A Level PE – Revision Questions – Neuromuscular function

The area between one Z line and the next Z line is called what? – sarcomere

In muscle fibre types what does FOG stand for? - fast oxidative glycolytic

How does the type of muscle contraction in the quadriceps change during the upward and downward phases of a squat? – isotonic concentric during upward phase, isotonic eccentric during downward phase

State 3 long term benefits of training on the muscular system – muscular hypertrophy, increased number of muscle fibres (hyperplasia), increased stores of PC, ATP, glycogen and triglycerides in muscles, increased capillary supply to muscles, increased number of mitochondria

Muscle fibres are made up of repeated units known as what? – myofibrils

Name the two protein filaments which are found in every sarcomere. – actin and myosin

When a muscle contracts what happens to the Z lines? – they move closer together

What is the I band and what happens to it when a muscle contracts? – it’s the area of actin not overlapping myosin and it decreases when a muscle contracts

What is the H zone and what happens to it when a muscle contracts? – it’s the area of myosin not overlapping with actin and it decreases or disappears when a muscle contracts

What is a neuromuscular junction? - place where motor neurone links to muscle fibre (at the motor end plate)

What is the name of the protein that winds around actin? – tropomyosin

Where are calcium ions involved in muscle contraction stored whilst a muscle is at rest? – sarcoplasmic reticulum

What happens when calcium ions enter the synaptic knob? – acetylcholine is released to help initiate a muscle contraction

Describe the all or nothing law – all the muscle fibres within a motor unit either contract or do not contract, there is no partial contraction

Name the globular protein which calcium ions bind with to move tropomyosin and free up the actin binding sites. – troponin

What is formed when actin and myosin bind together? – crossbridges

What name is given to the action of myosin pulling on actin during a muscle contraction? – the powerstroke

What term is given to the process by which muscle fibres increase in size due to training? – hypertrophy

One benefit of power training is that there will be an increase in the number of enzymes which break down ATP and PC. Which component of fitness would this benefit the most? – speed

One benefit of training is increased muscle elasticity. State one benefit of this for the performer. – decreased risk of injury, increased range of movement

How does increased capillary density as a result of training benefit a performer? – faster/increased gas exchange therefore can provide more O2 to muscles

Increased myofibril hypertrophy as a result of training would most benefit which component of fitness? – strength (accept power)

Which type of muscle fibres have lower levels of anaerobic enzymes? – slow twitch

Which type of muscle fibres have the largest number of capillaries? – slow twitch (to deliver more O2 for aerobic energy production)

Which muscle fibres have the largest number of mitochondria? – slow twitch (this is where Krebs cycle and ETC occur)

Where does Kreb’s cycle and the Electron Transport Chain occur? – in mitochondria

Where does glycolysis occur? – cytoplasm

Which muscle fibres have the largest number of myoglobin? – slow twitch

Which muscle fibre type fatigues the most quickly? – fast twitch type IIx

Which type of muscle fibres produce the most force with the most speed? - fast twitch type IIx

What is the full term for type IIa fibres? – fast oxidative glycolytic fibres

What is the full term for type IIx fibres? – fast glycolytic fibres

True or false: fast twitch fibres produce energy mostly through anaerobic pathways. – true

Which fibres type would be best for a 100m sprinter? – fast twitch type IIx

True or false: fast twitch fibres have greater stores of ATP than slow twitch. – true

What is a motor unit? – a motor neurone and all of the muscle fibres connected to it

Define motor neurone. – nerves that carry information from the central nervous system (CNS) to the skeletal muscles

True or false: fast twitch fibres have larger motor neurones? – true

True or false: slow twitch fibres are able to relax more quickly than fast twitch? – false

How does being smaller/thinner benefit slow twitch fibres? – less diffusion distance and less weight/mass to physically carry during competition such as marathon

How do a large amount of myoglobin benefit slow twitch fibres? – greater supply of O2

Roughly what percentage of fast twitch fibres does the average person have? – 50%

True or false: endurance training can help convert type IIx fibres into type IIa fibres but cannot change fast twitch fibres into slow twitch fibres? – true

For which types of sport may Type IIa fibres be the best? – team sports/games activities which involve a mix of aerobic and anaerobic demands

What term can be defined by ‘another stimulus is applied before the motor unit (muscle) relaxes completely, resulting in more tension’. – wave summation

What term can be defined by ‘when stimuli are at a high frequency there is no time for relaxation between impulses so muscle tension is maintained’. – tetanus

A motor neurone does not activate a single muscle fibre, but a group of muscle fibres (all of the fibres that it is connected to); what does this define? – the all or nothing law

True or false: a motor unit can have a mix of slow and fast twitch fibres. – false (all the same type in each unit)

Define multiple unit summation and explain when it would be used – it is when the brain sends signals to activate more motor units, used when a greater strength of contraction is required

Define spatial summation and explain why/when it occurs? - The recruitment of motor units within a muscle is rotated to avoid fatigue. Used during endurance (submaximal) activities

Motor neurones pass messages from where to where? – From the central nervous system (brain) via the spinal cord to the muscle fibres

What happens when calcium ions enter the synaptic knob? – acetylcholine is released.

What is the role of acetylcholine in the initiation of a muscle contraction? – it spreads across the synapse forming a bridge along which the nerve impulse (action potential) can pass into the muscle fibre

State 3 of the 5 stages of muscle contraction. – resting, excitation, contraction, recharge, relaxation.

