WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING] 1 Which of the following is not a benefit of DHCP?

A = centralized administration of IP configuration

B = dynamic host configuration

C = seamless IP host configuration

D = portability of workstations

correct = D

EXPLANATION = DHCP provides five key benefits to those managing and maintaining a TCP/IP network. These are centralized administration of IP configuration, dynamic host configuration, seamless IP host configuration, scalability, and flexibility.

2 Which of the following is not a component of DNS?

A = DNS namespace

B = DNS zones

C = DNS resource records

D = DNS relay agent

correct = D

EXPLANATION = The components of DNS include the DNS namespace, DNS zones, DNS name servers, and DNS resource records.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]3 A starting address of 192.0.0.0 and an ending address of 223.255.255.255 is a member of which network class?

A = Class A

B = Class B

C = Class C

D = Class D

correct = C

EXPLANATION = A Class C address falls in between the 192.0.0.0–223.255.255.255 range.

4 Which of the following is not a function of DHCP?

A = transmitting data from one network to another

B = bootstrapping diskless workstations

C = automating the assigning, tracking, and reassigning of IP addresses

D = dynamically allocating an IP address from a pool of addresses

correct = A

EXPLANATION = DHCP may be based on BOOTP, but it extends its predecessor in several ways. Rather than push preconfigured parameters to expected clients, DHCP can

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]dynamically allocate an IP address from a pool of addresses and then reclaim it when it is no longer needed. Because this process is dynamic, no duplicate addresses are assigned by a properly configured DHCP server and administrators can move computers between subnets without manually configuring them. In addition, a large number of standard configuration and platform-specific parameters can be specified and dynamically delivered to the client. Thus, DHCP provides important functions beyond simply bootstrapping diskless workstations, and it is often used to automatically configure networking after systems are booted.

5 If a system will be a DHCP server, what type of address should you set?

A = automatic private IP address

B = fixed IP address

C = static IP address

D = none of the above

correct = C

EXPLANATION = If a system will be a DHCP server, you should set a static IP address because that will be required when you try to set up the DHCP server role.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]6 What is the minimum number of physical computers required to allow you to use a KMS key?

A = 20 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers

B = 20 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers

C = 15 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers

D = 25 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers

correct = D

EXPLANATION = The minimum number of physical computers required to allow you to use a KMS key is 25 Vista computers and five Windows Server 2008 computers. Any computer on your network that has been activated by an internal KMS host will attempt to check inwith the KMS host every seven days and will be required to connect to that host at least once every 180 days to maintain its license.

7 A striped volume uses which type of striping to interleave data across the disks?

A = RAID-6

B = RAID-4

C = RAID-0

D = RAID-5

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]correct = C

EXPLANATION = A striped volume is similar to a spanned volume in that it is made up of free space from multiple disks. Unlike a spanned volume, however, a striped volume uses RAID-0 striping to interleave data across the disks, thus improving the read performance of the volume.

8 A computer running Server Core will allow you to launch which of the following consoles?

A = Computer Management

B = Active Directory Users and Computer

C = Windows Registry Editor

D = None of the above

correct = C

EXPLANATION = A Server Core computer will allow you to launch the Windows Registry Editor, Notepad, and a number of Control Panel applets. However, it does not include a Start menu and does not allow you to install or run any of the MMC consoles, such as Computer Management or Active Directory Users and Computer.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]9 BOOTP enables a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the configuration parameters it needs to run excluding which option?

A = subnet mask

B = default gateway

C = workstation settings

D = IP address

correct = C

EXPLANATION = BOOTP, which is still in use today, enables a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the configuration parameters it needs to run including an IP address, a subnet mask, a default gateway, and Domain Name System (DNS) server addresses.

10 The initial DHCP lease process is accomplished by using a series of exchanges between a DHCP client and DHCP server that utilizes four messages. Which of the following is not a message that is used?

