Q No: 1

Identify the least stable ion amongst the following :-(1)Li–(2)Be–

(3)B–

(4)C–

Correct Answer: 2   

Q No: 2

The main function of smelting is :-(1)To remove the volatile impurities(2)In oxidation(3)In reduction(4)To make slag

Correct Answer: 3   

Q No: 3

When 0.01 mole of sugar is dissolved in 100 g of a solvent the depression in freezing point is 0.40º. When 0.03 mole glucose is dissolved in 50 g of the same solvent, the depression in freezing point will be :-

(1)0.60º(2)0.80º(3)1.60º(4)2.40º

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 4

Equivalent weight of the oxidising agent in the unbalanced reaction :-MnO4

– + Fe+2 → Mn+2 + Fe+3 is :-(M = molecular weight)

(1)M/1 (2)M/5 (3)6M/5 (4)M/3

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 5

Which of the following can be obtained by halide exchange method?(1)CH3Cl

(2)C2H5Cl(3)CH3I(4)CH3Br

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 6

Which is true about electronegativity order of the following elements?(1)P > Si(2)C > N(3)C > Br(4)Sr > Ca

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 7

Which act as oxidising and reducting agent :-(1)SO2

(2)MnO2

(3)Al2O3

(4)CrO3

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 8

The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 200 mm Hg. At the same temperature the vapour pressure of solution containing 2g of non-voltatile non-electrolyte solid in 78g of benzene is 195 mm Hg. What is the molecular weight of solid :-

(1)50 (2)70 (3)85 (4)80

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 9

If CO(g) +  O2(g) → CO2(g); ΔH = –283 KJ. Then, 2CO2(g) → 2CO(g) + O2(g); ΔH is :-(1)+566 KJ(2)+283 KJ(3)–566 KJ(4)–283 KJ

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 10

Which is optically active?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2   

Q No: 11

Element A has 3 electrons in the outermost orbit and element B has 6 electrons in the outermost orbit. The formulae of compound formed between A and B would be :-

(1)A2B3

(2)A2B6

(3)A2B(4)A3B2

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 12

How many unpaired electron are present in the central metal ion of [CoCl4]2–?(1)5 (2)4 (3)3 (4)2

Correct Answer: 3   

Q No: 13

The mechanism for the reaction is given below2P + Q → S + TP + Q → R + S (slow)P + R → T (fast)The rate law expression for the reaction is :-

(1)r = k[P]2[Q](2)r = k[P][Q](3)r = k[A][R](4)r = k[P]2

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 14

What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution having pH = 1. (acid is assumed to be completely ionized) :-(1)0.1 (2)1.0 (3)0.05 (4)0.5

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 15

Which is most stable?(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 16

Which of the following does not have a coordinate bond :-(1)SO2

(2)HNO3

(3)H2SO3

(4)HNO2

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 17

An alloy which does not contain copper is :-(1)solder(2)bell metal(3)bronze(4)brass

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 18

A reaction rate constant is given by :-k = 1.2 × 1014 e–(25000/RT) sec–1

It means :(1)log k versus log T will give a straight line with slope as – 25000(2)log k versus T will give a straight line with slope as – 25000(3)log k versus log 1/T will give a straight line with slope as – 25000(4)log k versus 1/T will give a straight line

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 19

In a reaction vessel of 2 litre capacity 3 moles of N2 reacts with 2 moles of O2 to produce 1 mole of NO. What is the molar concentration of N2 at equilibrium :-

(1)1.25 (2)1.50 (3)0.75 (4)2.0

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 20

Which can form alkane?(1)CH3CH2Cl+CH3MgCl(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 21

The metal that is extracted from sea water is :-(1)Mg (2)Be (3)Ca (4)Sr

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 22

Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 25 and 26 which of the following is paramagnetic with spin of electron?

(1)Cr(CO)6

(2)[Fe(CO)5](3)[Fe(CN)6]4–

(4)[Cr(NH3)6]3+

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 23

Which of the following is not a redox reaction :-(1)2Rb + 2H2O → 2RbOH + H2

(2)2CuI2 → 2Cul + I2(3)2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2

(4)4KCN + Fe(CN)2 → K4[Fe(CN)6]

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 24

Pinacole is :-(1)2,3-dimethyl-2,3-butandiol(2)3,3-dimethyl-2-propanone(3)3-methyl butane-2-ol(4)none of the above

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 25

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 26

Mixture used in Holme's signal is :-(1)CaC2 and CaCl2(2)CaCl2 and Ca3P2

(3)CaC2 and Ca3N2

(4)CaC2 and Ca3P2

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 27

Atoms in P4 molecule of white phosphorous are arranged regulary in following way.(1)at corner of cube(2)at corner of octahedron(3)at corner of tetrahedron(4)at the centre and corner of tetrahedron

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 28

The total pressure exerted by a number of non reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases under the same conditions is known as.