Which of the 5 stages of muscle contraction does the sliding filament theory relate to? – the contraction stage

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Diet and nutrition

Sugar, rice and bread are good sources of which nutrient? – carbohydrates

Roughly, what percentage of our diet should come from carbohydrates? – 60%

Which nutrient helps with growth and repair of cells? – protein

Which nutrient aids gastrointestinal functioning? – fibre

Define glycaemic index. - the rate at which the glucose from the food is broken down and absorbed

Define glycaemic load. - an estimate of how much a food will affect blood glucose levels

To decrease recovery time and reduce the risk of injury and fatigue it is best to eat foods with a high glycaemic index and load shortly after completing exercise. What is the time known as? – the two hour window of opportunity

Milk is an excellent drink to have immediately after training because of its mix of which nutrients? Protein and carbohydrates (and water)

Food should be eaten 3-4 hours before activity, explain how much carbohydrates, fat and fibre should be in this meal? – high carb (enhance glycogen stores), low fat (slows the rate at which food is digested), moderate in fibre (to help digestive processes)

Define the term ‘positive energy balance.’ – when energy intake is greater than energy expenditure and the result is a gain in weight

Excess glucose is stored as glycogen in muscles and liver. What is excess glycogen stored as? – fat

Define the term ‘negative energy balance.’ – when energy expenditure is greater than energy intake and the result is a loss in weight

What is basal metabolic rate (BMR)? - the minimum amount of energy required to keep our body functioning

True or false: your basal metabolic rate takes into account your physical activity levels. – false

Give an example of when two players in the same sports team may have different optimal weights. – best example is rugby when a prop would have a higher optimal weight and winger a lower optimal weight

Roughly what percentage of our body is made up of water? – 60%

State 2 factors which would affect the rate at which we would lose water during exercise. – exercise duration and intensity levels, environmental temperature and humidity, body size and fitness levels

True or false: dehydration will lead to difficulties in controlling body temperature. – true (as blood flows more slowly and vasoconstriction/vasodilation becomes difficult

During sweating we lose water (fluid) and what else? – electrolytes

Glucose osmolality of the drink is the same as blood defines which type of sports drink – isotonic

Glucose osmolality of the drink is greater than blood defines which type of sports drink – hypertonic

Glucose osmolality of the drink is lower than blood defines which type of sports drink – hypertonic

What type of sports drink could be referred to as ‘the thirst quencher?’ – hypotonic

Which type of sports drink is emptied into the stomach the most quickly? – hypotonic

Which type of sports drink is good for sports at low intensity or sports that require quick energy release but not in high quantities? – hypotonic

Why might an athlete use a hypotonic drink during a marathon run and what else might they require alongside this? – used because it rehydrates them the most quickly, would also need another source of carbohydrates as hypotonic drinks have little glucose

What type of sports drink could be referred to as ‘the energy booster?’ – hypertonic

Which type of sports drink is emptied into the stomach slowly and could therefore potentially cause stomach problems? – hypertonic

Which type of sports drinks is good for post-workout replenishment of energy levels? – hypertonic

Which sports drink is the preferred choice for most athletes due to the balance of energy supply, speed of energy supply and rehydration capacity? – isotonic

True or false: hypotonic drinks are able to rehydrate us more quickly than water. – true

What is the danger in replacing fluids lost through sweat with water? – could lead to electrolyte inbalance as fluid is replaced but salts are not

State 3 problems in using water as opposed to a sports drink during exercise. – electrolyte inbalance, can cause bloating, doesn’t provide any energy, increases urination, no taste so might not drink as much

Which components of a healthy diet are the most important to consume during a marathon? – carbohydrates and water

Which 3 components are essential for post exercise recovery? – carbohydrates, protein and water

During what period are muscles said to be primed to accept nutrients that can stimulate muscle repair, muscle growth, and muscle strength? The 2-hour window of opportunity

True or false: chocolate milkshake is possibly the best post-workout choice? – true (perfect mix of fluid, protein and carbohydrates)

Name the process by which an athlete will increase the percentage of carbohydrates in their diet in the lead up to an event in order to increase muscle glycogen stores. – carbo-loading

For carbo-loading what considerations would an athlete need to give to the percentage of carbohydrates in their diet and the daily total number of calories that they are taking in for the 2-3

days leading up to an event? – percentage of energy gained through carbs would increase to around 85-95%, total calorie intake would remain the same to avoid risk of bloating/stomach problems

Which supplement is likely to enable a performer to work at maximal levels for longer? – creatine (increases PC stores)

What is a possible drawback of taking a creatine supplement? - water retention, vomiting, muscle cramps and diarrhoea

In what way would a protein supplement help an athlete? – allow them to train harder and more often through greater growth and repair of muscles

What are the drawbacks of taking protein supplements? – liver and kidney damage, also potentially pointless as dietary protein may be enough

True or false: herbal remedies will benefit sports performance levels. – neither, some help and some don’t

State a benefit of caffeine for a sportsperson. – increased alertness and reactions, increases the body’s use of fats therefore increasing ATP supply for aerobic activity

How does bicarbonate of soda benefit anaerobic activity and state one drawback ? – buffers lactic acid/ maintain pH levels, drawback include stomach cramps and vomiting

How does drinking beet juice benefit endurance performance? – it’s a vasodilator and increases the O2 supply to muscles

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Preparation and Training

Define VO2 max. - Maximum volume of oxygen that can be utilized in one minute

Define strength. - The force developed in a muscle during a contraction

Define agility. - The ability to change direction with speed

Define reaction time. - Time taken for a performer to respond to a stimulus

Define submaximal aerobic fitness. - The ability to maintain a high percentage of VO2 max for a prolonged period of time

Define anaerobic capacity. - The amount of energy obtained from anaerobic sources

Define speed. - Time taken to move a body (part or whole) through a movement

Define coordination. - The ability of the body to link movements together, either with other movements or in relation to an external object

Define flexibility. - The range of movement available at a joint

Define maximal strength. - The force that can be developed in a single maximal contraction

Define power and state how it is calculated. - The rate at which force is produced (speed x strength)

Define balance. - The ability to maintain your centre of mass over a base of support

Define exercise economy. - Energy required to maintain a constant velocity of movement

Define local muscular endurance. - The ability of a muscle to sustain repeated contractions

True or false: maximal aerobic fitness and VO2 max are the same. – true

State 3 tests for VO2 max. – 12 min Cooper run, MSFT, yo yo test

The Wingate Test and RAST can be used to assess which component of fitness? – anaerobic capacity

State a test for maximal strength. – one rep max or grip/leg and back dynamometer

The 30m sprint test is used to assess speed. What other component can affect the results? – reaction time

Other than the Illinois agility test state a test for agility. – T-test or 3 cone test.