A = DHCPDISCOVER

B = DHCPOFFER

C = DHCPRELEASE

D = DHCPACK

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]correct = C

EXPLANATION = A DHCPRELEASE message is sent by a DHCP client to a DHCP server to relinquish an IP address and cancel the remaining lease. This message type is sent to the server that provided the lease.

11 Which of the following is not a database function used to manage the DHCP database?

A = compact

B = reconciliation

C = connect

D = restore

correct = C

EXPLANATION = Your network is constantly changing. New servers are added, and existing servers are changing roles or are removed from the network altogether. Therefore, you must both monitor and manage the DHCP service to ensure that it is meeting the needs of the organization. Specifically, you must manage the DHCP database by performing the following database functions backup and restore, reconciliation, compacting the database, and removing the database.

12 A DHCP client will perform the initial lease process in all of the following situations with the exception of __________.

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WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]A = the very first time the client boots

B = after every reboot

C = after releasing the IP address

D = after receiving a DHCPNACK message

correct = B

EXPLANATION = A DHCP client will perform the initial lease process in the following situations the very first time the client boots, after releasing the IP Address, and after receiving a DHCPNACK message.

13 In a Windows Server 2008 network, the primary means of locating network devices and network services is through the use of __________.

A = DHCP

B = DNS

C = TCP/IP

D = BOOTP

correct = B

EXPLANATION = In a Windows Server 2008 network, the primary means of locating network devices and network services is through the use of the Domain Name System, or DNS.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING] 14 DNS zone file resource records are represented as __________.

A = binary packets

B = DHCP data entries

C = form packets

D = text entries

correct = D

EXPLANATION = Resource records are represented in binary form in packets when queries and responses are made using DNS. In DNS zone files, however, resource records are represented as text entries.

15 Which zone is a copy of a zone that contains only those resource records necessary to identify the authoritative DNS servers for that zone?

A = standard primary zone

B = standard secondary zone

C = reverse lookup zone

D = stub zone

correct = D

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]EXPLANATION = A copy of the zone file may be stored on one or more servers to balance network load, provide fault tolerance, or avoid forcing queries across a slow, wide area network (WAN) link. This standard secondary zone is a read-only copy of the standard primary DNS zone.

16 After sending a zone transfer request, which option shows how long (in seconds) the zone’s secondary server waits before sending another request?

A = Refresh

B = Retry

C = Expire

D = Minimum TTL

correct = B

EXPLANATION = After sending a zone transfer request, the Retry field shows how long (in seconds) the zone’s secondary server waits before sending another request.

17 For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer than how many subnets with an easily predicted traffic pattern (such as arranged consecutively in a straight line)?

A = 5

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WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]B = 7

C = 10

D = 12

correct = C

EXPLANATION = A static-routed IP environment is best suited to small, single-path, static IP internetworks. By definition, static-routed networks do not use routing protocols, such as RIP or OSPF, to communicate routing information between routers. For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer than 10 subnets with an easily predicted traffic pattern (such as arranged consecutively in a straight line). Of course, a static-routed IP environment is appropriate only as long as the routes in the environment remain the same.

18 Of the four types of routes that can be found in a routing table, which of the following cannot be found?

A = directly attached network routes

B = remote network routes

C = client routes

D = host routes

correct = C

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]EXPLANATION = Four types of routes can be found in a routing table. These are directly attached network routes, remote network routes, host routes, and default routes.

19 Which generic authentication method offers encryption of authentication data through the MD5 hashing scheme?

A = Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

B = Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)

C = Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D = Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)

correct = C

EXPLANATION = CHAP is a generic authentication method that offers encryption of authentication data through the MD5 hashing scheme.

20 One example of an NPS Policy Setting includes IP properties that specify IP address assignment behavior. Which of the following is not an option?

A = Server Must Supply an IP Address

B = Client Must Supply an IP Address

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]C = Client May Request an IP Address

D = Server Settings Determine IP Address Assignment

correct = B

EXPLANATION = One example of an NPS Policy Setting includes IP properties that specify IP address assignment behavior. You have the following options Server Must Supply an IP Address, Client May Request An IP Address, Server Settings Determine IP Address Assignment, and Assign A Static IP Address.

