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GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS®

Official GRE Verbal ReasoningPractice Questions, Volume 1

Chapter 6 – Mixed Practice SetsPractice Set 1

Copyright© 2014 by Educational Testing Service. All rights reserved. E T S, the E T S logo, GRADUATE RECORD EXAMINATIONS, and G R E are registered trademarks of Educational Testing Service (E T S) in the United States and other countries.

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Chapter 6Mixed Practice SetsThis chapter contains three practice sets of 25 questions. Each Practice Set is in two separate books – one containing the questions, and the other containing the answer key and the explanations for the questions. The books for each of the three practice sets are as follows:

Mixed Practice Set 1The questions for Mixed Practice Set 1 are in this document. The answer key and the explanations are in the separate document named “GRE Chapter 6 Set 1 Answers and Explanations.doc.”

Mixed Practice Set 2The questions for Mixed Practice Set 2 are in the document named, “GRE Chapter 6 Set 2 Questions.doc.” The answer key and the explanations are in the separate document named “GRE Chapter 6 Set 2 Answer Key with Answers and Explanations.doc.”

Mixed Practice Set 3The questions for Mixed Practice Set 3 are in the document named “GRE Chapter 6 Set 3 Questions.doc.” The answer key and the explanations are in the separate document named “GRE Chapter 6 Set 3 Answers and Explanations.doc.”

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Each of the Mixed Practice Sets in this chapter has 25 questions, with a mixture of content and question types. In each set, the questions contain a representative mixture of all three question types: Reading Comprehension, Text Completion, and Sentence Equivalence. Review the answers and explanations carefully, paying particular attention to explanations for questions that you answered incorrectly.

Note that each set of 25 practice questions has about the same number of questions of each type as the individual Verbal Reasoning sections in the paper-based GRE revised General Test, with 25 questions per 35-minute (Standard Time) section. Therefore, to help you gauge the timed aspect of the Verbal Reasoning measure, it may be useful to set aside a 35-minute block of time for each set of 25 questions, if you are taking the test under standard timing conditions; approximately a 52-minute block of time if you are taking the test with 50 percent extended time, and a 70-minute block of time if you are taking the test with 100 percent extended time.

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Chapter 6Mixed Practice Sets

Practice Set 1Directions for questions 1 to 3:Each of the following questions includes a short text with a blank, indicating that something has been omitted. Select the entry that best completes the text.

For each question, first you will hear the text with the word “BLANK” indicating that a word or phrase is omitted. There are five answer choices, each consisting of a word or phrase, for filling in the blank. Next, you will hear the five lettered options for filling in the blank. You may then indicate your answer, or go on to listen to the Answer Choices in Context.

Following the list of answer choices are five lettered readings of the text, one for each answer choice. The group of readings is separated from the main text using the “Begin skippable content” and “End skippable content” level-6 headings.

Question 1.The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has long been BLANK; even longtime city residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library, never suspecting what art treasures it contains.

A. reveredB. proposedC. misleadingD. elevatedE. intriguing

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Indicate one answer choice or go on to hear the choices in context.

Begin skippable content.Answer Choices in Context:A. revered. The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has long been revered; even longtime city residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library, never suspecting what art treasures it contains.

B. proposed. The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has long been proposed; even longtime city residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library, never suspecting what art treasures it contains.

C. misleading. The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has long been misleading; even longtime city residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library, never suspecting what art treasures it contains.

D. elevated. The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has long been elevated; even longtime city residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library, never suspecting what art treasures it contains.

E. intriguing. The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has long been intriguing; even longtime city residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library, never suspecting what art treasures it contains.

Indicate one answer choice.

End skippable content.

Question 2.Although economic growth has conventionally been viewed as the BLANK for poverty in underdeveloped regions, this prescription’s negative environmental side effects are becoming a concern.

A. culpritB. recipeC. panaceaD. explanationE. refuge

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Begin skippable content.Answer Choices in Context:A. culprit. Although economic growth has conventionally been viewed as the culprit for poverty in underdeveloped regions, this prescription’s negative environmental side effects are becoming a concern.

B. recipe. Although economic growth has conventionally been viewed as the recipe for poverty in underdeveloped regions, this prescription’s negative environmental side effects are becoming a concern.

C. panacea. Although economic growth has conventionally been viewed as the panacea for poverty in underdeveloped regions, this prescription’s negative environmental side effects are becoming a concern.

