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contents

Physics 1

Chemistry 77

Biology 138

Everyday Science 201

National Science Olympiad 257(Class 8 to 10)

Answers 296

1. A man is standing on the 8m long shadow of a 6m long pole. If the length of his shadow is 2.4 m, what is the height of the man? (a) 1.8 m (b) 1.6 m (c) 1.4 m (d) 2.0 m

2. Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body is based on the phenomenon of (a) Diffraction (b) Interference (c) Total internal reflection (d) Polarization

3. Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in (a) Space travel, surgery and telemetry (b) Surgery, magnetic levitation and telemetry (c) Space travel, surgery and magnetic levitaion (d) Space travel, magnetic levitation and telemetry

4. Consider the following statements: An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the 1. Filament wire is not uniform. 2. Bulb cannot be evacuated completely. 3. Wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures.

Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. At which one of the following positions shown in the diagram the height of the ocean tide will be maximum?

E

M 1

M 2

M 4

M 3

S Moon

’s orbit

Earth’s o

rbit

(a) M 3

(b) M 2

(c) M 1

(d) M 4

PHYSICS

2 Science I.Q Challenge

6. Household appliances are usually not connected in series because (a) Power consumption would be very much greater (b) A fuse would blow as soon as one appliance is used (c) Switching off an appliance would switch off the rest (d) The appliances would get damaged due to high current

7. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between (a) Jupiter and the Sun (b) Earth and the Moon (c) Earth and the Sun (d) Pluto and the Sun

8. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water in km/hr is (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) √4

9. The working principle of a washing machine is (a) Reverse osmosis (b) Dialysis (c) Centrifugation (d) Diffusion

10. Which one of the following is a vector quantity? (a) Energy (b) Pressure (c) Momentum (d) Work

11. The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because (a) The radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the

comet throwing its tail away from the sun (b) As the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the comet is attracted by

some star situated in the direction of its tail (c) As the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter mass of the comet

is pushed away due to the centrifugal force alone (d) The tail of the comet always exists in the same orientation

12. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean? (a) Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean (b) Indian Ocean has Monsoon drift (c) Indian Ocean is ‘half an ocean’ (d) Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity

13. The planet mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as shown in the given figure. The kinetic energy of mercury is greatest at the point labelled (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D

A B

C D

S

Physics 3

14. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the deflection of radio waves? (a) Mesosphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Ionosphere

15. When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake rises to the top, it will (a) Maintain its size (b) Decrease in size (c) Increase in size (d) Flatten into a dishlike shape

16. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from (a) Air to water (b) Water to glass (c) Diamond to glass (d) Air to glass

17. When a semiconductor is heated, its resistance (a) Remains the same (b) Decreases (c) Increases (d) May increases or decreases depending on the semiconductor

18. The alpha particle carries two positive charges. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of (a) Sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons (b) A nucleus of helium (c) Two protons (d) Two positrons as each positron carries a single positive charge

19. Domestic electrical wiring is basically a (a) Combination of series and parallel connections (b) Parallel connection (c) Series connection (d) Series connection within each room and parallel connection elsewhere

20. Consider the following statements: A person in a spaceship located half way between the earth and the sun will notice that the 1. Sky is jet black. 2. Stars do not twinkle. 3. Temperature outside the spaceship is much higher that on the

surface of the earth. Of these statements,

(a) 1 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 3 along is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

21. Cryogenic engines find applications in (a) Rocket technology (b) Frost-free refrigerators (c) Sub-marine propulsion (d) Researches in superconductivity


22. Optical fibre works on the principle of (a) Scattering (b) Refraction (c) Total internal reflection (d) Interference

23. A thief running at 8 km/hr. is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be (a) 10 minutes (b) 6 minutes (c) 2 minutes (d) 3 minutes

24. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low (a) Pressure (b) Velocity (c) Temperature (d) Density

25. An air bubble in water will act like a (a) Concave mirror (b) Convex lens (c) Convex mirror (d) Concave lens

26. An electric current is the rate of flow of electric charges and it is measured in volts. (a) In this statement, the first part is true and the second part is false (b) True (c) False (d) First part is false, second part is ture

27. Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the earth? (a) Buddhagupta (b) Varahamihira (c) Aryabhatta (d) Brahmagupta

28. Suppose a rocketship is receding from the earth at a speed of 2/10th the velocity of light. A light in the rocketship appears blue to the passengers on the ship. What colour would it appear to an observer on the earth? (a) Yellow (b) Orange (c) Blue (d) Yellow-orange

29. In an electronic watch, the component corresponding to the pendulum of a pendulum clock is a (a) Diode (b) Transistor (c) Crystal oscillator (d) Balance wheel

30. A man jumped at a speed of 5 metres per second from a stationary boat and the boat moved off with the speed of 0.5 metre per second. How many times is the mass of the boat greater than that of the man? (a) 2.5 times (b) 4.5 times (c) 5.5 times (d) 10 times

Physics 5

31. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of a suitably cut diamond is that (a) It is very hard (b) It has a very high refractive index (c) It has a very high transparency (d) It has well-defined cleavage planes

32. The colour of a star is an indication of its (a) Distance from the earth (b) Luminosity (c) Distance from the sun (d) Temperature

33. A corked bottle full of water when frozen will break because (a) The volume of water increases on freezing (b) The volume of water decreases on freezing (c) The bottle contracts on freezing (d) Glass is a bad conductor of heat

34. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through (a) Water (b) Vacuum (c) Glass (d) Air

35. The colour of an opaque object is due to the colour it (a) Reflects (b) Refracts (c) Absorbs (d) Scatters

36. Which radioactive pollutant has recently drawn the attention of the public, due to its occurrence in the building material? (a) Radon (b) Thorium (c) Plutonium (d) Radium

37. The acceleration due to gravity of catastrophic earthquake will be (a) > 950 cm/sec 2 (b) > 750 cm/sec 2

(c) > 550 cm/sec 2 (d) > 980 cm/sec 2

38. The working of the quartz, crystal in the watch is based on the (a) Piezo-electric Effect (b) Johnson Effect (c) Photoelectric Effect (d) Edison Effect

39. Consider the figures of a metal ball and a metal ring given below: The metal ball can just pass through the hole of a metal ring formed out of a strip. When the ball is heated it gets stuck. But when the metal ring is heated,

Ball Ring


(a) The ball can still pass through it because the ring diameter expands on heating

(b) The ball gets stuck because the diameter of the hole decreases on expansion

(c) The ball will still pass through because the hole diameter does not change

(d) The ball will pass through because there is no change in the ring

40. The formation of brilliant colours in a thin soap film is a consequence of the phenomena of (a) Diffraction and dispersion (b) Multiple refraction and dispersion (c) Multiple reflection and interference (d) Polarisation and interference

41. Which one of the diagrams given below represents most closely the path of geostationary satellite in space?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

42. What is the increasing order of the wavelengths of the following colours? 1. Orange 2. Indigo 3. Yellow 4. Violet (a) 1, 3, 2 and4 (b) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4, 2, 3 and 1

43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. List I List II A Barometer 1. Used for Measuring altitudes and angles

in navigation and astronomy B Chronometer 2. Used for measurement of angular

distances between two digits C Sextant 3. Keeps very accurate time as the one that

is used to determine longitude at sea D Quadrant 4. Used for measuring atmospheric pressure

5. An instrument used in the diagnosis of pregnancy

Physics 7

A B C D (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 4 2 5 1 (c) 2 3 5 4 (d) 4 3 2 1

44. Which one of the following figures represents correct path of a ray of light through a glass prism?

(a)

45°

45° 90°

(b)

45°

45° 90°

45° 45°

(c)

45°

45° 90°

(d)

45°

45° 90°

45. In which one of the following places the ‘boiling point’ of water is the highest? (a) Nile delta (b) Mt. Everest (c) Dead Sea (d) Sunderban delta

46. Which one of the following will take place when a watch based on oscillating spring is taken to a deep mine? (a) It will indicate the same time as on earth (b) It will become fast (c) It will become slow (d) It will stop working

47. A body is attached to a spring balance suspended from a stand. The reading on the balance is 0.5 kg. The two together are detached from the stand and allowed to fall through a height. While falling the reading in the balance will be (a) More than 0.5 kg depending on the height (b) Less than 0.5 kg but not zero (c) Zero (d) 0.5 kg

48. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk (a) In the direction keeping the polestar to his left (b) In the direction opposite to the polestar


(c) In the direction facing the polestar (d) In the direction keeping the polestar to his right

49. Neap tides are produced in the first and third quarters of the Moon. Then, (a) The attractions of the Sun and the Moon are at right angles to each

other (b) The Moon and the Sun are in opposition with each other (c) The Moon and the Sun are in conjunction with the other planets (d) the Moon and the Sun are in quadrant position to each other

50. Photons have properties similar to that of (a) Both particles and waves (b) Particles (c) Waves (d) Neither particles nor waves

51. A passing motorcycle causes distortion or disturbance with reception of signal in radio and T.V. The cause of this is (a) The spark plug fitted in the engine produces electro-magnetic

signals due to sparking (b) The vehicle’s metal parts block/distort the radio waves (c) the intense sound waves effect the small electronic devices of the

receptor (d) Modern motor-cycles are fitted with electric ignition system which

produces radio waves

52. Match the following: List I List II (Measuring Instruments) (Which messure)

A. Anemometer 1. Motor Power B. Tachometer 2. Wind speed C. Dynamometer 3. Revolutions per minute D. Barometer 4. Atmospheric pressure

5. Current from a dynamo A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 1 3 5 4 (d) 1 3 5 2

53. The path of Halley’s comet in its orbit around the sun is (a) Elliptical (b) Hyperbolic (c) Parabolic (d) Circular

54. An instrument measures the voltage of 50 Hz sinusoidal current as 220V. The mean average voltage of the sinusoidal current is (a) 220 V (b) 2√2 V

rms

(c) Zero (d) 200/√2 V

Physics 9

55. The speed of revolution of the earth in its orbit round the sun is (a) Greatest when the earth is farthest from the sun (b) Greatest when the earth is nearest to the sun (c) Same throughout the year (d) Least when the earth is nearest to the sun

56. On a half-moon night the angle between the moon and the sun when measured from earth is about (a) 90° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 180°

57. Superconductors are so called because they (a) Offer no resistance to conduction of electricity at low temperatures (b) Offer no resistance to conduction of heat at high temperature (c) Efficiently conduct heat from one hot body to another (d) Produce high temperatures while conduting electricity

58. In solar heaters, in which adequate sunlight can be used to provide safe drinking water in far off areas, the water to be purified is contained in a black tray. The lid of the tray is made of glass. Water gets converted into steam/vapours, which condense on the glass, slides to the sides/edges of the glass plates and drops into another container and is collected. The most appropriate shape of the glass lid could be

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

59. Weights of two pieces, one of gold and one of silver each weighing 100 gm were recorded on a spring balance. Then they were fully immersed in a liquid bath, by letting them hang through a light thread tied to the balance. Compare the recorded weights of the two pieces under that condition. Then (a) The weights of the two pieces will be equal (b) The silver piece will weigh more than the gold piece (c) The gold piece will weigh more than the silver piece (d) Nothing can be said without knowing the density of the liquid bath

60. A cubic metre of water at 0°C is solidified into ice. density of ice is 0.96 of water at 0°C.. Which of the following deductions are true? 1. Water expands when solidified. 2. Ice will float in water at 0°C with half its volume above the surface. 3. Density of all liquids are higher than its density when solidified (a) 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2


61. The rainbow and the rainbow-like colours seen on a thin film of oil on a water surface are two phenomena. They are (a) Similar in nature and both are due to interference of light (b) Different in nature and rainbow is due to interference of light,

while colour of thin film is due to diffraction (c) Similar in nature and both are due to refraction of light (d) Different in nature and rainbow is due to refraction, while colour

of thin film is due to interference of light

62. The evidence for the rotation of stars comes mainly from the (a) Stark effect (b) Photoelectric effect (c) Doppler effect (d) Zeeman effect

63. Caldera is a feature associated with (a) Folding of rocks (b) Earthquakes (c) Volcanoes (d) Faulting of mountains

64. An electric current produces (a) Magnetic effect (b) Chemical effect (c) Heating effect (d) All the above

65. A boat filled with some stones is floating in water. If the stones are dropped into the water, the level of the water will (a) Remain the same (b) Decrease (c) Rise (d) Insufficient data to predict

66. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from (a) A rarer medium to a denser medium and the angle of incidence

is less than the critical angle (b) A denser medium to a rarer medium (c) A rarer medium to a denser medium (d) A rarer medium to a denser medium and the angle of incidence

is greater than the critical angle.

67. A chair is tilted about two of its legs and then left. It would return to its original position if (a) It is tilted through an angle of 60° (b) It centre of gravity falls within the base. (c) Its centre of gravity falls outside the base. (d) It will never regain its original position.

68. Which of the following is cold ocean current? (a) Kuro Shio (b) Gulf Stream (c) Labrador (d) None of these

69. Insolation refers to (a) Exposure to the rays of sun (b) Restraining the flow of water (c) Restraining the flow of electric current (d) Exposure to the light

Physics 11

70. Which of the following is true? (a) Both the light and sound waves exhibit interference (b) Light waves exhibit interference (c) Sound waves exhibit interference (d) Neither sound waves nor light waves exhibit interference.

71. ‘Black holes’ refers to (a) Collapsing object of high density (b) Bright spots on the sun (c) Holes occurring in heavenly bodies (d) Collapsing object of low density

72. Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to the (a) Gravitational pull (b) Revolution of earth (c) Rotation of earth (d) Uneven heating of earth

73. A small weight put on the pressure cooker increases the pressure of steam because (a) Density of metal is very high (b) Area of contact is very small (c) It is air tight (d) Pressure builds up irrespective of the weight placed

74. Let E D , E

P , E

S denote efficiency of a diesel, a petrol and a steam engine

respectively. Which of the following is correct? (a) E

D > E

P > E

S (b) E

D < E

P < E

S

(c) E P

> E D

> E S

(d) E P

< E S

< E D

75. The resolving power of an electron microscope is much higher than that of an ordinary light microscope because resolving power increases (a) If magnification is high and electronic lens provides much higher

magnification (b) If wavelength is short and light given by electrons has very short

wavelength. (c) If wavelength is short and wavelength of electron beam can be

made quite small by accelerating the electrons. (d) If magnification is high and the electron microscope has a battery

of lenses to provide high magnification.

76. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (a) Isohyet - A line joining places of equal rainfall (b) Isobar - A line joining places of equal

pressure (c) Isopleth - A line joining places of equal height (d) Isotherm - A line joining places of equal

temperature


77. An athlete claimed that his timing for a 100 m dash should be corrected because the starting signal was given by a gun fired from a point 10 m away from him and the timekeeper was standing close to the gun. The error due to this could be (in seconds) (a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.03

78. A boy carved his initials on the bark of a tree at a height of 2.5 m above the ground when the tree was 5 m tall. In 10 years the tree attained a height of 15 m. The initials carved by the boy 10 years ago will now be found (a) At 12.5 m above the ground (b) At 7.5 m above the ground (c) At 2.5 m above the ground (d) At 15.0 m above the ground

79. Consider the diagrams below:

A.

Moon Earth

Sun

B.

Moon Earth

Sun

The above diagrams show the positon of the Earth, the Moon and the Sun where (a) Both situations A and B explain the spring tides (b) Only situation B explains the spring tides. (c) Only situation A explains the spring tides (d) None of the above

80. If camera A has f 4.5 lens and camera B has f 2.8 lens, and the diameters of both the lenses are equal, then (a) A is better for phographing fast moving objects (b) Pictures taken by B will always be sharper (c) Pictures taken by A will always be sharper (d) B is better for photographing fast moving objects.

81. A balloon filled with air is weighed (W) so that it just floats in water as shown in the figure. When it is further pushed by a short distance in water, it will (a) Come back to its original position (b) Stay at the depth where it stands submerged (c) Sink to the bottom (d) Sink down a little further but will not reach the bottom

W

Physics 13

82. A free-floating astronaut A pushes another free-floating astronaut B in space. The mass of A is greater than that of B. The force exerted by the astronaut A on the astronaut B will be (a) Greater than the force exerted by B on A (b) Equal to the force exerted by B on A (c) Equal to zero (d) Less than the force exerted by B on A

83. On the Moon, astronauts inflate a rubber balloon with hydrogen gas and release it at a height of 2 metres.The balloon will (a) Remain at the height of 2 metres (b) Go upwards (c) Fall down (d) First go up and finally come down

84. If S denotes sound energy, E denotes electrical energy, M denotes magnetic energy, the correct representation of recording and reproduction in an audio tape recorder is (a) E → M → E → S (b) S → E → M → E → S (c) E → S → M → S (d) S → M → E → M → S

85. The phenomenon of mirage is due to (a) Total internal reflection (b) Change in the refractive index of air with the change in temperature (c) Increased absorption of light by air at higher temperature (d) Decreased absorption of light by air at higher temperature

86. Which portion of the following figure shows increase in speed with increase in time?

(a) BC (b) AB (c) OA (d) CD

87. Which of the following groups of instruments is required to have communication line between two television relay centres? (a) Microwave link, booster relay, satellite (b) Radio telescope, microwave link, booster relay, telephone (c) Microwave link, telephone, booster relay, satellite (d) None of the above


88. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 0.166 times than that on the earth. A man weighing 60 kg on earth would weigh ......... kg on moon. (a) 60 kg (b) 30 kg (c) 16.6 kg (d) 10 kg

89. Resistance of a 100 watt bulb is R 1

and that of a 60 watt bulb is R 2 .

Which of the following is correct? (a) R

1 /R

2 = 1 (b) R

1 /R

2 < 1

(c) R 1 /R

2 > 1 (d) Data is inadequate

90. Distribution of electric power from one place to another is done at high A.C. voltage because (a) Electricity spreads in very short time (b) Stealing of electric wires is prevented (c) Wastage of electricity is minimised (d) It adds brightness

91. Seismic waves that vibrate perpendicular to the direction of their path (a) Spread on the surface of the earth (b) Travel through the solid as well as other parts of the earth (c) Travel through the solid parts of the earth only (d) None of the above

92. High tides at antipodes are caused due to (a) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun (b) Gravitational pull of the sun (c) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun (d) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun and the

moon

93. Atmospheric temperature increases at the higher altitudes due to (a) Conduction (b) Radiation (c) Convection (d) Inversion

94. A small wooden block is floating in a tub of water. The water is gradually heated. The volume of the wooden block visible above the water level (a) Fluctuates (b) Decreases (c) Increases (d) Remains the same

95. If a toy boat in a tank sinks, the level of water will (a) Fluctuate (b) Decrease (c) Increase (d) Remain the same

96. Black hole (a) Absorbs all the radiation that fall on it (b) Converts UV/radiations to infra-red radiations (c) Does not emit any radiations (d) Is an imaginary concept in Physics

Physics 15

97. To increase the voltage of alternative current, we can use (a) Inverter (b) Transformer (c) Capacitor (d) Rectifier

98. In the given figure, if P is a point of the source of light, R is retina and L is the lens of the eye, the person having such condition of his eyes is suffering from

(a) Hypermetropia (b) Myopia (c) Cataract (d) Night Blindness

99. Inside a hollow charged spherical conductor, the electric field is found to be (a) Proportional to the distance from the centre (b) A function of the area of the sphere (c) Zero (d) A function of the charge density of the sphere

100. Measons are found in (a) γ-rays (b) Cosmic rays (c) X-rays (d) None of these

101. State the chronological order in which the following events took place: 1. Launching of APPLE 2. Launching of Rohini 3. Antarctica expedition 4. Indian cosmonaut (a) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 (b) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 (c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 (d) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

102. Study the frequency of the following electromagnetic radiations and select the correct relationship: 1. Infra-red 2. Microwave 3. Ultra-violet (a) 3 > 2 > 1 (b) 3 > 1 > 2 (c) 1 > 2 > 3 (d) 2 > 3 > 1

103. When does a gas behave like perfect gas? (a) At high pressure and high temperature (b) At low pressure and low temperature (c) At high pressure and low temperature (d) At low pressure and high temperature


104. Ball-bearings are used to reduce the friction by (a) Applying lubricants to the balls used (b) Increasing the area of contact with the use of metallic balls (c) Reducing the area of contact with the use of metallic balls (d) None of the above

105. Microphone is a device in which the (a) Electrical energy is converted into sound waves directly (b) Sound waves are directly transmitted (c) Sound waves are converted into electrical energy and then

reconverted into sound after transmission (d) Amplification is not required at all

106. Radio waves travel with a speed of (a) 3 × 10 8 m/sec (b) 3 × 10 7 m/sec (c) 3 × 10 6 m/sec (d) 3 × 10 9 m/sec

107. If the distance that a radio wave can travel in the time of one complete cycle is 10 metres, then the frequency of the radio wave in cycles per second is (a) 3 × 10 9 Hz (b) 3 × 10 6 Hz (c) 3 × 10 8 Hz (d) 3 × 10 7 Hz

108. The centre of gravity of the floating ship (a) Coincides with the metacentre (b) Lies below the metacentre (c) Lies above the metacentre (d) None of the above

109. Who in 1939 suggested the name meson for middle-weight particles? (a) Abraham Pais (b) Homi J. Bhabha (c) Hideki Yukawa (d) C. Anderson

110. 2 December 1942 is known for (a) The formation of the Big Bang theory (b) The activation of the first operational nuclear reactor (c) The creation of the first controlled chain reaction (d) The development of the first thermonuclear device

111. “Sun is the central body around which the earth and other planets revolve.” Who propounded this idea? (a) Tycho Brahe (b) Nicolaus Copernicus (c) Johannes Kepler (d) Epicurus

112. ‘Moving particles have wave characteristics’ was the idea first proposed by (a) Arnold Sommerfield (b) Victor de Broglie (c) Erwin Shroedinger (d) Max Born

Physics 17

113. ‘Electrons revolve round the nucleus in well-defined orbits, like planets revolve round the sun’ was the brainchild of (a) Arnold Sommerfield (b) Max Born (c) Ernest Rutherford (d) Niels Bohr

114. “No two electrons in an atom have all the four quantum numbers the same” is the concept behind the (a) Principle of mass-energy equivalence (b) Uncertainty principle (c) Exclusion principle (d) Principle of coincidence

115. One Ångström is equal to (a) 10 8 m (b) 10 –10 m (c) 10 –8 m (d) 10 10 m

116. The S.I. unit of magnetic field strength is (a) Gauss (b) Oersted (c) Gilbert (d) Ampere per metre

117. Which of the following does not represent the unit of electrical conductance? (a) Ohm –1 (b) Mho (c) Siemens (d) Ohm/m

118. ‘Becquerel’ is the unit to measure (a) Illuminance (b) Absorbed dose (c) Activity of a radionuclide (d) Specific energy imparted

119. The reciprocal of the impedance of an electric current is (a) Admittance (b) Susceptance (c) Conductance (d) Reactance

120. ‘Rem’, the unit dose of lonizing radiation, is an acronym where r stands for roentgen, e stands for equivalent. What does m stand for ? (a) Mass (b) Man (c) Measure (d) Metre

121. ‘C’ is the symbol for the unit of (a) Electric charge (b) Electric capacitance (c) Electric current (d) Electric conductance

122. ‘Z’ is not (a) Atomic number (b) Impedance (c) Zeta potential (d) Partition function

123. A photodiode is symbolised by the graphic


(a) (b)

(c) (d)

124. According to Newtonian mechanics, I. Mass is a quantitative measure of a body’s inertia. II. Mass is a measure of the attraction of one body to another. III. Inertial and gravitational masses are equivalent. IV. Mass is invariant. Which combination is correct? (a) I, II and IV only (b) I, II and III only (c) I, III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV

125. Two fully blown balloons are suspended as shown in the diagram. A stream of air is passed in between the balloons. What will happen to the balloons? (a) They will remain as they are (b) They will go apart (c) They will come closer (d) They will go up

126. Consider the following situations: I. A car moves with uniform speed on a smooth level road. II. A body moves with uniform speed in a circular path. III. A labourer carries bricks on his head from one place to another on a smooth level road. Which combination justifies that the work is being done? (a) In all the cases (b) I and II only (c) II only (d) In none of the cases

127. A body floats in a liquid kept in a beaker. The whole system falls freely under the action of gravity. the upthrust on the body due to the liquid is (a) Equal to the weight of the body in air (b) Equal to the weight of immersed portion of the body (c) Equal to the weight of liquid displaced (d) Zero

128. Some mercury droplets coalesce to form a single big drop. The temperature of the big drop will (a) First decrease and then increase (b) Decrease (c) Increase (d) Remains the same

Physics 19

129. If impulse is (a) Infinity, the momentum of the body becomes infinite (b) Negative, the momentum of the body increases (c) Negative, the momentum of the body decreases (d) Zero, the momentum of the body becomes zero

130. In which of the following cases, the moment of inertia is greatest? I. A thin circular ring of radius R and mass M rotating about its

diameter. II. A cricular disc of radius R and mass M rotating about a direction

perpedicular to disc at its centre. III. A solid cylinder of radius R and mass M rotating about the axis

of cylinder. (a) III (b) II (c) I (d) Same in all the cases

131. The four basic forces in nature are I. Gravitational force II. Electromagnetic force III. Strong nuclear force IV. Weak nuclear force The relative magnitudes of these forces are in the order of (a) III > II > I > IV (b) III > II > IV > I (c) I > II > III > IV (d) III > I > II > IV

132. ‘Weight’ of a body may have the following attributes: I. It is the gravitational force acting on a body at the earth’s surface II. It is independent of the mass of the body III. The body is weightless during free fall. IV. It is different at different places on earth’s surface. (a) I, II and III only (b) I, III and IV only (c) I and III only (d) I, II, III and IV

133. The inward force required to keep a satellite moving a circular orbit is (a) Gravitational force (b) Centripetal force (c) Centrifugal force (d) Aerodynamic force

134. Three forces are in equilibrium, then each force is (a) Greater than the sum of the remaining two (b) Equal to the difference of the remaining two (c) Equal to the sum of the remaining two (d) Greater than the difference of the remaining two


135. The gravitational force with which a body is attracted towards the earth is (a) The same at all the places on eath’s surface (b) Minimum at the equator and miximum at the poles (c) Maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles (d) Independent of the place on the earth’s surface

136. Consider the following statements about friction: I. Friction is a kind of cohesive force. II. Friction is the force that cannot make a body move III. Friction is a dissipative force. i.e. it produces heat that is not

mechanical Which combination is not true? (a) III only (b) II only (c) I only (d) II & III

137. Read the following statements: I. A magnetic field is unable to penetrate into a superconductor. II. An electric field can be cut off by a screen of conducting material III. Gravitational field can be freely transmitted through all bodies Which statement is false? (a) III (b) II (c) I (d) None of these

138. What type of energy conversion takes place when a compressed spring is released? (a) Molecular energy to potential energy (b) Kinetic energy to potential energy (c) Potential energy to kinetic energy (d) Potential energy to molecular energy

139. In a solid, an unfilled vacancy in an electronic energy level is called (a) Hole (b) Majority carrier (c) Minority carrier (d) Electron

140. The rate at which energy is radiated by a body depends upon (a) The temperature of the surface (b) The area of the surface (c) The nature of the surface (d) All the given factors

141. When an electric current passes round a circuit consisting of two dissimilar metals, heat is either absorbed or liberated at a junction. This is known as (a) Kelvin effect (b) Seebeck effect (c) Peltier effect (d) Thomson effect

Physics 21

142. The direction of an induced electromotive force is always such as to oppose the cause that produces it. This is called (a) Neumann’s law (b) Lenz’s law (c) Biot-Savert law (d) Faraday’s third law of electromagnetic induction

143. Hydraulic brakes are based on (a) Dulong and Petit’s law (b) Pascal’s law (c) Pressure law (d) Dalton’s law of partial pressure

144. Imagine yourself to be swimming in the wire in the direction of the current and facing a magnetic needle, then the north pole of the needle is deflected towards your left hand. Which is this rule? (a) Ampere’s rule (b) Faraday right hand rule (c) Faraday left hand rule (d) Maxwell’s rule

145. The most persuasive evidence that favours the Big Bang theory is the (a) Existence of the cosmic microwave background radiations (b) Birth and death of stars (c) Presence of the blace holes in the universe (d) Hubble law

146. What is the name of the hypothetical theory that would unify all the fundamental forces of nature? (a) Grand unified theory (b) Unified field theory (c) Classical field theory (d) Super grand unified theory

147. A thermometer for measuring very low temperatures is called (a) Cryometer (b) Bolometer (c) Pyrometer (d) Platinum resistance thermometer

148. Name the device for detecting and measuring small amount of thermal energy: (a) Pyranometer (b) Pyrometer (c) Barretter (d) Bolometer

149. A simple pendulum in which the bob swings in a horizontal circle is called (a) Compound pendulum (b) Horizontal pendulum (c) Conical pendulum (d) Galitzin pendulum

150. An ellipsometer is an instrument for (a) Measuring stellar distance (b) Measuring the path of celestial bodies (c) Finding curvature of elliptical surfaces (d) Studying thin films on a solid surface


151. Auxometer is (a) A device for recording the elongation of a thin sheet by means

of a lever and smoked drum (b) An apparatus for measuring the magnifying power of an optical

system (c) An instrument for measuring the rate of flow of a gas (d) An instrument to measure the contraction of muscles

152. What is not true about evaporation? (a) Greater the surface area of the liquid, the quicker is the evaporation (b) Evaporation produces cooling (c) Evaporation takes place at all the temperatures (d) Evaporation is nothing but boiling at the highest temperature of

the liquid.

153. The decomposition of a beam of white light into its constituent colours is known as (a) Scattering (b) Dissemination (c) Dispersion (d) Angular dispersion

154. Specific orientation of electric and magnetic fields of electromagnetic wave is known as (a) Polarization (b) Electromagnetic induction (c) Interference (d) Electromagnetic separation

155. Standing waves and echoes are based on which acoustic phenomenon? (a) Diffraction (b) Polarization (c) Interference (d) Reflection

156. The science that treats sound generation and transmission by fluid flow is called (a) Acoustics (b) Hydrology (c) Hydraulics (d) Aeroacoustics

157. What is metrology? (a) The study of people’s influx to a metropolitan city (b) The study of earth’s atmosphere (c) The science of measuring (d) The study of meteors

158. The study of control and communications in complex electronic systems and in animals is known as (a) Cryogenics (b) Cybernetics (c) Robotics (d) Ergonomics

159. What is not true for a body executing simple harmonic motion? (a) The acceleration acts in a direction opposite to that of the

displacement

Physics 23

(b) The oscillations are periodic (c) The acceleration is independent of time (d) The restoring force is proportional to the displacement

160. In which of the following cases the observed frequency of sound waves will be greater than the actual frequency? (a) When the observer is moving in the same direction as that of

the source with the same speed (b) When the observer is moving towards a stationary source of

sound (c) When the source is moving away from a stationary object (d) When the observer and the source are moving away from each

other

161. The waves in which the particles of the medium are displaced along the direction of propagation is called (a) Longitudinal wave (b) Progressive wave (c) Stationary wave (d) Transverse wave

162. The shorter the wavelength of light (a) The easier it gets scattered (b) The greater is the speed of light (c) The smaller is the frequency (d) The greater is its intensity

163. RADAR makes the use of (a) Infra-red waves of shorter wavelengths (b) Radiowaves of very short wavelength (c) Radiowaves of very long wavelength (d) Ultraviolet waves of longer wavelengths

164. Among the following, what is the most important practical application of microwave? (a) Microwave oven (b) TV (c) Radar (d) Radioastronomy

165. Speed of sound wave is I. independent of pressure of the gas at constant temperature. II. directly proportional to the square-root of temperature in absolute

scale. III. inversely proportional to the square root of density of the gas

in which it passes. IV. increases due to the pressure of water vapours. Which combination is correct? (a) II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV


166. The natural frequency of vibration of a system is called (a) Eigentone (b) Eigenfunction (c) Period (d) Resonance

167. A white light OP passes through a prism, as such its components get refracted, as shown in the following diagram:

A B C D

P

O

The components A, B, C and D represent respectively: (a) Red, green, yellow, violet (b) Green, yellow, blue, orange (c) Blue, green, yellow, red (d) Red, yellow, green, blue

168. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another is known as (a) Specific charge (b) Charge (c) Potential difference (d) Nucleon interaction

169. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called (a) Exchange-thermal exchange (b) Thermal conductivity (c) Thermal capacity (d) Thermal convection

170. What is not true about paramagnetic substances? (a) When freely suspended in a uniform magnetic field, they align

themselves parallel to the magnetic field (b) The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic substances has a small

negative value (c) Paramagnetism is temperature dependent (d) They are feebly attracted by a magnet

171. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperature of having negligible resistance to the flow of an electric current is called (a) Superfluidity (b) Supercooled (c) Supercharging (d) Superconductivity

Physics 25

172. What is alpha-particle? (a) The nucleus of hydrogen atom (b) The nucleus of deuterium (c) A fast moving proton (d) The nucleus of helium atom

173. When a stream of alpha particles is sent through a thin metal foil, most of the particles penetrate the foil, because (a) Alpha particles are very penetrating (b) Alpha particles are positively charged (c) Alpha particles move with very high velocity (d) The bulk of the atom consists of empty space

174. Tritium is I. The heaviest isotope of hydrogen. II. The only isotope of hydrogen that is radioactive. II. Present in natural hydrogen in the ratio of one atom to 10 17 atoms. Which of the following combinations is correct? (a) II and III only (b) I and III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III

175. Nuclear force is communicated from one nucleon to another via a particle called (a) Pion (b) Muon (c) Kaon (d) Quark

176. What is not common to pion and kaon? (a) Both have anti-particles (b) Both have zero spin (c) Both are mesons (d) Both are stable particles

177. A collective name for nucleons and other elementary particles that decay into nucleons by the emission of mesons is (a) Baryon (b) Boson (c) Fermion (d) Hadron

178. Which is the brightest star visible from earth? (a) Sirius (b) Antares (c) Vega (d) Rigel

179. The dark areas on the sun produced by the most intense magnetic fields are called (a) Plages (b) Sun spots (c) Sundog (d) Prominences

180. The point at which a satellite launched from earth into lunar orbit is nearest to the surface of the moon is called (a) Pericynthion (b) Perihelion (c) Aphelion (d) Apocynthion


181. Following factors may be responsible for the colour of a star: I. The size of the star II. The distance of the star from the earth III. The surface temperature of the star Which combination is correct? (a) III only (b) II only (c) I only (d) I, II and III

182. The Big Bang took place some 20 billion years ago. How long after that the first stars began to form? (a) 1 billion years (b) 5 million years (c) 1 million years (d) 4 billion years

183. The upper-half of a convex lens is covered by a black paper, as shown in the following diagram: Which of the following statements is correct? (a) The lower-half of the image is

disappeared (b) The upper-half of the image is

disappeared (c) A complete image is formed

on the screen but with decreased intensity (d) Only the lower-half of the image is formed, but with increased

intensity

184. Supposing the earth suddenly contracts to half of its radius, what will be the length of the day? (a) 12 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 6 hours (d) No change

185. When a bullet is fired from a rifle, (a) The bullet has greater kinetic energy and greater momentum (b) The bullet has less kinetic energy but greater momentum (c) The bullet has less kinetic energy but more speed (d) The bullet has more kinetic energy, but momenta of bullet and

rifle are equal

186. Ball A moving with certain velocity strikes another ball B which is at rest. Ball B is three times heavier than ball A. After collision, ball B starts moving in forward direction with half the velocity of the initial velocity of ball A.

OBJECT

Physics 27

Ball A, after collision, will move with the same velocity (a) As that of ball B, but in forward direction (b) As before, but in backward direction (c) As before, but in forward direction (d) As that of ball B, but in backward direction

187. At what angle the two equal forces should exert on a particle simultaneously so that resultant force is equal to either of the two forces? (a) 120° (b) 90° (c) 60° (d) 180°

188. Electric currents with certain values are flowing in various branches of the following circuit: The value of current ‘I’ in the circuit is (a) 1.9 Ampere (b) 0.2 Ampere (c) Zero (d) 2.1 Ampere

189. Suppose (God forbid!) due to some reason, the earth expands to make its volume eight-fold. What you expect your weight to be? (a) Two-fold (b) One-half (c) One-fourth (d) Unaffected

190. The refractive index of glas with respect to air is 3/2 and that of water with respect to air is 4/3. What is the refractive index of glass with respect to water? (a) 9 : 8 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 8 : 9

191. A cube, a thin circular plate, and a sphere are made of the same metal and having the same mass and same volume. They are initially heated to the same temperature. when left in air at the room temperature, which of these bodies will cool fastest and slowest respectively? (a) The cube; the sphere (b) The circular plate; the cube (c) The circular plate; the sphere (d) The sphere; the circular plate

192. A shining metallic ball with a small black spot on its surface is heated to very high temperature and then quickly taken to a dark room. Then (a) Both appear equally bright (b) The spot appears brighter than the ball (c) The spot appears darker than the ball (d) Both are invisible in the dark room

193. A motor-cycle and a scooter are rotating about two adjacent roundabouts. The mass of the motor-cycle is four times the mass of the

2.1 A

2.1 A I


scooter, but it is circling with half the velocity of the scooter (the poor motor-cyclist must be an oldie!). Which round-abolut has bigger diameter? (a) The round-abouts are of equal diameters (b) The one around which the motor-cyclist is circling. (c) The one around which the scooterist is circling (d) The problem cannot be solved unless the inclinations to the verticle

of the vehicles are not given

194. He was a pioneer in the kinetic theory of gases. He contributed a lot to the fluid mechanics and the theory of vibrating strings. Who is this founder of mathematical physics? (a) Sir Isaac Newton (b) Daniel Bernoulli (c) James Clerk Maxwell (d) Cound Rumford

195. He was a professor of mathematics at St. Petersburg University, Prof. of anatomy and physics at the University of Groningen, and prof. of physics, anatomy and botany at the University of Basle. But he is most famous for what is known as ‘Bernouilli’s theorem’. Name the outstanding mathematician of a well-known Swiss family: (a) Johann Bernouilli (b) Jacob Bernouilli (c) Daniel Bernouilli (d) None of these

196. Who invented the thermionic valve? (a) John Ambrose Fleming (b) Owen Richardson (c) Lee de Forest (d) Philipp Lenard

197. Who enunciated the principle of equipartition of energy? (a) Ludwig Boltzmann (b) Joseph Stefan (c) Sir James Hopwood Jeans (d) James Prescott Joule

198. He introduced a triatomic theory of colour vision, was the first to observe ocular astigmatism, he proved that the accommodation of eye was affected by change of curvature of the crystalline lens, but most famous for his discovery of interference of light and for developing the wave theory of light. Who was this physician-cum-physicist? (a) Augustin Jean F. Fresnel (b) Humphrey Lloyd (c) Christiaan Huygens (d) Thomas Young

199. A cricketer lowers his hands while holding a catch because (a) The momentum decreases with time (b) The velocity decreases with time (c) The force decreases as time increases (d) It is a style of holding a catch

Physics 29

200. A chain of hydrogen bombs is being exploded everytime in the sun due to the fusion process, yet you do not hear the sound, because (a) The sound so generated is absorbed by various layers of the sun (b) The sound so generated dissipates away (c) The sun is very far away (d) The space between the sun and the earth is void

201. An astronaut feels weightlessness inside an artificial satellite, because (a) The satellite is in circular orbit so due to centripetal force the

astronaut feel so (b) The total mechanical energy of the satellite is negative (c) At that altitude the acceleration due to gravity is zero (d) He experiences no force

202. Why does a glass tumbler containing ice-cool drinks show droplets of water on its outer surface? (a) Water vapours present in the atmosphere condense to form dews

on it (b) This is due to the difference of temperatures between inside and

outside of the glass (c) Tiny holes between the glass molecules help the liquid to ooze

out (d) Difference in temperatures between ice-cool drinks and air outside

glass increases the relative humidity

203. Depression on sand is more when you are standing than when you are lying down, because (a) In standing position, for equal thrust, area is smaller so pressure

is more (b) In lying position, more area is involved so thrust is less and

pressure is more (c) Thrust is more in standing possition (d) Centre of gravity lowers down while lying down, so pressure is

more

204. A ladder is more apt to slip when you are high up on its rung than when you are just begin to climb. Why? (a) When you are high up, the moment of force tending to rotate the

ladder about its base increases, while in the latter case, the moment of the force is insufficient to cause slipping

(b) When you are high up, the ladder is in unstable, equilibrium (c) As you climb up, your potential energy increases (d) When you are high up, the centre of gravity of the system shifts

upwards so the ladder is unstable, while in the latter case the system is more stable


205. An empty vessel produces louder sound than a filled one because (a) The liquid in the filled vessel absorbs the vibrations of the liquid

molecules (b) The air molecules in empty vessel have greater amplitude and

hence greater intensity than liquid molecules in the filled vessel (c) The density of air is less than the density of liquid contained in

the vessel when filled (d) The kinetic energy of particles constituting the air column is greater

as compared to the kinetic energy of particles of liquid column

206. Compared to other liquids, why is mercury preferred as a barometric fluid? (a) Height of mercury barometer is smaller so it is more convenient

to handle (b) Mercury does not stick to the glass surface of barometric tube (c) Mercury shines so it is easier to take the observations (d) Coefficient of expansion of mercury is less than other liquids

207. Birds do not feel electric shock while sitting on a current-carrying uninsulated wires because (a) The current does not pass through the body as the claws of birds

are non-conducting (b) The resistance offered by the body of birds is very high (c) The feathers of birds act as an insulator and hence the current

does not pass through them (d) The potential difference between the two claws of birds is very

small

208. During severe winters when lakes are frozen, fishes still survive. Why? (a) The ice acts as an insulator and thus prevents low thermal currents

to reach the bottom (b) The bottom of the lake is not frozen (c) The fishes can withstand very low temperatures (d) The fishes remain in the state of hibernation

209. Why does a green leaf look green in day light? (a) It has a biological reason, i.e., photosynthesis (b) As compared to other colours, the green colour scatters more (c) It absorbs all the colours of white light except green which it

reflects (d) It reflects all the colours of white light except green, which it

absorbs

210. Why are tuning forks made with definite frequencies in the order 256, 288, 320, 341, 384, 426, 480, and 512? (a) These have been arbitrarily chosen as per international agreement (b) These numbers can be factorised easily

Physics 31

(c) These frequencies are set according to the diatonic scale (d) These frequencies are within the audible range of human ears

211. The current produces heat, then why is it that the lead wires carrying current are cold while the element of heater is hot? (a) The element of heater is hot due to its high resistance, while the

lead wires are cold due to its low resistance (b) The element of heater is made of nichrome which has a low

resistance as compared to the high resistance of lead wires, thus element draws more current

(c) The element of heater is thick so its resistance is small, hence more current flows through it than the leads

(d) Due to low resistance the power generated in heater’s coil is more, but is less in lead wires

212. Why does a ship made of steel float on water while an oil-pin of steel sinks down? (a) Density of sea water is greater and hence the ship floats (b) Owing to the large volume of ship, it displaces more water, so

upthrust is more (c) The ship contains large air pockets which help it to float smoothly (d) In case of pin, the pressure is more since the area of its tip is small,

so it sinks, but for ship the area of its base is more

213. Inside nucleus, protons are held together though they have the same charge. Why? (a) The strong attractive nuclear force far exceeds the electrostatic

force between the protons (b) Neutrons prevent them from repelling from each other (c) The electrostatic attractive force between an electron and a proton

is more than the electrostatic repulsive force between the protons

(d) Gluons are responsible for holding them together

214. In a telescope, why is the focal length of the objective lens large and that of the eye-piece small? (a) The distance between the objective lens and the eye-piece is the

sum of their focal lengths, and since the eye-piece is of small focal length, the objective lens should be of greater focal length

(b) This is essential to ensure a large magnification (c) Telescope is meant to see the distant objects, so objective lens

has to be of greater focal length to gather more light (d) The statement is true only for the astronomical telescopes

215. A resonance tube apparatus is employed to (a) Investigate the dependence of velocity of sound in air upon

temperature


(b) Verify the laws of vibrating strings (c) Study beats (d) Determine the velocity of sound in air

216. A potentiometer may be employed for I. Comparing the e.m.f.s of two primary cells II Comparing two small resistances III. Studying the variation in potential drop with the length of wire IV. Determining the internal resistance of a primary cell Which combination is correct? (a) II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV

217. In an experiment to measure the velocity of electrons, an electric field (E) and a magnetic field (B) are employed to produce zero deflection. Then (a) The two fields are parallel and the velocity is given by BE (b) The two fields are perpendicular and the velocity is given by

E/B (c) The two fields are parallel and the velocity is given by E/B (d) The two fields are perpendicular and the velocity is given by BE

218. What happens to an electron beam when a uniform magnetic field is applied at right angles to it? (a) The beam is deflected in a circular path (b) The beam is deflected in a parabolic path (c) The beam starts oscillating (d) The beam remains uneffected

219. In Thomson’s e/m experiment, (a) The uniform magnetic field is produced by a magnet (b) The electric and magnetic fields are parallel (c) The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular (d) The uniform magnetic field is produced by two parallel circular

current-carrying coils

220. In famous Millikan’s oil-drop method for determining the charge on an electron, the experimental measurements show that the oil-drops gain whole or integral number of charges, because (a) The charges are multiples of the smallest charge (b) The oil-drop is never stationary (c) The oil-drop falls with a terminal velocity (d) The oil drops are circular

Physics 33

221. Aston mass spectrograph is a device to measure the atomic masses of isotopes with great precision. Its principle consists in applying (a) Successfully first the magnetic field and then the electric field at

right angle to each other (b) Electric and magnetic fields simultaneously in perpendicular

direction (c) Electric and magnetic fields simultaneously and in parallel direction (d) Successfully first the electric field and then the magnetic field at

right angle to each other

222. The first husband-wife team to get the Nobel Prize for Physics was (a) Frederick Joliot-Irene Joliot-Curie (b) Pierre Curie-Marie Curie (c) Carl Cori-Gerty Cori (d) Gunnar Myrdal-Alva Myrdal

223. Antoine Henri Becquerel was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1903 for (a) Discovering spontaneous radioactivity (b) Diffraction of X-rays (c) Demonstrating the influence of earth’s magnetic field on its

atmosphere (d) Investigating the absorption of light by crystals

224. Which of the following books is not written by Werner Heisenberg? (a) Breakthrough (b) The Physical Principles of the quantum theory (c) Physics and Philosophy (d) Physics and Beyond

225. Though Albert Einstein did not get the Nobel Prize for his work on relativity theories, but the word ‘relativity’ has become synonym with Einstein. Which of the following books on relativity Einstein has written? I. The Theory of Relativity II. The Principle of Relativity III. The Meaning of Relativity IV. The Special Theory of Relativity V. Relativity: Special and General Theory The correct combination is (a) I and IV (b) III and V (c) III and IV (d) II and V

226. An outstanding book on the wave nature of light titled “An Introduction to the Study of Wave Mechanics” was published in 1930. Who was its author? (a) E.Shroedinger (b) A. Sommerfield (c) P.A.M. Dirac (d) Louis de Broglie


227. Eye surgery is one of the medical procedures in which laser technology has become an important aid. Who, among the following was the first to produce laser in 1960? (a) Nikolai Basov (b) Charles Towns (c) Theodore Maiman (d) Aleksandr Prochorov

228. A semiconductor device with both active and passive electronic elements diffused into a silicon wafer to form a functional circuit is called (a) Thin-film circuit (b) Integrated circuit (c) Hybrid circuit (d) Thick-film circuit

229. The Big Bang theory of the universe was developed in 1948 by (a) Hermann Bondi, Ralf Alpher, and Georg Gamow (b) Fred Hoyle, Robert Herman, and Thoman Gold (c) Georg Gamow, Hermann Bondi, and Thomas Gold (d) Georg Gamow, Ralph Alpher, and Robert Herman

230. According to the General Theory of Relativity, which among the following waves propagate outward from their source and stretch and shrink space and matter? (a) Cosmic rays (b) Electromagnetic waves (c) Gravitational waves (d) Acaustic waves

231. It is not a star but it emits tremendous amounts of radiation of all wavelengths, and is the most energetic of all the heavenly bodies in the universe. What is it? (a) Supernova (b) Pulsar (c) Quasar (d) Neutron star

232. The property of quarks that is like electronic charge but involves the strong force is called (a) Virtual charge (b) Leptonic charge (c) Hadronic charge (d) Colour charge

233. Name the latest theory of fundamental physics in which the basic entity is a one-dimensional object as against the ‘zero-dimensional’ points representing the elementary particles: (a) String theory (b) Supersymmetry (c) Symmetry (d) Superstring theory

234. The maximum distance that a light signal could have travelled since the birth of universe is called (a) Horizon distance (b) Linear distance (c) World line (d) Hawking distance

Physics 35

235. The hypothetical particle that moves faster than light is called (a) Tachyon (b) Chronon (c) Graviton (d) Tauon

236. The 1847 Joule’s experiment was aimed at (a) Determining the mechanical equivalent of heat (b) Determining the temperature for the maximum density of water (c) Investigating the heating effect of electric current (d) Investigating the internal energy of a gas

237. Which of the following statements about the laws of falling bodies is not correct? (a) The velocity acquired by a body falling freely from rest is

proportional to the time of its fall (b) The space traversed by a body falling from rest is proportional

to the square of the time (c) In vacuum, all bodies starting from rest fall with equal velocity (d) All the above statements are correct

238. Which of the following instruments is used for seeing details of celestial bodies? (a) Spectroscope (b) Periscope (c) Microscope (d) Telescope

239. The phenomenon of bending of light at the surface of separation of two media is called (a) Refraction of light (b) Reflection of light (c) Deflection of light (d) Absorption of light

240. A man standing at a distance of 1 metre from a mirror wishes to take the photograph of his image in the mirror. At what distance should he place his camera from the mirror? (a) 2 metres (b) 1 metre (c) 1/2 a metre (d) 4 metres

241. Why does the mercury column in the barometer fall rapidly before a severe storm? (a) It is due to the fall in atmospheric pressure (b) It is due to the rise in atmospheric pressure (c) It is due to decrease in humidity in air (d) It is due to the severe heat energy from the sun


242. Pyrheliometer is an instrument used for (a) Measuring high temperatures (b) Measuring solar radiations (c) Comparing the luminous intensity of the source of light (d) Measuring heat radiations

243. Diffusion is the process of (a) Rarefaction of particles (b) Movement of particles through a semipermeable membrane (c) Movement of particles from higher concentration to lower

concentration (d) Accumulation of particles on a solid surface

244. Safety fuse wire, used in electrical circuits, is made of a material having (a) High melting point (b) High resistance (c) Low melting point (d) Low specific heat

245. In a photographic camera fitted with a convex lens, which of the following types of images will be formed on the film? (a) Imaginary and erect (b) Inverted and real (c) Erect and real (d) The type of image formed will depend on the distance between the lens and the object

246. An object weighs less at the equator than at the poles because (a) The earth is almost flat at the equator (b) The force of gravity is less at the equator than at the poles (c) The force of gravity is more at the equator than at the pole (d) The equatorial radius of the earth is less than the polar radius

247. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Air escaping from a punctured tyre feels cold (b) When a gas under high pressure is permitted to expand into a

region of low pressure, it gains in temperature (c) The reading on a thermometer immersed in boiling water varies

as the heat increases or decreases above the boiling point (d) None of the above statements is correct

248. All the following statements are correct, except (a) A body is said to be negatively charged when it has got some

extra electrons (b) When a body is charged positively, some electrons escape

Physics 37

from it (c) The presence of moisture in the air reduces the conductivity of

charge (d) None of the above statements is correct

249. A fresh egg sinks in pure water, whereas it floats in saturated salty water. This is due to (a) The fluid matter inside the egg-shell (b) Higher density of the pure water (c) Higher density of the salty water (d) The fact that the egg-shell is made of calcium which is heavier

than pure water

250. The transformer works on which of the following principles? (a) Electro-magnetic induction (b) Electro-magnetic repulsion (c) Electro-magnetic attraction (d) Electro-magnetic conduction

251. A normal eye is not table to see objects closer than 25 cm because (a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm (b) the eye is not able to decrease the focal length of eye lens beyond

a limit (c) the distance of the retina from the eye lens is 25 cm (d) the eye is not able to decrease the distance between the eye lens

and the retina beyond a limit

252. The distance between two successive nodes of a standing wave is (a) 3 λ/4 (b) λ/2 (c) λ (d) λ/4

253. If we go inside a mine and drop a 10 lb iron ball and 1 lb aluminium ball from the top of a high platform, neglecting air resistance, (a) Both will reach the floor at the same time (b) 1 lb weight will reach the floor first (c) 10 lb weight will reach the floor first (d) It is not possible to indicate which of the two will reach the floor

first without further data

254. An electron microscope gives higher magnifications than an optical microscope because (a) The electrons have more energy than the light particles (b) The velocity of electrons is smaller than that of light (c) The wavelength of electrons used is smaller as compared to the

wavelength of visible light (d) The electron microscope uses more powerful lenses

255. Consider the following figures 1 and 2. In figure 1, the mass of the


body A in air is 0.2 kg. the mass of the water container (with water in it) is 0.5 kg. In figure 2, when A is completely immersed in the water of the container B the readings of the respective balances changes as shown.

