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VVT COACHING CENTRE ADYAR, CHENNAI-20
Time: 3:00 Hrs NEET MODEL GRAND TEST - 3 Max. Marks:720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 1. There are four parts in the question paper A, B, C and D consisting of Botany, Zoology, Physics and Chemistry having
45 questions in each part of equal weight age. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
2. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction for correct response of each question. 1/4 (one fourth)
marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
3. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction.
BOTANY
1. Which is true of the following
a)Sub – aerial stems helps in Vegetative Propagation
b)In all underground stems the food material is stored in the stem
c)In all xerophytes leaves are modified in to spines
d)All aquatic plants have off sets
2. For the complete reduction of Four molecules of Nitrogen, the number of electrons Hydrogen Ions and
ATP required respectively during symbiotic nitrogen fixation in the root nodule of Glycine max
a) 8 ,8 ,16c H ATP b) 16 ,16 ,36c H ATP
c) 32 ,32 ,64c H ATP d) 32 ,32 ,72c H ATP
3. Non mineral essential elements found in Chlorophyll
A) Iron B) Magnesium C) Hydrogen D) Carbon
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) A and D
4. There are 20% Thymine among the bases in a DNA fragment measuring 6.8 nm in length, the number
of glycosidic bond phosphodiester bond and hydrogen bond in this DNA fragment respectively.
a) 40, 38, 52 b) 20, 18, 48 c) 52, 36, 40 d) 40, 40, 52
5. The heteropolymers are
I) cellulose II) Glycogen III. Inulin IV) Protein V) Nucleic Acid
a) I and II b) II and III c) IV and V d) III, IV and V
6. Find the incorrect combination
a) Colletotrichum – imperfect fungi b) Lycoperdon – Puff bull
c) Yeast – Sac algae d) Bread mould – Algal fungi
7. Identify the correct pair of primitive vascular plant which are heterosporous
a) Sequoia – Ginkgo b) Pinus – Cedrus c) Sesbania – Butea d) Selaginella – salvinia
8. Select the Mis – Match
a) Perigynous – Plum b) Epigynous flower – Guava
c) Hypogynous flower – Pisum d) Superior ovary – Hibiscus
9. Diagnostic character of angiospermic family to which petunia belongs are all except
a) Gamopetalous corolla b) Swollen placenta c) Basal placentation d) Endospermic seeds
10. When P.S. II is excited with the light of wavelength less than 680 nm photophosporlasation occurs
due to Non cyclic flow of electrons , results in synthesis of
a) NADPH H and ATP b) Only NADPH H c)Only ATP d) NADH and ATP
11. Match the following (Column I with Column II)
a) Parasitic fungi on mustard (i) Puccinia
b) Bread mould (ii) Rhizopus
c) Unicellular fungi (iii) Saccharomyces
d) Rust fungi (iv) Albugo
The correct match is a) a (iv), b – (ii), c- (iii), d- (i) b) a – (iv), b – (iii), c- (ii), d- (i) c) a – (ii), b – iv, c- I, d- iii) d) a- iii, b – I, c- ii, d- iv
12. In Agaricus, the A are B produced on the C
a) A - Conidia, B - Exogenously ,C - Conidiophores
b) A - Basidiopores , B - Endogeneously , C - Basidium
c)A – Basidiospores, B – Exogenously, C – Basidium
d)A- Sporungiospores, B – Endogenously, C – Sporangium
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13. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. given figure
a) It is a figure of Equisetum
b) A represents the strobilus
c) B and C represents node and internode respectively
d) D is underground stem called corm
14. Which of the following statement is correct ?
a) No, microbes exhibit metabolism
b) Metabolism is defining feature of some living organisms
c) Only some organism can sense and respond to environment clues
d) All plants exhibit metabolism
15. The Angiospermic plants which shows the largest and smallest flowers respectively are
a) Rafflesia, Lilium b) Lilium, wolffia c) Rafflesia, wolffia d) Lilium lotus
16. Type of stem found in the members of Liliacae which shows protogyny
a) Rhizome b) Corm c) Bulb d) Aerial Stem
17. Set of arborescent habit of Liliacae
a) Agave, Aloe, Allium b) Dracaena, Yucca, Agave
c) Yucca, gloriosa, smilax d) Asparagus, Allium, Aloe
18. Go through the below given columns and Identify correct matching
Column – I ( Cellular components) Column – II ( Compound function)
A. Cytoplasm (i) Hydrolytic enzymes
B. Cell membrane and Vacoules (ii) Seatof metabolism
C. Ribosomes (iii) Osmo regulation
D. Lysosomes (iv) Structural and catalytic RNA
(v) Photorespiration
)
A B C D
a II III V I
)
A B C D
b II III IV I
)
A B C D
c II IV I V
)
A B C D
d II I IV V
19. In apoplast movement of water in plants water passes through
a) Plasmodesmata b) Cell membrane c) Tonoplast d) Intercellular spaces and cell wall