(1)Boyle's Law(2)Charle's Law(3)Avogadro's Law(4)Dalton's Law

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 29

Which of the following do not form addition compounds with ammonia?(1)HCHO(2)CH3COCH3

(3)CH3CHO(4)None of these

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 30

HOH2C.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives :-(1)

(2)2 CO2

(3)2 HCOOH(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 31

Fuming sulphuric acid is :-(1)H2SO4 + SO2

(2)H2SO4

(3)H2SO4 + SO4

(4)H2SO4 + SO3

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 32

1 g of a mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 is heated to 150ºC. The volume of the CO2 produced at STP is 112.0 mL. Calculate the percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture (Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16) :-

(1)20 (2)46 (3)84 (4)16

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 33

CsBr possesses bcc structure. The edge length of the unit cell is 400 pm. Find out the interionic distance :-

(1)346.4 pm

(2)200 pm(3)300 pm(4)100 pm

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 34

Identify X in the series :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 35

Treatment of propionaldehyde with dil. NaOH gives :-(1)CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH3

(2)CH3CH2CHOHCH2CH2CHO(3)CH3CH2CHOHCH(CH3)CHO(4)CH3CH2COCH2CH2CHO

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 36

Which one of the following is the most volatile acid?(1)HF (2)HCl (3)HBr (4)HI

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 37

A compound contains atoms of three elements in A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5 and that of C is –2, the possible formula of the compound is :-

(1)A3(BC4)2

(2)A3(B4C)2

(3)ABC2

(4)A2(BC3)2

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 38

The orbital angular momentum for the d-electron is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)2.

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 39

The carbohydrate which serves as reserve glucose in body is :-(1)sucrose(2)starch(3)glycogen(4)fructose

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 40

The reaction, RCOOAg + Br2   RBr + AgBr + CO2 is called :-(1)HVZ reaction(2)Hunsdiecker reaction

(3)Hofmann's reaction(4)Carbylamine reaction

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 41

Both temporary and permanent hardness is removed on boiling water with :-(1)Ca(OH)2

(2)Na2CO3

(3)CaCO3

(4)CaO

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 42

The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 gm of a nonvolatile solute was dissolved in 90 gm of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. the molar mass of the solute is :- [Kb for benzene = 2.53K mol–1]

(1)5.8 g mol–1

(2)0.58 g mol–1

(3)58 g mol–1

(4)0.88 mol–1

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 43

The heats of combustion of H2, C6H10 and C6H12 are –241, –3800 and –3920 KJ mol–1 respectively. The heat of reaction C6H10 + H2 → C6H12 is :-

(1)+121 KJ(2)–121 KJ(3)+221 KJ(4)–221 KJ

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 44

Which of the following is not a fibre?(1)Terlyene(2)Nylon(3)Polyacrylonitrile(4)Polychloroprene

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 45

The major product of the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 46

Out of the following pairs, which one does not have identical dimensions :-(1)Angular momentum and Plank's constant(2)Impulse and momentum(3)Moment of Inertia and Moment of a force(4)Work and Torque

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 47

Three rods of equal mass are placed as shown in figure. Find the coordinate of the centre of mass :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 48

When power in variable resistance is maximum then find terminal potential difference of first cell :-

(1)20 V (2)Zero (3)16 V (4)10 VCorrect Answer: 3    

Q No: 49

Radius of curature of convex mirror is 40 cm and the size of object is twice as that of image, then the image distance from mirror is :-

(1)10 cm(2)20 cm(3)40 cm

(4)30 cm

Correct Answer: 1   

Q No: 50

If temperature of a black body increases from – 73°C to 327°C, then ratio of emissive power at these two temperatures is :-

(1)27 : 1(2)81 : 1(3)1 : 27(4)1 : 81

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 51

The resultant of   and   makes an angle α with   and β with   :-(1)α < β(2)α < β if A < B(3)α < β if A > B(4)α < β if A = B

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 52

An elevator of mass 500 kg is to be lifted up at a constant speed of 0.4 m/s what should be the minimum horse power of the motor to be used :-

(1)2.62 HP(2)3.62 HP(3)4.96 HP(4)1.26 HP

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 53

Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are perpendicular to each other and carry currents i1 and i2. The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P at a distance a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane ACBD is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 54

The power of a lens, a short sighted person uses is –2Dioptre. Find the maximum distance of an object which he can see without spectacle :-

(1)25 cm(2)50 cm(3)100 cm(4)10 cm

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 55

A tuning fork produces 4 beats per second when sounded with a sonometer wire of vibrating length 48 cm. It produces 4 beats per second also when the vibrating length is 50 cm. What is the frequency of the tuning fork?