State a test for coordination. – Anderson wall toss test

The stork stand test is used to assess which component of fitness? – balance

Which test can be used to assess flexibility? – sit and reach test

True or false: there are no tests available for exercise economy? – true

State 2 sub-maximal tests which can be used to estimate VO2 max. – Harvard step test and Rocjport walk test.

State a test for local muscular endurance. – sit up multi-stage fitness test

What does RPE stand for? – rate of perceived exertion (as part of the Borg scale) used to determine exercise intensity

What word is used for the process by which a fitness test must be completed? – protocol

Define reliability in terms of fitness testing. – how repeatable the results are

Define validity in terms of fitness testing – whether or not the test tests only the component that it is meant to (and isn’t affected by other components)

Other than the standing broad jump and the sergeant jump how can power be tested? – Margaria Kalaman test

When is the clock started and stopped during the Margaria-Kalaman test? – started when performer steps on 3rd step, stopped when they step on 9th step.

How many 35m sprints are done in the RAST? – six

The Cunningham and Faulkner test is used to assess which component of fitness? – anaerobic capacity

At what speed and what incline is a treadmill set for the Cunningham and Faulkner test? – 8mph and 20% incline (performer keeps going for as long as they can)

How long does the Wingate test last? – 30s

True or false: the Wingate test and the Cunningham and Faulkner test are both completed on a cycle ergometer (exercise bike). – false, the Wingate is but the other one is on a treadmill

How does the yo-yo test differ from the MSFT? – it involves 10m of walking (active recovery) at the end of each 40m run.

True or false: The MSFT is generally said to be more appropriate for team sport (games) players in assessing their VO2 max than the yo-yo test. – false, the yo-yo test is more valid as it mimics sprints and then breaks in play

Name the 2 types of yo-yo test, one with 10s of active recovery at the end of each 40m run and the other with only 5s recovery. - Intermittent recovery test (YYIRT) with 10s and Intermittent endurance test (YYIET) with 5s recovery.

How long does the a person have to perform continuous steps for in the Harvard step test and how many times is heart rate measured afterwards? – 5 mins and 3 pulse rate measurements

How far does a performer walk in the Rockport walk test? – one mile

True or false: maximal fitness tests such as the MSFT are likely to give more accurate results than submaximal tests such as the Harvard step test? – true (although they can be affected by motivation)

State 3 factors that could affect the results of any fitness test. – ensuring correct protocol is followed, sufficient practice time allowed, sufficient warm up completed, accurate measurements/timing, no adverse affects from weather

For which type of sportspeople would the Wingate test probably be more suitable than the RAST for determining anaerobic capacity? – cyclists

What are the advantages of ‘field tests’ such as the MSFT and the yo-yo test for assessing VO2 max as opposed to laboratory tests in which a performers O2 expenditure and blood lactate levels are analysed? – field tests are cheaper and can test multiple people at once

When a fitness test has been completed what are the results generally compared against? – normative data

MAOD is a measurement associated with anaerobic capacity. What does MAOD stand for? – maximum accumulated oxygen deficit

Name an activity in which gas analysis would be difficult? – anything not done on a treadmill, rower or exercise bike (e.g. football, swimming etc)

State 3 ways in which a fitness circuit can be altered? – change exercises, change work period, change rest period, change number of laps

State 4 advantages of circuit training. – cheap, set up anywhere/little space needed, adaptable for specific sports, adaptable for specific muscle groups, can accommodate large numbers,.

Define continuous training and state which component of fitness it is best for. - Long duration training where intensity remains constant throughout with no rest or break. Improves stamina

Other than continuous training what other method is particularly suited to improving cardiovascular fitness? – fartlek

State 3 ways in which interval training can be altered.- duration of exercise period, intensity of exercise, duration of rest, number of reps per set, number of sets per workout

State the 2 main ways in which flexibility training is divided. – static and dynamic mobility training

State 3 types of static stretching. – static, active, passive, PNF

What does PNF stand for? – proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

What type of muscle contraction is done during PNF? – isometric (no movement)

What is the difference between static stretching and passive stretching? – static stretching involves the individual holding their own limb in the stretched position, passive stretching uses a partner or apparatus to hold the stretched position.

Define active stretching. - Slow stretching without assistance. Only the strength of the opposing (antagonist) muscles are used to hold the position

What is the best form of mobility training for improving flexibility? – PNF

What is the difference between static and dynamic stretching? – static is without movement, dynamic is with movement

What name is given to stretches done with rapid, aggressive movements? – ballistic stretching

Which components of fitness are likely to be focussed on during weight training? – strength, power, muscular endurance (maybe speed)

How would an individual alter their reps/sets and weight lifted to focus on either strength or muscular endurance? – for strength it should be near max weight with low reps (6), for muscular endurance it should be 40-60% one rep max and high reps (20-30).