0.2 kg

0.5 kg

Figure 1

0.15 kg

X kg

Figure 2

What is the value of X? (a) 0.55 kg (b) 0.15 kg (c) 0.3 kg (d) 0.45 kg

256. A thermostat is (a) A device used to maintain a constant temperature of a water bath

or an oven (b) A modern type of thermoflask which work on the principle of

equipartition of heat energy (c) An instrument by which the accuracy of thermometers is determined (d) A device which varies which varies the temperature of a bath

257. When an object is near a plane mirror, the image is erect, virtual and of the same size as the object. A concave mirror gives a magnified and erect image of a nearby object whereas a convex mirror gives an erect and diminished image. For the rear view mirror in a car (a) We may use either concave, convex or plane mirror (b) A plane mirror is used (c) A concave mirror is always used (d) A convex mirror is always used

258. Which of the following are produced by a moving electric charge? 1. Electric field 2. Magnetic field 3. Gravitational field (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 only

Physics 39

259. A person is standing near a railway track and a railway engine while blowing its whistle is coming towards that person with a constant velocity of 50 miles/hour. The person will notice that (a) The intensity of the sound increase but its frequency remains

unaltered (b) Both the intensity and frequency of the sound increases (c) Both the intensity and frequency of sound remain unaltered (d) The intensity of the sound increases but its frequency decreases

260. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Both dynamo and electic motor converts mechanical energy into

electrical energy (b) Dynamo converts electrical energy into light energy and electric

motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy (c) Dynamo converts mechanical energy into electrical energy and

electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy (d) Both dynamo and electric motor converts electrical energy into

mechanical energy

261. The continuous spectrum is obtained when the incandescent substance is (a) in state of atomic vapour (b) in solid state (c) in state of molecular vapour (d) none of these

262. When a beam of white light parallel to the principal axis is refracted through a convex lens, then the rays converge to the principal axis. If a screen is placed at a sufficient distance from the focus-point perpendicular to the principal axis then the image on the screen will be (a) a sharp white point (b) a sharp violet point or red point (c) a circular spot whose edges are violet and central portion red (d) a circular spot whose edges are red and central portion violet

263. Two blocks, one of iron (i) and the other of wood (w) are dropped from a height at the same time. If the time taken by the blocks to reach the ground is T

i and T

w respectively, then

(a) T i < T

w (b) T

i = T

w

(c) T i > T

w (d) T

i = 1/2 T

w

264. Let the speed of sound in air, water and iron be V a , V

w and V

i

respectively. Which is the correct order of decreasing velocity of sound in these media? (a) V

i > V

a > V

w (b) V

w > V

i > V

a

(c) V a

> V w

> V i

(d) V i > V

w > V

a


265. The correct sequence of various regions in absorption spectrum is (a) Ultraviolet, visible, infra-red, microwave (b) Microwave, visible, infra-red, X-rays (c) Infra-red, gamma rays, ultraviolet, microwave (d) Visible, ultraviolet, microwave, infra-red

266. A charged particle travels along the inside of a straight hollow tube 2.0 metre long. The particle is uniformly accelerated. What is the time spent by the particle in the tube if it enters at a speed of 1000 m/ s and leaves at 9000 m/s (a) 2 × 10 –4 seconds (b) 5 × 10 –4 seconds (c) 4 × 10 –4 seconds (d) 2.5 × 10 –4 seconds

267. It takes ten minutes to increase the temperature of a body from 70°C to 80°C. Time required to increase the temperature of the body from 60° to 70° would be (a) More than 10 minutes (b) Less than 10 minutes (c) 10 minutes (d) Data is inadequate so can’t be determined

268. Consider the graph given below:

1 2 3 4 5 6 A

Time in Minutes

B

C

D

E

F

The distance travelled by an object in a given direction as time increases is given by the above graph. In this context which of the following statements is correct? (a) The velocity decreases during DE (b) The velocities during DE and BC are in opposite directions (c) Total distance travelled is AF (d) During CD the body is moving with uniform velocity

Physics 41

269. Which of the following are responsible for a beam of light being separated into its seven components when it is passed through a prism? 1. Total internal reflection 2. The index of refraction of prism medium with respect to air varies

with wavelength 3. The index of refraction of prism medium with respect to air is

independent of wavelength 4. Velocity of light in prism depends on wavelength (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

270. An electric heater made up of nichrome wire is connected to A.C. mains and generates some heat. Keeping the A.C. mains voltage constant, it is desired to double the quantity of heat. This is possible if (a) Both the length and the radius of the nichrome wire are halved (b) The length of nichrome wire is halved (c) The radius of nichrome wire is doubled (d) Both the length and the radius of the nichrome wire are doubled

271. The work done by a satellite of mass m in going once round the earth in an orbit of radius r is (a) π r 2 mg (b) 2π m r G (c) Zero (d) Infinite

272. A bullet of mass X, moving with a velocity V, strikes a wooden block of mass Z and gets embedded. If the block is free to move, its velocity after impact will be

(a) X

V X+Z

(b) X+Z

V Z

(c) X

V X Z

(d) X+Z

V X

273. Two cubes of equal mass, one made of iron and the other of aluminium are immersed in water and weighed. Under such case (a) The weight of aluminium cube will be less than that of the iron

cube (b) The two weights will be equal (c) The weight of the iron cube will be less than that of the

aluminium cube (d) The data provided is insufficient

274. The heights of the liquid columns in a barometer, when it is filled with mercury (H

m ), water (H

w )] and kerosene (H

k )] are such that

(a) H w

> H m

> H k

(b) H m

> H k

> H w

(c) H m

= H k

= H w

(d) H k

> H w

> H m


275. Two convex lenses have focal lengths 10 cm and 40 cm. If a telescope has to be made by using these two lenses 1. The distance between the lenses should be 50 cm 2. The distance between the lenses should be 30 cm 3. The magnifying power of this telescope will be 5 4. An inverted image will be produced in this telescope Which two of the above are correct? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

276. An equilateral triangle has been constructed with an uniform wire whose resistance per unit length is 4 ohm cm –1 . If the length of each side of the triangle is 10 cm, the resistance across any side will be (a) 80 ohm (b) 40 ohm (c) 80/3 ohm (d) 40/3 ohm

277. Two pieces of resistance wire, A and B, are cut from the same coil. A is twice as long as B. The difference between the total resistance of the combination of wires A and B, when connected in series and in parallel is 21Ω. The resistance of A will be (a) 18 Ω (b) 16.5 Ω (c) 14 Ω (d) 18.6 Ω

278. The work done in vertically raising a body of mass M through a distance h is given to be W. If the same body of mass M is raised to the same vertical height h by pulling it up along a plane inclined at an angle theta with the horizontal, then the work done in this case is 1. A function of force applied along the plane. 2. A function of M cos θ. 3. A function of g sin θ, g being acceleration due to gravity. 4. The same value W. Which of the above are correct? Choose the answer from the codes given below: (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 4 only

279. Consider: Newton’s formula for the velocity of sound of a gas depends of 1. Gravitational constant 2. Acceleration due to gravity 3. Pressure 4. Density Which of the above are correct? Choose the answer from the codes given below: (a) 3 and 4 (b) 4 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only

Physics 43

280. When an opaque object is placed between an extended source of light and a screen, we obtain, on the screen, a shadow consisting of two parts, an inner part which is perfectly dark and called Umbra and an outer part called Penumbra which is partly illuminated. Which one of the following explains the occurrence of total lunar eclipse? (a) The moon is between the earth and the sun and the moon is

in the umbral shadow cone (b) The moon is between the earth and the sun and the face of the

moon towards the earth receives no light (c) The earth is between the sun and the moon and the moon is

in the umbral shadow cone (d) The earth is between the sun and the moon and the moon is

outside the umbral shadow cone.

281. Which of the following statements is wrong? (a) Light travels with a speed greater than that of sound (b) Light is a wave motion (c) Light travels in a straight line (d) Light cannot travel through vacuum

282. The time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of a planet does not depend upon (a) The radius of the planet (b) The mass of the planet (c) The length of the pendulum (d) The mass of the bob of the pendulum

283. Inspite of mutual repulsion between the protons and no electric force between neutrons, a number of protons and neutrons do stay together to form stable nuclei. Which of the following are reasons for this?

1. Another type of force, called nuclear force works between these particles when they are very close to each other

2. The neutrons keep the protons apart so that there is no repulsion between them

3. The nuclear force is always attractive and does not depend on the charge of the particles

Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

284. Water boils at a lower temperature than 100°C on a hill station, because (a) Pressure is lower at high altitudes (b) Temperature is lower at high altitudes (c) Water vapours are less at high altitudes (d) There is cloud formation at high altitudes


285. In the given diagram, which instrument should be connected at X and Y respectively? (a) Voltmeter and Galvanometer (b) Voltmeter and Ammeter (c) Galvanometer and Ammeter (d) Ammeter and Voltmeter

286. Which of the following is the correct sequence in order of increasing power consumption? (a) Fan, Television, Electric Kettle, Electric Iron (b) Television, Fan, Electric Iron, Electric Kettle (c) Television, Fan, Electric Kettle, Electric Iron (d) Fan, Television, Electric Iron, Electric Kettle

287. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm. The nature and position of the image shall be (a) Virtual and 15 cm from the mirror (b) Real and 20 cm from the mirror (c) Virtual and 20 cm from the mirror (d) Real and 10 cm from the mirror

288. Which of the following effects of current does not depend on the direction of current? (a) Lighting and chemical effects (b) Heating and lighting effects (c) Heating and magnetic effects (d) Magnetic and chemical effects

289. Beats are heard when (a) Two notes of widely different frequencies are sounded together (b) Two notes of exactly identical frequency are sounded together (c) Two notes of equal intensity are sounded together (d) Two notes of slightly different frequencies are sounded together

290. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Coulomb force - Coulomb-volt-meter (b) Capcitance - Coulomb/volt (c) Electric potential - Volt (d) Electric field - Volt/meter

291. Cosmic rays (a) Can be charged as well as uncharged particles (b) Are uncharged particles (c) Are charged particles (d) None of the above

X

Y

Physics 45

292. The top atmosphere of the Earth directly reflects back into space nearly what part of the total amount of sun’s energy coming to it? (a) One-third (b) One-fifth (c) One-tenth (d) One-half

293. Which of the following instruments is used for detecting electric charge? (a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer (c) Electroscope (d) None of the above

294. Which of the following is used as an electrolyte in Chromium-plating? (a) Solution of oxide of chromium in water (b) Chromic acid solution (c) Chromium solution in mercury (d) All of the above

295. What is the mass of a positron? (a) Equivalent to the sum of a neutron and an electron (b) Equivalent to a proton (c) Equivalent to a neutron (d) Equivalent to an electron

296. Which of the following are emitted by the filament of a vacuum tube? (a) Protons (b) Neutrons (c) Electrons (d) All of the above

297. Which of the following instruments is used for detecting and measuring small electric currents? (a) Galvanometer (b) Fluxmeter (c) Ammeter (d) Voltmeter

298. The sound waves which cannot be heard by a human ear are called (a) Ultrasonic sounds (b) Infrasonic sounds (c) Extraordinary sounds (d) Both (a) and (c)

299. Why does the police use dogs for detective work? (a) Because they have sharp eyesight (b) Because they can hear ultrasonic waves (c) Because they can identify objects by smell (d) All of these

300. Through which of the following media does sound travel the fastest? (a) Cold water (b) Warm air (c) Cool air (d) Steel

301. Which of the following statements regarding sound waves is correct? (a) Their speed in air is about 330 m/s (b) These can be polarised (c) These can travel through vacuum (d) These have very high frequencies and small wavelengths


302. Which of the following functions is performed by a photo-electric cell? (a) It converts electrical energy into light (b) It converts light energy into electrical energy (c) It conserves sound energy (d) It converts electrical energy into sound

303. Which of the following statements regarding sound is not correct? (a) The sound waves in air are longitudinal (b) The speed of sound is less in iron than in air (c) The velocity of sound increases with the rise in temperature (d) All the above statements are correct

304. Which of the following happens when a body is charged positively? (a) Some electrons escape from it (b) Some protons get added to it from outside (c) Some electrons get added to it from outside (d) Some protons escape from it

305. Which of the following controls the chain reaction in a nuclear reactor? (a) Molecules of high energy (b) Ions (c) Active hydrogen (d) Moderator

306. Why are transformers used in the transmission of electric power? (a) Because they can reduce transmission losses (b) Because they can conserve electrical energy (c) Because they speed up transmission (d) Because they help to distribute electrical energy efficiently

307. A fuse in an electric circuit is used to (a) Increase the flow of current in the circuit (b) Control the voltage fluctuation in the circuit (c) Break the circuit when excessive current flows (d) Decrease the flow of current in the circuit

308. Why are shields made of iron usually provided around precision instruments? (a) For protection against the effect of moisture in the air (b) For guarding the instruments against unauthorised handling (c) For protection against the effect of external magnetic fields (d) For absorbing heat generated during the functioning of the

instruments

309. An iceberg is floating in the sea. Out of 10 parts of its mass, how many will remain above the surface of the water? (a) Three parts (b) Two parts (c) One part (d) Five parts

Physics 47

310. How many times will light travel around the Earth in one second? (a) 7 times (b) 5 times (c) 3 times (d) 9 times

311. In the modern-day computers, when operational, the electrical impulses travel (a) At half the speed of light (b) At seven times the speed of sound (c) At the speed of sound (d) Nearly at the speed of light

312. Echo is the effect produced due to (a) Reflection of sound (b) Dispersion of sound (c) Absorption of sound (d) Refraction of sound

313. Which of the following transformations of energy takes place in a microphone? (a) Mechanical energy into sound (b) Sound into electrical energy (c) Electrical energy into sound (d) Sound into mechanical energy

314. Enriched uranium used in a nuclear reactor is (a) Uranium with a high percentage of a particular isotope (b) Uranium freed of all impurities (c) Uranium alloyed with aluminium (d) Uranium treated with radiation

315. Chronometer is (a) A clock for determining the longitude of a vessel at sea (b) An instrument for changing or reversing the direction of electric

current (c) An instrument for measuring the direction and velocity of wind (d) An instrument for comparing intensities of colours

316. Why does water boil below 100°C at higher altitudes? (a) Pollution-free air at higher altitudes increases the calorific value

of fuel used (b) Water available at higher altitudes is purer than that in the plains (c) There is lesser dissipation of heat at higher altitudes (d) The atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes is low as compared

to that at sea level

317. LASER is an acronym for light amplification by (a) Stimulated energetic radiation (b) Spontaneous emission of radiation (c) Stimulated emission of radiation (d) Spontaneous emission of radio waves


318. A solid piece of iron sinks in water but floats in mercury. This is because the (a) Density of iron is more than that of water as well as mercury (b) Density of iron is less than that of water as well as mercury (c) Average density of water and mercury is less than that of iron (d) Density of iron is more than that of water but less than that of

mercury

319. Dynamo is a device that converts (a) Alternating current into direct current (b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy (c) Mechanical energy into electrical energy (d) Heat energy into electrical energy

320. Which of the following satellites helps telecast TV network programmes all over the country? (a) INSAT - 1B (b) Apple (c) Aryabhatta (d) Rohini

321. The energy of a particle executive linear Simple Harmonic Motion is on the average (a) Half kinetic and half potential (b) Mostly potential (c) Mostly kinetic (d) Half kinetic

322. What should one do if he wishes to increase the pitch of a string type instrument ? 1. Increase the length of the string used 2. Decrease the gauge of the string used 3. Loosen the string 4. Tighten the string (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 2, 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 1

323. A magnetic needle shows identical deflections in two cases, first when one magnet is placed normal to the earth’s magnetic field with its centre at a distance of 20 cm from the centre of the magnetic needle, and second when another one is placed with its centre at a distance of 30 cm from the centre of the needle. The correct ratio of the magnetic moments of the two magnets is (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9 (c) 8 : 27 (d) 9 : 4

324. Which one of the following gives the resultant capacitor when capacitors are joined in series? (a) The sum of the individual capacitors

Physics 49

(b) The reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual capacitors

(c) The reciprocal of the sum of the capacitors (d) The sum of the reciprocals of the individual capacitors

325. The times interval between two beats of a normal human heart is (a) 2 second (b) 1 second (c) 0.5 second (d) 3 seconds

326. In Bohr’s atomic model, the electron can revolve only in certain specified, circular orbits. What is the radius ‘r’ of the first Bohr orbit? (a) 0.5 × 10 –10 m (b) 10 –13 m (c) 10 –26 m (d) 0.5 × 10 –8 m

327. The earth’s satellite is moving round the earth in a circular orbit. Which of the following are true regarding the satellite? 1. Its speed is constant 2. Its velocity is constant 3. Its angular momentum is constant 4. Its gravitational pull is balanced by the centrifugal force (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

328. International broadcasting requires (a) Medium frequency radio waves (b) High frequency radio waves (c) Low frequency radio waves (d) Longitudinal waves

329. A ball is thrown vertically upwards in space. Which of the following graph gives correctly the variation of its acceleration with time?

(a)

Time

Spee

d

(b)

Time

Spee

d

(c)

Time

Spee

d

(d)

Time

Spee

d


330. The limit of resolution of an optical instrument is the smallest angle that two points on an object have to subtend at the eye so that they are (a) Unresolved (b) Well resolved (c) Just resolved (d) None of these

331. The transverse nature of electromagnetic radiation is demonstrated by (a) Interference experiment (b) Diffraction experiment (c) Polarisation experiment (d) Optical activity experiment

332. A Nicol prism can be used (a) For producing and analysing polarized light (b) Only to analyse polarized light (c) Only to produce polarized light (d) None of the above

333. If a man wants to hit a target, he should aim his rifle in a direction (a) lower than the target (b) of the target (c) either (a) or (b) (d) higher than the target

334. When a glass rod is rubbed against silk (a) Glass rod loses electrons and becomes positively charged (b) Silk loses electrons and becomes positively charged (c) Glass rod loses electrons and becomes negatively charged (d) Silk loses electrons and becomes negatively charged

335. The force between two charges in different media are different because (a) Different media have different permittivities (b) Different media have different viscosities (c) Different media have different densities (d) Different media have different permeabilities

336. A solid ball of metal has a spherical cavity inside it. If the ball is heated, the volume of the cavity will (a) Remain unaffected (b) Decrease (c) Increase (d) Have its shape changed

337. Two coils have a combined resistance of 12 ohm, when combined in series and 5/3 ohm, when connected in parallel. Their respective resistances are (a) 6, 6 ohms (b) 10, 2 ohms (c) 5, 7 ohms (d) 4, 8 ohms

Physics 51

338. A spring balance together with a suspended weight of 2.5 kg is dropped from a height of 30 metres. The reading on the spring balance, while falling, will show a weight of (a) 2.5 kg (b) 1.25 kg (c) 0 kg (d) 25 kg

339. How does the ozone layer in the atmosphere protect life on earth? (a) By absorbing infrared radiation of the sun (b) By transmitting heat radiations of the sun (c) By absorbing ultraviolet radiations of the sun (d) All of the above

340. A coin tossed vertically by a passenger sitting in a train that is moving with a uniform velocity, still returns to his palm. This demonstrates the principle of (a) Inertia (Newton’s First Law of Motion) (b) Conservation of angular momentum (c) Addition of velocities of the train and the coin (d) Addition of forces due to gravity and the toss of the coin

341. Speed of sound is greater in solids than in liquids because (a) The solids have high elasticity (b) The liquids have high elasticity (c) The atoms in solids are regularly arranged (d) The atom in liquids are closely packed

342. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Isohaline - Lines joining points of equal salinity in sea (b) Isobath - Lines joining points of equal seabed depth (c) Isobars - Lines joining areas of equal atmospheric pressure (d) Isohels - Lines joining areas of equal rainfall

343. Which of the following statements about friction is true ? (a) frictional force can accelerate a body (b) friction can be reduced to zero (c) frictional force is proportional to the area of contact between the

two surfaces (d) sliding friction is always greater than rolling friction

344. If a machine is lubricated with oil (a) the mechanical advantage of the machine increases (b) both its mechanical advantage and also mechanical efficiency

increases (c) mechanical efficiency of machine increases (d) its efficiency increases but its mechanical advantage decreases


345. On the Moon, astronauts inflate a rubber balloon with hydrogen gas and release it at a height of 2 metres. The balloon will (a) Remain at the height of 2 metres (b) Go upwards (c) Fall down (d) First go up and finally come down

346. When the door of a refrigerator in a room is kept open, the temperature of the room (a) decreases (b) increases (c) decreases (d) cannot say

347. A number of images are formed when a burning candle is put between two parallel plane mirrors. The brightest image would be the (a) Third one (b) Second one (c) First one (d) Last one

348. Which of the following statements regarding the gravitational attraction between man and the earth are correct? 1. The man and the earth pull each other with the same force 2. The earth pulls the man with more force than the man pulling the

earth 3. The acceleration of the man due to the earth’s pull is more than

that of the earth due to the man’s pull 4. The accelerations of the man and the earth are the same (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

349. Which of the following graphs best describes the temperature dependence of the resistance (R) of a semiconductor?

(a)

T

R

(b)

(c)

T

R

(d)

T

R

Physics 53

350. Current (I) Vs Voltage (V) relation of certain type of diode looks like:

1

1

1

1.5 2

2

2

3

3

4

4 5

I

V

V = R I

Resistance R, as given by V = RI, at the points 1, 2, 3, 4 when arranged in ascending order will follow the sequence (a) R

1 , R

2 , R

4 , R

3 (b) R

4 , R

3 , R

2 , R

1

(c) R 1 , R

2 , R

3 , R

4 (d) R

3 , R

4 , R

2 , R

1

351. Two forces which are perpendicular to each other, act on a body. The resultant force F, makes an angle of 60° with one force. The magnitude of the other force is

(a) 3 F/2 (b) F/ 2

(c) F/2 (d) 2F

352. A particle is undergoing simple harmonic motion with a period of 2 seconds and an amplitude of 2 metres. Its maximum speed in m s –2 is (a) 4π (b) 2π (c) π/2 (d) π

353. If a bimetallic strip is heated, it will (a) Bend towards the metal with higher thermal coefficient of expansion (b) Not bend at all (c) Twist itself into a helix (d) Bend towards the metal with lower thermal expansion coefficient

354. A pond is covered with a layer of ice and the external temperature is –30°C. The temperature of water in contact with the lower surface of ice is (a) 0°C (b) –15°C (c) –30°C (d) + 4°C

355. A closed bottle containing water (at 30°C) is carried in a spaceship and placed on the surface of the moon. What will happen to the water when the bottle is opened? (a) Nothing will happen to it (b) Water will freeze


(c) Water will boil (d) It will decompose into H

2 and O

2

356. A stretched string is vibrating at 500 hertz. If the tension is increased four times, the frequency shall become (a) 1,000 hertz (b) 500 hertz (c) 250 hertz (d) 1,500 hertz

357. A person standing in front of a mirror finds that his image is larger than himself. This implies that the mirror is (a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Plane (d) Plano-convex

358. The objective of an astronomical telescope has a focal length of 4 m and a diameter of 0.25 m. If the magnifying power is 100, the focal length of the eyepiece is (a) 4 cm (b) 1 cm (c) .06 cm (d) 25 cm

359. In the figure, the potential difference across points A and B is (a) 6V (b) 3V (c) 1.5V (d) Unknown since the value of R is not given

360. Two long parallel conductors are placed at right angles to a metre scale at the 2 cm and 6 cm marks, as shown in the figure

0

1

2

3 4 5

6

7 8

1 A 3 A

They carry currents of 1A and 3A respectively. They will produce zero magnetic field at the (a) 5 cm mark (b) 3 cm mark (c) 2 cm mark (d) 6 cm mark

361. Which of the following minimizes the transference of heat in a thermos flask? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

3V

3V

A B

R

Physics 55

362. A body dropped from a certain height attains the same velocity as another falling with an initial velocity u from a height h below the first body. Which one of the following gives the correct expression for the square of the velocity, u, g being the acceleration due to gravity? (a) 2 gh (b) 4 gh (c) gh (d) 8 gh

363. When a person moves from a pole to the equator, the population of plants and animals will (a) Remain unchanged (b) Decrease (c) Increase (d) Not show any consistent behaviour

364. Calculate the current indicated by the ammeter in the circuit

200V

a c

b

d

1000

Ω 1000Ω

1000Ω 10

00Ω

(a) 5.0 amp (b) 2.5 amp (c) No current (d) More than 5.0 amp

365. The most efficient engine is (a) Petrol (b) Electric (c) Steam (d) Diesel

366. In the circuit diagram given below A and B are switches. The logic operation, which the switches can perform, is.....

(a) NAND (b) OR (c) AND (d) NOR

367. Theodolite is an instrument used by (a) Surveyors (b) Cartographers (c) Navigators (d) Pilots


368. Consider: A second pendulum will NOT lose time if 1. Its length is increased 2. It is taken to a high altitude 3. It is taken deep under the earth’s surface Which of the above are correct? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) None

369. Which among the following are correct characteristics associated with a Laser beam? 1. It is highly monochromatic 2. It is perfectly coherent 3. Its velocity is more than that of light 4. It is unidirectional and can produce high power density Select the answer from the codes given below: (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

370. Light travels from diamond to glass, glass to water and water to air. In this context when does total internal reflection takes place? 1. When light travels from diamond to glass 2. When light travels from glass to water 3. When light travels from water to air Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

371. Four wires of equal length and of resistance 8 ohms each are connected in the form of a square. The equivalent resistance between two opposite corners of the square is (a) 16 ohms (b) 8 ohms (c) 4 ohms (d) 32 ohms

372. The following are some great discoveries in Physics 1. X-rays 2. Theory of Relativity 3. Super conductivity 4. Raman effect The chronological order in which they were discovered is (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3

373. A stone is dropped in a well and splash is heard after 1.5 seconds after the stone hits the water surface. If the velocity of sound is 327 m/s, the depth of the well is (a) 654.0 m (b) 490.5 m (c) 227 m (d) 981.0 m

Physics 57

374. A glass lens has a focal length 5 cm in air. In water its focal length would be (a) 5 cm (b) More than 5 cm but finite (c) Infinite (d) Less than 5 cm

375. Magnetic field does not interact with (a) Stationary permanent magnets (b) Moving charges (c) Stationary charges (d) Moving permanent magnets

376. If x = at + bt 2 , where x is in metres and t is in seconds, which one of the following should be the unit of a ? (a) ms –2 (b) ms –1

(c) m (d) m 2 s –1

377. A body is moving in a circular path at constant speed. If V and A represent the velocity and acceleration, then (a) V is tangential, A is radial (b) V is radial, A is tangential (c) V and A both are tangential (d) V and A both are radial

378. Two bodies A and B of masses 1 and 4 kg respectively have equal linear momentum. The ratio of their kinetic energies is (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 16

379. A geostationary satellite appears to remain stationary with respect to earth’s surface because (a) It moves with the Moon (b) It moves with a very slow speed (c) It does not move (d) Its period of rotation is identical to the spin of the earth

380. During thunderstorm lightning is seen first and thunder is heard later on. Why? (a) First light and then sound is produced (b) Light travels faster than sound (c) Sound travels faster than light (d) Sound becomes feeble due to storm

381. In the microphone, used in the public address system (a) Electric signals are first converted into sound waves (b) Sound waves are directly transmitted (c) Sound waves are converted into electric signals which are amplified

and transmitted (d) Amplification is not required


382. Which one of the following states Boyle’s law correctly? (a) Volume and temperature remaining constant, the mass of any gas

is inversely proportional to its pressure (b) The volume of a given mass of any gas is directly proportional

to the product of its temperature and pressure (c) Temperature remaining constant, the volume of a given mass of

any gas is inversely proportional to its pressure (d) Temperature remaining constant, the volume of a given mass of

any gas is directly proportional to its pressure

383. The effective resistance of the following combination is

2Ω

2Ω

2Ω

2Ω

(a) 6 ohm (b) 5 ohm (c) 4 ohm (d) 8 ohm

384. The least count of a vernier calliper is 0.001 cm. One cm on the main scale is divided into 20 divisions. How many divisions are there on the vernier scale? (a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 50

385. A mass of 10 kg is placed on an inclined plane and its inclination is gradually increased such that the mass just begins to slide down. The inclined plane makes an angle of 30° at this time. The coefficient of friction between the mass and the plane is

(a) 1/2 (b) 1/ 3

(c) 3/2 (d) 1/3

386. When load is lifted from ground to a certain height, some work is done and energy is used up. The energy is converted into (a) Potential energy of the body (b) Heat and dissipated (c) Internal energy of the body (d) Heat as well as potential energy

387. Water in an earthen pot cools below the room temperature due to (a) Absence of radiation (b) Evaporation of water from the surface of the pot (c) Insulation (d) Absence of convection

Physics 59

388. The apparent depth of an object kept under water of refractive index 1.33 is 10 cm. Its apparent depth in a liquid of refractive index 1.46, when water is replaced by this liquid, is about (a) 11 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 13 cm

389. A parallel plate condenser is charged to 100 volt. In this context which one of the following statements is true? (a) The two plates attract each other (b) There is no force between the plates (c) The two plates of the condenser repel each other (d) The force between the plates can be attractive or repulsive

depending upon the nature of the dielectric material between the plates

390. A person is standing with his shoes on, ground each shoe having an area of 200 cm 2 in contact with the ground. When he has both feet on the ground he exerts a pressure of 9000 Nm –2 . What is the mass of the person? (Take g = 10m/s 2 ) (a) 45 kg (b) 36 kg (c) 18 kg (d) 60 kg

391. Who was the first to suggest, “A planet moves most quickly when it is closest to the sun, but slows down as it moves farther away”? (a) Johannes Kepler (b) Galileo Galilei (c) Tycho Brahe (d) Edwin Hubble

392. “Speed of light is the same no matter how it is measured” was first contemplated by (a) A.A. Michelson (b) Jean Foucault (c) Armand Fizeau (d) Albert Einstein

393. ‘Parsec’ is a unit for measuring (a) The time (b) Very small distances (c) Astronomical distances (d) The arc of a circle

394. Which, among the following, is the smallest unit of length? (a) Micron (b) Fermi (c) Ångström (d) Nanometre

395. Which of the following pairs has not the same dimension? (a) Stress; pressure (b) Force; surface tension (c) Impulse; linear momentum (d) Frequency; angular velocity


396. ‘G’ represents I. Mutual conductance II. Gibbs function III. Gravitational constant Which combination is correct? (a) II and III only (b) I and III only (c) III only (d) I, II and III

397. The schematic symbol for tuning capacitor is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

398. The numbers 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82 and 126 representing the number of protons in a nucleus are called (a) Loschmidt’s numbers (b) Mach numbers (c) Raynold’s numbers (d) Magic numbers

399. Which of the following combinations is true about the mass of a body according to Newton? I. Mass is the quantity of matter contained in a body.

II. Mass is represented by the relation: mass= force

velocity .

III. Mass is always conserved. IV. Mass of a body is the ratio of its weight to acceleration due to gravity at a particular place. (a) I, II and IV only (b) I, III and IV only (c) I, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV

400. Inertia is the property of a body which preserves its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line. The following factors tell more about inertia: I. Greater the mass of a body, greater is its inertia. II. Greater the inertia of a body, the less will be the acceleration

produced by a given force. III. The law of inertia is the same as Newton’s first law of motion. Which combination is true? (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III only

Physics 61

401. A shooter wants to hit a monkey who is hanging from a branch of a tree in position A at some distance away from the shooter. In which of the following conditions the bullet will hit the monkey? (a) The monkey drops himself from the branch to position B, and

the shooter aims at position B (b) The shooter aims at the monkey in position A, and simultaneously

the monkey drops himself from the branch to position B (c) The shooter aims at the monkey in position A, and the monkey

does not move (d) The shooter aims at position B and the monkiey does not move

from its position at A.

402. A man holding two equal masses on his stretched arms is rotating while skating on ice with some angular speed. Without bending his arms, he just lets the two masses fall. How does his angular speed change? (a) It remains unaffected (b) It increases (c) It decreases (d) It becomes zero

403. At what angle an athlete should throw his javeline to attain the maximum range? (a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) Range has nothing to do with the angle of projection

404. From Newton’s laws of motion, one can infer that I. Newton’s first law describes the motion of a body free of external

forces II. Newton’s second law relates force to motion III. Newton’s third law is not directly a statement about motion, but

a statement about forces acting on bodies IV. Newton’s third law leads to the principle of conservation of

momentum Which combination of the above statements is true? (a) II, III and IV only (b) I, II and IV only (c) I, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV

405. Which combination of the following statements is wrong? I. A body can have a constant speed but a varying velocity II. A body can have a constant velocity but a varying speed III. A body can have a zero velocity and finite acceleration

SHOOTER


(a) III only (b) II only (c) I only (d) None of these

406. A rectangular box with edges ABCDEFGH is placed on the ground in various positions of its base. Which face of the body will exert maximum pressure on the ground? (a) ABHE (b) ABCD (c) ADFE (d) Pressure remains the same in all the cases

407. An air-bubble rises from the bottom of a long and narrow glass-tube full of glycerene. What happens to the speed of the air-bubble till it comes to the top? (a) It goes on increasing (b) It goes on decreasing (c) It first increases, then moves up with constant velocity (d) The speed remains the same throughout

408. Which of the following statements is wrong for the angular momentum of a rotating wheel? (a) Greater the distance from the reference point, greater is the

angular momentum (b) Greater its moment of inertia the smaller is the angular momentum (c) Greater its mass the greater is the angular momentum (d) Greater the prependicular component of its velocity, greater is

the angular momentum

409. The relative densities of three liquids X, Y and Z are 0.7, 1.2 and 1.7 respectively. A small rod floats vertically just fully immersed in the liquid Y. Which of the following set of diagrams illustrates the equilibrium positions of the rod in the liquids X and Z?

(a) R

X

R

z (b)

R

Z

R

X

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

H

Physics 63

(c) R

X

R

z

(d) R

X

R

z

410. A particle P is attached to a string and describes a circle of radius r in a vertical plane. Which statement regarding the tension in the string is wrong? (a) Tension in the string is uniform throughout (b) At the lowest point X the tension acts in the

upward direction (c) At the highest point Y the tension acts along the radius in the

downward direction (d) Tension in the string is lowest at the highest point of the curve

and is maximum at the lowest position on the curve

411. In which of the following cases the level of liquid increases when a piece of ice melts completely? (a) A piece of ice floats in a liquid of specific gravity 1.2 (b) A piece of ice floats in water (c) A piece of cork is embedded inside an ice block which floats in

water (d) A piece of ice sinks in a liquid of specific gravity 0.7

412. The cooling curve below suggests that the melting point of naphthalene is (a) 353 K (b) 80 K (c) 40 K (d) 373 K

413. The coulombian forces are responsible for binding I. An atom to an atom to form a molecule II. An electron to a nucelus to form an atom III. A molecule to a molecule to form a solid or a liquid Which combination is correct? (a) II and III only (b) I and III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III

414. Between different layers of fluid in relative motion, viscosity introduces (a) Cohesive force (b) Radial force (c) Intermolecular force (d) Tangential force

415. “Action at a distance” is revealed most prominently in (a) Magnetic force (b) Electric force (c) Gravitational force (d) All of them

P O

Y

X

r

80°C

TIME (min.)

TEM

P °C


416. Which of the following statements is not true about the gravitational force? (a) It is the most universal of all the natural forces (b) It is the weakest force in nature (c) The gravitational force between two bodies decreases as the

distance between them increases (d) All are true

417. The migration of fine particles of a solid suspended in a liquid to the anode or cathode when an electric field is applied to the suspension is called (a) Anaphoresis (b) Electrophoresis (c) Cataphoresis (d) Electroviscosity

418. Which of the following is not an example of potential energy? (a) A vibrating pendulum at its maximum displacement from the

mean position (b) A body at rest at some height from the ground (c) A wound clock-spring (d) A vibrating pendulum when it is just passing through the mean

position

419. Consider the following facts about energy: I. The electrical energy can be stored in a capacitor to be recovered

on its discharge. II. It is stored in the electromagnetic radiations in electric and magnetic

fields. III. In a closed system, the total energy is variable. IV. Potential energy is stored in a body when it changes its

configuration. (a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV

420. A simple pendulum while passing through the mean position has (a) Minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy (b) Minimum potential energy and maximum kinetic energy (c) Minimum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy (d) Maximum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy

421. The type of light that is made of only one wavelength and all the photons leave their source in a synchronized matter, travelling in a narrow beam, is called (a) Maser (b) Laser (c) Polarized electromagnetic radiation (d) Cherenkov radiation

Physics 65

422. The magnetic field due to current flowing in a long straight conductor is directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance of the point of observation from the conductor. What is this law known as? (a) Blonde-Rey law (b) Biot-Savart’s law (c) Beer-Lambert law (d) Ampere’s law

423. A device for measuring the intensity of sound waves in fluids is called (a) Acoustic spectrometer (b) Acoustic radiometer (c) Acoustic radiator (d) Acoustic amplifier

424. Name the instrument for measuring the intensity of direct solar radiation at normal incidence: (a) Pyranometer (b) Pyrometer (c) Solarimeter (d) Pyrheliometer

425. Ultrasonic frequencies may be generated by I. Galton whistle II. Hartmann generator III. Piezoelectric oscillator Which combination is correct? (a) II and III only (b) I and III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III

426. What is the phenomenon shown by ferromagnetic substances whereby the magnetic flux through the medium on magnetising field as well as previous state of the substance? (a) Irradiation (b) Hysteresis (c) Inversion (d) Magnetostriction

427. Cryogenics deals with the study of matter (a) Near absolute zero (b) At high temperatures (c) At low temperatures (d) Near zero degree Celsius

428. Fluid mechanics deals with (a) The study of the statics and dynamics of liquids (b) The study of motion produced in fluids by applied forces (c) The science relating to the flow of fluids (d) The study of properties, distribution and utilization of fluids

429. A light ray passes through a glass slab. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct path of ray?

(a) (b)


(c) (d)

430. The following figure depicts a wave travelling in a medium. Which pairs of particles are in phase? (a) B and F (b) C and E (c) A and D (d) B and G

431. The equation x = a sin ω t shows the variation of displacement of wave with time t. This equation represents (a) Simple harmonic motion (b) Progressive wave (c) Stationary wave (d) Resonance-exponentially damped harmonic motion

432. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass prism? (a) All the colours of white light travel with the same speed (b) The violet colour travels slower than the red colour (c) The violet colour travels faster than the red colour (d) Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of colour

433. When an alpha particle is emitted from a radioactive source, (a) Its atomic number increases by 4 (b) Its atomic number decreases by 2 (c) Its atomic number increases by 2 (d) Its atomic number decreases by 4

434. The sum of the masses of constituent particles of a nucleus of atom is (a) Equal to the mass of the nucleus (b) Smaller than the mass of the nucleus (c) Greater than the mass of the nucleus (d) Always varying

435. What is not true about the following particles: muon, pion, kaon? (a) Rest mass of muon is less than that of pion or kaon (b) All are mesons (c) Muon is a lepton while pion and kaon are mesons (d) All of them have corresponding anti-particles

A

B

C

D

E

F G

Physics 67

436. Pulsars are I. Sources of radiowaves. II. Rapidly rotating neutron stars with intense magnetic field. III. So compressed that electrons and protons are forced to combine

to form neutrons. Which combination is correct? (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I only (d) I, II and III

437. Sitar maestro Ravi Shankar is playing sitar on its strings, and you, as a physicist (unfortunately without musical ears!), observed the following oddities: I. The greater the length of a vibrating string, the smaller its frequency. II. The greater the tension in the string, the greater is the frequency. III. The heavier the mass of the string, the smaller the frequency. IV. The thinner the wire, the higher its frequency. The maestro signalled the following combination as correct one: (a) II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV

438. Though steam and boiling water are at the same temperature, yet steam causes more severe burn, because (a) Steam possesses latent heat (b) Steam is in gaseous form (c) Kinetic energy is more in steam (d) Energy is dissipated in boiling water but not in steam

439. Motorists use a convex mirror in their vehicles because (a) It gives an erect and diminished view (b) It gives erect and wider view (c) It gives an erect image of the object (d) It gives a diminished and wider view

440. Mud huts are colder in summer and warmer in winter because (a) The top of mud huts is usually dry grass which absorb the external

heat (b) Mud huts are compact and do not allow the heat inside to escape

easily (c) The main material of mud huts, i.e. clay, is a poor conductor of

heat (d) There are not many openings in the huts, as such heat does not

escape

441. Why two blocks of ice when put together and compressed become a single block of ice? (a) Ice blocks attract each other to form a bond (b) Melting point of ice increases when pressure is increased


(c) Melting point of ice decreases when pressure is increased (d) Latent heat of fusion of ice is high

442. Why does a balloon stop rising when it attains a certain height? (a) The air pressure diminishes with height and hence at a particular

height the equilibrium is reached (b) At a particular height, the net gravitational force on the balloon

is zero, and hence it remains balanced (c) The balloon will stop rising when the upthrust on it becomes

equal to its weight (d) At a certain height the pressure inside the balloon is in equilibrium

with the pressure outside it

443. Electric power is transmitted over long distance through conducting wires of very high voltage, because (a) The power losses are reduced to minimum (b) Signals of high voltages travel faster (c) Of economical reasons (d) High voltages can be stepped down to desired levels easily

444. Why are the passengers in the upper deck of a double-decker bus not allowed to stand? (a) This ensures that the centre of gravity of the system may not rise

up and the bus may not be toppled due to unstable equilibrium (b) This ensures smaller centripetal force, thus helping the driver to

negotiate the roundabouts properly (c) If the passengers are in standing position, they may start oscillating

due to jerks and there is a possibility of resonance, causing the bus to be toppled

(d) This is just for the safety reason

445. Why are matter waves significant only in the motion of extremely small particels? (a) Small particels have smaller mass and hence the de Broglie

wavelength increases (b) Small particles are manageable easily (c) Small particles possess small kinetic energy (d) Extremely small particels possess small relativistic mass

446. Physics is sometimes referred to as exact science. Because (a) Physics interacts with almost all the sciences (b) Due importance is given for the measurement of quantities (c) It involves philosophy (d) Physics is related more closely to mathematics than any other

science

Physics 69

447. Rutherford was the first physicist to carry artificial transmutation from one element into another. In his experiment he bombarded nitrogen with alpha particles to produce isotope of (a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Helium

448. Cloud chamber technique is experimentally used for (a) Measurement of specific charge (b) Measurement of electronic charge (c) Measurement of electronic mass (d) Studying the interaction of charges in cloud

449. According to the general theory of relativity I. Gravity is a force II. Gravity is the curvature of space-time III. The planets follow the shortest path in the curved space-time

about the sun IV. In weak gravitational field, Einstein’s fomulas yield the same answers

as Newton’s. Which combination is correct? (a) II, III and IV only (b) II and IV only (c) II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV

450. What is the study of the modern theory of the strong forces between quarks? (a) Quantum chromodynamics (b) Quantum electromagnetism (c) Quantum electrodynamics (d) Quantum astronomy

451. What name is given to the type of astronomy having the following characteristics: I. It is carried out in the waveband 300nm to 10nm. II. The atmosphere is opaque to the incoming radiation from space III. Observations are to be carried out from above the earth’s atmosphere. (a) X-ray astronomy (b) Ultra-violet astronomy (c) Infra-red astronomy (d) Gamma ray astrnomy

452. Which is the only vector quantity out of the following? (a) Charge of a gold leaf electroscope (b) Electrostatic potential (c) Current flowing in a metal (d) Angular momentum of a spinning body


453. A body dropped freely from the top of a tower travels 44.1 m in the last second of its fall. The total height of the tower is (a) 1.225 m (b) 12.25 m (c) 1225 m (d) 122.5 m

454. The mass of a body is a measure of its (a) Momentum (b) Force (c) Inertia (d) None of these

455. The trajectory of a projectile is a (a) Parabola (b) Circle (c) Straight line (d) Ellipse

456. Centrifugal force is an inertial force which considered by (a) An observer who is moving with the particle that experiences the

force (b) An outside oberver (c) An observer at the centre of circular motion (d) None of the above

457. The acceleration of a particle moving in a circle with a uniform speed is (a) Along the radius directed away from the centre (b) Along the radius directed towards the centre (c) Along the tangent to the path (d) Both (a) and (b)

458. A hole is drilled along the earth’s diameter and a stone is dropped into it. When the stone is at the centre of the earth, it has (a) Acceleration (b) Weight (c) Mass (d) Potential energy

459. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a frictionless surface. In this process (a) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved (b) Kinetic energy is conserved (c) Momentum is conserved (d) Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved

460. Consider a body rolling down a smooth inclined plane of vertical height ‘h’ and inclination θ. Then the true statement in the following is (a) Acceleration along the plane is g sin θ and the potential energy

at the topmost point is mgh (b) Acceleration along the plane is g and the potential energy at the

topmost point is mgh (c) Acceleration along the plane is g sin θ and the potential energy

at the topmost point is mgh sin θ (d) None of these

Physics 71

461. Sun is about 3.3 × 10 6 times heavier and, the radius is 100 times bigger than earth. The mean density of the sun is (a) 3.3 × 10 –2 times the density of the earth (b) 3.3 × 10 –4 times the density of the earth (c) 3.3 times the density of the earth (d) 0.33

462. Compared to electric and magnetic forces gravitational forces are (a) Very weak (b) Of the same magnitude (c) Very strong (d) None of the above

463. A man is standing at the centre of a rotating turn-table with his arms stretched. If he draws his arms inwards and thereby reduces his moment of inertia by a factor k, the angular speed of the turn table (a) Decreases by a factor k (b) Increases by a factor k (c) Remains constant (d) Decreases by a factor k 2

464. Two equal forces act in North and East directions. Their resultant is along (a) North - East (b) East (c) North (d) South - West

465. The resultant of two parallel forces acts at a point on the line joining their points of action such that the ratio of the forces is equal to the ratio of (a) The distances of the forces from the point (b) The reciprocals of the distances of the forces (c) The squares of the distances (d) The reciprocals of the squares of the distances

466. If a rigid body acted upon by a system of coplanar parallel forces is to be in equilibrium, then (a) Algebraic sum of the forces must be zero (b) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces taken about a point

in their plane must be zero (c) One of the conditions (a) or (b) must be satisfied (d) Both the conditions (a) and (b) must be satisfied

467. When a body is wholly or partly immersed in a liquid it experiences (a) An upthrust or downthrust depending on the density of the liquid (b) An upthrust (c) A downthrust (d) None of the above

468. Construction of a submarine is based on (a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Pascal’s law (c) Archimedes’ principle (d) None of these


469. When a liquid is flowing through a tube of variable diameter, the pressure is (a) Maximum where the velocity is maximum (b) Maximum where the velocity is minimum (c) Minimum where the velocity is minimum (d) None of the above is correct

470. Stream line flow of a liquid at a given point (a) Has the same magnitude (b) Has the same direction (c) Both a and b (d) None of these

471. Rain drops are falling with a constant speed by the time they reach the ground because (a) Rain drops originate in outer space where the gravitational forces

are negligible (b) The force due to air resistance increases with the speed of the

rain drops until it balances the gravitational force (c) Rain drops are too light and hence not affected by acceleration

due to gravity (d) The force due to air resitance is constant and balances the

gravitational force

472. A system undergoing an isothermal process (a) Releases heat to the surroundings (b) Absorbs heat from the surroundings (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

473. Thermocole lined box is used as a cold storage because (a) Thermocole is a bad conductor (b) It is cheaper (c) It is easier to construct (d) None of these

474. Two thin blankets are warmer than a single one of the same thickness because (a) The air layer trapped in between the two blankets is a bad conductor (b) The distance of heat transmission is increased (c) The total mass of the blankets will be more (d) None of these

475. Thermal radiation can be detected by (a) A thermometer (b) A radiometer (c) A bolometer (d) All of the above

Physics 73

476. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding thermal radiations? (a) All bodies emit thermal radiation at all temperatures (b) They are electromagnetic in nature (c) They travel in straight lines with a velocity of 3 × 10 8 m/s in free

space (d) They cannot be reflected by mirrors

477. A plane mirror placed in front of a person is moved parallel to itself at a speed of 0.5 m/s away from the person. Then (a) The image moves away from the person at a speed of 1 m/s (b) The image moves away from the person at a speed of 0.5 m/s (c) The image moves towards the person at a speed of 0.5 m/s (d) The image moves towards the person at a speed of 1m/s

478. Although each eye perceives a separate image, we do not see everything double because (a) The inverted image formed by one eye is re-inverted by the other (b) The optic nerve fuses the two images (c) One eye works at one time (d) None of these

479. The ratio between the distances of an image and an object will be (a) In the ratio of the squares of their respective sizes (b) In the ratio of the reciprocals of their respective sizes (c) In the ratio of their respective sizes (d) None of the above

480. When a source of sound is in motion towards a stationary observer, the effect observed is (a) Increase in frequency of sound (b) Increase in wavelength of sound (c) Decrease in wavelength of sound (d) Decrease in frequency of sound

481. A ray of light passes from diamond to air. Critical angle is minimum for (a) Green (b) Red (c) Blue (d) Yellow

482. A convex lens is immersed in water. Compared to its power in air, its power in water will (a) Increase (b) Remain the same


(c) Diminish for red light and increase for blue light (d) Diminish

483. A prism disperses a ray of white light while a rectangular glass slab does not. This is because (a) In a glass slab a ray of white light cannot split into its constituent

colours (b) In a glass slab a ray of white light simply passes straight (c) A glass slab can be considered as an achromatic combination of

two prisms; the dispersion produced by one prism is cancelled by the dispersion produced by the other

(d) None of these

484. The spreading of white light into its component colours is known as (a) Dispersion (b) Deviation (c) Refraction (d) Diffraction

485. Doppler effect occurs in the case of (a) Light waves (b) Sound waves (c) Both a and b (d) Neither a nor b

486. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Pressure undergoes no change at the nodes in the case of

longitudinal stationary waves (b) Pressure is minimum at the nodes in the case of longitudinal

stationary waves (c) Pressure is maximum at nodes in the case of longitudinal stationary

waves (d) None of the above

487. Ultrasonic waves (a) Have a crushing and penetrating power (b) Bring about biological effect such as maiming a frog (c) Influence chemical reactions (d) All the above

488. Ultrasonic sound waves have (a) Frequencies less than 20 Hz (b) Velocities greater than 330 m/s (c) Frequencies higher than 20,000 Hz (d) Velocity equal to that of a supersonic plane

489. Coherent sources for studies in interference of light are obtained from (a) Two sources derived from a single source of light having a constant

phase difference (b) Two independent sources of light having a varying phase difference (c) Two independent sources of light having a constant phase difference (d) None of the above

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Direction for Q. 490 – 500 : These questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). Examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these questions from the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explantion of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

490. Assertion A: As one goes inside the surface of the earth, the value of g increases. Reason R: The force of gravitational attraction between two bodies varies inversely as the square of the distance between them.

491. Assertion A: Light waves have different refractive indices in different media Reason R: Variations in the velocities of light in different media cause the refractive indices to be different.

492. Assertion A: It the temperature of the atmospheric air is decreased, the velocity of sound waves propagating through it increases. Reason R: The propagation of sound through atmospheric air is in the form of longitudinal waves.

493. Assertion A: If we take water in a cylinder with two holes on its side, then the water coming out from the lower hole traverses more horizontal distance than the water coming out from the upper hole. Reason R: The pressure at the lower hole is more than that at the upper hole.

494. Assertion A: When a man is standing in a lift which is either at rest or moving up or moving down, with uniform speed, he does not find any apparent change in his weight Reason R: The reaction of the floor of the lift is equal to his weight.

495. Assertion A: The solar spectrum consists of a bright coloured continuous spectrum interspersed with dark lines. Reason R: The solar radiation undergoes selective absorption in the solar atmosphere before reaching earth.

496. Assertion A: Comets have gaseous tails. Reason R: They are very hot bodies.

497. Assertion A: When a wheel is in motion, a point (on the rim) which is farthest away from the ground will have the highest speed while the point (on the rim) closest to the ground will have the lowest speed.


Reason R: The speed of the point on the rim in the direction of motion and along the circumference of the wheel are additive.

498. Assertion A: A Diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape. Reason R: The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.

499. Assertion A: Transformer is useful for stepping up or stepping down voltages. Reason R: Transformer is a device used in D.C. circuits.

500. Assertion A: The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it. Reason R: Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.

1. Our universe is very big, with millions of bright galaxies and stars that are much bigger than the sun and the earth. Universe is made up of (a) Burning coal (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Iron burning in a hot flame of oxygen

2. Which of the following antiknocking agents is added to petrol to avoid knocking in vehicles? (a) White Petrol (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Tetraethyl lead (d) Indole

3. An organic compound must contain: (a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Silicon

4. Gold and silver are called noble metals because: (a) They do not, normally, react in their natural environment (b) Ladies of royalty wear them as jewellery (c) They are worn by noblemen (d) Even acids cannot dissolve them without strong heat.

5. Diamonds are made of: (a) Pure carbon (b) Pure, shining glass (c) Pure sunlight (d) Pure beryllium

6. Living things contain carbon in two forms, carbon-12 which is stable and carbon-13 that decays and declines in proportionate quantity. The technique that uses this principle for determining the age of fossils, skeletons, old trees and dinosaurs is known as: (a) Fossil carbon (b) Radio-carbon dating (c) Carbon-12 dating (d) The Carbon Age

7. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize twice, once for Chemistry and once for Peace? (a) George Wald (b) Linus Pauling (c) Albert Einstein (d) Wolfgang Pauli

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8. When a gas is compressed, its volume decreases. Who discovered through scientific experiments the quantitative relation between the pressure and volume of gases? (a) Sir Thomas Roe (b) Sir Albert Einstein (c) Sir Isaac Newton (d) Sir Robert Boyle

9. Type-metal is used in printing presses as a picture, number or alphabet letter-type for printing. It contains: (a) Chromium (b) Lead (c) Oxygen (d) Steel

10. Electric joints in electric circuits of radios, televisions, tape-recorders and related equipment are soldered, using solder which is made of: (a) Lead and aluminium (b) Tin and lead (c) Iron and copper (d) Aluminium and copper

11. Which of the following is an artificial element made by man? (a) Gallium (b) Iron (c) Helium (d) Americium

12. The chemical properties of the elements of matter have been found to repeat in regular patterns. This pattern can be seen in the arrangement of atoms in the: (a) Nutrition table (b) Calculus table (c) Periodic table (d) Chemical table

13. What happens to the colour of litmus paper when you put a drop of acid on it (a) It gets destroyed (b) From red it turns blue (c) From blue it turns red (d) It is unaffected by acid

14. Liquids flow from a higher to a lower level. Which liquid can climb up the walls of the glass vessel in which it is kept? (a) Liquid helium (b) Alcohol (c) Water (d) Liquid nitrogen

15. Dyes are used for colouring various materials, like, cloth and plastic. William Perkins, the English Chemist, discovered dyes for colouring from: (a) Asphalt (b) Coal tar (c) Baking ovens (d) Zinc

16. The most abundant organic compound in the world is: (a) Cellulose (b) Alkaloids (c) Methane (d) Chlorophyll

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17. The nuclear process that takes place when a hydrogen bomb is exploded is of the same nature as the process: (a) In the sun and stars (b) On the rings of Saturn and on its planets (c) In the earth’s centre (d) During a red dust storm

18. Fermentation of cider, wine or malt produces vinegar, which is used for preserving onions, in pickles and in flavouring food. It is essentially: (a) Citric acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Sodium carbonate (d) Lime in soda

19. Tungsten and Vanadium are important metals. When added to steel, they make it hard. Such steel alloys are used for making: (a) High-speed tools (b) Forging presses (c) Diamond safes (d) Ball bearings

20. In some places a hard, cement concrete structure with pores is desired. The concrete pores can be made by the release of oxygen gas from inside the concrete by: (a) Steam (b) Hydrogen peroxide (c) Sodium peroxide (d) Ozone.

