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to (where <p is the angle of friction of the soil)A) tan (45° - rp) B) tan2 (45° + rp /2) C) tan2 (45° - <p /2) D) tan (45° + <p)

Q42. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3mm in diameter, is knownA) liquid limit B) plastic limit C) shrinkage limit D) permeability limit.

Q43. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarilyconsolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known asA) quick test B) drained test C) consolidated undrained test D) none of these,

Q44. The maximum value of effective stress in the past divided by the present value, is defined asover consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an over consolidated clay isA) less than 1 B) I C) more than I D) None of these..

.-Q45. Under-reamed piles are generallyA) driven piles B) bored piles C) precast piles D) all the above.

Q46. According to Coulomb's wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedgeA) down and outwards on a slip surface B) up and inwards on a slip surfaceC) horizontal upward and parallel to base D) horizontal inward and parallel to base.

Q47. The effective size of particles of soil is denoted byA) DlO B) D20 C) D30

Q48. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50and void ratio 0.5, isA) 50% B) 60% C) 75% D) 80%

Q49. The liquidity index is defined as a ratio expressed as percentage ofA) plastic limit minus the natural water content, to its plasticity indexB) natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity indexC) natural water content plus its plastic limit to its plasticity indexD) liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index.

Q50. A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific gravity as 2.75. The criticai gradientat which quick sand condition occurs, is.• , ""CO B) " cOf\.} V.LJ v..J C) n '7,

V.IJ D) 1.00

Q51. If 1500 g of water is required to have a cement paste 1875 g of normal consistency, thepercentage of water is,A) 20% B) 25% C) 30% D) 35%

Q52. Concrete gains strength due toA) chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregatesB) evaporation of water from concreteC) hydration of cementD) All the above.

Q53. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded asA) very fine sand B) fine sand C) medium sand D) coarse sand

Q54. Wp and Wr are the weights of a cylinder containing partially compacted and fully compactedconcrete. If the compaction factor is 0.95, the workability of concrete isA) extremely low B) very low C) low D) high

Q55. Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water withA) Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicateB) Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminateC) Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferriteD) All the above.

Q56. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less thanA) 1I5th of mean dimension B) 2/5th of mean dimensionC) 3/5th of mean dimension D) 4/5th of mean dimension

-Q57. The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes itA) less liable to segregation B) more liable to segregationC) more liable to bleeding D) more liable for surface scaling in frosty weather

Q58. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, isA) ordinary Portland cement B) rapid hardening cementC) low heat cement D) blast furnace slag cement

Q59. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less thanA) 20.5 mm B) 30.5 mm C) 40.5 mm D) 50.5 rnm

Q60. Inert material of a cement concrete mix, isA) water B) cement C) aggregate D) none of these

Q61. Thickness of a pavement may be reduced considerably byA) compaction of soil B) stabilization of soilC) drainage of soil D) combination of all the above.

Q62. The total length of a valley formed by two gradients - 3% and + 2% curve between the twotangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6 m/secZ, for a design speed100 km ph, isA) 16.0 m B) 42.3 m C) 84.6 m D) none of these.

Q63. Design of flexible pavements is based onA) mathematical analysisC) a compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula

B) empirical formulaeD) none of these.

Q64. Maximum super-elevation on hill roads should not exceed~5% m7% q8% D) 10%

Q65. The type of transition curves generally provided on hill roads, isA) circular B) cubic parabola C) Lemniscate D) spiral.

Q66. For a comfortable travel on Highways, the centrifugal ratio should not exceedA) 0.10 B) 0.15 C) 0.20 D) 0.25

Q67. Volume of traffic which would immediately use a new road or an improved one when openedto traffic, is knownA) development trafficC) general traffic

B) current trafficD) normal traffic growth

Q68. The maximum comfortable retardation applied to moving vehicles, isA)' 3.42 m/sec/ B) 4.42 m/sec/ C) 5.56 m/sec/ D) 7.80 rn/sec''

Q69. Cement grouted pavement is classified asA) rigid pavement B) semi-rigid pavement C) flexible pavement D) none of these.

Q70. Floating gradients are generally providedA) along maximum gradients B) along minimum gradientsC) at summit curves D) at valley curves

Q71. Surge tanks are usedA) for storage waterC) as overflow valves

B) to increase the velocity in a pipelineD) to guard against water hammer.