What are the two main types of weight training? – free weights and machine weights

Give 4 advantages of free weights over machine weights? – cheaper, can do at home, greater range of exercises, use multiple muscle groups, include fixator muscles, can increase weight in smaller increments, use less space

What method of training includes parachutes and is designed to improve strength and speed? – resistance training

Which method of training uses bungee cords and is designed to improve speed by training nerve cells to fire impulses more quickly? – assisted training

Which method of training uses jumping, bounding and hopping exercises designed to improve power? – plyometrics

Which method of training uses ladders and mini hurdles and is designed to improve speed? – SAQ (speed, agility, quickness)

Which method of training is focussed on improving core strength? – functional stability training

What is cross training? - Training in two or more sports in order to improve fitness and performance in a main sport

‘the relevance of the choice of exercise to the activity to be improved’, relates to which principle of training? – specificity

In what 4 ways can progressive overload be applied? – FITT

What does FITT stand for? – frequency, intensity, time, type

State 2 ways in which overtraining can occur. – training too hard, training too often, not allowing enough rest/recovery time

State 3 problems associated with overtraining. – fatigue, increased risk of injury, demotivation, reduced performance levels

Which principle of training relates to ‘use it or lose it’? – reversibility

State 3 reasons why reversibility may occur. – training stops due to injury, demotivation, end of season

Which principle of training is missing from here: SPOR? – individual needs

State 3 ways of measuring exercise intensity. – Borg scale, heart rate method, Karvonen method, 1 rep max

For someone aged 20 yrs old what is their aerobic training zone in bpm? 120-160bpm (60-80% max HR which is 220-age)

What percentage of max heart rate is the anaerobic training zone (also known as ‘training zone)? – 80-90%

In the Karvonen theory what is heart rate reserve (also called heart rate range)? – max HR-resting HR

How is the necessary heart rate calculated using the Karvonen theory? - (heart rate reserve x training percentage) + resting heart rate

The Borg scale measures intensity between 0-20. What does 15 represent? – hard training

Give one advantage and one disadvantage of the Borg scale. – cheap, easy to use, but only an estimate/less accurate

State 3 types of technology that can be used to help measure exercise intensity. – pedometer, heart rate monitor, GPS, fitbit, mobile apps such as strava or mapmyrun

What height does an athlete need to be above to gain the benefits associated with altitude training? – 1500m

Which component of fitness will be most affected at altitude? – VO2 max

True or false: you will cross your lactate threshold sooner at altitude. – true

Roughly how many weeks does it take to acclimatise to altitude? – 2 (accept 3)

How else can an athlete gain the benefits of altitude training without actually going to altitude? – hypobaric chambers and altitude tents

True or false: there are no negatives associated with altitude training. – false (there are lots)

In terms of live high/low and train high/low what combination is thought to be most effective for gaining maximum benefits from altitude training? – live high, train low

What term is given to any treatment or recovery aid which uses cold? – cryotherapy

For sports massage to aid recovery muscles should always be rubbed in which direction and why? – towards the heart to assist the removal of waste products

True or false: compression clothing is meant to work by aiding venous return and increasing cardiac output? – true

What does this define: Dividing your overall training programme into parts or periods that are designed to achieve different goals. – periodisation

Name each phase of a year/season for periodisation (not microcycle etc) and state the main focus for each phase. – preparation phase (focus is on fitness training), competition phase (focus is on tactics and match preparation), transition phase (focus is on rest and recovery)

Previously called pre season, peak season and post season what are these 3 stages of periodisation now known as? – preparation phase, competition phase, transition phase

Name the 3 cycles that training can be broken down into as part of periodisation. – microcycles, mesocycles, macrocycles

What is tapering and when would a sportsperson use it? - reducing the amount of training (or intensity) prior to competition

What is peaking? - making sure that both body and mind are at their best for competition (not fatigued and not over-rested/out of practice)

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Injury Prevention and Rehabilitation

The two main types of injury are acute and overuse injury; define these two terms. – acute injuries happen rapidly with the injury occurring at a specific moment, overuse injuries develop over time from repetitive movements

Give 2 examples of an overuse injury. - Patellar tendonitis, achilles tendonitis, tennis elbow, golfers elbow and shin splints

Give 3 examples of acute injuries. – sprains, strains, fractures, dislocations, cuts/abraisons

Define a sprain and give an example. - A ligament injury caused by a wrenching or twisting action (e.g. a twisted ankle)

Define a strain and give an example. - A pulled or torn muscle (e.g. pulled hamstring).

What is the function of cartilage and where is it found? – found at the ends of bones, prevents damage from bones rubbing together

What is haematoma? - A local accumulation of blood in a tissue (also known as bruising)

The achilles tendon can become separated partially (tear) or fully torn. What is a full separation known as? – rupture

What type of movement is likely to lead to a ruptured Achilles tendon? – an explosive movement (such as jumping or the start of a sprint)

Name 2 of the 4 ligaments found in the knee joint. – anterior cruciate, posterior cruciate (these are the two main ligaments in this joint), medial collateral, lateral collateral

What is the function of ligaments? – connect bone to bone and provide stability/prevent unwanted movement

What letter does the ACL and PCL in the knee joint look like? – an X

An ACL injury is normally caused by which type of movement? – a twisting action while feet remain planted (studs stuck in ground)

A PCL injury is normally caused by what type of movement? – impact to front of knee or knee hyperextension

What is the immediate treatment of an ACL or PCL injury? – RICE or POLICE

Why is dislocation of the shoulder a more common injury than hip dislocation? – the socket in a hip joint is deeper than in the shoulder joint

True or false: a fracture is not the same as a broken bone. – false (it’s the same thing)

Define tendinitis. - when the tendon becomes inflamed

Define tendinopathy. - is when the tendon deteriorates over time without any inflammation

State 3 ways in which injuries can be prevented. – joint support, physical conditioning, correct footwear, protective clothing/equipment, warm up, correct technique, following rules

State 3 examples of protective equipment. – mouth guards, shin pads, body armour, helmets, knee pads etc

State 2 injuries that can be caused by incorrectly fitting footwear. - Shin splints, hip injuries, lower back pain, Achilles tendonitis, blisters, runner’s knee

A persons’ normal foot position can be one of 3 positions. One is neutral, name the other two. – Pronated and supinated.

