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DATE:+1 BATCH MEDICAL TEST – 3

SECTION – 1 PHYSICS

1.A boy is running over a circular track will uniform speed of 10m/s. Find the average velocity for movement of boy from A to B(in m/s)

(a)

(b)

(c) 10

(d) None of these

2. A person moves towards east for 3 m, then towards north for 4 m and then moves vertically up by 5m. What is his distance now from the starting point?

(a) (b) 5m (c) 10 m (d) 20 m

3. A ball is released from height h and another from 2h. The ratio of time taken by the two balls to reach the ground is

(a)1: (b) (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2

4.The velocity of a particle moving in the positive direction of x – axis varies as v = 5 . Assuming that at t = 0, particle was at x = 0. What is the acceleration of the particle?

(a) 12.5 m/s (b) 7.5 m/s2

(c) 5 m/s2 (d) 2.5 m/s2

5.A particle starts with a velocity of 2 ms – 1 and moves in a straight line with a retardation of 0.1 ms – 2. The first time at which the particle is 15 m from the starting point is

(a) 10 s (b) 20 s (c) 30 s (d) 40 s

6. A particle starting from rest with constant acceleration travels a distance x in first 2s and a distance y in next 2s, then

(a) Y = x (b) Y = 2x (c) Y = 3x (d) Y = 4x

7.A particle initially at rest moves along the x – axis. Its acceleration varies with time as a = 4t. If it starts from the origin, the distance covered by it in 3s is

(a)12 m (b) 18 m (c) 24m (d) 36m

8. A particle moves in the x – y plane according to the law x = kt, y = kt (1 – t) where k and are positive constants and t is time. The trajectory of the particle is

(a) Y = kx (b)

(c) Y = - (d) Y =

9.A particle projected vertically upwards returns to the ground in time T. Which graph represents the correct variation of velocity (v) against time (t)?

10. The distance – time graph of a particle at time t makes angel 450 with the time axis. After one second, it makes angle 600 with the time axis. What is the average acceleration of the particle?

(a) (b)

(c) (d) 1

11. A lift is going up. The variation in the speed of the lift is as given in the graph. What is the height to which the lift takes the passengers?

(a) 3.6 m (b) 28.8 m (c) 36.0 m

(d) Cannot be calculated from the above graph

12. The displacement x of a particle in a straight line motion is given by x =1 – t – t2. The correct representation of the motion is

13.Two particles P and Q simultaneously start moving from point A with velocities 15 m/s and 20 m/s respectively. The two particles move with accelerations equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. When P overtakes Q at B then its velocity is 30 m/s. The velocity of Q at point B will be

(a) 30 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 20 m/s (d) 15 m/s

14. Speed – time graph of two cars A and B approaching towards each other is shown in figure. Initial distance between them is 60 m. The two cars will cross each other after time

(a) 2s

(b) 3s

(c) 1.5 s

(d)

15. A body is moving with velocity 30 ms – 1 towards east. After 10s its velocity becomes 40 ms – 1 towards north. The average acceleration of the body is

(a) 7 ms – 2 (b) ms – 2

(c)5 ms – 2 (d) 1 ms – 1

16. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 ms -2, the velocity with which it hits the ground is

(A) 20 ms – 1 (b) 40 ms – 1

(c) 5 ms – 1 (d) 10 ms – 1

17. The displacement – time graph of two moving particles make angles of 300 and 450 with the X – axis. The ratio of their velocities is

(a)

(b) 1:1

(c) 1:2

(d)1:

18. A wheel completes 2000 revolutions to cover the 9.5 km distance, then the diameter of the wheel is

(a) 1.5 km (b) 1.5 m (c) 7.5 cm (d) 7.5 m

19. A body falls freely from the top of a tower. It covers 36% of the total height in the last second before striking the ground level. The height of the tower is

(a) 50 m (b) 75m (c) 100 m (d) 125 m

20. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly to a speed of 180 km/h in 10s. The distance covered by the car in this time interval is

(a) 500 m (b) 250 m (c) 100m (d) 200 m

21. Figures (1) and (2) show the displacement – time graphs of two particles moving along the x – axis. We can say that

(a) both the particles are having an uniformly accelerated motion

(b) both the particles are having an uniformly retarded motion

(c) particle (1) is having on uniformly accelerated motion which particle (2) is having an uniformly retarded motion

(d) particle (1) is having an uniformly retarded motion while particle (2) is having an uniformly accelerated motion.