D. explanation. Although economic growth has conventionally been viewed as the explanation for poverty in underdeveloped regions, this prescription’s negative environmental side effects are becoming a concern.

E. refuge. Although economic growth has conventionally been viewed as the refuge for poverty in underdeveloped regions, this prescription’s negative environmental side effects are becoming a concern.



Question 3.Even as the economy struggled, the secretary stood by his BLANK long-term outlook, saying that technology was allowing businesses to make deep-rooted improvements in their productivity, the best indicator of an economy’s ability to grow.

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A. arcaneB. sanguineC. equivocalD. ambivalentE. irresolute


Begin skippable content.Answer Choices in Context:A. arcane. Even as the economy struggled, the secretary stood by his arcane long-term outlook, saying that technology was allowing businesses to make deep-rooted improvements in their productivity, the best indicator of an economy’s ability to grow.

B. sanguine. Even as the economy struggled, the secretary stood by his sanguine long-term outlook, saying that technology was allowing businesses to make deep-rooted improvements in their productivity, the best indicator of an economy’s ability to grow.

C. equivocal. Even as the economy struggled, the secretary stood by his equivocal long-term outlook, saying that technology was allowing businesses to make deep-rooted improvements in their productivity, the best indicator of an economy’s ability to grow.

D. ambivalent. Even as the economy struggled, the secretary stood by his ambivalent long-term outlook, saying that technology was allowing businesses to make deep-rooted improvements in their productivity, the best indicator of an economy’s ability to grow.

E. irresolute. Even as the economy struggled, the secretary stood by his irresolute long-term outlook, saying that technology was allowing businesses to make deep-rooted improvements in their productivity, the best indicator of an economy’s ability to grow.



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Directions for questions 4 to 8:Each of the following questions includes a short text with two or three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. You will be asked to select one entry for each blank from the corresponding choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

For each question, first you will hear the text with the word “BLANK” in place of the omitted material. Next, you will hear the text again, but in place of each blank, you will hear three lettered options for completing that blank. The set of lettered options is formatted as bold and enclosed by parentheses. Each option consists of a word or phrase.

For questions containing two blanks, following the list of answer choices are nine readings of the text, one for each answer choice combination. The group of readings begins with a “Begin Skippable Content” level-6 heading and ends with an “End Skippable Content” level-6 heading. Each reading consists of two option letters, the two words or phrases being combined, and the text with the combination of the words or phrases inserted into the blanks.

For questions containing three blanks, the choices will not be read in context because it has been determined that replaying the question for all possible combinations of answer choices is not a useful way to present these questions.

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Question 4.This question has two blanks.The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were BLANK, far too BLANK for people of average means.

Now listen to the text with the three options inserted in place of each blank.

The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were (A. opulent, B. eclectic, C. enigmatic), far too (D. bucolic, E. expensive, F. mundane) for people of average means.

Indicate your two answer choices or go on to hear them in context. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Begin skippable content.Answer Choices in Context:A, D. opulent, bucolic. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were opulent, far too bucolic for people of average means.

A, E. opulent, expensive. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were opulent, far too expensive for people of average means.

A, F. opulent, mundane. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were opulent, far too mundane for people of average means.

B, D. eclectic, bucolic. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were eclectic, far too bucolic for people of average means.

B, E. eclectic, expensive. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were eclectic, far too expensive for people of average means.

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B, F. eclectic, mundane. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were eclectic, far too mundane for people of average means.

C, D. enigmatic, bucolic. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were enigmatic, far too bucolic for people of average means.

C, E. enigmatic, expensive. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were enigmatic, far too expensive for people of average means.

C, F. enigmatic, mundane. The villas and compounds that proliferated during the building boom of the 1990’s were enigmatic, far too mundane for people of average means.

Indicate your two answer choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.


Question 5.This question has two blanks.

The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less BLANK than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are BLANK.


The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less (A. adroit, B. unconvincing, C. pro lix) than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are (D. unpretentious, E. spurious, F. breathtaking).


Begin skippable content.

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Answer Choices in Context:A, D. adroit, unpretentious. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less adroit than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are unpretentious.

A, E. adroit, spurious. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less adroit than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are spurious.

A, F. adroit, breathtaking. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less adroit than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are breathtaking.

B, D. unconvincing, unpretentious. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less unconvincing than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are unpretentious.

B, E. unconvincing, spurious. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less unconvincing than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are spurious.

B, F. unconvincing, breathtaking. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less unconvincing than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are breathtaking.