Training to prevent injury is known by what word (made up from two other terms) – prehabilitation

What does POLICE stand for? – protection, optimal loading, ice, compression, elevation

What are ‘soft tissues’? – ligaments, tendons, muscles (anything but bone)

Why is POLICE sometimes said to enable a performer to recover more quickly than RICE? – Optimal loading encourages recovery through increased circulation to the injured area

State one type of injury where POLICE is probably better than RICE. – pulled muscles (due to the potential for muscle wastage)

What does DOMS stand for? – delayed onset of muscle soreness

What is a hyperbaric chamber? – a chamber in which oxygen is at a higher pressure than normal

What is the kinetic chain? – The idea that a weakness in one area can cause an injury in another

Rehabilitation using equipment such as balance boards and balance balls (focussed on strengthening stabilising muscles) is an example of what type of rehabilitation? – proprioceptive retraining

Which method of recovery aids venous return and as a result removes lactate, increases muscle oxidation and reduces exercise induced muscle damage (EIMD)? – compression clothing

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Movement analysis and muscular-skeletal system

Name 3 bones in the leg. – tibia, fibula, femur, patella

Name 3 bones in the arm. – radius, ulna, humerus

Which bones articulate at the shoulder joint? – scapula and humerus form ball and socket(and clavicle)

Define adduction. - Moving towards the midline of the body

Define extension. - Increasing angle of a joint

Define rotation. – a twisting action

Define circumduction – a circular motion

Which muscles cause flexion and extension at the shoulder joint? – flexion is pectoralis major and anterior deltoid, extension is posterior deltoid

Which muscles cause abduction and adduction at the shoulder joint? – abduction is deltoids, adduction is latissimus dorsi

Which bones articulate at the hip joint? – femur and pelvis

Which muscles cause flexion and extension at the hip joint? – flexion is psoas major, extension is gluteus maximus

Which muscle is the prime mover/agonist for extension at the elbow joint? – triceps

Which muscles are agonists for extension at the knee joint? – quadriceps

Which bones articulate at the knee joint? – tibia, femur

Which muscle is the agonist for dorsi flexion at the ankle joint? – tibialis anterior

Which muscle is the prime mover at the ankle joint when pushing off the blocks for a sprint start? – gastrocnemius (and soleus)

Name the 5 regions of the vertebral column in the correct order. – cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

Which muscle is the prime mover at the knee joint for the driving leg when pushing off the blocks at the start of a 100m race? – quadriceps

Which muscle is the prime mover at the elbow joint during the upward phase of a push up? – triceps

Which muscle is the prime mover at the hip joint when moving the leg back to kick a conversion in rugby? – gluteus maximus

Which muscle is the prime mover at the shoulder joint when moving the arm back during the run up in javelin? – posterior deltoid

Define antagonist. - A muscle that opposes an agonist for a given movement and prevents overstretching of the agonist

Define the term ‘origin’ in movement analysis. - Position where muscle connects to the stationary bone in a movement

Define the term ‘insertion’ in movement analysis. - Position where muscle connects to the moving bone in a movement

Where is the origin for the bicep during the upward phase of a bicep curl? – scapula

What is a fixator muscle? - A muscle which allows the prime mover to work more efficiently by stabilising the bone where the prime mover originates

Name and define the 3 types of muscle contraction. – isometric (no movement), isotonic concentric (muscle shortens as it contracts), isotonic eccentric (muscle lengthens as it contracts)

What type of movements are isotonic eccentric contractions associated with? – downward movements controlling against the effects of gravity (e.g. landing a jump, downward part of bicep curl)

In which muscle would an isotonic eccentric contraction occur when landing a jump? – quadriceps

Name the 3 phases of the stretch shortening cycle? – isotonic eccentric contraction (during downward phase), amortization phase (moment between eccentric and concentric contraction), isotonic concentric contraction (upward phase)

The stretch shortening cycle is closely associated with which method of training? – plyometrics

Name and define the 3 parts of a lever. – fulcrum (the point about which the lever rotates), resistance (the load that is being moved), effort (the force applied by the muscle)

Which part of a lever is in the middle for each type of lever? First class is fulcrum, second class is resistance, third class is effort

What type of lever is found in the neck and used for nodding your head? – first class lever

Which type of lever allows for the most weight to be lifted with the minimum effort? – second class

A bicep curl is an example of which type of lever? – third class

What is the effort arm and the resistance arm? – distance from effort to fulcrum and distance from resistance to fulcrum

What advantage does a long resistance arm and short effort arm give? – allows greater range of motion and speed of movement such as in a third class lever

What advantage does a longer effort arm and shorter resistance arm allow? – more weight lifted for less effort

Using equipment such as a tennis racket allows a performer to increase the length of which aspect of a lever? – the resistance arm (therefore allowing greater range and speed of movement)

Define the term ‘inertia’ - reluctance to change the state of motion

Name and define newton’s first law of motion - The law of inertia. ‘an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.’

Name and define newton’s second law of motion - The law of acceleration. ‘The acceleration of an object by a force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the force, in the same direction as the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.’ (F = M A)

Name and define newton’s third law of motion - The law of action / reaction. ‘for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.’