(1)196 Hz(2)284 Hz(3)375 Hz(4)460 Hz

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 56

A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and rest half distance with speed v2. Its average speed during the complete journey is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 57

p-n junction diode under forward bias is shown below. Correct diagram for barrier potential is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)None of these

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 58

Two circular coils X and Y, having equal number of turns, carry equal currents in the same sense and subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller coil, X is midway between O and Y, then if we represent the magnetic induction due to bigger coil Y at O as BY and that due to smaller coil X at O as BX, then :-

(1) = 1

(2) = 2

(3) = 

(4) = 

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 59

Air is streaming past a horizontal airplane wing such that its speed is 120 metre per sec over the upper surface and 90 metre per sec at the lower surface. If the density of air is 1.3 kg per metre3 and the wing is 10 metre long and has an average width of 2 metre, then the difference of the pressure on the two sides of the wing is :-

(1)4095.0 pascal(2)409.50 pascal(3)40.950 pascal(4)4.0950 pascal

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 60

A tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz resonates with an air column of length 120 cm in a cylindrical tube, in the fundamental mode. When water is slowly poured in it, the minimum height of water required for observing resonance once again is : (velocity of sound 330 ms–1) :-

(1)75 cm(2)60 cm(3)55 cm(4)45 cm

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 61

A particle has an initial velocity of 3î + 4ĵ and an acceleration of 0.4î + 0.3ĵ. Its speed after 10 s is :-(1)7 units(2)8.5 units(3)10 units(4)7  units

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 62

As shown in fig. the electric field in a region is given by  x2(î) volt/mt then the total electric flux through the cube of side 'a' will be :-

(1)Zero(2)3E0a2

(3)E0a2

(4)3E0

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 63

A ring of radius R, made of an insulating material carries a charge Q uniformly distributed on it. If the ring rotates about the axis passing through its centre and normal to plane of the ring with constant angular speed ω, then the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the ring is :-

(1)QωR2

(2) QωR2

(3)Qω2R(4)

 Qω2RCorrect Answer: 2    

Q No: 64

The Young's modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is Y newton per square metre. If the length is reduced to L/2 and radius to r/2, its Young's modulus will be :-

(1)

(2)Y(3)2Y(4)4Y

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 65

An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed (1/5)th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are λ and f respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively :-

(1)1.2f and λ(2)f and 1.2λ(3)0.8f and 0.8λ(4)1.2f and 1.2λ

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 66

A stone is released from an elevator going up with an acceleration a. The acceleration of the stone after the release is :-

(1)a upward(2)(g – a) upward(3)(g – a) downward(4)g downward

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 67

The work done to carry a charge of –5.0 c from A to B is 10 Joule. The relation of potential between the two points will be :-

(1)B is at higher potential than A by 2 volt.(2)A is at higher potential than B by 2 volt.(3)A has potential 50 volts greater than that of B.(4)B has potential 50 volts greater than that of A.

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 68

A rectangular loop on which a connector EF of length ℓ slides, is lying in a perpendicular magnetic field. The induction of magnetic field is B. The resistance of the connector is R. If the connector moves with a velocity v then the current flowing in it will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)None of theseCorrect Answer: 3    

Q No: 69

A tank which is open at the top contains a liquid up to a height H. A small hole is made in the side of the tank at a distance y below the liquid surface. The liquid emerging from the hole lands at a distance x

from the tank then which of the following statements are correct :- (a) if y is increased from zero to H. x will first increase and then decrease 

(b) x is maximum for y = (c) the maximum value of x is H (d) the maximum value of x will depend on the density of the liquid

(1)a, b, c(2)a, c, d(3)b, c, d(4)None of the above

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 70

If a man at the equator would weigh   of his weight the angular speed of the earth is :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 71

A body can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 10 m. The maximum horizontal distance that the body can throw the same stone up to will be :-

(1)20 m(2)20  m(3)10 m(4)10  m

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 72

Two identical balls having like charges and placed at a certain distance apart repel each other with a

certain force. They are brought in contact and then moved apart to a distance equal to half their initial separation. The force of repulsion between them increase 4.5 times in comparison with the initial value. The ratio of the final charges of the balls is :-

(1)2 (2)3 (3)4 (4)1Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 73

The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current i is 5A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s then VA – VB is :-

(1)5 V (2)10 V (3)15 V (4)20 V

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 74

A Carnot engine has efficiency 1/5. Efficiency becomes 1/3 when temperature of sink is decreased by 50K. What is the temperature of sink :-

(1)325 K(2)375 K(3)300 K(4)350 K

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 75

The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. Then the period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R is :-

(1)4T (2)T/4 (3)T/8 (4)8T

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 76

Three identical blocks of mass m = 2kg are drawn by a force F with an acceleration of 0.6 ms–2 on a frictionless surface, then what is the tension (in N) in the string between the blocks B and C :-

(1)9.2 (2)1.2 (3)4 (4)9.8

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 77

The electric potential at a certain distance from a point charge is 600 volts, and the electric field is 200 N/C. Which of the following statements will be true :-(a) The magnitude of charge is 0.2 × 10–6C (b) The distance of the given point from the charge is 3m (c) The potential at a distance of 9 m will be 200 volts (d) The work done in moving a point charge of 1μc from the given point to a point at a distance of 9m will be 4J

(1)b, c(2)a, b, c(3)b, d(4)None of them

Correct Answer: 2   

Q No: 78

Two sinusoidal voltage of the same frequency are shown in the diagram. What is the frequency and the phase relationship between the voltages :-

   Frequency  in Hz

 Phase lead of N over M radians

(A)  0.4  –π/4(B)  2.5  –π/2(C)  2.5  +π/2(D)  2.5  –π/4(1)(A) (2)(B) (3)(C) (4)(D)