C, D. pro lix, unpretentious. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less pro lix than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are unpretentious.

C, E. pro lix, spurious. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less pro lix than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are spurious.

C, F. pro lix, breathtaking. The governor has considerable political talents, but as a speaker he is far less pro lix than his opponent, whose oratorical skills are breathtaking.Indicate one answer choice.


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Question 6.This question has three blanks.

There is no point in combing through the director’s work for hints of ideological significance. It is unnecessary: his ideology—Marxist, anti-imperialist, aligned with the perceived interests of the powerless and the marginal—is the BLANK of his films. The clarity and force of that ideology are considerable, but its BLANK sometimes bothers critics, who often scold the director for lacking BLANK.


There is no point in combing through the director’s work for hints of ideological significance. It is unnecessary: his ideology—Marxist, anti-imperialist, aligned with the perceived interests of the powerless and the marginal—is the (A. hidden focus, B. chief impetus, C. murky lesson) of his films. The clarity and force of that ideology are considerable, but its (D. bluntness, E. obscurity, F. feebleness) sometimes bothers critics, who often scold the director for lacking (G. lucidity, H. subtlety, I. courage).

Indicate your three answer choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.


As the finances of the energy-trading firm began unraveling, what eventually became BLANK was that the company had been concocting “value” out of thin air, thanks not to the trading strategies it promoted as visionary but to financial BLANK that turned a once-solid entity into the most notorious BLANK in an era of corporate scandals.

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Now listen to the text with the three options inserted in place of each blank.As the finances of the energy-trading firm began unraveling, what eventually became (A. vindicated, B. unmistakable, C. unverifiable) was that the company had been concocting “value” out of thin air, thanks not to the trading strategies it promoted as visionary but to financial (D. redemption, E. responsibilities, F. games) that turned a once-solid entity into the most notorious (G. omission, H. boon, I. debacle) in an era of corporate scandals.Indicate your three answer choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.


Kept BLANK by cloying commercial radio and clueless record executives, the American popular music scene has frequently depended on cities at the edges of the cultural map to provide a much-needed shot of BLANK. The momentary BLANK what the next big thing is seems to come out of nowhere—as if someone blows a whistle only those in the know can hear, and suddenly record executives and journalists are crawling all over what had previously been an obscure locale.


Kept (A. hidebound, B. liberated, C. obligated) by cloying commercial radio and clueless record executives, the American popular music scene has frequently depended on cities at the edges of the cultural map to provide a much-needed shot of (D. originality, E. truth, F. orthodoxy). The momentary (G. consensus about, H. indifference to, I. guarantee of) what the next big thing is seems to come out of nowhere—as if someone blows a whistle only those in the know can hear, and suddenly record executives and journalists are crawling all over what had previously been an obscure locale.

Indicate your three answer choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

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Questions 9 and 10 are based on the following passage:Despite hypotheses ranging from armed conflict to climate change, the abandonment of more than 600 Pueblo cliff dwellings in Mesa Verde by AY D 1300 still puzzles archaeologists. Researchers analyzing re fuse from one Pueblo community found remains of maize—a Pueblo crop—in 44 percent of samples from years when the community flourished, but in only 10 percent of samples from years near the time of depopulation, while the remains of wild plants increased significantly.

Bones found in the samples showed that the consumption of domesticated turkeys—which were fed maize—decreased from 55 to 14 percent, while there was a marked increase in wild-animal bones. These data suggest that near the end of the site’s occupation, villagers experienced substantial food shortages and adopted hunting-and-gathering strategies to compensate for crop failure.

Question 9.

This question has five answer choices, labeled A through E. Select and indicate the best answer from among these choices.

According to the passage, which of the following is likely true regarding the consumption of wild plants in the Pueblo community investigated by researchers?

A. It decreased dramatically as the settlement began to decline.B. It significantly affected the food supply of wild animals living nearby.C. It increased as domesticated sources of food declined.D. It represented a continuation of centuries-old traditions.E. It fell markedly as the consumption of wild animals increased.

Select and indicate one answer choice from among the choices provided.

Question 10.


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The research described in the passage most clearly supports which of the following claims about the abandonment of Mesa Verde?

A. It likely resulted from factors affecting crop viability.B. It was more extensive than had previously been documented.C. It may have been hastened by the abundance of wild animals in the

area.D. It has been misdated by previous archaeological research.E. It happened more rapidly in certain Pueblo communities than in others.


Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage.

