W¥khÃkrºkfk WÃkh ÷¾ðkLkk Au · given for the corresponding question in the test booklet. 9....

NMMS-SAT-18 VIII S4 2 of 40

«&™kuLkkt sðkçk ÷ÏÞk Ãknu÷kt Lke[uLke Mkq[Lkkyku æÞkLkÚke ðkt[ku. ík{khk sðkçk ík{Lku ykÃku÷e MktÞwõíkW¥khÃkrºkfk WÃkh ÷¾ðkLkk Au :

1. {nuhçkkLke fheLku ík{khku fUÿ Mktfuíkktf yLku ykMkLk ¢{ktf ytf{kt MÃküÃkýu ÷¾ku. (yuf [kuhMk{kt yuf s ytfíku {wsçk) ík{khku ykMkLk ¢{ktf ÷ÏÞk Ãknu÷kt íku çkhkuçkh Au íkuLke ¾kíkhe fhku. fkuEÃký ¾kLkwt ¾k÷e Lk hnuíkuLke fk¤S ÷ku. «&™ÃkwÂMíkfk yLku W¥khÃkwÂMíkfk WÃkhLkk [kuhMk{kt ykMkLk ¢{ktf yLku fUÿ Mktfuíkktf{ktLkku«íÞuf ytf yLku þqLÞ Ãký ÞkuøÞ søÞkyu ÷¾ku.

WËknhýkÚko :

2. Ëhuf «&™Lku yuf økwý Au.

3. çk½k s «&™ku Wfu÷ðk ykð~Þf nkuðkÚke W¥khku ÷¾ðk Ãknu÷kt MktÃkqýo «&™Ãkrºkfk ðkt[ðkLkku ykøkún hk¾þkuLkrn.

4. Ãknu÷k «&™Úke þYykík fhku yLku yuf ÃkAe yuf «&™ Wfu÷íkk sE ytík MkwÄe fk{ fhku.

5. yufkËk «&™Lkku W¥kh Lk ykðzu íkku íkuLke ÃkkA¤ ðÄw Mk{Þ çkhçkkË Lk fhþku. ykøk¤Lkku «&™ Wfu÷ku. çkÄk«&™ku Ãkíke økÞk ÃkAe Mk{Þ çkkfe nþu íkku hne økÞu÷k «&™ku ytøku ík{u Vhe rð[kh fhe þfþku.

6. «&™ Wfu÷ðk {kxu ík{Lku {¤íkku Mk{Þ yufË{ Úkkuzku Au. íkuÚke Mk{ÞLkku ðÄw{kt ðÄw Mkkhe heíku WÃkÞkuøk fhku.

7. æÞkLk{kt hk¾ku fu ík{khu sðkçkku W¥kh ÃkrºkfkLkk “þk÷uÞ ûk{íkk Ãkheûkk” (SCHOLASTIC APTI-TUDE TEST) yk rð¼køk{kt s LkkUÄðkLkk Au.

8. Ëhuf «&™Lkk W¥kh {kxu «&™ Ãkrºkfk{kt ÃkÞkoÞ ykÃÞkt Au. íku{ktÚke ík{Lku ÞkuøÞ ÷køku íku ÃkÞkoÞLkku ¢{ktf swykuyLku íku ¢{ktfLkk ðíkwo¤{kt fk¤e þkne ¼heLku sðkçk ykÃkku. yk fk{ ík{khe W¥khÃkrºkfk WÃkh ÞkuøÞ «&™ykøk¤ fhðkLkwt Au. ík{khe «&™Ãkrºkfk WÃkh Lknª.

9. {nuhçkkLke fhe yk ÃkwÂMíkfk{kt fUÿ Mktfuíkktf yLku ykMkLk ¢{ktf íku{s fk[k fk{ rMkðkÞ yLÞ fkuE s ÷¾kýLk ÷¾þku.

10. nðu ík{u sðkçk ykÃkðkLke þYykík fhku.

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers areto be given on the answer-sheet, which combines both the tests:

1. Please write your Centre Code and Seat No. very clearly (only one digit in on block).Before writing your Seat No. get it ascertaine from the Centre Conductor. Please see thatno block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing in the Centre Code and Seat No. arecorrectly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the cooklet and on the answer sheet.

Example :

For all subsequent purposes your Centre Code and Seat No. shall remain the same. Centreonce alloted will not be changed

2. All questions carry one mark each.

3. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the whole question paperbefore beginning to answer it.

4. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after another till you finish.

5. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and passon to the next one. Time permitting you can come back to the questions which you haveleft in the first instance and try them again.

6. Since the time alloted is very short you should make best use of it.

7. Remember you have to mark on your answers in “Scholastic Aptitude Test” Section ofthe answer-sheet only.

8. Answer to each question is to be indicated in the answer-sheet by encircling with blackpen in the appropriate number of alternative inthe answer-sheet from amongst the onesgiven for the corresponding question in the test booklet.

9. Do not write anything except Centre Code Seat No. and rough work anywhere in thisbooklet.

10. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.



þk÷uÞ ûk{íkk Ãkheûkk

1. [wtçkfeÞ çk¤hu¾kykuLke MktË¼o{kt Lke[u{ktÚke fÞwt rðÄkLk yÞkuøÞ Au ?

(1) [wtçkfeÞ çk¤hu¾kyku yufçkeòLku ykf»kuo Au.(2) [wtçkfeÞ çk¤hu¾kyku yufçkeòLku AuËíke LkÚke.(3) [wtçkfeÞ çk¤hu¾kyku yufçkeòLku Ëqh Äfu÷u Au.(4) [wtçkfeÞ çk¤hu¾kyku n{uþk W¥kh Äúwð{ktÚke Lkef¤e Ërûký Äúwð MkwÄe òÞ Au.

2. ykÃkkík rfhý yLku ÃkhkðŠíkík rfhý yk çkÒku ðå[uLkku ¾qýku 900 nkuÞ íkku, ykÃkkík fkuý (i) yLku ÃkhkðŠíkíkfkuý (r) Lkk {kÃk fux÷k nþu ?

(1) i = 45o , r = 90o

(2) i = 90o , r = 90o

(3) i = 90o , r = 45o

(4) i = 45o , r = 45o

3. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞw yuf{ íkkÃk{kLk (W»ýíkk{kLk) {kÃkðk {kxu ðkÃkhðk{kt ykðíkwt LkÚke ?