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 79

The molecules of a given mass of a gas have a r.m.s. velocity of 200 m/s at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 N/m2 pressure. When the temperature is 127°C and pressure is 0.5 × 105 N/m2, the r.m.s. velocity (in m/s) will be :-

(1)

(2)100

(3)

(4)None of the above

Correct Answer: 3   

Q No: 80

A radioactive sample of U238 decay to Pb through a process for which half life is 4.5 × 109 years. The ratio of number of nuclei of Pb to U238 after a time of 1.5 × 109 years (given 21/3 = 1.26) :-

(1)0.12 (2)0.26 (3)1.2 (4)0.37

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 81

A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimate of g is :-

(1)e1 + 2e2

(2)e1 + e2

(3)e1 – 2e2

(4)e2 – e1

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 82

In given circuit if current passed through 3V cell is zero than value of R will be :-

(1)2Ω(2)3Ω(3)1Ω(4)

Ω

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 83

In a certain circuit current changes with time according to i = 2 . r.m.s. value of current between t = 2 to t = 4s will be :-

(1)3A(2)3 A(3)2 A(4)(2 –  )A

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 84

A source of heat supplies heat at a constant rate to a solid cube. The slope of portion CD of the graph gives :-

(1)Latent heat of fusion(2)Latent heat of vapourisation(3)Thermal capacity of liquid(4)Thermal capacity of vapour

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 85

When 92U235 undergoes fission, 0.1% of its original mass is changed into energy. How much energy is released...... if 1kg of 92U235 undergoes fission :-

(1)9 × 1010 J(2)9 × 1011 J(3)9 × 1012 J(4)9 × 1013 J

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 86

The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination ф is perfectly smooth, while the lower half is rough. A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction for lower half is given by :-

(1)2sinф(2)2cosф(3)2tanф(4)tanф

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 87

A galvanometer has a resistance of 30Ω and a current of 2 mA is needed for a full-scale deflection. What is the resistance to be connected the galvanometer into an ammeter of 0.3 A range and :-

(1)0.2Ω(2)0.1Ω(3)0.75Ω(4)0.3Ω

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 88

A parallel beam of light of wavelength 5000Å is incident normally on a single slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by a convex lens on a screen placed in focal plane. The first minimum is formed for the angle of diffraction equal to :-

(1)0º (2)15º (3)30º (4)60º

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 89

υrms, υav and υmp are root mean square, average and most probable speeds of molecules of a gas obeying Maxwellian velocity distribution. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)υrms < υav < υmp

(2)υrms > υav > υmp

(3)υmp > υrms > υav

(4)υmp < υrms < υav

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 90

Energy conversion in a photo electric cell takes place from :-(1)Chemical to electrical(2)Magnetic to electrical(3)Optical to electrical(4)Mechanical to electrical

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 91

Mullerian duct system develops into :-(1)Oviduct(2)Uterus(3)Testis(4)Uterine tubes and a uterus

Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 92

Select the correct match :-(1)Sarcomere - I + A(2)Kidney - retroperitoneal(3)Duodenum - 2 meter(4)Liver - Largest organ

Correct Answer: 2  

Q No: 93

Among given items how many have glycosidic bond :-Adenosine, Adenylic acid, Guanine, Guanylic acid, Cytosine, Thymine, Thymidylic acid

(1)4 (2)5 (3)6 (4)7

Correct Answer: 1 

Q No: 94

Which is true about the metabolic reactions performing in vitro?(1)They are not living reactions(2)They are non living reactions(3)They are both living and non living reactions

(4)They are surely living reactions but not living things

Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 95

Read the following statements :-(a) Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock(b) Fishery include rearing, catching, selling etc of only fishes.(c) About more then 90% of the world livestock population is in India & China(d) Animal busbandry deals with the care and breeding of livestock.Out of these which statements are false?

(1)a and b(2)b and c(3)c and d(4)a and d

Correct Answer: 2  

Q No: 96

Which nitrogen base of codon is less specific for anticodon recognition :-(1)First Nitrogen base(2)Second nitrogen base(3)Third nitrogen base(4)Complete codon

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 97

Match the column-I with column-II :-

   Column-I (Algae)    Column-II

 (Characteristics)(A)  Red algae (i)  Pyrenoids(B)  Green algae (ii)  Pyriform gametes(C)  Brown algae (iii)  Floridean starch    (iv)  Algin    (v)  Chl a, Chl d    (vi)  Fucoxanthin(1)A-(ii), (iii), (iv)     B-(iv)          C-(i), (vi)(2)A-(iii), (iv), (v)     B-(i), (ii)     C-(vi)(3)A-(iii), (iv)           B-(i)           C-(ii), (v), (vi)(4)A-(iii), (v)            B-(i)           C-(ii), (iv), (vi)

Correct Answer: 4 

Q No: 98

The broad classification of animalia based on following common fundamental features except :-(1)Organisation(2)Coelom(3)Symmetry(4)Reproduction

Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 99

Which of the following part of lake receives maximum light above light compensation point :-(1)Euphotic zone(2)Benthic zone(3)Disphotic zone(4)Profundal zone

Correct Answer: 1  

Q No: 100

Select false statement?(1)Bark is a non technical term.(2)In temperate regions climatic condition are not uniform throughout the years.(3)In dicotyledonae root, vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.(4)Xylem and phloem are examples of simple permanent tissues.

Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 101

Which hormone promote the production of ABP?(1)Androgen(2)FSH(3)LH(4)Testosterone

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 102

Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume :-(A) Tidal Volume(B) Residual Volume(C) Inspiratory reserve Volume(D) Vital Capacity

(1)A < B < C < D(2)A < C < B < D(3)A < D < C < B(4)A < D < B < C

Correct Answer: 1  

Q No: 103

Which of the following biomolecule in the cell shows autocatalytic & heterocatalytic function :-(1)Protein(2)RNA(3)DNA(4)Carbohydrates

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 104

Which of the following statement is true :-(1)Earth is about 4000 years old(2)The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back(3)All living organisms that we see today were created as such(4)Life come out of decaying and rotting matter

Correct Answer: 2   

Q No: 105

Given below the statement with regards to inbreeding are :-(i) It increases homozygosity(ii) It exposes harmful recessive genes(iii) Continuous close inbreeding increases fertility and productivity(iv) It helps in accumulation of superior genes.Out of these how many statements are not true for inbreeding?

(1)Only one(2)Two(3)Three

(4)All of these

Correct Answer: 1

Q No: 106

Which of the following is not a salient features of the double helix structure of B-DNA?(1)It is made of two polynucleotide chain, where the back bone is constituted by sugar - phosphate

and the bases project inside(2)The two chains have parallel polarity(3)The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond forming base pair(4)The two chains are coiled in a right handed fashion

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 107

Which of the following is also known as botanical snakes?(1)Bryophytes(2)Algae(3)Pteridophytes(4)fungi

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 108

What is not common among Hydra, Aurelia and Obelia?(1)All are radially symmetrical animals(2)All have a central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening(3)All are show metagenesis(4)All are show both extracellualar and intracellualar digestion

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 109

Choose the correct identification for the given stage of succession and is proceeded by which stage respectively?

(1)Marsh meadow, reed swamp(2)Submerged free floating, Reed swamp(3)Submerged plant, Scrub Stage

(4)Phytoplanklon, Marsh Meadow

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 110

Stilt roots in maize develop from :-(1)Lower nodes(2)Lower internodes(3)Upper nodes(4)Upper internodes

Correct Answer: 1 

Q No: 111

Blood-Testes Barrier is formed by :-(1)Prostate gland(2)Seminal vesicles(3)Sertoli cells(4)Germ cells

Correct Answer: 3

Q No: 112

Hamburger's Phenomenon explains :-(1)Formation of HCO3

–

(2)Chloride Shift(3)Oxygen saturation of Hb.(4)Breathing mechanism

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 113

Methyl guanosine triphosphate is associated with :-(1)Tailing(2)Capping(3)Point mutation(4)Splicing

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 114

Which of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent

evolution :-   Covergent evolution  Digergent evolution

(A)  Bones of fore limb of whale, bat and cheetah  Wings of butterfly and birds

(B)  Wings of butterfly and birds  Potato and sweet potato

(C)  Eyes of octopus and of mammals  Thorn of Bougeinvillea and tendrils of cucurbita

(D)  Potato and sweet potato  Flippers of penguins and Dolphins(1)(A) (2)(B) (3)(C) (4)(D)

Correct Answer: 3 

Q No: 115

Which is not a cell type involved in cell mediated immunity :-(1)Regulatory T cells(2)Plasma cells(3)Cytotoxic T cells(4)Helper T cells

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 116

In a transcription unit promoter is said to be located towards :-(1)3' end of structural gene(2)5' end of structural gene(3)5' end of template stand(4)3' end of template stand

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 117

Gemmae are :(a) Specialised structure for asexual reproduction(b) Green(c) Unicellular(d) Asexual buds(e) Filamentous(f) Found in fernChoose the correct one :-

(1)a, b, c, d, f(2)a, b, d, f(3)a, b, d(4)a, b, c, d, e

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 118

Aschelminthes are called roundwoms because :-(1)Their body is round like ball(2)Their body is circular in cross section(3)Their larva are round in shape(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 119

Which of these is a major trend during succession from pioneer to climax stage :-(1)Generalised niche(2)Low nutrient conservation(3)Low P/B value(4)Low efficiency of energy use

Correct Answer: 3 

Q No: 120

All of the following processes occur in the nitrogen cycle except :-(1)Ammonification(2)Nitrification(3)Deamination(4)Denitrification

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 121

Which is not a part of male reproductive system :-(1)Bulbovestibular glands(2)Epididymis(3)Rete testis(4)Bulbourethral glands

Correct Answer: 1 

Q No: 122

Normal pulse pressure is :-(1)80 mmHg(2)120 mmHg(3)40 mmHg(4)320 mmHg

Correct Answer: 3 

Q No: 123

t-RNA attaches amino acid at its :-(1)G end(2)DHU end(3)CCA end(4)CCC region

Correct Answer: 3 

Q No: 124

Which one of the following sets of structures includes only analogous organs :-(1)Hind legs of horse and bat(2)Hands of man, monkey and chimpanzee(3)Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee(4)Wings of butterfly and bat