Although it is intuitively clear that an increase in antipredator behavior lowers an animal’s risk of predation when predators are present, such benefits are not easily demonstrated. One study that did so found that well-fed guppies are more alert for predators and are consequently less likely to be killed than are their hungry counterparts, which feed with greater intensity. It is also well documented that a decrease in activity lowers an animal’s risk of predation by reducing the probability of being detected or encountered by a predator. This effect was convincingly demonstrated by a study in which it was found that partially anesthetized tadpoles were less likely to be captured by dragonfly larvae than were unanesthetized tadpoles.

Question 11.This question has three answer choices, labeled A through C. Consider each of the three choices separately and select all that apply. The credited response may be one, two, or all three of the choices.

It can be inferred that the guppy study and the tadpole study, as they are described in the passage, differed in which of the following ways?

A. The animals less likely to become the victims of predators were the more active ones in the guppy study but were the less active ones in the tadpole study.

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B. The animals less likely to become the victims of predators were those more alert to their surroundings in the guppy study but were the less alert ones in the tadpole study.

C. The situation created experimentally for the guppy study would be more likely to occur in the wild than would the situation created for the tadpole study.

Indicate your answer choice or choices.

Question 12.


The word “demonstrated” appears in the first sentence of the passage, which reads “Although it is intuitively clear that an increase in antipredator behavior lowers an animal’s risk of predation when predators are present, such benefits are not easily demonstrated.” In the context in which it appears, “demonstrated” most nearly means

A. explainedB. presentedC. shownD. protestedE. justifiedSelect and indicate one answer choice from among the choices provided.

Directions for Questions 13 and 14.Questions 13 and 14 are based on the following passage. One or more questions based on this passage will ask you to characterize the function played by an indicated portion of the passage. The indicated portion will be identified by enclosing it in braces, and by formatting it in boldface and underlined. For example, in this sentence the phrase {indicated portion} is formatted as just described.

Passage for Questions 13 and 14.

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Since the 1980’s, experts have been claiming that the skill demands of today’s jobs have outstripped the skills workers possess. Moss and Tilly counter that worker deficiencies lie less in job-specific skills than in such attributes as motivation, interpersonal skills, and appropriate work demeanor. However, Handel suggests that these perceived deficiencies are merely an age effect, arguing that workers pass through a phase of early adulthood characterized by weak attachment to their jobs. As they mature, workers grow out of casual work attitudes and adjust to the workplace norms of jobs that they are more interested in retaining. {Significantly, complaints regarding younger workers have persisted for over two decades, but similar complaints regarding older workers have not grown as the earlier cohorts aged.}

Question 13.


The word “experts” appears in the first sentence of the passage, which reads “Since the 1980’s, experts have been claiming that the skill demands of today’s jobs have outstripped the skills workers possess.” The passage suggests that Moss and Tilly are most likely to disagree with the “experts” about which of the following?

A. Whether the skills demanded by jobs in the labor market have changed since the 1980’s

B. Whether employers think that job-specific skills are as important as such attributes as motivation and appropriate work demeanor

C. Whether workers in today’s labor market generally live up to the standards and expectations of employers

D. Whether adequate numbers of workers in the labor market possess the particular skills demanded by various different jobs

E. Whether most workers are motivated to acquire new skills that are demanded by the labor market


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Question 14.This question has five answer choices, labeled A through E. Select and indicate the best answer from among these choices.The last sentence of the passage reads “Significantly, complaints regarding younger workers have persisted for over two decades, but similar complaints regarding older workers have not grown as the earlier cohorts aged.” That sentence serves primarily to

A. suggest that worker deficiencies are likely to become more pronounced in the future

B. introduce facts that Handel may have failed to take into accountC. cite evidence supporting Handel’s argument about workersD. show that the worker deficiencies cited by Handel are more than an

age effectE. distinguish certain skills more commonly possessed by young workers

from skills more commonly found among mature workers


Directions for questions 15 through 19:Each of the following questions includes a sentence with a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Following the sentence you will hear a list of six words or phrases, each of which could be used to complete the sentence. Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

Following the list of answer choices are six readings of the sentence, one for each answer choice. The group of readings is surrounded by “Begin skippable content” and “End skippable content” labels formatted as level-6 headings. Each reading will begin with the word or phrase that can be inserted into the blank, followed by a reading of the sentence with the word or phrase inserted into the blank.

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Question 15.Family photos of the author suggest that she was BLANK child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

Now listen to the six answer choices, labeled A through F.

