Malpeli Revision

300 - 400

300. Carbohydrate loading would most benefit the following athlete:

A: 1500 m swimmer

B: 3000m runner

C: Triathlete

D: Pole vaulter

ANSWER:C: Triathlete

301. Reactivity is:

A: Where physical activity is undertaken

B: The level at which a measure influences physical activity behaviour

C: Completing vigorous activity that makes you “huff & puff”

D: None of the above

ANSWER:B: The level at which a measure influences physical activity behaviour

302. Validity refers to:

A: Tests/measures that aren’t affected by memory limitations

B: How accurate a measure is

C: The ability of a test/measure to be repeated under similar conditions

D: The degree to which a test/measurement measures what it sets out to measure.

ANSWER:

D: The degree to which a test/measurement measures what it sets out to measure.

303. The following is an example of an subjective measure of physical activity:

A: Heart rate monitoring

B: Accelerometry

C: Physical activity diary

D: None of the above

ANSWER:C: Physical activity diary

304. An advantage of using heart rate monitoring to assess physical activity is:

A: Provides a strong link to energy expenditure

B: Enables quick and easy data collection

C: Provides a good description of several dimensions of physical activity

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

305. Stage 5 of the “Stages of Change” model is known as the Maintenance stage which:

A: Allows participants to temporarily “drop out” of physical activity for a period of time

B: Sees performers incorporating physical activity as part of their lifestyle and meeting the guidelines for at least six months

C: Can only be experienced when Stage 4 has been met for at least 3 months

D: None of the above

ANSWER:B: Sees performers incorporating physical activity as part of their lifestyle and meeting the guidelines for at least six months

306. The following is not an example of a “constructed environment”

A: A skate park next to a school

B: A synthetic walking/running track placed around a shopping centre

C: A shade sail placed above the sand pit in the primary school

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

D: None of the above

307. When critiquing strategies used at the population level to promote physical activity, the following must be considered:

A: Educational programs to support social and environmental changes

B: Removal of impediments

C: Tailoring of programs

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

308. The most effective school based setting physical activity promoting strategies:

A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits

B: Ensure only P.E. teachers take sporting teams

C: Make P.E. uniforms compulsory

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A: Have Department of Education printed material outlining physical activity benefits

309. A benefit associated with having a physically active group of office workers include:

A: Reduced KPI’s (Key Performance Indicators)

B: Increased absenteeism

C: Reduced staff turnover

D: Increased amount of overtime completed

ANSWER:

C: Reduced staff turnover

310. During sub-maximal activity lasting 20 minutes, most of our energy comes from:

A: Fats

B: Carbohydrates

C: Proteins

D: A combination of all of the above

ANSWER:

B: Carbohydrates

311. The ATP-PC system has:

A: High yield

B: High rate

C: Low yield

D: Infinite PC sources

ANSWER:

B : High rate

312. The energy system interplay is best described when:

A: ATP is released from the ATP-PC system, then the LA system and lastly the aerobic system

B: The three energy systems collectively supply ATP to working muscles in a sequential pattern

C: The three energy systems are used during play rather than rest

D: ATP is supplied by all 3 energy systems, but one produces more ATP than the others

ANSWER:D: ATP is supplied by all 3 energy systems, but one produces more ATP than the others

313. Once the lactate threshold is exceeded, the following occurs :

A: The LA system becomes the major energy supplier

B: The PC system is able to replenish energy stores now that it is not being used and “rested”

C: Most ATP resynthesis occurs as a result of aerobic glycolysis

D: Hydrogen ions rapidly accumulate

ANSWER:

D: Hydrogen ions rapidly accumulate

314. Steady state occurs when:

A: Oxygen consumption reaches a sub-maximum level

B: The Cori cycle starts to break down built up lactic acid and convert it to glycogen to be reused

C: The cardiovascular and respiratory systems are in equilibrium

D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

ANSWER:

D: Oxygen supply is equal to oxygen demand

315. The most likely cause of fatigue for a 400m sprinter (athletics) is:

A: PC depletion

B: Lowered muscle Ph

C: Accumulation of muscle lactate

D: Lactic Acid accumulation

ANSWER:

C: Accumulation of muscle lactate

316. Following a 30 second interval sprint (max intensity) how long would it take to replenish fuel stores used in the work period?