Correct Answer: 4 

Q No: 125

For IgG the antigen binding site is foundon the :-(1)Variable region of heavy chain and variable region of light chain(2)Variable region of two heavy chains(3)Constant region of heavy chain and constant region of light chain(4)Fc region

Correct Answer: 1  

Q No: 126

How many of the given statement are correct :-(a) Cells are metabolically inactive in quiescent stage(b) Sister chromatid separate during anaphase I of meiosis

(c) Golgi, ER, nucleolus and nuclear envelope are partially visible at the end of mitotic prophase(d) Growth of multicellular organism is due to mitosis(e) Anaphase stage is characterised by centromere split(f) During telophase chromosome cluster at opposite pole and loose their identity as discrete element

(1)5 (2)6 (3)4 (4)3Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 127

Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule found in :-(1)Ferns(2)Liverworts(3)Mosses(4)More than one option is correct

Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 128

The members of phylum platyhelminthes are called flatworms, having numerous distiguishible character but which of the following can not be considered as their characters?

(1)They are bilaterally symmetrical cellular level of body organisation(2)Cellular level of body organisation(3)They are acoelomates animals(4)They have flame cells for osmoregulation and excretion

Correct Answer: 2  

Q No: 129

Which interaction shows co-evolution :-(1)Hermit crab and sea anemone(2)Bee and orchid(3)Clown fish and sea anemone(4)Epiphytes

Correct Answer: 2

Q No: 130

With respect to the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis all of the following statements are true except :-

(1)Each NADH yields 3 ATPs(2)Each FADH2 yields 2 ATPs(3)The cytochrome enzymes utilize NAD+ and FAD as their coenzyme(4)The cytochrome enzymes utilize iron as their cofactors

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 131

The duct system of testis help in :-(1)Transportation of sperm(2)Maturation of sperm(3)Storage of sperm(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 4  

Q No: 132

Given below is the diagramatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action :-

Select the option with incorrect matching of hormone [A] with physiological response [B] regarding the above mechanism.

   A B (I)  Estrogen  Uterine tissue growth and differentiation

(II)  Progesterone  Supports pregnancy and stimulate physical growth of mammary gland.

(III)  Cortisol  Stimulate gluconeogenesis lipolysis and proteolysis(IV)  Insulin  Enhances glucose uptake and utilisation in target cells(1)(I) (2)(II) (3)(III) (4)(IV)

Correct Answer: 4 

Q No: 133

Mendel did not propose :-(1)Dominance(2)Segregation(3)Incomplete dominance(4)Independent Assortment

Correct Answer: 3 

Q No: 134

The correct sequence of stages in the evolution of the modern man (Homo sapiens) is :-(1)Neanderthal man, Australopithecus, Cromagnon, Homo erectus, Modern man(2)Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon, Modern man(3)Homo erectus, Austratopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon, Modern man(4)Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cromagnon, Homo erectus, Modern man

Correct Answer: 2  

Q No: 135

Fever, delirium, slow pulse, abdominal tenderness and rose coloured rash-indicate :-(1)Typhoid(2)Chicken pox(3)Tetanus(4)Measles

Correct Answer: 1 

Q No: 136

Ribosomes are the granular structure first observed under the electron microscope as dense particles by :-

(1)Robert brown(2)Flemming(3)George palada(4)Camilo golgi

Correct Answer: 3  

Q No: 137

Consider the following statements :(A) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil-binders.(B) Mosses form dense mats on the soil so they reduce the impact of falling rain and hence prevent soil erosion.(C) The gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.(D) Pteridophytes are the first plants to bear seeds.

(E) Pollination in gymnosperms carried by air currents.How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(1)Five (2)Four (3)One (4)ThreeCorrect Answer: 2  

Q No: 138

Which one of the following is not a characterstic of phylum annelida :-(1)Metamerium(2)Closed blood vascular system(3)Comb plates for locomotion(4)Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion

Correct Answer: 3   

Q No: 139

Interspecific Interaction among species which involves killing and consumption of prey has no role in :-(1)Energy transfer(2)Stability of ecosystem(3)Biological pest control(4)Maintaining predator diversity

Correct Answer: 4   

Q No: 140

The sperm and secretion of accessory sex glands together form :-(1)Seminal fluid(2)Semen(3)Prostatic fluid(4)Smegma

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 141

Select the wrong one out :-(1)Crista ampullaris :- located in ampulla of semicircular canals and helps in dynamic equilibrium.(2)Organ of corti :- located on the basilar membrane and contains hair cells that acts as auditory

receptors.(3)Vitrous chamber :- space between the cornea and the lens, which is filled with a thin watery fluid

called vitrous humor.(4)Ear ossicles :- Located in middle ear and increases the efficiency of transmission of sound waves

to the inner ear.