20. Atlas 66 is a variety of with high protein content
a) maize b) Rice c) Barley d) Wheat
21. Select the incorrect match
a) Statin - Monascus b) Cyclosporin A - Trichoderma
c) Clot Buster - Staphylococci d) Vinegar - Acetobacter
22. The smallest living organism
a) Has a cell wall made up of peptidoglycan b) is highly pleomorphic
c) is Pathogenic in cattles only d) Lacks RNA and ribosomes
23. Which of the following plant can live in soil but is dependent on water for sexual reproduction ?
a) pinus b) Marchantia c) Eucalyptus d) Nostoc
24. R. Q of germinating Fatty seed is
a) more than one b) infinite c) Less than one d) unity
25. Match the following (w.r.t one turn of TCA)
Correct – I Column – II
a) No of decarboxy lation (i) 1
b) No of oxidation (ii) 2
c) No of FADH2 formed (iii) 4
d) No of S.L.P (iv) 3
(v) 1
a) a- (ii), b – (iii), c- (v), d- (i) b) a- (iii), b – (ii), c – (v) , d- (i)
c) a – (iii), b – (ii), c- (i), d- (v) d) a-(i), b – (ii), c- (iii), d – (iv)
26. Biennials plants like ----- need to exposed to low temperature so as to hasten flowering later in life.
This treatment is known as ------
a) Cabbage, Stratification b) Winter wheat Varieties, springification
c) Sugar beet and vernalisation d) Both 2 and 3
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27. Cladophora was placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria and irradiated to mono chromatic light
wavelength. This bacteria were found to be accumulated mainly in the region of
a) Violet and Red wavelength b) Green and red wavelength
c) Blue and red wavelength d) Only in red wavelength
28. Mark the Mis – matched pair
a) NAA ---- Synthetic auxins b) ABA --- Derivative of chlorophyil
c) Kinetin ---- 6N Fur furyl amino Purine d) Gibberlic acid ---Terpenes
29. Choose incorrect option w.r.t plasmolysis
a) Water is lost first from vacuoles and then from cell cytoplasm
b) Completely plasmolysed cell can not regain its turgidity when placed in hypotonic solution
c) External solution occupies the space between shrunken protoplast and cell wall
d) Water move out of the cell through diffusion
30. Substances that have a hydrophilic moiety can move across the cell
a) Actively but are non – specific w.r.t the carrier protein
b) Using transport proteins and are not affected by protein inhibitor
c) with the help of protein carrier
d) Along the conc. gradient using ATP
31. Identify the correct set w.r.t to basic amino acids richly present in Histone protein
a) Lysine and alanine b) Leucine and Arginine
c) Glutumic acid and valine d) Lysine and Arginine
32. RNA is labile and easily degradable due to
a) Presence of thymine in place of uracil b) Absence of '3 OH group and presence of
'2 OH group
c) presence of '2 OH group d) More than one option is correct
33. Study of number of chromosomes for resolving difficulties in Classification used in
a) chemotaxonomy b) Morphotaxomy c) Cytotaxonomy d) Biochemical taxonomy
34. Mark the mis – matched pair w.r.t Bryophyte
a) Leafy stage of moss – Multi cellular and branched rhizoids
b) Protonema of moss – Frequently filamentous stage
c) Gemmae – Multicelluar sexual bud
d) Capsule – Contain spores
35. Read the following features Properly
1) Free – living 2) Mostly photosynthetic 3) Parasitic 4) Inconspicuous 5) Unicellular
How many of the given features are correct for prothallus of most of pteridophytes
a)Three b) Five c) Four d) Two
36. In which of the following plant primary root is short lived and new roots originate from the base of stem
a) Wheat b) Banyan tree c) Mango c) Rhizophora
37. Which of the following is a small pore on seed coat
a) Testa b) Tegmen c) Hilium d) micropyle
38. Which ingredient was present in high concentrations in genetically modified (GM) rice as compared to
the usual rice?
a) Protein & Fe b) Carbohydrates & Fe c) Vitamin A & Na d) Vitamin A& Fe
39. Transgenic potato plants are resistance to
a) Fungus-Agaricus b) Virus- Polysiphoniac) Fungus –Phytopthora d)Bacterium- Pseudomonas
40. Genetically modified food can be harmful because it can cause
a)Risk of changing the fundamental nature of vegetables b) Allergies and toxicity.
c) Disturbance in metabolism due to enzyme for antibiotic resistance d) All the above
41. Statement – (S. I) Frequency of crossing over is useful in designing chromosome map
Statement (S.II) Recombination frequencies are directly proportional of the distance between genes
a)Both S.I and S.II are correct
b) S- I is correct but S- II is incorrect
c) S- I is incorrect but S- II is correct
d)Both S- I and S- II are incorrect
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42. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in statements
(i) The method of producing thousands of plants by tissue culture is called ------ A------
(ii) The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell / explant is called -------- B ---------
(iii) Isolated protoplast can be fused to form --------- C ---------
BLANK A BLANK B BLANK C
a) Micropropagation Totipotency Somatic Hybrid
b) Totipotency Tissue culture Somaclones
c) Micropropagation Somaclones Totipotency
d) Micropropagation Pomato Totipotency
43. Suspended hydrophytes leading insectivorous life is
a) Nepenthes b) Utricularia c) Drosera d) Ceratophyllum
44. Find out the incorrect combination
a) Lichen – Pioneer in lithosere b) Honey bee - Most important pollinator
c) Salvia – Free – floating hydrophytes d) Phytoplankton – Pioneers in Hydrosere
45. Male sterility is induced by genetic engineering in
a) Carica Papaya b) Brassica napus c) Lycopersicon d) Brassica nigra
ZOOLOGY
46. Which animals belongs to the largest phylum and the second largest phylum of animalia respectively
a) Pila and Apis b) Aedes and Loligo c) Locusta and Pheretima d) Nereis and Octopus