Define centre of mass – the point where all the mass of an object appears to be concentrated

State an everyday object that has it’s centre of mass outside of the object. – anything circular (sellotape)

Define stability – the ability to keep the centre of mass over the base of support

State 2 ways in which a person could increase their stability – move their centre of mass closer to the ground, keep their centre of mass over their base of support, widen the base of support, increase their mass

Which high jump technique results in a performers centre of mass going below their body (and maybe below the bar) – Fosbury flop

Define ‘force’ - a push or a pull, it changes the state of motion of an object

How many Newton’s are in 1kg? – 10N

How many values does a scalar have? – one

Force, acceleration, velocity and momentum are all examples of what? – vectors

What is a net force? – the resulting force when 2 or more forces act on an object

State the 4 aspects of a warm up. – pulse raiser, stretching/mobility exercise, skills specific practice, psychological preparation

What is meant by thermo-regulation? – controlling body temperature

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Biomechanics

Define angular velocity. – the rate at which an object rotates.

Define angular momentum. – the amount of motion a body has during rotation

How is angular momentum calculated? – angular velocity x moment of inertia

How is moment of inertia calculated? – mass x distance from axis

Define moment of inertia.- resistance to change of motion when rotating

The relationship between velocity and pressure which acts on a body as it passes through fluid/air is known as what? – the Bernoulli effect

Define displacement. – the shortest line measurement between two points

How is speed calculated? – distance divided by time taken

How does velocity differ from speed? – velocity is a vector as it includes direction as well as size

Define acceleration. – rate of change in velocity

How is acceleration calculated? – (final velocity minus initial velocity) divided by time taken

Define the ‘Conservation of angular momentum’ - The principle that the angular momentum of an object remains constant as long as no external force (moment of torque) acts on that object

What is a ‘moment’ – a turning force

Tucking in during a somersault will cause what to happen to moment of inertia? – it will decrease (causing angular velocity to increase)

How can an ice skater decrease their moment of inertia? – tuck their arms in

What term is given to the flight path that a projectile will follow when not affected by air resistance and spin? – parabolic curve

State 3 factors that will affect the distance that a projectile will travel. – angle of release, speed of release, height of release

When a projectile is only affected by gravity what is the optimum angle for maximum horizontal distance? – 45 degrees

The optimum angle of release for maximum distance is 45 degrees but in sport it is generally better to have a lower angle of release, why is this? – greater the angle of release the greater the amount of force required to overcome weight and thus speed of release is reduced.

What is meant by attack angle? – the optimum angle of release for a sporting situation

Two shot putters throw a shot with exactly the same force at an angle of 35 degrees. One is 6ft tall and the other is 4ft, who wins? – the taller person

State 2 factors that could result in a projectile not following a true parabolic curve? – high speed, large cross sectional areas, not a smooth surface

The Magnus effect will change the flight path of a tennis ball doing what? – spinning

When performing a topspin shot the air at the top of the ball will slow down, what will this do to the pressure? – cause it to increase

When performing a topspin shot in table tennis what effect will friction have on the ball when it hits the table? – it will skim off at a low angle

Why is it good for a golfer to apply some backspin to a shot? – causes the ball to float and travel further and ensures it has a more controlled landing (stops dead rather than skimming forwards)

Name the theory by which a tennis player or footballer is able to put curve on a serve or a free kick. – Magnus effect

True or false: drag force and air resistance are essentially the same thing. – true

Name a sport in which streamlining is vital. – many answers; e.g. swimming, bobsleigh, cycling

State 3 factors that affect the amount of air resistance which acts on an object. – velocity, cross sectional area, shape, surface

Name the swimsuit that was banned for giving swimmers too great a streamlining and buoyancy advantage. – LZR swimsuit

State a type of training in which a person would use increased air resistance to aid the training – resistance training using a parachute

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Cardio-respiratory System

What is the scientific term for the windpipe? – trachea

What does VE represent? – minute ventilation (amount of air breathed in and out per minute)

What happens to air pressure in the thoracic cavity change for expiration to occur and how does this happen? – intercostal muscles relax to lower ribs down and in, diaphragm relaxes and raises, this decreases size of thoracic cavity and therefore increases pressure

What is the scientific term for the voicebox? – larynx

What term is given to a resting heart rate below 60bpm - bradycardia

Which gas is the most abundant in the atmosphere? – nitrogen

Define cardiac output – amount of blood leaving left ventricle per minute

Which blood vessels generally carry deoxygenated blood? – veins

Together the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve are known as what? – semilunar valves

Which types of blood vessel carry blood at the highest pressure and velocity? - arteries

What does bpm stand for? – beats per minute

Which blood vessel does blood travel in to from the left ventricle? - aorta

The redistribution of blood around the body is often referred to as which two-word term? – vascular shunting

Name the 3 main types of blood vessels – arteries, veins, capillaries

Which gas makes up roughly 21% of the atmosphere? – oxygen

What term is given to the amount of blood returning to the heart? – venous return

Which valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle? – tricuspid

True or false, arteries carry blood away from the heart? – true

Which blood vessels vasoconstrict and vasodialte during vascular shunting? - arterioles

True or false, at rest expiration is an active process. – false, it’s passive (active during exercise)

Through which blood vessels does vasoconstriction and vasodilation occur? – arterioles

During exercise vascular shunting will occur. State a place to which blood flow will increase and one where it will decrease. – increase to working muscles, decrease to digestive system

In which part of the lungs does gas exchange occur? – alveoli

What is the function of valves? – prevent backflow of blood

Which blood vessels contain valves and why? – veins to assist in returning blood back to the heart

What is expiratory reserve volume? - volume of air that can be expired after tidal volume

How is maximum heart rate calculated? – 220-age

What valve prevents the backflow of blood between the left ventricle and the left atrium? – bicuspid

What term is given to the condition where arteries can become blocked due to high cholesterol levels? - atherosclerosis

Define heart rate – number of beats per minute

When there is a difference between neighbouring or adjoining pressures what is created? – a pressure gradient (or concentration gradient)