21. From methyl alcohol we get: (a) Bakelite, a hard plastic (b) The rubber neoprene (c) The plastic perspex (d) Sponge rubber

22. When a nutrient like a fertilizer is present in large quantities in a pond, plants grow and decay in large numbers, suffocating the pond by not leaving sufficient oxygen in the water for supporting life. This kind of pollution is known as: (a) Smog (b) Eutrophication (c) Environmental pollution (d) Greenhouse effect

23. Match the following: List I List II

A. Glass 1. Phosphorus B. Match 2. Sodium chloride C. Fertilizer 3. Sodium silicate D. Salt 4. Potassium sulphate

A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1


24. In the Periodic table, neighbouring elements are generally, more related to each other in their physical and chemical properties than the ones farther away. Identify the combination of unrelated families. (a) Iron, cobalt and nickel (b) Chlorine, bromine and iodine (c) Chromium, molybdenum and tungsten (d) Oxygen, carbon and phosphorous

25. Spacecrafts returning from their voyage in outer space enter the earth’s atmosphere with great speed, which makes them burning hot. Which metal is used as a shield to withstand these high temperatures? (a) Lead (b) Titanium (c) Iron (d) Nickel

26. The discovery of the fact that oxygen and hydrogen combine to form water, was a major step in the development of science. Who made this discovery? (a) Carl Wilhelm Scheele (b) Isaac Newton (c) Joseph Priestley (d) Henry Cavendish

27. Nylon is a well-known polymer used in fabrics and motor tyres. Nylon–66 is made from hexamethylene tetramine (having six methyl groups) and: (a) Adipic acid, a six-carbon chain fatty acid (b) Sulphurous acid with six atoms of various elements (c) Sulphur hexafluoride with six fluorine atoms (d) Cobalt hexamine cation with six ammonia ligands

28. Gypsum is a widely occurring mineral. It is the sulphate of calcium with two molecules of water attached. On heating, it loses three quarters of its water and becomes: (a) Baking soda (b) Plaster of Paris (c) A pearl (d) An ultramarine

29. Washing soaps are potassium and sodium salts of: (a) Acetones, ketones and quinones (b) Formic, acetic and maleic acids (c) Oleic, palmitic and stearic acids (d) Sulphur, chlorine and fluorine

30. The earth is physically a habitable place, being neither very hot nor very cold. Other planets may be very hot or very cold making it difficult for forms of life to survive. Venus has a surface temperature of: (a) Molten wax (b) Severe winter conditions as on poles (c) -100ºC (d) Molten lead

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31. Stainless steel is an alloy of chromium and nickel used in domestic utensils and in industry. It does not rust because: (a) Iron forms a hard chemical with chromium (b) Chromium forms a coating of oxide that protects iron (c) Nickel does not rust (d) The carbon of steel combines with chromium

32. A molecule of water has the same shape as a molecule of: (a) Boron fluoride (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Chlorine oxide (d) Acetylene

33. When light is absorbed a photochemical change may take place. When molecules are excited by a striking quantum (unit) of light: (a) They may react in any number (b) None of them react (c) All of them react (d) A certain proportion of them react

34. Which of the following is not an antibiotic which fight disease, thereby, save and preserve life. ? (a) Neomycin (b) Cyclohexane (c) Tetracycline (d) Carbomycin

35. Phosphate ions from fertilizers are sometimes present as contaminants in municipal sewage. These have been removed with some success by: (a) Passing of chlorine (b) Heating at 70ºC (c) Filtration (d) Passing of steam

36. Iron is used in different forms, like, cast iron, steel and alloys. The iron-carbon diagram is the basis for the branch of science known as: (a) Ferrous metallurgy (b) Stereochemistry (c) Carbon metallurgy (d) Organic chemistry

37. Humus, a soil-enricher, is formed halfway in the process of decay of plants and animals. Pick the substance which is not the content of this? (a) Fats (b) Lignins (c) 30% proteins (d) Polyuronides (complex sugars)

38. Which scientist discovered that the same amount of space was occupied by equal numbers of molecules of gases, irrespective of whether it was hydrogen or chlorine or fluorine? (a) Gay-Lussac of France (b) Avogadro of Italy (c) Marconi of Italy (d) Wohler of Germany


39. When magnesium metal is combined with aluminium, zinc, copper and manganese, we get a light, hard alloy called electrum, which is used for making: (a) Plates for light ships (b) Pressure cookers (c) Propellers of engines and aircraft (d) Weights for measuring gold

40. Atomic clocks can measure time very accurately. They are not affected by the movement of the earth or the sun. The measurement is based on the: (a) Size of atoms (b) Chemical reaction of atoms (c) Movement of atoms (d) Vibration of atoms

41. The molecules (smallest particles) in the vapour of aluminium chloride: (a) Are each shaped like a plane triangle (b) Are round (c) Have no shape (d) Look like a collection of randomly broken bricks

42. Without water, iron will not rust at ordinary temperatures. Iron and oxygen may lie together for hundreds of years without any chemical reaction taking place. The moment a drop of water is added rusting can begin. Water acts as a: (a) Catalyst (b) Wettening agent (c) Chain reactor (d) Solvent

43. Bentonite, a clay of alumina-silica is dropped from aeroplanes in the form of a slurry with water for the purpose of: (a) Cooling the soil (b) Fertilizing the soil (c) Fumigation of plants (d) Spreading water over fires

44. An ‘aerosol’ is a fine dispersion of: (a) Tiny air bubbles in water (b) Tiny droplets of liquid in the air (c) Grease in water (d) Chalk particles and sand in water

45. We have heard of sterling coins and sterling character. Sterling silver is: (a) 99% pure silver (b) A solid solution of silver in copper (c) A compound of silver and nickel (d) A solid solution of copper in silver

46. Which one of the following was not present when life began on earth? (a) Calcium (b) Hydrogen and Nitrogen (c) Water (d) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide

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47. Rubber is very soft. Therefore, it is vulcanised and used in tyres. Vulcanised rubber resists: (a) Drops of acid rain (b) Cold temperatures (c) Jerking movement (d) Wear and tear due to friction

48. The sixth planet of the solar system is the huge planet Saturn. The beautiful, coloured rings of Saturn are, mainly, made of: (a) Millions of rocks and chunks of ice (b) Greenish clouds of chlorine and sulphur dust (c) Red dust particles in the air (d) Reflection of light from tiny mirrors of silver compounds

49. Arsenic is toxic. Therefore its presence, if any, in a room has to be detected. Which of the following gases can detect arsenic by reacting with it? (a) Methane (b) Fluorine (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Acetylene

50. Technological civilization is based on structural materials, particularly iron, which is extracted from its ores by: (a) Heating in a tank with charcoal (b) Smelting in a blast furnace with coke (c) Melting in a huge vessel with clay (d) Heating in a blast of carbon monoxide

51. An electron in an atom can be identified by: (a) Charge (b) Its spin (c) Four quantum numbers (d) The path in which it is spinning

52. If a piece of zinc and a piece of copper are brought in contact, they will form a weak, electrical combination. This was stated by: (a) Einstein in 1927 (b) Michael Faraday in 1813 (c) Sir Humphrey Davy in 1812 (d) Volta in medieval times

53. Orlon and Acrilan are fibres of well-known textile materials of the same name. They are copolymers of: (a) Styrene and butadiene (b) Alcohol and ester (c) Acrylonitrile and 2-vinylpyridine (d) Methane and acetone


54. The sun is continuously releasing nuclear energy in the form of radiation. This: (a) Prevents it from collapsing under its own weight (b) Makes it lighter (c) Makes it heavier than the stars (d) Prevents light from other stars from reaching the sun

55. Which of the following is correct for tea? (a) Acidic and nicotine (b) Alkaline and caffeine (c) Alkaline and nicotine (d) Acidic and caffeine

56. A very small sub-atomic particle was passed through large tanks of water containing Cadmium when two gamma-rays were produced and a neutron was captured by Cadmium, the existence of this particle was inferred. Can you tell which particle was it? (a) The neutron (b) The anti-neutrino (c) The proton (d) The electron

57. If your teeth start decaying, the dentist may advise you to have your teeth filled. Which of the following is not used as the dental filling? (a) Gold (b) Sorel’s cement (c) Zinc oxychloride (d) Zinc

58. Copper, a metal known from ancient times, has many uses, some of which are mentioned here. Can you pick the false one? (a) As an alloy in high-speed drills (b) In brass utensils and bronze statues (c) In electric motor coils (d) In taps and water connections

59. The waste, or slag, that comes out at the bottom of a blast furnace for making iron from its ore, is not thrown away. It is used for making: (a) Dental powder (b) Roads (c) Plastics (d) Glass moulds

60. To solve the problem of looking bald, human hair wigs are worn, which are very expensive. Synthetic wigs are made from a copolymer of vinyl chloride and acrylonitrile, called: (a) Dynel (b) Cellulose (c) Polyacrylonitrile (d) PVC (or polyvinyl chloride)

61. Clay is used for making bricks and flower pots. If the clay article is not dried before ‘firing’ in a kiln, there will be evaporation of water from the surface and the: (a) Kiln fire will be put out by steam (b) Article will become soft (c) Article will become hard (d) Article will develop cracks

Chemistry 85

62. If gold is added to glass, we get highly-valued: (a) Ruby glass (b) Gems (c) Diamonds (d) Pearls

63. Entropy is a measure of disorder. For perfect, crystalline substances at the coldest, imaginable temperature known as the zero degrees absolute, it is said that entropy becomes: (a) Constant (b) Zero (c) Very low (d) Minus

64. Washing soaps produce a scum with hard water and not much foam, because hard water contains: (a) Chalk and sulphur (b) Many dissolved inorganic salts (c) Many suspended particles (d) Organic matter

65. Which of the following is not a natural dye of either vegetable or animal origin? (a) Tyrian purple (b) Indigo (c) Saffron (d) Azo dye

66. Calcium magnesium silicate is: (a) Asbestos (b) Litmus (c) Prussian blue (d) Slate

67. If light of any frequency is passed through a substance, it is scattered. This scattered radiation contains some light that has a different wavelength. This is known as the: (a) Raman effect (b) Fluorescence (c) Coolidge effect (d) Solar spectrum

68. ‘Smog’, which means ‘smoke’ plus ‘fog’, irritates eyes and the throat. Smog is mainly caused by pollutants from automobiles and industries, when they: (a) Hit a dense shower of snow flakes (b) React photochemically, due to the effect of ultraviolet light (c) Form a smoke ring (d) React with oxygen in the air due to lightning electrical discharge from clouds

69. When different metals like zinc, iron or tin were dropped in dilute sulphuric acid, it was found that the same gas was evolved, which burned explosively in air. This gas was (a) Oxygen (b) Ammonia (c) Chlorine (d) Hydrogen

70. Which of the following compounds is used as a sedative (sleep- inducing substance)? (a) Alcohol (b) Potassium bromide (c) Calcium Chloride (d) Phosphorous trichloride


71. Which of the following is a super-cooled liquid? (a) Glass (b) Ammonia (c) Ice cream (d) Wood

72. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Change in entropy is directly proportional to the amount of heat

taken up (b) Change in entropy is defined as the ratio of the amount of heat

taken up to the absolute temperature (c) Entropy is a quantity introduced to give clear expression to the

results of thermodynamics (d) The entropy of a system is a measure of its degree of disorder

73. The extent of pollution in the environment can be known by the quantity in which they are present. This is indicated in terms of ‘ppm’, which stands for: (a) Parts per million (b) Pollutant presence measure (c) Purity per microgram (d) Particles per mole

74. Aluminium occurs abundantly in the earth’s crust, in the form of aluminium silicates. Which of the following is not an alumino-silicate? (a) Kaolin (China clay) (b) Clay (c) Mica (d) Brookite

75. When X-rays are passed through a solution of ferrous sulphate, it is converted into ferric sulphate. This principle is used for measuring radiation emitted by radioactive substances in an instrument called the: (a) Cloud chamber (b) Dosimeter (c) Geiger-Muller counter (d) Oscilloscope

76. When white phosphorous is heated, it is converted into red phosphorous. If you add a little iodine, the conversion is faster. Here, iodine acts as a/an: (a) Catalyst (b) Oxidizer (c) Lubricant (d) Heating agent

77. Methane gas is an organic fuel obtained from the sources mentioned here. Pick the false one? (a) Coal gas (b) Molasses (c) Natural gas (d) Sewage

78. The starting point for manufacture of the anaesthetic chloroform, is: (a) Acetone (b) Formic acid (c) Chlorine (d) Carbon tetrachloride

79. Sugar candies are very hard. In order to make them soft, a substance is added, that also has a slightly sweet taste. Identify that substance? (a) Honey (b) Alcohol (c) Glycerine (d) Jaggery

Chemistry 87

80. Which one of the following elements forms compounds that are all coloured? (a) Magnesium (b) Aluminium (c) Iron (d) Chromium

81. The world’s largest supply of sulphur comes from deposits in a relatively pure form, from: (a) U.S.A. (b) China (c) U.S.S.R. (d) India

82. When items of jewellery made of base metals like copper, iron or nickel are placed in a solution containing a compound of gold, a film of gold is deposited by: (a) Cooling to 5 degrees centigrade (b) Adding acid (c) Heating (d) Passing an electric current

83. Zinc oxide is used in: (a) Bleaching of paper (b) White paint (c) Black glasses (d) Sweet-smelling soaps

84. Nickel and cadmium are used in combination: (a) As a catalyst (b) In alloys that can resist high pressure (c) In electric batteries having a very long life (d) In cooking utensils

85. Graphite is used for making electrodes and articles like writing pencils. It is made by heating coke with some silica for many hours in: (a) A blast furnace (b) A high electric furnace (c) The presence of air (d) A blast of steam under pressure

86. Beautiful crystals arise from various chemical substances. A single chemical can, sometimes, give rise to different crystals because of different: (a) Angles of vision (b) Arrangement of atoms in space (c) Composition (d) Weight of atoms

87. The strength of steel greatly depends on how it is ‘quenched’. This means that the: (a) Hot steel is cooled (b) Steel is forged (c) Steel is heated (d) Steel is bent


88. In 1896, Henri Becquerel, a French chemist, by chance left some photographic films covered with a black paper near a sample of uranium. On developing the film, it was found to have been exposed. This led to the discovery of: (a) Radioactivity (b) Plutonium (c) Infrared rays (d) Television transmission

89. Iron is a metal that is obtained in different forms. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) Wrought iron can be welded and forged (b) Cast iron can be cast into drain pipes (c) Pig iron is impure (d) Pig iron is made from cast iron

90. Pollution of lakes and rivers affects aquatic life. Fish cannot live in water that has oxygen less than 4 milligrams per litre. Other fresh water aquatic life (including anaerobic bacteria) also cannot survive without adequate oxygen. ‘BOD’ stands for: (a) Biological oxygen demand (b) Bacterial oxygen deficit (c) Basic oxygen demand (d) Building oxygen depots

91. ‘pH’ is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a liquid such as a chemical solution, blood, water or a medium like soil. The term ‘pH’ comes from: (a) Hydrogen purity (b) Pure hydrogen (c) Poue voir hydrogene (or hydrogen power) (d) Principle of hydrogen

92. Viruses exist on the borderline between living and non-living matter. They cause diseases in animals, plants and human beings. They are made of biochemicals known as: (a) Enzymes (b) Nucleoproteins (c) Carbohydrates (d) Peptones

93. The odourless, poisonous gas mixed with smoke that arises from burning coal is: (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane

94. The air we breathe in modern times can no longer be said to be ‘fresh’. With every breath that we take, we inhale billions of molecules of

Chemistry 89

pollutant chemicals. Some man-made sources of pollution are mentioned here. Select the least controllable one? (a) Domestic cooking (b) Chemical and other industries (c) Motor cars and other vehicles (d) Thermal power plants

95. Which of the following artificial substances is harder that diamond? (a) Chrome steel (b) Carborundum (silicon carbide) (c) Adamantane (d) Borazon (boron nitride)

96. Bronze statues and articles of copper slowly tarnish in air and turn green. This green colour is due to the formation of: (a) Basic copper sulphate (b) An oxalate (c) Copper sulphate (d) Copper oxide

97. Chemical weapons have been developed which are poisons that interfere with the enzyme cholinesterase of the human nerves, glands, muscles and heart-beat leading to fatal consequences. Which of the following is a deadly nerve gas developed during the Second World War? (a) Sarin (b) Nitric oxide (c) Phosgene (d) Argon

98. When glass is heated, it: (a) Does not melt at a fixed temperature (b) Vapourises (c) Melts only above 1000ºC (d) Has a fixed melting point for each type of glass

99. Lawn tennis hard courts are sometimes made of flat slabs of shale. These slabs are bound by: (a) Feldspar (b) Hydrated calcium (c) Iron oxide (d) Argentite

100. The first dye that was prepared synthetically was: (a) Mauveine (b) Azo-dyes (c) Malachite green (d) Phthalein dyes

101. When the soil of the greenhouse nurseries is sterilized with methyl bromide gas, it leads to deficiency of: (a) Cellulose in roots (b) Chlorophyll in green leaves (c) Zinc in plants (d) Iron in red flowers

102. Pumice is derived from (a) Igneous rock (b) Sedimentary rock (c) Volcanic rock (d) Acid lava


103. Common salt or table salt is part of our daily diet. However, it is also a basic raw material for many industries. Common salt can be converted into important and useful industrial chemicals mentioned except one. Identify that? (a) Sodium nitrate (used in the fertilizer industry) (b) Sodium sulphate (used in making glass) (c) Sodium peroxide (to make hydrogen peroxide) (d) Sodium oxide (used in making paints)

104. Urea is prepard by the chemical reaction of (a) Acetamide and ethyl alcohol (b) Ammonium sulphate and calcium chloride (c) Ammonia and Carbon dioxide (d) Chlorine and water

105. The hard, plastic covers of telephones are made of polymers of: (a) Styrene (b) Acrylonitrile (c) Phenol-formaldehyde (d) Fluoromethane

106. Which of the following is a physical change? (a) Photosynthesis (b) Melting of steel (c) Burning of wood (d) Radioactive decay

107. Detergents are made usually from products obtained by cracking of petroleum, like: (a) The sulphide of hydrogen (b) The sulphur compounds of benzene (c) The chloroalkanes (d) Propylene derivatives

108. The basic chemical building block of natural rubber obtained from trees is: (a) Acetylene (b) Vinyl chloride (c) Isoprene (d) Neoprene

109. Human blood is composed of red cells, lipids and many chemicals. The pH (hydrogen ion concentration) of blood is maintained by carbon dioxide, carbonic acid in the body and chemical constituents of blood. This maintenance of the pH is known as: (a) Acidity (b) Buffer action (c) Colloidal action (d) Salt balance

110. In actual practice, it is impossible to attain the lowest temperature known to scientific theory, namely, the zero degrees absolute. This is nothing but a simple statement of the third law of: (a) Science (b) Thermodynamics (c) Newton’s theory of motion (d) Cryogenics

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111. Under the high pressure of sea water at great depths, nitrogen breathed can cause pain in sea divers. Therefore, the oxygen in pressurized suits of divers is mixed with: (a) Argon (b) Helium (c) Purified air (d) Hydrogen

112. A chemical bond between two atoms is: (a) The tunnel in an atom through which the other one can pass (b) The energy of the individual atoms (c) The link between them (d) A third, connecting atom

113. Fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine form a family of related elements, known as: (a) Light gases (b) Halogens (c) Purines (d) The aromatic ring

114. Coastal towns and places have their own problems. One of them is the effect of sea water on the articles installed or in use. Which of the following metals is least corroded by the chemical action of sea water? (a) Iron (b) Nickel (c) Zinc (d) Cadmium

115. Chromium-plated steel is a material of popular use. During its process of manufacture, the effluent contains chromate and cyanide ions as impurities. After these are chemically removed, carbon dioxide and salt (sodium chloride) still remain as impurities. This salt solution is purified electrolytically by adding carbonaceous matter which acts as: (a) A microcell (b) An electrode (c) A cathode (d) A salt absorber

116. A new technique has been developed where a jet of water in a mixture with hard, fine particles of abrasives is thrown at high speed for: (a) Cleaning plastic sheets (b) Polishing metal (c) Softening wood for furniture making (d) Cutting steel

117. Hair sprays generally contain resins in a volatile solvent. Upon drying, they leave a thin film that holds the hair in place. Which of the following is a resin used in hair spray? (a) Polyester (b) Polyvinyl alcohol (c) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone (PVP) (d) Polythene

118. The engines of the rocket that helped the Apollo 11 spacecraft to land on the moon, used for rocket fuel power: (a) Hydrazine (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Propane


119. Transition metals are hard and lustrous substances with high melting points and form highly coloured compounds. Which of the following are not transition metals? (a) Scandium, titanium, vanadium and zinc (b) Iron, manganese and nickel (c) Chromium, cobalt and copper (d) Aluminium, lead and tin

120. ‘Koroseal’ is a long, chain polymer. When mixed with plasticizers, it forms an excellent plastic. Which one of the following is not the use of it? (a) For water-proofing (b) Lining material for tanks (c) In wire and cable insulation (d) For sun-shading

121. Calcium carbide reacts with nitrogen to form a black mixture of carbon and cyanamide. This mixture, known as nitrolime, is used as: (a) A fertilizer (b) A dye (c) A paint (d) An explosive

122. The neutron is a neutral (non-electrical) particle in the centre of the atom. It was discovered when a tiny piece of the metal, beryllium, was bombarded with alpha particles. This discovery was made by: (a) Chadwick (b) Rutherford (c) Niels Bohr (d) Enrico Fermi

123. The gas in a refrigerator causes cooling on expansion because: (a) The density of gas goes down (b) Heat of the gas is lost as work is done by the gas (c) Work done by the gas is converted into heat (d) The heat is spread over a larger space

124. Coffee stains on clothing, paper, plastic or crockery and trays can be properly removed by: (a) Vegetable oil (b) Water (c) Sodium hypochlorite (d) Vinegar

125. Plastics are: (a) Salts (b) Acids (c) Polymers (d) Solvents

126. A substance can be identified because its chemical environment often shows up like a finger print in a spectrum. This fine region of finger prints of the chemical environment of a chemical compound is created by: (a) Infrared radiation (b) Ultraviolet light (c) Nuclear magnetic resonance (d) X-rays

Chemistry 93

127. Dacron is an excellent cloth which is resistant to wrinkles and moth. It is a synthetic polyester fibre made from: (a) Vinyl Pyridine (b) Caprolactum and alcohol (c) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol (d) Phthalic acid and cellulose

128. Serving trays for tea or food, made of aluminium, often have coloured finishes. These finishes are formed when an electric current is passed, which creates an oxide of aluminium layer that absorbs dyes. This is called: (a) Galvanizing (b) Anodizing (c) Sherardizing (d) Annealing

129. An ore is a mineral from which a metal can be extracted: (a) Profitably (b) By melting (c) By chemicals (d) Scientifically

130. Starch is made by photosynthesis in the leaves of plants. It is found in rice, potatoes and many vegetable sources. It can be detected with a drop of iodine. In the presence of starch, iodine: (a) Vapourises (b) Turns blue (c) Decolourises (d) Turns into a black solid

131. A good amount of evidence is there to indicate that stars make heavy elements like the ones found on earth. Light coming from a star was collected through a telescope. It showed that an element was present in the star, whose half-life span was much less than the age of the star, which showed that it was made much after the star was born. Which of the following elements was this? (a) Polonium (b) Technetium (c) Uranium (d) Radium

132. From formaldehyde we get formalin, which is a powerful: (a) Preservative and disinfectant (b) Bleaching and whitening agent (c) Painkiller (d) Deodorant

133. A typical battery used is the mercury cell, which is used in: (a) Electric watches (b) Television sets (c) Radio transistors (d) Electric torches

134. Graphite is used in pencils. It leaves a black trace of writing on paper because it consists of layers of carbon atoms that: (a) Are wound inside, like a long thread (b) Are attracted by paper material (c) Fall easily (d) Slide over each other


135. Salicylic acid, picric acid, aspirin, nylon and plastics have a common raw material, namely: (a) Phenol (b) Formic acid (c) Methane (d) Alcohol

136. Ice skating can be used to demonstrate that when ice is under pressure, its(a) Melting point remains unchanged (b) Melting point is raised (c) Melting point is lowered (d) Coefficient of friction with metal is reduced

137. If water samples are taken from the sea, rivers, clouds, lakes or snow, they will be found to contain hydrogen and oxygen in the ration of 1:8. This clearly demonstrates the law of: (a) Chemical equilibrium (b) Definite proportions (c) Combining volumes (d) The relation of elements in the periodic table

138. Coking coal is used for making iron. It was invented by Abraham Darby of England when he added to coal the right proportion of: (a) Sulphur (b) Steam (c) Lime (d) Copper

139. When a dye is formed on the fibre or cloth by a chemical reaction at the time of dyeing, the process is known as: (a) Synthesis (b) Direct dyeing (c) Vat dyeing (d) Absorption

140. Metals are different from rocks, gases, salts, acids and bases. They have special properties, such as metallic lustre, conduction of heat and electricity and imparting colours to flames. These special properties are caused by the presence of mobile electrons in a structure with a special chemical bond. Can you identify it? (a) The hydrogen bond (b) The ionic bond (c) The covalent bond (d) The metal bond

141. ‘90-Octane Petrol’ is a rating that indicates that the petrol in the engine would not waste its energy in making a ‘knocking sound’, but would rather use its energy efficiently towards maintaining speed for travel. ‘90-Octane petrol’ means that the petrol is as good as: (a) 90% octane (b) 90% normal heptane and 10% iso-octane (c) A mixture of 90% iso-octane and 10% normal (straight chain)

heptane (d) 90% petrol

Chemistry 95

142. Which one of the following is a mineral? (a) Gypsum (b) Magnesium (c) Manganese (d) Bauxite

143. Iron nails rust fast when used for fixing plates or strips of aluminium on a building. Similarly, a water pipe made of iron corrodes faster when connected to a pipe of copper. This happens because of the: (a) Greater wetting of iron (b) Easier flow of electrons to iron (c) Higher rusting power of iron (d) Chemical reduction of iron

144. Paraffin wax is a solid product obtained from petroleum. Some of its uses are mentioned here. Mark the wrong one? (a) In greases for axles of motor vehicles (b) As a coating on paper (c) In the making of candles (d) As a stiffening agent in cosmetic creams

145. Calcium carbonate can crystallize as calcite or as aragonite, having different crystal systems. These are called: (a) Polymorphs (b) Polymers (c) Isomers (d) Mirror images

146. Nitrobenzene is used for making aniline, an important chemical used in:

(a) The making of glue (b) The dyeing industry (c) The crimping of wool (d) Fast-drying varnish

147. Alkaline earth metals are sparingly soluble in water and their carbonates evolve carbon dioxide on heating. Which of the following is not an alkaline earth metal? (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Beryllium (d) Aluminium

148. Pig iron can be converted into steel by removing a lot of carbon contained in it, in a/an: (a) Electrolytic chamber (b) Bessemer Converter (c) Blast furnace (d) A pyrite burner

149. Geiger-Muller counters and scintillation counters are instruments for measuring: (a) Time (b) X-rays (c) The speed of chemical reactions (d) Radioactivity

150. ‘I.U.P.A.C.’, stands for (a) Iodine Under Packing (b) International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry


(c) International Units of Protein and Carbohydrates (d) International Understanding on Physical Aspects of Chemistry

151. ‘Thermal pollution’ means dumping heat in an ecological system, like a lake or a pond. Thermal power plants have to throw some heat into a ‘sink’ because they: (a) Get overheated (b) Have special anti-pollution laws (c) Follow the local sanitation laws (d) Follow the second natural law of thermodynamics

152. Silt in water remains suspended. It is removed by sedimentation and filtration. For increasing its sedimentation aluminium sulphates and calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) are added. As a result sticky aluminium hydroxide: (a) Destroys silt particles (b) Attracts the particles of silt (c) Mixes with silt particles (d) Makes silt particles increase in size and deposit at the bottom

153. Alkyd resins are made of glycerol. These are used: (a) For paints and coatings (b) Instead of alkanes (c) As a substitute for white chalk (d) For making alcohol

154. Borax (sodium tetraborate) has many uses, some of which are mentioned here, except (a) For giving a glaze to linen, in laundering (b) In bleaching of paper pulp (c) Making heat-resistant (d) As a flux in welding and soldering

155. We live in an age of nuclear weapons. When an atom of uranium- 235 splits, it releases nuclear particles. These particles lead to great destruction, in the circumstances when: (a) An uncontrolled chain reaction occurs (b) A volcano of heat is evolved (c) There is a controlled chain reaction (d) Cosmic rays accompany them with shock waves and fire

156. Colloids may be more than a thousand times as big as an atom, but are more than thousand times smaller than an ant. These colloids can be removed from a solution by a: (a) Thin piece of cloth (b) Centrifuge (c) Filter paper (d) Parchment paper

Chemistry 97

157. Extremely dangerous and deadly cardiac glycosides are carried from the milkweed plant by the: (a) Night cockroaches (b) Bumble bee (c) Larvae of the monarch butterfly (d) Green grasshopper

158. Phosphorescence is the phenomenon observed when light passing through a substance gets absorbed and the substance continues to emit light and glow even in the dark when the light source is cut off. Which of the following is a phosphorescent substance? (a) Gems (b) Zinc sulphide (c) Diamond (d) Silver chloride

159. The newly discovered high-temperature superconductors are (a) Ceramic oxides (b) Pure rare-earth metals (c) Metal alloys (d) Inorganic polymers

160. Aluminium metal gets corroded or ‘rusted’ in places that are near to the sea, because the oxide film that protects it: (a) Is attacked by salt from sea water (b) Reacts with water (c) Is removed by sea water (d) Reacts with sand particles

161. When oxygen gas is either absent or present in low quantity in the solid, in places like stagnant swamps, the soil is said to be in a: (a) Physical state of high viscosity (b) Chemically oxidizing (aerobic) state (c) Chemically reducing (anaerobic) state (d) Breathless, carbon dioxide environment

162. Chromium is used in making: (a) Stainless steel (b) Mosaic-floor grinders (c) Electrodes (d) Bronze

163. X-rays are produced when a stream of electrons in an X-ray tube: (a) Meet a thin ray of light (b) Strike a metal target (c) Hit the glass wall of the tube (d) Pass through a strong, magnetic field

164. Which of the following is not a mineral? (a) Feldspar (b) Mica (c) Quartz (d) Peat

165. The atoms in a molecule do not remain stationary. They vibrate around their mean position, by stretching or bending out of plane. We gain


useful knowledge about these vibrations and the energy they carry by studying: (a) X-ray spectra (b) Ultraviolet spectra (c) Infrared spectra (d) Visible spectra

166. When fuel is added to the exhaust (burnt) gases in a jet engine, combustion takes place. Some facts are mentioned here about this combustion. Pick the false one? (a) It increases the intake of oxygen from the air (b) It reduces fuel consumption (c) It gives additional thrust (d) It is known as ‘after burning’

167. Various methods are adopted for protecting iron from rust. Which of the following statements is false? (a) Chrome plating looks good (b) Ordinary tin plating is cheap but not reliable (c) Zinc plating is more permanent than chrome plating (d) Zinc protects iron but does not protect itself

168. When a mixture of sand, borax, alumina, soda and potassium carbonate are heated and melted, ‘Borosilicate glass’ is formed. This glass has the special property of being: (a) Resistant to heat (b) Very transparent (c) Tough (d) Unbreakable

169. When on heating, a solid becomes vapour without forming any liquid, it is said to have sublimed. Which of the following sublimes on heating? (a) Salt (b) Iodine (c) Iron (d) Calcium

170. The yellow colour of straw and wool can be removed by bleaching with a solution of: (a) Iodine (b) Nitrites (c) Sulphites (d) Caustic soda

171. Radon is a member of the noble gas family. Its radioactivity can be used for treatment of: (a) Typhoid (b) Cancer (c) Thyroid problems (d) Gallstones

172. Which of the following is a chemical change? (a) Explosion of dynamite (b) Sublimation of iodine (c) Melting of sodium in a nuclear reactor (d) Condensation of steam

Chemistry 99

173. Which solvent is used for dry-cleaning of clothes? (a) Carbon tetrachloride (b) Alcohol (c) Acetone (d) Freon

174. Some substances that show fluorescence are mentioned here. Pick the false one? (a) Fluorescein (b) Naphthacene shows green fluorescence (c) Anthracene shows a violet fluorescence (d) Radium

175. Modern oil-based paints contain oils that can dry to form strong, adhesive films by cross-linking of fatty acid chains. Some of these ‘drying oils’ are mentioned here. Can you pick the false one? (a) Linseed oil (b) Turpentine oil (c) Soyabean (d) Castor oil

176. The half-life of a radioactive element is 5 years. The fraction of the radioactive substance that remains after 20 years is (a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/16

177. At night when the lights of a scooter or a car fall on a road-sign or on a vehicle moving ahead, the painted letters or numbers shine with a glow. Which of the following is a luminous paint? (a) Nickel-chrome alloy (b) Barium sulphide (c) Zinc sulphide (d) Silver-plated metal

178. This wonderful acid has many uses. It is used for making explosives, pigments, dyes, hydrochloric acid, in sulphonation of oils to make detergents and in lead accumulators. Can you identify it? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Sulphonic acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphamic acid

179. When steam is blown over white-hot coke, we get: (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Ammonia (c) Water gas (d) Inert gas

180. ‘Bouncing putty’ is a toy-like substance that is in a state between a liquid and a solid. If it is thrown on the wall, it bounces back like a ball. But, if it is placed on the table, it collapses into a thick liquid. It is made of: (a) Silicone rubber (b) Tyre rubber (c) Polythene (d) Fibreglass treated with wax

181. Many metals, like, chromium, molybdenum, cobalt and nickel become inert (chemically unreactive) on adding concentrated: (a) Barium sulphate (b) Nitric acid (c) Caustic soda (d) A solution of bromine in water


182. Which of the following does not involve the use of Acetic Acid? (a) Perfume sprays (b) Artificial silk (c) Aspirin for curing headaches (d) Mineral water

183. If you watch a burning candle carefully, you will find different colours in the flame. Which is the hottest part of the candle flame? (a) The middle orange part (b) The middle, yellow part (c) The outermost portion that is blue (d) The innermost black zone

184. Sulphur is used for all the following except (a) In the black colour of shoe polish (b) Vulcanization of rubber (c) In the manufacture of sulphuric acid (d) Protection of grape wines

185. When metal foundry products are cleaned by shot blasting, heat is generated by friction. Nitrogen is used for: (a) Providing an inert atmosphere (b) Cooling the blast chamber (c) Reducing friction (d) Displacing hot air

186. The lightest element in the world is: (a) Oxygen (b) Helium (c) Hydrogen (d) Chlorine

187. Tartaric acid is a colourless, crystalline acid found in fruit juices, like that of grapes. Some of its uses are mentioned here. Pick the false one? (a) In photography (b) In cosmetics (c) In dyeing of cloth (d) In medicines

188. Gold cannot be dissolved by any acid. However, it can be dissolved by aqua regia (kingly water) which is a mixture of: (a) Mineral water and Iodine (b) Nitric and hydrochloric acids (c) Water and sulphur (d) Alcohol and alum

189. The part of the ore of copper that is richly endowed with copper sulphide is obtained as a froth by agitating with: (a) Pineapple Juice (b) Pine oil (c) Lemon Juice (d) Eucalyptus oil

Chemistry 101

190. The cobalt hexammine cation has an atom of cobalt in the centre, surrounded by six molecules of ammonia that are attached to it. The shape of this ion is: (a) Tetrahedral (b) Square (c) Linear (d) Octahedral

191. The metal ions (charged particles) that are required for contraction of muscles in human beings and animals are ions of: (a) Calcium (b) Sodium (c) Potassium (d) Iron

192. ‘Guttapercha’ is a tough, crystalline, thermoplastic. It is: (a) An isomer of natural rubber (b) A synthetic rubber (c) A type of nylon sheet (d) The thread of terylene

193. Bleaching powder has several uses, some of which are mentioned here. Pick the false one? (a) For decolourising sugar (b) For bleaching paper pulp (c) For sterilizing water (d) For making chloroform

194. Monel metal is a metallic alloy of copper and nickel with 5% iron. It is used in making: (a) Locks (b) Strong boxes (c) Almirahs (d) Motor parts

195. Match The columns: List I List II

A. Bauxite 1. Lead B. Haematite 2. Thorium C. Galena 3. Aluminium D. Monazite 4. Iron A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 4 3 1

196. Gases like helium, neon and xenon have a special atomic structure that makes them chemically quite inert. They are also rare in their natural occurrence on earth. The presence of these rare gases was discovered by Sir William Ramsay of Great Britain, for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in: (a) 1928 (b) 1916 (c) 1904 (d) 1940


197. Irritation from the bite of some insects, and the stinging sensation of nettles is caused by: (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Formic acid (c) Aniline (d) Caustic soda

198. Nuclear reactors that make fissionable materials like Plutonium-239, are known as: (a) Plutonium converters (b) Fissile reactors (c) Breeder reactors (d) Nuclear stations

199. Nine planets revolve round the sun. The outer, distant planets are Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus and Pluto. In comparison to these, the ‘inner planets’, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars that are nearer to the centre of the sun contain relatively: (a) New elements of matter (b) Lighter elements (c) Heavier elements of matter (d) Larger quantities of gas

200. Acetaldehyde can be used for making synthetic: (a) Protein (b) Perfumes (c) Rubbers (d) Sugar

201. Oil is found in great quantities in some places under huge pressure. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) The gushing oil can reach a mile up in the sky (b) The oil can collect in a size big enough to float a navy (c) The gushing oil can throw off a crane like a toy (d) Precaution is necessary against fire hazard

202. Natural rubber is obtained as ‘latex’, which is a milky, white fluid from rubber trees. Latex is a: (a) Mixture of rubber and gum (b) Colloidal dispersion of rubber in water (c) Solution of rubber in water (d) Paste of rubber, clay and water

203. Acidity of the soil is of great importance for agriculture. Which of the following plants tolerate a strongly acidic soil and grow well in it? (a) Beans (b) Pineapples (c) Tea (d) Blueberries

204. Teflon, a polymer of tetrafluoroethylene, is an excellent plastic material for films and coatings. Some of its very useful qualities are as follows, except (a) It is unaltered by radiation (b) It can withstand high temperatures (c) It is one of the most chemically-resistant plastic in the world (d) It is an ideal insulator for high-frequency fittings.

Chemistry 103

205. The retina is a delicate spot that receives images through the eye lens and makes us see the world. If it gets detatched, it is very difficult to join it back. Therefore, eye surgeons use: (a) Laser-beams for welding the retina (b) Sound waves for joining (c) Micro-knives for surgery (d) Ultraviolet rays for surgery

206. Zinc chromate and lead chromate are used as: (a) Lakes (b) Lacquers (c) Mordants (d) Pigments

207. Sensitized silver bromide paper is used in photographic reels of cameras. When light falls on it, it forms dark, minute particles of: (a) Silver bromide (b) Silver (c) Bromine (d) Paper

208. Selenium has the unusual property of being a good conductor in light but a poor conductor in the dark. It was, therefore, used in making: (a) Shaded glass (b) Photo-electric cells (c) Photo chemical cells (d) Chromatic lenses

209. Below is a time-temperature curve of a liquid which is being heated on a gas burner. Which of the following statements can be deduced from this curve? (a) The liquid boils off completely at A. (b) The heating stops at A as the gas runs out (c) The liquid starts boiling at A. (d) The curve does not indicate any specific situation

210. A proton is a small, positive particle of the tiny atom. It moves much faster in ice than in water, as if to say, it was: (a) Cutting ice (b) Rotating at a great speed in ice (c) Jumping through a tunnel in the ice (d) Floating at random

211. Lead, a metal, is formed when its sulphide ore is heated in air to form the oxide and then reduced in a small blast furnace with: (a) Carbon (b) Iron (c) Magnesium (d) Silicon

212. Clouds, mist, fog and aerosols (such as perfumes and sprays) are colloidal solutions of a: (a) Liquid in a gas (b) Gas in a solid (c) Solid in a gas (d) Gas in a liquid


213. Beautiful colours of fireworks are produced by adding salts of various metals into the burning mixture. The firework colours of different metals are mentioned here. Can you pick the false one? (a) Calcium gives a brick-red light (b) Sodium gives a yellow light (c) Copper gives a green light (d) Strontium gives a blue light

214. A chelating agent is a chemical that catches a metal ion (charged particle) in its ‘claw’. Penicillin can remove excesses of a metal by chelation in the ailment known as Wilson’s disease. The metal chelated by penicillin is: (a) Nickel (b) Copper (c) Iron (d) Molybdenum

215. Which of the following is not essential for rust to form? (a) Water (b) Iron (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

216. Teflon (tetrafluoroethylene) is a black material used in non-stick pans for frying chips and vegetables. The oil or butter does not stick at all. In the process of manufacture, one of the technical problems is: (a) To make teflon stick to the metal of the pan (b) To make teflon that is non-sticky (c) To make teflon (d) To cut a round sheet of teflon that exactly fits

217. Using special techniques of high temperature and pressure with a suitable catalyst like tantalum, graphite can be converted into: (a) Synthetic coal (b) Charcoal (c) Lead (d) Synthetic diamonds

218. Which of the following gases, in pure form, has a slightly blue colour? (a) Ozone (b) Oxygen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen

219. Creams for applying on the hair have a nozzle spray fitted on the top of the container. You can spray on your hair for a convenient distribution of cream. The gas that is used to disperse and spray hair creams is: (a) Methane (b) Chloroform (c) Fluoroform (d) Ammonia

220. The scientists, Perutz and Kendrew worked for several years studying the structures of big complicated biological molecules, taking X-ray pictures of their crystals. They were awarded the Nobel Prize for discovering the structure of globular (round) proteins that dissolve in water such as: (a) Collagen (b) Haemoglobin of blood (c) Keratin of hair (d) Myosin of muscles

Chemistry 105

221. When ammonium nitrate is mixed with aluminium powder, we get ‘ammonal’, which is: (a) An explosive (b) A solvent (c) A paint (d) A dye

222. When a substance reacts with water and breaks into acids and bases the process is called: (a) Dialysis (b) Solvolysis (c) Hydrolysis (d) Dissolution

223. Which of the following elements has a relatively stable nucleus (centre of the atom)? (a) Iron (b) Hydrogen (c) Uranium (d) Radium

224. ‘Buna-N rubber’ is a copolymer of butadiene and acrylonitrile. In comparision to natural rubber it: (a) Is delicate and soft (b) Has better resistance to wear and tear (c) Is a poor substitute for natural rubber (d) Does not last for a long time

225. DNA is the material in the body that determines the height, colour of eyes, face and hair of children and future generations. DNA is a biochemical that consists of two strands, each having the shape of a: (a) Circular staircase (b) Rose petal (c) Bow tie (d) Wave

226. Currency notes can be marked with an invisible ink. Thieves can be trapped because this ink: (a) Shows up in ultraviolet light (b) Turns red on adding alkali (c) Turns blue on adding acid (d) Is attracted by a magnet

227. For walls of buildings a white wash can be made that is resistant to weather. This white wash has a water proof film that is made by adding hydrated lime to milk protein (say, from skimmed milk) and: (a) Vinegar (b) Formaldehyde (c) Soda (d) Sugar

228. In some places whisky is stored in earthenware pots that have not been properly glazed. This may cause poisoning by: (a) Nickel (b) Copper (c) Lead (d) Tin

229. Shells and corals of the sea contain calcium in the form of: (a) Marble (b) Calcite (c) Aragonite (d) Iceland spar


230. Vinylite resins are copolymers of vinyl acetate and vinyl chloride. They are resistant to wear and tear and to chemicals. One of their well- known uses is in: (a) Floor coverings (b) Ropes (c) Tyres (d) Electrical insulators

231. Some scientists believe that a chemical widely used as a preservative and a colouring agent in foods gets converted to an acid in the stomach, affects the genes and causes cancer in human beings. Identify that substance. (a) Ferric chloride (b) Sodium nitrite (c) Vinegar (d) Sulphur dioxide

232. One way of preventing pollution of the air is by passing exhaust gases through a filter. Glass fibre or silicone-treated bags of textile material are used for filtering: (a) Hot gases (b) High pressure gases (c) Cold gases (d) Reactive gases

233. An ‘Ion’ is a three-letter word. It means: (a) A mixture of Iodine, Oxygen and Nitrogen (b) An alloy of iron (c) A charged particle (d) A form of light

234. The highest grade of coal, whose surface is shining and has the highest calorific value, is (a) Bituminous (b) Peat (c) Lignite (d) Anthracite

235. Everyday many new chemicals are being made. However, some chemicals are so basic that they are used in almost every industry. Whcih of the following is the most important industrial chemical? (a) Alcohol (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Acetone

236. Which of the following is a steel that is resistant to acids? (a) Nickel alloy steel (b) Molybdenum steel (c) Stainless steel (d) Cobalt alloy steel

237. Cancer is a disease where body cells grow unchecked. A protein found in the body interferes with the growth of cancer cells. It is used for the treatment of cancer. Identify it. (a) Haemoglobin (b) Casein (c) Keratin (d) Interferon

238. Which one of the following do not have linear shape? (a) Mercurous chloride (b) Acetylene (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane

Chemistry 107

239. It is extremely bad to kill animals for ivory. As far back as 1897, a good substitute was found for ivory by making moulds of pigments with: (a) Groundnut oil (b) Casein from skimmed milk (c) Fat from butter (d) Chalk and alcohol

240. Which of the following explode on heating? (a) Azides (b) Sulphates (c) Chlorides (d) Phosphides

241. Mercury is a silvery-white, shining liquid. It has the power to dissolve many metals. A mixture of a metal dissolved in mercury is popularly known as: (a) An amalgam (b) An alloy (c) A mercury salt (d) A solution

242. Iron is an essential nutrient for plants, which absorb it from the soil. Iron deficiency is often found in wet, clayey soils that have a high content of:(a) Carbonate (b) Chloride (c) Phosphate (d) Sulphate

243. A chemical contained in tea is also contained in the bark of a tree. It is used for making ink-removers. Can you identify it? (a) Caffeine (b) Oxalic acid (c) Tannic acid (d) Cellulose.

244. Spacecraft like the satellites that circle the earth and are used in television transmission, have electric batteries that supply power for various purposes. These batteries contain ion-exchange resins instead of a liquid electrolyte solution because: (a) Of extreme cold conditions (b) Of lack of oxygen (c) A high electric voltage is required (d) Of zero gravity

245. Eclogite is the world’s most dense rock of siliceous matter. It is used for roads, abrasives and monuments. It sometimes contains: (a) Diamonds (b) Chromium (c) Lead (d) Uranium

246. Chlorophyll, the green colouring matter in plants helps the process of photosynthesis by: (a) Acting as a catalyst (b) Converting soil into carbohydrates (c) Reacting with carbon dioxide (d) Fixing soil nitrogen


247. A solid can be irreversibly deformed. The stamping of sheets of steel into ‘fins’ of motor cars is a case of: (a) Vacuum deformation (b) Plastic deformation (c) Elastic deformation (d) Flexible shaping

248. A buffer country is a neutral state that lies between two opposing camps. In chemistry, a buffer helps in maintaining the: (a) Distance between two gases (b) Alkalinity of solids (c) Acidity or alkalinity of a solution (d) The difference between gases and solids

249. Which of the following is a flavouring agent known as ‘Oil of Wintergreen’ (a) Vinegar (b) Methyl salicylate (c) Olive oil (d) Tartaric acid

250. Carbon disulphide is a very good solvent. Which of the following cannot be dissolved by it? (a) Sulphur, Bromine and iodine (b) Oils and fats (c) Rubber (d) Sugar and proteins

251. A very pure form of carbon monoxide can be obtained from: (a) Sodium hexacyanoferrate (b) Sodium oxalate (c) Formic acid (d) Nickel tetracarbonyl

252. Gold is dearly possessed by millions of people as jewellery, coins and articles. If all the gold in the world were to be stored in rooms ten feet long, ten feet wide and ten feet high, how many rooms would it occupy? (a) 160 (b) 12 (c) 2 (d) 800

253. The brilliance of diamonds is due to the internal reflection of light. the light is slowed down and bent away from its original path because it strikes: (a) Tightly-bound electrons (b) The nucleus (centre) of carbon atoms (c) Loosely-held mobile electrons (d) Layers of carbon atoms

254. Which of the following is not a synthetic rubber? (a) Neoprene (b) Buna-N rubber (c) Buna-S rubber (d) Polyethylene

Chemistry 109

255. German silver is used for making beautiful cutlery, jewellery or tea sets. It is made of 60% copper along with: (a) Chromium and lead (b) Cobalt and iron (c) Nickel and zinc (d) Silver and lithium

256. Hydrazine is a constitutent of drugs that are used for the treatment of: (a) Cholera (b) Tuberculosis (c) Typhoid (d) Malaria

257. Different dyes are used for dyeing different materials. Which of the following statements is false? (a) Nylon can be dyed with acid dyes (b) Cotton can be directly dyed with malachite green (c) Terylene is mainly dyed with disperse dyes (d) Polyacrylonitrile can be dyed with basic dyes

258. Ductility is the property of a substance that allows it to be easily stretched into a wire. A small piece of silver weighing just one gram, can be drawn into a wire: (a) Ten feet long (b) Ten inches long (c) One inch long (d) Two miles long

259. Emulsions of polyvinyl acetate are used in: (a) Polishes (b) Firecrackers (c) Crayons (d) Latex paints

260. The metal palladium can absorb in the space between its atoms, 900 times its volume of hydrogen, which makes palladium a very useful industrial catalyst. This is known as: (a) Addition (b) Chemisorption (c) Absorption (d) Deposition

261. Hydrocyanic acid is very: (a) Explosive (b) Bright (c) Light (d) Poisonous

262. Topaz, opal, agate and onyx are precious and beautiful stones found in nature. All these are different forms of: (a) Silica (b) Soda (c) Carbon (d) Lime

263. Magnetic ceramics or ferrites contain compounds of iron. These have been used: (a) In panels for solar cells (b) As memory elements in computers (c) For building water-desalinators on ships (d) For making transformers


264. L.S.D causes hallucinations. The full chemical name of this drug is: (a) Dextro-lysine (b) Lysergic acid diethylamide (c) Lithium sulphide (d) Lanthanum sulphide

265. The contraction of the rubber-band is a spontaneous, natural process because it is acompanied by: (a) An increase in the kinetic energy (b) A decrease in the free-energy in the rubber-band (c) An increase in heat in the rubber-band (d) An elastic force

266. Chocolates and fatty foods containing butter or oil sometimes leave stains on clothes that are difficult to remove. They can be removed by: (a) A solution of salt in water (b) Tetrachloroethylene (c) Water (d) Alcohol

267. It is sometimes necessary to remove colouring matter contained as an impurity in glass. Glass is decolourised by: (a) Wood charcoal (b) Manganese dioxide (c) Bleaching powder (d) Hydrogen

268. Titanium oxide is added in interior paints for walls of rooms, halls and galleries to give: (a) A whiter ‘white’ (b) A greener ‘green’ (c) A redder ‘red’ (d) Silver-white

269. Aspirin, a drug for curing headaches and paints, is: (a) Pyridine (b) Acetylsalicylic acid (c) Anthraquinone (d) Benzaldehyde

270. Which organic chemical bond between two carbon atoms can be easily disrupted? (a) A triple bond (b) A double bond (c) A single bond (d) An aromatic ring

271. A photocell converts light into electric signals. It is used in burglar alarms and for tapping light energy from the sun. Which metal is widely used in photocells? (a) Caesium (b) Tungsten (c) Sodium (d) Silver-plated steel

272. Old tin plates can be reused by removing the coating of tin on the metal. This saves a lot of money on buying new metal. The tin is removed with the help of: (a) Solvents (b) Metal brushes (c) Oxygen (d) Chlorine

Chemistry 111

273. Hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen are gases at ordinary room temperature. They can be liquified by cooling. The liquid form of these gases is held together by a weak attraction among the molecules, known as: (a) Nuclear attraction (b) Gravitational attraction (c) Van der waals’ attraction (d) Magnetic attraction

274. A suitable site of a cement plant requires proximity to (a) Limestone and gypsum (b) Limestone and manganese (c) Coal and iron (d) Coal and gypsum

275. When vegetable oils are reacted with hydrogen gas, using nickel metal as a catalyst, we get: (a) Carbon dioxide and water (b) Washing soaps (c) Saturated fat (Artificial ghee, a form of butter) (d) Oil and paints

276. There are various arsenic drugs (containing arsenic compounds), such as Sylvarsan, Atoxyl and Tryparsamine. Their main use is in treatment of: (a) Syphilis (b) Typhoid (c) Jaundice (d) Cholera

277. Crystals have ‘vacant sites’ or ‘defects’ in them. When light strikes a photographic silver bromide paper, silver atoms move in through these defects to: (a) Develop the film (b) Form tiny clumps of silver atoms (c) Form negative images (d) Form a colour image

278. Alums used for purifying water are chemically: (a) Double chlorides (b) Double sulphates (c) Sulphates of aluminium (d) Hydrated nitrates

279. Face powders are used for a smooth appearance of the skin by covering any unwanted secretions of oil. Which is the main ingredient of face powder? (a) Precipitates (b) Talc (c) Zinc oxide (d) Zinc stearate

280. A small amount of manganese metal added to iron gives it elasticity and high tensile strength. Such steel is used in making: (a) Wheel axles (b) Almirahs (c) Boxes (d) Springs


281. The quantum theory is a suggestion that heat, light, electricity or any other form of energy: (a) Can be of any size (b) Exist in discrete bundles (c) Is continuous (d) Is transfered in as small amount as one could imagine

282. In the upper layers of the earth, that is, in the crust, the most abundant metal is: (a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Iron (d) Aluminium

283. We need fresh air for breathing. Some natural sources that cause pollution of air are mentioned here. Can you pick the false one? (a) Coal fires (b) High-speed winds and dust storms (c) Volcanoes (d) Forest fires

284. Which of the following is a physico-chemical method of separation and purification?

(a) Electrolysis

(b) Distillation in a flask or a big tower (c) Filtration through a filtering medium (d) Leaching

285. Silica gel is a very useful: (a) Raw material for soap (b) Drying agent (c) Wetting agent (d) Solvent

286. Aluminium chloride is used in organic chemical reactions as a catalyst. A well-know example of this is the: (a) Friedel-Crafts reaction (b) Markownikoff addition (c) Grignard synthesis (d) Pinacolone rearrangement

287. Powerful forces abound in Nature, many of which are still unknown. Which among the following is the strongest, natural force? (a) Gravitational force (b) Magnetic force (c) Electrical force (d) Nuclear force

288. Polymers are often gigantic molecules consisting of long chains of repeating chemical units. Which of the following is not a polymer? (a) Rubber (b) Cellulose (c) Protein (d) Glucose

289. A ball rolls down the hill. A chemical reaction takes place producing heat and an explosion. These are examples of: (a) Unnatural processes (b) Irreversible processes (c) Reversible processes (d) Simple processes

Chemistry 113

290. Food articles like milk, vegetables and bread are kept in a refrigerator. Medicines are labelled ‘Store in a cool, dry place’. By keeping at low temperatures, they are prevented from decay or destruction, because: (a) Bacteria are frozen (b) Chemical reactions slow down (c) Vitamins protect protein (d) Micro organisms can not survive

291. Metals rust when they come in contact with oxygen of the air that forms oxides and thereby destroys the metal. Which metal forms an oxide with oxygen, that protects it from further rusting? (a) Aluminium (b) Zinc (c) Iron (d) Copper

292. Bell-metal is the metal used for making bells for churches. This metal gives the bell its special, ringing sound. It contains: (a) Copper and tin (b) Iron and lead (c) Nickel and zinc (d) Silver and antimony

293. In coloured photography, the colour film is developed by oxidation of the developer and then reacting with: (a) An alkai to form a salt (b) A coupler to form a dye (c) An acid to form a salt (d) A metal to form a pigment

294. When sugar is treated with sulphuric acid, we get a very pure form of: (a) Carbon (b) Oxygen (c) Water (d) Hydrogen

295 Which of the following is a powerful sedative made from acetaldehyde? (a) Carboxylic acids (b) Paraldehyde (c) Acetic anhydride (d) L.S.D.