A. a sullenB. an amiableC. a surlyD. a beautifulE. a prudentF. a stunning

Indicate your two answer choices or go on to hear them in context.


Answer Choices in Context:

A. a sullen. Family photos of the author suggest that she was a sullen child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

B. an amiable. Family photos of the author suggest that she was an amiable child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

C. a surly. Family photos of the author suggest that she was a surly child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

D. a beautiful. Family photos of the author suggest that she was a beautiful child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

E. a prudent. Family photos of the author suggest that she was a prudent child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

F. a stunning. Family photos of the author suggest that she was a stunning child: she seemed to wear a permanent frown.

Indicate your two answer choices.


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Question 16.Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two BLANK theories emerged.


A. complexB. competingC. dubiousD. conclusiveE. contendingF. irrefutable




A. complex. Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two complex theories emerged.

B. competing. Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two competing theories emerged.

C. dubious. Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two dubious theories emerged.

D. conclusive. Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two conclusive theories emerged.

E. contending. Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two contending theories emerged.

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F. irrefutable. Biologists agree that snakes descended from lizards, but exactly where this first happened has been a matter of debate since the 1800’s, when two irrefutable theories emerged.



Question 17.A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a BLANK that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

Now listen to the six answer choices, labeled A through F.A. susceptibilityB. theoryC. characteristicD. juxta positionE. collisionF. hypothesis




A. susceptibility. A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a susceptibility that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

B. theory. A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a theory that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

C. characteristic. A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a characteristic that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

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D. juxta position. A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a juxta position that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

E. collision. A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a collision that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

F. hypothesis. A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a hypothesis that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.



Question 18.The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to BLANK.


A. materializeB. disintegrateC. crumbleD. prosperE. flourishF. scuffle




A. materialize. The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to materialize.

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B. disintegrate. The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to disintegrate.

C. crumble. The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to crumble.

D. prosper. The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to prosper.

E. flourish. The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to flourish.

F. scuffle. The remarkable thing about the mayoral race, in retrospect, is that so many people wanted the job of managing a municipality so obviously about to scuffle.



Question 19.It is a testimony to Roth’s BLANK that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.


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A. persistenceB. deteriorationC. talentD. ambitionE. declineF. genius




A. persistence. It is a testimony to Roth’s persistence that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.

B. deterioration. It is a testimony to Roth’s deterioration that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.

C. talent. It is a testimony to Roth’s talent that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.

D. ambition. It is a testimony to Roth’s ambition that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.

E. decline. It is a testimony to Roth’s decline that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.

F. genius. It is a testimony to Roth’s genius that he could not quite bring himself to write a book as dull and flat as his original conception for his novel Everyman seemed to demand.



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Questions 20 to 23 are based on the following passage.In the early twentieth century, the idea that pianists should be musician-scholars whose playing reflected the way composers wanted their music to sound replaced the notion that pianists should be virtuosos whose performances thrilled audiences with emotional daring and showy displays of technique. One important figure to emerge in the period, though a harpsichordist rather than a pianist, was Wanda Landowska (1879–1959). She demonstrated how the keyboard works of Baroque composers such as Bach, Handel, Scarlatti (Spelled: S C A R L A T T I), and Couperin (Spelled: C O U P E R I N) probably sounded in their own times. It would be a mistake to consider Landowska a classicist, however. She had been born in an age of Romantic playing dominated by Liszt, Leschetizky, and their pupils. Thus she grew up with and was influenced by certain Romantic traditions of performance, whatever the stringency of her musical scholarship; Landowska knew how to hold audiences breathless, and when she gave recitals, they responded with deathlike silence and rapt attention.

Her playing was Romantic, but it was at least as close in spirit to the style of playing intended by composers of the Baroque (1600–1750) and Classical (1750–1830) eras, as have been the more exacting but less emotionally resonant interpretations of most harpsichordists since Landowska. She had a miraculous quality of touch, a seemingly autonomous left hand; no artist in her generation could clarify with such deftness the polyphonic writing of the Baroque masters. And none could make their music so spring to life.

Her achievements were the result of a lifetime of scholarship, truly remarkable physical gifts, and resilient rhythm, all combined with excellent judgment about when not to hold the printed note sacrosanct. Of course, developing such judgment demanded considerable experience and imagination. She was a genius at underlining the dramatic and emotional content of a piece, and to do so, she took liberties, all kinds of liberties, while nevertheless preserving the integrity of a composer’s score. In short, her entire musical approach was Romantic: intensely personal, full of light and shade, never pedantic.