A: 10 seconds (1: 1 work : rest ratio)

B: 100 seconds

C: 200 seconds

D: 300 seconds

ANSWER:

C: 200 seconds

317. Males exhibit greater aerobic capacity than females due to:

A: Greater participation in physical activity

B: Having larger lung capacities

C: Having a higher percentage of slow-twitch fibres

D: Increased alveolar cross sectional area

ANSWER:

B: Having larger lung capacities

318. Anaerobic power is a measure of:

A: The PC system’s ability to produce energy

B: The LA system’s ability to produce power

C: The alactacid system’s ability to produce power

D: The anaerobic energy systems ability to provide energy via their pathways

ANSWER:

D: The anaerobic energy systems ability to provide energy via their pathways

319. The most important fitness component for a diver performing a double somersault with half twist is:

A: Reaction Time

B: Agility

C: Speed

D: Aerobic Power

ANSWER:

B: Agility

320. The purpose of conducting a games analysis is to:

A: Determine the different playing zones

B: Allocate votes for elite performers

C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

C: Decide on how to best prepare / train for the actual game

321. The most appropriate fitness tests on offer are:

A: Reliable

B: Valid

C: Specific

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

D: Specific

322. The most specific test to assess the agility of a football player would be the:

A: Illinois Agility Run

B: Semo Agility Test

C: Harvard Twist Touch Test

D: Margarita Agility Run

ANSWER:

A: Illinois Agility Run

323. Males would be expected to score better on the vertical jump test than females because they:

A: Train more than femalesB: Possess greater ankle flexibility and can generate greater push off as a result of thisC: Play more football than girls and this is an action specific to the gameD: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region

ANSWER:D: Have greater cross sectional area in the quadriceps/hamstring region

324. Plyometric training best develops:

A: Power

B: Strength

C: Speed

D: Type IIIB Fibres

ANSWER:

A: Power

325. The recommended frequency for athletes seeking to maintain aerobic capacity is:

A: 2 times / week

B: 3 times / week

C: 4-5 times / week

D: 7 times / week

ANSWER:

A: 2 times / week

326. Any “plateau” during a training program indicates:

A: The athlete needs to be thinking about “tapering”

B: Overtraining is occurring

C: A “steady State” has been achieved

D: A period of adaptation

ANSWER:

D: A period of adaptation

327. The best example of short interval training listed below is:

A: 10 x 10 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:6

B: 2 x 20 x 100 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:2

C: 2 x 2 x 1,000 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:1

D: 2 x 20 x 10,000m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:10

ANSWER:

A: 10 x 10 x 10 m runs with a w:r ratio of 1:6

328. “Fartlek” training :

A: Can be overloaded by reducing the work : rest ratio

B: Is also knows as “playing with speed”

C: Requires rest periods to restore PC and remove H+ ions

D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals

ANSWER:

D: Combines continuous activity with short bursts of intense work at regular intervals

329. Plyometrics are exemplified by the following group of activities:

A: Skipping, max push ups in 60 seconds, running on the spot for 30 seconds (max intensity)

B: Alternating upper body with lower body parts for consecutive activities

C: 10 x 20 m sprints every 45 seconds followed by 15 x 15m sprints every 30 seconds

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

D: None of the above

330. Plyometrics can be overloaded by:

A: Increasing the weight and decreasing the repetitions

B: Decreasing the weight and increasing the repetitions

C: Increasing the rest and decreasing the intensity

D: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity

ANSWER:

D: Making the muscles to contract more forcefully by jumping higher or performing at a higher intensity