(1) fì÷he (Cal)

(2) MkuÂÕMkÞMk (oC)

(3) VuhuLknex (oF)

(4) fuÂÕðLk (K)

4. «íÞuf 1.5 V rð¼ðktíkhLke 4 rðãwík fkuþkuLku çkìxhe MðYÃk{kt òuzðk{kt ykÔÞk, íkku çkìxheLkwt rð¼ðktíkh fux÷wtykðþu ?

(1) 1.5 V (2) 4.5 V

(3) 5.5 V (4) 6.0 V

5. æðrLk íkhtøkLke ðkhtðkrhíkk ......... yk yuf{{kt {kÃkðk{kt ykðu Au.

(1) {exh (m)

(2) ÷exh (l)

(3) nxoÍ (Hz)

(4) fì÷he (Cal)


1. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to magnetic lines of force ?

(1) Magnetic lines of force attracts each other.(2) Magnetic lines of force does not intercepts each other.(3) Magnetic lines of force repels each other.(4) Magnetic lines of force starts from north Pole and ends South Pole.

2. If the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is 90o, what are the values ofthe angle of incidence and angle of reflection ?

(1) i = 45o , r = 90o

(2) i = 90o , r = 90o

(3) i = 90o , r = 45o

(4) i = 45o , r = 45o

3. Which of the following unit is not used for measuring temperature ?

(1) Calorie (Cal)

(2) Celsius (oC)

(3) Fahrenheit (oF)

(4) Kelvin (K)

4. 4 electic cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a battery. Whatwill be the potential difference of battary ?

(1) 1.5 V (2) 4.5 V

(3) 5.5 V (4) 6.0 V

5. The frequency of sound waves is measured in ......... unit.

(1) meter (m)

(2) litre (l)

(3) Hertz (Hz)

(4) Calorie (Cal)


6. xuçk÷Ãkh hk¾u÷ yuf ÄkíkwLkk xwfzkLkwt ðsLk 98 N Au. xwfzkLke íkr¤ÞkLke ÷tçkkE 0.5 {exh yLku Ãknku¤kE0.2 {exh Au íkku íku xwfzku xuçk÷ Ãkh fux÷wt Ëçkký «Þwõík fhþu ?

(1) 980 Pa (2) 98 Pa

(3) 9.8 Pa (4) 0.98 Pa

7. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke sqÚk{kt Lk çktÄçkuMkíke Lk nkuÞ íkuðe hkþe fE ?

(1) ÿÔÞ{kLk (2) ÷tçkkE

(3) Mk{Þ (4) ÍzÃk

8. yuf LkkËfkxku 5 MkufuLz{kt 1000 ðkh ftÃkLk fhu Au. íkku íku{ktÚke rLk{koý ÚkLkkh æðrLkLke ðkhtðkrhíkk fux÷e ?

(1) 5000 Hz

(2) 500 Hz

(3) 200 Hz

(4) 2000 Hz

9. Ãkkýe{kt Lkk¾ðk{kt ykðíke ðMíkw ÃkkýeÃkh íkhu Au. fkhý –

(1) Ã÷kðf çk¤, økwYíðeÞ çk¤ fhíkkt ðÄw nkuÞ Au.(2) Ã÷kðf çk¤, økwYíðeÞ çk¤ fhíkkt ykuAwt nkuÞ Au.(3) Ã÷kðf çk¤ yLku økwYíðeÞ çk¤ Mk{kLk nkuÞ Au.(4) ðMíkwÃkh økwYíðeÞ çk¤ r¢Þk fhíkwt LkÚke.

10. {kLkð ......... yk ðkhtðkrhíkkLkku æðLke Mkkt¼¤e þfu Au.

(1) 1 Hz Úke 20,000 Hz

(2) 20 Hz Úke 20,000 Hz

(3) 1 Hz Úke 2,000 Hz

(4) 20 Hz Úke 2,000 Hz11. MkqÞoLkk fUÿ¼køk{kt ......... yu $ÄýLkwt fkÞo fhu Au.

(1) nkRzÙkusLk (2) nur÷Þ{(3) ykpÂõMksLk (4) LkkRxÙkusLk


6. A metal block of weight 98 N is placed on table. The bottom length of block is 0.5 mand width 0.2 m. Find the pressure exerted by block on the table ?

(1) 980 Pa (2) 98 Pa

(3) 9.8 Pa (4) 0.98 Pa

7. Choose the incorrect quantity from the following group Mass, Length, Time, Speed.

(1) Mass (2) Length

(3) Time (4) Speed

8. A tunning fork vibrates 1000 times in 5 second, then find the frequency of soundproduced by it ?

(1) 5000 Hz

(2) 500 Hz

(3) 200 Hz

(4) 2000 Hz

9. The object floats on water because -

(1) Buoyant force exceeds the gravitational force

(2) Buoyant force is less than the gravitational force

(3) Buoyant force and gravitational force are equal

(4) Gravitational force is not acting on object

10. ........ frequency of sound can heard by human.

(1) 1 Hz to 20,000 Hz

(2) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

(3) 1 Hz to 2,000 Hz

(4) 20 Hz to 2,000 Hz

11. In centre of sun ........ acts as a fuel.

(1) Hydrogen (2) Helium

(3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen


12. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke srx÷ MktÞkusLk fÞwt Au ?

(1) Mkkfh (2) {eXwt

(3) ø÷wfkuÍ (4) rn{kuø÷kuçkeLk

13. «ðkne yLku ½Lk ÃkËkÚkoLkk rð»k{ktøke r{©ýLku .......... fnu Au.

(1) fr÷÷ (2) ÿkðý

(3) rLk÷tçkLk (4) Mktr{©

14. 3CaCO 2HCl A B C

WÃkhLke «r¢Þk{ktLkk A, B yLku C yku¤¾ku.

(1) 2 2 2CaCl CO H O

(2) 2 2 2CaCl 2 CO 2 H O

(3) 2 2 2CaCl 2 CO H O

(4) 2 2 2CaCl CO 2 H O

15. ykÃkýe þheh{ktLkwt fÞwt yurMkz ykÃkýk yLkwðtrþf økwý (÷ûkýku) Lk¬e fhu Au ?