296. Which of the following materials can make cloth fire-proof? (a) Copper oxide (b) Aluminium sulphate (c) Nickel chloride (d) Magnesium sulphate

297. The glass bulb of electric bulbs becomes black due to the deposition of vapour from the: (a) Glass of the bulb (b) Metal filament (c) Gas in the bulb (d) Joint in the glass

298. Phenobarbitone is a sleep-inducing drug. It is also used in making: (a) Acetylene (b) Soap (c) Alcohol (d) Urea

299. One atom of the element carbon can join with another carbon atom to form long chains. This makes the chemistry of living matter unique. Which of the following elements has similar potential? (a) Silicon (b) Oxygen (c) Iron (d) Bromine


300. Ethanol is denatured (made unfit for human consumption) by adding a poisonous substance. Can you identify it? (a) Tartaric acid (b) Methyl alcohol (c) Acetic acid (d) Stearic acid

301. Glass is a transparent substance obtained by heating white sand with metal oxides or carbonates. It is a mixture of: (a) Sulphates (b) Phosphates (c) Chlorides (d) Silicates

302. Ordinary gasoline (petrol) that is used as fuel for cars, scooters and automobiles contains many different chemicals that are added in small quantities, each performing an important role. Some of these are mentioned here. Can you pick the false one? (a) Soaps for removing particles of grease from petrol tanks ensure

a free flow of petrol (b) Anti-icing agents for depressing the freezing point of particles of

ice (c) Anti-rust agents for protecting against corrosion by water (d) Detergents for preventing gums from sticking on the walls of the

carburetter

303. Through the body of every person, millions of tiny particles pass through silently every second. what are these particles? (a) Electrons (b) Neutrinos (c) Protons (d) Atoms

304. When two compounds have the same chemical formula, (that is, they have the same number and variety of atoms) but have different linkages between atoms and hence different properties, they are called: (a) Isomers (b) Isomorphs (c) Allotropes (d) Isotopes

305. Noble gases are inert, that is, under normal conditions they do not react. Which of the following is not a noble gas? (a) Neon (b) Lithium (c) Helium (d) Argon

306. Dirty water contains germs and can be harmful. Swimming pools are disinfected by bubbling through water a controlled amount of: (a) Air (b) Oxygen (c) Bromine (d) Chlorine

307. Which of the following cannot be dissolved in alcohol? (a) Dyes and drugs (b) Soaps and varnishes (c) Resins and varnishes (d) Rubber and plastics

Chemistry 115

308. Monazite is an ore of (a) Titanium (b) Thorium (c) Zirconium (d) Iron

309. When wire glass is hit, it prevents pieces of glass from falling or spreading after breaking. Wire glass contains: (a) A network of steel wire (b) A sheet of nylon net (c) cobalt (d) A sheet of fibre glass

310. Volatile compounds of boron burn with a: (a) Green flame (b) Blue flame (c) Red flame (d) Orange-red flame

311. Silver bromide, a chemical used in photography, is found in: (a) South America (b) Germany (c) India (d) Japan

312. When a solid crystal is melted, it should become a liquid. Liquid crystals are an intermediate stage between a liquid and a crystal. Which of the following is a liquid crystal of a non-living system? (a) Cholesteryl bromide (b) Axons of nerve (c) Striated muscle fibre (d) Cilia

313. Beryl is the main ore of the light metal: (a) Magnesium (b) Beryllium (c) Lithium (d) Boron

314. Hydrogen forms a ‘bridge’ in the chemical structure of which of the following? (a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Diborane (c) Ice (d) Lithium hydride

315. Cement is formed by burning in a hot kiln: (a) Limestone and clay (b) Limestone and graphite (c) Chalk and graphite (d) Sulphur and limestone

316. Sometimes the behaviour of a chemical compound can be better understood by regarding it as if it exists in a world between two or more different possible structures. This phenomena is called: (a) A double standard (b) Allotropism (c) Isomerism (d) Resonance

317. Coal was formed under high temperature and pressure from: (a) Black rock and iron (b) Burnt rocks and clay (c) Marine matter (d) Giant forests and vegetable matter

318. Which of the following is not a mineral containing aluminium oxide? (a) Bauxite (b) Rutile (c) Corundum (d) Emery


319. A solution of chromium oxide in concertrated sulphuric acid is used for cleaning glass in laboratories because it: (a) Removes sand particles (b) Oxidises grease (c) Dissolves glass (c) Reacts with dust

320. Silver is a precious metal used in jewellery and in industry. It is found in certain ores mentioned here except. (a) Horn silver (b) Ruby silver (c) Argentite (d) Siderite

321. Beneath the surface of the ocean, there is no air available for burning fuel. Which of the following chemicals is used with oil as an underwater fuel? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Hydrogen peroxide (c) Hydrogen (d) Magnesium

322. When basic cations like sodium, calcium and magnesium are leached out in humid places by the action of water: (a) Stiff soils are formed (b) Acidic soils are formed (c) Alkaline soils are formed (d) The soil level declines

323. Which of the following metals, when added to steel, makes it suitable for cutting purposes by maintaining the ‘cutting edge’ of the blade? (a) Lithium (b) Vanadium (c) Manganese (d) Potassium

324. Gold paint is made from: (a) Copper (b) Platinum (c) Gold (d) Antimony

325. Plywood sheets are stuck together by unpolymerised: (a) Nylon (b) Carbon black (c) Urea-formaldehyde resins (d) Styrene and butadiene

326. At a suitable pressure near the freezing point of ice, we can have: (a) Ice and steam, existing together only (b) Ice and water only (c) Only ice (d) Ice, water and steam, all existing side by side

327. The electric batteries used in small calculators are: (a) Weston cell (b) Leclanche cell (c) Nickel-cadmium batteries (d) Lead acid batteries

Chemistry 117

328. Which of the following chemicals has caused disasters by exploding in the holds of ships in harbours and in warehouses? (a) Vinegar in bottles under pressure (b) Ammonium nitrate (c) Gold chloride (d) Caustic soda

329. A lot of controversy has been generated over the use of ‘BVO’ in soft drinks on the ground that it is carcinogenic (cancer-causing). What is ‘BVO’? (a) Brominated vegetable oil (b) Basic vitamin overdose (c) B-complex vitamin overdose (d) Bakery vanilla odour

330. Fine wire is drawn through dimonds, for making: (a) Copper wire for motor coils (b) Springs for watches (c) Electrical conductors (d) Fine embroidery

331. Safety glass is used in windshields of motor vehicles as it protects against injury. It is made by binding together layers of: (a) Glass and plastic (b) Glass with glue (c) Soft and hard glass (d) Mica and glass

332. Police crime detectives make an impression of the track of a motor vehicle tyre on a mould made from: (a) Quick-drying clay (b) Plaster of Paris (c) Lycopodium powder (d) Wax

333. Sodium cyanide is used in the: (a) Cleaning of silver (b) Creation of fires (c) Purification of acids (d) Extraction of gold

334. Nuclear power reactors that supply energy have to operate at low temperatures and consequently with a lower efficiency because: (a) The walls of the nuclear containers cannot withstand higher

temperatures (b) It is difficult to heat uranium (c) The nuclear heat is carried by ordinary steam (d) The high pressure inside the reactor reduces the temperature

335. Industrial hydrogen is manufactured by passing an electric current through a solution of: (a) Alumina (b) Sodium hydroxide (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Magnesium hydroxide


336. Some substances are commonly used for removing acidic gases. Which of the following is commonly used in the chemical industry for removal of hydrogen sulphide from coal gas? (a) Milk of magnesia (b) Slaked lime (c) Quick lime (d) Sodium hydride

337. Which of the following is not an alloy containing tin metal? (a) Solder for soldering electrical contacts (b) Pewter for hardness (c) Bronze for statues (d) Brass for articles like bangles and utensils:

338. Lead forms many paint materials. Which paint material made of lead is highly resistant to corrosion by water? (a) Litharge (b) White lead (c) Red lead (d) Lead sulphide

339. Ozone is a rare gas found in the outer reaches of the atmosphere. Small quantities are sometimes produced by: (a) Electrical heaters (b) Electric sparks of electric trains (c) Heating rusted iron (d) Melting ice from glaciers

340. Spaceships have to be air-tight because in space there is no air, only vacuum. Which of the following compounds has been used for air- tight closing of the door (hatch) in lunar modules? (a) Chlorides (b) Silicones (c) Bakelite (d) Hydrocarbons

341. The alkali metals form strong bases, salts and stable carbonates. Which of the following elements does not belong to this chemical family? (a) Potassium (b) Sodium (c) Lithium (d) Magnesium

342. Silver can be spread as a thin sheet on another metal by electroplating. The film of silver sticks strongly to the metal. Which of the following metals cannot be properly plated with silver? (a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Nickel (d) Brass

343. On heating, sodium and sulphur can be melted. Molten sodium and molten sulphur are used: (a) For refining lead (b) As a medium for extracting metals (c) As catalysts (d) As electrodes in a modern kind of battery

Chemistry 119

344. An atom can be smashed and broken into many nuclear particles by the high acceleration (increasing speed) imparted in: (a) A Chromatograph (b) A Cyclotron (c) An electron microscope (d) A cathode-ray tube

345. Zeolites are ion-exchange resins used for softening of water. Superior ion-exchangers were made just before the Second World War. These consisted of: (a) Fine sand (b) A giant structure of hydrocarbons (c) Finely divided silica (d) Organic salts of lithium

346. The explosive TNT is made from: (a) Thorium (b) Phthalic acid (c) Toluene (d) Tin

347. When an atom reacts chemically and gains one or more electrons, it is said to have been: (a) Catalyzed (b) Oxidized (c) Reduced (d) Decomposed

348. Sparkling red colour after the blast of fire crackers is due to the presence of (a) Sulphur (b) Sodium (c) Strontium (d) Magnesium

349. Synthetic petrol and kerosine can be made from coal by passing one of the following gases under heat and pressure over coal: (a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

350. Tin metal has been known from ancient times. It is extracted from the ore tinstone (stannic oxide) by heating it in a furnace with: (a) Steam (b) Lime (c) Chalk (d) Coal

351. Non-stick frying pans are coated black with teflon, a material that is resistant to heat. Teflon is a polymer of: (a) Fluoromethane (b) Styrene (c) Ethylene (d) Tetrafluoroethylene

352. Which of the following fibres is said to be very harmful for health? (a) Sawdust (b) Asbestos (c) Hay (d) Cellulose

353. Paraffin is a by-product of (a) Cottage industries involving bee-keeping (b) Processing of agricultural wastes (c) Petroleum refining (d) Leather industry


354. Very fast conduction of electricity by matter is called superconductivity. This happens when matter is: (a) Dissolved in acids (b) Cooled to very low temperatures (c) Heated to high temperatures (d) Treated with radiation

355. Mercury can dissolve metals. These mixtures have been used for dental fillings. The metals which have been used for this are mentioned here. Pick the false one? (a) Copper (b) Tin (c) Silver (d) Iron

356. Heavy snow can block traffic on road. It is difficult to melt the ice. Which of the following melts ice on roads even at temperatures below 0ºC? (a) Hydrated calcium chloride (b) Hydrated magnesium sulphate (c) Zinc oxide (d) Bauxite

357. Potash (ptassium carbonate) is used as a fertilizer. It is also known as: (a) Azo compound (b) Oil of vitriol (c) Pearl ash (d) Glauber’s salt

358. Zinc is used for plating metals, for roofs and fences to protect them from corrosion. This plating process, known as galvanization, was invented by the chemist: (a) Scheele (b) Boyle of Britain (c) Galvani of Italy (d) Buchner

359. Ammonia and Boron trifluorde are an example of: (a) A pair of isomers (b) An electron donor-acceptor pair (c) An acid-alkali pair (d) A pair of allotropes

360. Glycol is used in car radiators as: (a) An agent for high speed air-fuel mixtures (b) A lubricant (c) A coolant (d) An anti-freeze agent

361. Substances like nitrophenol, can form hydrogen bonds internally, that is, within the molecule. They, therfore, have a: (a) Low melting point (b) Very high viscosity (c) Very high melting point (d) Yellow colour

Chemistry 121

362. Which metal can exist in a form that gives sparks on scratching? (a) Antimony (b) Lead (c) Tin (d) Thallium

363. Desiccants are substances that react with water or moisture in the air and thus keep other substances dry. Which of the following is not used as a desiccants? (a) Anhydrides (b) Sulphuric acid crystals (c) Quicklime (d) Salt

364. The energy that is required to pull off an electron from an atom is known as the: (a) Magnetic potential (b) Ionization energy (c) Thermal energy (d) Activation energy

365. Calcium metal in a flame imparts: (a) White light (b) A greenish-blue (c) A blue colour (d) An orange-red colour

366. Garden chairs made of plastic strips and plastic articles get faded, worn out and cracked in sunlight, mainly because of: (a) Low melting point of plastic (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) Heat (d) The red colour

367. You can make acetylene by dropping water on: (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium carbide (c) Chalk (d) Burning coal

368. Pearlitic steels have very high strength because they contain: (a) Chromium (b) Cementite (or ferric carbide), a hard substance (c) Pearls that are bright and hard (d) More than 26% carbon

369. When caustic soda is manufactured from sea water, one of the important by-products is: (a) Potash (b) Chlorine (c) Chromium (d) Fertilizer

370. The rough, reddish-brown strip on a safety matchbox is used for lighting a match by striking against it. It is made of powdered glass mixed with: (a) Mercury (b) White phosphorous (c) Red lead (d) Potash


371. Neon and argon gases are used in luminous: (a) Firework displays (b) Matches (c) Electric signboards (d) Festival candles

372. Lithopone is a mixture of zinc sulphide and barium sulphate. It is used as a paint instead of white lead, because it : (a) Does not become black in air (b) Is more white (c) Is more bright (d) Does not become yellow in air

373. During the mid ninteenth century, Daguerro-type portraits were very popular. A portrait image of a person was made on silver plated copper by developing the image with: (a) Silver bromide (b) Mercury vapour (c) ‘Hypo’ (sodium hypochlorite) (d) An iodine solution

374. The chemical part of the dye that absorbs light and produces colour is called a: (a) Natural pigment (b) Chromophore (c) Neon (d) Photochrome

375. During industrial extraction of lead metal from its main ore galena, we are also able to recover as by-products, important quantities of: (a) Chromium (b) Silver (c) Gold (d) Diamonds

376. When limestone is heated in a lime-kiln we get: (a) Milk of lime (b) Slaked lime and carbon dioxide (c) Quicklime and carbon dioxide (d) Calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide

377. Some compounds turn dark when exposed to light. They are, therefore, used in photography. A metal used for making such compounds is: (a) Aluminium (b) Nickel (c) Chromium (d) Silver

378. There are various methods of combating disease. Use of chemical compounds for treatment of disease, is called: (a) Chemotherapy (b) Chromatography (c) Chemical treatment (d) Pharmacology

379. Acetylene is mixed with oxygen and burned to produce: (a) A hot flame for cutting steel (b) Carbon ash for fertilizers

Chemistry 123

(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Heat for the manufacture of nuclear-grade material

380. Aluminium, deposited as vapour on glass, forms good mirrors, essentially because: (a) The coating is much smoother (b) It does not scratch (c) It has better shine than silver (d) It does not tarnish in air

381. Marble is the most decorative and highly-valued, natural stone for floors, tiles, pillars and bathing rooms. It is snow-white when pure. Coloured marble is formed due to the presence of some minerals which impart beautiful coloured lines, streaks and shades. Pick the false one? (a) Zinc oxide may give a brown colour (b) Ferrous silicates give green shade to marble (c) Iron oxide gives a red colour to marble (d) Graphite may give red and black lines

382. Special strike-anywhere matches can light a fire by rubbing against any rough surface. They do not require a matchbox strip for rubbing. the matchheads contain an oxidizing agent, such as potassium chlorate and a sulphide of: (a) Carbon (b) Phosphorous (c) Iron (d) Cobalt

383. Earlier, gramophone records were made from a natural resin, shellac, which comes from insects on trees. Nowadays, records lighter in weight, are made from synthetic plastics like: (a) Polyacrylonitrile (b) PVC (or polyvinyl chloride) (c) Polythene (d) Bakelite

384. When a hydrated chemical loses water of hydration attached to its molecules, the phenomenon is called: (a) Efflorescence (b) Radiation (c) Phosphorescence (d) Luminescence

385. Hydrogen peroxide has different uses. One of the special uses of hydrogen peroxide is in: (a) Plant nutrition (b) Creams (c) Dyes (d) Rocket fuels

386. The lanthanides and actinides are a group of closely-related elements which are often found in the products of nuclear fission of heavy


elements. They can be separated from one another and from other nuclear products by: (a) Distillation (b) Ion-exchange chromatography (c) Evaporation on a metal foil (d) Slow melting

387. A lilac-coloured flame is produced on heating: (a) Potassium in a flame (b) Cobalt in a flame (c) Sodium in a flame (d) Methane in oxygen

388. The human blood is a complex mixture of biochemicals. It contains many proteins. These can be separated by moving them in a solution under the influence of: (a) Intense radiation (b) An electric field (c) A magnetic force (d) An organic solvent

389. Neoprene is a polymer made by using acetylene as a raw material. It is used as: (a) Rubber in diving suits (b) Plastic for car panels (c) Plastic for dining tables (d) Material for electrical switches

390. Which of the following ages cannot be determined by radioactive carbon dating? (a) Remains of an animal from an Inca temple in Mexico (b) Samples of rock from old mountains (c) A long-living, thousand-year old Sequoia tree (d) An old piece of wood from an Egyptian tomb

391. The kinetic theory of matter helped a great deal in understanding the behaviour of gases. Which of the following statements did not belong to it? (a) When the gas is heated by raising its temperature the molecules

move faster (b) The molecules in a gas are always moving (c) Gases are made up of small particles called molecules (d) When molecules collide, they lose energy

392. Gun-shots are made of lead metal with a little arsenic. The arsenic is added to increase the: (a) Brittleness of lead (b) Range of fire (c) Power of fire (d) Weight of fire

393. Madam Curie was awarded a Nobel Prize in Physics. She got a second nobel prize of Chemistry in 1911 for the discovery of: (a) Calcium, a nutrient (b) Radium, a radioactive element (c) Acids in bitter fruit (d) The atom

Chemistry 125

394. The spectrum of a molecule is so detailed that a molecule can be identified by its spectrum: (a) Only if it is small (b) Only by test-tube analysis (c) With great difficulty (d) Easily, like a fingerprint

395. Which of the following gases cannot be kept in a glass bottle because it chemically reacts with glass? (a) Sulphur (b) Chlorine (c) Fluorine (d) Methane

396. The centre of the earth is a core, mainly containing: (a) Silicon that forms clay (b) Copper that gives radiation (c) Iron that creates a magnetic field (d) Magnesium that colours volcanic flames

397. The atoms in molecules are arranged in space at well-defined distances. This gives the molecule a definite shape. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) Acetylene is round (b) A square planar shape is found in nickel tetrachloride (c) Methane gas molecules have a tetrahedral shape (d) Phosphorous pentoxide is like two pyramids joined at their apices

398. Some kinds of jewellery are cleaned by soap, water and a drop of ammonia. Which of the following should not be cleaned in this way? (a) Rolled-gold plate jewellery (b) Gold-filled jewellery (c) Silver-filled jewellery (d) Gold-electroplated jewellery

399. An effective air-pollution control equipment is an attachment that electrically attracts pollutant particles in hot, escaping gases. It is known as: (a) An electric condenser (b) A gas condenser (c) An air purifier (d) An electrostatic precipitator

400. Polythene (or polyethylene), a tough wax-like polymer is used in the manufacture of following substances except (a) Construction materials of plastic (b) Plastic pipes (c) Bread-wrappers (d) Candles


401. Petroleum refineries remove chemical compounds that contain sulphur in order to: (a) Prevent pollution of the air by sulphur (b) Make pure, white petrol (c) Increase the mileage of petrol (d) Use the sulphur to make other compounds cheaply

402. ‘Accelerators’, in rubber technology, are organic sulphur compounds used as: (a) Catalysts for vulcanisation (b) Carbon black binders for tyres (c) Fillers (d) Speed increasers for nylon tyres

403. Soap was never actually discovered but instead gradually evolved from crude mixtures of alkaline and fatty material. Up to 1800, soap was believed to be a mechanical mixture of fat and alkali, then Chevreul, a French chemist showed that soap formation, was actually a chemical reaction. Which one of the following follows from the above statement? (a) Chevreul discovered the process of soap making (b) Alkaline and fatty material, both being natural material, their mixture

which is used as soap is still natural materials mixture (c) Soap is a natural product, whose existence was later established (d) Crude mixing of alkaline and fatty material in early days was

actually chemical process of formation of soap

404. Sodium nitrite is a pale-yellow, crystalline solid that combines with aniline to form diazonium salts from which we get: (a) Ink (b) Azo-dyes (c) Hydrazine (d) Paints

405. In order to prevent the decay of teeth, which of the following is contained in some toothpastes? (a) Sodium fluoride (b) Tin chloride (c) Stannous fluoride (d) Iron sulphate

406. From which source-chemical you can get acetic acid, petrol additives and ethylene di-bromide? (a) Methane (b) Ethylene (c) Bromine (d) Alcohol

407. While mixing sulphuric acid and water which of the following precaution shoud be taken? (a) Add whichever is lighter to the heavier one (b) Add acid to the water

Chemistry 127

(c) Add water to the acid (d) Avoid sunlight

408. Benzo-alpha-pyrene (BAP), a cancer causing pollutant is released by the burning of coal. It is ten times more in an urban area than in a rural area. In some areas the effect of this air pollutant on people who do not smoke cigarettes may go upto: (a) An effect equal to that of those who smoke two packets of cigarettes

without filters (b) An effect less than that of those who smoke (c) An equivalent effect of one-tenth of those who smoke (d) An effect equal to that of those who smoke two cigarettes a day

409. Glyptal (alkyd resins) are polyesters of acids and polyhydric alcohols. They are used in the manufacture of: (a) Printing inks (b) Paints and lacqures (c) Rubber and tyres (d) Nail polish

410. When a mixture of iron oxide and aluminium powder, known as thermite, is heated, intense heat is generated. This fact is made use of in: (a) Soldering (b) Welding steel (c) Making iron (d) Cutting of metals

411. Which of the following is used as a sources of hydrogen for filling of balloons that is convenient and can be carried around? (a) Lithium hydride (b) Sodium borohydride (c) Calcium metal (d) Sodium formate

412. The positively charged particles in the nucleus of an atom repel each other, yet the nucleus remains intact. When a nucleus disintegrates, this energy is released. It is called the: (a) Calories (b) Atomic energy (c) Binding energy (d) Electrostatic energy

413. Ethylene, which is obtained from crude petroleum, is a source-chemical for many things mentioned here. Can you pick the false one? (a) Printing inks (b) Detergents (c) Antifreeze for motor vehicles (d) Polyvinyl chloride

414. Atomic nuclear reactors use heavy water. This is different from ordinary water only to the extent that in place of hydrogen it contains: (a) Deuterium, a heavier isotope of hydrogen (b) Nitrogen, which is also a light element (c) Tritium, an heavier isotope of hydrogen (d) A radioactive element


415. A piece of pumice stone is used for scrubbing dirt from hands and feet. Pumice is a colloidal solution of a: (a) Liquid in a solid (b) Solid in a liquid (c) Solid in a solid (d) Gas in a solid

416. Sodium is highly reactive and can cause fire and explosion with water. Therefore, on a commercial scale, it is prepared as: (a) An alloy of lead (b) An amalgam of mercury (c) An oxide (d) A tin-plated metal

417. Crystallographers of the ninteenth century measured angles of crystals and their various geometric qualities. It gradually became clear that the beautiful forms of crystals come from the packing of elementary matter in: (a) Various atoms (b) The same lattice arrangement (c) Different lattice blocks (d) Various shapes

418. Which of the following is used as a thickener in paints and lipstick? (a) Soap (b) Bentonite (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Ethyl chloride

419. Constantan is an industrial alloy consisting of 60% copper and 40% nickel. It is an example of a: (a) Catalyst (b) Solid solution (c) Solid-solid reaction (d) Chemical reaction

420. Acids combine with bases to form: (a) Colour and gas (b) Salt and water (c) Water and heat (d) Steam and crystals

421. Artificial rubies and sapphires can be made by heating alumina in: (a) An oxy-hydrogen flame (b) An oxy-acetylene flame (c) Burning methane (d) An electric furnace

422. Zeolites are alumino-silicates. They can absorb particles upto a certain size and thus behave as sieves for filtering: (a) Colloids (b) Molecules (c) Atoms (d) Carbon soot in polluted air

423. A cold, green flame can be made by passing carbon dioxide over warm: (a) Grey tin (b) White phosphorous (c) Bronze (d) Green candles

424. Vanishing creams are applied to the skin to give a smooth, thin covering. They do not vanish. They consist of a suspension of: (a) Protein in grease (b) Stearic acid in water (c) Clay in oil (d) Alum in wax

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425. The lightest gas on earth is: (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Helium (d) Chlorine

426. The chemical name of ‘Aspirin’ is (a) Benzyl salicylate (b) Acetyl salicylic acid (c) Acetyl cynamide (d) Tartaric acid

427. Pure silicon is used in the: (a) Paint industry (b) Textile industry (c) Electronics industry (d) Pharmaceutical industry

428. Hard water can be softened in: (a) A chromatograph (b) An ion exchanger (c) A calorimeter (d) An earthenware pot

429. Treatment of cotton waste with acetic acid results in the manufacture of cellulose acetate, which is used in: (a) Foam rubber (b) Plastic ash trays (c) Cigarette filters (d) Azo-dyes

430. Elements having atomic number higher than ‘92’ in the periodic table are known as (a) Transuranic elements (b) Rare earth elements (c) Transitional elements (d) Alkaline earth metals

431. An ounce of gold can be beaten with hammers into a sheet of thin foil that can cover: (a) The floor of a room ten feet by ten feet (b) A six feet by three feet dining table top (c) One page of a small book (d) A road ten feet wide and hundred feet long

432. The secret of the highly explosive power of explosives like TNT is that: (a) They contain oxygen in the chemical itself (b) They create destructive shock waves (c) They burn rapidly in air (d) The chemical releases oxygen like a bullet in the air

433. Red phosphorous is used in making: (a) Red plastics (b) Red dyes for plastics (c) Safety match-striking surfaces (d) Air fresheners

434. Which of the following is not an anaesthetic? (a) Thiobarbiturates (b) Trichloro-ethylene (c) Ether (d) Propane


435. The minimum possible temperature beyond which matter cannot be cooled is (a) –273.15ºC (b) –100.00ºC (c) –98.10ºC (d) –459.40ºC

436. Cosmetic powders and zinc ointments contain: (a) Zinc oxide (b) Zinc carbonate (c) Lead (d) Zinc sulphate

437. Light coming from the sun is stored as energy in plants by the process of photosynthesis. This happens by converting carbon dioxide and water into: (a) Green leaves (b) Carbohydrates (c) Fats (d) Plants hormones

438. Adding acids to cellulose gives gun-cotton from which we can make cordite. Cordite is: (a) An insect repellant (b) A bullet propellant (c) A rocket propellant (d) An insulator

439. The refrigerator cools your food and drink. The cooling is due to: (a) Expansion of ice (b) The expansion of the refrigerant gas (c) The work of the electric motor (d) Reaction of the refrigerant gas

440. The gases ethylene and acetylene (used in torches for welding steel) have been found on the planets: (a) Jupiter and Saturn (b) Mars and Venus (c) Mercury and Pluto (d) Neptune and Uranus

441. There are huge spots on the sun, bigger than the size of the earth. Flares that are thirty times taller than the earth, explode and the sun shoots out into space many things mentioned here except. (a) Electrically charged particles (b) Radio waves (c) X-rays (d) Radioactive carbon

442. When atoms join together to form chemical bonds without transferring any electrons but rather, by sharing them, they are said to be united by a covalent bond. Which of the following does not have a chemical bond that is covalent? (a) Copper sulphide (b) Oxygen (c) Acetylene (d) Wax from petroleum

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443. Hypnotism is a powerful art of suggestion. Under the influence of hypnotism, subjects may report as normal, a slight smell from: (a) A source of pure hydrogen gas (b) An ammonia bottle (c) An oxygen cylinder (d) A source of pure nitrogen gas

444. Tobacco is kept moist by adding: (a) A drop of vegetable oil (b) Polyhydric alcohols (c) Sugars like glucose (d) Gums

445. Sometimes moulds (fungus) grow on bread or grains, like rice, corn and beans. These moulds (fungus) produce a carcinogenic (cancer- causing) poison, namely, (a) Aflatoxin (b) Cynide (c) Sodium phosphate (d) Alfalfa

446. Substances that do not vapourise easily are called non-volatile substances. When these are dissolved in a liquid like benzene, it: (a) Freezes (b) Boils at a lower temperature (c) Boils at a higher temperature (d) Increases in volume

447. Joseph Lister discovered ‘carbolic acid’ for use in antiseptic surgery in 1834 which saved many mothers during childbirth in those days. ‘Carbolic acid’ was the name used for: (a) Benzene (b) Phenol (c) Iodoform (d) Chloroform

448. When atoms like those of chlorine or oxygen pick up an electron, they release energy and assume a more stable form. This energy released is said to be a measure of the: (a) Electrochemical potential (b) Electron affinity (c) Explosive power of the atom (d) Nuclear stability

449. Hydrogen peroxide is used as: (a) An antiseptic in toothpaste (b) A solvent for paint (c) An enamel solvent (d) A refrigerant

450. Grease is applied to parts of a motor vehicle for smooth movement. Greases are, essentially, lubrication oils made into a jelly by: (a) Soaps of fatty acids (b) Blowing air under pressure (c) Adding wax (d) Churning of starch


451. The brownish-white deposit on kettles, heating elements and utensils formed by boiling water is due to: (a) Moisture in the air (b) Temporary hardness of water (c) Permanent hardness of water (d) Reaction of sulphur dioxide in the air with hot water

452. Soil is a natural medium for growth of land plants. Organic soil contains organic matter upto a depth of: (a) Two and a half feet (b) One foot (c) Six inches (d) Ten feet

453. Cellophane is used as a plastic wrapper. It is made from: (a) Gum (b) Chitin (c) Cellulose (d) Petroleum

454. Excess of phosphate and nitrate ions from fertilizers can contaminate water in ponds and lakes by encouraging excessive: (a) Growth of algae, a species of water plant (b) Increase in salt (c) Release of heat (d) Increase of oxygen

455. Gypsum is added to cement clinker to (a) Decrease the rate of setting of cement (b) Bind the particles of calcium silicate (c) Increase the tensile strength of the cement (d) Facilitate the formation of colloidal gel

456. Water requires to be heated before it boils and becomes steam. The energy supplied by the heat is used in breaking hydrogen bonds between: (a) Hydrogen atoms of two different water molecules (b) The hydrogen and oxygen within a water molecule (c) One molecule of water and another (d) Water and the container

457. If you put a waterproof, nine-volt battery in a mug of water containing two teaspoonfuls of salt, the water will be broken into gases and bubbles will start forming. What are these gases? (a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen (b) Hydrogen and oxygen (c) Fluorine and chlorine (d) Sulphur dioxide and ‘laughing gas’

458. A filler is a substance added to make a material less expensive, or for: (a) Changing its acidity (b) Changing its physical properties

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(c) Reducing its chemical activity (d) Increasing its anti-rusting power

459. When vegetable matter decays at the bottom of lakes and ponds where there is limited air, it gives rise to ‘marsh gas’, which is: (a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine (c) Butane (d) Methane

460. The most widely used storage battery in cars, vehicles and domestic emergency lights is the: (a) Cadmium cell (b) Lead accumulator (c) Leclanche cell (d) Alkaline battery

461. Excellent electrical and thermal insulators have been developed and used on a wide scale. These insulators use as bases for ceramic materials, almost pure: (a) Glass and china clay (b) Alumina and zirconia (c) Clay and sand (d) Ferrites

462. The earth and all forms of life on earth are made of about a hundred chemical elements of matter. These elements of matter originally came many years ago, from a star like our sun, or from: (a) A ‘red giant’ star that makes carbon (b) A ‘black hole’ in which objects vanish (c) A ‘white dwarf’ star (d) A ‘pulsar’ object that emits light at precise, regular intervals

463. When a photographic film is washed in hypo solution, the chemical that has not reacted on exposure to light is dissolved away and we get a negative film whose dark areas are those places that have been more exposed to light. This process is known as: (a) Washing the film (b) Fixing the film (c) Developing the film (d) Sensitizing paper

464. When pressure is slowly applied on a gas that is capable of dissolving in a liquid, then: (a) It will have no effect (b) Less gas will dissolve (c) More gas will dissolve in that liquid (d) It will catch fire

465. Quartz, the mineral used in watches, is made of silicon and oxygen atoms joined in a network arrangement that is similar to: (a) Diamond (b) Iron metal (c) Graphite used in pencils (d) The oxygen in the air


466. Iodine is used as sodium iodide in ‘Iodised salt’ for preventing the disease, goitre, Iodine is obtained from: (a) Sea weeds (b) Dry wood (c) Air (d) Igneous rocks

467. The chemical elements, caesium and rubidium, both of which are metals, were discovered by splitting: (a) Hard ores in a furnace (b) Light in a spectroscope (c) The atom in a cyclotron (d) Salt solution by an electric current

468. Sulphur is required in plants, as a nutrient element for: (a) Making hormones (b) Absorption of water (c) Making vitamins (d) Absorption of fat

469. Without a developer, the images created on photographic film would not be visible. When a photographic film is developed, there is a visible blackening of the film around the tiny particles where light has fallen. This developer is, chemically: (a) A catalyst (b) An oxidising agent (c) A reducing agent (d) A solvent

470. Which of the following elements is a solid that is extracted as a liquid from the earth by boring a hole in the ground and pumping it out with super-heated steam? (a) Lead (b) Sulphur (c) Copper (d) Iron

471. When ethylene is mixed with butadiene and made into long chains by polymerization, we get: (a) Synthetic rubber (b) Hard plastic (c) Terylene (d) Synthetic sponge

472. When cellulose from wood or cotton is cooked in large tanks containing caustic soda and then passed through a narrow slit into another tank containg acid, we get: (a) Cellophane, a paper-like plastic (b) Rayon, a textile fibre (c) Bakelite, an insulator (d) Unvulcanised rubber

473. Sodium is sealed into parts of aircraft engine valves in order to: (a) Slow down the escape of exhaust gases (b) Make the valves open faster (c) Protect them from corrosion (d) Quickly remove unwanted heat

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474. Vermilion is a red powder used in India in religious cermonies, festivals and as an adornment by married women as a line on the hair-parting on the head. It is also used by artists. Chemically, vermilion is:(a) Platinum (b) Mercuric sulphide (c) Iron oxide (d) Gold chloride

475. An acid and an alcohol chemically combine to form an important substance called: (a) Ester (b) Hydrocarbons (c) Ketones (d) Hormones

476. When different colours in paint separate on drying and form patches and streaks, the phenomenon is known as flooding of the paint. It can be prevented by adding: (a) Stearic acid (b) Lime (c) Caustic soda (d) Common salt

477. Acetone is the sweet-smelling solvent used in: (a) Nail polishes (b) Lipsticks (c) Face-creams (d) Sweet-smelling erasers

478. Enzymes, which catalyze biochemical reactions are very complex. They help in the reaction of very specific substances. This suggests that the enzyme and the reacting biochemicals are complementary to one another like a: (a) Dog in his kennel (b) Horse and a rider (c) Lock and key (d) Leaf and a bud

479. The main constituents of pearl are (a) Ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate (b) Aragonite and conchiolin (c) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate (d) Calcium oxide and ammonium chloride

480. Which of the following metals has been used for building boats because it has resistance to corrosion by sea water? (a) Copper (b) Nickel (c) Tungsten (d) Titanium

481. Which of the following acids is commonly used in batteries for cars? (a) Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetic acid


482. We cannot see the oxygen that we breathe. It is freely available in the air, from which it is obtained for industrial purposes by liquifying it. Liquid oxygen: (a) Is blue in colour (b) Looks like water (c) Is invisible, like oxygen in the air (d) Is opaque

483. Cast iron is hard and brittle because it contains: (a) 5% lead (b) More than 1% carbon (c) More than 2% carbon (d) 2 calories of heat

484. Beautiful, lake colours are formed by dyes with mordants, which fasten the dye to the cloth or fabric. Which of the following is a mordant used in dyeing? (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Aluminium sulphate (c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Zinc phosphate

485. Which of the following is a yellow-coloured chemical used as a pigment? (a) Zinc chromate (b) Zinc oxide (c) Zinc carbonate (d) Copper sulphate

486. Which one of the following is not an alternate form of energy? (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Solar energy (d) Tidal power

487. Permanent magnets can be made from alloys of: (a) Zinc (b) Aluminium (c) Cobalt (d) Lead

488. Which of the following is a chemical compound? (a) Salt (b) Iron (c) Oxygen (d) Diamond

489. An excess of molybdenum in grassy areas results in poor growth of animals because it blocks the utilization of: (a) Oxygen (b) Iron (c) Copper (d) Selenium

490. It is dangerous to leave the engine of a car running in a closed garage as it may lead to poisoning by: (a) Carbon (b) Petrol vapour (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide

Chemistry 137

Direction for Q. 491 – 500 : Consider the two statements given below, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes give below:

(a) Both A are R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A are R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

491. Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, the acid is added to water and not water to acid Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large

492. Assertion (A): Chile continues to be an important producer of copper in the world. Reason (R): Chile is endowed with the world’s largest deposit of porphyry copper.

493. Assertion (A): A mixture of salt and ice gives temperature below 0ºC. Reason (R): The salt raises the freezing point of ice.

494. Assertion (A): Unlike photographic film, which can be used only once, video tapes can be reused several times Reason (R): Photography involves chemical change but video recording is a physical change.

495. Assertion (A): Activated charcoal is used for decolourising sugar solution. Reason (R): Activated charcoal absorbs the impurities on its surface.

496. Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under Kerosene. Reason (R): Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air

497. Assertion (A): A dry cell cannot be recharged. Reason (R): The chemical reaction in a dry cell is reversible.

498. Assertion (A): Detergents can easily remove oil and dirt from soiled garments. Reason (R): Detergents increase the surface tension of water

499. Assertion (A): Red phosphorus is preferred to white phosphorus in the manufacture of matches. Reason (R): Red phosphorus is non-poisonous in nature.

500. Assertion (A): Alkalies are used for washing utensils. Reason (R): Alkalies are readily soluble in water.


1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:

List-I List-II A. Cotton 1. Rainfall 1000 –1500 mm;

Temperature 40º – 60ºC B. Flax 2. Rainfall 1500 – 2000 mm;

Temperature 25º – 35ºC C. Sugarbeet 3. Rainfall 600 – 800 mm;

Temperature 5º – 18º C D. Jute 4. Rainfall 500 – 1000 mm;

Temperature 18º – 22º C 5. Rainfall 500 – 600 mm;

Temperature 18º – 22º C A B C D

(a) 4 5 2 1 (b) 2 3 5 4 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 3 5 2

2. Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants? (a) Lichen (b) Coralloid root (c) Biofertilizer (d) Mycorrhiza

3. The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in (a) Gulf of Kutch (b) Chilka Lake (c) Sunderbans (d) Lakshadweep

4. Which among the following is the most appropriate reason for storing green coloured apples at low temperatures? (a) The rates of respiration and photosynthesis are reduced (b) The rate of respiration is reduced (c) The rate of photosynthesis is reduced (d) Respiration and photosynthesis are completely inhibited

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5. Cytokinins are byproducts of (a) Fat metabolism (b) Protein metabolism (c) Carbohydrate metabolism (d) Nucleic acid metabolism

6. Match the hormones in List I with items in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II A. Adrenalin 1. Anger, fear, danger B. Estrogen 2. Attracting partners through

sense of smell C. Insulin 3. Females D. Pheromones 4. Glucose

A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 1 2 4

7. Which one of the following scholars suggested the earth’s origin from gases and dust particles? (a) F. Hoyle (b) H. Alfven (c) James Jeans (d) Kant and Leplace

8. Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of ‘Terminator Seed Technology’ because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to (a) Give rise to sexually sterile plants (b) Form low-yielding plants despite the high quality (c) Show poor germination (d) Give rise to the plants incapable of forming viable seeds

9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Timber) (Country) A. Cedar 1. Myanmar B. Douglas Fir 2. Canada C. Mahogany 3. Mexico D. Teak 4. Honduras

A B C D (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 3 1 4


10. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellates. These blooms are called (a) Black tides (b) Sea tides (c) Red tides (d) Sea flowers


List-I List-II

A. Theory of mutation 1. Beadle and Tatum B. Theory of evolution 2. Jacob and Monod C. One gene one enzyme 3. Darwin

hypothesis D. Operon concept 4. DeVries

A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1

12. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is NOT correct? (a) Both of them give colour with iodine (b) Both of them are polymers (c) Both of them are of plant origin (d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules

13. Ergotism is due to consumption of (a) Contaminated water (b) Rotting vegetables (c) Contaminated grains (d) Stale cooked food

14. The major component of honey is (a) Maltose (b) Sucrose (c) Glucose (d) Fructose

15. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called (a) Coronary arteries (b) Hepatic arteries (c) Carotid arteries (d) Pulmonary arteries

16. The sequencing of the entire genome (the totality of all genes) of an organism was completed in 1996. The organism was (a) Human being (b) Yeast (c) Albino mouse (d) Plasmodium vivax

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17. The pituitary gland by virtue of its tropic hormones controls the secretory activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the following endocrine glands can function independent of the pituitary gland? (a) Adrenals (b) Gonads (c) Thyroid (d) Parathyroid


List-I List-II

A. Malaria 1. Bone marrow B. Filaria 2. Brain C. Encephalitis 3. Muscle D. Leukaemia 4. Lymph node

5. Blood cells Codes:

A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 5 4 2 1 (c) 5 3 2 1 (d) 5 4 1 2

19. The characteristic odour of garlic is due to (a) A fluorine compound (b) A sulphur compound (c) A chloro compound (d) Acetic acid

20. Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in (a) Fallopian tube (b) Ovary (c) Urethra (d) Testis

21. Which one of the following organism is likely to show the highest concentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the ecosystem? (a) Snake (b) Toad (c) Grasshopper (d) Cattle

22. Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings? (a) Onion (b) Sorghum (c) Maize (d) Soyabeen


List-I List-II

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climates with

high altitude D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil


A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 2 4 1

24. Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants? (a) Sodium (b) Zinc (c) Boron (d) Copper

25. Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier against (a) Loss of salts from the body (b) Loss of essential body fluids (c) Loss of heat from the body (d) Entry of harmful micro-organisms from the environment

26. Which of the following pairs of States and their important crops are correctly matched? 1 Kerala - Tapioca 2 Maharashtra - Cotton 3 West Bengal - Jute 4 Gujarat - Groundnut Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

27. Match List I (Physiological Processess) with List II (Cell organelles) and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:

List-I List-II

A. Photosynthesis 1. Plasma membrane B. Mineral uptake 2. Chloroplast C. Respiration 3. Mitochondria D. Protein synthesis 4. Ribosomes

A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3

28. Which of the following are asssociated with diabetes mellitus, a common diseases in adults? 1. Higher sugar level in blood 2. Lower sugar level in blood 3. Lower insulin level in blood 4. Higher insulin level in blood

Biology 143

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

29. According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which causes the death of the largest number of people today is (a) Malaria (b) Tuberculosis (c) AIDS (d) Ebola

30. If mitochondria are removed from the cell (a) Nothing happens (b) Energy metabolism of the cell gets reduced (c) The cell cannot reproduce (d) Leaves become white


List-I List-II

A. Vitamin 1. Pepsin B. Enzyme 2. Carotene C. Hormone 3. Keratin D. Protein 4. Progesterone Codes:

A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 2 4 3

32. Physico-chemical characteristics of water in water sources undergo changes due to (a) Effluents (b) Aquatic fungi (c) Aquatic macrophytes (d) Evapotranspiration

33. It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by (a) Spraying hormones on flowers (b) Spraying mineral solution on plants (c) Applying trace elements in tomato fields (d) Applying fertilizers containing radioactive elements

34. Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA? 1. Researchers using carbon-14 isotope 2. X ray technician 3. Coal miner 4. Dyer and painter


Select the correct answer by using the codes given below: Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4

35. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation? (a) Chorion (b) Allantois (c) Amnion (d) Yolk sac

36. Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to (a) Julian Huxley (b) K.V. Frisch (c) H.G.Khurana (d) Dorothy Hodgkins

37. Which one of the following hormones contains iodine? (a) Insulin (b) Testosterone (c) Thyroxine (d) Adrenalin

38. “The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970; .........areas have begun to bloom in 1970. But 19 years after the war’s end, it seem plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human beings, something it never intened to do. The apparent toxic fallout from those clouds.... is a crop of human miseries including cancers, miscarriages and birth defects – that may persist for decades.” The offensive substance referred to in this quotation is (a) A complex mixture of DDT and other insecticides used as aerial

sprays for protection against malaria and other tropical diseases (b) A complex mixture of herbicides and weedicides used to increase

agricultural ouput in the South Vietnam under the U.S. aid programme

(c) DDT used as an insecticide (d) Dioxin used as defoliants

39. Which one of the following sets is correctly matched? (a) Diphtheria, Pneumonia : Hereditary

and Leprosy (b) AIDS, Syphilis Gonorrhoea : Bacterial (c) Colour blindness, Haemophilia : Sex Linked

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy (d) Polio, Japanese B : Viral

encephalitis and plague

40. The only snake that builds a nest is (a) Krait (b) King Cobra (c) Chain Viper (d) Saw-scaled viper

Biology 145

41. “Monoculture of commercially viable trees is destroying the unique natural profile of .......... Thoughtless exploitation of timber, deforesting vast tracts for palm cultivation, destruction of mangroves, illegal logging by tribals and poaching only compound the problem. Fresh water packets are fast drying up due to deforestation and destruction of mangroves.” The place referred to in this quotation is (a) Orissa coast (b) Kerala coast (c) Sunderbans (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

42. Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because (a) The desert insects eat away flowers during daytime (b) They are sensitive to the phases of moon (c) Their blooming is controlled by low temperature (d) The desert insects are active during nightime

43. The palaeomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian landmass has moved (a) Eastward (b) Southward (c) Northward (d) Westward

44. What is the correct sequence of the following in a heart attack? 1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel 2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol 3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen 4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries (a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3

45. Which of the following is/are used as biofertilisers? 1. Azolla 2. Blue-green algae 3. Alfalfa (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 alone (d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Which one of the following is caused by the expression of a recessive gene present on sex chromosome? (a) Muscular dystrophy (b) Nervous shock (c) Rheumatism (d) Cerebral haemorrhage

47. Which one of the following vitamins is considered to be a hormone? (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D

48. Which one of the following soil types of India is rendered infertile by the presence of excess iron? (a) Podzolic (b) Alluvial (c) Desert sand (d) Colluvial


49. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in (a) Heavily polluted rivers (b) Tropical moist forests (c) Temperate deciduous forests (d) Deserts and savannas

50. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. The “error” refers to (a) Inherited lack of an enzyme (b) Atrophy of endocrine glands (c) Hormonal overproduction (d) Nondisjunction

51. Match List I with (crops) List II (crop pests) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Crops) (Crop Pests)

A. Rice 1. Aphid B. Wheat 2. Gundhi bug C. Sugarcane 3. Greasy cutworm D. Gram 4. Top shoot borer moth

5. Bollworm A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 2 3 4 5 (d) 5 4 1 3

52. Our present view regarding photosynthesis is that it (a) Reverses the action of respiration (b) Converts light energy into chemical energy only (c) Creates useful energy (d) Fixes CO

2 into carbohydrates with the help of assimilatory power

53. Which is the evidence to show that O 2 released during photosynthesis

comes from water? (a) Synthesis of carbohydrates and formation of H

2 O and sulphur by

photosynthetic bacteria when supplied with H 2 S and CO

2

(b) Release of O 2 by isolated chloroplasts when potassium ferrocyanide

or some other reducing substance is supplied (c) Release of radioactive O

2 , when water is supplied as H

2 O 18

(d) All the above

Biology 147

54. Even though an animal is fed with carbohydrate-rich diet, its blood sugar concentration tends to remains constant. This is on account of the fact that in the case of an animal (a) Blood sugar is readily absorbed by liver (b) Hormones of pancreas cause such a condition (c) Hormones of pituitary glands control metabolic process (d) Glucose undergoes autolysis

55. Farm land tends to erode most rapidly when planted with (a) Wheat (b) Potato (c) Sorghum (d) Clover

56. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of (a) Five (b) Three (c) Two (d) Eight

57. Which of the following fish are bred exclusively in the cold regions of India? 1. Catla 2. Tinca 3. Bhekti 4. Trout (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

58. The first bird is believed to have appeared on the surface of the earth (a) 150 million years ago (b) 200 million years ago (c) 300 million years ago (d) 100 million years ago

59. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to (a) Sebaceous glands of mammals (b) Stings of rays (c) Electric organs of fishes (d) Salivary glands of vertebrates

60. Which one of the following approaches comes under the category of biotechnology? (a) Use of modern technology to investigate biological disorders (b) Modernising the commercial industries to produce products for use in biological research (c) Use of living organisms or substances obtained from them in industrial processes (d) Use of industrial technology to increase the biosphere

61. Haemophilia is a hereditary disease carried by (a) Males and expressed by females (b) Females and expressed by males (c) Females and expressed by females (d) Males and expressed by males


62. Sugarcane, Sugarbeet, sweetpea, chickpea, pigeonpea and French bean belong to (a) Four plant families (b) Three plant families (c) Two plant families (d) Five plant families

63. Which one of the following is the best strategy for environment- friendly, sustainable development in Indian agriculture? (a) Mixed cropping, organic manures, nitrogen-fixing plants and pest-

resistant crop varieties (b) Wider popularisation of high-yieliding crop varieties, better and

more frequent irrigation and increased frequency of aerial sprays of inorganic fertilisers and pesticides

(c) Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of superphosphate, urea and effective biocides

(d) Improved farm implements and machinery, use of potent insecticides to minimise post-harvest grain losses and monoculture cropping practices

64. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases (a) If there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant (b) If frost occurs during the period of ripening (c) If high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant (d) If there is high temperature during the time of ripening

65. The theory of ‘jumping genes’ was propounded by (a) Barbara McClintock (b) Thomas Hunt Morgan (c) Gregor Johann Mendel (d) Watson and Crick

66. Which one of the following seeds can benefit a patient of diabetes mellitus by normalising his blood sugar level? (a) Cumin seeds (b) Mustard seeds (c) Coriander seeds (d) Fenugreek seeds

67. Which one of the following strongly threatens biodiversity? (a) Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation and shifting cultivation (b) Inaccessible habitats in the Himalayas (c) Fragile ecosystems such as mangroves and wetlands (d) Creation of biosphere reserves

68. Which one of the following plants can fix nitrogen from air? (a) Pea (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Maize

Biology 149


List-I List-II

A. Islets of Langerhans 1. Calcitonin B. Pituitary gland 2. Epinephrine C. Thyroid gland 3. Growth hormone D. Adrenal gland 4. Insulin

A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1

70. Dry Farming in India is extensively practised in (a) Coromandel plains (b) Deccan Region (c) Kanara plains (c) Punjab plains

71. Three important micronutrients essential for humans are (a) Nitrogen, molybdenum and iodine (b) Zinc, copper and potassium (c) Copper, zinc and iodine (d) Sulphur, copper and iron

72. Natural rubber is a plant product which is chemically known as (a) Latex (b) Gum (c) Mucilage (d) Resin


List-I List-II

Crop Top Producers

A. Olives 1. USA B. Cotton 2. Italy C. Tomato 3. Brazil D. Coffee 4. China

5. Indonesia A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 5 3 (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 4 1 3

74. The bats are able to fly in dark since their mouth produce (a) Sound waves (b) Ultrasonic waves (c) Infrared rays (d) Ultraviolet rays


75. Consider the Food Pyramid given below showing the interdependence of plants and animals in the food chain

Which one of the following in the pyramid is most delicately balanced in the chain? (a) Top Carnivore (b) Plant (c) Herbivore (d) Small Carnivore

76. Which of the following listings are correct? Cash Crop Plantation Crop Horticulture Crop

1. Tobacco Coconut Sugarcane 2. Sugarcane Coffee Coconut 3. Cotton Tea Cashew 4. Coconut Rubber Tobacco (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

77. Which of the following crops are most suitable for cultivation under scanty rainfall conditions? 1. Horse gram 2. Rice 3. Mustard 4. Wheat Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

78. India possesses more than half the total number of the world’s (a) Goats (b) Buffaloes (c) Cattle (d) Sheep

79. It has been observed that after-effects of low temperature treatment are helpful in promoting the flowering in certain plants. Through this the vegetative period of plants becomes short and early flowering takes place. This phenomenon is known as (a) Vernalisation (b) Florignation (c) Photoperiodism (d) Heliotropism

Plant

Herbivore

Small Carnivore

Top Carnivore

Food Pyramid

Biology 151

80. Rabies is caused by a (a) Bacteria and it affects the nervous system (b) Virus and it affects the cardiovascular system (c) Virus and it affects the nervous system (d) Bacteria and it affects the cardiovascular system

81. Where does exchange of gases (O 2 and CO

2 ) take place in our lungs?