The narrowing of arterioles to reduce blood flow is known as what? - vasoconstriction

True or false – arteries have a smaller lumen than veins? - true

Which valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle? – bicuspid/mitral

In which type of blood cell is haemoglobin found? – red blood cells

Name the two atrioventricular valves – bicuspid and tricuspid

Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right ventricle? – pulmonary valve

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs? – pulmonary artery

The blood pressure when the heart is relaxing is known as what? – diastolic pressure

How many chambers are there in the heart? – 4

Which valve prevents blood flowing back into the left ventricle? – aortic valve

State a benefit of warming up for the skeletal system – increased production of synovial fluid for increased range of motion

What happens to the air pressure in the thoracic cavity in order for inspiration to occur? – it decreases

Define stroke volume – amount of blood leaving left ventricle per beat

From where to where does the tricuspid valve prevent the backflow of blood? – the right ventricle to the right atrium

Which lifestyle choice is most likely to result in bronchitis - smoking

In which blood vessels does gas exchange occur? - capillaries

How is cardiac output calculated? stroke volume x heart rate

What term is given to an irregular heart rate? - heart arrhythmia

Which type of blood cells carry oxygen? – red blood cells

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? – pulmonary vein

Define breathing frequency? – number of breaths per minute

The amount of air breathed in or out in one breath is called what? – tidal volume

The letter Q is used to represent what? – cardiac output

What happens to air pressure in the thoracic cavity change for inspiration to occur and how does this happen? – intercostal muscles contract to lift ribs up and out, diaphragm contracts and flattens, this increases size of thoracic cavity and therefore decreases pressure

How does breathing rate, tidal volume and minute ventilation change during exercise? All increase

Which blood vessels have the thickest walls and why? – arteries due to the high pressure in which they carry blood

What term is given to haemoglobin when it is carry oxygen? - Oxyhaemoglobin

What happens to heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output following long term training? – resting heart rate decreases, stroke volume increases (due to cardiac hypertrophy), maximum cardiac output increases (resting cardiac output would remain the same)

What is inspiratory reserve volume? - volume of air that can be inspired after tidal volume

The widening of arterioles to increase blood flow is known as what? - vasodilation

The maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration is the definition for which term? – vital capacity

Define minute ventilation – amount of air breathed in and out per minute

What term is given to the space inside a blood vessel through which blood passes? – lumen

Through which blood vessel does blood travel before reaching the right atrium? - vena cava

Which blood vessels contain valves? – veins

How is minute ventilation calculated? – tidal volume x breathing frequency

Name the small hairs that filter out dust particles from air as it passes through the respiratory system? – cilia

What term is given to an increase in size of heart following endurance training? – cardiac hypertrophy

120/80 is a normal score for what? – blood pressure

Bronchitis brought on by smoking affects which system of the body? - respiratory

The bronchi branch off into smaller…what? – bronchioles

Which gases are involved in gaseous exchange? - O2 and CO2

Name 2 mechanisms which assist in venous return. – skeletal muscle pump, respiratory pump, valves

What is the condition hypertension related to? – high blood pressure

What is the scientific term for the windpipe? – trachea

How is total lung capacity calculated? - Vital capacity plus residual volume

Define residual volume. - Amount of air left in lungs after a maximal expiration

How is vital capacity calculated? - TV + IRV + ERV

‘The pressure a gas exerts within a mixture of gases’ defines what term? – partial pressure

State 3 factors that ensure gas exchange is done efficiently at the alveoli. – large surface area of alveoli, moist surface, diffusion gradient, short distance to capillary, partially permeable membrane, slow flow of blood, readiness of haemoglobin to take on O2.

What detects changes in blood acidity levels? – chemoreceptors

What detects movements in the joints and muscles? – proprioceptors

What states that ‘The greater the venous return, the greater the strength of contraction (stroke volume)’ – starling’s law

Name the 4 phases of the cardiac cycle. – atrial diastole, ventricular diastole, atrial systole, ventricular systole

Describe what happens to blood and valves during ventricular diastole. - The bicuspid and tricuspid valves (atrio-ventricular valves) open and blood passes from the atria into the ventricles. (semi-lunar vales remain closed)

Describe what happens to blood and valves during ventricular systole. - The semi-lunar valves open and the atrio-ventricular valves close. Both ventricles contract forcing blood into the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

Define the terms EDV and ESV and use them to form a calculation for stroke volume. – End diastolic volume (amount of blood in ventricles prior to contraction), end systolic volume (amount of blood left in ventricles after contraction). SV = EDV-ESV

Where is the electric impulse for a heartbeat initiated? – Sino atrial node (SAN)

Why does the electric impulse travel slowly from the SAN to AVN? – to allow time for the atria to contract and blood to fully pass from atria to ventricles.

The electric impulse in the heart travels down what (found in septum) after leaving the AVN? – bundle of His

When the electric impulse in the heart travels through the Purkinje fibres what happens? – the ventricles contract

When the central nervous system (CNS) sends messages to the heart, through which branch does it send them to slow the heart and which to speed it up? – down parasympathetic branch to slow it down, down sympathetic branch to speed it up

When speeding up heart rate a message is sent from the CNS in the brain via the sympathetic nervous system. Where does it send its message to? – SAN

Through which nerve does the parasympathetic branch send messages to the heart? – vagus nerve

Which hormone can cause heart rate to speed up before physical activity begins? – adrenaline

One function of a warm up is to decrease the viscosity of blood, what effect will this have on blood flow? – it will speed up

State 3 long term effects of aerobic training on the cardiac system - Increase in max HR (due to hypertrophy), Increase SV, Decrease resting HR, Bradycardia, Increase in potential cardiac output during exercise