22. When a stone is projected which remains constant?

(a)Angular momentum

(b) Linear momentum

(c) Vertical component of velocity

(d) Horizontal component of velocity

23.A projectile, thrown with velocity v0 at an angle to the horizontal, has a range R. It will strike a vertical wall at a distance R/2 from the point of projection with a speed of

(a)v0 (b) v0 sin (c)v0 cos (d)

24.At the top of the trajectory of a particle, the acceleration is

(a) maximum (b) minimum

(c) zero (d) g

25. Two projectiles A and B are thrown from the same point with velocities v and respectively. If B is thrown at an angle 450 with horizontal, what is the inclination of A when their ranges are the same?

(a)sin – 1 (b)

(c) 2 sin – 1 (d) sin – 1

26.A boy throws a ball with a velocity u at an angle with the horizontal. At the same instant he starts running with uniform velocity to catch the ball before if hits the ground. To achieve this he should run with a velocity of

(a) u cos (b) u sin

(c) u tan (d) u sec

27. A body is projected at an angle of 300 with the horizontal with momentum p. At its highest point the magnitude of the momentum is

(a) (b) P (c) p (d)

28. The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 10% by increasing its speed of projection, without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the horizontal range will be

(a) 20% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) 5%

29. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity at an angle to the horizontal. The kinetic energy KE of the ball varies with horizontal displacement x as

30. A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle above the horizontal. The elevation angle of the highest point as seen from the launch point is related by by the relation

(a) tan (b) tan

(c) tan (d) tan

31. A very broad elevator is going up vertically with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2. At the instant when its velocity is 4m/s a ball is projected from the floor of the lift with a speed of 4 m/s relative to the floor at an elevation of 300. The time taken by the ball to return the floor is (g = 10 m/s2)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 1s

32. A projectile is launched with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle 600 with the horizontal from a sloping surface of inclination 300. The range R is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 4.9 m

(b) 13.3 m

(c)9.1 m

(d) 12.6 m

33. If a projectile is launched with velocity v0 making an angle with x – axis, then its time of fight T is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

34. The height y and the distance x along the horizontal plane of a projectile on a certain planet (with on surrounding atmosphere) are given by y = 8t – 5t2 m and x = 6t m, where t is in seconds. The velocity with which the projectile is projected is

(a)6 ms – 1 (b) 8 ms – 1

(c) 10 ms – 1 (d) 14 ms -1

35. A ball is projected horizontally with a velocity of 5 m/s from the top of a building 19.6 high. How long will the ball take to hit the ground?

(a) (b) 2s (c) (d) 3s

36. A cart is moving horizontally along a straight line with constant speed 30 m/s. A projectile is to be fired from the moving cart in such a way that it will return to the cart after the cart has moved 80 m. At what speed (Relative to the cart) must the projectile be fired? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 10 ms – 1 (b) ms – 1

(c) ms – 1 (d) None of the above

37. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v at an angle of 600 with horizontal. When the particle is at its maximum height. The magnitude of its angler momentum about the point of projection is

(a) Zero (b) (c) (d)

38.The relation between the time of flight of a projectile T and the time to reach the maximum height tm is

(a) Tf = 2tm (b) Tf = tm

(c) tf = (d) Tf = (tm)

39. A particle of unit mass undergoes one – dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to v(x) = , where and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x, is given by

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

40. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a speed of 25.2 m/s. How long does it take to reach its highest point and how high does it rise?