(1) RNA (2) DNA

(3) HCl (4) H2SO4

16. ïMkLk «r¢Þk{kt ïkMk {khVíku ÷uðk{kt ykðíke nðk{ktLkku ykpÂõMksLk fku»k{ktLkk ø÷wfkuÍ MkkÚku «r¢Þk ÚkE.......... íkiÞkh ÚkkÞ Au.

(1) CO2 yLku Ãkkýe

(2) CO2 yLku H2

(3) CO2 yLku LkkRxÙkusLk

(4) H2S yLku Ãkkýe

17. Lke[u{ktÚke yfkçkorLkf MktÞkusLk fÞwt ?

(1) Mkkfh (2) {kuhÚkwÚkq

(3) ÞwrhÞk (4) fÃkqh


12. Which is the complex compound among the following substances ?

(1) Sugar (2) Common salt

(3) Glucose (4) Haemoglobin

13. Heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a ......... .

(1) Colloid (2) Solution

(3) Suspension (4) Alloy

14. 3CaCO 2HCl A B C

Identify A, B & C in above reaction.

(1) 2 2 2CaCl CO H O

(2) 2 2 2CaCl 2 CO 2 H O

(3) 2 2 2CaCl 2 CO H O

(4) 2 2 2CaCl CO 2 H O

15. Name the acid that decides the heredity property in our body.

(1) RNA (2) DNA

(3) HCl (4) H2SO4

16. During the process of respiration glucose in the cells reacts with oxygen to form......... .

(1) CO2 and water

(2) CO2 and H2

(3) CO2 and nitrogen

(4) H2S and water

17. Which is the inorganic compound among the following ?

(1) Sugar (2) Blue vitriol

(3) Urea (4) Camphor


18. yýw¼èe{kt þ]t¾÷k «r¢Þk rLkÞtrºkík fhðk {kxu Lke[u{ktÚke þuLke ykð~Þfíkk nkuÞ Au ?

(1) «kuxkuLkLkku ðuøk yLku MktÏÞk ðÄkhðe.

(2) LÞwxÙkuLMkLkku ðuøk yLku MktÏÞk ykuAe fhðe.

(3) LÞqxÙkuLMkLkku ðuøk ðÄkhe yLku MktÏÞk ykuAe fhðe.

(4) WÃkh{ktÚke fkuEÃký Lknª.

19. ‘L’ yk fûkkLke R÷uõxÙkuLk Mk{kðkLke ûk{íkk fux÷e nkuÞ Au ?

(1) 2 (2) 8

(3) 18 (4) 6

20. xk{uxk{kt fÞk «fkhLkwt yìrMkz nkuÞ Au ?

(1) MkkÞrxÙf yìrMkz

(2) xkxkorhf yìrMkz

(3) ykpõMkpr÷f yìrMkz

(4) ÷ìÂõxf yìrMkz

21. hkMkkÞrýf ¾kíkhLkk yLkkð~Þf yríkðÃkhkþLku ÷eÄu ¾uíkeLke s{eLk{kLkwt .......Lkwt «{ký ðÄu Au.

(1) çkuRÍ (2) yìrMkz

(3) ûkkh (4) yk{ktÚke yufÃký Lknª.

22. fìLMkh suðk «ký½kíkf hkuøkÃkh ðiÄrfÞ WÃk[kh{kt fÞk «fkhLkk rfhýkuíMkkhe Mk{MÚkkrLkfLkku WÃkÞkuøk fhðk{ktykðu Au ?

(1) ÞwhurLkÞ{ - 235 (2) fkuçkkÕx - 60

(3) ykÞkurzLk - 131 (4) fkçkoLk - 14

23. ðLkMÃkríkLkk ð]rØ {kxu ........ ½xfLke ykð~Þfíkk nkuÞ Au.

(1) nkRzÙkusLk

(2) ykpÂõMksLk

(3) LkkRxÙkusLk

(4) MkkurzÞ{


18. In the nuclear reactor to control the chain reaction, it is necessary to ........ .

(1) Increase the speed and number of protons.

(2) Decrease the speed and number of neutrons.

(3) Increase the speed of neutrons and decrease its number.

(4) None of the above.

19. The maximum capacity of ‘L’ shell is ........ electrons.

(1) 2 (2) 8

(3) 18 (4) 6

20. Name the acid present in tomato.

(1) Citric acid

(2) Tartaric acid

(3) Oxalic acid

(4) Lactic acid

21. Due to excessive use of chemical Fertilisers the ........ of soil increases.

(1) basicity (2) acidity

(3) salt (4) None of these

22. Which among the following radioactive isotopes is used in treatment of cancerdisease ?

(1) Uranium - 235 (2) Cobalt - 60

(3) Iodine - 131 (4) Carbon - 14

23. For growth of plants ........ is essential.

(1) Hydrogen

(2) Oxygen

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Sodium


24. sqÚk{kt çktÄ çkuMkíkku Lk nkuÞ íkuðku þçË yku¤¾ku.

(1) økku¤kfkh (2) íkhVËkh (Tarafdar)

(3) Ëtzkfkh (4) MkŠÃk÷kfkh

25. sqÚk{kt çktÄ çkuMkíkku Lk nkuÞ íkuðku þçË yku¤¾ku.

(1) ykrËSð (2) fðf

(3) Sðkýwt (4) þuðk¤

26. fqíkhku fhzu íku ÃkAeLkk ........ rËðMkku{kt huçkeÍ yk hkuøkLkk ÷ûkýku Ëu¾kðk ÷køku Au.

(1) 90 Úke 175 (2) 90 Úke 120

(3) 90 Úke 150 (4) 90 Úke 110

27. òøkríkf ykhkuøÞ rËLk ...... rËðMku {Lkkðk{kt ykðu Au.

(1) 14 sqLk (2) 29 MkÃxUçkh

(3) 7 yur«÷ (4) 14 LkkuÔnUçkh

28. LkiMkŠøkf Ãkkýe «Ëw»kýLkk fkhýku fÞk ?

(1) rLkðkMke ûkuºkLkwt {r÷Lk Ãkkýe

(2) sr{LkLkwt Äkuðký

(3) ¾rLks íku÷Lkwt øk¤íkh

(4) ¾kíkh yLku rfxfLkkþfkuLkku ðÃkhkþ

29. Ãk]ÚðeÃkh Ëh ð»kuo ytËksu ........ ÄhíkeftÃk ÚkkÞ Au(1) 12,500 - 14,500

(2) 12,000 - 14,000

(3) 12,400 - 14,000

(4) 12,200 - 14,200

30. ykrËfUÿeÞ fkuþLkku ykfkh ........ nkuÞ Au.