Q72. As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, isA) 50 litres B) 85 litres C) 10? litres D) 135 litres. .

-Q73. In slow sland filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up toA) 60 mg/litre B) 75 mg/litre C) 100 gm/litre D) 150 mg/litre.

Q74. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must beA) nil B) 5 C) 10 D) 15

Q75. P.V.c. pipes can withstand pressure bead of water up toA) 25 m B) 50 m C) 75 m D) 100 m

Q76. The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended asA) 30 litres/person/year B) 25 Iitres/person/yearC) 30 litres/person/month D) 25 litres/person/month.

Q77. For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen is prescribedA) 3 ppm B) 4 ppm C) 5 ppm D) 10 ppm.

Q78. Self-cleansing velocity isA) velocity at dry weather flowD) velocity of water at flushingC) velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drainsD) velor.itv of water in a nressure filter.- / . -- - - "J - ..I.

Q79. Chlorination of water is done for the removal ofA) bacterias B) suspended solids C) sediments D) hardness.

Q80. In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of seweragesystem to be adopted isA) separate system B) combined system C) partially combined system D) none of these.

Q81. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, isknownA) Event flow scheduling techniqueC) Slotting technique for scheduling

B) Critical ratio schedulingD) Short interval scheduling.

Q82. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is knownA) Dummy B) Event C) Activity D) Contract.

Q83. A dummy activityA) is artificially introducedC) does not consume time

B) is represented by a dotted lineD) all the above.

Q84. Various activities ofa project, are shown on bar-charts byA) vertical lines B) horizontal lines C) dots D) crosses

Q85. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineerA) to concentrate his attention on critical activitiesB) to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activitiesC) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole projectD) all the above.

Q86. Critical path lies along the activities having total floatA) positive B) negative C) zero D) same.

. .Q87. Bar charts are suitable forA) minor works B) major works C) large projects D) all the Above

Q88. The first stage of a construction, isA) preparation of estimateC) initiation of proposal

B) survey of the siteD) preparation of tender

Q89. Pick up the correct statement from the following:A) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique, is event orientedB) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique is not event orientedC) Critical Path Method is event orientedD) Critical Path method is event oriented.

Q90. The three time estimates for the activities of the network shown in the given figure are shownabove their arrows. The earliest expected time for the event 4, is

.• '\ 1 ()ftJ 17

D\ 1AuJ •...,. D) None of these.

Q91. The slope of the outlet of 'P trap' below the horizontal is keptA) 8° B) 10° C) 12V D) 14°

Q92. The order of booking dimensions isA) Length, breadth, heightC) Height, breadth, length

B) Breadth, length, heightD) None of these.

Q93. As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per capita perminute, is takenA) I.RO litres for 5 to 10 usersC) 1.35 for 20 users

B) 1.20 litres for 15 usersD) All the above.

Q94. Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimateA) Wall thickness B) Room area C) W.e. area D) Courtyard area.

Q95. Brick walls are measured in sq. m if the thickness of the wall isA). 10 ern B) 15 ern C) 20 em D) None of these

Q96. The minimum width of a septic tank is takenA) 70 cm B)75cm C)80cm D) 90 cm

Q97. The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar isA) 2.5 sq m B) 4.0 sq m C) 6.0 sq m D) 8.0 sq m

Q98. For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 em thick floor, the quantity of cement required, IS

A) 0.90 rrr' B) 0.94 rrr' C) 0.98 m3 D) 1.00 rrr'

Q99. The floor area includes the area of the balcony up toA) 100% B) 75% C) 50% D) 25%

QI00. While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unitisA) metre for length B) Cubic metre for areaC) Square metre for volume D) Litre for capacity

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Government Polytechnic Diglipur

A & N Administration

Written test for the post of Lecturer Civil, CSE and Maths

Exam center: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Institute of Technology, Pahargaon, Port Blair

Date of Exam: 15/06/2018

Format for claims and Objections:

S.No Name of the Post Name of the candidate

Ro

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Qu

esti

on

no

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Op

tio

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Justification

1

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The filled format to be sent through mail to gpdiglipur@gmail.com