(a) Pleura (b) Bronchi (c) Alveoli (d) Trachea

82. The resinous substance, shellac is obtained from (a) An insect (b) The bark of a tree (c) Crude oil (d) Distillation of wood

83. Mitochondrial DNA in an individual comes from (a) Both parents (b) Female parents (c) Male parents (d) Neither of the parents

84. Some medicines are given in the form of capsules. The capsules are mode of (a) Embryonic tissue (b) Gelatinous material (c) Paper (d) Starch

85. Match:

List-I List-II

A. Deforestation 1. Vacuoles B. Cellular structure 2. Maize C. Cross pollination 3. Soil erosion D. Nitrogen fixation 4. Legumes

A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 3 4 1

86. Which one of the following oils is having maximum content of Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids (PUFA)? (a) Coconut oil (b) Cottonseed oil (c) Soyabean oil (d) Sunflower oil

87. Which of the following determines the protein quality of food? (a) Amino acids mixture (b) Fibre content (c) Protein amalgamation (d) Vegetable or animal origin

88. The highest fat content is found in the milk of (a) Camel (b) Cow (c) Buffalo (d) Reindeer


89. Significantly higher level of urea in the blood is the indication of (a) Heart attack (b) Kidney damage (c) Liver damage (d) Spleen damage

90. Pyrilla is a (a) A character of ancient Greek mythology (b) An insect pest (c) Disease of teeth and gums (d) A building heated by solar energy

91. Angora wool is obtained from a breed of (a) Goat (b) Sheep (c) Rabbit (d) Fox

92. Which one of the following winds is not a planetary wind? (a) Polar Easterly (b) Westerly (c) Trade (d) Monsoon

93. Who is the pioneer of ‘White revolution’ in India? (a) Swaminathan (b) Verghese Kurien (c) Dhiru Bhai Ambani (d) S.K.Birla

94. Stock-farming refers to (a) Farming concentrating on the rearing of cattles and sheep (b) Cooperative farming (c) Accent on agricultural production to build a buffer stock (d) Large scale capital-intensive commercial farming

95. Which one of the following is the main cause of the low productivity of rice in India? (a) Low fertility of soils (b) High incidence of pests (c) Low yielding varieties (d) Low market price

96. Match the following.

List-I List-II

Branches of Science Details of study

A. Taxonomy 1. Functional movements B. Mycology 2. Classification C. Morphology 3. Shape and structure D. Physiology 4. Fungus

A B C D (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1

Biology 153

97. For developing inbred lines in farm animals, following factors are taken into consideration: 1. The crossbreds should be of outstanding type. 2. They should not carry any detrimental genes. 3. Progeny tested animals 4. Herd size should be large. Of the statements given above, which one of the following combinations of factors is most essential? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

98. Which of the following is a cash crop? (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Groundnut (d) Gram

99. Meristematic tissues of plants include (a) Mature fruits, tips of stem and root, cork cambium (b) Stem and root tips, vascular cambium, cork cambium (c) Vascular cambium, cork cambium, tips of mature leaves (d) Tips of mature leaves and mature fruits

100. Sir J.C. Bose proposed this theory to explain the process of ascent of sap. (a) Relay-pump theory (b) Transpiration pull theory (c) Pulsatory theory (d) Capillary force theory

101. The human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) is a living entity because it can (a) Undergo auto-reproduction (b) Disturb host cell respiration (c) Excrete in human serum (d) Move from one cell to another

102. Dorsiventral leaf has (a) spongy parenchyma on upper side (b) spongy parenchyma on both sides (c) palisade parenchyma on lower side (d) palisade parenchyma on upper side

103. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:

List-I List-II

(Pulse) (Protein %)

A. Cow pea 1. 22.9 B. Rajmah 2. 43.2 C. Soybean 3. 24.1 D. Dry peas 4. 19.7


A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 4 3 2 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2

104. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure: 1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel 2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases 3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries 4. It is usually lower in women than in men. Of these statements (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (c) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct


List-I List-II (Plant tissue) (Function)

A. Sclerenchyma 1. Conduction of water B. Xylem 2. Transport of food C. Phloem 3. Mechanical strength D. Meristem 4. Cell division

5. Carbon assimilation A B C D

(a) 4 2 5 3 (b) 1 4 3 5 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 5 4 1

106. When compared to the mammals, birds are less sensitive to temporary deprivation of water, because (a) Urea excretion in mammals entails a greater loss of water than

that in birds (b) Absorption of water from the gut is more efficient in birds that

in mammals (c) The water requirement per unit weight is less in birds than in

mammals (d) None of these.

107. Consider the following effects of genetic engineering: 1. Disease resistance 2. Growth promotion 3. Cloning 4. Longevity

Biology 155

Of these effects, those that have been tried out with a certain amount of success include (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

108. There are more anti-bacterial drugs than anti-viral drugs because (a) Virus are smaller than bacteria (b) Viral diseases are intracellular (c) Bacterial diseases are intracellular (d) Drugs can penetrate bacteria more effectively

109. Which of the following is true about the Bats? 1. Bats are mammals. 2. Bats have wings which are actually the modified forelimbs. 3. Bats are nocturnal in habit. (a) 1 & 3 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 1 & 2

110. Population of cells derived from a single parent cell is called (a) Symmetrical cell (b) Diploid (c) Haploid (d) Clone

111. Which of the following plants is biennial? (a) Jack fruit (b) Pineapple (c) Banana (d) Carrot

112. Shifting cultivators normally grow (a) Cash crops along with fodder (b) The major crop along with cereals (c) A single crop which is mainly consumed (d) Grains, vegetable and tubers in rotation

113. Guinea pigs used in medical research are (a) Stocky and brown in colour (b) Black swine (c) Rodents (d) Found in Asia only

114. The drugs-caffeine, tannin and nicotine are (a) Alkaloids (b) Cortisones (c) Steroids (d) Mild alkalis

115. Corals is/are (a) The tiny animals that live in shells in the sea. (b) A special variety of fish which live in shells (c) A particular type of shell found near some of the sea coasts (d) The remains of tiny sea animals resembling shells

116. A recently developed technique for monitoring foetal growth uses (a) Ultrasonics (b) Microwaves (c) X-rays (d) Ultraviolet rays


117. Water hyacinth is related to (a) Eichhornia (b) Pistia (c) Lemna (d) None of these

118. Inspection and dissection of a body after death in human beings as for determination of cause of death is called (a) Autoesism (b) Autotomy (c) Autopsy (d) Autograft

119. Match the plants with the families to which they belong?

A. Groundnut 1. Leguminosae B. Cotton 2. Graminae C. Sugarcane 3. Malvaceae (a) A-2, B-1, C-3 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (c) A-1, B-2, C-3 (d) A-3, B-1, C-2

120. Which of the following diseases is hereditary? (a) Cancer (b) Tuberculosis (c) Haemophilia (d) Dysentery

121. Ultrafiltering units of kidney are known as (a) Vena Cava (b) Glomerulus (c) Nephron (d) Tubule

122. The human body is immune to which of the following diseases? (a) Tuberculosis (b) Diabetes (c) Smallpox (d) Jaundice

123. Temperature in human beings is controlled by (a) Hypothalamus gland (b) Thyroid gland (c) Pituitary gland (d) Adrenal gland

124. India’s indigenous pigs generally give birth to ............. young ones at a time? (a) 6-8 (b) 4-6 (c) 2-4 (d) 8-10

125. Blood grouping was discovered by (a) William Harvey (b) Robert Koch (c) Landsteiner (d) Louis Pasteur

126. Which of the following is not a fungal disease? (a) Red rot of sugarcane (b) Wilt of arhar (c) Brown leaf spot of rice (d) Potato mosaic

Biology 157

127. Which of the following is necessary for improvement of the quality of crops? 1. Introduction 2. Hybridisation 3. Selection 4. Segregation (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

128. Foetus development in women’s womb can be ascertained by (a) PTT scanning (b) Ultrasound (c) CAT scanning (d) Co-27 experiment

129. A biogas plant works to its maximum capacity when (a) Conditions are aerobic and sewage is supplied. (b) Conditions are anaerobic and temperature 40ºC (c) Conditions are aerobic and temperature 40ºC (d) Conditions are anaerobic and sewage is supplied

130. Match the columns: A Bajra 1. Rust B Wheat 2. Wilt C Groundnut 3. Tikka D Banana 4. Ergot (a) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

131. The shaded portion in the following map represents (a) Subtropical evergreen forest (b) Tropical evergreen forests (c) Deciduos forests (d) None of these

132. We refer to the following as the food chain (a) Large number of animals near a source of food (b) Transfer of food energy from green plants through a series of

consumer organism (c) Large number of human beings forming a human chain near a

source of food (d) None of these

133. Which of the following is a living fossil? (a) Fungus (b) Green algae (c) Blue green algae (d) Ginkgo


134. Which of the following varieties are correctly matched to their respective plant types? A CHS-I 1. Rice B IR-8 2. Wheat C RR-2I 3. Jowar D HB-4 4. Sugarcane

5. Bajra (a) A-2, B-3, C-5, D-1 (b) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2 (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5 (d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

135. Khaira is a plant disease caused due to the deficiency of (a) Zinc (b) Carbon (c) Iron (d) None of these

136. Azolla gives a good biofertilizer when mixed with (a) Bone-meal (b) Cowdung (c) Blue-green algae (d) Urea

137. A person walking barefooted in a field feels a sharp sting and on examination two puncture marks are found on his leg. He is most probably bitten by (a) Scorpion (b) Non-poisonous snake (c) Poisonous snake (d) Rat

138. Recently there was a controversy regarding the plantation of (a) Tamarindus (b) Eucalyptus (c) Acacia (d) None of these

139. Influence of genes in controlling the activity of living organisms is through (a) Vitamins (b) Protein synthesis (c) Photosynthesis (d) Hormones

140. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing size of the grains of soil particles? A. Clay B. Silt C. Sand D. Gravel (a) B, C, A, D (b) D, C, A, B (c) A, B, C, D (d) C, D, B, A

141. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? (a) Kiwi – Bird (b) Alligator – Crocodile (c) Bat – Mammal (d) Fish – Pisces

142. Which of the following pairs is/are correct? (A) Main root – Storage (B) Lateral root – Absorption

Biology 159

(C) Root hair – Conduction (a) All are correct (b) A and C (c) Only A (d) None of these

143. This process is referred to as translation (a) Decoding of triplet codons on t-RNA by m-RNA (b) Decoding of triplet condons on m-RNA by t-RNA (c) Decoding of amino acids to proteins (d) None of these

144. The m-RNA is formed (a) From the ribosomes on endoplasmic reticulum (b) By free ribosomes (c) In the nucleus (d) From DNA in the nucleus

145. Bile is secreted by (a) Kidney (b) Gall bladder (c) Liver (d) Pancreas

146. What is tissue culture? (a) Name given to a special type of surgery (b) Japanese culture (c) Preparation of fragments of the cells of organism for biochemical

examination (d) None of the above

147. DNA is made up by the four-letter alphabet forming the pairs (a) T–G, G–T, A–C, C–A (b) A–G, G–A, C–A, T–C (c) A–C, C–A, T–G, G–T (d) A–T, T–A, C–G, G–C

148. Poliomyelitis is an epidemic virus infection. Which of the following is responsible for it? (a) Dengue virus (b) Entero virus (c) Rhabdo virus (d) Mumps virus

149. Those who give birth to young-ones are called viviparous. Some fishes lay eggs. Therefore, (a) Some frogs do not lay eggs (b) Some frogs are fishes (c) Some fishes do not lay eggs (d) Some fishes are oviparous

150. What is the theory of spontaneous generation? (a) Origin of life from non-life (b) Origin of animals from the navel of God (c) Biblical story of the creation of Adam (d) The theory that man is generating his numbers in geometrical

progression


151. Who was the first scientist to have conducted dissections of the human body? (a) Aristotle (b) Plato (c) Hippocrates (d) Alcmaeon

152. He was one of the most renowned pupils of Plato. Plato called him ‘The intelligence of the school’. Whom was he referring to? (a) Aristotle (b) Pytheas (c) Theophrastus (d) Strato

153. Who was the first person to discover the existence of male and female reproductive cells ? (a) Hecataeus (b) Aristotle (c) Hippocrates (d) Xenophanes

154. Which biologist is best known for putting forth the ‘biogenetic law’, also known as the ‘theory of recapitulation’? (a) Konrad Von Gesner (b) Earnst Haeckel (c) John Kendrew (d) Walther Flemming

155. The science of the structure of animals and plants based upon dissection and microscopic observation is known as (a) Anatomy (b) Biochemistry (c) Physiology (d) Biophysics

156. The branch of biology that studies organisms in terms of their relationships with other organisms vis-a-vis their local environment is known as (a) Ecology (b) Ethology (c) Palaeontology (d) Biochemistry

157. The dating of fossil animals and plants, by counting the ridges on fossil shells and corals, is known as (a) Palaeochronology (b) Sporology (c) Corallology (d) Dendrochronology

158. The study of patterns of distribution of animals and plants in different parts of the earth is known as (a) Biogeography (b) Biogeology (c) Geology (d) Biozoogeography

159. The study of cell nuclei, especially in reference to their chromosomes, is known as (a) Tychology (b) Chromosomology (c) Pycnology (d) Karyology

Biology 161

160. The branch of horticulture that deals with the study of fruits and their cultivation is known as (a) Pomology (b) Fruitology (c) Pomography (d) Economic botany

161. Who first propounded the cell theory stating that all living things are made up of cells or of material formed by cells? (a) Asa Gray (b) Matthias Jakob Schleiden (c) Theodor Schwann (d) Alfred Russel Wallace

162. The cells in which the hereditary material or the DNA is not surrounded by a membrane are called (a) Eucaryotic cells (b) Membrane-less cells (c) Procaryotic cells (d) Cells without nuclei

163. The average volume of a eucaryotic cell is (a) Between 1 µm 3 and 1,000 µm 3

(b) Between 100 µm 3 and 1,000 µm 3

(c) Between 10 µm 3 and 100 µm 3

(d) Generally greater than 10,000 µm 3

164. Mitosis is the name given to the process of cell division. What is the name given to the period between two mitotic cycles? (a) Metaphase (b) Interphase (c) Prophase (d) Telophase

165. What are or were the HeLa Cells ? (a) Cells from patients suffering from fatal disorders (b) Artificial cells produced by genetic engineering (c) Cells taken from a rare animal called HeLa (d) Cells from a black American woman who died in 1951

166. This is a complex, non-carbohydrate polymer found in cell walls. Its function is to provide stiffening to the cell as in xylem vessels and bark fibres. Name it (a) Opsonin (b) Saponin (c) Lignin (d) Plant Polypeptide

167. Pyknosis, karyorrhexis and karyolysis indicate that the cell is (a) Dead (b) Going to divide (c) Resting (d) Actively synthesizing the secretory granules

168. Which of the following cells can be seen with a naked eye? (a) Egg cell of a hen (b) Neurons of a giant squid (c) Cells of the elephant’s brain (d) No single cell can be seen with a naked eye


169. A type of white blood cell with a very large nucleus, rich in DNA, and a small amount of clear cytoplasm, is found in the blood. It produces antibodies and is important in defence against disease. Name it.

(a) Lymphocyte (b) Myeloid cell (c) Fibroblast (d) Neutrophil

170. During reproduction in certain fungi, when the two hyphae fuse together, there is fusion of cytoplasm, but the nuclei remain separate. What is this phenomenon known as? (a) Syncytum (b) Karyogamy (c) Plasmogamy (d) Fibroblast

171. In which of the following cells would you be able to find the centriole? (a) Motile algae (b) All plant cells (c) All animal cells (d) Both (a) & (c)

172. What is the name given to a large amoeboid cell that engulfs and destroys bacteria invading the human body? (a) Elastocyte (b) Mast cell (c) Macrophage (d) T-cell

173. The diameter of human red blood cells is (a) 15 µm (b) 7 µm (c) 2 µm (d) 50 µm

174. Which of the following organisms is supposed to have the maximum number of chromosomes? (a) Drosophila (b) Mouse (c) Whale (d) Adder’s tongue fern

175. This famous scientist worked with a mould called Neurospora crassa and came to the conclusion that the characteristic function of the gene was to supervise the formation of a particular enzyme. Who was he? (a) John Jospeh Bittner (b) William Clouser Boyd (c) George Wells Beadle (d) Wendell Meredith Stanley

176. What does the term gene pool mean? (a) Total number of different kinds of genes pooled by all the members of a population (b) Harmful micro-organisms in a pool (c) Total number of micro-organisms found in a swimming pool (d) Total number of genes in all cells of a single individual

177. When stained with a certain dye, the chromosomes show alternate light and dark bands known as Q-bands under the microscope. Name the dye. (a) Eosin (b) Haematoxylin (c) Giemsa stain (d) Quinacrine mustard

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178. The expression of one gene sometimes prevents the expression of another gene at a different chromosome. What is this phenomenon called? (a) Polyploidism (b) Genetic inhibition (c) Telosuppression (d) Epistasis

179. Sex chromatin was first noticed in (a) Buccal mucosa of female athletes (b) Ovaries of human female (c) Nerve cells of female cats (d) Hair roots of male horses

180. In how many groups are the 23 human chromosome pairs divided? (a) Nine (b) Seven (c) Five (d) Eleven

181. What is the Philadelphia chromosome? (a) A chromosome common between a gorilla and a man (b) An abnormal chromosome found in the patients of certain blood

cancers (c) An extra chromosome found in the residents of Philadelphia (d) A hypothetical chromosome thought to have been present in the

Neanderthal man

182. Nature has an inherent mechanism whereby harmful genes are eliminated from the population by causing the death of the bearer of such harmful genes. Modern medicine is able to save these individuals, thereby causing the accumulation of harmful genes. What is this phenomenon known as? (a) Genetic evolution (b) Genetic involution (c) Genetic drift (d) Genetic pollution

183. Which of the following reagents stains DNA and is particularly used to show chromosomes during cell division? (a) Borax Carmine (b) Iodine (c) Methylene blue (d) Feulgen’s stain

184. DNA found in the nucleus is wrapped around a simple protein which is basic in nature. This protein is also thought to regulate DNA functioning in some way. Name this protein. (a) Collagen (b) Renin (c) Pepsin (d) Histones

185. Proteins on heating change from (a) Solid to gas directly without changing first into liquid (b) Solid to liquid (c) Liquid to gas (d) Liquid to solid


186. What is common among the following amino acids: Phenylalanine, leucine, methionine and valine? (a) They are the only amino acids not found in milk (b) They are essential amino acids (c) They are not required by humans (d) Females do not require these amino acids

187. Where would you normally find the protein fibroin? (a) Silk (b) Wool (c) Milk (d) Cartilage

188. Biologists frequently have to test material for the presence of proteins. For this, they use a mixture of mercury, nitric acid and water. What is this reagent known as? (a) Proprotein reagent (b) Frederick’s reagent (c) Millon’s reagent (d) Protein reagent

189. Which of the following enzymes is used for coagulating milk protein to obtain casein? (a) Rennin (b) Ptyalin (c) Trypsin (d) Pancreatin

190. Which was the first protein hormone ever to be synthesized? (a) Oxytocin (b) Glucagon (c) Insulin (d) Testosterone

191. Which of the following animals don’t need Vitamin C ? (a) Bulbuls (b) Guinea pigs (c) Monkeys (d) Cats

192. Which vitamin is also known as PP vitamin? (a) Vitamin D (b) Niacin (c) Vitamin A (d) Pantothenic acid

193. Which vitamin is also known as Tocoferol? (a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin E

194. Certain bacteria are able to thrive under extreme environmental conditions such as absence of oxygen, high salt concentration, high temperature or highly acidic environment. What are these bacteria called? (a) Probacteria (b) Neobacteria (c) Hardy bacteria (d) Archaebacteria

195. Bacteria which are found in marshy areas and among the flora of cattle rumen are called (a) Acidophiles (b) Thermophiles (c) Methanogens (d) Thermoacidophiles

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196. In the beginning there was no oxygen in earth’s atmosphere. The activity of which organism is generally supposed to have made the earth’s atmosphere aerobic or oxygen-rich? (a) Monocotyledons (b) Filamentous algae (c) Cyanobacteria (d) Mycoplasma

197. Which non-toxic, fast growing cyanobacterium is cultivated in tanks as a protein-rich animal feed? (a) Stigonema (b) Spirulina (c) Nostoc (d) Oscillatoria

198. Leptothrix is an example of iron bacteria. Which of the following statements best fit the iron bacteria? (a) They oxidise ferrous compounds to ferric oxide (b) They are responsible for preservation of iron-rich artefacts in

archaeological material (c) They cause rusting of iron (d) They cause iron to be deposited in the livers of animals

199. The term ‘virus’ means (a) Killer (b) Violent (c) An infinitesimally small particle (d) Poison

200. What is the name given to the process when the viral nucleic acid is incorporated into a bacterial chromosome to become an integral part of it ? (a) Transformation (b) Reverse transcription (c) Lysogeny (d) Transduction

201. When was the first AIDS case discovered in India? (a) 1986 (b) 1985 (c) 1982 (d) 1987

202. These are a group of very small intra-cellular bacteria. They are transmitted by arthropod vectors. Some of the diseases caused by them are typhus, trench fever and Q fever. Name these organisms. (a) Viroids (b) Bacteriods (c) Rickettsia (d) Mycoplasma

203. Reappearance of an inherited trait after an apparent gap of several generations is called (a) Autotrophic traits (b) Atavism (c) Jumping traits (d) Hidden traits


204. A group of closely related, structurally and functionally similar organisms which interbreed with one another in nature, but not with organisms of other groups is known as (a) Order (b) Genus (c) Species (d) Family

205. Which of the following is the best evidence that gymnosperms have descended from pteridophytes? (a) Some gymnosperms have ciliated sperms (b) They have cones (c) They are evergreen (d) Some gymnosperms cannot bear fruit

206. The independent evolution of geographically separate but related species in a way that produces similar forms is known as (a) Parallel evolution (b) Co-evolution (c) Convergent evolution (d) Synergistic evolution

207. Inheritance in which maternal characters are shown by male offspring and paternal by female is known as (a) Blending inheritance (b) Criss-cross inheritance (c) Alternative inheritance (d) Amphi-gonous inheritance

208. Which of the following hominids were the first to use fire? (a) Homo erectus (b) Homo habilis (c) Australopithecus boisei (d) Proconsul

209. Which great discovery regarding human evolution was made in 1857? (a) Bones of Neanderthal man were discovered (b) Geological periods were demarcated for the first time (c) Radiocarbon dating was perfected (d) Importance of vestigial structures was recognised for the first time

210. In which of the following respects do mammals differ from reptiles? (a) Structure of the teeth (b) Arrangement of the legs (c) Ability to breed on land (d) Brighter colours

211. There are certain special nerves which are insulated by myelin sheaths around them. The nerve impulse travels very fast along these nerves because it “leaps” along certain special points on these nerves. What is this special mode of conduction known as? (a) Superconduction (b) Saltatory conduction (c) Ultrasonic conduction (d) Hyperconduction

212. The arrangement of parts in an organism in such a way that the structure can only be divided into similar halves along one plane is known as (a) Uniplannar symmetry (b) Radial symmetry (c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Unique symmetry

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213. Which are the earliest animals ever to possess a true voice? (a) Birds (b) Reptiles (c) Fishes (d) Frogs

214. Quadriped and biped are familiar terms but what is a palmiped? (a) Any bird with webbed feet (b) Animal having five fingers in the shape of a palm leaf (c) Animal which walks on its palms (d) Animal such as kangaroo, who uses its tail in locomotion

215. Who was the first scientist to classify fossils? (a) Friedrich Wilhelm Humboldt (b) Georges Cuvier (c) William Smith (d) Antoina Laurent de Jussieu

216. Which animal is generally considered as a connecting link between the annelid worms and the arthropods? (a) Peripatus (b) Fairy shrimp (c) Barnacle (d) Mantis shrimp

217. What is Aristotle’s lantern? (a) Special equipment designed by Aristotle with which sea creatures could be found in ocean deep darkness (b) A group of fireflies living together in a tree and glowing (c) A community of starfishes living together (d) A special arrangement of teeth in sea urchins

218. Which are the most primitive multi-cellular animals? (a) Sponges (b) Sea anemones (c) Soft corals (d) Starfishes

219. The gut of cnidarians has only one opening which serves both as mouth and anus. Which are the simplest animals to have a gut with two separate openings? (a) Roundworms (b) Hairworms (c) Rotifers (d) Horseshoe worms

220. What are the stinging cells on the tentacles of corals, sea anemones, jellyfish and hydra called? (a) Nematocysts (b) Statocysts (c) Barbs (b) Rays

221. Why are ‘soft’ corals so colourful ? (a) Because of pigmented cells in their body walls (b) Because of coloured rods or spines in their tissues (c) Because minute plants live in their tissues (d) Because they manufacture many coloured chemicals


222. The production of sounds by some insects by rubbing together parts of the body, usually to attract a female, is known as (a) Undulation (b) Stridulation (c) Cacophony (d) Swan Song

223. Most sharks are heavier than water. How do they prevent themselves from sinking? (a) By expelling water through the gills (b) By movement through the water (c) By means of a swim bladder (d) By extracting hydrogen from water and using it for buoyancy

224. Which of the following senses is most important to a shark when hunting its prey? (a) Smell (b) Sight (c) Hearing (d) Touch

225. What is the swim bladder in a bony fish used for? (a) Buoyancy (b) Fast swimming (c) Respiration (d) Collection of urine during swimming

226. What is the main food of young tadpoles? (a) Other tadpoles (b) Algae and other plant material (c) Small aquatic invertebrates (d) Leftovers thrown by man

227. Which of the following snakes kills its prey by constriction? (a) Banded krait (b) Python (c) Viper (d) Rat snake

228. Which of the following reptiles give birth to live young? (a) Slowworms (b) Pythons (c) Sea snakes (d) Both (a) & (c)

229. The shell of a turtle or tortoise is divided into an upper and a lower section. What is the lower section called? (a) Plastron (b) Scute (c) Carapace (d) Subshell

230. This lizard living in deserts of Australia has a curious ability to use rare rain water. The rain water does not pass through the skin but flows in minute channels along it until it reaches the mouth where it is swallowed! Name this lizard. (a) Bearded lizard (b) Moloch (c) Rhinoceros iguana (d) Teiid lizard

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231. How does the male snake locate the female for breeding? (a) By looking for her trail marks (b) By sight (c) By smell (d) By hearing her movements

232. Which is the largest living bird? (a) Emperor Penguin (b) Ostrich (c) Brown Kiwi (d) Greater Rhea

233. Generally flightless birds are very heavy, which is one reason they can’t fly. Which is the smallest flightless bird? (a) Black-throated Diver (b) Great-crested Grebe (c) Guam rail (d) Fulmar

234. The red colour of birds like flamingos is produced by (a) Simple reflection (b) Pigment melanin (c) Pigment carotenoids (d) Small crystals of mercuric oxide in its plumage

235. Which of the following features is characteristic of birds but not reptiles? (a) Hollow bones (b) Separate ilium, ischium and pubis bones (c) Absence of pygostyle (d) Presence of ribs

236. Both reptiles and birds share a number of anatomical features which led biologists to believe that birds descended from reptiles. What are those features? (a) Presence of an egg tooth in the young at the time of hatching (b) Lower jaw made up of five parts (c) Presence of only one occipital condyle (d) All the above

237. The highest sound frequency which a human being can detect is 20,000 vibrations/second. What is the highest frequency which a bat can detect? (a) 75,000 (b) 50,000 (c) 10,000 (d) 150,000

238. Mammals are divided into several orders. Which order includes the most advanced mammals? (a) Primates (b) Sirenia (c) Pholidota (d) Cetacea

239. Polar bears live at (a) Both North and South Poles (b) South Pole only


(c) North Pole only (d) Both Polar regions as well as several forests

240. By and large animals belonging to different species don’t mate together, but occasionally animals of different species can mate in captivity. Which two animals are known to mate together in captivity? (a) Chimpanzee and gorillas (b) Camels and giraffes (c) Cats and dogs (d) Lions and tigers

241. Which biologist was the first to show that almost all the Australian mammals were marsupials? (a) Friedrich Wilhelm Humboldt (b) Sir Joseph Banks (c) Charles Darwin (d) Franz Joseph Gall

242. The pouch in which a Kangaroo mother keeps her young baby is called (a) External placenta (b) Uterus (c) Marsupium (d) Cloaca

243. How many species of plants did Carolus Linnaeus list in his book Species Plantarum (1753)? (a) 10,900 (b) 7,900 (c) 5,900 (d) 15,700

244. Which thickening agent widely used in food, textile and pharmaceutical industry is extracted from kelps? (a) Cellulose (b) Mucilage (c) Fucic acid (d) Alginic acid

245. Which of the following land plants has descended from red algae? (a) All bryophytes (b) Rose (c) Tomato (d) None

246. Which of the following pigments is present in brown algae? (a) Anthocyanin (b) Fucoxanthin (c) Phycobilins (d) Biliverdin

247. For which of the following reasons are the green algae believed by biologists to be ancestors of land plants? (a) They store starch (b) They have a cellulosic cell wall (c) They contain chlorophyll (d) All of these

248. After a forest fire when above-ground plants are killed, which plants are the first to reappear? (a) Liverworts (b) Mosses (c) Ferns (d) Angiosperms

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249. Which plant tissue is mainly concerned with the transport of water and minerals? (a) Xylem (b) Cambium (c) Phloem (d) Sclereids

250. The wood produced by gymnosperms is commercially known as (a) hardwood (b) sapwood (c) logwood (d) softwood

251. What are parthenocarpic fruits? (a) Fruits enclosed in pods such as pea (b) Fruits formed without fertilization (c) Very hard fruits (d) Fruits with more than one seed at their centre

252. With a growth rate of about 5 mm a minute, it is one of the fastest growing organisms in the world. It is also known as ‘the lady of the white veil’. Identify it. (a) Sphagnum moss (b) Stinkhorn fungus (c) Bamboo (d) Clubmoss

253. A root system composed mainly of branches rather than of one principal root is known as (a) Adventitious roots (b) Tap root system (c) Fibrous root system (d) Branched root system

254. Higher plants such as trees reproduce by seeds while lower plants such as mosses and ferns reproduce by spores. What is the basic difference between a spore and a seed? (a) Spores are easily destroyed by animals (b) Spores lack a food reserve (c) Spores take a much longer time to germinate (d) Spores need great nutrition from the parent plant to develop

255. The cylinder of tissues lying inside the endodermis of plant stems and roots, containing the vascular tissues, is known as (a) Pith (b) Cambium (c) Stele (d) Pericycle

256. If the parenchyma cells contain chloroplasts then the tissue comes to be called as (a) Collenchyma (b) Aerenchyma (c) Chlorenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma

257. Cork-like tissue with large air-filled cavities between cells, present in the stems and roots of certain water plants, is known as (a) Aerenchyma (b) Tracheids (c) Collenchyma (d) Casparian bands


258. In pteridophytes and gymnosperms the xylem tissue consists mainly of (a) Tracheae (b) Tracheids (c) Vessel members (d) Sclerenchyma

259. The concept totipotency means that (a) Every living plant cell should be able to regenerate a whole plant (b) Plants can communicate among one another (c) Every plant feels pain (d) Any plant is potent enough to grow in the vicinity of other plants

260. Plants living perched on other plants but not obtaining water or food from them are called (a) Hydrophytes (b) Periphytes (c) Epiphytes (d) Epinastic plants

261. Any specialized plant cell that is dispersed among cells of a different kind is called a (a) Marcophyll (b) Xenophyte (c) Normoblast (d) Idioblast

262. The inner layer of the cell wall surrounding the pollen grains of angiosperms and gymnosperms is known as (a) Integument (b) Intine (c) Exine (d) Involucre

263. Plants grown in total darkness lack chlorophyll and thus appear white or yellow. What is this type of growth known as ? (a) Etiolation (b) Heterotrophic (c) Stuntism (d) Euploid growth

264. The young bryophyte gametophyte that develops following spore germination is known as (a) Protoderm (b) Protostele (c) Protonema (d) Sporangium

265. Which of the following statements is true about bryophytes? (a) The sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte for support, shelter and nutrition (b) The sporophyte is haploid (c) The gametophyte is diploid (d) The gametophyte is dependent on sporophyte for support, shelter and nutrition

266. During certain months of the year, small brown or yellow spots can be seen on the underside or margin of fern leaves. These spots are known as (a) Somites (b) Placenta (c) Gametes (d) Sori

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267. When the spore of a fern plant falls on moist ground, it germinates to form a green filament. It soon grows into a flat, green, heart-shaped sturcture known as (a) Adventitious thallus (b) Gametophyte thallus (c) Sporophyte (d) Prothallus

268. Chilgozas, the common dry fruit eaten in many Indian families, are the seeds of a (a) Tree fern (b) Anigosperm (c) Pine (d) Daisy plant

269. Which stain is used for demonstrating lignin? (a) Aniline blue (b) Leishman’s stain (c) Methylene blue (d) Phloroglucinol

270. In which major group of fungi is the common black bread mould placed? (a) Zygomycetes (b) Ascomycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Sporomycetes

271. In which group are mushrooms, toadstools, puff balls and bracket fungi placed? (a) Sporomycetes (b) Zygomycetes (c) Ascomycetes (d) Basidiomycetes

272. Many fungi display the phenomenon of heterothallism. What exactly is heterothallism? (a) Presence of different types of hyphae acting as male or female (b) Production of different kinds of spores (c) Presence of a net-like mycelium (d) Ability to produce both sexually as well as asexually

273. Many fungi contain in their cell walls a substance which is not present in higher plants. Name it. (a) Chitin (b) Glycogen (c) Latex (d) Ribose sugars

274. Mitosis in many fungi differs in a remarkable way from that observed in plant or animal cells. What is that? (a) Cell develops affinity for a yellow dye, picric acid (b) Cell swells to four times just before division (c) Nuclear envelope may not disappear (d) Cell becomes hydrophobic

275. In what way does a fungus growing around the roots of higher plants benefit them? (a) It produces antimicrobial substances (b) It produces growth-promoting substances


(c) It helps in absorbing water, nitrogen and other minerals (d) All of them

276. Which of the following fungi can reproduce both asexually and sexually? (a) Penicillium notatum (b) Penicillium glaucum (c) Mucor (d) Both (b) & (c)

277. Which of the following fungi is also known as the kerosene fungus? (a) Myriostoma coliformis (b) Amorphotheca resinae (c) Birch bracket (d) Common morel

278. Which insects cultivate fungus in their colonies and allow only the queen, king, and young ones to eat it? (a) Butterflies (b) Termites (c) Bees (d) Beetles

279. He tied off an artery or a vein in a living animal to see on which side of this blockage the pressure within the blood vessel would build up. Thus he discovered circulation. Who was he? (a) Andreas Vesalius (b) Praxagoras of Cos (c) William Harvey (d) Thomas Hunt Morgan

280. In 1952, when still a graduate student, he circulated water, ammonia, methane and hydrogen, pass an electric discharge to simulate the ultraviolet radiation of the sun and got complicated molecules associated with life such as glycine and alanine. This experiment was one of the first great experiments which proved that life indeed could arise from non-living matter. Who was this scientist? (a) Donald Arthur Glaser (b) Murray Gell-Mann (c) Carl Sagan (d) Stanley Lloyd Miller

281. Which famous biologist attenuated the germs of anthrax disease by heating them and inoculated sheep with them, thus making the sheep resistant to anthrax? (a) Lazaro Spallanzani (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Joseph Lister (d) Francesco Redi

282. Charaka is usually known as the father of Indian medicine. However it is not generally known that he also tried to list the names of all animals and plants then known to science. How many animals did he list in his Charaka Samhita ? (a) 1,000 (b) 750 (c) 380 (d) 2,002

283. Which scientist first extracted ‘rennet’ from a calf’s stomach, helping to make cheese more easily? (a) Karl August Folkers (b) Christian Hansen (c) Richard Kuhn (d) George Wald

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284. Who was the first biologist to apply mathematics to a biological problem? (a) Issac Newton (b) William Harvey (c) René Descartes (d) Aristotle

285. Who discovered the red blood corpuscles? (a) Georges Louis Buffon (b) Olof Rudbeck (c) Jan Swammerdam (d) Carolus Linnaeus

286. Who discovered the cell nucleus? (a) Nicolas Le Blanc (b) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek (c) William Sturgeon (d) Robert Brown

287. Which famous biologist showed in the middle of the nineteenth century that beer and butter milk are products of fermentation brought about by yeast? (a) Ignaz Philipp Scmmelweiss (b) Friedrich Henle (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Joseph Lister

288. Which of the following biologists has been dubbed as the ‘architect of molecular biology’? (a) Francis Crick (b) Frederick Sanger (c) Jacques Lucien Monod (d) James Watson

289. Which biologist first noticed that the muscles of disected frog legs twitched wildly when a spark from an electric machine struck them? (a) Georges Cuvier (b) Franz Joseph Gall (c) Kaspar Friedrich Wolf (d) Luigi Galvani

290. In which structure did the Robert Brown see the cell nucleus ? (a) Cell of the orchid root (b) Pollen grains (c) Red blood cells of humans (d) white blood cells of humans

291. Which of the following scientist is best known for his work on photosynthesis? (a) Peter Debye (b) Erwin Mueller (c) Melvin Calvin (d) Leonardo de Vinci

292. Which famous biologist propounded the ‘germ theory of disease’? (a) Joseph Lister (b) Thomas Syndenham (c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur

293. Any organism that damages the economic and physical well-being of humans is called a (a) Exoparasite (b) Commensal (c) Parasite (d) Pest


294. To which class of pesticides do DDT, BHC, aldrin and endosulphan belong? (a) Carbamates (b) Organophosphates (c) Organochlorines (d) Biopesticides

295. Grafting is the art of joining parts of plants such that they grow as one plant. What is the name given to the part of the graft which gives rise to the upper portion? (a) Bud (b) Stock (c) Scion (d) Meristem

296. Which of the following grains has been given the name ‘pampered corn’? (a) Ragi (b) Jowar (c) Wheat (d) Maize

297. From what kind of tree is turpentine obtained? (a) From grasses only (b) From most trees (c) Most kinds of pine trees (d) From oil wells

298. What is pisciculture? (a) Putting cattle to farm work (b) Activities undertaken to save pandas from extinction (c) Bringing up lions in a zoo (d) Production of fishes

299. Production of useful aquatic plants and animals such as shrimps, prawns, fishes, lobsters, snails and crabs, etc., is known as (a) Aquaculture (b) Hydrophiliculture (c) Hydraulic agriculture (d) Agropisciculture

300. Organisms which can bring about soil nutrient enrichment are known as (a) Sympathetic bacteria (b) Biofertilizers (c) Soil bacteria (d) Proxy fertilizers

301. The proper definition of biotechnology is (a) Use of living organisms and of substances obtained from them in

industry (b) Technology used to improve species of animals (c) Modern technology used in biological laboratories (d) Advanced technology used in biological warfare

302. Which is generally regarded as the first product of ancient biotechnology? (a) Rubber (b) Opium (c) Alcohol (d) Wax

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303. How was cheese produced during ancient times? (a) By boiling the milk along with skin of rabbit (b) By using sap of fig trees (c) By using the stomach of sheep and goats (d) Both (b) and (c)

304. Antibodies made outside the body by hybrid cell cultures are known as (a) Biotechnological antibodies (b) Specific antibodies (c) Hybrid antibodies (d) Monoclonal antibodies

305. Which of the following is an artificial heart? (a) Pen State (b) Bue-cherl system (c) Jarvik 7 (d) All of these

306. Which revolutionary imaging system was devloped by Godfrey Hounsfield and Allan Cormack? (a) Position emission tomography (b) Digital x-ray imaging (c) Computerized axial tomography (d) Digital subtraction angiography

307. Name the condition of the eye which causes round objects to appear as though they were oval? (a) Astigmatism (b) Presbyopia (c) Myopia (d) Retinitis

308. Iron lung is an artificial device to assist respiration in an unconscious patient. Who invented it? (a) Joseph Lister (b) Philip Drinken (c) Spembly Llord (d) Ignaz Philip Semmelweis

309. Who invented electrocardiography (ECG), a device which helps diagnose heart’s ailments? (a) Joseph Erlanger (b) Herbert Spencer Gasser (c) Niels Ryberg Finsen (d) Willem Einthoven

310. Who was the first scientist to record the electrical activity of the brain? (a) Hans Berger (b) Nicola Tesla (c) Charles Guillaume (d) Michael Faraday

311. What per cent of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is converted into biomass? (a) 2% (b) 50% (c) 100% (d) 0.2%


312. What is draught animal power or DAP? (a) Average power of each Indian animal (b) Electricity generated by animals (c) Total calories required to feed all animals in India (d) Total power which can be generated by animals in our country

313. Who wrote the book Micrographia, which contains some of the most beautiful drawings of microscopic observations ever made? (a) Anton Van Leeuwenhock (b) Robert Hooke (c) Sir Christopher Wren (d) Ivan Pavlov

314. All plants, animals and other organisms that make up a distinct natural community in any climatic region is known as the (a) Biome (b) Biounit (c) Biomagnification (d) Biological ecosystem

315. When the large flightless bird Dodo became extinct on the island of Mauritius at the end of 18th Century, a tree also lost its ability to grow. Which was this tree? (a) Raphia palm (b) Baobab tree (c) Tambalacoque tree (d) Double coconut palm

316. Which tree derives its name from a common legent that Judas Iscariot hanged himself on it? (a) Quercus robur (b) Araucaria araucana (c) Curchorus capsularis (d) Cercis siliquastrum

317. The giant redwoods of California are the tallest plants reaching a height of 110 m. But which are the longest plants in the world? (a) Liane (b) Ressurrection plant (c) Sorrel (d) Rattan Palm

318. Which famous biologist ended his life in disappointment when he was proved wrong? (a) William Gilbert (b) Erasmus Bartholin (c) Franscesco Redi (d) Luigi Galvani

319. Which of the following plants was used as a wound dressing as late as World War I? (a) Copper moss (b) Sphagnum (c) Hornworts (d) Red algae

320. Who discovered the parathyroid glands while dissecting a rhinoceros? (a) Sir Richard Owen (b) Galen (c) Andreas Vesalius (d) Anders Olaf Retzius

321. Which plant holds its leaves in a vertical position and aligns its edges north to south? (a) Cedar (b) Cinnamon (c) Clover (d) Compass plant

Biology 179

322. The cork tissue is made up of flattened, thin-walled cells whose walls are permeated by a waxy substance known as (a) Collagen (b) Elastin (c) Suberin (d) Reticulin

323. Which famous biologist was trained as a lawyer, at which work he was so unhappy that he even attempted suicide? (a) Karl Nageli (b) Matthias Jakob Schleiden (c) Theodor Schwann (d) Karl Gegenbaur

324. Where in the human body would you find ilium? (a) Leg (b) In the abdomen (c) Near the hip (d) Chest

325. The connective tissue membrane that surrounds a bone is known as (a) Mesothelium (b) Epithelium (c) Mucosa (d) Periosteum

326. Name the tube which connects the middle ear with the back of the throat (a) Mullerian (b) Wolffian duct (c) Fallopian tube (d) Eustachian tube

327. What is the major substance making up the human body? (a) Water (b) Fats (c) Proteins (d) Carbohydrates

328. What are biochemical reactions in the body known as? (a) Anabolic reactions (b) Metabolic reactions (c) Catabolic reactions (d) Vital reactions

329. Where would you find the metatarsal bones? (a) Chest (b) Skull (c) Hands (d) Foot

330. Compounds released by WBCs, which raise the body’s temperature, are known as (a) Insulin (b) Catecholamines (c) Pyrogens (d) Prostaglandins

331. B-cells and T-cells of the body are involved in (a) Defence mechanism (b) Blood formation (c) New bone formation (d) Suppression of pain

332. Salivary, tear, gastric and intestinal glands are examples of (a) Endocrine glands (b) Exocrine glands (c) Embryonic tissue (d) Simple glands

333. Which of the following changes would you find in the disease polycythemia? (a) Increase in total WBCs (b) Decrease in total RBCs (c) Increase in total RBCs (d) Decrease in total WBCs


334. How much hemoglobin is there in 100 ml blood of an average healthy man? (a) 15g (b) 5g (c) 15mg (d) 50g

335. Tympanic cavity is another name for (a) Middle ear (b) Ear canal (c) Inner ear cavity (d) Cavity of the eyeball

336. The evolutionary history of an organism is known as (a) Phyloontogeny (b) Ontogeny (c) Phylogeny (d) Phyllotaxis

337. Where is the Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany located? (a) Aurangabad (b) Kanpur (c) New Delhi (d) Lucknow

338. Which well-known tree is known in Britain as Wellingtonia? (a) Elm (b) Oak (c) Giant sequoia (d) Poplar

339. Peat is used as a fuel in some countries. Remains of which plant give rise to peat? (a) Moss (b) Ferns (c) Angiosperms (d) Gymnosperms

340. An organism that is haploid throughout its life except as a zygote is known as a (a) Foetus (b) Haplont (c) Diplont (d) Suborganism

341. Indole acetic acid is a (a) Chemical found in the retina of nocturnal animals (b) Pesticide (c) Good fertilizer (d) Naturally occurring auxin

342. Which essential element is found in haemoglobin, porphyrins and cytochromes? (a) Magnesium (b) Manganese (c) Copper (d) Iron

343. Which of the following chemicals is converted in animals to vitamin D by ultraviolet radiation? (a) Erepsin (b) Ergosterol (c) Cholesterol (d) Ascorbic acid

344. What is an enzyme? (a) A form of yeast (b) A substance broken down in metabolism

Biology 181

(c) A chemical compound that helps in metabolism (d) A special chemical found within the nucleus

345. When was the first test tube baby born? (a) 2 January 1981 (b) 25 July 1978 (c) 3 August 1975 (d) 4 February 1982

346. Which of the following doctors made the first test tube baby possible? (a) T.D. Dogra & Dr. Christian Barnard (b) Robert Edwards & Dr. Indira Hinduja (c) Patrick Steptoe & Robert Edward (d) Dr. Indira Hinduja & Dr. T.D. Dogra

347. Who invented the contraceptive pill? (a) Gregory Pincus (b) John Rock (c) Both of them (d) None of them

348. Which was the first contraceptive pill to be marketed? (a) Ovulen (b) Norlestrin (c) Enovid 10 (d) Ovral

349. When was the first Indian test-tube baby born? (a) 18 January 1988 (b) 7 September 1987 (c) 6 August 1986 (d) 31 December 1989

350. When tadpoles undergo metamorphosis into adult frogs, their tails are lost. Which cells organelle is responsible for this? (a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes (c) Golgi complex (d) Nucleus

351. Which common disease is also known as hydrobhobia? (a) Rabies (b) Dengue (c) Typhoid (d) Influenza

352. For growth, Viruses require (a) Minerals (b) Living host (c) Dead host (d) Simple sugars

353. In which of the following are Mitochondria absent? (a) Green algae (b) Angiosperms (c) Fungi (d) Blue-green algae

354. The deficiency of which of the following micronutrients causes the death of the stem and root apices? (a) Manganese (b) Copper (c) Boron (d) Zinc

355. Which of the following plant micronutrients is an activator for a number of enzymes particularly involved in the dehydrogenation and decarboxylation reactions during respiration? (a) Molybdenum (b) Manganese (c) Copper (d) Zinc

356. Critical day length varies from plant to plant and lies between (c) 10 to 14 hours (b) 8 to 12 hours (c) 6 to 100 hours (d) None of these


357. All of the following statements about the role played by water in the growth of plants are true, except (a) It helps in the germination of seeds but does not provide turgidity

to growing cells (b) It participates as a reagent in many reactions (c) It is a solvent in which several substances are dissolved (d) It serves as the medium for transport of inorganic salts

358. Osmosis is a function of which of the following factors? (a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) The number of solute molecules in the solutions on the two sides

of the selectively permeable membrane (d) All of the above

359. Match the following in the context of the plant nutrients Deficiency of Results in

A. Calcium 1. Interveinal chlorosis followed by the formation of anthocyanin pigments and in severe cases leads to necrosis

B. Iron 2. Stunted growth and development of purple anthocyanin pigments

C. Phosphorus 3. Interveinal chlorosis D. Magnesium 4. Chlorosis of the margins of the

young leaves leading to their necrosis

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

360. Which of the following statements in regard to the role played by the micronutrient molybdenum is not true? (a) It plays an important role in the nitrogen metabolism (b) It is a component of several enzymes such as polyphenol oxidase (c) It is a constituent of the enzyme nitrate reductase (d) All the above are true

361. The epidermal, ground and vascular systems of plants are developed, respectively, from (a) Protoderm, ground meristem and procambium (b) Protoderm, procambium and ground meristem (c) Ground meristem, procambium and protoderm (d) Procambium, protoderm and ground meristem

Biology 183

362. Which of the following statements is true? (a) The metaxylem may contain fibres, but does not contain tracheary

elements and parenchyma (b) The fully developed tracheary elements are elongated having

lignified secondary walls and are without protoplasm (c) The vessels of the protoxylem elements are broad, whereas those

of the metaxylem are small (d) All the above statements are true

363. The biotic relationship between insects and plants with reference to pollination is called (a) Parasitism (b) Mutualism (c) Commensalism (d) Saprophytism

364. Which of the following statements in regard to plant growth and development is not true? (a) Increase in protoplasm leads to an irreversible increase in size and

weight (b) The life of a flowering plant begins with the fertilised egg (c) In unicellular organisms growth involves decrease in volume and

number of organelles (d) All cells result from the division of previously existing cells

365. In many plants the tap root becomes swollen and assume various forms. Match the following.

Plant Type of Root A. Carrot 1. Conical B. Mirabilis 2. Fusiform C. Radish 3. Napiform D. Turnip 4. Tuberous (a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

366. The post embryonic stages in the life history of cockroach is known as (c) Larval (b) Grubs (c) Caterpillar (d) Nymphs

367. Which of the following diseases is caused by Plasmodium vivax ? (a) Quartan malaria (b) Malignant tertian malaria (c) Beingn tertian malaria (d) Yellow fever

368. The mouth parts of anopheles are adapted to (a) Biting and chewing type feeding (b) Piercing and sucking type feeding (c) Chewing type feeding (d) Sucking type feeding


369. The ‘Urinary System’ of the human body consists of how many organs? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5

370. The heart beat is initiated and regulated by nodal tissue made of specialised cardiac muscles called (a) Spongy tissue (b) Purkinje tissue (c) Alveolar tissue (d) None of these

371. The chief function of semi-circular canal in the internal ear is to (a) Transmit sound vibrations to auditory nerve (b) Maintain equilibrium of the body (c) Interpret impulses as sound (d) Transmit vibrations of tympanic membrane

372. The first heart sound is produced when (a) Intraventricular pressure decreases (b) Semilunar valve snaps shut (c) Bicuspid and tricuspid close quickly (d) Diastole begins

373. Epiglottis helps in preventing (a) Air from entering the oesophagus (b) Air from entering the larynx (c) Food from entering the larynx (d) Food from entering the oesophagus

374. Which of the following situations will be fatal to the first foetus? (a) Rh negative male marries Rh positive woman (b) Rh positive male marries Rh negative woman (c) Rh positive male marries Rh positive woman (d) Rh negative male marries Rh negative woman

375. The arrangement of ear ossicles in mammalian ear is (a) Malleus, incus, stapes (b) Incus, malleus, stapes (c) Columella, incus, malleus (d) Stapes, malleus, incus

376. The innermost lining which wraps the brain and spinal cord in vertebrates is called (a) Piamater (b) Duramater (c) Arachnoid (d) None of these

377. Trachoma is a disease of the (a) Ear (b) Larynx (c) Brain (d) Eye

Biology 185

378. All of the following organs in the human body are located both on the right and the left sides, except (a) Spleen (b) Kidneys (c) Lungs (d) Eyes

379. Sodium depletion occurs in excessive sweating, and cannot be corrected by drinking water alone. When uncorrected, it may lead to (a) Swelling of ankles and feet (b) Increase of urea in blood (c) Muscle cramps, loss of energy, fatigue and faintness (d) Renal failure

380. In a normal human adult (at resting position), how much blood does the heart pump per minute? (a) 5 litre (b) 3 litre (c) 1 litre (d) 7 litre

381. In certain diseases antibiotics are administered. The object is to (a) Inhibit the growth of bacteria (b) Stimulate the production of antibodies (c) Stimulate production of white blood cells for fighting the disease (d) Produce toxins against bacteria

382. The part of the body directly affected by Beri Beri disease is (a) Respiratory system (b) Epidermal tissue (c) Nervous system (d) Bone tissue

383. Which of the following blood groups of human beings is a universal acceptor ? (a) B (b) A (c) AB (d) O

384. It is customary to trasfuse blood of the same group as that of the patient, and only in emergency to give the blood of the donor whose blood group is (a) B (b) A (c) O (d) AB

385. The kidneys in the human body (a) Excrete waste products and any excess of salts (b) Regulate the concentration of the salts in the blood and of the

reaction(acid-base balance) of the blood (c) Regulate the water balance in the body (d) All of the above

386. Which of the following foods (one ounce of edible raw portion of each) provides the largest number of Kcal. of energy? (a) Margarine (b) Meat (c) Cheese (d) Wheat


387. Which of the following statements is not correct? (a) Amino acids are a product of the digestion of proteins (b) Vegetable fats contain enough vitamin A and D (c) Pepsin is produced in the glands in the lining of the stomach (d) Vitamin C is most plentiful in citrus fruits

388. When there is a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the blood, the rate of breathing (a) Does not change (b) Increases (c) Decreases (d) Increases or decreases depending on the density of blood

389. All the following facts about camels make them adapt to long periods of drought in hot deserts, except (a) The camel’s thick fur insulates its body against high temperatures

thereby reducing water loss (b) Camels can survive a loss of upto 40 per cent of their body water;

for most mammals this limit is 20 per cent (c) Camels do not sweat until the external temperature rises to about

41° C, which is much higher than for most mammals (d) Camels can drink as much as 1/3 of their body weight in ten

minutes, which other mammals cannot

390. Babies should be always kept in a reasonably warm temperature whereas adults can withstand extreme cold. The reason for this is that (a) They sweat more than the adults, lowering their body temperature (b) They have a large volume to surface area ratio which results in

loss of body heat greater than they produce (c) They have a large surface area to volume ratio; hence they lose

much more heat than they produce (d) Their skin is more porous than that of the adults

391. Excretory products of mammals are useful to plants. Which of the following is not a part of such secretions? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Mineral salts (c) Bile pigments (d) Urea

392. The statutory warning “Cigarette smoking is injurious to health” that appears on cigarette packet is based on the finding that (a) Lung and oral cancer are more common among smokers than

non-smokers (b) Smoking and drinking cause mystery diseases (c) Tobacco plant suffers from mosaic virus disease which is

communicated by smoking (d) More smokers suffer from diabetes than non-smokers

Biology 187

393. Which of the following processes does not increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air? (a) Petrol burning (b) Decay of vegetation (c) Breathing (d) Photosynthesis

394. Which of the following processes is unsuitable for softening water possessing temporary hardness? (a) Adding calcium hydroxide (b) Filtration (c) Boiling (d) Distillation

395. A green leaf is partially covered and placed in the light for several days. If it is then boiled and tested for starch with iodine, what will be the result? (a) Starch will be found only in the shaded part of the leaf (b) Starch will be found in the entire leaf (c) Starch will be found only in the part of the leaf exposed to light (d) Starch will not be found in the leaf at all

396. A person, who met with an accident, was partially paralysed and lacked a sense of feeling after treatment. Which part of the nervous system was affected by the accident? (a) The olfactory lobes seemed to have become defective (b) The spinal cord seemed damaged (c) The left cerebral hemisphere was damaged (d) The oculomotor nerve seemed damaged

397. On a cool and wet day a large quantity of dilute urine is passed out by most people. This is because (a) There is reduced loss of water through sweat (b) The body absorbs less water when the temperature is low (c) The body temperature also decreases, resulting in the formation

of more quantity of urine (d) Retentive power of bladder decreases on account of contraction

398. The white blood cells, which play a very important role in protecting the body against disease-producing organisms (a) Are larger in size and have nearly the same number as the red

blood cells (b) Have the same size but are fewer in number than the red blood

cells (c) Are larger in size and fewer in number than the red blood cells (d) Have the same size and the same number as the red blood cells


399. Milk in natural form has a certain amount of sugar. This sugar is called (a) Lactose (b) Fructose (c) Glucose (d) Sucrose

400. ‘Circulation of blood’ in the body was discovered by (a) Jonas Salk (b) Robert Hooke (c) Joseph Lister (d) William Harvey

401. Benzene hexachloride (BHC) is used by farmers for (a) Making up mineral deficiency (b) Killing harmful insects (c) Removing salinity of the soil (d) Making the soil rich in nitrogen

402. On a hot day if you are sweating, you will feel cooler than on a cooler moist day. This is because (a) The evaporation of sweat on a cooler moist day raises the body

temperature (b) On a cooler moist day you lose less of energy (c) There is loss of energy when you sweat (d) The evaporation of sweat on a hot day causes more cooling

403. The following are stages in the cell division in plants 1. Anaphase 2. Prophase 3. Telophase 4. Metaphase What is their correct sequence? (a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

404. The pulvinus in ‘Touch-me-not plant’ plays an important role in (a) Photosynthesis (b) Leaf fall (c) Leaf movement (d) Transpiration

405. DPT vaccine acts against (a) Diphtheria, Wooping cough, Tetanus (b) Diarrhoea, Polio, Tetanus (c) Diphtheria, Polio, Tetanus (d) Diarrhoea, Whooping cough, Tetanus

406. The position of earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the sun causing northern summer is (a) Perigee (b) Perihelion (c) Aphelion (d) Apogee

407. The tissue is defined as a group of (a) Cells which are dissimilar in origin, but are similar in form and

function (b) Cells which are similar in origin, but dissimilar in form and function

Biology 189

(c) Cells which are dissimilar in origin, form and function (d) Cells which are similar in origin, form and function

408. Which one of the following is not a bone of the human leg? (a) Fibula (b) Femur (c) Humerus (d) Tibia

409. Consider the four entries below: I Right auricle II Left auricle III Right ventricle IV Left ventricle

The above are the four chambers of human heart in which the blood returned to the heart by great veins flows in a sequential order. What is the correct sequentional order? (a) II, IV, I, III (b) I, III, II, IV (c) I, II, III, IV (d) II, III, I, IV

410. An organism possessing a chromosomal complement different from the diploid one such as 2n – 1 or 2n + 1 is called (a) Allopolyploid (b) Aneuploids (c) Amphidiploid (d) Autopolyploid

411. Which among the following amino-acids is not essentially required for health? (a) Cystenine (b) Leucine (c) Phenylalanine (d) Tyrosin

412. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because (a) There are 64 amino acids to be coded (b) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acids (c) There are 64 types of t-RNAs found in the cell (d) Genetic code is triplet

413. Mendel’s experiments on dihybrid cross was based on (a) Yellow cotyledon, round seed × green cotyledon, wrinkled seed (b) Tall plant, red flower × dwarf plant, white flower (c) Green cotyledon, round seed × yellow cotyledon, wrinkled seed (d) Tall plant, yellow flower × dwarf plant, white flower

414. The blood of a person belongs to group O, if (a) The blood shows agglutination with Antiserum-A (b) The blood does not agglutinate with Antiserum-A or

Antiserum-B (c) The blood shows agglutination with both Antiserum-A and Antiserum-B

(d) The blood shows agglutination with Antiserum-B


415. When father and mother are Rh + and Rh – respectively (a) Only sons can suffer from erythroblastosis fetalis either prior to

birth or just after birth (b) Only daughters can suffer from erythroblastosis fetalis either prior

to birth or just after birth (c) All children born to them are normal (d) First child born may be normal, subsequent may suffer from

erythroblastosis fetalis

416. Huntington’s chorea is a disease (a) Common in Korea (b) Similar to diabetes (c) In which there is progressive degeneration of nervous system

leading to involuntary shaking of head, arms and legs (d) Which affects the kidney

417. In human beings sex is determined (a) At the time of fertilization of ovum (b) During 6th week of foetal life when androgens are produced (c) Before fertilization of ovum (d) During 7th and 8th weeks of foetal life when gonads differentiate

into testis and ovaries

418. “Mother-of-Pearl” is (a) A hard iridescent substance forming the inner layer of certain

shells (b) A special large sized pearl found in Japan (c) An oyster which yields the pearl (d) A title given to Queen Victoria on becoming the Empress of India.