(1) 5 - 100 {kR¢ku{exh (2) 1 - 10 {kR¢ku{exh

(3) 5 - 100 LkìLkku{exh (4) 1 - 10 LkìLkku{exh


24. Find odd word from given group.

(1) Coecus (2) Tarafdar

(3) Bacillus (4) Spiral


(1) Protozoa (2) Fungui

(3) Bacteria (4) Algae

26. After dog bite symptoms of Rabbies appear within ......... days.

(1) 90 to 175 (2) 90 to 120

(3) 90 to 150 (4) 90 to 110

27. World health day is observed on .........

(1) 14th June (2) 29th September

(3) 7th April (4) 14th November

28. Which of the following is natural cause of water Pollution ?

(1) Waste water from Residential area.

(2) Erosion of soil.

(3) leakage of mineral oil

(4) use of insecticides and fertilizers.

29. Average annual occurence of earthquake is ......... .

(1) 12,500 - 14,500

(2) 12,000 - 14,000

(3) 12,400 - 14,000

(4) 12,200 - 14,200

30. Size of Prokaryotic cell is ....... .

(1) 5 - 100 micrometre (2) 1 - 10 micrometre

(3) 5 - 100 nanometre (4) 1 - 10 nenometre


31. nrhíkÿÔÞku (nrhík÷ðf)Lke ykf]rík{kt ÚkkÞ÷ufkuRz yk ¼køk yku¤¾ku.

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

32. Mkk{kLÞík: {kLkðe ÓËÞLkk Ëhuf ÄçkfkLku ytËksu .............. r{÷e÷exh ÷kune Äfu÷ðk{kt ykðu Au.

(1) 72 (2) 75

(3) 71 (4) 70

33. sqÚk{kt Lk çkuMkíkku þçË yku¤¾ku.

(1) ÞwrhÞk (2) y{kurLkÞk

(3) r¢yurxLkeLk (4) fìÂÕþÞ{

34. hýÚktçkkuhLkwt y¼ÞkhÛÞ .............. {kxu «rMkØ Au.

(1) ®Mkn (2) Ãkèkðk¤k ðk½

(3) íkhMk (4) nhý

35. ½kMkðk¤k «Ëuþ{kt .............. ðLkMÃkrík nkuÞ Au.

(1) Mkkøk (2) fwMk¤e

(3) ËuðËkh (4) [tËLk


31. Identify ‘Thylakoid’ from given diagram of Chloroplasts.

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

32. Human heart pushes ......... ml. of blood in one beat.

(1) 72 (2) 75

(3) 71 (4) 70


(1) Urea (2) Ammonia

(3) Creatinin (4) Calcium

34. Ranthambhor Sanctuary is Famous for ....... .

(1) Lion (2) Tiger

(3) hynae (4) deer

35. ........ Plant is found in grassland region.

(1) Teak (2) Kusali

(3) Deodar (4) Sandal wood


36. rLkBLkr÷r¾ík ½xLkkykuLku fk¤¢{ yLkwMkkh ÷¾ku.

(y) ðMkELke MktÄe (çk) Mkíke«Úkk çktÄeLkku fkÞËku

(f) rîíkeÞ ytøkúus-{hkXk ÞwØLke Mk{kró (z) Mkk÷çkkRLke MktÄe

ÃkÞkoÞ

(1) y, f, çk, z (2) çk, f, z, y

(3) z, y, f, çk (4) f, z, çk, y

37. 1857 Lkk rðÃ÷ðLkk MÚk¤ku yLku íÞktLkk ykøkuðkLkkuLke òuze ykÃke Au. íku{ktÚke ¼w÷ ¼hu÷e òuze yku¤¾ku.

(1) fkuÕnkÃkwh - r[{kMkknuçk

(2) LkhøkwtË - çkkçkkMkknuçk ¼kðu

(3) Mktøk{Lkuh - ¼køkkuS LkkRf

(4) MkkíkÃkwzk ÃkrhMkh - htøkku çkkÃkwS

38. Ä{oMkwÄkhýk [¤ð¤Lku fkhýu ÄkŠ{f ûkuºk{kt {kýMkLkk ......... Lku {n¥ð {éÞwt.

(1) ði¿kkrLkf árüfkuý yLku ytÄ©Øk rLk{w÷oLk

(2) MðkíktºÞ yLku çkwrØ «{ký

(3) ¾økku¤þk† yLku økrýíkþk†

(4) MÚkkÃkíÞf÷k yLku ðkMíkwþk†

39. 1 {u 1960 Lkk rËðMku fÞk hkßÞLkwt rLk{koý ÚkÞwt ?

(1) økkuðk (2) fýkoxf

(3) yktÄú«Ëuþ (4) {nkhk»xÙ

40. {wÂM÷{ku {kxu rð¼õík {íkËkhMkt½Lku hk»xÙeÞ Mk¼kyu ............. fhkh yLkwMkkh {kLÞíkk ykÃke.

(1) {ku÷uo - ®{xku fhkh (2) ÷¾Lkki fhkh

(3) ÷knkuh fhkh (4) Ãkwýu fhkh


36. Select the correct chronological order from the given below ;

(A) Treaty of Vasai

(B) Sati Prohibition Act.

(C) Second Anglo - Maratha war come to an end

(D) Treaty of Salbai

Options :

(1) A, C, B, D (2) B, C, D, A

(3) D, A, C, B (4) C, D, B, A

37. Given below are the names of leaders participated in Struggle of 1857 and their respectiveplaces. Identify the wrong pair.

(1) Kolhapur – Chimasaheb

(2) Nargund – Balasaheb Bhave

(3) Sangamner [Ahmednagar] – Bhagoji Naik

(4) Satpura region – Rango Bapuji

38. Due to Religious Reform movement, human ........ gained more importance.

(1) Scientific attitude and rationalism

(2) Freedom and rationalism

(3) Astronomy and Mathematics

(4) Sculpture and Architecture

39. Which was the state that formed on 1st May 1960 ?

(1) Goa (2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Maharashtra

40. According to ........ pact, the Indian National Congress agreed to seperate electorates toMuslims.

(1) Morley – Minto Act (2) Lucknow Pact

(3) Lahor Pact (4) Pune Pact


41. ‘÷kXeLkk «íÞuf yk½kík MkkÚku rçkúxeþ Mkk{úkßÞLke þçkÃkuxe Ãkh yufyuf ¾e÷ku Xkufkíkku òÞ Au.’ yk rðÄkLkfkuLkwt Au ?