21 The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic server administration tasks, including all of the following except __________.

A = installing disks

B = partitioning drives

C = assigning permissions

D = creating shares

correct = B

EXPLANATION = The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic server administration tasks including installing

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]disks, creating shares, assigning permissions, and mapping drive letters.

22 Generally speaking, a well-designed sharing strategy provides each user with all of the following resources except __________ storage space.

A = public

B = virtual

C = private

D = shared

correct = B

EXPLANATION = Generally speaking, a well-designed sharing strategy provides each user with three resources a private storage space, such as a home folder, to which the user has exclusive access; a public storage space, where each user can store files that they want colleagues to be able to access; and access to a shared work space for communal and collaborative documents.

23 What volume type consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks?

A = simple

B = spanned

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]C = striped

D = RAID-5

correct = D

EXPLANATION = A RAID-5 volume consists of space on three or more physical disks, all of which must be dynamic disks. The system stripes data and parity information across all of the disks so that if one physical disk fails, the missing data can be recreated using the parity information on the other disks.

24 Most personal computers use basic disks because they are the easiest to manage. A basic disk uses what type of partitions and drives?

A = primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical disks

B = primary partitions, virtual partitions, and logical disks

C = primary partitions, extended partitions, and virtual disks

D = primary partitions, logical partitions, and virtual disks

correct = A

EXPLANATION = Most personal computers use basic disks because they are the easiest to manage. A basic disk uses primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical drives to organize data.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING] 25 Printing in Microsoft Windows typically involves all of the following components except a __________.

A = print device

B = print router

C = printer

D = printer driver

correct = B

EXPLANATION = Printing in Microsoft Windows typically involves the following four components the print device, printer, print server, and printer driver.

26 To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following except __________.

A = create multiple printers

B = create multiple print users

C = modify printer priorities

D = associate printers with the same print device

correct = B

EXPLANATION = In some s, you might want to give certain users in your organization priority access to a print device so that when print traffic is heavy, their jobs are processed before

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]those of other users. To do this, you must create multiple printers, associate them with the same print device, and then modify their priorities.

27 The XML Paper Specification format is included with which of the following operating systems by default?

A = Windows Vista

B = Windows XP

C = Windows Server 2003

D = Windows NT

correct = A

EXPLANATION = XML Paper Specification (XPS) is a new, platform-independent document format included with Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista in which print job files use a single XPS format for their entire journey to the print device rather than being converted first to EMS and then later to PCL.

28 What is one of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks?

A = keeping track of roles and permissions

B = keeping track of print utilization

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]C = keeping track of users and permissions

D = keeping track of print devices

correct = D

EXPLANATION = One of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks is keeping track of dozens or hundreds of print devices, all in frequent use and all needing attention on a regular basis. Whether the maintenance required is a major repair, replenishing ink or toner, or just filling the paper trays, print devices will not get the attention they need until an administrator is aware of the problem.

29 Which of the following are the specific processes or events that you want to track?

A = configuration information

B = event trace data

C = performance counters

D = none of the above

correct = C

EXPLANATION = Performance counters are the specific processes or events that you want to track, and new performance counters are exposed within the Reliability and Performance

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]Monitor as you add additional roles and services to a particular server.

30 Which log should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem with Active Directory?

A = Event Viewer

B = Directory Service

C = Service Monitor

D = Event Monitor

correct = B

EXPLANATION = The Directory Service log is created when Active Directory is installed. It logs informational events such as service start and stop messages, errors, and warnings. This log should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem with Active Directory.

31 Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include all of the following except __________.

A = security fixes

B = critical updates

C = additional user experience features

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]D = critical drivers

correct = C

EXPLANATION = Updates that can be deployed via WSUS can include security fixes, critical updates, and critical drivers. These updates resolve known security vulnerabilities and stability issues in the Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Server 2008 operating systems.