Correct Answer: 3   

Q No: 142

Kernal colour in wheat shows F2-ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1. It is due to:-(1)two polygenes(2)supplementary gene(3)different number of dominant gene(4)different number of recessive genes

Correct Answer: 1 

Q No: 143

Find out correctly matched :-(A) Neanderthal man – Less develop chin present(B) Synanthropus erectus – First man who used fire for protection and cooking(C) Homo erectus – Handy man(D) Australopithecus – Bipedal locomotion

(1)A & B(2)A, B & D(3)A, B & C(4)A & D

Correct Answer: 4 

Q No: 144

Chloramphenicol is an :-(1)Antiseptic and disinfectant(2)Antibotic(3)Antifertility drug(4)Antihistaminic

Correct Answer: 2 

Q No: 145

(A) Volume of the cell in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms is occupied by a semi fluid matrix.(B) It is main arena of cellular activities. These statement (A & B) are true for :-

(1)Cell wall(2)Cytoplasm(3)Nucleoplasm

(4)Inclusion bodyCorrect Answer: 2  

Q No: 146

Litmus is obtained from :-(1)fungi(2)algae(3)bacteria(4)lichen

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 147

Consider the following statements :-(A) Protochordates are exclusively marine(B) In cephalochordates, Notochord extends from head to tail region(C) In urochordates, notochord is present only in larval tail(D) Cranium and vertebral column are bony in cyclostomatesWhich of the above statement is/are correct?

(1)A alone(2)B, C and D(3)A, B and C(4)All of the above

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 148

Value of z or regression cofficient for frugivorous birds and mammals tropical forests of different continents is found to be :-

(1)1.15(2)0.6 to 1.2(3)0.1(4)0.2

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 149

Signals for parturition originate from :-(1)Placenta only(2)Fully developed foetus only(3)Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus(4)Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 150

Which of the following in the correct sequence of genes within on operon :-(1)Regulator, Promoter, Operator, Structural(2)Regulator, Operator, Promoter, Structural(3)Structural, Operator, Regulator, Promoter(4)Promoter, Operator, Structural, Regulator

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 151

Which of the following represents a test cross :-(1)Ww × WW(2)Ww × Ww(3)Ww × ww(4)ww × ww

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 152

Select the incorrect statement from the following sentences :-(1)Darwinism variation are small and directionless(2)Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature(3)Mammals have seven cervical vertebrae(4)Mutations are random and directional

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 153

Find out the correct matching of a disease, etiology and mode of transmission :-   Disease  Etiology  Mode of transmission

(A)  Malaria  Plasmodium vivex  Bite of male anopheles(B)  Typhoid  Salmonella typhi  inspired air(C)  Pneumonia  Haemophilus influenzae  Droplet infection(D)  Filariasis  Wauchereria bancrofti  Bite of Male culex Mosquito(1)(A) (2)(B) (3)(C) (4)(D)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 154

A special membranous structure formed by the extension of plasmamembrane in bacteria is concerned with all except :-

(1)Help in cell wall formation(2)DNA replication(3)Contain photosynthetic pigment(4)Help in respiration

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 155

Ephedra and Gnetum are exceptions to gymnosperms as they show :-(1)double fertilization(2)companian cells in phloem(3)vessels in xylem(4)motile sperms

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 156

Select the correctly matched example of cartilaginous fishes with their common named :-(1)Scoliodon - Sting ray(2)Trygon - Great white shark(3)Carcharodon - Dog fish(4)Pristis - Saw fish

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 157

Select out wrong match :-(1)Autogamy - pollination in same flower(2)Geitonogamy - pollination in different flower of same plant(3)Xenogamy - pollination between different plant(4)Monocliny - flower is unisexual

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 158

A plant cell with a solute potential of –0.8 MPa maintains a constant volume when bathed in a solution that has a solute potential of –0.25 MPa and is in an open container. From this information, one knows that :-

(1)The cell has a pressure potential of +0.55 MPa

(2)The cell has a pressure potential of +0.25 MPa(3)The cell has a pressure potential of +0.8 MPa(4)The cell has a water potential of –0.8 MPa

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 159

Jaundice is characterise by the rise of blood level of :-(1)Bile salt(2)Bile pigments(3)Bile juice(4)Stercobilin

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 160

Electrophoresis is used to :-(1)Clone genes(2)Cut DNA into fragments(3)Separate fragments of DNA(4)Match gene with its function

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 161

Find the incorrect from the following :-(1)Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characters of growth(2)Consciousness is the defining property of living organisms(3)Metabolism is not, but the cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature of living

organisms(4)Reproduction is not the defining property of life, because mule and infertile human couples can not

reproduce

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 162

Which one of the following is not provided in nutrient culture medium of plant tissue culture.(1)Growth regulator(2)Carbon source(3)Nucleic acid(4)Inorganic salts

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 163

Which of the following is not a autoimmune disease :-(1)Rheumatoid arthrithis(2)Myasthenia gravis(3)Anemia(4)Grave's disease

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 164

Select the pair of structure which are common in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes cells :-(1)Cell membrane and Mitochondria(2)Ribosome and lysosome(3)Microbodies and sap vacuole(4)Cell membrane and Ribosome

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 165

'Contagium vivum fluidum' refers to :-(1)Lichen(2)Mycorrhiza(3)Virus(4)Mycoplasma