(1) Ãkt. sðknh÷k÷ Lkunhwt (2) hrðLÿLkkÚk xkøkkuh

(3) {nkí{k økktÄe (4) ÷k÷k ÷sÃkíkhkÞ

42. ykÃku÷k r[ºk{ktLke ÔÞÂõíkLkwt Lkk{ ÷¾ku.

(1) {Õ÷Ãkk ÄLkþuèe (2) ©ef]»ý Mkkhzk

(3) fwçkkoLk nwMkiLk (4) søkÒkkÚk ®þËu

43. nk÷Lkk hkÞøkZ SÕ÷kLkk fsoík íkk÷wfkLkk ¼kE fkuíkðk÷Lkk fÞk Mk{wnu MkhfkhLkk Lkkf{kt Ë{ fhe LkkÏÞku.

(1) ÷k÷ MkuLkk

(2) yr¼Lkð ¼khík

(3) yLkwþe÷Lk Mkr{íke

(4) ykÍkË ËMík

44. rLkBLkr÷r¾ík{ktÚke fÞwt ðíko{kLkÃkºk zkp. çkkçkkMkknuçk yktçkuzfhu þY fÞwO LkÚke ?

(1) sLkíkk

(2) Mk{íkk

(3) fuMkhe

(4) {qfLkkÞf


41. Who said following sentence; “Every blow on my body will prove a nail in the coffin ofthe British Empire.”

(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Rabindranath Tagore

(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Lala Lajpat Rai

42. Identify the person in given picture.

(1) Mallappa Dhanshetti (2) Shrikrishna Sarda

(3) Qurban Hussain (4) Jagannath Shinde

43. Which group of Bhai Kotwal in Karjat taluka of present Raigad District made the gov-ernment helpless and witless ?

(1) Lal Sena

(2) Abhinav Bharat

(3) Anushilan Samiti

(4) Azad Dasta

44. Which of the following news paper was not started by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar ?

(1) Janata

(2) Samata

(3) Kesari

(4) Muknayak


45. 10 sqLk 1890 Úke fk{økkhkuLku hrððkhLke yXðkzef hò {¤ðk ÷køke. íku {kxu «ÞíLk fhLkkh fk{økkh Lkuíkkfkuý níkk ?

(1) ©eÃkkË y{]ík zktøku (2) {wÍ^Vh yn{Ë

(3) Lkk. {. òuþe (4) LkkhkÞý {u½kS ÷ku¾tzu

46. økwshkíkLkk ËkËhk - Lkøkh nðu÷eLke ÃkkuxwoøkeÍ ðMkkník {wõík fhðk {kxu ............. Ë¤ çkLkkððk{ktykÔÞwt.

(1) økwshkík ÞwÚk ÷eøk (2) hÍkfkh

(3) ykÍkË økku{ktíkf (4) økwshkík fkUøkúuMk Mkr{íke

47. çkkswLkk r[ºk{ktLke ½xLkk fÞk MÚk¤Lkk MkíÞkøkúnLku MktçktrÄík Au ?

(1) Mkku÷kÃkwh (2) ÄkhkMkýk

(3) Ãkuþkðh (4) Ëktze

48. ykÃku÷k{ktÚke yÞkuøÞ òuze yku¤¾ku.

(1) rLkhwS hkðS - LÞkÞkÄeþ

(2) yÛýkS Ë¥kku - y{kíÞ

(3) Ë¥kkS ðkfLkeMk - {tºke

(4) hk{[tÿ zçkeh - Mkw{tík

49. yÕnkçkkËLkk {wøk÷ MkwçkuËkh ..........yu çkwtËu÷¾tz Ãkh yk¢{ý fÞwO.

(1) {nt{Ë¾kLk çktøkþ (2) nwMkiLk y÷e

(3) MkÞiË çktÄw yçËwÕ÷k (4) LkSçk¾kLk


45. Due to whose efforts, workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday ?

(1) Shripad Amrut Dange (2) Muzaffar Ahmed

(3) N. M. Joshi (4) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

46. ........ Dal was founded to liberate Portuguese colonies of Dadra and Nagar Haveliin Gujarat.

(1) Gujarat Youth League (2) Razakar

(3) Azad Gomantak (4) Gujarat Congress Committee

47. Identify the place of satyagraha given in picture below ;

(1) Solapur (2) Dharasana

(3) Peshawar (4) Dandi

48. Identify the wrong pair.

(1) Niraji Rawaji – Nyayadhish

(2) Annaji Datto – Sachive

(3) Dattaji Waknis – Mantri

(4) Ramchandra Dabir – Sumant

49. The Mughal Subhedar ....... of Allahabad attacked Bundelkhand.

(1) Mohammad Khan Bangush (2) Hussain Ali

(3) Sayyad Bandu Abdulla (4) Nazib Khan


50. yÞkuøÞ òuze yku¤¾ku.

(1) ðhkzLke - R{kËþkne

(2) çkezhLke - fwíkwçkþkne

(3) çkeòÃkwhLke - ykrË÷þkne

(4) yn{ËLkøkhLke - rLkÍk{þkne

51. «{w¾ ÃkØríkLkk þkMkLk «fkh{kt fkuý fkÞofkhe «{w¾ nkuÞ Au ?

(1) hkßÞÃkk÷ (2) «ÄkLk{tºke

(3) hk»xÙkæÞûk (4) ÷kufMk¼k yæÞûk

52. fhrð»kÞf «Míkkð Võík .......... Mk¼køk]n{kt hsw fhðk{kt ykðu Au.

(1) ÷kufMk¼k (2) hkßÞMk¼k

(3) rðÄkLkÃkhe»kË (4) LÞkÞk÷Þ

53. ¼khík{kt hkßÞMk¼kLkk yæÞûkÃkËu ................. nkuÞ Au.

(1) hk»xÙÃkrík (2) WÃkhk»xÙÃkrík

(3) «ÄkLk{tºke (4) {wÏÞ LÞkÞkÄeþ

54. {nkhk»xÙ rðÄkLkMk¼k{kt fw÷ fux÷k MkËMÞ nkuÞ Au ?