331. In the following exercise prescription for resistance training ~ 4 x 8 x 80kg, the 8 represents:

A: Repetitions

B: Sets

C: Resistance

D: The day of the week training is undertaken

ANSWER:

A: Repetitions

332. The following is most likely to result from participation in an aerobic training program lasting 18+ mths:

A: Increased capillarisation

B: Decreased diastolic blood pressure

C: Decreased cardiac output

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A: Increased capillarisation

333. Increased myoglobin levels resulting from aerobic conditioning / training assists in:

A: Transporting more oxygen around the vascular system

B: Preventing the myoglotic stretch reflex (less slow twitch muscle trains)

C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

D: None of the above

ANSWER:C: Moving more oxygen from cell membranes to the mitochondria

334. Aerobic training results in decreases to the systolic blood pressure at sub-maximal intensities due to:

A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels

B: Increasing LDL’s and reducing plaque build up on the inside of blood vessels

C: Reciprocal increases in diastolic blood pressure

D: All of the above

ANSWER:A: Improved elasticity of blood vessels

335. Aerobic training has the following effect on diaphragm oxygen consumption during sub-maximal intensities:

A: Decreases

B: Increases

C: Remains relatively unchanged

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

A: Decreases

336. Short interval training will result in the following chronic changes to fast twitch muscle fibres:

A: Increased “whiteness”

B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores

C: Increased triglyceride stores

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

D: None of the above

337. Continuous training will result in the following chronic changes to slow twitch muscle fibres:

A: Increased aerobic force capacity

B: Increased antioxidative enzyme stores

C: Increased contraction speed

D: Increased use of FFA’s

ANSWER:

D: Increased use of FFA’s

338. Short interval training will result in the following adaptations to lactic acid tolerance:

A: Decreased reliance of glucose as a fuel

B: Increased oxidative enzyme stores

C: Increased buffering ability

D: Decreased acid-base regulation

ANSWER:

C: Increased buffering ability

339. Training with moderate intensity/loads and high repetitions will generally result in greater changes to:

A: Type IIB fibres

B: Type IIA fibres

C: Type I Fibres

D: Type IA Fibres

ANSWER:

C: Type I Fibres

340. Massage assists recovery by:

A: Decreasing blood flow to the massaged area(s)

B: Increasing the amount of oxygen transported to vital organs

C: Increasing the rate of waste removal from the massaged area(s)

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

C: Increasing the rate of waste removal from the massaged area(s)

341. The most effective way of preventing overtraining is to:

A: Keep a training diary

B: Try to remember everything undertaken during a week of training

C: “Listen” to what your body is saying to you by the way it feels

D: Employ a personal trainer

ANSWER:

A: Keep a training diary

342. Injury risk management systems include:

A: Regular playing equipment checks

B: Pre-game examination of playing fields

C: Keeping a safe distance between players and spectators

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

D: All of the above

343. Coaches might contribute to risks associated with the team they are training by:

A: Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team

B: Ensuring first aid kits are available at every training session

C: Enlisting the support of non paid qualified staff

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A: A Encouraging players to play with “niggling injuries” for the benefit of the team

344. Risk management procedures extend beyond team management to facilities and equipment. The following must be taken into consideration in this area:

A: The correct ratio of medical staff to players in the team

B: Players are kept up to date with latest injury prevention trends

C: Ensuring coaches regularly “upskill”

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

D: None of the above

345. The following is a practical example of how AFL football teams try to prevent injuries

A: Ensuring players participate in accredited courses so they’ll have a job when they finish playing

B: Players wearing helmets to avoid serious head injuries (similar to NFL footballers)

C: Using new pre-season training methods that have worked with in the USA for NFL footballers but haven’t been trialled here

D: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries

ANSWER:D: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries

346. The following strategy can assist enhancing performance by building or maintaining confidence:

A: Using cue words regularly that are spoken to self or called out

B: “Walking the talk”

C: Faking an injury to upset an opponent’s concentration

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A: Using cue words regularly that are spoken to self or called out