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Thanks to Landowska, Bach’s music (originally composed for the harpsichord) now sounded inappropriately thick when played on the piano. One by one, pianists stopped playing Bach’s music as adapted for the piano by Liszt or by Tausig. Then they gradually stopped performing any kind of Baroque music on the piano, even Scarlatti’s. The piano repertoire, it began to be felt, was extensive enough without reverting to transcriptions of Baroque music originally written for the harpsichord—and piano performances of Bach and Scarlatti were, despite the obvious similarities between the harpsichord and the piano, transcriptions, no matter how faithfully the original notes were played. In accordance with this kind of purism came an emphasis on studying composers’ manuscript notations, a relatively new field of musicology that is flourishing even today.

Question 20.


The passage suggests that Landowska’s playing embodied a rejection of which of the following?

A. Emotionally resonant interpretations of musical worksB. An audience’s complete silence during a performanceC. Performances of previously obscure Baroque worksD. The idea that a performer can correctly judge when not to hold the

printed note sacrosanctE. Performances emphasizing showy displays of technique that

compromise the integrity of a composer’s original score


Question 21.


Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the compositions of Scarlatti?

A. They were adapted by Liszt and Tausig.

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B. They have not been transcribed faithfully.C. They were not composed during the Baroque period.D. They were composed for instruments other than piano.E. They fell out of favor with most musicians in the early twentieth

century.


Question 22.


The passage suggests that Landowska would probably have objected most strongly to which of the following?

A. A performance of a Bach keyboard piece played on the harpsichordB. A performance of a Handel organ piece on a Baroque pipe organC. A modern composition written for a harpsichord and two pianosD. A piano solo in which the performer occasionally departs from the

tempo indicated by the composerE. A performance of a piano and violin sonata in which the piano part is

played on the harpsichord


Question 23.


The author’s assertion that Landowska should not be considered a classicist serves primarily to emphasize which of the following?

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A. Landowska specialized in playing the works of composers of the Baroque era.

B. Landowska’s repertoire included orchestral music only.C. Landowska’s musical performances were not devoid of emotion.D. Landowska’s repertoire emphasized works of long-lasting interest and

value.E. Landowska advocated the study of Classical style or form.Select and indicate one answer choice from among the choices provided.

Questions 24 and 25 are based on the following passage.

Scientists formerly believed that the rocky planets—Earth, Mercury, Venus, and Mars—were created by the rapid gravitational collapse of a dust cloud, a deflation giving rise to a dense orb. That view was challenged in the 1960’s, when studies of Moon craters revealed that these craters were caused by the impact of objects that were in great abundance about 4.5 billion years ago but whose number appeared to have quickly decreased shortly thereafter. This observation rejuvenated Otto Schmidt’s 1944 theory of accretion. According to this theory, cosmic dust gradually lumped into ever-larger conglomerates: particulates, gravel, small and then larger balls, planetesimals (tiny planets), and, ultimately, planets. As the planetesimals became larger, their numbers decreased. Consequently, the number of collisions between planetesimals decreased.

Question 24.This question has three answer choices, labeled A through C. Consider each of the three choices separately and select all that apply. The credited response may be one, two, or all three of the choices.

The passage provides evidence that Schmidt would be likely to disagree with the theory presented in the first sentence overA. the length of time it took for the rocky planets to formB. the most likely causes of the Moon’s impact cratersC. the importance of cosmic dust as a seminal material in planetary

formationIndicate your answer choice or choices.

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Question 25.


The word “observation” appears in the third sentence of the passage, which reads “This observation rejuvenated Otto Schmidt’s 1944 theory of accretion.” Which of the following best describes the “observation” referred to in the passage?

A. The rocky planets were created by the rapid gravitational collapse of a dust cloud.

B. Certain features on the Moon’s surface are impact craters caused by collisions with objects such as planetesimals.

C. The rocky planets were formed by a slow accretion of cosmic dust into increasingly larger bodies.

D. The number of objects colliding with the Moon appears to have been high for a while and then rapidly diminished.

E. There are far fewer planetesimals in existence today than there were about 4.5 billion years ago.

Indicate your answer choice or choices.

This is the end of Practice Set 1. In an actual test, once you complete a section you may not return to it.

The answer key and the explanations for the answers to Chapter 6, Practice Set 1, are in the separate document named “GRE Chapter 6 Set 1 Answers and Explanations.doc.

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