(1) 250 (2) 288

(3) 78 (4) 60

55. fÞk ËuþLkwt çktÄkhý ÃkqýoÃkýu ÷ur¾ík MðYÃku LkÚke.

(1) y{urhfk (2) ¼khík

(3) $ø÷uLz (4) hrþÞk

56. ........ ðkË¤ {wÏÞíðu rn{MVxefku Lkk çkLku÷k nkuÞ Au.

(1) MxÙuxMk (2) rMkhMk

(3) yÕxku MxÙuÃxMk (4) õÞwBÞw÷Mk


50. Identify the wrong pair.

(1) Varhad – Imadshahi

(2) Bidar – Qutubshahi

(3) Bijapur – Adilshahi

(4) Ahmadnagar – Nizamshahi

51. Who is the excecutive head of the presidential system of government ?

(1) Governor (2) Prime Minister

(3) President (4) Loksabha Speaker

52. Bills related to taxes should be introduced in ......... .

(1) Lok Sabha (2) Rajya Sabha

(3) Vidhan Parishad (4) Courts

53. ........ is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.

(1) President (2) Vice-President

(3) Prime Minister (4) Chief-justice

54. There are ........ members in the vidhan sabha (Legislative Assembly) of Maharashtra.

(1) 250 (2) 288

(3) 78 (4) 60

55. Constitution of ........ nation is unwritten Constitution.

(1) America (2) India

(3) England (4) Russia

56. ........ clouds are mainly made up of ice particles.

(1) Stratus (2) Cirrus

(3) Alto stratus (4) Cumulus


57 . |¼khík{kt Mkðuoûký {kxu fÞk þnuhLke Mk{wÿ MkÃkkxeLke MkhkMkhe Ÿ[kE þqLÞ {kLkðk{kt ykðu Au ?

(1) {wtçkE (2) ÃkýS

(3) f÷f¥kk (4) [uÒkkE

58. òøkríkf «{ký Mk{Þ yLkwMkkh ¼khík{kt Mkðkhu 8-00 ðkøÞk nkuÞ íÞkhu røkúLke[ {kt fux÷k ðkøÞk nþu ?

(1) çkÃkkuhLkk 1 ðkøkeLku 30 r{rLkx

(2) çkÃkkuhLkk 2 ðkøkeLku 30 r{rLkx

(3) MkðkhLkk 2 ðkøkeLku 30 r{rLkx

(4) MkðkhLkk 1 ðkøkeLku 30 r{rLkx

59. rLkBLkr÷r¾ík{ktÚke Ãk]ÚðeLkk ytíkhtøkLkk fÞk rð¼køkLke MkhkMkhe òzkE 30 Úke 35 rf.{e. økýkÞ Au ?

(1) ¼qfð[ (2) «kðhý

(3) økk¼k (4) ¾tzeÞ fð[

60. Mkku{k÷e «ðkn fÞk {nkMkkøkh{kt Au ?

(1) ÃkurMkrVf (2) ®nËe

(3) Ërûký yìx÷ktrxf (4) W¥kh yìx÷ktrxf

61. ykÃku÷k{ktÚke rðMktøkík òuze yku¤¾ku.

(1) «kf]ríkf ½xf : {]Ëk

(2) Mkk{krsf ½xf : Ä{o

(3) ykŠÚkf ½xf : ¾rLks MktÃkr¥k

(4) hksfeÞ ½xf : ÞwØ

62. ykÿoíkkLkwt {kÃkLk Mkk{kLÞheíku ........... yuf{kuÚke ÚkkÞ Au.

(1) økúk{ «rík ½Lk{exh

(2) ytþ MkuÂÕMkÞMk

(3) {exh

(4) r{÷e{exh


57 . For survey purpose in India, the height of the sea level at ........ is considered to be zero.

(1) Mumbai (2) Panaji

(3) Kolkata (4) Chennai

58. As per the Universal Standard Time if it is 8 a.m. in the India, then what time it wouldbe at Greenwich ?

(1) 1.30 p.m.

(2) 2.30 p.m.

(3) 2.30 a.m.

(4) 1.30 a.m.

59. From the above options, which layer of the interior of the earth is 30 to 35 kmthick ?

(1) Crust (2) Mantle

(3) Core (4) Oceanic Crust

60. In which Ocean the Somali current flow ?

(1) Pacific (2) Hindi

(3) Southern Atlantic (4) Northern Atlantic

61. Identify the odd pair from the options given below.

(1) Physical factor – Soil

(2) Social factor – Religion

(3) Economic factor – Mineral Resources

(4) Political factor – Wars

62. Generally humidity of the air is measured in ..........

(1) Gram per cubic meter

(2) degree Celcius

(3) Meter

(4) Milimeter


63. {]Ëk{kt .............. Lkwt «{ký ðÄw nkuÞíku {]Ëk V¤ÿwÃk nkuÞ Au.

(1) økúuLkkRx (2) Ìkw{Mk

(3) çkuMkkÕx (4) LkeMk

64. s{eLk rð»kÞf çkÄes {krníke fÞk ¾kíkk ÃkkMku nkuÞ Au ?

(1) {nuMkw÷ ¾kíkwt

(2) rþûký ¾kíkwt

(3) ykhkuøÞ ¾kíkwt

(4) xÃkk÷ ¾kíkwt

65. ykÃku÷k{ktÚke fÞku ÃkÞkoÞ ÷½w Wãkuøk Au ?

(1) þuhze{ktÚke økku¤ çkLkkððuk (2) çkufhe

(3) ÷kun - Ãkku÷kË (4) Mkkfh rLkŠ{rík

66. MkqÞkuoËÞ ÃkAe su{ su{ MkqÞo ykfkþ{kt WÃkh ykðu íku{ íku{ ykÃkýku ÃkzAkÞku ........... ÚkkÞ Au.

(1) Ÿ[ku (2) {kuxku

(3) LkkLkku (4) ÂMÚkh

67. ÞkuøÞ òuze økkuXðe íku{Lkku ÞkuøÞ ÃkÞkoÞ yku¤¾ku.