47. Vitamin – K – Scientific name
a) Tocopherol b) Phylloquinone c) Calciferol d) Ascorbic acid
48. A special neural center in the …….. x……, can moderate cardiac function through …….. y ….
a) ‘X’ is not CNS, ‘Y’ is not PNS b) ‘X’ is CNS, ‘Y’ is medulla oblongata
c) ‘X’ is medulla oblongata, ‘ Y’ is CNS d) ‘X’ is medulla oblongata, ‘Y’ is ANS
49. Blood group of children would never be same, as those of blood groups of parents when the parents
possess
a) A and B b) B and AB c) AB and O d) A and O
50. How many informations are correct about the given animal leech diagram
a) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry
b) Metamerically segmented and coelomate animal
c) Dioecious
d) Closed circulatory system
e) Lateral appendages parapodia present
a) Five b) four c) Two d) Three
51. Match the column – I with column – II and Find out correct answer
Column – I Column – II
A) Spongocoel I. Arthropoda
B) Dorso – ventrally Flattened body II. Cnidaria
C) Coelenteron III. Porifera
D) Chitinous exoskeleton IV. Platyhelminthes
a)A- III, B – IV, C- I, D- II b) A- IV, B – III, C- II, D – I
c)A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I d) A- II, B – IV, C- III, D – I
52. Each eye of cockroach consists of
a) 2000 pentagonal ommatidia b) 2000 octogonial ommatidia
c) 2000 hexagonal ommatidia d) 1000 hexagonal ommatidia
53. Which of following statement is not correct about submucosal layer of alimentary canal
a) It is made up of loose areolar connective tissue b) It contains myenteric plexus of nerve net
c) It is richly supplied with blood capillaries and lymph capillaries d) Both 1 and 3
54. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man
a) Nasal cavity pharynx trachea larynx bronchi bronchioles alveoli
b) Nasal cavity Pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchioles alveoli
c) Nasal cavity larynx trachea bronchi pharynx bronchioles alveoli
d) Nasal cavity trachea pharynx larynx bronchi bronchioles alveoli
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55. Atrio – ventricular septum
a) made up of thick fibrous tissue
b) Separater same side of atria and ventricle
c) Provide with an opening through which two chambers of side are connected
so how many statements are correct
a) A, B b) ABC c) BC d) B
56. Blood clotting requires
a) Na and K
b) Na and prothrombin c) Ca
and Prothrombin d) Ca and Na
57. Which condition causes more Na in blood plasma
a) low level of ADH b) low level of aldosterone c) more level of ANF d) high level of angiotensin
58. In man number of false ribs
a) equal to the thoracic vertebrae b) More than skull bones c) Less than facial bones d) Seven pairs
59. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t the hormone, its source and function
Hormone Source Function
a) ADH Supra optic nuclei Water reabsorption in nephrons
b) ANF Heart Promote Na excretion in urine
c) Insulin Acinar cells of pancreas Glucose transport inside liver
d) Erythropoietin Kidney Promote erythropoiesis
60. Chemo – sensitive area is
a) Can increase the duration of inspiration b) It present in medulla oblongata
c) It is also called Pneumotaxic center d) It is not moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre
61. About 70% of total global carbon is found in
a) oceans b) forests c) Grasslands d) Agro ecosystems
62. One molecule of antibody contains – antigen binding sites
a) Two b) One c) Three d) Four
63. Read the following
1) Sympathetic nerves 2) Parasympathetic nerves 3) Adrenalin 4) Nor-Adrenalin
Which of the above decreases the cardiac out put
a) A,C,D b) Only A & C c) ABC d) Only B
64. Male Heterogamy and female heterogamy are respectively
a) Human, Honey bee b) reptiles Birds c) Drosophila, birds d) Honey bee, Reptiles
65. Satellite DNA is useful tool in
a) Organ transplantation b) Sex determination c) Forensic science d) Genetic engineering
66. The world summit on sustainable development held in Johannesburg in
a) 2002 b) 1992 c) 1997 d) 1982
67. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to
a) Rapid cell division b) Lack of Nutrition c) Fast mutation d) Lack of oxygen
68. Tadpole larva Tail, 2 – chambered Heart, Ammonia, Gills, etc… these are Indicates amphibians are
origin from fish,This example is relate with
a) Ernst Haeckel b) Lindmann c) Darwin d) Robert Koch
69. An increase in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of
a) Aldosterone b) ADH c) Renin d) All the above