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 166

Identified the correct statement from the following with reference to amphibians :(A) They have internal fertilisation and development is direct(B) Amphibian skin is moist and without scales(C) Their body is divisible into head and trunk(D) They have three chambered heartSelect the correct answer :-

(1)A and D(2)A and B(3)B, C and D

(4)D alone

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 167

Maturation of ovule into   A    and ovary into   B    are collectively termed as   C    :-   A  B C 

(A)  Fruit  Seed  Post fertilisation event(B)  Seed  Fruit  Pre fertilisation event(C)  Seed  Fruit  Post fertilisation event(C)  Fruit  Seed  Pre fertilisation event(1)(A) (2)(B) (3)(C) (4)(D)

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 168

In order to flower, what does a short-day plant need?(1)Burst of red light in the middle of the night(2)Day that is longer than a certain critical length(3)Higher ratio of Pr ; Pfr during the day(4)Night that is longer than a certain critical length

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 169

What is the figure given below showing in particular?

(1)Tubectomy(2)Vasectomy(3)Ovarian cancer(4)Uterine cancer

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 170

Number of base pairs in one turn of B-DNA and Z-DNA in respectively :-(1)9 and 11(2)10 and 11(3)10 and 12(4)8 and 7

Correct Answer: 3    

Q No: 171

A patient lying in coma in hospital virtually supported by machines which replace heart and lungs. Such patient is :-

(1)Living(2)Non living(3)Can not say(4)All are correct

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 172

Which step of plant breeding is crucial to the success of the breeding objective and requires careful scientific evalutation of the progeny?

(1)Collection of variability(2)Selection and testing of superior recombinants(3)Evaluation and selection of parents(4)Cross hybridisation among the selected parents

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 173

How many of the following are viral diseases filariasis, Malaria, Typhoid, Common cold Pneumonia, Measles, Polio, AIDS :-

(1)Four (2)Five (3)Six (4)Seven

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 174

Mention the ploidy level of the following :-(a) Leaf cell of a moss(b) Prothallus cell of a fern(c) Gemma cell in Marchantia(d) Endosperm of gymnosperm(e) Ovum of a liverwort(f) Protonemal cell of a moss(g) Capsule cell of bryophytes(i) Leaf cell of fernChoose the correct option :-

(1)2n, 2n, n, n, n, n, 2n 2n respectively(2)n, n, n, n, n, n, 2n, 2n respectively(3)n, 2n, 2n, n, n, n 2n, 2n respectively(4)n, 2n, n, n, n, n, n, 2n respectively

Correct Answer: 2   

Q No: 175

Identify the following figure and match them with their respective group :-

(1)  P  Selaginella  Pteridophyta Q  Ginkgo  Gymnosperm R  Funaria  Bryophyta

(2)  P  Marchantia  Bryophyta Q  Cycas  Pteridophyta R  Equisetum  Gymnosperm

(3)  P  Selaginella  Pteridophyta Q  Pinus  Gymnosperm R  Sphagnum  Bryophyta

(4)  P  Salvinia  Pteridophyta Q  Ginkgo  Gymnosperm R  Sphagnum  Bryophyta

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 176

How many statments are true :-(a) Pioneer species invade the bare land initially.(b) Succession and evolution is parallel process at the primitive earth.(c) Energy flow is the structural attributes of biotic community(d) The shallow water zone around the edge of lake is called limnetic zone.

(1)a & d(2)a & b(3)a, b & c(4)a, b, c & d

Correct Answer: 2    

Q No: 177

Which of the following statement is incorrect?(1)In dicotyledonae roots, pith is small or inconspicuous or absent(2)Monocot roots are usually polyarch(3)Radial vascular bundles are found in roots(4)The trichomes in the shoot system are usually unicellular

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 178

In an experiment, a plant is grown at a particular level of light and in a certain concentration of CO2. With CO2 constant and light intensity gradually increasing to a preset level oxygen production increases up to a point and then levels off. If light is increased beyond the preset level no further increase in oxygen production is noted. In a second experiment, the same increasing regimen of light is used but at a higher level of CO2 is supplied. O2 production in the second experiment continues to increase beyond the point where it leveled off in the first experiment. From these observations, one might conclude :-

(1)Light is the only limiting factor(2)CO2 concentration is the only limiting factor(3)Both light & CO2 are limiting factors throughout the time course of the reaction(4)Light is limiting up to a point & then CO2 becomes a limiting factor

Correct Answer: 4    

Q No: 179

Given questions refer to the drawings of the two plants. You have two plants you wish to stimulate growth. Plant A receives light and responds as indicated below. Plants B receives a chemical and

responds as below.

The hormone responsible for the growth movement seen in plant A is :-(1)Auxin(2)Florigen(3)Cytokinin(4)Gibberellin

Correct Answer: 1    

Q No: 180

Given questions refer to the drawings of the two plants. You have two plants you wish to stimulate growth. Plant A receives light and responds as indicated below. Plants B receives a chemical and responds as below.

The chemical given to plant B to elongate it must be :-(1)Ethylene(2)Gibberellins(3)Cytokinins(4)A growth hormone

Correct Answer: 2    

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