419. Bionics is the study of (a) Artificial limbs and is a field of engineering (b) Human behaviour (c) Living beings (d) Language of animals

420. Amnesia is related to (a) Loss of Teeth (b) Loss of hearing (c) Loss of memory (d) Sleeping sickness

421. Which one of the following equations represents the Aerobic respiration? (a) 6CO

2 + 6H 2 O → C

6 H

12 O

6 + 6O 2

(b) C 6 H

10 O

2 + 6O 2 → 6CO

2 + 5H 2 O + 674 Kcal

(c) C 6 H

12 O

6 + 6O 2 → 6CO

2 + 6H 2 O + 674 Kcal

(d) C 6 H

12 O

6 + 6O 2 → 6H

2 CO

3

Biology 191

422. Kalyan Sona is (a) Hybrid variety of rice and maize (b) Hybrid variety of wheat and rye (c) High yielding variety of wheat (d) High yielding variety of rye

423. Lichens and Mosses are the characteristic vegetation of (a) Tundra region (b) Temperate region (c) Mediterranean region (d) Hot desert region

424. The hormone that increases the rate of heart beat and blood pressure after shock in a person is (a) Throxin (b) Adrenalin (c) Pancreatin (d) Gastrin

425. Detection of Rh factor is an example of (a) Chemical reaction (b) Phagocytic reaction (c) Immunologic reaction (d) Enzymatic reaction

426. Which of the following is not an element of the bone? (a) Carbon (b) Phosphorus (c) Calcium (d) Oxygen

427. Which one of the following commodities has the highest production in India? (a) Tobacco (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Gram

428. The Bacteriophages are (a) Bacteria that attacks plant (b) Virus that attacks insect (c) Virus that attacks bacteria (d) Bacteria that attacks insect

429. “Nitrogen fixation” means (a) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds (b) Nitrogen cycle in nature (c) Manufacture of nitrogen from air (d) Liquification of nitrogen

430. Eugenics is the study of (a) Different races (b) People of European origin (c) Altering human beings by changing the genetic components (d) Genetics of Eurkaryotes

431. Dental caries is due to (a) Hereditary abnormalities (b) Bacterial infection (c) Viral infection (d) Contaminated water


432. Mother’s milk is preferred to cow’s milk because it contains (a) More fats and more lipids (b) Less lipids and more fats (c) More lipids and less fats (d) Less fats and less lipids

433. Cell plate formation during Karyokinesis takes place due to the action of (a) Lysosomes and endoplasmic reticulum (b) Lysosomes and mesosomes (c) Golgi bodies and endoplasmic reticulum (d) Mesosomes and mitochondria

434. The primary objective of green revolution in India was (a) Modernisation of agriculture through science and technology (b) Provision of better seeds at cheaper rates (c) Equitable distribution of agricultural products (d) Abolition of bonded labour

435. Epidermiological triad refers to (a) Host, disease and environment (b) Host, agent and environment (c) Host, agent and disease (d) Agent, disease and environment

436. Deoxyribo-nucleic Acid (DNA) consists of simple sugar, phosphate and four nitrogen bases. Which one of the following groups of nitrogen bases is present in DNA molecule? (a) Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine (b) Adenine, Guanine, Thymine Uracil (c) Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine, Uracil (d) Adenine, Cytosine Thymine, Uracil

437. In angiosperms, the endosperm is a (a) Diploid protective tissue (b) Haploid nutritive tissue (c) Triploid nutritive tissue (d) Tetraploid protective tissue

438. Which of the following human bones is the knee bone? (a) Stapes (b) Clavicle (c) Patella (d) Phalanx

439. Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow because (a) They use other kinds of light for manufacturing their food (b) They like darkness (c) They are incapable of manufacturing their own food by

photosynthesis (d) They manufacture their food without light

Biology 193

440. Passage of air through the respiratory tract during inspiration is (a) Nostril - Nasal cavity - Larynx - Pharynx - Bronchi - Trachea -

Bronchioles - Alveoli (b) Nostril - Nasal cavity - Pharynx - Larynx - Trachea - Bronchi -

Bronchioles - Alveoli (c) Nostril - Nasal cavity - Laryx - Pharynx - Trachea - Bronchi -

Bronchioles - Alveoli (d) Nostril - Nasal cavity - Bronchioles - Bronchi - Larynx - Pharynx

- Trachea - Alveoli

441. Deficieny of vitamin A in man result in: 1. Short Stature 2. Night blindness 3. Colour blindness 4. Xerophthalmia (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

442. Which of the following is the most suitable diet for a person suffering from the disease beri-beri? (a) Citrus fruits, mango, graps (b) Egg yolk, fish oils, fish liver (c) Unpolished rice, green vegetables, yeast (d) Sweet potato, cabbage, fruits

443. Synthesis of gene in the laboratory was done for the first time by (a) Watson and Crick (b) Gregor Mendel (c) Hargobind Khorana (d) Paul Berg

444. Which of the following is not the Mendel’s principle of inheritance? (a) Law of incomplete dominance (b) Law of dominance (c) Law of segregation (d) Law of independent assortment

445. Which one of the following constitutes the two best reasons for distinguishing the living from the non-living? (a) Reproduction and locomotion (b) Respiration and excretion (c) Growth and locomotion (d) Irritability and locomotion

446. Non-vascular plants do not contain (a) Parenchyma cells (b) Xylem vessel (c) Meristematic cells (d) Epidermis

447. The cultivation of rice requires (a) Hot climate and rainfall of about 50 cm (b) High temperature and heavy rainfall (c) Heavy rainfall not exceeding 200 cm (d) Cold climate and rainfall of about 100 cm


448. The cheapest method of protecting food grains from the attack of fungi is (a) Burying in the ground (b) Spraying with insecticide (c) Drying in sunlight (d) Fumigation

449. The mature mammalian red blood cells are incapable of further division because (a) DNA sequences are redundant (b) The nuclei are lobed (c) They lack nuclei (d) The mitotic apparatus is absent

450. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the edible part of banana fruit? 1. Mesocarp 2. Pericarp 3. Endocarp Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

451. Which of the processes is not associate with plant growth and development? (a) Cell enlargement (b) Cell movement (c) Cell division (d) Cell differentiation

452. Which of the following is the main function of antibiotic drugs in human body? (a) Prevention of the growth of bacteria (b) To control the level of oxygen (c) To maintain the blood pressure (d) To control sugar level in blood

453. The expansion of CIMAP is (a) Central Indigenous Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (b) Central Institute of Medicinal and Semi-arid crop Plants (c) Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (d) None of the above

454. Radiobiology (Actinobiology) refers to (a) Effects of radars on living organisms (b) Effects of radio on living organisms (c) Effects of radiations of living organisms (d) Effects of satellites of living organisms

Biology 195

455. ‘Vrikshayurveda’, a classical book, was written by (a) Sushruta (b) Charaka (c) Vagbhata (d) Parasara

456. These are the organisms which are called prokaryotes. (a) Green algae, brown algae and red algae (b) Yeasts and other fungi (c) Mycoplasmas, bacteria, cyanobacteria (d) None of the above groups

457. Certain prokaryotes reproduce by the so-called sexual methods. However, it does not involve (a) Formation of new strains (b) The transfer of genetic material (c) The fusion of gametes (d) All the above

458. Brain fever is caused by (a) Rhino virus (b) HTLV (c) HIV (d) Japanese encephalitis virus

459. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Mostly bacteria are heterotrophic, but some are autotrophic (b) All bacteria are heterotrophic (c) All bacteria are autotrophic (d) All bacteria are photosynthetic

460. In Escherichia coli there is no alternation of generations, because (a) Chromosomes do not fuse (b) It does not have chromosomes (c) There is neither syngamy nor reduction division (d) Its cells do not exchange genetic material with each other

461. Cyanobacteria are commonly called blue-green algae. This is bcause they possess in addition to chlorophylls a blue pigment called (a) Phycoerythrin (b) Cyanophycin (c) Phycocyanin (d) None of these

462. The unique feature of longitudinal division of diatom cells in successive generations is (a) Progressive reduction in the size of daughter cells (b) Formation of daughter cells larger than the parent cell (c) Formation of daughter cells of equal size (d) None of these

463. These are all gymnosperms (a) Psilotum, Pinus, Cycas and Gnetum (b) Nephrolepis, Cycas, Pinus and Gnetum


(c) Cycas, Pinus, Gnetum and Ephedra (d) None of these

464. Alternation of generations in Nephrolepis is (a) Haplobiontic (b) Haplo-diplobiontic (c) Diplo-haplobiontic (d) Diplobiontic

465. The ability of coralloid roots to fix atmospheric nitrogen is due to the presence of (a) Blue-green algae (b) Mycorrhiza (c) Rhizobium (d) None of these

466. Plants like Rhizophora and Avicennia grow on the sea shores under saline conditions. For this, they have special roots for respiration which are called (a) Floating roots (b) Pneumatophores (c) Climbing roots (d) Prop roots

467. A partial (stem or root) parasitic plant is one which (a) Draws food from host only at certain times (b) Takes both water and nutrients from host plant (c) Takes only water from host plant (d) Uses the host just for support

468. A common character found in all plants with underground stem is (a) Vegetative propagation (b) Food stored in the stem (c) A stem covered with scales (d) A stem that grows horizontal to the earth

469. In a homozygous plant self-pollination (a) Is never possible (b) Yields progeny which are highly genetically variable (c) Yields progeny which are not genetically variable (d) Is generally overcome by various adaptations

470. In cleistogamous flowers (a) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy are not possible (b) Only xenogamy is not possible (c) Only geitonogamy is not possible (d) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy are possible

471. In patients suffering from sleeping sickness, the critical symptom which may lead to death appears when the parasite invades (a) Spleen (b) Heart (c) Cerebrospinal fluid (d) Vitreous humor

Biology 197

472. In Paramecium undigested food is eliminated from the body through (a) Cytoproct (b) Contractile vacuoles (c) General body surface (d) Cytostome

473. The scientific name of fruit fly is (a) Drosophila melanogaster (b) Musca domestica (c) Homo sapiens (d) Ropalidia marginata

474. This organism (animal) is considered as a living fossil as well as a link between annelids and arthropods (a) Peripatus (b) Tapeworm (c) Earthworm (d) Pheretima

475. A bird that one may see in the forest, but not in a garden is (a) Hornbill (b) Red-vented bulbul (c) Small green barbet (d) Large pied wagtail

476. These are egg-laying mammals (a) Spiny ant eater and duck-billed platypus (b) Spiny ant eater and opossum (c) Spiny ant eater and scaly ant eater (d) Opossum and kangaroo

477. The blood of cockroach contains no heamoglobin. It means that (a) Oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion (b) Respiration is anaerobic (c) Cockroach does not respire (d) Oxygen goes directly into intracellular capillary system

478. Sucrose upon hydrolysis yields (a) Two molecules of galactose (b) Two molecules of fructose (c) Two molecules of glucose (d) One molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose

479. The four principal organic constituents of protoplasm are (a) Carbohydrates, fats, proteins and amino acids (b) Proteins, carbohydrates, fats and nucleic acids (c) Vitamins, carbohydrates, proteins and amino acids (d) None of the above

480. If the ribosomes of a cell are destroyed then (a) Carbon assimilation will not occur (b) Fats will not be stored (c) Respiration will not take place (d) Proteins will not be synthesized


481. Meiosis is a specialized division of cell which includes (a) Two nuclear divisions with chromosomes dividing thrice (b) Two nuclear divisions with chromosomes dividing once (c) Two nuclear divisions with chromosomes dividing twice (d) Only one nuclear division with chromosomes dividing once

482. To See chromosomes in a living cell, we require (a) Phase-contrast microscope (b) Binocular microscope (c) Light microscope (d) Electron microscope

483. In Melandrium plants, presence of two pairs of autosomes and an allosomal composition of XXY would make them (a) Sterile (b) Females (c) Males (d) Intersexes

484. A SAT-chromosome is one (a) Which has a chromatinic body attached to the secondary constriction (b) Which has only secondary constriction (c) Which has only primary constriction (d) None of these

Direction for Q. 485 – 500 : The following consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other labelled as ‘Reason (R)’. Examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

485. Assertion (A): Sex ratio in India is in favour of males. Reason (R): In females there is a high rate of mortality during maternity.

486. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis and vision are the phenomenon of visible light. Reason (R): The visible light is absorbed by small particles containing chlorophylls as well as the retina of the eye.

487. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis takes place in all green plants. Reason (R): Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.

488. Assertion (A): Red green colour blindness occurs with more frequency in males than in females. Reason (R): Females have two X chromosomes and males have one.

Biology 199

489. Assertion (A): Noise pollution is unwanted accumulation of noise in the atmosphere. Reason (R): It interferes with communications.

490. Assertion (A): Forest cutting is undesirable from the point of view of soil conservation Reason (R): Cutting of forests reduces the interception of rain water.

491. Assertion (A): A person with blood type O is considered as a Universal recipient. Reason (R): Type O blood does not contain any antigens.

492. Assertion (A): Mitochondria is known as powerhouse of cell. Reason (R): Synthesis of ATP occurs in Mitochondria which is stored as chemical energy in cell

493. Assertion (A): Forests play an important role in flood prevention Reason (R): Trees hold the soil together and prevent erosion by rainy water

494. Assertion (A): India is one of the leading fishing countries in the world. Reason (R): India has a long coastline and a large fish-eating population.

495. Assetion (A): Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT) has been strongly recommended for reducing infant mortality Reason (R): Gastrointestinal problems are very common among children especially in the developing countries.

496. Assertion (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and northwest in the Ganga plain. Reason (R): The moisture-bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.

497. Assertion (A): A lock of Einstein’s hair, if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning. Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring.

498. Assertion (A): Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts. Reason (R): They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against encroachment by sea.


499. Assertion (A): Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene. Reason (R): The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.

500. Assertion (A): Areas near the equator receive rainfall throughout the year. Reason (R): High Temperature and high humidity cause conventional rain in most afternoons near the equator.

1. This is destroyed when food is cooked for a long time: (a) Carbohydrates (b) Folic acid (c) Essential fatty acids (d) Protein

2. Intestinal disorders are often caused by the absence of one of the following items in diet: (a) Proteins (b) Fibrous material (c) Fats (d) Vitamins

3. The simplest form of cooking is: (a) Barbecuing (b) Tenderizing (c) Boiling (d) Frying

4. Of the following countries, tell which one has been able to remove malnutrition? (a) Bangladesh (b) China (c) India (d) Indonesia

5. Most of the artificial colouring agents for food are derived from: (a) Lichens (b) Coal tar (c) Fruits (d) Flowers

6. Of the following diseases, tell which one is more common in women than men: (a) Coronary thrombosis (b) Gastritis (c) Rheumatism (d) Rheumatoid Arthritis

7. Of the following contagious diseases, tell which one occurs only during childhood or adolescence: (a) Measles (b) Smallpox (c) Mumps (d) Scarlet fever

8. Of the following diseases, tell which one is concerned with the eye: (a) Haemophilia (b) Syphilis (c) Glaucoma (d) Pleurisy

9. This is caused by the blockage of blood vessel by a blood clot: (a) Arteriosclerosis (b) Thrombosis (c) Heart failure (d) Embolism

10. An antipyretic is taken to: (a) Cure cold (b) Reduce blood pressure (c) Allay fever (d) Cure constipation

EVERYDAY SCIENCE


11. Of the following things, tell which one is the easiest to transplant from one person to another: (a) Blood (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Lung

12. When the kidneys of a person are not working, one of the following treatments is administered: (a) Radiotherapy (b) Blood transfusion to the body (c) Surgical operation on kidney (d) Dialysis

13. It is the vaccine against tuberculosis: (a) Salk vaccine (b) Sabin vaccine (c) Bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine (d) T.A.B. Vaccine

14. What was the original name of zero? (a) Sifr (b) Sunya (c) Zephr (d) Cipher

15. Who said that “God always geometrizes”? (a) Rene Descartes (b) Eudoxus (c) Plato (d) Albert Einstein

16. The zero plays a vital role in the working of one of the following devices: (a) Transistor (b) Computer (c) Abacus (d) Clock

17. What is this known as: 1

1 1 1 2 1

1 3 3 1 1 4 6 4 1

(a) Pascal’s triangle (b) Magic triangle (c) Abracadabra (d) Gauss’s triangle

18. Where is the hottest spring in the world located? (a) Tooral, Maharashtra, India (b) Kulu, Himachal Pradesh, India (c) Yellowstone National Park, USA (d) Lasundra, Gujarat, India

19. Four crops are produced in an amount more than the combined production of other food crops. Which are they? (a) Wheat, maize, potato and rice (b) Barley, oat, rice and rye


(c) Wheat, oat, potato and soyabean (d) Rice, potato, rye and maize

20. Since time immemorial, India is renowned for her cultivation of: (a) Tea (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Cocoa

21. Of the following elements, tell which one is depleted most from the soil after a crop is harvested: (a) Phosphorus (b) Potassium (c) Calcium (d) Zinc

22. Cocoa tree is the source of natural chocolate flavour. Which part of the tree is the source? (a) Stem (b) Leaves (c) Seeds (d) Flower

23. Of the following elements, tell which one is used as a fungicide: (a) Carbon (b) Potassium (c) Sulphur (d) Calcium

24. Who was the chemist to show the insecticidal properties of DDT? (a) Stanislao Cannizzaro (b) Otto Frankel (c) Paul Müller (d) Alexander Todd

25. What is the type of agriculture practised for cultivation on mountains and hills? (a) Intensive cultivation (b) Terrace cultivation (c) Shifting cultivation (d) None

26. Who said that ‘Man is a tool-making animal’? (a) T.H. Huxley (b) Benjamin Franklin (c) Alexander Bell (d) Theophrastus

27. What does ‘Homo sapiens’ stands for? (a) Human group (b) Human being (c) Wise man (d) Tool-maker

28. What is the term that signifies the shape of the earth? (a) Oblate Spheroid (b) Spheroid (c) Sphere (d) Geoid

29. Of the following places, which has an isthmus – a narrow strip of land joining two continents? (a) Bermuda (b) Suez canal (c) Palk strait (d) Bering strait

30. Of the following items, tell which one is used for calculating dates of events, etc. (a) Water (b) Tools (c) Tree-rings (d) None


31. Of the following elementary particles of matter, tell which one acts like a ‘trigger’ for the generation of nuclear energy: (a) Neutron (b) Proton (c) Meson (d) Hepton

32. Of the following fuels, tell which one is likely to be employed on a large scale in the near future: (a) Methane (b) Petrol (c) Wood (d) Hydrogen

33. Of the following rays coming from the sun, tell which one could be converted into electric energy for household needs: (a) Ultraviolet rays (b) X-rays (c) Infrared rays (d) Gamma rays

34. Of the following fuels, tell which one creates the maximum amount of pollution, seen or unseen: (a) Coal (b) Petrol (c) Nuclear fuel (d) Wood

35. Of the following fuels, tell which one is used to drive rockets: (a) Liquid hydrogen (b) Uranium (c) Coal (d) Methanol

36. Where is the ‘Silicon Valley’ situated? (a) Canterbury, UK (b) Los Angeles, USA (c) Higashi-Ku, Japan (d) Palo Alto, USA

37. A computer is called ‘user friendly’ when it: (a) Needs a friend to use it (b) Is used by your friend (c) Is presented to you by your friend (d) Functions like a friend

38. A dedicated computer is one: (a) Which is very fast computer (b) Which is dedicated to its creator (c) Which is dedicated to perform one type of task or tasks (d) Which performs functions with dedication

39. What is known as the ‘brain’ of a computer? (a) Input unit (b) Arithmetic unit (c) Control unit (d) Central processing unit

40. Which is the latest material used for manufacturing a computer chip? (a) Gallium Silicate (b) Gallium Arsenide (c) Silicon (d) Carbon


41. Of the following things, a computer cannot be used for: (a) Analysing a situation (b) Breaking coded messages (c) Abstract thought (d) Writing poetry

42. Of the following micro-organisms, tell which one is widely used in genetic engineering experiments: (a) Rhizobium (b) Bacillus subtilis (c) Pseudomonas (d) Escherichia coli

43. Of the following material, tell which one is genetically modified or altered for various needs: (a) Both DNA & RNA (b) RNA (c) DNA (d) None

44. Of the following gases, tell which one plays a decisive role in affecting the climate of earth: (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen

45. Of the following living organisms, tell one which is most affected by acid rains: (a) Birds (b) Fish (c) Mammals (d) Bacteria

46. Of the following ecosystems, tell which one is the oldest of all: (a) Mangroves (b) Tropical rain forests (c) Coral reefs (d) Estuaries

47. India has three types of biomes of the following four. Tell which is the odd one out: (a) Temperate (b) Savanna (c) Tropical rain forest (d) Scrub

48. A diode is used for: (a) Changing a positive charge into a negative one (b) Electrolysis (c) Converting A.C. to D.C. (d) Generating electricity

49. The main component of a TV is a: (a) Antenna (b) Cathode ray tube (c) Valve (d) Screen

50. The diaphragm of the microphone of a telephone is made of (a) Carbon (b) Lead (c) Silicon (d) Mica

51. A transistor is a: (a) Chip (b) Valve (c) Semiconductor (d) None


52. Of the following space vehicles, tell which one fell on earth like a meteor: (a) Challenger (b) Spacelab (c) Skylab (d) Satellite Launch Vehicle

53. Of the following space shuttles, tell which one first went into space: (a) Columbia (b) Atlantis (c) Challenger (d) Enterprise

54. What is the highest record of staying in space? (a) 378 days (b) 237 days (c) 211 days (d) 114 days

55. What is known as ‘energy molecule’ in the living world? (a) TNT (b) ADP (c) ATP (d) RNA

56. Of the following vitamins, tell which one contains a metal component: (a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin B

12

57. Litmus is extracted from: (a) Lichen (b) Herb (c) Shrub (d) Rock

58. Tears contain the following enzyme that kills bacteria: (a) Amylase (b) Urease (c) None (d) Lysozyme

59. Which is the protein present in human blood? (a) Myosin (b) Insulin (c) Hemoglobin (d) Trypsin

60. When milk turns sour, this is produced for sure: (a) Citric acid (b) Lactic acid (c) Casein (d) Rennin

61. Of the following chemicals, tell which one is used as a substitute for sugar: (a) Insulin (b) Saccharin (c) Vanila (d) Casein

62. Robots are likely to be used in industries on a large scale for one of the following applications: (a) Giving a helping hand to workers (b) Moving products from factory to store (c) Keeping an eye on the workers (d) Welding

63. Where was the first atom bomb tested? (a) Ural mountains (b) Los Alamos (c) Bikini islands (d) Alamogordo


64. Who wrote the classic science fiction 2001: A Space Odyssey? (a) Stanley Kubrick (b) Arthur C. Clarke (c) Ray Bradbury (d) Douglas Adams

65. Which Indian scientist is a science fiction writer as well? (a) E.C.G. Sudarshan (b) J.V. Narlikar (c) C.N.R. Rao (d) None

66. Which inert element is used in air balloons? (a) Helium (b) Hydrogen (c) Hot air (d) Fluorine

67. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust is: (a) Hydrogen (b) Silicon (c) Oxygen (d) Iron

68. Food has to be stored and transported after it is picked from fields and orchards. A lot of money is spent by the food processing industry for preserving fruit and food stuffs. Which of the following is used in preserving fruit and foodstuffs? (a) Oxygen (b) Nitric oxide (c) Nitrites (d) Sulphite solution

69. Hair, fingernails and hoofs are all made of: (a) Vitamins (b) Iron (c) Fat (d) Proteins

70. Temporary hardness in water can be removed by boiling it. This type of hardness is due to the presence of calcium or magnesium: (a) Bicarbonates (b) Carbonates (c) Sulphates (d) Chlorides

71. Some herbs and plants that were used in olden times for making drugs are used even today for science purpose, which of the following is the wrong one? (a) Marigold (b) Foxglove (c) Belladona (d) The plant of castor oil

72. Which of the following is matter that contains only two chemical elements ? (a) Coffee (b) Water (c) Tea (d) Sugar

73. Which of the following does not contain carbohydrates? (a) Wax (b) Cellulose (c) Wheat flour (d) Starch


74. Biodegradable materials are those which: (a) Can be broken down by bacteria (b) Are toxic (c) Spoil the biological environment (d) Are used for converting waste or garbage into greenery

75. Alcohol for industry is being made from a variety of plant sources. Which of the following is not relevant as a source of ethyl alcohol? (a) Cane sugar (b) Potatoes (c) Beetroot (d) Peas

76. A lot of effort is being made to try and preserve food articles. Which of the following is used as a preservative for food? (a) Salicylic acid (b) Sodium benzoate (c) Alum (d) Ferric chloride

77. Calcium carbonate occurs widely in nature in a variety of forms. Which of the following is not a form of calcium carbonate? (a) Marble (b) Granite (c) Chalk (d) Limestone

78. The pressure of air in a motor tyre is due to: (a) Sticking of air particles on the tyre (b) The solid state of compressed air (c) Air particles hitting the tyre from inside (d) Displacement of vacuum from the tyre

79. Proteins are polymers (long chains) of amino acids. Which of the following polymers is not a protein? (a) Finger-nails (b) Wool (c) Hair (d) DNA

80. In modern surgery, metal pins are used for holding together broken bones. The pin that remains uncorroded in the body throughout the life of the patient is made of: (a) Titanium (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Lithium

81. Iron, a biological nutrient, is found in the human body in: (a) The thick bones (b) Haemoglobin of blood (c) The protein of hair (d) The hormone adrenaline

82. If a person is injured by the shot of a gun and all the pellets are not removed, it may cause poisoning by: (a) Lead (b) Copper (c) Mercury (d) Iron


83. It is said that eating many seeds of apples can cause poisoning in human beings because these seeds contain some amount of: (a) Chloride (b) Cyanide (c) Sulphur (d) Maleic acid

84. Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly? (a) Cultivation of high yielding varieties (b) Shifting cultivation (c) Organic farming (d) Growing plants in glass-houses

85. A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a monkey sitting on the branch of a tree. Just as he fires, the monkey jumps down. The bullet will (a) Hit the monkey above the point aimed (b) Hit the monkey below the point aimed (c) Hit the monkey at the point aimed. (d) Miss the monkey altogether

86. When ants bite, they inject (a) Formic acid (b) Methanol (c) Glacial acetic acid (d) Stearic acid

87. Which one of the following types of coal contains a higher percentage of carbon than the rest? (a) Peat (b) Lignite (c) Bituminous coal (d) Anthracite

88. Consider the following statements: Glass can be etched or scratched by 1. Diamond 2. Hydrofluoric acid 3. Aquaregia 4. Conc. sulphuric acid Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

89. Which is considered to be the most respected and the oldest science journal in the world? (a) Science and Culture (b) Nature (c) Science (d) Current Science

90. Of the following space shuttles, tell which one, blew up in space: (a) Challenger (b) Columbia (c) Enterprise (d) None

91. In eye donation, which one of the following parts of donor’s eye is utilized? (a) Cornea (b) Lens (c) Iris (d) Retina


92. Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as a source of (a) Biofertilizer, biopesticide and antifertility compound (b) Antifertility compound, biofertilizer and anti-cancer drug (c) Biopesticide and antifertility compound (d) Anti-cancer drug, biopesticide and biofertilizer

93. Match List I (Drugs/Chemicals) with List II (Their uses) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II A. Atropine 1. Local anaesthesia B. Ether 2. Heart trouble C. Nitroglycerine 3. Dilation of pupil D. Pyrethrin 4. Mosquito control

A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 2 4

94. Match List I (Quantity) with List II (Units) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II A. High speed 1. Mach B. Wavelength 2. Angstrom C. Pressure 3. Pascal D. Energy 4. Joule

A B C D (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3

95. Which one of the following genetic diseases is sex-linked? (a) Cystic fibrosis (b) Tay-Sachs disease (c) Royal haemophilia (d) Hypertension

96. For which one of the following capillarity is not the only reasons ? (a) Spread of water drop on a cotton cloth (b) Rising of underground water (c) Blotting of ink (d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage


1 2

3 4

5 6

97. Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of (a) Polished rice (b) Mustard oil (c) Kesari dal (d) Mushrooms

98. The water pollution in rivers is measured by the dissolved amount of (a) Nitrogen (b) Ozone (c) Chlorine (d) Oxygen

99. Which of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors? (a) Zirconium (b) Nickel (c) Cobalt (d) Tungsten

100. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids: 1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun. 2. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large

as 1000 km. 3. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn. Of these statements (a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

101. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by (a) El Nino effect (b) Depletion of ozone layer (c) Greenhouse effect (d) None of the above

102. Match the following research institutes. A, B, C and D with their respective location labelled and 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map: A. Central Drug Research Institute B. National Atlas and Thermatic Mapping

Organisation C. National Institute of Ocean Centre D. Temperate Forest Research Centre

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 5 (b) 4 5 1 6 (c) 4 2 2 6 (d) 1 6 2 3

103. A fuse is used in mains electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct? (a) It must have a low melting point (b) It is made mainly from silver alloys


(c) It is connected in parallel with the main switch (d) It must have a very high resistance

104. Where was the first test-tube baby in India born? (a) Bombay (b) Pondicherry (c) Calcutta (d) Chandigarh

105. Who started ‘Chipko’ movement in Uttar Pradesh to save forests from timber contractors? (a) Sundarlal Bahuguna (b) Bunker Roy (c) Chandiprasad Bhatt (d) Kamala Choudhary

106. The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is: (a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, lonosphere (b) Stratosphere, Troposhere, lonosphere, Mesosphere (c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, lonosphere, Mesosphere (d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, lonosphere

107. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains (a) Essential vitamins (b) Saturated fatty acids (c) Polyunsaturated fatty acids (d) More carbohydrates and proteins.


List-I List-II (Disease) (Organism)

A. Malaria 1. Fungi B. Poliomyelitis 2. Bacteria C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus D. Ringworm 4. Protozoa

A B C D (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1

109. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to: (a) Decrease in WBC (b) Rheumatic heart disease (c) Decrease in haemoglobin level (d) Non-clotting of blood


110. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Special Characteristic) (Name of Planet) A. Smallest planet of the solar 1. Mercury

system B. Largest planet of the solar 2. Venus

system C. Planet second from the Sun 3. Jupiter

in the solar system D. Planet nearest to the Sun 4. Pluto

5. Saturn A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 5 1 2 (c) 2 3 5 1 (d) 4 3 2 1

111. Which one of the following types of micro-organisms is most widely used in industries? (a) Bacteria and algae (b) Bacteria and fungi (c) Bacteria (d) Bacteria, microalgae and fungi

112. A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird? (a) Condor (b) Dodo (c) Dove (d) Skua

113. The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called (a) Glycolysis (b) Anaerobic respiration (c) Aerobic respiration (d) Hydrolysis

114. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones is (a) Calcium oxalate (b) Calcium cabonate (c) Uric acid (d) Calcium sulphate


List-I List-II (Agricultural Product) (Foremost producer)

A. Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Gram 2. Gujarat C. Black pepper 3. West Bengal D. Pineapple 4. Kerala


A B C D (a) 1 2 4 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4

116. ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are (a) Environment friendly (b) Rich in proteins (c) Pure and unadulterated (d) Economically viable

117. Which one of the following techniques can be used to establish the paternity of a child? (a) Quantitative analysis of DNA (b) Chromosome counting (c) Protein analysis (d) DNA finger-printing

118. Which one of the following stars is nearest to the earth? (a) Sun (b) Alpha Centauri (c) Polaris (d) Sirius

119. Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the presence of life on Mars? (a) Atmospheric composition (b) Thermal conditions (c) Occurrence of ice caps and frozen water (d) Occurrence of ozone

120. The following are the major oilseeds produced in India: 1. Sesamum 2. Mustard 3. Groundnut 4. Soyabean Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the descending order of the quantity of their production? (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1

121. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of fuel wood in the world? (a) India (b) Russia (c) Indonesia (d) China

122. Antigen is a substance which (a) Triggers the immune system (b) Destroys harmful bacteria (c) Lowers body temperature (d) Is used as an antidote to poison


123. Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of per cent by mass in the earth’s crust? (a) Carbon (b) Oxygen (c) Silicon (d) Calcium

124. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to (a) Density (b) Viscosity (c) Surface tension (d) Vapour pressure

125. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through 1. Blood 2. Lungs 3. Tissue The correct sequence of transportation is (a) 2, 1, 3 (b) 3, 1, 2 (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 3, 2

126. Which one of the following is an active component of oil of clove? (a) Methanol (b) Eugenol (c) Menthol (d) Benzaldehyde

127. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War? (a) Mustard gas (b) Hydrogen cyanide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Water gas

128. Alpha-keratin is a protein present in (a) Wool (b) Skin (c) Blood (d) Eggs

129. Which one of the following has the highest fuel value? (a) Natural gas (b) Charcoal (c) Hydrogen (d) Gasoline

130. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (a) Sandalwood : Kerala (b) Deodar : Madhya Pradesh (c) Teak : Jammu and Kashmir (d) Sudari : West Bengal

131. The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called (a) Meterorites (b) Comets (c) Meteors (d) Asteroids

132. Which one of the following is used as an anti-freeze for the automobile engines? (a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Propyl alcohol (d) Ethylene glycol


133. Which one of the following is a modified stem? (a) Coconut (b) Sweet potato (c) Carrot (d) Potato

134. People drinking water from a shallow handpump are likely to suffer from all of the following diseases except (a) Jaundice (b) Typhoid (c) Cholera (d) Fluorosis

135. Consider the following statements: AIDS is transmitted 1. By sexual intercourse 2. By blood transfusion 3. By mosquitoes and other blood-sucking insects 4. Across the placenta Of these statements (a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

136. The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness etc. is (a) Benzyl alcohol (b) Amyl alcohol (c) Ethyl alcohol (d) Methyl alcohol

137. Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a good cultivation of wheat? (a) High temperature and moderate rainfall (b) High temperature and heavy rainfall (c) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall (d) Low temperature and low rainfall

138. Of the four landmarks in medical history given below, which one was the first to take place? (a) Test tube baby (b) Bypass surgery (c) Organ transplant (d) Plastic surgery

139. The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top priority for remedial action in India today is (a) Xerophthalmia (b) Rickets (c) Scurvy (d) Pellagra

140. Who among the following is known for his work on medicine during the Gupta period? (a) Shaunaka (b) Sudraka (c) Saumilla (d) Susrutha

141. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (a) Sugarcane (b) Tea (c) Jute (d) Cotton


142. Consider the following statements: At the present level of technology available in India, solar energy can be conveniently used to 1. Supply hot water to residential buildings. 2. Supply water for minor irrigation projects. 3. Provide street lighting 4. Electrify a cluster of villages and small towns. Of these statements, (a) 1 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

143. A simple machine helps a person in doing (a) The same amount of work slowly (b) The same amount of work with lesser force (c) Less work (d) The same amount of work much faster

144. Biologists have so far known, found and identified a large number of species in the plant and animal kingdoms. In terms of numbers, the largest found and identified so far is from among the (a) Insects (b) Plants (c) Fungi (d) Bacteria

145. Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of nutritional value found in milk include (a) Potassium and iron (b) Calcium and potassium (c) Calcium, potassium and iron (d) Calcium and iron

146. “It begins as a single cell and grows into a merciless disease that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily unlocking its mysteries, and the fight against it may now have reached a dramatic turning point. New discoveries promise better therapies and hope in the war against......” The disease referred to in the above quotation is (a) Tuberculosis (b) AIDS (c) Cancer (d) Alzheimer’s disease

147. ‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is (a) Uranium oxide (b) A crude form of cocaine (c) A crude form of heroin (d) Unrefined gold

148. Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit the planet (a) Jupiter (b) Mars (c) Pluto (d) Saturn


149. The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that (a) The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled (b) The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled (c) No chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor while in the

atomic bomb there is a chain reaction (d) No chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb while it takes place

in nuclear reactor

150. Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution? (a) Hydrogen (b) Coal (c) Diesel (d) Kerosene

151. A meteor is (a) Part of a constellation (b) A piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from

outer space (c) A rapidly moving star (d) A comet without a tail

152. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the (a) Lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood (b) Lack of antibodies in his blood (c) Lack of antigen in his blood (d) Presence of antibodies in his blood

153. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not? (a) Scintillation counter (b) Lead plate (c) Microscope (d) Spectrophotometer

154. Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease (a) Leaf rust (b) Leaf spot (c) Leaf blight (d) Rot

155. Which one of the following is a mixed fertiliser? (a) Ammonium Sulphate (b) CAM (c) Urea (d) NPK

156. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge landmass called (a) Indiana (b) Aryavarta (c) Jurassic landmass (d) Gondwana continent

157. When the same note is played on a sitar and a flute, the sound produced can be distinguished from each other because of the difference in (a) Quality only (b) Pitch and loudness


(c) Pitch, loudness and quality (d) Loudness only

158. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins? 1. Carbon 2. Hydrogen 3. Oxygen 4. Nitrogen Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

159. Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet- proof material? (a) Polyethylene (b) Polyamides (c) Polyvinyl chloride (d) Polycarbonates

160. The pitch of the voice of women is in general (a) Much lower than that of men (b) Marginally lower than that of men (c) Higher than that of men (d) The same as that of men

161. ‘The length of its day and the tilt of its axis are almost identical to those of the earth.’ This is true of (a) Saturn (b) Nepture (c) Uranus (d) Mars

162. If father has blood group A and mother has blood group O, then which one of the following blood groups may be found in their son? (a) O (b) AB (c) B (d) B, AB or O

163. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’ (a) Fertilisation takes place outside the mother’s body (b) Development of the baby takes place inside the test-tube (c) Fertilisation takes place inside the test-tube (d) Unfertilised egg develops inside the test-tube

164. Which one of the following is the correct sequential order in which these appeared under stimulated primitive earth condition? (a) Aminoacids, nitriles, Hydrogen cyanide, methane (b) Hydrogen cyanide, methane, nitriles, aminoacids (c) Methane, Hydrogen cyanide, nitriles, aminoacids (d) Nitriles, aminoacids, methane, Hydrogen cyanide

165. Which one of the following crops enriches the nitrogen content in soil? (a) Sunflower (b) Sorghum (c) Potato (d) Pea


166. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is (a) Black Bengal (b) Jamnapari (c) Barbari (d) Beetal

167. If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually (a) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants (b) Prevent precipitation (c) Stop water cycle (d) Make nitrate unavailable to water plants

168. Galvanised iron sheets are protected from rusting due to the presence of a layer of (a) Zinc (b) Chromium (c) Lead (d) Tin

169. Haemoglobin is dissolved in the plasma of (a) Man (b) Fish (c) Frog (d) Earthworm

170. The time taken by the sun to revolve around the centre of our galaxy is (a) 250 million years (b) 100 million years (c) 25 million years (d) 500 million years

171. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts because (a) It has a high specific heat (b) It has a high dipole moment (c) It has a high boiling point (d) It has no colour

172. The heart of human embryo starts beating (a) In the fourth week of its development (b) In the third week of its development (c) In the first week of its development (d) In the sixth week of its development

173. Which one of the following animals stores water in the intestine? (a) Zebra (b) Camel (c) Moloch (d) Uromastix

174. The only anthropoid ape to be found in India is the (a) Slow loris of Assam (b) Liontailed macaque of Western Ghats (c) Hanuman monkey (d) Whitebrowed gibbon of Assam

175. If safe storage is to be ensured, the moisture content of food grains at the time of harvesting should not be higher than (a) 18% (b) 16% (c) 14% (d) 20%


176. Acid precipitation is now regarded as a serious problem in some European and Asian countries. Its major cause or source is (a) Natural carbon dioxide released during respiration of living

organisms dissolves in water, forming carbonic acid which is the chief contributor to acidity in rain water

(b) Emissions of sulphur oxides and nitrogen oxides from thermal power plants and burning of fossil fuels; these oxides dissolve in atmospheric water vapour and fall back on earth as acid rain

(c) Discharge of acidic effluents onto neutral or slightly alkaline land where the acidic components precipitate

(d) Chlorofluoro-carbons readily react with various chemicals near the earth’s surface, producing acidic intermediates which cause acid precipitation

177. Which one of the following is not an astronomical object? (a) Black hole (b) Brittle Star (c) Pulsar (d) Quasar


List-I List-II

(Characteristic) (Animal) A. Wingless insect 1. Kiwi B. Flightless bird 2. Silver fish C. Limbless reptile 3. Turtle D. Lungless animal 4. Snake

5. Fish A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 5 (c) 1 3 2 5 (d) 3 1 4 2

179. Three communicable diseases prevalent in developing countries caused by unsafe drinking water and bad sanitation are (a) Onchocerciasis, leukaemia and arthritis (b) Malaria, acute diarrhoea and schistosomiasis (c) Acute diarrhoea, cancer and gout (d) Rheumatism, malaria and AIDS

180. Which one of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens in wood, bones and shells?

(a) Carbon-14 (b) Argon isotope (c) Uranium-238 (d) Strontium-90


181. Though a few (gas-based) industries have been established, good reserves of natural gas in India remain unutilised. This vast resource of natural gas can be used in the production of (a) Graphite (b) Carbide (c) Fertilisers (d) Synthetic petroleum

182. The blood pressure values of four persons are given below: 1. Mrs. X 90/60 2. Mr. X 160/120 3. Mr. Y 120/80 4. Mrs. Y 140/100 Who among the following has normal blood pressure? (a) Mrs. Y (b) Mr.X (c) Mrs. X (d) Mr. Y

183. Which one of the following is a “man made” cereal not found in nature? (a) Triticale (b) Hybrid maize (c) Dwarf wheat (d) Soyabean

184. At what temperature are the readings of a Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometer the same? (a) 40 (b) 212 (c) – 40 (d) 100

185. The Lifeline Express is (a) A de-addiction programme to save drug addicts (b) An instrument used for watching the fluctuations in the blood

pressure of a patient under general anaesthesia (c) The world’s first hospital on rails operating in India (d) A popular health magazine founded by Ramnath Goenka

186. Vinegar is an aqueous solution of (a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid (c) Oxalic acid (d) Hydrochloric acid

187. When there is depletion of ozone in the stratosphere the wavelength of radiation striking the earth’s surface will be (a) 10 –2 m (b) 10 –7 m (c) 10 –10 m (d) 100 m

188. The Solar eclipse achieves totality only in limited geographical regions because (a) The trajectories of the Earth around the Sun and the Moon around

the Earth are not perfect circles (b) The Earth is not a smooth flat surface, but has elevations and

depressions


(c) The size of the shadow of the Moon on the Earth is small compared to the cross section of the Earth

(d) Sun rays can reach most of the peripheral regions of the shadow of the Moon due to atmospheric refraction

189. In many developing countries, three major causes of death and disease are (a) Polluted air, greenhouse effect and soil erosion (b) Contaminated food, g lobal warming and industrial

chlorofluorocarbons (c) Lack of safe drinking water, increasing use of pesticides and

thinning of the ozone layer (d) Dirty water, contaminated food and polluted air

190. Consider a specific point on the surface of the earth (say, the city of Delhi). The temperature at a given time of day (say, 12.00 noon) will in general be higher in summer than in winter. This is because (a) Evaporation of water from atmospheric precipitation occurring in

winter alone (b) Sun-rays falling on the earth are inclined more towards the surface

of the earth in winter (c) The earth is closer to the sun in summer than in winter (d) The axis of the earth is inclined more towards the sun in winter

191. If a mouse of over eight times its normal size has been produced by introducing human growth hormone gene, the technique involved is called (a) Mutation Breeding (b) Genetic engineering (c) Hybridisation (d) Hormonal feeding

192. The Government of India has totally banned the export of “Burnt coal” (Jhama) because it contains recoverable amount of a metal/element used in transistors. Which one of the following is that element? (a) Silicon (b) Germanium (c) Phosphorus (d) Tungsten

193. Camel uses its hump for (a) Balancing the body during walking in desert sand (b) Storing fat (c) Storing water (d) Temperature regulation

194. Biofilms are (a) Accumulations of micro-organisms at surfaces such as those of a

rock, a tooth or an oil droplet (b) Photomicrographs of micro-organisms from various habitats (c) Colour films used by biologists to photograph living organisms


(d) Photographic films made through fermentation processes of certain industrial micro-organisms

195. Which one of the following provides the best estimate of the world’s biological diversity? (a) Of about fourtyfive million living species, some 100 are lost

everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 1.5 million have been actually identified

(b) Of about thirty million living species, some 50 are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified

(c) Of about ten million species probably alive today, some 20 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists

(d) Of about seventyfive million living species, some 500 are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified

196. Who among the following is NOT associated with medicine in ancient India? (a) Charak (b) Bhaskaracharya (c) Dhanvantri (d) Susruta

197. The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruits is (a) Hydrogen (b) Ethane (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Acetylene (ethyne)

198. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate compound in which central metal is (a) Calcium (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (d) Iron

199. Two richest known sources of edible protein are (a) Soyabean and groundnut (b) Some algae and other micro organisms (c) Meat and eggs (d) Milk and leafy vegetables

200. A wooden block is floating in water. If 4/5 of its volume is immersed in water and volume of the water displaced is 800 ml, the volume of the block is (a) 800 ml (b) 200 ml (c) 1140 ml (d) 1000 ml

201. Which one of the following chemicals is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere? (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Chlorofluorocarbons (d) Carbon dioxide


202. Which one of the following diseases is caused due to defective genes? (a) Diabetes (b) Haemophilia (c) Ulcer (d) Cancer

203. Copper and silver jewellery tarnish in the presence of moisture and: (a) Sulphur compounds (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

204. Which of the following elements is used as an antiseptic? (a) Chlorine (b) Iodine (c) Bromine (d) Neon

205. Which one of the following is an element? (a) Emerald (b) Sapphire (c) Ruby (d) Diamond

206. Water cycle refers to (a) Scientific management of water in areas excessively plagued with

water logging (b) Constant movement of water from ocean to land and back to

ocean again (c) An integrated attempt to recycle water in relatively arid regions (d) Planning of water distribution in relatively dry areas

207. Who first made an estimate of the distance between the earth and the sun? (a) Johannes Kepler (b) Aristarchus (b) Pythagoras (d) Edmond Halley

208. The best quality of hard wood for the manufacture of furniture is obtained from (a) Dalbergia sissio (b) Pinus longifolia (c) Cedrus deodara (d) Mangifera indica