32 From where can a server that runs WSUS be synchronized?

A = public Windows Update servers

B = another server running WSUS

C = manually configured content distribution point

D = all of the above

correct = D

EXPLANATION = A server that runs WSUS can be synchronized from the public Windows Update servers, from another server running WSUS, or from a manually configured content distribution point. WSUS servers can download and store content locally, or they can use the content on the Windows Update Website.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING] 33 What suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or receiving data?

A = IPSec

B = checksum

C = TCP

D = UDP

correct = A

EXPLANATION = To address this, the IPSec suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or receiving data.

34 IKE main mode has a default lifetime of __________ hours.

A = 6

B = 8

C = 10

D = 12

correct = B

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]EXPLANATION = IKE main mode has a default lifetime of 8 hours, but this number is configurable from 5 minutes to a maximum of 48 hours.

35 What allows traffic that is defined in one direction to also be defined in the opposite direction?

A = manifestation

B = reflection

C = mirroring

D = evidencing

correct = C

EXPLANATION = An IP filter can be mirrored, meaning that traffic defined in one direction will also be defined in the opposite direction.

36 What is the default authentication protocol in an Active Directory network?

A = Kerberos v5

B = LM Authentication

C = NTLM Authentication

D = NTLMv2 Authentication

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]correct = A

EXPLANATION = The default authentication protocol in an Active Directory network is the Kerberos v5 protocol.

37 Which of the following provides a detailed EXPLANATION of how a particular Certification Authority manages certificates and keys?

A = smart card

B = certificate template

C = Certificate Revocation List

D = Certificate Practice Statement

correct = D

EXPLANATION = A Certificate Practice Statement (CPS) provides a detailed EXPLANATION of how a particular Certification Authority manages certificates and keys.

38 Which security role is tasked with issuing and managing certificates, including approving certificate enrollment and revocation requests?

A = CA Administrator

B = Certificate Manager

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]C = Backup Operator

D = Auditor

correct = B

EXPLANATION = Certificate managers are tasked with issuing and managing certificates, including approving certificate enrollment and revocation requests.

39 The IPSec NAP enforcement method relies on which type of PKI certificate to perform its enforcements?

A = IPSec certificate

B = NAP certificate

C = health certificate

D = recovery certificate

correct = C

EXPLANATION = Enforcement Servers receive information from the Enforcement Clients on each client, which is then consumed by other components of the NAP server-side architecture. Depending on the enforcement method in use, a NAP enforcement point can take a number of different forms, such as an 802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X enforcement, a Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for the DHCP enforcement method, or a Health Registration Authority

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING](HRA) that can obtain health certificates from client computers when the IPSec enforcement method is used.

40 A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a NAP __________.

A = Agent

B = enforcement point

C = enforcement server

D = none of the above

correct = B

EXPLANATION = A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a NAP enforcement point.

41 Shadow Copies protects against accidental file deletions that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis by using what type of fault tolerance?

A = file-based

B = index-based

C = security-based

D = user-based

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]correct = A

EXPLANATION = Shadow Copies is a file-based fault tolerance mechanism that does not provide protection against disk failures, but does protect against accidental file deletions that inconvenience users and administrators on a regular basis.

42 NTFS quotas are able to do which of the following?

A = execute commands

B = send e-mail notifications

C = create event log entries

D = all of the above

correct = C

EXPLANATION = NTFS quotas are also limited to creating event log entries only, while FSRM quotas can also send e-mail notifications, execute commands, and generate reports as well as log events.

43 What type of backup is supported by Windows Server 2008?

A = dynamic

B = automatic

C = manual

D = none of the above

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH

WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [JETKING]correct = C

EXPLANATION = Windows Server 2008 supports two types of backup manual and scheduled.

44 Which of the following prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond the allotted amount?

A = allotments

B = allocations

C = soft quota

D = hard quota

correct = D

EXPLANATION = A hard quota prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond the allotted amount, while a soft quota allows the user storage space beyond the allotted amount and just sends an e-mail notification to the user and/or administrator.

VIVEK KUMAR SINGH