347. The following drink is associated with the slowest rates of absorption and hydration:

A: Hypotonic

B: Hypertonic

C: Hypatonic

D: Hyputonic

ANSWER:

A: Hypertonic

348. Minerals are important in assisting performance PB’s by:

A: Assisting in water loss to help with thermoregulation

B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function

C: Adding to the amount of ATP that can be produced

D: Ensuring the Essential Electrolytic Balance (EEB) is maintained

ANSWER:

B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function

349. EPO is often taken by endurance athletes despite being banned by WADA, in an effort to:

A: Increase oxygen delivery to muscles

B: Increase plasma volume

C: Increase RBC’s

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

D: All of the above

350. An example of a medico-legal issue being raised by athletes taking legal performance enhancers such as painkillers is:

A: Performers having a neural block that spreads beyond the affected area

B: Performers developing a addiction to the drugs

C: Athletes having an allergic reaction to the painkillers

D: All of the above

ANSWER: D: All of the above

351. The best measure of physical activity levels occurring at a Primary School during recess and lunchtime would be:

A: SOFIT

B: SOPLAY

C: SOWOT

D: None of the above

ANSWER:B: SOPLAY

352. The “walking school bus” is an example of a :

A: School based setting

B: Multi-facetted strategy involving parents, teachers and students

C: Structured strategy

D: Government initiative aimed at increasing physical activity

ANSWER:

A: A school based setting

353. Anaerobic glycolysis results in the production of:

A: H+ ions

B: Carbon Dioxide

C: Quicker ATP than aerobic glycolysis

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

354. As exercise intensity increases, there is greater contribution from:

A: Glycogen

B: Fats

C: Proteins

D Triglycerides

ANSWER:A: Glycogen

355. Lactic acid removal occurs quicker when:

A: An active recovery is conducted

B: Contrast bathing is used

C: At sea level compared to higher altitudes

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

356. Protein is not commonly called upon to resynthesize ATP because:

A: It requires large amounts of oxygen to be broken down

B: It results in “muscle meltdown”

C: It runs out quickly

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A: It requires large amounts of oxygen to be broken down

357. Fatigue is caused by many factors, but the predominant one in a 100m sprint lasting 9.7 seconds would be:

A: Lactic acid build up

B: Glycogen phosphorylation

C: Phosphocreatine depletion

D: Redistribution of blood to skin surface

ANSWER:C: Phosphocreatine depletion

358. During dehydration:

A: Blood plasma levels drop

B: Heart rate increases

C: Less oxygen travels to working muscles

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

359. Following endurance training, glycogen restoration can be accelerated by:

A: Consuming low GI foods within the first 30 – 45 minutes during recovery

B: Consuming high GI foods within the first 30 – 45 minutes during recovery

C: Consuming 100g carbohydrate for each kilogram of body mass

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

B: Consuming high GI foods within the first 30 – 45 minutes during recovery

360. Local muscular endurance is best exemplified in the following:

A: A Y 11 student completing 35 push ups in 60 seconds

B: A Y11 student doing 3 x 100m sprints every 2 minutes

C: A Y12 student doing 125 push ups without stopping

D: A Y12 student completing the 60 second push up test after feeling tired in the arms after 35 seconds.

ANSWER:D: A Y12 student continuing in the 60 second push up test after feeling tired in the arms after 35 seconds.