70. Read the following statements
S1 – Tropic harbors more species than temperate
S2- Columbia located near the equator has 1400 species of birds
S3 – India has less than 105 species of birds
a)S1 and S2 are correct b) S1, S2, S3 are incorrect c) S2, S3 are incorrect d) S1, S3 are correct
71. 1) Neutrophil 2) Monocytes 3) T – Lympocytes 4) Natural killer cells 5) Antibody
How many of the above given components are not the part of innate Immunity
a) Three b) Two c) Four d) Five
72. Which of the following formula can be used to find a value of vital capacity of lungs
a) IRV + ERV + TV b) IC + ERV c) EC+ IRV d) All of the above correct
73. MTP is considered relatively safe during
a) First trimester b) Second trimester c) Third trimester d) Any time of pregnancy
74. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Visceral pericardium - 1)Epicardium
B) Cardiac muscle - 2) Myocardium
C) Endothelium - 3) Endocardium
a) A – 1, B –2, C –3 b) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2 c) A- 2, B – 1, C- 3 d) A- 3, B – 2, C –1
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75. Identify correctly matched pair
a) Vomiting centre – medulla oblongata b) Thermo regulatory centre - cerebellum
c)Respiratory centre – Hypothalamus d) Hunger centre - Olfactory lobe
76. A population splits into two or more groups and these groups occupy the different ecological zones and
they are new species is know as
a) Allopatric speciation b) Sympatric speciation c) Ecological speciation d) Autotomy
77. Layers of ovum from inner to outside
a) Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline membrane b) zona pellucida, corona radiata, vitelline membrane
c) Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida, corona radiata d) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona radiata
78. Phases of menstrual cycles in order
a) Luteal phase, ovulatory phase, follicular, menstrual b) Menstrual, luteal phase, ovulatory, follicular
c) Menstral, Follicular, ovulatory, luteal phase d) Menstral, Follicular, luteal phase, ovulatory
79. More binding of 2O with haemoglobin occurs in
a) Tissues when 2PO is high PCO2 is low b) Lungs when PO2 is high, PCO2 is low
c) Lungs when 2PO is low, PCO2 is high d) Tissues when
2PO is low, PCO2 is high
80. Vasa recta receive blood from
a) Afferent arterioles of cortical nephrons b) Afferent Arteriolers of Juxta medullary nephrons
c) Efferent arterioles of cortical nephrons only d) Efferent arterioles of juxta medullary nephrons
81. Choose the correctly matched pair
a) Wall of the blood vessel – Cuboidal epithelium
b) Tendon – Dense regular connective tissue
c) Biceps – A typical muscle provide with fusiform muscle fibres
d) Cartilage – Solid, Non pliable and resists compression
82. Glenoid forms socket for ball and socket joint of
a) Shoulder joint b) Knee joint c) Hip joint d) Elbow joint
83. Nephridiopores of Earthworm not occur in segments
a) All segments b) All segments except first two
c) All segments except first two and last d) Clitellum, First two segment and last segment
84. Common feature found in reptiles, aves , mammals
a)Air sacs b) Amnion c) Regulators d) Conformers
85. Barr bodies are present in
a) Monocytes b) Lymphocytes c) Basophils d) Neutrophils
86. Symmetry of diploblastics
a) Radial b) Spherical b) Asymmetrical d) Bilateral
87. Thermo regulators among the following
a) Pavo and Psittacula b) Aptenodytes and Pristis
c) Trygon and Pterophyllum d) Dalphinus and salamandra
88. Choose the incorrect one
a) logistic growth curve – more realistic growth curve
b) r-value – more flour beetle than Norway rat
c) Carrying capacity – A population is stable as no births and deaths occur
d) Bamboo – breed only once in life
89. In frog sinus venosus
a) On dorsal side of heart b) Carry oxygenated blood to aorta
c) Carry deoxygenated blood to aorta d) Carry mixed blood to aorta
90. Darwin Intra specific competition in for
a) food b) shelter c) reproduction d) all the above
PHYSICS
91. The figure shows two NAND gates followed by a NOR gate. The system is equivalent to the following
logic gate
a) OR b) AND
c) NAND d) None of these
92. In the figure shown the potential drop across the series resistor is
a) 30V b) 60V
c) 90V d) 120V
A
B
C
X
Y
Z
90V
2KW
2KW120V
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93. In a common emitter amplifier the load resistance of the output circuit is 792 times the resistance of the