‘y’ ‘çk’

(1) Mkkøkhe {uËkLk (y) AeAhku ¼køk

(2) ¼q¾tz {t[ (çk) MkÃkkx ¼køk

(3) ¾tzkLík Zk¤ (f) Ÿzku ¼køk

(4) Mkkøkhe Mkt[ÞLk (z) íkeðú Z¤kð

(1) 1-çk, 2-y, 3-z, 4-f

(2) 1-y, 2-çk, 3-f, 4-z

(3) 1-z, 2-f, 3-çk, 4-y

(4) 1-çk, 2-f, 3-z, 4-y


63. If the proportion of ........ in the soil is greater, the soil become fertile.

(1) Granite (2) Humus

(3) Besalt (4) Niece

64. Which department maintains all information about the land ?

(1) Revenue Department

(2) Education Department

(3) Health Department

(4) Postal Department

65. From the above options which option come under small industry ?

(1) Jaggery Making (2) Bakery

(3) Iron and steel (4) Sugar industry

66. As soon as the sun starts moving up in the sky after sunrise, the length of ourshadow ....... .

(1) moves in upward direction (2) increases

(3) reduces (4) remains same

67. Match the correct pairs and Identify the correct option.

‘A’ group ‘B’ group

(1) Abyssal Plain (A) Shallowest part

(2) Continental shelf (B) Flat part

(3) Continental slop (C) deep part

(4) Marine Deposition (D) Steep slop

Options :

(1) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C

(2) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D

(3) 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – A

(4) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A


68. ¼khík ËuþLkk hkßÞkuLkwt ®÷øk økwýku¥kh – 2011 Lkku yk÷u¾ Lke[u ykÃÞku Au. íkuLkku yÇÞkMk fhe rçknkh

(1) 1084

(2) 929

(3) 879

(4) 918

69. nðkLkwt Ëçkký ......... Ãkrh{kýÚke ËþkoðkÞ Au.

(1) r{r÷çkkh

(2) r{÷e{exh

(3) r{r÷r÷xh

(4) r{r÷økúk{

70.

(y) (yk) (R) (E)

(1) (y) (2) (yk)

(3) (R) (4) (E)


68. Study the graph of sex ratio of states in India in the year 2011 and find the sex ratioof Bihar.

(1) 1084

(2) 929

(3) 879

(4) 918

69. Air pressure is measured in the unit of ......... .

(1) Milibar

(2) Milimeter

(3) Mililiter

(4) Miligram

70. Select the correct option,

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D


71. çku Mk{ktíkh hu¾kLku yuf AurËfk AuËu íkku MktøkíkfkuýLke fux÷e òuzeyku yufYÃk ÚkkÞ Au ?

(1) 8

(2) 4

(3) 2

(4) 1

72. òu yuf rºkfkuýLkk çku ¾qýk yLku íku{kt Mk{krðü Lk nkuÞ íkuðe yuf çkksw çkeò rºkfkuýLkk Mktøkík ¾qýk yLkuíku{kt Mk{krðü Lk nkuÞ íkuðe Mktøkík çkksw MkkÚku yufYÃk nkuÞ íkku íku çku rºkfkuý fE fMkkuxeLkwMkkh yufYÃk Úkþu ?

(1) ¾q - çkk - ¾q

(2) fýo-¼wò

(3) ¾q - ¾q - çkk

(4) çkk - ¾q - çkk

73. yuf [kuhMkLkk rðfýoLke ÷tçkkE 12 Mku{e nkuÞ íkku íku [kuhMkLkwt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷k [ku.Mku{e. nþu ?

(1) 144

(2) 72

(3) 96

(4) 120

74. 3 3(3a 2b) (3a 2b) fux÷k ?

(1) 2 354a b 16b

(2) 2 3108a b 16b

(3) 2 3108a b 16b

(4) 2 354ab 16b


71. When two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal then how many pairs of Corre-sponding angles are congruent.

(1) 8

(2) 4

(3) 2

(4) 1

72. When two angles of a triangle and a side not included by them are congruent withcorresponding angles and a corresponding side not included by them of another trianglethen the triangles are congruent by following list.

(1) A – S – A

(2) hypotenus – side

(3) A – A – S

(4) S – A – S

73. Find the area of a square with diagonal is 12 cm.

(1) 144

(2) 72

(3) 96

(4) 120

74. 3 3(3a 2b) (3a 2b) ?

(1) 2 354a b 16b

(2) 2 3108a b 16b

(3) 2 3108a b 16b

(4) 2 354ab 16b


75.1399

yk Mkt{uÞ MktÏÞkLkwt Lke[uLkk{ktÚke ËþktþYÃk fÞwt ?

(1) 0.1314

(2) 0.1321

(3) 0.13

(4) 0.1317

76. òu 1x 2 yLku 2y 2 íkku x y fux÷k ?

(1) 34 (2)

54

(3) 14

(4) 12

77. 19683 MktÏÞkLkwt ½Lk{q¤ fux÷wt ?

(1) 23 (2) 33

(3) 17 (4) 27

78. yuf ðíkwo¤kf]rík çkkøkLkwt ûkuºkV¤ 554400 [ku{e. Au. íkku íku çkkøkLkku Ãkrh½ fux÷ku nþu ?

(1) 2640 {e. (2) 2200 {e.

(3) 1800 {e. (4) 3080 {e.

79. ‘O’ fuLÿðk¤k ðíkwo¤Lke rºkßÞk 13 Mku{e Au. íku ðíkwo¤{kt yuf Sðk fuLÿÚke 5 Mku{e. ytíkhu Au íkku íku SðkLke÷tçkkE fux÷e ?

(1) 12 Mku{e.

(2) 10 Mku{e.

(3) 20 Mku{e.

(4) 24 Mku{e.


75. Which of the following will be decimal form of rational no. 1399

.

(1) 0.1314

(2) 0.1321

(3) 0.13

(4) 0.1317

76. If 1x 2 and 2y 2 then x y ?

(1) 34 (2)

54

(3) 14

(4) 12

77. Cube root of 19683 is = ?

(1) 23 (2) 33

(3) 17 (4) 27

78. Area of a circular garden is 554400 m2. Then circumference of the garden willbe = ?

(1) 2640 m (2) 2200 m

(3) 1800 m (4) 3080 m

79. Radius of a circle with centre ‘O’ is 13 cm. A chord is at a distance of 5 cm from centre.Then length of the chord is = ?

(1) 12 cm.

(2) 10 cm.

(3) 20 cm.

(4) 24 cm.


80. yrLk÷ ÃkkMku sux÷e hf{ Au íkuLke çk{ýe hf{ MkwrLk÷ ÃkkMku Au. MkwrLk÷Lke hf{ fhíkk çk{ýe hf{ MkwÄehÃkkMku Au. òu ºkýuLkk hf{Lke MkhkMkhe 1680 ` nkuÞ íkku yrLk÷ ÃkkMku fux÷k YrÃkÞk nþu ?