State 3 long term effects of aerobic training on the vascular system. - Increase red blood cells (and haemoglobin), Increased tolerance for lactic acid, Increased capilliarisation, Increase in VO2 max

Why does vasoconstriction and vasodilation occur during a warm up? – to enable blood shunting in redistributing blood to the working muscles

True or false: blood pressure and velocity are highest in veins. – false, they’re highest in arteries

Why do Arteries have a small lumen? - Maintains a high blood pressure

Why do Arteries have thick, elastic walls? - Allows them to carry blood at high pressure/velocity without damage

Why do Veins contain valves? - Helps to return blood to the heart against the effects of gravity

Why do Capillaries have very thin walls? - Allows for gas exchange at alveoli and muscle cells

Why is Blood flow at capillaries very slow? - Allows time for gas exchange to take place

The force that blood exerts on the walls of blood vessels is the definition for what? – blood pressure

State 2 causes of the Bohr shift. – decreased pH, increased CO2 levels, increased body temperature

Summarise the effect of the Bohr shift in one sentence. – during exercise haemoglobin gives its oxygen up to myoglobin more readily so more O2 gets to the muscles

What does a-vO2 difference stand for? - aterio-venous difference

State 4 lifestyle choices that would effect the cardiovascular system. – poor diet, sendentary lifestyle, alcohol intake, smoking

The formation of blood clots as a result of poor lifestyle choices is also known as what? – thrombosis

State 4 general problems that the cardiovascular system can suffer from as the result of poor lifestyle choices. - Blocked blood vessels, Stiffening of blood vessels, Reduced blood flow, Increased blood pressure/ hypertension, Increase HR, decreased SV, Heart has to contract more forcefully to do the same work, stroke/ heart attack/other CV diseases ,Formation of blood clots/ Thrombosis

A Level PE – Revision Questions – Energy Systems

State 2 advantages of aerobic system – very efficient as it produces 38 ATP per glucose molecule, almost limitless energy supply, no fatiguing byproducts, can use fat as energy source

Name the 3 phases of aerobic energy production. – glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, electron transport chain

Where does Kreb’s cycle and Electron transport chain occur? – mitochondria

How long does it take to resythesise 50% of PC during the fast component of EPOC? – 30 seconds

How many ATP are produced per molecule of glucose in the aerobic energy system? - 38

Which two substances combine to form lactic acid? Hydrogen and pyruvate

State 3 things that happen during the fast component of EPOC? – ATP resynthesized, PC resynthesized, myoglobin resaturated with oxygen

How long does ATP in the muscles supply energy for? – 2 or 3 seconds

In the absence of enough O2 what will hydrogen bind with? – pyruvate (to form lactic acid)

True or false, oxygen must be present in order to use glucose to produce ATP? – false (lactic acid system)

State 2 advantages of the lactic acid system. – produces energy quickly, doesn’t require O2, few chemical reactions, provides more ATP that PC system

Which energy system would be most important for a 100m race? – ATP-PC system

Where does glycolysis occur? – cytoplasm

How many anaerobic energy systems are there? 2

What is formed when coenzyme A combines with pyruvate? - Acetyl coenzyme A

Which energy system would be most important for a 400m race? – lactic acid system

What term is given to the increase in heart rate caused by adrenaline before exercise begins? – anticipatory rise

What is the formula for respiration? - Glucose + O2 → energy + CO2 + H2O

ADP + P = ? – ATP

What other name is given to the fast component of EPOC? – alactacid

What is the fuel source for the ATP-PC system? PC

How long does the slow component of EPOC take? – up to several hours

What 2 factors would cause EPOC to last longer? – greater intensity of exercise, lower levels of aerobic fitness of the individual

What does PC stand for? – phosphocreatine

State 2 disadvantages of lactic acid system – only lasts 30s to 3mins (depending on intensity), produces lactic acid

State 2 disadvantages of the ATP-PC system – only lasts around 10s, produces very little ATP, little use during endurance events

What other name is given to the slow component of EPOC? – lactacid

What term is given to exercise where oxygen intake is equal to oxygen demand? – steady state exercise

What term is given to an elevated intake of oxygen after exercise? – EPOC (excess post-exercise oxygen consumption)

What does ATP stand for? - adenosine triphosphate

For what period of exercise is the lactic acid/lactate system most effective? – 30s-3mins

How can the body turn lactic acid into a source of fuel during EPOC? – oxygen combines with lactic acid to change it into H2O and pyruvate. Pyruvate then joins Kreb’s cycle to produce ATP aerobically.

How many ATP are produced per molecule of glucose through the aerobic system? – 38

State a disadvantage of using the aerobic system? – produces energy slowly, only good for low intensity activity

State 2 advantages of the ATP-PC system – no fatiguing byproducts, energy stored in muscle, provides energy immediately, does not require O2, few reactions involved

On the energy continuum what is the percentage of energy produced aerobically and anaerobically for the 1500m (within 10% for each)? – 84% aerobic, 16 anaerobic

On the energy continuum what is the percentage of energy produced aerobically and anaerobically for the 400m (within 10% for each)? – 43% aerobic, 56 anaerobic

What numbers of mmol per litre of blood represent lactate threshold and OBLA? – 2mmol for LT and 4mmol for OBLA

What does OBLA stand for? – onset of blood lactate accumulation

What is the difference between lactate threshold and OBLA (in words rather than numbers)? – lactate threshold is the point where lactate levels increase above normal resting levels, OBLA is the point at which lactate starts to really accumulate (and become a problem)

Which energy system must be in use if the lactate threshold has been crossed? – lactate system (anaerobic system)

State one thing that lactate sampling can tell an athlete during training. – which energy system they are using, how close they are to lactate threshold, how close to VO2 max they are

During any type of exercise which will be the first energy system to provide energy? – ATP-PC