input circuit. If 0.99a = the voltage gain is
a) 79200 b) 39600 c) 7920 d) 3960
94. The focal length of objective and eye lens of a astronomical telescope are respectively 20cm and 5cm.
Final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision. The magnifying power will be
a) -4.8 b) -4.0 c) 4.8 d) 4.0
95. The separation L between the objective ( )0 0.5f cm= and the eye piece ( )5ef cm= of a compound
microscope is 7.0cm. where should a small object be placed so that the eye is least strained
a) 0.5cm b) 3
2cm c)
2
3cm d)
1
3cm
96. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex angles 030 and refractive index
2 . The angle of deviation of the ray is
a) 030 b)
040 c) 010 d)
015
97. In young’s double slit experiment let t be the fringe width and 0I be the intensity at the central bright
fringe. At a distance ‘d’ from the central bright fringe, the intensity will be
a) 2
0 cosx
Ib
æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷÷çè ø
b) 2
0 cosx
Ip
b
æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷÷çè ø
c) 2
0 cosd
It
pæ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø
d) 2
0 cosd
It
æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø
98. The equation 4sin 20025
xy tp
æ ö÷ç= - ÷ç ÷çè ø
represents a transverse wave that travels in a stretched wire,
where x,y are in cm and t in second. Its wavelength and velocity are
a) 0.5m, 25 m/s b) 0.5m, 50 1ms- c) 1m, 50 m/s d) 1m, 25
1ms-
99. 25 tuning forks are arranged in decreasing order of frequency. Any two successive forks produce 3
beats/sec. If the frequency of the first tuning fork is the octave of last then frequency of 21st fork is
a) 72 Hz b) 288 Hz c) 84 Hz d) 87 Hz
100. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by 10sin 33
y t mpæ ö÷ç= + ÷ç ÷çè ø
and t is in seconds. The
initial displacement and maximum velocity of the particle are respectively
a) 5 3 ,30 /m m s b) 2 3 ,20 /m m s c) 7 3 ,10 /m m s d) 2 ,30 /m m s
101. The work function of a substance is 4.0 ev. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photo electric
emission from this substance is approximately
a) 220 nm b) 310 nm c) 540 nm d) 400 nm
102. If the radius of first Bohr’s orbit ix x , then de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is nearly
a) 2 xp b) 6 xp c) 9 x d) x /3
103. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays according to the sequence
1 2 3A A A Ab a a¾ ¾® ¾ ¾® ¾ ¾® If the mass number and atomic number of 3A are 172 and 69
respectively, then the mass number and atomic number of A is
a) 56,23 b) 180,72 c) 120,52 d) 84,38
104. Point charges of 93 10 C-´ are situated at each of three corners of a square whose side is 15cm. The
magnitude and direction of electric field at the vacant corner of the square is
a) 2296 v/m long the diagonal b) 9622 v/m c) 22 v/m along the diagonal d) zero
105. n charges Q,4Q,9Q,16Q…. are placed at distances of 1,2,3… metre from a point ‘O’ on the same
straight line. The electric intensity at ‘O’ is
a) 2
04
Q
npe b)
04
Q
npe c) Infinity d)
04
nQ
pe
106. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii ‘r’ and R (>r) such that the
surface densities are equal. Find the potential at the common centre
a) ( )
( )2 20
1
4
Q R r
R rpe
+
+ b)
( )2 20
1
4
Q
R rpe + c) ( )2 2
0
1
4R r
pe+ d)
( )0
1
4
Q
R rpe +
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107. The equivalent capacitance of the network given below is 1 Fm . The valence of C is
a) 3 Fm b) 1.5 Fm
c) 2.5 Fm d) 1 Fm
108. The equivalent resistance between points A and B of an infinite network of resistance each of 1W
connected as shown is
a) 1 5
2
+ b)
2 5
4
+
c) 3 5
2
+ d)
1 3
3
+
109. In an experiment with potentiometer to measure the internal resistance of a cell, when the cell is
shunted by 5W, the null point is obtained at 2m. When cell is shunted by 20W the null point is
obtained at 3m. The internal resistance of cell is
a) 2W b) 4W c) 6W d) 8W
110. The period of a thin magnet in a magnetic field is 2s. It is cut into four equal parts by cutling it along
length and breadth. The period of each of them in the same field is
a) 1s b) 2s c) 3s d) 4s
111. When a current of ( )2.5 0.5± ampere flows through a wire, it develops a potential difference of
( )20 1± volt, the resitance of the wire is
a) ( )8 2± W b) ( )10 3± W c) ( )18 4± W d) ( )20 4± W
112. The work done W by a body varies with displacement ‘x’ as
( )2
BW Ax
c x= +
-. The dimensional
formula for B is
a) 2 2ML T -é ù
ê úë û b)
4 2ML T -é ùê úë û
c) 2MLT -é ù
ê úë û d)
2 4ML T -é ùê úë û
113. A freely falling body passes through two points A and B in time intervals of 1t and
2t from the start
then the distance between the two points A and B is
a) ( )2 2
2 12
gt t- b) ( )2 2
1 22
gt t- c) ( )2 2
2 1
1
2t t- d) ( )2 2
1 2
1
2t t-
114. If q is the angle between unit vectors Aur
and Bur
, then 1 .
1 .