(1) 240 ` (2) 720 `

(3) 480 ` (4) 1440 `

81. yuf Lk¤kfkh nkusLkku ytËhLkku ÔÞkMk 1.4 {exh Au íku nkus{kt 1540 r÷xh Ãkkýe Mk{kÞ Au íkku íku nkusLkeŸzkE fux÷e nþu ?

(1) 0.7 {e. (2) 1 {e.

(3) 0.8 {e. (4) 2 {e.

82. Ë.ð.Ë.MkU 10 Lkk Ëhu 100000 ` {wÆ÷Lkwt 122 ð»ko{kt [¢ð]rØ ÔÞks fux÷wt Úkþu ?

(1) 26050 `

(2) 26000 `

(3) 25000 `

(4) 27050 `

83. yuf ykð]r¥k rðíkhý fkuXk{kt iXi 24240f yLku N 40 íkku X ({æÞ) = fux÷k ?

(1) 66 (2) 660

(3) 662 (4) 606

84. 3 2( 4 6 3) ( 1)x x x x = fux÷k ?

(1) 2 3 3x x

(2) 2 4 3x x

(3) 2 3 3x x

(4) 2 4 3x x


80. Sunil have double the amount of Rs. than Anil while Sudhir have double the amount ofRs. than Sunil. If average (mean) of the amounts they have is Rs. 1680 then what willbe the amount of Rs. Anil have ?

(1) 240 Rs. (2) 720 Rs.

(3) 480 Rs. (4) 1440 Rs.

81. The inner diametre of a cylinderical tank is 1.4 m. and it contains 1540 lit. of water thendepth of the tank will be = ?

(1) 0.7 m. (2) 1 m.

(3) 0.8 m. (4) 2 m.

82. What will be compound interest on principal of Rs. 100000 deposited for 122 years at

the rate of 10% ?

(1) 26050 Rs.

(2) 26000 Rs.

(3) 25000 Rs.

(4) 27050 Rs.

83. In a frequency dist. table iXi 24240f and N 40 then mean X = ?

(1) 66 (2) 660

(3) 662 (4) 606

84. 3 2( 4 6 3) ( 1)x x x x = ?

(1) 2 3 3x x

(2) 2 4 3x x

(3) 2 3 3x x

(4) 2 4 3x x


85. AkÃku÷e ®f{ík Ãkh 13% Aqx ykÃke yuf ðMíkw ËwfkLkËkhu økúknfLku 1392 YrÃkk{kt ðu[e íkku íku ðMíkwLke AkÃku÷e®f{ík fux÷e

(1) 1400 `

(2) 1500 `

(3) 1550 `

(4) 1600 `

86. yuf Mk{¼ws [íkw»fkuýLke Ãkrhr{íke 40 Mku{e. Au. íku [íkw»fkuýLkk yuf rðfýoLke ÷tçkkE 16 Mku{e. Au. íkkuíku Mk{¼ws [íkw»fkuýLkwt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷wt Úkþu ?

(1) 192 [ku.Mku{e.

(2) 160 [ku.Mku{e.

(3) 96 [ku.Mku{e.

(4) 36 [ku.Mku{e.

87. yþkuf yuf fk{ 20 rËðMk{kt Ãkqýo fhu Au yLku yr{ík íku s fk{ 30 rËðMk{kt Ãkqýo fhu Au íkku çkÒku {¤eLkuíku fk{ fux÷k rËðMk{kt Ãkqýo fhþu.

(1) 12 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 16

88. çkkswLke ykf]rík{kt PQRS yu ÷tçk[kuhMk Au l (PS) = l (QR) = 7 Mku.{e. C Lku fuLÿu ÷E yuf yÄoðíkwo¤÷tçk[kuhMk{kt ËkuÞwO Au. yÄoðíkwo¤Lke rºkßÞk 7 Mku.{e. nkuÞ íkku AkÞktrfík ¼køkLkwt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷wt ?

(1) 77 [ku.Mku{e. (2) 31 [ku.Mku{e.

(3) 25 [ku.Mku{e. (4) 21 [ku.Mku{e.


85. A shopkeeper sells an article to a customer at Rs. 1392. He gives 13% discount on printedprice. Then printed Price will be = ?

(1) 1400 Rs.

(2) 1500 Rs.

(3) 1550 Rs.

(4) 1600 Rs.

86. Find the area of a rhombus having perimetre 40 cm. and diagonal 16 cm.

(1) 192 cm2

(2) 160 cm2

(3) 96 cm2

(4) 36 cm2

87. Ashok completes the work in 20 days. While Amit completes same work in 30 days. Ifthey work together how many days are required to complete the work ?

(1) 12 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) 16

88. Adjecent diagram is Rectangle PQRS where l (PS) = l (QR) = 7 cm. A semicircle withcentre ‘C’ is drawn as shown. Radius of semi circle is 7 cm. then area of the markedportion will be = ?

(1) 77 cm2 (2) 31 cm2

(3) 25 cm2 (4) 21 cm2


89.2 2

2 2

7 10 206 7 12

x x x xx x x x fux÷k ?

(1) ( 4) ( 5)x x (2) ( 3)x

(3) 1 (4) 1

( 4) ( 2)x x

90. yuf fkxfkuý rºkfkuýLke fkxfkuý çkLkkðLkkhe çkkswyku 8 Mku.{e. yLku 15 Mku.{e. Au íkku íku fkuxfkuý rºkfkuýLkkÃkrhðíkwo¤Lke rºkßÞk fux÷e ?

(1) 7.5 Mku{e. (2) 8.5 Mku{e.

(3) 6.5 Mku{e. (4) 5.5 Mku{e.


89.2 2

2 2

7 10 206 7 12

x x x xx x x x ?

(1) ( 4) ( 5)x x (2) ( 3)x

(3) 1 (4) 1

( 4) ( 2)x x

90. In a right angle triangle sides forming right angle are 8 cm. and 15 cm. Find radius ofa circumcircle drawn in the triangle.

(1) 7.5 cm. (2) 8.5 cm.

(3) 6.5 cm. (4) 5.5 cm.


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W¥khÃkrºkfk WÃkh ÷¾ðkLkk Au · given for the corresponding question in the test booklet. 9....

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