209. The thermoregulatory centre of the human body is (a) Hypothalamus (b) Skin (c) Pituitary (d) Thyroid

210. The light from the Sun reaches the Earth in about (a) 6 min (b) 4 min (c) 2 min (d) 8 min

211. Which one of the following is associated with AIDS? (a) IVF (b) HIV (c) GIFT (d) MAC

212. Seasons on the Earth are caused due to (a) Inclination of the Earth on its axis of rotation (b) Alteration/change in the speed of revolution of the earth (c) The elliptical orbit of the Earth (d) Differences in the amount of energy received from the Sun


213. Which one of the following techniques has helped to solve many mysteries involving murders, robberies and rapes? (a) DNA fingerprinting (b) Computer tomography (c) Genesplicing (d) Gene cloning

214. Which one of the following diseases is least infectious? (a) Conjunctivitis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Leprosy (d) Hepatitis

215. Match:

List-I List-II

(Vitamins) (Deficiency diseases) A. B

1 1. Haemorrhage

B. D 2. Skin C. K 3. Vascular abnormalities D. E 4. Rickets

5. Beriberi A B C D

(a) 2 4 5 1 (b) 5 3 1 2 (c) 5 4 1 3 (d) 4 1 3 2

216. Match

List-I List-II A. Fodder 1. Manure B. Compost 2. Jowar C. Food crop 3. Linseed oil D. Edible oil 4. Straw

5. Groundnut oil A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 5 (b) 2 1 5 3 (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 1 2 5

217. Jupiter completes one circuit of the Sun in (a) 16 years (b) 12 years (c) 13 years (d) 10 years

218. Protective action against harmful household insects and pests can be taken by the use of (a) Ultrasonic waves (b) Microwaves (c) Infrasonic waves (d) Low frequency radio waves


219. Which of the following is the brightest heavenly body in the evening/ night sky (a) Mars (b) Saturn (c) Jupiter (d) Venus

220. Which one of the following is useful for biological control of pests? (a) Wasps and birds (b) Scorpions and spiders (c) Honey bees and locusts (d) Parrots and kites

221. The medicines which are used to treat diseases caused by allergy are known as (a) Antipyretics (b) Antihistamines (b) Analgesics (d) Allergens

222. Largest producer of diamond and gems in the world is (a) Botswana (b) South Africa (c) Zaire (d) Ghana

223. Which one of the following is not a satellite of Jupiter? (a) Europa (b) Callisto (c) Io (d) Titan

224. The most poisonous snakes found in India are (a) Cobra, Python, Banded kraits, Rat snake (b) King Cobra, Grass snake, Banded kraits, Cobra (c) Cobra, Viper, Banded Kraits (d) Cobra, Grass snake, Kraits, Rat snake

225. Which of the following groups is opposed to the plantation of Eucalyptus trees? (a) Paper manufacturers (b) Wildlife Protection group (c) Environmentalists (d) Matches manufacturers

226. The conversion of electrical energy into chemical energy is observed in (a) Incandescent bulb (b) Heater (c) Fan (d) Storage battery

227. Given below are colours of the visible spectrum. Identify the correct sequence in order of increasing wavelengths. (a) Blue, Yellow, Red, Violet (b) Violet, Yellow, Blue, Red (c) Red, Yellow, Blue, Violet (d) Violet, Blue, Yellow, Red

228. At present, India’s share of the world exports of tea is (a) Between 10% and 20% (b) Between 30% and 35% (c) More than 40% (d) About 10% or less

229. The vitamin containing cobalt is (a) B

6 (b) B

2

(c) B 1

(d) B 12


230. Ringworm is caused by (a) Virus (b) Fungus (c) Bacterium (d) Worm

231. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:

List-I List-II

(Vectors) (Diseases) A. Tsetse fly 1. Yellow fever B. Aedes mosquito 2. Sleeping Sickness C. Water snail 3. Bilharzia D. Sandflies 4. Typhoid

5. Kala-azar A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 5 (b) 3 1 5 2 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 5 2 3 1

232. The process of retting in jute is (a) Microbiological (b) Purely chemical (c) Purely physical (d) Physico-chemical

233. Eskers and Drumlins are features formed by (a) The action of wind (b) Underground water (c) Running water (d) Glacial action

234. At sunset, if we look at the sun directly, it appears red in colour because: (a) Other colours are lost in the red glow (b) Red light is scattered away (c) Blue light is scattered away (d) Red is the natural evening colour of the sun

235. Consider the following statements regarding haemoglobin: 1. It contains iron 2. It is a carrier of oxygen in the blood 3. It imparts red colour to the blood 4. It provides immunity against certain diseases Of these statements (a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

236. Which one of the following is the largest of the inner planets? (a) Mars (b) Mercury (c) Venus (d) Earth


237. “Water flows through a pipeline at a steady rate. At a point on the pipeline, water is withdrawn continuously through a branch line”. Consider the following statements in this regard. 1. Pipe line beyond the branch line will not be full 2. Flow velocity in the main line will be less after the branch line

than before it 3. Flow velocity in the main line beyond the branchline will become

unsteady Of these statements (a) 3 is true (b) 2 is true (c) 1 is true (d) None is true

238. Which one of the following plants is effective in reducing water pollution and is also useful for producing biogas? (a) Salvinia (b) Water hyacinth (c) Eucalyptus (d) Lotus

239. Which one of the following is the National Flower of India? (a) Lotus (b) Canna (c) Rose (d) Marigold

240. The main difference between raw soyabeans and cooked soyabeans is in respect of (a) Protein content (b) Biological value of proteins (c) Aminoacid composition (d) Calorific value

241. The chief ingredient of the mosquito repellent cream is derived from (a) Lemon (b) Neem (c) Tulsi (d) Rice bran

242. Which of the following countries is rich in oil? (a) Pakistan (b) Thailand (c) Singapore (d) Indonesia

243. Dinosaur is (a) A mammal (b) An amphibian (c) A reptile (d) A bird

244. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the (a) Atomic clocks (b) White dwarfs (c) Pulsars (d) Quartz clocks

245. The ‘Green Revolution’ in agriculture was made possible by synthetic fertilizers. One of the most widely used nitrogen fertilisers is: (a) Ammonium sulphate (b) Sodium nitrate (c) Ammonium chloride (d) Nitroglycerine


246. The characteristic feature of virus is that (a) It multiplies only on hosts (b) It multiplies only on dead animals (c) It is made of fats (d) It lacks chlorophyll

247. Bandipur is known for (a) Waterfalls (b) Museum (c) Wildlife sanctuary (d) Nuclear plant

248. Fertility of soil can be improved by (a) Adding living earthworms (b) Adding dead earthworms (c) Removing dead earthworms (d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms

249. Heat from the sun is received by the earth through (a) Radiation (b) Convection (c) Conduction (d) None of the above

250. Sodium vapour lamps are preferred to incandescent lamps because of (a) Easy installation (b) Higher tolerance in voltage fluctuations (c) Higher efficiency (d) Higher intensity of illumination

251. ‘Green house effect’ means (a) Pollution in houses in tropical region (b) Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric oxygen (c) Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbon dioxide (d) None of the above

252. Which of the following is not an alloy? (a) Steel (b) Bronze (c) Brass (d) Zinc

253. Which of the following has the highest calories per gram? (a) Sugar (b) Fats (c) Proteins (d) Glucose

254. Deforestation results in 1. Flora destruction 2. Fauna destruction 3. Ecological disbalance (a) 1 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) 2 & 3


255. Birds get thrust (forward motion) and lift (upward motion) from the (a) Shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades (b) Twisting of feathers (c) Flapping of wings (d) Air sacs

256. If a bacteria culture doubles exponentially in every 30 minutes, then after 5 hours they become (a) 1000 fold (b) 100 fold (c) 10 fold (d) 10000 fold

257. Match the following:

List-I List-II A. Vitamin E 1. Scurvy B. Vitamin K 2. Rickets C. Vitamin C 3. Sterility D. Vitamin D 4. Blood coagulation

A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 2 1 3 4

258. Of the following subjects, tell in which Florence Nightingale, the nurse extraordinary, made scientific contributions: (a) Genetics (b) Medical statistics (c) Blood transfusion (d) Anthropology


List-I List-II

(Forms) (Quantities) A. Cusec 1. Pressure B. Byte 2. Intensity of earthquakes C. Richter 3. Rate of flow D. Bar 4. Computer memory

A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4

260. By sex ratio, we mean (a) The number of married females in the population per 1000 male

population (b) The number of males in the population per 1000 female population


(c) The number of females in the population per 1000 male population (d) The number of married males in the population per 1000 female

population


List-I List-II

(Organic acids) (Substances in which they are present) A. Lactic acid 1. Lemon B. Acetic acid 2. Rancid butter C. Citric acid 3. Milk D. Butyric acid 4. Vinegar

5. Wine A B C D

(a) 2 5 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 5 (c) 5 4 3 2 (d) 3 4 1 2

262. Ordinary dry air consists of the following 1. Nitrogen 2. Argon 3. Oxygen 4. Carbon dioxide What is the decreasing sequence of these in percentages? (a) 2, 1, 3 & 4 (b) 1, 2, 4 & 3 (c) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (d) 2, 1, 4 & 3

263. The type of crop which is able to fix nitrogen from air is known as (a) Legume (b) Coffee (c) Tuber (d) Wheat

264. Charakasamhita is a work on (a) Architecture (b) Medicine (c) Polity (d) Mathematics

265. The saliva helps in the digestion of (a) Fibres (b) Proteins (c) Starch (d) Fats

266. Which of the following chemicals in automobile-exhaust can cause cancer? (a) Lead (b) Polycyclic hydrocarbons (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Oxides of nitrogen

267. Among the sources of energy listed below which one is non-conventional in present day rural India? (a) Biogas (b) Cow-dung cake (c) Fuel wood (d) Hydel


268. Amniocentesis is a method for (a) Determination of the sequence of amino acids in a protein (b) Separation of amino acids (c) Determination of foetal sex (d) Inducing abortion

269. The major ingredient of leather is (a) Carbohydrate (b) Polymer (c) Collagen (d) Nucleic acid

270. Sea water is saltier than rain water because (a) The air around sea is saltish (b) Rivers wash away salts from the earth and pour them into sea (c) Sea beds have salt producing mines (d) Sea animals are salt producing

271. Mechanisation of agriculture will lead to which of the following? 1. Higher per unit cost of operation 2. Higher per unit productivity 3. Higher dose of employment 4. Higher utilisation of resources Select the correct answer from codes given below: (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

272. If there were no atmosphere, what would be the colour of sky? (a) Blue (b) Black (c) White (d) Red

273. Which is the oldest science body in India? (a) National Academy of Sciences (b) Indian Academy of Sciences (c) Indian National Science Academy (d) Indian Science Congress Association

274. If there were no organic life on the Earth, the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere will (a) Be almost nil (b) Be approximately hundred per cent (c) Remain unchanged (d) Be approximately fifty per cent

275. Acid rain is caused by pollution of environment by (a) Ozone and carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide (c) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen (d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide


276. Which of the following is not an element of the bone? (a) Carbon (b) Phosphorus (c) Calcium (d) Oxygen


List-I List-II A. Otitis 1. Throat B. Encephalitis 2. Ear C. Laryngitis 3. Liver D. Hepatitis 4. Brain

5. Kidney A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2

278. Which of the following is/are found in plant cells but not in those of animals? (a) Mitochondria & Golgi apparatus (b) Chromosome (c) Plastid & Cellular wall (d) Cell wall & lysozyme

Direction (Qs. 279 – 280): Weights of the organs of various animals (in kg) are given below: Organs → Heart Brain Liver Kidney Animals ↓ Horse 3.60 0.30 6.25 0.60 Cow 2.70 0.20 5.45 0.45 Sheep 1.80 0.13 2.20 0.30 Dog 1.30 0.09 1.50 0.14

279. Which animal has the heaviest heart? (a) Sheep (b) Cow (c) Horse (d) Dog

280. Which animal has the highest percentage of the weight of brain and liver taken together in comparison with the sum total of the weights of its organs provided in the data? (a) Sheep (b) Cow (c) Horse (d) Dog


281. Which of the following figures correctly represents the relation Reptiles, Crocodile, Lizards?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

282. ‘Blight’ - the disease of potato can be cured by (a) Dionine T-4 (b) Bordeaux mixture (c) Diathane (d) Agrimycin and Ceresan

283. Main constituents of Biogas are (a) Butane and Carbon monoxide (b) Ethylene and Carbon dioxide (c) Methane and Carbon dioxide (d) Methane and Carbon monoxide

284. A good source of Vitamin A is (a) Rice (b) Potato (c) Carrot (d) Tomato

285. UP-308 is a variety of (a) Cotton (b) Rice (c) Millet (d) Wheat

286. Ozone layer of atmosphere absorbs (a) All radiations of light (b) Infrared rays (c) Ultraviolet rays (d) Cosmic rays

287. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy? (a) Solar (b) Hydropower (c) Geothermal (d) Wind

288. Which of the following was the first to escape out of solar system? (a) Voyager II (b) Voyager I (c) Pioneer 10 (d) Soyuz

289. Plants take nitrogen in the form of (a) Nitrates (b) Ammonia (c) Nitrites (d) Element N

290. A man coming down on a lift leaves a ball from his hand. The ball will (a) Remain stationary with respect to man (b) Fall down


(c) Go up (d) Oscillate up and down

291. The stars receive their energy from which of the following? (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Chemical reaction (d) Gravitational pull

292. Reading of the barometer going down is an indication of (a) Snow (b) Rainfall (c) Storm (d) Intense heat

293. Which of the following is used in diesel engine? 1. Cylinder 2. Spark Plug 3. Piston (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

294. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is (a) Radium (b) Uranium (c) Thorium (d) Plutonium

295. Mixed cropping is useful when (a) Different soils are used for the same crops (b) Crops with same maturity period are sown together (c) Crops with varying maturity periods are sown together (d) Crops with different nutritional requirements are sown

296. Which of the following is the correct group of Kharif crops? (a) Jowar, Bajra, Rice, Cotton, Jute, Gram (b) Groundnut, Bajra, Barley, Sorghum (c) Rice, Millet, Maize, Cotton (d) Wheat, Barley, Gram, Mustard

297. Opium is obtained from (a) Seed capsule of opium poppy (b) Latex juice (c) Tablet type latex (d) Poppy leaves

298. To a person on the moon, the sky appears (a) Blue (b) Black (c) White (d) Orange

299. The cure for which of the following diseases exists? (a) Breast Cancer (b) Hepatitis-B (c) Blood Cancer (d) Lung Cancer

300. ELISA test is prescribed for (a) Polio (b) Typhoid (c) AIDS (d) Cancer


301. Photosynthesis generally occurs in which portions of the plant? (a) Roots and chloroplast bearing parts (b) Stem and leaf (c) Leaf and other chloroplast bearing parts (d) Bark and leaf

302. Why DDT is banned in western countries? (a) It is a highly poisonous insecticide (b) The insects are immunised (c) It remains in environment for a long time (d) None of the above

303. Malaria fever is caused (a) When the malaria causing germs reach the liver (b) Upon disintegration and bursting of red blood cells (c) Immediately after mosquito bite (d) Upon release of toxins into blood

304. Which of the following statements about ozone layer is correct? (a) It is of uniform thickness (b) It protects the earth’s life forms by preventing the damaging UV

radiations from reaching earth’s surface (c) It converts UV radiations into electrical energy (d) None of the above

305. A new biofertiliser is (a) Green blue algae (b) Farmyard manure (c) Compost (d) Nitrates

306. Interleukin, recently discovered, is a cure for (a) Cancer (b) Diabetes (c) Arthritis (d) Influenza

307. Which of the following crops is a tropical monsoon crop? (a) Ragi (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Jowar

308. Triple antigen vaccine is given to the children to protect them against (a) Contagious diseases (b) Whooping cough (c) Polio (d) None of the above

309. Baking powders release carbon dioxide on heating and the dough (wheat and water paste) rises to form a loaf of bread with many holes, created by the escaping gas. This happens because baking powders contain: (a) Ammonia (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Protein in vinegar


310. Which of the following elements exists in maximum quantity in atmosphere? (a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen

311. Which of the following is the correct sequence in order of increasing power consumption? (a) Fan, Television, Electric Kettle, Electric Iron (b) Television, Fan, Electric Iron, Electirc Kettle (c) Television, Fan, Electric Kettle, Electric Iron (d) Fan, Television, Electric Iron, Electric Kettle

312. The final product of photosynthesis is (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Carbohydrates (d) Water

313. Operation Flood II refers to (a) Decreasing floods in the country (b) Cleaning of Ganga water (c) Krishna - Cauvery link (d) None of the above

314. Mixed farming means (a) Using different soils (b) Growing different crops at one time (c) Growing two crops at one time (d) Agriculture involving crops and livestock

315. Rotation of crops means (a) Same crop is grown after some time (b) Growing two crops at the same time (c) Different crops are grown in succession to maintain the soil fertility (d) None of the above

316. Massive deforestation causes (a) Floods (b) Famine (c) Soil erosion (d) None of these

317. Which is the oldest science museum in India? (a) Birla Industrial and Technological Museum, Calcutta (b) National Museum of Natural History, New Delhi (c) Visveswaraya Industrial and Technological Museum, Bangalore (d) National Museum of India

318. Where is India’s chip-making factory located? (a) Trivandrum (b) Chandigarh (d) Madras (d) Mysore


319. Extrusive (Intrusive) rocks are forms of (a) Metamorphic rocks (b) Sedimentary rocks (c) Igneous rocks (d) None of the above

320. Which of the following is the organic matter of animal and vegetable origin in the soil? (a) Fulminic Acid (b) Vermiculite (c) Humus (d) None of the above

321. In India, the problem of utilisation of agriculture wastes is in (a) Conversion of bran into molasses (b) Conversion of sugar into carbohydrates (c) Conversion of starch into alcohol (d) Conversion of cellulose into sugar

322. For pasteurization by the Flash Method, milk is heated to a temperature of (a) – 4°C (b) 100°C (c) 0°C (d) 72°C

323. The International Rice Research Institute is located in (a) Indonesia (b) Thailand (c) The Philippines (d) Malaysia


List-I List-II A. Mumps 1. Protozoa B. Tuberculosis 2. Bacterium C. Beriberi 3. Virus D. Dysentery 4. Lack of thiamine

A B C D (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 3 2 4

325. The genetic code can be translated through an intermediate, adaptor molecule by (a) ATP (b) mRNA (c) tRNA (d) ADP

326. The great Indian bustard is a/an (a) Bird (b) Reptile (c) Animal (d) Mammal


327. Match the following: A. Carbohydrate 1. It constitutes oil, ghee, butter

and oil seed B. Fat 2. Animal and vegetable tissues C. Protein 3. Excellent source of energy,

constitutes D. Amino acids 4. End product of protein hydrolysis

A B C D (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 3 1 4

328. ‘Ranikhet’ is a disease found in (a) Sheep (b) Cows (c) Poultry (d) Dogs

329. Which of the following statements about “Dinosaurs” is/are correct? (a) The Dinosaurs became extinct about six million years before the

appearance of the first man on the earth (b) Man appeared first after the dinosaurs became extinct (c) The early man was a contemporary of Dinosaurs (d) The dinosaurs became extinct about 200 million years before the

first man appeared on the earth

330. Given: Humidity – H High – A Wind Velocity – W Low – B Temperature – T The desert cooler is an appropriate cooling device for regions where (a) H–A, W–B, T–B (b) H–B, W–B, T–A (c) H–A, W–A, T–B (d) H–A, W–A, T–A

331. Wisdom teeth normally grow during the age of (a) 17–30 years (b) 12–15 years (c) 34–40 years (d) 40–45 years

332. ‘Acupuncture’ is a medical system of treatment prominently used in China in which (a) Special needles are inserted into particular parts of the body for

the relief (b) Drugs are used for pain relief (c) Herbs are used for pain relief (d) Electric shocks are applied for the relief of pain


333. Sex chromosomes transmit which of the following diseases? (a) Longsightedness (b) Colour blindness (c) Myopia (d) Night blindness

334. Which of the following is a weed-killer? (a) Herbicide (b) Methyl salicylate (c) Insecticide (d) None of these

335. Ice cubes are floating in a glass of water. When the ice cubes melt, the water level in the glass (a) Will remain unchanged (b) Will first decrease and then start increasing (c) Will first increase and then start decreasing (d) Will increase

336. Ursa Minor is (a) A group of stars that form the little Dipper in the most northern constellation (b) The name of a satellite (c) The name of an island (d) The name of a disease in USA

337. Which of the following pairs is not correct? A. Seismograph - Earthquakes B. Anemometer - Speed of wind C. Hygrometer - Water vapour content of the

atmosphere D. Lactometer - Specific gravity of liquids

338. Snake bite first affects the (a) Brain (b) Blood circulation (c) Nervous system (d) Lungs


List-I List-II A. Kaziranga National Park 1. Gujarat B. Gir National Park 2. Madhya Pradesh C. Bandipur National Park 3. Assam D. Kanha National Park 4. Karnataka

A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1

340. Who was the first scientist to use a computer language for his computer? (a) G.W. Leibniz (b) Charles Babbage (c) George Stibitz (d) Konrad Zuse


341. He was the first to use the symbols O and O for male and female:

(a) Carolus Linnaeus (b) Charles Darwin (c) Aristotle (d) Richard Owen

342. He built the first nuclear reactor, the ‘Atomic pile’: (a) Freeman Dyson (b) H.J. Bhabha (c) Otto Hahn (d) Enrico Fermi

343. Who first gave the concept of ‘atom’? (a) John Dalton (b) Aristotle (c) Kanada (d) Kapila

344. Who built the first electron microscope? (a) H.Binning (b) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (c) Max Knoll and Ernst Ruska (d) Robert Millikan

345. Who first treated zero as a number and showed its mathematical operation? (a) Plato (b) Aryabhata (c) Brahmagupta (d) Phythagoras

346. Who first showed that something divided by zero is an infinite quantity? (a) Leonardo da Vinci (b) Bhaskara (c) Brahmagupta (d) Mahavira

347. Which was the first computer language? (a) BABBAGE (b) PLANKALKUEL (c) FORTRAN (d) PL-1

348. Which was the first molecule to be discovered in space? (a) Silicon oxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydroxide

349. Where was the first medical college in India established? (a) Madras (b) Bombay (c) Calcutta (d) Pune

350. Which is the first weather satellite? (a) Bhaskara-I (b) Tiros-I (c) Meteor-I (d) Meteosat

351. Which is the first wholly synthetic fibre? (a) Nylon (b) Wool (c) Rayon (d) Teflon

352. When did Robert Goddard launch the first liquid-propelled rocket? (a) 1926 (b) 1890 (c) 1957 (d) 1945


353. Who is the father of the Periodic Table of Elements? (a) Johann Baeyer (b) Dmitri Mendeleev (c) Alfred Nobel (d) Johannes Van der Waals

354. Who is considered to be the father of Cybernetics? (a) Norbert Wiener (b) Konrad Zuse (c) Claude Shannon (d) Alan Turing

355. Who is the father of the hydrogen bomb? (a) Edward Teller (b) Leo Szilard (c) J.Robert Oppenheimer (d) Otto Hahn

356. Which mathematician is considered to be the father of the philosophy of infinity? (a) Zeno (b) Leonard Euler (c) Bhaskara (d) Euclid

357. He is considered to be the father of eugenics: (a) Francis Galton (b) Charles Davenport (c) Karl Pearson (d) Charles Darwin

358. He was the first to discover one-celled animals: (a) Charaka (b) Anton Leeuwenhoek (c) Marcello Malpighi (d) Galen

359. He discovered that malaria is caused by a particular type of mosquito: (a) Christiaan Eijkman (b) Charles Sherrington (c) Ronald Ross (d) Louis Pasteur

360. Stars generate energy by nuclear fusion. Who first proposed this idea? (a) Albert Einstein (b) M.N. Saha (c) Hans Bethe (d) Bertrand Russell

361. He forwarded the theory of wave-particle duality, i.e., a particle sometimes behaves like a wave, and vice versa: (a) Louis de Broglie (b) A.H. Compton (c) Albert Einstein (d) William Bragg

362. He claims that Vitamin C can prevent common cold: (a) Paul Muller (b) Rene Dubos (c) Linus Pauling (d) G. Natta

363. He coined the term ‘Science’: (a) William Whewell (b) Roger Bacon (c) Francis Bacon (d) Plato

364. He gave the equation E = mc 2 , where E, m and c stands respectively for energy, mass and velocity of light: (a) Niels Bohr (b) Ernest Rutherford (c) Otto Hahn (d) Albert Einstein


365. He coined the phrase ‘survival of the fittest’: (a) Alfred Wallace (b) Herbert Spencer (c) Charles Darwin (d) Eramus Darwin

366. He was killed when he was busy solving a mathematical problem: (a) Euclid (b) Archimedes (c) Bhaskara (d) Eudoxus

367. Even today, a doctor swears by an oath named after him: (a) Charaka (b) Ptolemy (c) Hipparchus (d) Hippocrates

368. Who invented the telephone? (a) Nicola Tesla (b) J.L. Baird (c) Alexender G. Bell (d) James Dewar

369. Who invented the safety pin? (a) Walter Hunt (b) Stewart Harshone (c) Charles Goodyear (d) A. Rose

370. He invented the telescope: (a) Robert Hooke (b) Hans Lippershey (c) Galileo Galilei (d) Hipparchus

371. Who invented zero? (a) Bhaskara (b) Aristotle (c) Varahamihira (d) None

372. He invented the celluloid film which made movies possible: (a) William Friese-Greene (b) George Eastman (c) Sidney W. Fox (d) Samuel Langley

373. Who invented cement used in buildings? (a) Elisha Otis (b) Charles Boyle (c) Joseph Aspdin (d) W.H.F. Talbot

374. He invented the electric battery: (a) Benjamin Franklin (b) Andre Ampere (c) Alexendro Volta (d) Luigi Galvani

375. Who invented Bakelite – the first commercially successful thermosetting plastic resin? (a) Melvin Calvin (b) Johann Baeyer (c) L.H. Baekeland (d) John Larson

376. Who is the inventor of dynamite and blasting gelatin? (a) Alfred Nobel (b) Antoine Lavoisier (c) Henry Cavendish (d) Humphry Davy

377. Who invented artificial silk? (a) Roslyn d. Young (b) John Wells (c) Joseph W. Swan (d) Frank F. Jewett


378. Who was the first man to walk in space? (a) John Young (b) Alexei Leonov (c) John Glenn (d) Alan Shepard

379. Who is the first Asian astronaut? (a) Sultan Salman Abdel-Aziz Al-saud (b) Ravish Malhotra (c) Rakesh Sharma (d) Pham Taan

380. Who was the first woman to fly in space? (a) Valentina Tereshkova (b) Rhea Seddon (c) Sally Ride (d) Anna Fisher

381. Of the following techniques, which one is not employed in determining the structure of molecules? (a) Computer-aided design (b) X-ray crystallography (c) Mass spectroscopy (d) None of these

382. Of the following instruments, which one would be used for navigating a ship? (a) Telescope (b) Sonometer (c) Aneroid barometer (d) Sextant

383. For determining the elements present in a substance, tell which instrument would be used: (a) Spectroscope (b) Periscope (c) Microscope (d) Magnetometer

384. For measuring the heart-beat of a person, the doctor uses: (a) Stethoscope (b) Cardiogram (c) Voltmeter (d) Altimeter

385. For measuring the atmospheric pressure at a place, tell which instrument is used: (a) Anemometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Barometer (d) Thermometer

386. To determine the density of a liquid, one of the following instruments is used: (a) Galvanometer (b) Hygrometer (c) Hydrometer (d) Sonometer

387. To check up whether a cell is generating current or not, tell which instrument is used: (a) Galvanometer (b) Magnetic compass (c) Microscope (d) Spectroscope

388. For recording earthquake at a place, tell which instrument is used: (a) Seismograph (b) Micrometer (c) Telegraph (d) Spectrograph


389. An electric bell works on: (a) Magnetism (b) Electrochemical reactions (c) Electromagnetic induction (d) None

390. A xerox machine works on: (a) Magnetic image-making (b) Electrostatic image-making (c) Electromagnetic image-making (d) Thermal image-making

391. If this crucial component is not working, a vehicle will not move: (a) Spark plug (b) Horn (c) Milometer (d) Brake

392. In an ordinary light bulb, filament is made of: (a) Lead (b) Platinum (c) Tungsten (d) Carbon

393. An electric cell works on: (a) Electromagnetic induction (b) Solar energy (c) Electrochemical reactions (d) Magnetism

394. Which living organism Barbara McClintock employed for her experiments that led to the discovery of ‘Jumping genes’? (a) Corn (b) Fruit flies (c) Rabbits (d) Peas

395. The structure of benzene was discovered by August Kekule when he: (a) Was buying bread at a confectionary shop (b) was dreaming about snakes (c) Conducted an experiment in a systematic manner (d) Had a discussion on the subject with a freind

396. Who conducted the experiment that produced vacuum for the first time? (a) Charles Boyle (b) Blaise Pascal (c) E. Torricelli (d) Lord Rayleigh

397. Where was conducted the famous experiment that showed both heavy and light bodies take the same time to fall down to earth? (a) Leaning Tower of Pisa (b) Eiffel Tower (c) Empire State Building (d) Qutab Minar


398. Albert Einstein’s theory of relativity was first experimentally proved correct by a: (a) Solar eclipse (b) Cyclotron (c) Space shuttle (d) Lunar eclipse

399. Of the following chemical compounds, tell which one may soon be used as a fuel for driving vehicles: (a) Ethylene (b) Ethene (c) Ethanol (d) Ethane

400. What is the measure of performance of petrol in internal combustion engines? (a) Crude oil fraction (b) Octane number (c) Octave number (d) Kerosene fraction

401. Glass is made out of: (a) Boron, etc. (b) Calcium, etc. (c) Sand, etc. (d) Glycol, etc.

402. Of the following drugs, tell which one is present in Cola drinks: (a) Opiate (b) Cocaine (c) Valium (d) Caffeine

403. Which product of living organisms was the first to be made under laboratory conditions? (a) Fructose (b) glucose (c) Urea (d) Amino acid

404. If a chemical is given to you, how would you know that it is pure? (a) By checking its melting point (b) By observing its colour (c) By testing (d) By smelling it

405. Of the following drugs, tell which one is present in tobacco: (a) Nicotine (b) Heroin (c) Marijuana (d) Cocaine

406. Of the following chemicals, tell which one is used in a refrigerator for cooling purposes: (a) Sodium (b) Freon (c) Radon (d) Fluorine

407. Which chemical causes Minamata disease? (a) Mercury (b) Cadmium (c) DDT (d) Sulphuric acid

408. Of the following elements, tell which one is present in the least amount in a living body: (a) Sulphur (b) Manganese (c) Iodine (d) Zinc


409. The absence of cobalt in minute quantities in human body causes: (a) Leucoderma (b) Arthritis (c) Pernicious anaemia (d) Malta fever

410. Soda water contains: (a) Carboxylic acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Carbonic acid (d) Nitrous acid

411. Tomato sauce contains: (a) Oelic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Citric acid (d) Maleic acid

412. Formic acid is found in: (a) Bark of trees (b) Fruits (c) Ants and nettles (d) Flowers

413. This is used as a mild antiseptic eye lotion: (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Carbonic acid (c) Boric acid (d) Propanoic acid

414. What is the measure of acidity of an acid? (a) Melting point (b) pH (c) Ions (d) Freezing point

415. This is also known as ‘marsh gas’ because it is found near marshes: (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) sulphur trioxide (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Methane

416. In aqualungs, divers mix this gas with oxygen for breathing: (a) Helium (b) Nitrogen (c) Argon (d) None

417. Electric bulbs are filled with this gas: (a) Argon (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen

418. Of the following gases, tell which one is used in those multi-coloured display signs seen at night: (a) Argon (b) Neon (c) Xenon (d) Krypton

419. The major gaseous components of air are: (a) Argon, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Nitrogen (b) Carbon dioxide, Argon, Oxygen, Helium (c) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Xenon, Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide

420. Cooking gas contains more than 90% of this gas: (a) Helium (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Hydrogen (d) Methane


421. Solid carbon dioxide is also called: (a) White carbon (b) Dry Ice (c) Solcare (d) Solid dioxide

422. What is also known as ‘laughing gas’? (a) Nitrogen monoxide (b) Nitrous oxide (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Nitrogen

423. Of the following liquids or gases in liquid form, tell which one can flow up the wall of a container: (a) Hydrogen (b) Helium (c) Water (d) Oxygen

424. Bronze is an alloy of: (a) Zinc, tin and copper (b) Copper, tin and cobalt (c) Aluminium, copper and tin (d) Tin, aluminium and nickel

425. Which is the metal as strong as steel but half as much in weight? (a) Aluminium (b) Titanium (c) Mercury (d) Platinum

426. Of the following minerals, tell which one is nicknamed ‘fool’s gold, because its yellow colour often confuses gold prospectors: (a) Fluorite (b) Galena (c) Pyrite (d) Silica

427. Of the following types of rocks, tell which one is used for making roofs of houses: (a) Basalt (b) Slate (c) Gneiss (d) Granite

428. Of the following phenomena that occur on the surface of the sun, tell which one is due to an optical illusion: (a) Spicules (b) Sunspots (c) Solar flares (d) None

429. A shooting star is basically a: (a) Comet trail (b) Supernova (c) Meteor (d) Disturbance in atmosphere

430. Of the following natural phenomena, tell which one is based on the refraction of light: (a) Earthlight (b) Polar light (c) Rainbow (d) Lightning


431. Of the following phenomena, tell which one occurs when certain disturbances take place in the sun: (a) Magnetic storms (b) Hailstroms (c) Mirages (d) Duststorms

432. Of the following types of meteorological phenomena, tell which one can cause damage to crops: (a) Dew (b) Rains (c) Hail (d) Duststorm

433. Of the following phenomena, tell which one can affect weather conditions on earth: (a) Falling meteorites (b) Volcanoes (c) Earthquakes (d) None

434. Of the following regions, tell where the most dangerous hot wind ’Föhn’, which burns villages and melts snow, occurs: (a) Switzerland (b) Siberia (c) Sahara (d) Iran

435. Which is the largest constellation? (a) Indus (b) Dorado (c) Hydra (d) Cetus

436. Of the following stars, spot the one which is like our sun: (a) Beta Carinae (b) Altair (c) Vega (d) Tau ceti

437. Of the following planets, tell which one is also known as the ‘Morning Star’: (a) Venus (b) Jupiter (c) Mars (d) None

438. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky? (a) Mars (b) Saturn (c) Jupiter (d) Mercury

439. Which is the brightest nebula in the sky? (a) Large cloud of Magellan (b) Ring nebula (c) Orion nebula (d) M.42

440. Which is the first planet to be discovered in modern times? (a) Saturn (b) Pluto (c) Mercury (d) Uranus

441. It was the first spaceprobe to reach and study Jupiter: (a) Pioneer-10 (b) Viking-I (c) Voyager-I (d) Galileo


442. An increase in the number or size of dust particles in the air can lead to a decrease in the global temperature because these particles: (a) Can scatter all kinds of light (b) Scatter blue light only (c) Are very cold (d) Increase moisture in the air

443. What is known as the transit of planet Venus? (a) When Venus is observed at the time of solar eclipse (b) When Venus crosses the surface of the sun (c) When one sees Venus while one is in transit (d) When Venus is occulted by another planet

444. A spacecraft will be specially launched to study this small heavenly body: (a) Ceres (b) Chiron (c) Phobos (d) Io

445. Which is the brightest asteroid? (a) Juno (b) Vesta (c) Pallas (d) Icarus

446. What is the strong evidence that all living things have a common origin? (a) One theory of the evolution of life (b) The homology concept (c) Found on the same planet (d) No life detected outside earth

447. The oldest fossils are found in rocks situated in: (a) Ediacaran hills, southern Australia (b) Alice Springs, central Australia (c) North Pole, northwest Australia (d) Mazon Creek, Illinois, U.S.A.

448. Who propounded that life could have originated from a chemical soup? (a) A.I Oparin (b) J.B.S. Haldane (c) Both (d) None

449. Who propounded the theory of evolution at the same time as Charles Darwin did? (a) T.H. Huxley (b) Thomas Malthus (c) Asa Grey (d) Alfred R. Wallace

450. Studying the behaviour of animals in the wild is called: (a) Behavioural psychology (b) Ethology (c) Eugenics (d) Sociobiology


451. Who discovered ‘conditioned reflex’ through his experiments on dogs? (a) Sigmund Freud (B) B.F. Skinner (c) I.P. Pavlov (d) Carl Jung

452. Of the following animals, tell which one rarely mates with its close relatives despite living together: (a) Zebras (b) Prairie dogs (c) Wild dogs (d) Deer

453. Of the following animals, spot which one builds nest: (a) Elephant (b) Wild boar (c) Wildebeest (d) None

454. Of the following creatures, tell which one has the power to grow lost parts: (a) Squirrel (b) Starfish (c) Crab (d) Squid

455. Of the following creatures, tell which one has the most toxic venom: (a) Scorpion (b) Krait (c) Kukri snake (d) Cobra

456. The heaviest brain belongs to: (a) Sea cow (b) Killer whale (c) African elephant (d) Sperm whale

457. Of the following beings, tell which one is a skilled engineer: (a) Termite (b) Beaver (c) Tailor-bird (d) Honeybee

458. Of the following living beings, tell which one has the highest life-span on an average: (a) Pelican (b) Man (c) Tortoise (d) Cat

459. It has the longest gestation period among mammals: (a) Prairie dog (b) Pronghorn (c) Giant panda (d) Asiatic elephant

460. It is difficult to identify one gorilla from another in the wild. Of the following marks, tell which one is used to identify one gorilla from another: (a) Nose-print (b) Paw (c) Hair (d) Eyebrow

461. The region where giraffes are found: (a) Canada (b) Africa (c) North America (d) Greenland

462. The most successful and rapidly evolving mammal: (a) Horse (b) Panther (c) Hedgehog (d) Mouse


463. Of the following birds, tell which one locates its prey by smell; (a) Crow (b) Kiwi (c) Woodpecker (d) Stonechat

464. The bird has flippers instead of wings: (a) Goose (b) Penguin (c) Owl (d) Albatross

465. Of the following birds, tell which one keeps its mouth open while flying so that it could catch flying insects: (a) Owl (b) Nightjar (c) Vulture (d) Crow

466. Which bird holds the record for longest migration? (a) Shearwater (b) River tern (c) Arctic tern (d) Barheaded geese

467. The heaviest flying bird is: (a) Vulture (b) Kori bustard (c) Ostrich (d) Condor

468. The biggest egg is of: (a) Ostrich (b) Moorhen (c) Tawny owl (d) Duck

469. Of the following plants, spot which one is a carnivore: (a) Hibiscus (b) Butterwort (c) Mimosa (d) Poppy

470. This is a poisonous tree sufficient to cause death on eating. Rat poison is made out of it: (a) Oleander (b) Giant milkweed (c) Jangli badam (d) Queen’s flower

471. Of the following trees, tell which one is sacred to the Buddhists: (a) Pagoda tree (b) Ashoka (c) Pipal (d) Karanja

472. Cricket bats are made out of the wood of this tree: (a) Sal (b) Rosewood (c) Teak (d) Willow

473. How long can a sperm whale hold its breath during dive? (a) 35 minutes (b) 2 hours (c) 5 hours (d) 15 minutes

474. This fish was introduced into India to act as a biological control for the eradication of malaria: (a) Mackerel (b) Milk fish (c) Gambusia (d) Mahseer


475. Which is the largest invertebrate in the world? (a) Giant clam (b) Octopus (c) Giant squid (d) Star fish

476. Of the following insects, tell which one grows its own food: (a) Leaf-cutter ant (b) Bumblebee (c) Honeybee (d) Dung beetle

477. What are known as ‘book scorpions’? (a) Caterpillar (b) False spider (c) Silverfish (d) Scorpion spider

478. Honeybees perform dance of a particular shape to communicate to others the source of nectar. What is that shape? (a) Figure of 8 (b) Pentagon (c) Figure of 6 (d) Hexagon

479. Gir forest in Gujarat is the last home of: (a) Indian Lion (b) Cheetah (c) Tiger (d) Indian leopard

480. Of the following birds, tell which one is often seen in a party of seven: (a) Shrike (b) Babbler (c) Indian tit (d) Crow

481. Of the following birds, tell whose call sounds like ‘Did you do it’? (a) Red-whiskered bulbul (b) Green barbet (c) Little-ringed plover (d) Red-wattled lapwing

482. The oldest mountains in India are: (a) Aravalli (b) Himalayas (c) Vindhyas (d) Sahyadri

483. Of the following types of teeth, tell which one is used for grinding food: (a) Canine (b) Incisor (c) Molar (d) Milk teeth

484. Of the following human bones, tell which one is of arm: (a) Patella (b) Radius (c) Sternum (d) Femur

485. Gastric juice contains: (a) Hydrochloric acid and pepsin (b) Bicarbonates (c) Sucrose (d) Lipids and sucrose

486. What is the volume of brain of an average human being? (a) 4000 cubic centimetre (b) 1500 cubic centimetre (c) 750 cubic centimetre (d) 100 cubic centimetre


487. Of the following glands present in the human body, tell which one is present next to the brain: (a) Pancreas (b) Thyroid (c) Adrenal (d) Pineal

488. The normal blood pressure of human beings is in one of the following ranges: (a) 140/80 mm (b) 110/70 mm (c) 120/80 mm (d) 110/75 mm

489. Of the following human organs, tell which one is least susceptible to harmful radiations: (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Eyes (d) Lungs

490. Of the following substances, tell which one acts like a fuel in driving the body: (a) Carbohydrates (b) Vitamins (c) Minerals (d) Fats

491. What is the unit of measuring the energy requirements of a human body? (a) Kilowatt (b) Erg (c) Joule (d) Calorie

Direction for Q. 492 – 500 : The following consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled as ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true

492. Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide in air is necessary for sustaining life. Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is assimilated in carbohydrates in photosynthesis.

493. Assertion (A): solar eclipse occurs on a new moon day. Reason (R): Moon is in conjunction with the sun.

494. Assertion (A): Earthworms are useful to man. Reason (R): Earthworms help in Nitrogen fixation in plants.

495. Assertion (A): Insects are not affected by pesticides. Reason (R): Insects are killed by pesticides.


496. Assertion (A): Italy, Switzerland, Sweden and Norway have abundant power resources. Reason (R): They have the largest coal deposits in Europe.

497. Assertion (A): Phenyl is used as a household germicide. Reason (R): Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.

498. Assertion (A): Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. Reason (R): Formic acid is an organic acid.

499. Assertion (A): Dolly was the first cloned mammal. Reason (R): Dolly was produced by in vitro fertilization.

500. Assertion (A): Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India. Reason (R): Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware.

National Science Olympiad Time Allowed : 1 hour Total Questions : 50

MENTAL ABILITY

1. At the beginning of the school year, the principal of the school equally divided each of the following items among the new teachers: l 48 red pens l 40 whiteboard markers l 16 whiteboard erasers There was no item remaining. What was the maximum possible number of new teachers at school at the beginning of the school year? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

2. Rina made the pattern given below to find the square of natural numbers.

1 = 1 1 + 3 = 4

1 + 3 + 5 = 9 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 = 16

How many numbers will she choose to make the number 144? (A) 10 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 11

3. The value of 3 3 3

2 2 2 (1.5) (4.7) (3.8) 3 1.5 4.7 3.8

(1.5) (4.7) (3.8) 1.5 4.7 4.7 3.8 1.5 3.8 + + − × × ×

+ + − × − × − × is ______

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11

4. Which equation shows the relationship between x and y? x 0 1 2 3 4 y 2 5 8 11 14

(A) y = 2x (B) y = x + 2

(C) y = 5x (D) y = 3x + 2

SOLVED PAPERS : National Science Olympiad 259

5. The number of composite numbers between 101 and 120 are

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14

6. Mona makes wedding cakes with circular bases. She made a large cake with a radius of 30 cm and a small cake with a radius of 15 cm, as shown. Which of the following statements correctly compares the circumferences of the bases of the two cakes?

15 cm

30 cm

(A) The circumference of the base of the large cake is 2 times that of the small cake.

(B) The circumference of the base of the large cake is 4 times that of the small cake.

(C) The circumference of the base of the large cake is 6 times that of the small cake.

(D) The circumference of the base of the large cake is 8 times that of the small cake.

7. The value of 2 2 2 2 2 2 + + + + + +

⋅ ⋅

a ab b b bc c c ca a a b c

b c a x x x x x x

is ______

(A) –1 (B) x abc

(C) 1 (D) x(a + b + c)

8. In a problem involving division, the divisor is eight times the quotient and four times the remainder. If the remainder be 12, then the dividend is (A) 300 (B) 288 (C) 512 (D) 524

9. The lateral surface area of a hollow cylinder is 4224 cm 2 . It is cut along its height and a rectangular sheet of width 32 cm is obtained. Find the perimeter of rectangular sheet.

32 cm

r r

(A) 328 cm (B) 142 cm (C) 160 cm (D) 154 cm


10. Consider the following questions: 1. 5 litres of milk cost Rs. 25. How many litres of milk would cost

Rs. 150? 2. The weight of a 2 rupee coin is 30 gm. What is the weight of

a one rupee coin? 3. A car covers a distance of 180 km in 4 hours. How much will

it cover in 3 hours? 4. If one stone can chase away 2 crows sitting on a tree, then

how many stones do we need to chase away 50 crows sitting on the tree?

The unitary method does not help in finding answers to questions ______ (A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. A square pyramid is shown in the figure. Total number of edges, vertices and lateral faces are denoted by E, V and F. Find F + V – E.

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 2

(D) 7

12. The parallel sides of a trapezoid are 3 cm and 9 cm. The non parallel sides are 4 cm and 6 cm. A line parallel to the base divides the trapezoid into two trapezoids of equal perimeters. The ratio in which each of the nonparallel sides is divided,

if = AP PD BQ QC

, is

3 cm

(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 2

(C) 4 : 1 (D) 3 : 1

13. If 18225 = 135, then the value of

( 182.25 1.8225 0.018225 0.00018225) + + + is

(A) 1.49985 (B) 14.9985 (C) 149.985 (D) 1499.85


14. A chemist has m gm of salt water that is m% salty. How many gram of salt must he add to make a solution that is 2m% salty?

(A) 100 m

m + (B)

2 100 2

m m −

(C) 2

100 2 m

m − (D)

2

100 2 m

m +

15. The circle graph represents a total of 240 animals. The shaded area represents the number of monkeys. How many of the animals are monkeys ?

330°

Monkeys

(A) 8 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 72

SCIENCE

16. Which one of the rows in the table below correctly states the types of actions ?

Clapping Punching Hitting a shuttlecock

Playing the piano

(A) Pull Push Push Pull (B) Pull Push Pull Push (C) Push Pull Push Push (D) Push Push Push Push

17. Loudness of sound increases with (A) The amplitude of vibrating body (B) The increase in surface area of vibrating body (C) The decrease in frequency of vibrating body (D) The increase in distance from the source of sound

18. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below. (i) Pitch (p) Wave form (ii) Quality (q) Frequency (iii) Loudness (r) Intensity (A) (i) (q), (ii) (p), (iii) (r)


(B) (i) (p), (ii) (r), (iii) (q) (C) (i) (r), (ii) (p), (iii) (q) (D) (i) (q), (ii) (r), (iii) (p)

19. Which two planets are gas giants ? (A) Venus and Mercury (B) Saturn and Mars (C) Saturn and Jupiter (D) Jupiter and Mars

20. Match the following columns and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (i) Pressure (p) Pattern formed due to

multiple reflection (ii) Decibel (q) Unit of loudness (iii) Richter (r) Force per unit area (iv) Kaleidoscope (s) Scale to measure intensity of

earthquake (A) (i) (r), (ii) (q), (iii) (s), (iv) (p) (B) (i) (q), (ii) (p), (iii) (s), (iv) (r) (C) (i) (p), (ii) (s), (iii) (r), (iv) (q) (D) (i) (p), (ii) (r), (iii) (s), (iv) (q)

21. Statement I : It is convenient to pull luggage fitted with rollers. Statement II : Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction. (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct

explanation for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct

explanation for statement I. (C) Statement I is true and statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

22. Statement I : We can live very happily if friction is not present in nature.

Statement II : Aeroplane shape is streamlined to reduce frictional force.

(A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation for statement I.

(B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.

(C) Statement I is true and statement II is false. (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true.


23. When the distance between the object and the plane mirror increases _________ (A) The image remains at the same position (B) The size of the image becomes less than the size of the object (C) The distance between the image and the plane mirror increases (D) The distance between the image and the plane mirror decreases

24. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) Electrolysis is one of the applications of chemical effects of current. (B) A metal wire shows chemical effect when a current is passed through

it. (C) Like charges attract each other. (D) Charge flows only through negative charge carriers.

25. A student named the various layers of earth as shown in the figure wrongly. What is the correct sequence starting with the uppermost layer.

Crust

Outer core

Mantle

Inner core

1

2 3 4

1 2 3 4 (A) Crust Outer core Mantle Inner core (B) Outer core Crust Mantle Inner core (C) Crust Mantle Outer core Inner core (D) Outer core Mantle Crust Inner core

26. The ultrasonic waves take 4 seconds to travel from the ship to the bottom of the sea and back to the ship (in the form of an echo). What is the depth of the sea ? (Speed of sound in water = 1500 m/s.) (A) 3000 m (B) 2000 m (C) 1000 m (D) 500 m

27. When we jump out of a boat standing in water it moves _____ (A) Forward (B) Backward (C) Side ways (D) None of these

28. Image formed by a plane mirror is _____ (A) Virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged. (B) Virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object. (C) Real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged. (D) Real, at the surface of the mirror and of the same size as the object.


29. Radha went for a drive when it suddenly started raining and heavy lightning occurred which caused fire near by. Radha was safe from lightning because (A) She took shelter under a tree (B) She kept sitting in car with windows shut. (C) She kept sitting in car with door and windows open (D) She stood in open

30. Match the polymers in column I with their uses in column II and select the correct answer from codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Polythene (i) Nonstick pans (b) PVC (ii) Bags for food storage (c) Polystyrene (iii) Raincoats, seat covers (d) Teflon (iv) Plastic cups (A) (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (i) (B) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv) (C) (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (iii), (d) (i) (D) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iv)

31. Choose the reactions which are not feasible. I. Iron + Zinc sulphate → Iron sulphate + Zinc II. Magnesium + Silver nitrate → Magnesium nitrate + Silver III. Copper + dil. sulphuric acid → Copper sulphate + H 2 IV. Zinc + Ferrous sulphate → Iron + Zinc sulphate (A) I, II and III (B) III and IV only (C) I and III only (D) All of these

32. Tina sets up apparatus for an experiment as shown in the figure. She performed the same experiment by changing threads (a, b and c). She found that weight required to break the thread is in the order x > y > z,

Weight

Thread


where x = weight required to break a, y = weight required to break b and z = weight required to break c a, b and c can be ________

a b c (A) Nylon Wool Cotton (B) Nylon Cotton Wool (C) Wool Cotton Nylon (D) Cotton Nylon Wool

33. Meenu sets up an electric circuit by using copper wire. She repeated the experiment with : I → Aluminium foil, II → Iron nail, III → Coal, IV → Graphite In which cases the bulb will light up?

LIVECELL LIVECELL

Object

(A) I and II only (B) II and IV only (C) I, II and IV (D) All of these

34. Statement I : Most of the metals are malleable. Statement II : Metals can be drawn into thin wires. Which option is correct for above statements ? (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct

explanation for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not a correct


35. Cheenu sets up an experiment as shown in the figure. What do you think would Cheenu's observation and conclusion be ?

Paper cup Burns

Water

Paper cup does not burn

(A) Paper cup with water does not burn. (B) Temperature of water rises. (C) Paper cup loses the heat to the water by conduction. (D) All of these.


36. What are X, Y and Z ? Wells

Impervious rock

Reservoir rock

X Y

Z

X Y Z (A) Water Oil Gas (B) Oil Water Gas (C) Water Gas Oil (D) Gas Oil Water

Directions : Read the following to answer question nos. 37 and 38. Mona tries an experiment with five different metals namely sodium, magnesium, zinc, iron and copper in five different test tubes .

1 2 3 4 5

1 2 3 4 5

Add 5 ml of water in each test tube 37. Mona observed that hydrogen gas is evolved in test tube 3 only

when it was boiled. Test tube 3 contains only _____ (A) Zn (B) Na (C) Mg (D) Cu

38. Reactivity order of the above mentioned metals is _____ (A) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron > Copper (B) Sodium > Magnesium > Iron > Copper > Zinc (C) Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Copper > Iron (D) Sodium > Magnesium > Copper > Iron > Zinc


39. Match the items in column I with their preservation methods in column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Amla (i) Sodium benzoate (b) Vegetables (ii) Drying (c) Squashes (iii) Cooling (d) Spices (iv) Oil and vinegar (e) Ketchups (v) Sugar

(vi) Salts a b c d e

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (B) (vi) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (C) (ii) (i) (v) (vi) (iv) (D) (iv) (iii) (i) (vi) (ii)

40. Select the correct option which best suits the given descriptions for P, Q, R & S. P – A simple tool used for removing weeds Q – A tool which is used for ploughing with the help of tractor R – A tool which is used for sowing with the help of tractor S – A simple tool used for cutting of crops

P Q R S (A) Sickle Plough Cultivator Khurpi (B) Sickle Cultivator Hoe Cutter (C) Khurpi Plough Seed drill Hoe (D) Hoe Cultivator Seed drill Sickle

41. The microorganism in the given figure is associated with which of the following functions ?

(A) Nitrogen fixation (B) Photosynthesis (C) Transpiration (D) Both (A) and (B)

42. Statement I : Prokaryotes have a cell wall, eukaryotes do not. Statement II : Prokaryotes have a true nucleus, eukaryotes have a primitive nucleus. (A) Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the

correct explanation of statement I


(B) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false (D) Both statement I and statement II are false

43. Given below are some possible reasons for a sharp decline in population of the species given in figure. Which of the following are correct ? (i) Cleared forests (ii) Flooded large areas (iii) Polluted air and water (iv) Scarcity of food (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

44. Cloning is the production of an exact copy of a cell, any other living part or a complete organism. A sheep named Dolly was the first mammal to be cloned by Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at the Roslin Institute in Edinburgh. Find out the incorrect statements about cloning of Dolly. (i) Dolly was born on 14th February 1988 (ii) Dolly was given birth by the Finn Dorsett sheep (iii) Dolly was found to be absolutely identical to the Scottish

blackface ewe (iv) The nucleus of the mammary gland cell from the Finn Dorsett

sheep was inserted into the egg of the Scottish blackface ewe whose nucleus had been removed

(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

45. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct sequence of words to be filled in the gaps of the paragraph.