A B
A B
æ ö- ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷÷ç +è ø
ur ur
ur ur is equal to
a) 2tan / 2q b)
2sin / 2q c) 2cot / 2q d)
2cos / 2q
115. The horizontal and vertical displacements of a projectile are given as x=at and y=bt-ct2. Then velocity
of projection is
a) 2 2a b+ b)
2 2b c+ c) 2 2a c+ d)
2 2b c-
116. A circular hole of radius ‘r’ is made in a disk of radius ‘R’ and of uniform thickness at a distance ‘a’
from the centre of the disk. The distance of the new centre of mass from the original centre of mass is
a) 2
2 2
aR
R r- b)
2
2 2
ar
R r-
c) ( )2 2
2
a R r
r
- d) ( )2 2
2
a R r
R
-
117. Three rings each of mass ‘m’ and radius R are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia
of the system about AB is
a) 23MR b)
23
2MR
c) 25MR d)
27
2MR
Q
C
1.5 Fm
3 Fm3 Fm
P
1W 1W 1W
1W 1W 1W
A
B
R ra
A
B
9 | P a g e
118. If 484J of energy is spent in increasing the speed of a wheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm, the M.I of the wheel is
a) 1.6 kg m2 b) 0.3 kg m2 c) 0.7 kg m2 d) 1.2 kg m2
119. A sphere of mass ‘M’ and radius r rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping with a speed u . Now it
rools up vertically, then maximum height it would be attain will be
a)
23
4
u
g b)
25
2
u
g c)
27
10
u
g d)
2
2
u
g
120. If ˆˆ ˆ2 3 4F i j k= + +ur
acts on a body and displaces it by ˆˆ ˆ3 2 5S i j k= + +ur
then the work done by the force is
a) 12 J b) 20 J c) 32 J d) 64 J
121. A 6kg mass travelling at 2.5 m/s collides head on with a stationary 4kg mass. After the collision the 6kg
mass travels in its original direction with a speed of 1m/s. The final velocity of 4kg mass is
a) 1 m/s b) 2.25 m/s c) 2 m/s d) 0 m/s
122. A liquid of mass m and specific heat c is heated to a temperature T. Another liquid of mass 2
m and
specific heat 2c is heated to a temperature 2T. If these two liquids are mixed, the resulting temperature
of the mixture is (Assume no change in state of liquids)
a) (2/3) T b) (8/5) T c) (3/5) T d) (3/2) T
123. The P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure. The graphs 1 and 2
should correspond respectively to
a) 2O and He b) He and
2O
c) 2O and CO d)
2N and 2O
124. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 062 C , its efficiency is
doubled, then the temperature of source is
a) 062 C b)
099 C c) 037 C d)
0124 C
125. The ratio of the densities of the two bodies is 3:4 and the ratio of specific heat is 4:3. Find the ratio of
their thermal capacities for unit volume
a) 1:2 b) 1:1 c) 2:3 d) 16:9
126. A vehicle of mass ‘m’ is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum P. If the coefficient of
friction between the tyres and the road be m , the stopping distance is
a) 2
P
mgm b)
2
2
P
mgm c)
22
P
m gm d)
2
22
P
m gm
127. If in a wire Young’s modules Y, longitudinal strain X is produced then the potential energy stored in its
unit volume will be
a) 20.5YX b)
20.5Y X c) 22YX d)
2YX
128. In the given loop the magnetic field at the centre O is
a) 0 1 2
1 24
i r r
r r
m æ ö+ ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø out of the page b) 0 1 2
1 24
i r r
r r
m æ ö+ ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø into the page
c) 0 1 2
1 24
i r r
r r
m æ ö- ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø out of the page d) 0 1 2
1 24
i r r
r r
m æ ö- ÷ç ÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø into the page
129. A conducting ring of radius ‘r’ is rolling without slipping with a constant angular velocity w (figure).
If the magnetic field strength is B and is directed into the page then the emf induced across PQ is
a) 2B rw b)
2
2
B rw
c) 24B rw d)
2 2 2
8
r Bp w
(0,0)
P
V2
1
i 2r
1r
w
Q
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
´ ´ ´ ´ ´
P
10 | P a g e
130. An alternating voltage of ( )200 2 sin 100E t V= is connected to a condenser of 1 Fm through an A.C
ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be
a) 10mA b) 40 mA c) 80 mA d) 20 mA
131. Two masses 1m and
2m are accelerated uniformly on a friction less surface as shown in figure. The
ratio of the tensions 1
2
T
T is
a) 1
2
m
m b) 2
1
m
m c) 1 2
2
m m
m
+ d) 1
1 2
m
m m+
132. A body of mass m is suspended by two strings making angles a and b with the horizontal. Tensions in
the two strings are
a) ( )
1 2
cos
sin
gT T
m b
a b= =
+ b)
( )1 2
sin
sin
mgT T
b
a b= =
+
c) ( ) ( )
1 2
cos cos,
sin sin
mg mgT T
b a
a b a b= =
+ + d) None of these
133. A rod of mass ‘m’ and length ‘ l ’ is made to stand at an angle of 060 with the vertical. Potential energy
of the rod in this position
a) mgl b) 2
mgl
c) 3
mgl d)
4
mgl
134. The universal law of gravitation is the force law also known as the
a) triangular law b) square law c) inverse square law d) parallelogram law
135. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the following figure. Then the
velocity v of the fluid is
a) 3 m/s b) 1.5 m/s
c) 1 m/s d) 2.25 m/s
CHEMISTRY
136. Asprin has the formula 9 8 4C H O . How many atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighting 360 mg
a) 231.204 10´ b)
221.08 10´ c) 241.204 10´ d)