361.The “Cybex” system is an example of an isokinetic dynamometer that can be used to assess muscle weaknesses at any point in a range of motion. It is also used to measure:

A: Muscular Power

B: Muscular Endurance

C: Muscular Strength

D: Muscular fatigue

ANSWER:

C: Muscular Strength

362. The following is an example of a low stress / low impact plyometric exercise:

A: Skipping without a rope

B: Clap push ups

C: Triple jumping

D: Tuck jumps

ANSWER:

A: Skipping without a rope

363. Which one of the following interval sprints would best train the lactic acid system?

A: 8 x 50m sprints every 30 seconds (max intensity)

B: 8 x 30m sprints every 50 seconds (85% max intensity)

C: 3 x 80m sprints every 180 seconds (max intensity)

D: 3 x 80m sprints every 180 seconds (85% max intensity)

ANSWER:

A: 8 x 50m sprints every 30 seconds

364. Long distance athletes are able to train more frequently than power athletes because:

A: More catabolic processes are in place

B: More anabolic processes are in place

C: Less loads are placed on body systems and hence quicker recovery is possible

D: Less build up of metabolic by-products

ANSWER:

C: Less loads are placed on body systems and hence quicker recovery is possible

365. An Olympic gymnast would be able to develop the greatest flexibility by using the following type of stretching:

A: PNF

B: SAS

C: Ballistic

D: PAS

ANSWER:

C: Ballistic

366. Following 2 years of aerobic training, the following respiratory adaptation would be evident:

A: Decreased alveolar volume (AV)

B: Increased alveolar surface area

C: Decreased resting heart rate

D: Increased stroke volume (SV)

ANSWER:

B: Increased alveolar surface area

367. Plyometric training conducted over an 18 month period will result in:

A: Increased size and strength of connective tissues

B: Increased motor unit recruitment at maximal efforts

C: Increased nerve-impulse transmission

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

368. The law of diminishing returns is helpful in explaining the :

A: Rapid gain in fitness components at the start of a training program

B: Way elite athletes find it difficult to experience large performance gains after years of training

C: Oxygen diminishing during recovery

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

B: Way elite athletes find it difficult to experience large performance gains after years of training

369. Short interval training will result in the following fast twitch fibre adaptations following 2 years of training:

A: Increased myoglobin

B: Increased mitochondria

C: Increased capillarisation

D: Increased PC stores

ANSWER:

D: Increased PC stores

370.

ANSWER:D: All of the above

371. Overtraining is characterised by:

A: Insomnia

B: Increased resting heart rate

C: Decreased motivation levels

D: All of the above

ANSWER:D: All of the above

372. An active recovery is best recommended following a:

A: 100m sprint

B: 400m swim

C: Hydrotherapy session

D: Plyometric session

ANSWER:

B: 400m swim

373. The oxygen debt can be increased by:

A: Performing an active recovery

B: Using a hyperbaric chamber

C: Increasing venous pooling

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A: Performing an active recovery

374. Osteitis pubis is an overuse injury that is occurring with greater frequency amongst AFL players. The risk of this side-lining players could be minimised by:

A: Periodisation

B: Wearing footwear that is appropriate to ground “hardness”

C: Increasing player pain thresholds

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

B: Wearing footwear that is appropriate to ground “hardness”

375. Caffeine is taken by many athletes in an effort to improve their performance by:

A: Increasing the actin-myosin overlap

B: Stimulating release of noradrenaline

C: Mobilising fat for use instead of glycogen

D: Delaying dehydration

ANSWER:

C: Mobilising fat for use instead of glycogen

376. Risk management strategies are likely to include:

A: The different age levels of athletes

B: Players voluntarily wearing mouth guards during training sessions

C: Administrators taking out public liability insurance

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

A : The different age levels of athletes

377. Fitness testing is used to:

A: Identify player strengths and weaknesses

B: Monitor training programs

C: Motivate players

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

D: All of the above

378. The most specific fitness test available to assess the aerobic capacity of 3000 m runner would be the :

A: Beep test

B: Cooper’s 12 minute run

C: Harvard Step test

D: Cycle ergometer test

ANSWER:

B: Cooper’s 12 minute run

379. The following is not an example of an arousal promotion technique:

A: Elevated breathing rate

B: Biofeedback

C: Energising imagery

D: Visuo-motor behaviour rehearsal

ANSWER:

B: Biofeedback

380.Exogenous creatine monohydrate:

A: Increases intramuscular PC

B: Decreases muscle pH

C: Increases glycogen dependence

D: Decreases ATP reliance

ANSWER:

A: Increases intramuscular PC

381.Oxygen deficit occurs :

A: Whenever oxygen demand is greater than oxygen

B: Only at the start of exercise

C: During recovery as oxygen consumption returns to pre-exercise levels

D: When athletes train at high altitude

ANSWER:

A: Whenever oxygen demand is greater than oxygen

382. The following is an objective measure of physical activity:

A: Self-report

B: Direct observation

C: SOPLAY

D: GPS systems

ANSWER:

D: GPS systems

383. The following platform is effective in changing the physical activity levels of large population groups:

A: Reminder systems

B: Population programming

C: Mass media

D: Social programming

ANSWER:

C: Mass media

384.The following population groups are most at risk of not meeting the national physical activity guidelines:

A: People with disabilities

B: Racial majorities

C: People above 65 years of age

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

A: People with disabilities

385.Schools provide the strongest setting to change physical activity behaviours because:

A: Social influences can be structured during leisure activities

B: Students generally have good access to facilities

C: Activities can be incorporated into the curriculum

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

D: All of the above

386. The aerobic energy system has the greatest energy:

A: Phophorylation

B: Configuration

C: Yield

D: Rate

ANSWER:

C: Yield

387. During EPOC :

A: Oxygen demand exceeds oxygen supply

B: Oxygen transfuses into the mitochondria

C: Oxygen supply equals oxygen demand

D: None of the above

ANSWER:

D: None of the above

388. Analysis based on digital recording and statistical data is often the most effective because it:

A: Is the most cost-effective measure available

B: Is objective

C: Has two systems operating and if one fails the other is still OK

D: Can be reviewed, stored and referred to in the future

ANSWER:

D: It can be reviewed, stored and referred to in the future

389.The running based anaerobic sprint test (RAST):

A: Provides athletes and coaches with measurements of power and a fatigue index

B: Assesses the body’s ability to replenish PC in between each repetition

C: Is expensive because it needs specialist supervision

D: Is not appropriate for small field players such as badminton and squash

ANSWER:

A: Provides athletes and coaches with measurements of anaerobic power and a fatigue index

390. The main purpose of measuring physical activity at the population level is to :

A: Evaluate the effectiveness of large scale physical activity intervention programs

B: Identify the biological, sociological, psychological and environmental factors that influence physical activity

C: Study the relationship between physical activity and health conditions

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

D: All of the above

391. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?:

A: There is approximately ten times as much PC stored at the muscles as there is ATP

B: The ATP-PC system is anaerobic

C: The lactic acid system is anaerobic

D: During maximal exercise the rate of glycolysis can increase up to 100 times the rate experienced during rest

ANSWER:

A: There is approximately ten times as much PC stored at the muscles as there is ATP

392. The oxygen debt can be divided into two parts that occur simultaneously. The first rapid part is primarily involved in:

A: Converting lactic acid into glycogen

B: Restoring PC

C: Removing H+ ions

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

B: Restoring PC

393. The most specific type of circuit training is :

A: Individual load

B: Fixed load

C: Mixed load

D: Individual mixed time

ANSWER:

A: Individual load

394. Overload should only be applied:

A: At pre-determined times

B: When directed by a coach

C: When adaptations have occurred

D: When adaptations have occurred

ANSWER:

C:

395.

ANSWER:B: Greater emphasis on strengthening hamstring muscles during training to avoid knee injuries

396.

ANSWER:A: Self-talk using cue words that are instructional

397.

ANSWER:A: Hypotonic

398.

ANSWER:B: Maintaining an acid-base balance to ensure normal cellular function

399.

ANSWER:C: Hypertension

400.Hydrogen ions (H+):

A: Formulate the actin and myosin cross bridges during contractions

B: Accelerate ATP resynthesis

C: Disrupt glycolytic enzymes and slow the breakdown of glycogen

D: All of the above

ANSWER:

D : All of the above