The changes which occur at adolescence are controlled by ______________ . These are secretions from ______________ glands. The ______________ begins to release from the testes at the onset of puberty. Once puberty is reached in girls, ovaries begin to produce ______________ . The production of these hormones is under the control of another hormone secreted from ______________ gland.


(A) Chemical substances, thyroid, insulin, adrenaline, endocrine (B) Hormones, endocrine, testosterone, estrogen, thyroid (C) Chemical substances, pituitary, sperms, ovules, thyroid (D) Hormones, endocrine, testosterone, estrogen, pituitary

46. Why are the environmental scientists worried about the effect of Q on P ?

(P) (Q)

(A) Because Q emits sulphur oxides in air which cause acid rain over P

(B) Because Q emits nitric acid in air which drops in the form of acid rain over P

(C) Because Q emits soot particles in air which blackens P (D) Both (A) and (C)

47. India contains globally important population of some of the Asia's rarest animals. Which of the following animals belong to that category? (i) Marbled cat (ii) Asiatic lion (iii) Indian elephant (iv) Bengal fox (v) Indian rhinoceros (vi) Asiatic wild ass (A) (i), (iii) and (vi) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (iv), (v) and (vi) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

48. A cell is considered to be a fundamental unit of life because _____ (A) It has various organelles (B) An organism is made up of cells (C) It is the smallest structure that exhibits growth, metabolism, self

regulation and self duplication (D) No smaller unit has yet been tested by scientists so far

49. There is a rich variety of crops grown in different parts of the country during different seasons. Accordingly, the vegetables belong to which of the following categories? (A) Kharif crops (B) Rabi crops

(C) Summer crops (D) None of these


50. The diagram shows the changes in the thickness of the uterus lining of a woman during her menstrual cycle. At which time is the woman most likely to be fertile?

14

P Q

R

S

28 Days

Thickness of the uterus lining

0 42

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S


MENTAL ABILITY

1. The sides of a triangle are 30 units, 70 units and 80 units. If an altitude is dropped upon the side of length 80 units, the larger segment cut off on this side is (A) 62 units (B) 63 units (C) 64 units (D) 65 units

2. Two cyclists, k km apart, and starting at the same time, would be together in r hours if they travelled in the same direction, but would pass each other in t hours if they travelled in opposite directions. The ratio of the speed of the faster cyclist to that of the slower is

(A) r t r t

+ −

(B) r

r t −

(C) r tr +

(D) r t

3. Sidh places 7 red cards, 9 blue cards, and 4 yellow cards in a bag. All the cards are of the same size and shape. He randomly selects a card. It is yellow. He does not replace it. Sidh randomly selects a second card from the bag. What is the probability that he will select a blue card ?

(A) 9 19

(B) 9 20

(C) 1 5

(D) 1 9

4. If a cylindrical cup contains water equal to th

1

8 of its whole

volume, then the ratio of the height of the cup to the depth of the water is (A) 8 : 1 (B) 6 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1.

5. In the adjoining figure, ∠A = 60°, ∠C = 50°, ∠BDG = 30° and ∠GEF = 20°. Then


A

B C D

E

F

G 20°

30° 50°

60°

(A) EG = 2FG (B) EG > FG (C) EG = FG (D) EG < FG

6. Four friends ride their bicycles at the following speeds: Jiah 9 m per second Kavita 0.6 km per minute Leena 48000 cm per minute Seema 30 km per hour

Who is riding her bicycle the fastest ? (A) Jiah (B) Kavita (C) Leena (D) Seema

7. Which expression is equivalent to (a – 1) 2 – ab + b – a + 1 – 6(b + 1) 2 ? (A) (2a – b + 1) (a + 3b – 4) (B) (2a + b – 1) (a + 3b – 4) (C) (a + b + 1) (a + 3b + 4) (D) (a + 2b + 1) (a – 3b – 4)

8. The function which represents the height, h(t), of a ball t seconds after it is kicked into the air is h(t ) = –16t 2 + 64t What does t represent if h(t) is zero of this function ?

(A) Time that ball reaches

th 3

4 its maximum height

(B) Time that ball reaches onehalf its maximum height (C) The time at which the ball is on the ground (D) Time that ball reaches its maximum height

9. In a triangle ABC, P and Q are midpoints of AB and AC respectively. R is a point on BC such that BR = 2RC. Let S be the intersection of PQ and AR. If the area of triangle AQS is 1 sq. unit, then the area of trapezium PSRB is

P Q

R

A

B C

S

(A) 6 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 9 sq. units (D) 12 sq. units


10. In a kilometre race, A beats B by 1 minute and beats C by 375 metres. If B beats C by 30 seconds, the time taken by C to run 1 km is (A) 150 secs (B) 210 secs (C) 240 secs (D) 200 secs

11. In the given figure, Ritika wants to prove that ∆JLM ≅ ∆KML. She knows that JM ≅ KL. What additional piece of information will allow Ritika to complete the proof ?

J K

L M

H

(A) JL ≅ KM (B) ML ≅ KM (C) JH ≅ HK (D) MH ≅ LH

12. Here is a magic square, created using the four numbers 10, 20, 30, 40 once in each row, column or diagonal. The value of A + B is C

A B L

10 30H M

D F

N 20

E G K10

(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40

13. In the given figure, ∠CBP + ∠BCQ = 250° and ∠ACR + ∠CAS = 230°. Find ∠B ?

B

Q

A S

C R P

(A) 70°

(B) 30°

(C) 50°

(D) 60°

14. What is the correct equation of the line to find the points on the given graph ?

(A) y = x + 3

(B) y = x – 3

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 X

Y

(C) y = 2x + 3

(D) x + y = 3


15. If 5 + 10 + 15 + ....... + 95 + 100 = + 5 a b + ......... where, a and b are integers then ____

(A) a = 1, b = 5 (B) a = 15, b = 10 (C) a = 7, b = 10 (D) a = 5, b = 15

SCIENCE 16. Which of the following figures represents a loud sound of low

pitch ? where y = displacement (m), t = time (s)

(A) y

t

1 2 1

(B) y

t

0.5 2 1

(C) y

t

0.5

1 2

(D) t y 2 1 0.3

17. A taxi driver noted reading on the odometer fitted in the vehicle as 1052 km when he started the journey. After 30 minutes drive, he noted that the odometer reading was 1088 km. What is the average speed of the taxi ? (A) 20 ms –1 (B) 25 ms –1

(C) 30 ms –1 (D) 40 ms –1

18. Two bodies have their masses in the ratio = mm

1

2 3 and their

kinetic energies in the ratio . = E E 1

2

1 3

The ratio of their velocities is (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3

19. A freely falling rubber ball strikes a hard surface and rebounds. The velocity of ball during the time of fall and rebound is best represented by _____

(A) v

t

(B) v

t


(C) v

t

(D) v

t

20. A boy lifts a weight of 25 kgf and then puts it back. To calculate work done by him, he must know (A) Mass of the weight (B) The height through which the weight is raised (C) The volume of the weight (D) Time taken to lift and replace the weight

21. In which of the following cases is work done maximum, if magnitude of force and displacement are same for all options given ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

22. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 ms –1 . Taking g = 10 ms –2 , the maximum displacement and distance covered by the stone on reaching the ground is _____ (A) Displacement = zero; distance = 80 m (B) Displacement = zero; distance covered = 160 m (C) Displacement = 80 m; distance = 160 m (D) Displacement and distance = 180 m

23. The water level in a well is at a depth of 125 m. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms –2 and a boy gently drops a stone, he hears the sound of splash in 5.35 s. The speed of sound is ___ (A) 300 ms –1 (B) 320 ms –1

(C) 368 ms –1 (D) 357 ms –1

24. Match the situations given in column I with the possible curves in column II and select the correct option from codes given below.


Column I Column II

(a) Particle moving with (p)

constant speed

(b) Particle moving with (q)

increasing acceleration

(c) Particle moving with (r)

constant negative acceleration

(d) Particle moving with (s)

zero acceleration

(A) (a) → (q), (b) → (s), (c) → (p), (d) → (r) (B) (a) → (s,r), (b) → (q), (c) → (s), (d) → (p) (C) (a) → (q,s), (b) → (r), (c) → (p), (d) → (s) (D) (a) → (s), (b) → (q,p), (c) → (s), (d) → (r)

25. The 35 kilogram girl is standing on a 20 kilogram wagon and jumps off, giving the wagon a kick that sends it off at 3.8 meters per second. How fast is the girl moving ? (A) 1.2 m/s (B) 3 m/s (C) 4 m/s (D) 2.2 m/s

26. Statement I : A spring has potential energy, both when it is compressed or stretched.

Statement II : In compressing or stretching, work is done on the spring against the restoring force.




27. Statement I : Ultrasonic waves are longitudinal waves of frequency greater than 20,000 Hz.

Statement II : The maximum frequency of audible sound waves is 20,000 Hz.





28. If we neglect the air resistance, the time taken by a freely falling body to reach the ground will not depend upon (A) Height of free fall (B) Acceleration due to gravity (C) Mass of the body (D) Speed with which body strikes the ground

29. Choose the correct statement.

Hot water Crystals of CuSO 4 X Y

Cold water

Crystals of CuSO 4

(A) Intensity of blue colour in beaker X > Intensity of blue colour in beaker Y.

(B) Intensity of blue colour in beaker Y > Intensity of blue colour in beaker X.

(C) Both have same intensity. (D) Intensity will depend on size of crystals only.

30. What are I, II, III and IV ?

I II

IV III

Heat and Pressure

Solid Liquid Gas

Heat and Pressure

I II III IV (A) Increase Increase Decrease Decrease (B) Decrease Decrease Increase Increase (C) Increase Decrease Increase Decrease (D) Decrease Increase Decrease Increase

31. Statement I : Evaporation causes cooling. Statement II : Particles of liquid absorb energy from the surrounding to regain the energy lost during evaporation. (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation

for statement I.




32. Identify AF in the given flow chart Types of colloids

A B C D E F

Aerosol Foam Emulsion Sol Gel Solid sol

A B C D E F (A) Jelly Shaving Milk Fog Cheese Gemstones

cream (B) Milk of Shaving Mud Cloud Butter Gemstones

magnesia cream (C) Cloud Shaving Jelly Fog Rubber Gemstones

cream (D) Fog Shaving Milk Mud Jelly Gemstones

cream

33. Column II gives method to separate phases mentioned in column I. Match them and select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Miscible liquids (p) Distillation (b) Immiscible liquids (q) Crystallization (c) Pure copper sulphate (r) Sublimation

from an impure sample (d) Salt and ammonium (s) Separating funnel

chloride (A) (a) (q), (b) (s), (c) (p), (d) (r) (B) (a) (p), (b) (s), (c) (q), (d) (r) (C) (a) (r), (b) (s), (c) (p), (d) (q) (D) (a) (r), (b) (s), (c) (q), (d) (p)

34. In this set X and Y cannot be

Thermometer

Water outlet Clamp

Water condenser Clamp

distillation flask

Distillate

Cold water in X Y +


(A) Acetone + water (B) Hexane + toluene (C) Ether + toluene (D) Mixture of gases from air

35. Rahul was told by his teacher to Calculate mass of the following: I. 0.5 mole of N 2 gas II. 0.5 mole of N atoms III. 3.011 × 10 23 number of N atoms IV. 6.023 × 10 23 number of N 2 molecules He calculated the mass as I = x g, II = y g, III = z g, IV = w g Which relation is correct among these ? (A) x = y = z = w (B) x/2 = y = z = w/4 (C) x = 2y = z = 4w (D) x = y = z / 2 = w/4

36. Match the compounds given in column I with the ratio of masses of their constituent elements in column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (P) Carbon dioxide (i) 23 : 35.5 (Q) Calcium oxide (ii) 3 : 4 (R) Magnesium sulphide (iii) 3 : 8 (S) Sodium chloride (iv) 5 : 2 (A) (P) (iii), (Q) (iv), (R) (ii), (S) (i) (B) (P) (i), (Q) (ii), (R) (iii), (S) (iv) (C) (P) (ii), (Q) (iii), (R) (iv), (S) (i) (D) (P) (iii), (Q) (iv), (R) (i), (S) (ii)

37. Following conclusions were drawn from the given figure: Gold atoms

αparticles

Scattering of particles by a gold foil

α

I. There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus.

II. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.

III. The electrons revolve around the nucleus in welldefined orbits.


IV. The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

V. Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the atom.

Choose the correct statements. (A) I, II and III (B) II, III and V (C) I, III and IV (D) All of these

38. "All matter is made up of very small particles which cannot be further broken down. These particles are called atoms". This statement is one of the assumptions of _____. (A) Rutherford's nuclear theory (B) Bohr's theory (C) Dalton's atomic theory (D) Kinetic theory of gases

39. Boron occurs in nature in the form of two isotopes having atomic mass 10 and 11. Calculate the percentage abundances of two isotopes respectively in a sample having atomic mass 10.80. (A) 10, 90 (B) 30, 70 (C) 20, 80 (D) 25, 75

40. In view of the current status of our knowledge about the cell structure, which of the following statement(s) about cell theory is/are correct ? (i) The cell theory does not hold good since all living organisms

are not cellular in organisation (ii) The cell theory in its modified form means that all living objects

are composed of cells capable of reproduction (iii) The cell theory means that all living objects consist of cells,

whether reproducing or not (iv) The cell theory needed modification due to the discovery of

subcellular structures such as chloroplasts and mitochondria (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (i) (D) (ii) and (iii)

41. Plastids are cytoplasmic organelles found in plant cells and in certain protists. All plastids have essentially the same structure because (i) They have to perform the same function (ii) They are localised in the aerial parts of plant (iii) One type of plastid can differentiate into another type of plastid

depending upon the cell requirements (iv) All plastids have to store starch, lipids and proteins

Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?


(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (iii) (D) (i) and (iv)

42. Which statement(s) is/are not correct in context to connective tissues ? (i) Areolar connective tissue is found in bone marrow (ii) The ground substance of connective tissue is a mixture of

carbohydrates and proteins only (iii) Lymph is a type of connective tissue (iv) Connective tissue acts as shock absorber around eye balls

and kidneys. (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (ii) (D) Only (iv)

43. Bryophytes are the first land plants but incompletely adapted to land conditions as (i) Plant body is parenchymatous (ii) Protonema is present (iii) Male gametes are motile (iv) Stomata are absent Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/are correct? (A) Only (i) (B) Only (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

44. Identify the animals from the figures given below and mark the phylum to which they belong.

P Q

R S

P Q R S (A) Mollusca Echinodermata Nematoda Arthropoda (B) Echinodermata Coelenterata Annelida Mollusca (C) Porifera Platyhelminthes Annelida Coelenterata (D) Amphibia Reptilia Protochordata Nematoda

45. The flexibility in plants is due to a permanent tissue. This permanent tissue allows easy bending in various parts of a


plant without breaking. It also provides mechanical support to plants. From the given figures identify that tissue.

(A)

Intercellular spaces

(B)

Wall thickenings Nucleus Vacuole

Cell wall

(C)

Narrow lumen Lignified thick

wall (D)

Simple pit pair

46. Match the column I (diseases) with column II (causative agents) and select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Plague (i) Rubeola virus (b) Whooping cough (ii) Wuchereria bancrofti (c) Measles (iii) Salmonella typhi (d) Elephantiasis (iv) Yersinia pestis

(v) Bordetella pertussis (vi) Entamoeba gingivalis

a b c d (A) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (B) (i) (v) (ii) (iv) (C) (iv) (v) (ii) (i) (D) (vi) (iii) (v) (ii)

47. Some gases prevent the escape of heat from the earth. An increase in the percentage of such gases in the atmosphere would cause the aquatic temperature to increase world wide which is called green house effect. Some gases causing this effect are methane CH 4 , CO 2 , chloroflurocarbon (CFC), N 2 O etc. In the given figure, the percentage effect of each gas has been shown. What gas is represented by X ?

(A) N 2 O . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

.

.. . . . .. . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . . . . .

. . . . . .

. . . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . .

. . .. . . . . . . . . . .

. . . . . .

. . . .

. . . . . . . . . .

W

Y Z

X 60 %

6 %

14 %

20 %

(B) CO 2 (C) CH 4 (D) CFC


48. The word fowl is used for domestic cock or hen. Which of the following variety/varieties of fowl is/are indigenous one/ones?

(i) Rhode island red (ii) Aseel (iii) Plymouth rock (iv) Leghorn (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iv) (D) (i) and (ii)

49. Statement I : The common name of Exocetus is flying fish. Statement II : Exocetus has wing like pectoral fins. (A) Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the

correct explanation of statement I (B) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not

the correct explanation of statement I (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true

50. Statement I : Prokaryotic cells have no membrane bound organelles. Statement II : The cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells does not show

streaming movement. (A) Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is

the correct explanation of statement I (B) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not

the correct explanation of statement I (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true


MENTAL ABILITY

1. The sides of a regular hexagon of length 2 cm are extended. The alternate sides meet in 6 new points. The area of the starshaped region so obtained is______ (A) 12 3 cm 2 (B) 6 2 cm 2

(C) 6 3 cm 2 (D) 12 2 cm 2

2. Find the number of triplets of integers in arithmetic progression, the sum of whose squares is 1994. (A) 36 (B) 45 (C) 12 (D) Does not exist

3. In right angled triangle ABC, BC = 5, AC = 12, and AM = x; MN ⊥ AC, NP ⊥ BC; N is on AB. If y = MN + NP, then

(A) y = 1 2 (5x + 12)

A

N

M C

P B

(B) y = + 5 12 12 5 x

(C) y = − 144 7 12

x (D) y = 12x

4. Four parallel lines are cut by two transversals t 1 and t 2 as shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, EF = 3 cm and CD = 2 cm, then length of GH is _____ (A) 2 cm E

F A

B G

H C

Dt 1 t 2

(B) 4 cm

(C) 5 cm

(D) 3 cm

5. Which one of the following is correct ?

(A) 3 3 7 7 ( 7 + 3)( 7 + 3 2) 24 − − 3 3 7 7 = ( 7 + 3 + 4)( 7 + 3 6) −


(B) 3 3 7 7 ( 7 + 3)( 7 + 3 + 2) + 24 3 3 7 7 = ( 7 + 3 + 4)( 7 + 3 6) −

(C) 3 3 7 7 ( 7 + 3)( 7 + 3 + 2) 24 − 3 3 7 7 = ( 7 + 3 4)( 7 + 3 6) − −

(D) 3 3 7 7 ( 7 + 3)( 7 + 3 2) + 24 − 3 3 7 7 = ( 7 + 3 4)( 7 + 3 + 6) −

6. O is the centre of a circle of diameter 4 cm and OABC is a

square. If the shaded area is 1 3 area of the square, then the side

of the square is______ (A) 3 π cm

A

O B

C

(B) 3π cm (C) 3 π cm (D) 3π cm

7. This table shows the relationship between area (a) and width (w) for rectangles that have perimeter of 40 centimetres. Which algebraic equation correctly describes this relationship?

(A) a = 15 w Area ( ) (cm) a 2

75 5 96 8 100 10 96 12 75 15

Width ( ) (cm) w

(B) a = 10 w + 25

(C) a = 20 w – w 2

(D) a = 100 – w 2

8 . Babu l v is i ts Japan and Australia on his vacation. The exchange rates between United States dollars and the currencies of the countries he is visiting are shown in the adjoining figure. When he arrives in Australia, he still has 10,500 Japanese yen. How much is this worth in Australian dollars ? (A) 64.72 Australian dollars (B) 99.53 Australian dollars (C) 162.23 Australian dollars (D) 171.97 Australian dollars

9. The table shown here contains coordinates x y 2 5 – 2 5

for two endpoints of a circle's diameter. Which of these points is the centre of the circle?

(A) (2, 0) (B) (6, 5) (C) (1, 5) (D) (0, 5)


10. At an electronics store, Sara earns a 5% commission on her sales. The table here shows her sales for four weeks.

Week 1 2 3 4 Sales Rs. 1920 Rs. 1680 Rs. 3360 Rs. 2640

Sara's Sales

What was Sara's total commission for these four weeks?

(A) Rs. 12 (B) Rs. 40 (C) Rs. 120 (D) Rs. 480

11. The table shown here contains pricing information for the chopper (a kitchen tool) that is advertised on television. The price depends on how soon a customer calls after the end of the advertisement.

Minutes (m ) after television advertisement ends

Price per chopper (in Rs.)

0 ≤ m ≤ 10 34.95 10 < m ≤ 20 39.95 20 < m ≤ 30 44.95 30 < m ≤ 40 49.95

m > 40 59.95

Approximately, how much more would a customer who orders 3 choppers, 23 minutes after the end of the television advertisement pay than a customer who orders 2 choppers, 17 minutes after the advertisement ? (A) Rs. 15 (B) Rs. 35 (C) Rs. 40 (D) Rs. 55

12. Hospital A has 360 beds, 30 of which are for criticalcare patients. Hospital B is smaller with only 164 beds, 14 of which are for criticalcare patients. Which of these following statements correctly compares the percentage of criticalcare beds at the two hospitals? (A) Hospital A at 8.3% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds

than Hospital B (B) Hospital A at 12.0% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds

than Hospital B (C) Hospital B at 8.5% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds

than Hospital A

(D) Hospital B at 11.7% has a greater percent of criticalcare beds than Hospital A


13. How many trapeziums will be needed to make the 20 th ornament in the sequence illustrated in the adjoining figure? (A) 82 trapeziums

The first ornament takes 6 trapeziums

The second ornament takes 10 trapeziums

The third ornament takes 14 trapeziums

The fourth ornament takes 18 trapeziums (B) 80 trapeziums (C) 78 trapeziums (D) 86 trapeziums

14. Which one of the following pairs of point coordinates falls on the same vertical line? (A) Points L (6, 5) and M (5, 6) (B) Points P (5, 8) and S (4, 8) (C) Points X (6, 9) and Y (9, 6) (D) Points T (5, 7) and R (5, 8)

15. Three boys agree to divide a bag of marbles in the following manner. The first boy takes one more than half the marbles. The second takes a third of the number remaining. The third boy finds that he is left with twice as many marbles as the second boy. Find the original number of marbles ? (A) 8 or 38 (B) Cannot be determined from the given data (C) 20 or 26 (D) 14 or 32

SCIENCE 16. You hold a plane mirror 1.0 m in front of your eyes and are able

to see a 15 m high tree behind you. If the mirror is 20.0 cm high, and the tree image completely fills the mirror, how far are you standing from the tree ? (A) 50 m (B) 75 m (C) 100 m (D) 25 m

17. Which of the following phenomena cannot be explained by scattering of light ? (A) Blue colour of sky (B) White colour of clouds (C) Tyndall effect (D) Formation of rainbow

18. For ensuring dissipation of same

R 2 2Ω

R 3

R 1

V in

energy in all three resistors (R 1 , R 2 , R 3 ) connected as shown in figure, their values must be related


as ______ (A) R 1 = R 2 = R 3 (B) R 2 = R 3 & R 1 = 4R 2

(C) 2 3 1 2 1

& 4

= = R R R R (D) R 1 = R 2 + R 3

19. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is P Q

R S

i

l

i

situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will _____ (A) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (B) Move away from the wire or towards right (C) Move towards the wire (D) Remain stationary

20. Two plane mirrors A and B are

0.2 m

A

B

30°

2 3 m

aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at an angle 30° at a point just inside one end ofA. The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (including the first one) before it emerges out is _____ (A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 34

21. The potential drop across the 3 Ω resistor is______ (A) 1 V (B) 1.5 V

3V

4Ω 3Ω

6Ω (C) 2 V (D) 3 V

22. Coal, petroleum, natural gas, and propane are fossil fuels. They are called fossil fuels because______ (A) They are burnt to release energy and they cause air pollution (B) They were formed from the buried remains of plants and tiny animals

that lived hundreds of millions of years ago (C) They are nonrenewable and will run out (D) They are mixed with fossils to provide energy

23. The current flowing through a mA

0

1 2

3

V 100

200

0 300

resistor connected in an electrical circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are shown in the given diagrams. The value of resistance of the resistor in ohms is _____


(A) 25 (B) 20

(C) 15 (D) 10

24. When a plane mirror is placed horizontally on level ground at a distance of 60 metres from the foot of a tower, the top of the tower and its image in the mirror subtend at the eye, an angle of 90°. The height of the tower is _____ (A) 30 metres (B) 60 metres (C) 90 metres (D) 120 metres

25. Equal currents i flow in two wires i

i

x

y along x and y axis as shown. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Magnetic field in first quadrant (p) Inwards (b) Magnetic field in second quadrant (q) Outwards (c) Magnetic field in third quadrant (r) May be (d) Magnetic field in fourth quadrant inwards or

outwards (A) (a) – (r), (b) – (q), (c) – (r), (d) – (p) (B) (a) – (p), (b) – (r), (c) – (q), (d) – (r) (C) (a) – (q), (b) – (q), (c) – (p), (d) – (r) (D) (a) – (r), (b) – (q), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

26. The image of a distant object is obtained on a screen by using a concave mirror. The focal length of the mirror can be determined by measuring the distance between ______ (A) The object and the mirror (B) The object and the screen (C) The mirror and the screen (D) The mirror and the screen as well as that between the object and

the screen

27. Statement I : Respiration is an exothermic process. Statement II : CH 4 + 2O 2 CO 2 + 2H 2 O, is an endothermic

process. (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation

for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct



28. The given figure shows important products of chlor alkali process. What are X, Y and

NaCl

At anode At cathode

(aq. solution) X Y Z

Z respectively ? (A) NaOH, Cl 2 , H 2 (B) H 2 , Cl 2 , NaOH (C) Cl 2 , H 2 , NaOH (D) Cl 2 , NaOH, H 2

29. In the given flow chart I, II, III and IV are ______ Ore

I

Metals of high reactivity

Metals of medium reactivity

Metals of low reactivity

II Carbonate

ore Sulphide

ore

Sulphide ores

Roasting

Metals

Refining

Pure metal

III IV

Oxide of metal

Reduction to metal Purification of metal (A) Electrolysis, Concentration, Roasting, Calcination (B) Concentration, Electrolysis, Calcination, Roasting

(C) Calcination, Concentration, Electrolysis, Roasting

(D) Concentration, Electrolysis, Roasting, Calcination

30. Gas X when directed towards a burning candle extinguishes it. The compound in ignition tube is _____

(A) H 2 S (aq)

Thread

Ignition tube Wash bottle

X

Sodium hydrogencarbonate

Thread

Ignition tube

(B) dil. H 2 SO 4

(C) NaCl

(D) NaOH


31. xFe + yH 2 O zFe 3 O 4 + wH 2 What are x, y, z and w respectively ? (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 1, 2 (C) 3, 4, 1, 4 (D) 3, 3, 3, 3

32. Match the following and select the correct answer from codes given below

Column I Column II (a) R 2 C CR 2 → R 2 CHCHR 2 (i) Roasting (b) ZnCO 3

∆ → ZnO + CO 2 (ii) Calcination (c) 2ZnS + 3O 2

∆ → 2ZnO + 2SO 2 (iii) Thermite process (d) Fe 2 O 3 + 2Al → 2Fe + Al 2 O 3 (iv) Addition (A) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) (B) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) (C) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) (D) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

33. Statement I : Soap solution appears cloudy. Statement II : Soap micelles are large enough to scatter light. (A) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is correct explanation

for statement I. (B) Both statements I and II are true, statement II is not the correct


34. Suresh took some sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube as shown in figure.

Test tube

Spatula containing sulphur powder Burner When he brought a wet litmus

paper near the test tube then he observed______ (A) No effect on litmus paper (B) Blue litmus turns red (C) Red litmus turns blue (D) Unpredictable

35. A liquid X is used in medicine such as tincture of iodine, cough syrups, etc. On reaction with sodium metal it gives a gas Y which burns with a pop sound. On reaction with conc. H 2 SO 4 it gives an unsaturated hydrocarbon. What are X and Y respectively ? (A) CH 3 COOH, O 2 (B) C 2 H 5 OH, CO 2 (C) CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 , H 2 (D) CH 3 CH 2 OH, H 2


36. Match the following and select the correct answer from codes given below.

Column I (Acid) Column II (Source) (p) Acetic acid (i) Sting of bees (q) Butyric acid (ii) Apples (r) Formic acid (iii) Vinegar (s) Lactic acid (iv) Rancid butter (t) Maleic acid (v) Sour milk (A) (p) – (iii), (q) – (i), (r) – (ii), (s) – (v), (t) – (iv) (B) (p) – (ii), (q) – (v), (r) – (iii), (s) – (iv), (t) – (i) (C) (p) – (iii), (q) – (iv), (r) – (i), (s) – (v), (t) – (ii) (D) (p) – (i), (q) – (ii), (r) – (v), (s) – (iii), (t) – (iv)

Directions for Q.Nos. 37 and 38 : Read the passage carefully and answer the given questions. Elements when arranged in order of increasing atomic number Z, lead to the classification known as the 'Modern Periodic Law'. Prediction of properties of elements could be made with more precision when elements were arranged on the basis of increasing atomic number.

37. An element belongs to group 17. It is present in third period and its atomic number is 17. What is the atomic number of the element belonging to same group and present in fifth period ? (A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 53

38. What are a, b, c, d and e in the given figure ? a b c d e

a b c

d As Se

Sn e Te

(A) Si P S Ge Sb (B) Si P S Sb Ge (C) Si P Sb S Ge (D) P S Si Ge Sb

39. In both evaporation and transpiration water is lost in the form of vapour yet they differ because______ (A) Transpiration is a physical process and evaporation is a

physiological process (B) Transpiration is a physiological process and evaporation is a

physical process (C) Rate of water loss differs (D) Frequency of water loss is different in both of them

40. Diaphragm is a thin muscular membrane that separates abdominal cavity from thoracic cavity. When diaphragm of man is completely dome shaped it shows______


(A) End of expiration and beginning of inspiration (B) Beginning of expiration and end of inspiration (C) Increased rate of breathing (D) Decreased rate of breathing

41. The heart is a hollow, muscular, a b

c

d

e

coneshaped organ, lying between the lungs in the thoracic cavity. In the given diagram of heart, certain parts have been labelled as a, b, c, d and e. Select the correct option. (A) The part labelled c closes shortly after

the start of ventricular systole while the d closes shortly after the diastole starts

(B) The parts labelled c and d have three and two flaps respectively (C) The part labelled b carries impure blood (D) The part labelled a carries pure blood while e carries impure blood

42. When the plant Mimosa pudica is touched, it begins to fold up and droop. The types of movement it shows are given below. Select the correct option. (i) Seismonastic movement (ii) Nyctinastic movement (iii) Thigmonastic movement (iv) Chemonastic movement (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (i)

43. Refer the given figure and select the correct option. (A) The parts labelled a and b give rise to seed

and fruit respectively (B) The parts labelled c and b give rise to seed

and fruit respectively (C) The part labelled d results in endosperm (D) Both (A) and (C)

a b

c

d

44. When parents P 1 and P 2 were crossed, F 2 progeny was produced with three fourth similar features in phenotype to P 2 and F 1 and one fourth possessed contrasting traits. If the traits being considered here are for height with 'T' for tall and 't' for short. What will be the possible genotype of P 1 and one fourth of F 2 ? (A) tt and Tt (B) Tt and tt (C) Tt and Tt (D) tt and tt


45. Water harvesting is an age old concept in India. Given below are few water harvesting and water conveyance structures (Column I) used in different states (Column II). Match column I with column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Khadins, nadis (i) Bihar (b) Bandharas, tals (ii) Kerala (c) Bundis (iii) U.P. (d) Ahars, pynes (iv) Rajasthan (e) Surangams (v) Maharashtra

a b c d e (A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) (B) (iv) (v) (iii) (i) (ii) (C) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) (D) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

46. The rate at which producers in an ecosystem capture and store chemical energy as biomass is called _____ (A) Gross primary productivity (B) Net primary productivity (C) Net secondary productivity (D) Gross secondary productivity

47. The figure shows the arrangement of blood vessels in the uterus wall and placenta of a pregnant woman. Space filled

with mother's blood

Baby's blood Umbilical cord

Developing baby

1 2

Placenta

Which of the following will increase in concentration in the blood as it flows from 1 to 2 ? (A) Amino acids (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Glucose (D) Oxygen

48. Speciation is the formation of one or more new species from an existing species. A new species of organism is formed when ______ (A) A series of mutation occur so that an organism becomes different

from the others in population, but it still shows successful interbreeding

(B) An organism is isolated from the rest of the species by geographical barrier

(C) Climate changes drastically leading to structural changes in the given population

(D) A group of organism can no longer interbreed with other closely related organisms


49. Statement I : Mendel picked common garden pea plants for the focus of his research.

Statement II : Garden pea plants can be grown easily in large numbers and their reproduction cannot be manipulated.

(A) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I.

(B) Both statements I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I.

(C) Statement I is true and statement II is false (D) Statement I is false and statement II is true.

5 0 . Wh i ch o f the f o l low ing

a b

c

d e

statements regarding the given figure of human brain are correct ? (i) Labelled part a is involved

in control of blood pressure, salivation and vomiting

(ii) Labelled part b is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of the body

(iii) The part labelled c is responsible for change in size of the pupil and activity like walking in a straight line

(iv) The secretions of part labelled d are responsible for functioning of hypothalamus

(v) The part labelled e receives and integrates signals from spinal cord.

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (v) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)


PHYSICS 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b, d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b)

13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (c) 91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (b) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (d) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b) 121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (a, b) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (d) 127. (d) 128. (c) 129. (c) 130. (d) 131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (a, b) 134. (d) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (d) 138. (c) 139. (a) 140. (d) 141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (d) 147. (a) 148. (d) 149. (c) 150. (d) 151. (b) 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (b) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (c) 165. (d) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (b) 170. (b) 171. (d) 172. (d) 173. (d) 174. (d) 175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (a) 181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (c) 184. (c) 185. (d) 186. (d) 187. (a) 188. (c) 189. (c) 190. (a) 191. (a) 192. (b) 193. (a) 194. (b) 195. (c) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (c) 200. (d) 201. (d) 202. (a) 203. (a) 204. (a) 205. (b) 206. (a, b) 207. (d) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (c) 211. (a) 212. (b) 213. (a) 214. (b) 215. (d) 216. (d) 217. (b) 218. (a) 219. (c, d) 220. (a) 221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (a) 224. (a) 225. (b) 226. (d) 227. (c) 228. (b) 229. (d) 230. (c) 231. (c) 232. (d) 233. (a) 234. (a) 235. (a) 236. (a) 237. (a, d) 238. (d) 239. (a) 240. (b)

ANSWERS 297

241. (a) 242. (b) 243. (c) 244. (c) 245. (b) 246. (b) 247. (d) 248. (c, d) 249. (c) 250. (a) 251. (b) 252. (b) 253. (a) 254. (c) 255. (a) 256. (a) 257. (d) 258. (c) 259. (b) 260. (c) 261. (b) 262. (c) 263. (b) 264. (d) 265. (a) 266. (c) 267. (c) 268. (a) 269. (b) 270. (b) 271. (c) 272. (a) 273. (a) 274. (d) 275. (a) 276. (c) 277. (a) 278. (d) 279. (a) 280. (c) 281. (d) 282. (d) 283. (d) 284. (a) 285. (d) 286. (a) 287. (b) 288. (b) 289. (d) 290. (a) 291. (a) 292. (a) 293. (c) 294. (b) 295. (d) 296. (c) 297. (a) 298. (d) 299. (d) 300. (d) 301. (a) 302. (b) 303. (b, d) 304. (a) 305. (d) 306. (a,d) 307. (c) 308. (c) 309. (c) 310. (a) 311. (d) 312. (a) 313. (b) 314. (a) 315. (a) 316. (d) 317. (c) 318. (d) 319. (c) 320. (a) 321. (a) 322. (b) 323. (c) 324. (b) 325. (b) 326. (a) 327. (a) 328. (b) 329. (b) 330. (c) 331. (c) 332. (a) 333. (d) 334. (a) 335. (a) 336. (c) 337. (b) 338. (c) 339. (c) 340. (a) 341. (a) 342. (d) 343. (d) 344. (c) 345. (c) 346. (b) 347. (c) 348. (c) 349. (a) 350. (a) 351. (a) 352. (b) 353. (d) 354. (a) 355. (c) 356. (a) 357. (b) 358. (a) 359. (b) 360. (b) 361. (c) 362. (a) 363. (d) 364. (c) 365. (b) 366. (b) 367. (a) 368. (d) 369. (d) 370. (c) 371. (b) 372. (a) 373. (b) 374. (b) 375. (c) 376. (b) 377. (a) 378. (c) 379. (d) 380. (b) 381. (c) 382. (c) 383. (b) 384. (d) 385. (b) 386. (a) 387. (b) 388. (c) 389. (d) 390. (b) 391. (a) 392. (d) 393. (c) 394. (b) 395. (b) 396. (a) 397. (d) 398. (d) 399. (b) 400. (c) 401. (b) 402. (b) 403. (b) 404. (a) 405. (b) 406. (c) 407. (c) 408. (b) 409. (d) 410. (a) 411. (a) 412. (a) 413. (d) 414. (d) 415. (d) 416. (d) 417. (b) 418. (d) 419. (b) 420. (b) 421. (b) 422. (b) 423. (b) 424. (d) 425. (d) 426. (b) 427. (a) 428. (a) 429. (d) 430. (d) 431. (a) 432. (b) 433. (b) 434. (c) 435. (b) 436. (d) 437. (d) 438. (a) 439. (b) 440. (c) 441. (c) 442. (c) 443. (a) 444. (a) 445. (a) 446. (b) 447. (c) 448. (b) 449. (b) 450. (a) 451. (b) 452. (d) 453. (d) 454. (c) 455. (a) 456. (d) 457. (d) 458. (c, d) 459. (c) 460. (a) 461. (d) 462. (a) 463. (b) 464. (a) 465. (b) 466. (d) 467. (b) 468. (c) 469. (b) 470. (c) 471. (b) 472. (c) 473. (a) 474. (a) 475. (d) 476. (d) 477. (a) 478. (b) 479. (c) 480. (a, c) 481. (c) 482. (d) 483. (d) 484. (a) 485. (c) 486. (c) 487. (d) 488. (c) 489. (a) 490. (d) 491. (a) 492. (d) 493. (a) 494. (d) 495. (a) 496. (b) 497. (d) 498. (c) 499. (c) 500. (c)

vvv


CHEMISTRY

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)

13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26 (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (a) 91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a) 101. (c) 102. (c)

103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (d) 121. (a) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (d) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (b) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (d) 141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (d) 150. (b) 151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (b) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (b) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (a) 161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (d) 165. (c) 166. (a) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (b) 170. (c) 171. (b) 172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (d) 175. (b) 176. (d) 177. (b) 178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (a) 181. (b) 182. (d) 183. (c) 184. (a) 185. (a) 186. (c) 187. (b) 188. (b) 189. (b) 190. (d) 191. (a) 192. (a) 193. (a) 194. (a) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (c) 201. (a) 202. (b) 203. (a) 204. (a) 205. (a) 206. (d) 207. (b) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (c) 211. (a) 212. (a) 213. (d) 214. (b) 215. (d) 216. (a) 217. (d) 218. (a) 219. (c) 220. (b) 221. (a) 222. (c) 223. (a) 224. (b) 225. (a) 226. (a) 227. (b) 228. (c) 229. (c) 230. (a) 231. (b) 232. (a) 233. (c) 234. (d) 235. (b) 236. (b) 237. (d) 238. (d) 239. (b) 240. (a) 241. (a) 242. (a) 243. (b) 244. (d) 245. (a) 246. (a)

ANSWERS 299

247. (b) 248. (c) 249. (b) 250. (d) 251. (d) 252. (a) 253. (a) 254. (d) 255. (c) 256. (b) 257. (b) 258. (d) 259. (d) 260. (b) 261. (d) 262. (a) 263. (b) 264. (b) 265. (b) 266. (b) 267. (b) 268. (a) 269. (b) 270. (c) 271. (a) 272. (c) 273. (c) 274. (a) 275. (c) 276. (a) 277. (c) 278. (b) 279. (b) 280. (a) 281. (b) 282. (d) 283. (a) 284. (a) 285. (b) 286. (a) 287. (d) 288. (d) 289. (b) 290. (b) 291. (a) 292. (a) 293. (b) 294. (a) 295. (b) 296. (b) 297. (b) 298. (d) 299. (a) 300. (b) 301. (d) 302. (a) 303. (b) 304. (a) 305. (b) 306. (d) 307. (d) 308. (b) 309. (a) 310. (a) 311. (a) 312. (a) 313. (b) 314. (b) 315. (b) 316. (d) 317. (d) 318. (b) 319. (b) 320. (d) 321. (b) 322. (b) 323. (b) 324. (a) 325. (c) 326. (d) 327. (c) 328. (b) 329. (a) 330. (b) 331. (a) 332. (b) 333. (d) 334. (a) 335. (b) 336. (b) 337. (d) 338. (c) 339. (b) 340. (b) 341. (d) 342. (b) 343. (d) 344. (b) 345. (c) 346. (c) 347. (c) 348. (c) 349. (b) 350. (d) 351. (d) 352. (b) 353. (c) 354. (b) 355. (d) 356. (a) 357. (c) 358. (c) 359. (b) 360. (d) 361. (a) 362. (a) 363. (d) 364. (b) 365. (d) 366. (b) 367. (b) 368. (b) 369. (b) 370. (b) 371. (c) 372. (a) 373. (b) 374. (b) 375. (b) 376. (c) 377. (d) 378. (a) 379. (a) 380. (d) 381. (a) 382. (b) 383. (b) 384. (a) 385. (d) 386. (b) 387. (a) 388. (b) 389. (a) 390. (b) 391. (d) 392. (a) 393. (b) 394. (d) 395. (c) 396. (c) 397. (a) 398. (d) 399. (d) 400. (d) 401. (a) 402. (a) 403. (d) 404. (b) 405. (a) 406. (b) 407. (b) 408. (a) 409. (b) 410. (b) 411. (a) 412. (c) 413. (a) 414. (a) 415. (d) 416. (b) 417. (b) 418. (b) 419. (b) 420. (b) 421. (a) 422. (b) 423. (b) 424. (b) 425. (a) 426. (b) 427. (c) 428. (b) 429. (c) 430. (a) 431. (a) 432. (a) 433. (c) 434. (d) 435. (a) 436. (a) 437. (b) 438. (b) 439. (b) 440. (b) 441. (d) 442. (a) 443. (b) 444. (b) 445. (a) 446. (c) 447. (b) 448. (b) 449. (a) 450. (a) 451. (b) 452. (a) 453. (c) 454. (a) 455. (a) 456. (c) 457. (b) 458. (b) 459. (d) 460. (b) 461. (b) 462. (a) 463. (b) 464. (c) 465. (a) 466. (a) 467. (b) 468. (c) 469. (c) 470. (b) 471. (b) 472. (a) 473. (d) 474. (b) 475. (a) 476. (a) 477. (a) 478. (c) 479. (c) 480. (d) 481. (a) 482. (a) 483. (c) 484. (b) 485. (a) 486. (b) 487. (c) 488. (a) 489. (c) 490. (d) 491. (b) 492. (a) 493. (c) 494. (a) 495. (a) 496. (c) 497. (c) 498. (c) 499. (a) 500. (d)

vvv


1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a)

13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26 (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (b) 100. (c) 101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (c) 121. (b) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (c) 126. (d) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (b) 130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (b) 133. (d) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (b) 140. (c) 141. (b) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (a) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (a) 161. (b& c)162. (c) 163. (a) 164. (b) 165. (d) 166. (c) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (c) 171. (d) 172. (c) 173. (b) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (a) 177. (d) 178. (d) 179. (c) 180. (b) 181. (b) 182. (d) 183. (d) 184. (d) 185. (d) 186. (b) 187. (a) 188. (c) 189. (a) 190. (a) 191. (d) 192. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d) 195. (c) 196. (c) 197. (b) 198. (a) 199. (d) 200. (c) 201. (a) 202. (c) 203. (b) 204. (c) 205. (a) 206. (a) 207. (b) 208. (a) 209. (a) 210. (a - b) 211. (b) 212. (c) 213. (d) 214. (a) 215. (b) 216. (a) 217. (d) 218. (a) 219. (d) 220. (a) 221. (b) 222. (b) 223. (b) 224. (c) 225. (a) 226. (b) 227. (b) 228. (d) 229. (a) 230. (b) 231. (c) 232. (b) 233. (c) 234. (c) 235. (a) 236. (d) 237. (a) 238. (a) 239. (c) 240. (d) 241. (b) 242. (c) 243. (c) 244. (d) 245. (d) 246. (b)

BIOLOGY

ANSWERS 301

247. (d) 248. (c) 249. (a) 250. (d) 251. (b) 252. (b) 253. (c) 254. (b) 255. (c) 256. (c) 257. (a) 258. (b) 259. (a) 260. (c) 261. (d) 262. (b) 263. (a) 264. (c) 265. (a) 266. (d) 267. (d) 268. (c) 269. (d) 270. (a) 271. (d) 272. (a) 273. (a) 274. (c) 275. (d) 276. (d) 277. (b) 278. (b) 279. (c) 280. (d) 281. (b) 282. (c) 283. (b) 284. (b) 285. (c) 286. (d) 287. (c) 288. (c) 289. (d) 290. (a) 291. (c) 292. (d) 293. (d) 294. (c) 295. (c) 296. (d) 297. (c) 298. (d) 299. (a) 300. (b) 301. (a) 302. (c) 303. (d) 304. (d) 305. (d) 306. (a) 307. (a) 308. (b) 309. (d) 310. (a) 311. (d) 312. (d) 313. (b) 314. (a) 315. (c) 316. (d) 317. (d) 318. (d) 319. (b) 320. (a) 321. (d) 322. (c) 323. (b) 324. (c) 325. (d) 326. (d) 327. (a) 328. (b) 329. (d) 330. (c) 331. (a) 332. (b) 333. (b) 334. (a) 335. (a) 336. (c) 337. (d) 338. (c) 339. (a) 340. (b) 341. (d) 342. (d) 343. (b) 344. (c) 345. (b) 346. (c) 347. (c) 348. (c) 349. (c) 350. (b) 351. (a) 352. (b) 353. (d) 354. (c) 355. (b) 356. (a) 357. (a) 358. (d) 359. (c) 360. (b) 361. (a) 362. (b) 363. (b) 364. (c) 365. (a) 366. (d) 367. (c) 368. (b) 369. (a) 370. (b) 371. (b) 372. (d) 373. (c) 374. (b) 375. (b) 376. (a) 377. (d) 378. (a) 379. (c) 380. (a) 381. (a) 382. (c) 383. (c) 384. (c) 385. (d) 386. (a) 387. (b) 388. (b) 389. (d) 390. (c) 391. (b) 392. (a) 393. (d) 394. (a) 395. (c) 396. (b) 397. (a) 398. (c) 399. (a) 400. (d) 401. (b) 402. (d) 403. (a) 404. (c) 405. (a) 406. (c) 407. (d) 408. (c) 409. (b) 410. (b) 411. (a) 412. (d) 413. (a) 414. (a) 415. (d) 416. (c) 417. (a) 418. (a) 419. (b) 420. (c) 421. (c) 422. (c) 423. (a) 424. (b) 425. (a) 426. (a) 427. (c) 428. (c) 429. (a) 430. (c) 431. (b) 432. (d) 433. (c) 434. (a) 435. (c) 436. (a) 437. (c) 438. (c) 439. (c) 440. (b) 441. (b) 442. (c) 443. (c) 444. (a) 445. (b) 446. (b) 447. (b) 448. (c) 449. (c) 450. (a) 451. (b) 452. (a) 453. (a) 454. (c) 455. (d) 456. (c) 457. (c) 458. (d) 459. (a) 460. (c) 461. (c) 462. (a) 463. (c) 464. (c) 465. (a) 466. (b) 467. (b) 468. (a) 469. (c) 470. (a) 471. (c) 472. (a) 473. (a) 474. (a) 475. (a) 476. (a) 477. (a) 478. (d) 479. (b) 480. (d) 481. (b) 482. (a) 483. (c) 484. (a) 485. (a) 486. (a) 487. (b) 488. (a) 489. (a) 490. (a) 491. (d) 492. (a) 493. (a) 494. (d) 495. (b) 496. (c) 497. (d) 498. (a) 499. (b) 500. (a)

vvv


EVERYDAY SCIENCE 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d)

13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (a) 91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (a) 101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (a & c) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (d) 111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (b) 121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (d) 133. (d) 134. (a) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (d) 139. (a) 140. (d) 141. (c) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (b) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (a) 151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (d) 160. (c) 161. (d) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (c) 165. (d) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (d) 173. (b) 174. (d) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (a) 181. (c) 182. (d) 183. (a) 184. (c) 185. (c) 186. (a) 187. (b) 188. (c) 189. (d) 190. (b & d) 191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (d) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (d) 201. (c) 202. (b) 203. (a) 204. (b) 205. (d) 206. (b) 207. (b) 208. (a) 209. (a) 210. (d) 211. (b) 212. (a) 213. (a) 214. (d) 215. (c) 216. (d) 217. (b) 218. (a) 219. (d) 220. (b) 221. (b) 222. (a) 223. (d) 224. (c) 225. (c) 226. (d) 227. (d) 228. (c) 229. (d) 230. (b) 231. (a) 232. (c) 233. (d) 234. (a) 235. (b) 236. (d) 237. (b) 238. (b) 239. (a) 240. (a) 241. (b) 242. (d) 243. (c) 244. (a) 245. (a) 246. (a)

ANSWERS 303

247. (c) 248. (a) 249. (a) 250. (d) 251. (c) 252. (d) 253. (a) 254. (a) 255. (c) 256. (c) 257. (b) 258. (b) 259. (a) 260. (c) 261. (d) 262. (c) 263. (a) 264. (b) 265. (a) 266. (c) 267. (a) 268. (c) 269. (c) 270. (b) 271. (b) 272. (b) 273. (d) 274. (c) 275. (d) 276. (a) 277. (a) 278. (c) 279. (c) 280. (b) 281. (c) 282. (b) 283. (c) 284. (c) 285. (d) 286. (c) 287. (b) 288. (c) 289. (a) 290. (b) 291. (b) 292. (b) 293. (d) 294. (c) 295. (d) 296. (c) 297. (a) 298. (b) 299. (b) 300. (c) 301. (c) 302. (c) 303. (d) 304. (b) 305. (a) 306. (a) 307. (c) 308. (b) 309. (b) 310. (d) 311. (a) 312. (a & c) 313. (d) 314. (d) 315. (c) 316. (c) 317. (d) 318. (b) 319. (c) 320. (c) 321. (d) 322. (d) 323. (c) 324. (c) 325. (b) 326. (a) 327. (c) 328. (c) 329. (d) 330. (b) 331. (a) 332. (a) 333. (b) 334. (a) 335. (a) 336. (a) 337. (d) 338. (b) 339. (b) 340. (d) 341. (a) 342. (d) 343. (c) 344. (c) 345. (c) 346. (b) 347. (b) 348. (d) 349. (c) 350. (b) 351. (a) 352. (a) 353. (b) 354. (a) 355. (a) 356. (a) 357. (b) 358. (b) 359. (c) 360. (c) 361. (a) 362. (c) 363. (a) 364. (d) 365. (b) 366. (b) 367. (d) 368. (c) 369. (a) 370. (b) 371. (d) 372. (b) 373. (c) 374. (c) 375. (c) 376. (a) 377. (c) 378. (b) 379. (d) 380. (a) 381. (d) 382. (d) 383. (a) 384. (a) 385. (c) 386. (c) 387. (a) 388. (a) 389. (a) 390. (b) 391. (a) 392. (c) 393. (c) 394. (a) 395. (b) 396. (c) 397. (a) 398. (a) 399. (c) 400. (b) 401. (c) 402. (d) 403. (c) 404. (a) 405. (a) 406. (b) 407. (a) 408. (b) 409. (c) 410. (c) 411. (c) 412. (c) 413. (c) 414. (b) 415. (d) 416. (a) 417. (d) 418. (b) 419. (a) 420. (d) 421. (b) 422. (b) 423. (b) 424. (a) 425. (b) 426. (c) 427. (b) 428. (b) 429. (c) 430. (c) 431. (a) 432. (c) 433. (b) 434. (a) 435. (c) 436. (d) 437. (a) 438. (a) 439. (a) 440. (d) 441. (a) 442. (a) 443. (b) 444. (c) 445. (b) 446. (b) 447. (c) 448. (c) 449. (d) 450. (b) 451. (c) 452. (b) 453. (b) 454. (b) 455. (b) 456. (d) 457. (b) 458. (c) 459. (d) 460. (a) 461. (b) 462. (d) 463. (b) 464. (b) 465. (b) 466. (c) 467. (b) 468. (a) 469. (b) 470. (a) 471. (b) 472. (d) 473. (b) 474. (c) 475. (c) 476. (a) 477. (b) 478. (a) 479. (a) 480. (b) 481. (d) 482. (a) 483. (c) 484. (b) 485. (a) 486. (b) 487. (d) 488. (c) 489. (a) 490. (a) 491. (d) 492. (b) 493. (a) 494. (c) 495. (d) 496. (c) 497. (a) 498. (b) 499. (a) 500. (a)

vvv


National Science Olympiad (Class - 8)

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A)

7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C)

13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (A)

19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A)

25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (A)

31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (A)

37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (D)

43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)

49. (C) 50. (B) (Class - 9)

1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B)

7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C)

13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (C)

19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C)

25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C)

31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A)

37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (C) 42. (C)

43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (B)

49. (A) 50. (B) (Class - 10)

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B)

7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C)

13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C)

19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (B)

25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (B)

31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (C)

37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D)

43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C)

49. (C) 50. (A)

nn