214.81 10´
137. The ionisation potential for the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. atom-1.
What would be the ionisation potential for the electron in the first excited state of 2Li +
a) 3.4 eV b) 10.2 eV c) 30.6 eV d) 6.8 eV
138. Incorrect order of size
a) Zn Cu Ni> > b) 2O F Na- - +> > c)
2 2O Cl S- - -> > d) I Br Cl- - -> >
139. The maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers
3, 1n l= = and 1m = -
a) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) 3
140. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen is 3 3 times that of a gaseous
hydrocarbon having molecular formula 2 2n nC H -
, the value of ‘n’ is
a) 1 b) 4 c) 3 d) 8
141. A metal form high spin and low spin complex. If difference between number of unpaired electrons is two
then the metal ion is
a) 2Co
b) 2Mn
c) 2Fe
d) 2Ni
l
030
060m
2
1 3 /Am V m sAm
2
V 2=1.5 m
/s
1.5 Am 2, V
2T1T
1T2T
mg
ab
11 | P a g e
O
O
Br
Br
O
Br
OBr
O
Br
N
H
& N
3CH
C &
O
NH C
O
2NH
HO
OH OH
O
N
3CH
&
O
3CH
NH
OH
C &
OC
O
O O
142. 3.0 mol of 5PCl kept in 1L closed vessel was allowed to attain equilibrium at 380 K. If 1.80CK = , then
calculate equilibrium concentrations of 3 2&PCl Cl respectively
a) 1.59 M, 1.59M b) 2.28M, 2.28M c) 3M, 3M d) 2.28M, 3M
143. Two complex compounds have same chemical formula one shows optical isomerism and other do not
show optical isomerism. Which kind of isomers these are
a) Ionisation b) Linkage c) geometrical d) None of these
144. Following P Vs V curve is plotted. The relation between 1 2,T T and
3T is
a) 1 2 3T T T= =
b)
1 2 3T T T> >
c) 1 2 3T T T< <
d) None of these
145. For the reaction, ( ) ( ) ( )3 2FeCO S FeO S CO g® + , 82.8H KJD = at 025 C , what is UD at
025 C
a) 82.8 KJ b) 80.32 KJ c) -2394.77 KJ d) 85.28 KJ
146. For an element having Z = 71, in which orbital the last electron will enter
a) 6s b) 5d c) 9f d) 6d
147. 2 2 2H O H O< order is correct for
a) Boiling point b) acidic nature c) dipole moment d) All of the above are correct
148. 3NaNO on heating gives which gas
a) 2O b)
2NO c) 2 2NO O+ d) NOH
149. Which of the following species iso structural planar and non polar
a) 3 3 3, ,ClF BrF XeO b)
2 3
4 4 4, ,ClO SO PO- - - c)
2
3 3 3, ,I XeF S+ + - d)
3 2 2, ,I HgCl XeF-
150. Correct order of solubility in water
a) LiOH NaOH KOH RbOH> > > b) NaF KF RbF CsF> > >
c) 2 2 2 2MgF CaF SrF BeF< < < d) LiCl NaCl KCl RbCl< > >
151. HBr¾ ¾® product. In above reaction product is
a) b) c) d)
152. Which of the following pair are metamers
a)
b)
c) d)
153. Structure of 3,4-dimethyl pent-1-en-3-ol is
a) b) c) d)
P
V
T1
T2T3
12 | P a g e
+
-
154. The major product (c) of the following reaction is
ClBr2 ./ .Br HvNa ether AlC KOHA B C
a) b) c) d)
155. Aromatic compound among the following is
a) b) c) d)
156. Green house effect is related to
a) Cultivation of green plants b) Cultivation of vegetables c) Global warming d) Global green algae
157. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution at 300 k, vapour pressure of solution containing 1 mol of
‘X’ and 3 mol of ‘Y’ is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of ‘Y’ is further added to this
solution. Vapour pressure of the solution increased by 10 mm of Hg. Vapour pressure of X and Y in
pure states will be respectively (in mm of Hg)
a) 300 and 400 b) 400 and 600 c) 500 and 600 d) 200 and 300
158. Which set of following characteristics for Zns Crystal is correct ?
a) Coordination number ( 4 : 4) ; ccp ; 2Zn
ion in all tetrahedral voids
b) Coordination number ( 6 :6) ; hcp : 2Zn
ion in all tetrahedral voids
c) Co ordination number ( 6 : 4) ; hcp ; 2Zn
ion in all octahedral voids
d) Coordination number ( 4 : 4); ccp ; 2Zn
ion in alternative tetrahedral voids
159. Given the electrode potentials
3 2 0, 0.771Fe e Fe E V
0
2 2 2 ,E 0.536I e I V
0
CellE for the cell reaction 3 2
22 2 2Fe I Fe I is
a) 1. 006V b) 0. 503V c) 0. 235 V d) - 0. 235 V
160. How many atoms of calcium will be deposited from a solution of 2CaCl by a current of 25 mA flowing
for 60 seconds ?
a) 184.68 10 b)
154.68 10 c) 124.68 10 d)
94.68 10
161. For a first order reaction A P , the temperature (T) dependent rate constant (K) was found to
follow the equation log k = - (2000) 1
T + 6.0. The pre-exponential factor A and the activation energy
aE , respectively are
a) 6 1 11.0 10 9.2s and KJ mol b)
1 16.0 16.6s and KJ mol
c) 6 1 11.0 10 16.6s and KJ mol d)
6 1 11.0 10 38.3s and KJ mol
162. In friendlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1
n is
a) between 0 and 1 in all cases b) between 2 and 4 in all cases
c) 1 in case of physical adsorption d) 1 in case of chemisorptions
163. When copper are is mixed with silica in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The
copper matte contains
a) Sulphides of copper (II) and Iron (II) b) Sulphides of copper (I) and Iron (III)
c) Sulphides of copper (I) and Iron (II) d) Sulphides of copper (I) and Iron (III)
164. In the compounds of type 3POX , P atoms show multiple bonding of the type is
a) p b) d d c) p d d) None of these
13 | P a g e
OH 2CH OH
OH
2CH OH
H
O
OH Cl 3CH
ONa ; B HCOOHA=3CH ; B HCOONaA=
2CH OHA HCOONa ; B COONa3A CH OH ; B
165. Sulphuric acid reacts with 5PCl to give
a) Thionyl chloride b) Sulphuryl chloride c) Sulphur monochloride d) Sulphur tetrachloride
166. 6XeF on reaction with KF yields
a) 7[XeF ]K
b) 2 2
4 3[ ] [ ]XeF KF c)
1
5 2[ ] [KF ]XeF d) None of these
167. Half – life of a zero order reaction is 250 sec. 75%t ,
100t of the reaction respectively in sec are
a) 500, 375 b) 375, 500 c) 300, 575 d) 575, 200
168. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species are
a) 2 2 2Cl O ClO ClO b)
2 2 2ClO Cl O ClO c) 2 2 2Cl O ClO ClO d)
2 2 2ClO Cl O ClO
169. Which is not a true statement ?
a) - carson of - amino acid is asymmetric
b) All proteins are found in L – form
c) Human body can synthesize all proteins they need
d) At 7Hp both aminot acid carboxylic groups exist I ionissed form
170. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer
A Melamine b) Glyplol c) Dacron d) Neoprene
171. The correct order of 2
0
/MME values with negative sign for four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is
a) Cr> Mn > Fe > Co b) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co c) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co d) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co
172. Which of the following is not true ?
a) Amplicillin is not a natural antibiotic b) Vancomycin is a broad spectrum antibiotic
c) Erythromycin is a bacteriostic antibiotic d) Prontosil is not converted into sulphonilamide in the body
173. 2
/HCHO H
H O
X, Where ‘X’ is
a) b) c) d)
174.
a) 3 – methyl butan – 2 - ol b) 2 – methyl butan – 3 - ol
c) 2 – methyl butan – 2 - ol d) Pentan – 2 - ol
175. Which of the following will be most easily attacked by an electrophilic?
a) b) c) d)
176. With two different aldehydes when one of them is formaldehyde on treatment with 50% NaOH solution
then A and B are formed. Where A and B are
CHO50%
NaOHHCHO A B
a) b)
c) d)
3
3 ;H OEtherCH MgBr A B
'B'IUPAC nameof is
14 | P a g e
2NH
N
H
N
H
2NH
2 2 2
4
/
,278
Br H O NaNo
HBF KA B C , Where 'C' is
177. The reagent which does not react with both, acetone and benzaldehyde?
a) Sodium hydrogen sulphite b) Phenyl hydrazine c) Fehling’s solution d) Grignard reagent
178.
2 4N BF
BrBr
Br
BrBr
Br
Br
Br
F
Br
2NH
BrBra) b) c) d)
F
179. The major product of the following is
OH
2NH
02
0 ,
NaNO HCl
C OH
?
OH
N N
ONa
2N Cl
OHN N OH
Cl
a) b)c) d)
180. Among the following amines, the strongest bransted base is
a)3NH b) c) d)
15 | P a g e
NEET MODEL GRAND TEST – 3 KEY
1) a 2) c 3) c 4) a 5) c 6) c 7) d 8) c 9) c 10) a
11) a 12) c 13) d 14) d 15) c 16) b 17) b 18) b 19) d 20) d
21) c 22) b 23) b 24) c 25) a 26) c 27) c 28) b 29) a 30) c
31) d 32) c 33) a 34) c 35) a 36) a 37) d 38) d 39) c 40) d
41) a 42) a 43) b 44) c 45) b 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) c
51) c 52) c 53) b 54) b 55) b 56) c 57) d 58) c 59) c 60) b
61) a 62) a 63) d 64) c 65) c 66) a 67) a 68) a 69) d 70) a
71) b 72) a 73) a 74) a 75) a 76) a 77) c 78) c 79) b 80) c
81) b 82) a 83) d 84) b 85) d 86) a 87) a 88) c 89) a 90) d
91) b 92) a 93) a 94) a 95) c 96) d 97) c 98) b 99) c 100) a
101) b 102) b 103) b 104) a 105) d 106) a 107) b 108) a 109) b 110) a
111) a 112) b 113) a 114) a 115) a 116) b 117) d 118) c 119) c 120) c
121) b 122) d 123) a 124) b 125) b 126) d 127) a 128) b 129) a 130) d
131) d 132) c 133) d 134) c 135) c 136) d 137) c 138) c 139) c 140) b
141) a 142) a 143) c 144) b 145) b 146) b 147) d 148) a 149) d 150) c
151) b 152) c 153) a 154) c 155) a 156) c 157) b 158) d 159) a 160) a
161) d 162) a 163) c 164) c 165) b 166) a 167) b 168) d 169) b 170) d
171) b 172) d 173) d 174) a 175) b 176) c 177) c 178) b 179) a 180) c
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