(a) 2.75 s, 3.24 m (b) 25.7 s, 34.2 m

(c) 2.57s, 32.4 m (d) 27.5 s, 3.42 m

41. The displacement of a particle as a function of time is shown in figure. It indicates that

(a) the velocity of the particle is constant throughout

(b) the acceleration of the particle is constant throughout

(c) the particle starts with a constant velocity and is accelerated

(d) the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops

42. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly to a speed of 18 km h – 1 in 10s. The distance covered by the car in the time interval is

(a) 200 m (b) 300 m

(c) 500 m (d) 250 m

43. The velocity – time graph for two bodies A and B are shown in figure. Then, the acceleration of A and B are in the ratio

(a) sin 250 to sin 5000

(b) tan 250 to tan 400

(c) cis 250 to cos 500

(d) tan 250 to tan 500

44. An object is thrown towards the lower which is at a horizontal distance of 50 m with an initial velocity of 10 ms – 1 and making an angle 300 with the horizontal. The object hits the tower at certain height. The height from the bottom of the tower, where the object hits the tower is (g = 10 ms – 2)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

45. The range of a projectile is R when the angle of projection is 400. For the same velocity of projection and range, the other possible angel of projection is

(a) 450 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 400

SECTION – II CHEMISTRY

46The melting point of AlF3 is 104 and that of SiF4 is – 77 (it sublimes)because:

(a) there is a very large difference in the ionic character of the Al – F and Si – F bonds

(b) in AlF3, Al3+ interacts very strongly with the neighbouring F- ions to give a three dimensional structure but in SiF4 no such interaction is possible

(c) The silicon ion in the tetrahedral SiF4 molecule is not shielded effectively from the fluoride ions whereas in AlF3, the Al3+ ion is shielded on all sides

(d) the attractive forces between the SiF4 molecules are strong whereas those between the AlF3 molecule are weak

47Which of the following represents an excited state of an atom?

(a) [Ne] 3s23p64s23d8(b) [Ne] 3s23p64s13d5

(c)[Ne] 3s23p64s23d1(d) 1s22s22p53s1

48In the periodic table, metallic character of the elements shows one of the following trend:

(a) Decreases down the group and increases across the period

(b) Increases down the group and decreases across the period

(c) Increases across the period and also down the group

(d) Decreases across the period and also down the group

49The ionic radii of Li+, Be2+ and B3+follow the order:

(a) Be2+> B3+> Li+(b) Li+> B3+> Be2+

(c) B3+> Be2+> Li+(d) Li+> Be2+> B3+

50The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as:

(a) Pb4+> Pb2+> Pb(b) Pb > Pb2+> Pb4+

(c) Pb > Pb4+> Pb2+(d) Pb4+> Pb > Pb2+

51The first I.E. of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:

(a) Na < Mg < Al < Si (b) Na < Al < Mg < Si

(c) Na < Al < Si < Mg(d) Na > Mg > Al > Si

52For which of the following reaction value is equal to the first ionization energy of Ca is:

(a) Ca+(g) Ca2+(g) + e

(b) Ca(g) Ca+(g) +e

(c) Ca(s) Ca+(g) + e

(d) Ca(g) Ca2+(g) + 2e

53Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron affinity.

(a) S > O > N(b) O > S > N(c) N > O > S(d) S > N > O

54Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius?

(a) K+(aq) < Na+(aq) < Li+(aq)

(b) Na+(aq) < K+(aq) < Li+(aq)

(c) K+(aq) < Li+(aq) < Na+(aq)

(d) Li+(aq) < Na+(aq) < K+(aq)

55Among the following oxides, which has the maximum lattice energy?

(a) MgO (b) CaO (c) SrO(d) BaO

56A, B and C are hydroxy-compounds of the elements X, Y and Z respectively. X, Y and Z are in the same period of the periodic table. A gives an aqueous solution of pH less than seven. B reacts with both strong acids and strong alkalis. C gives an aqueous solution which is strongly alkaline.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(I) The three elements are metals.

(II) The electro negativities decreases from X to Y to Z.

(III) The atomic radius decreases in the order X, Y and Z.

(IV) X, Y and Z could be phosphorus, aluminium and sodium respectively.

(a) I, II, III only correct(b) I, III only correct

(c) II, IV only correct (d) II, III, IV only correct

57La (lanthanum) having atomic number 57 is a member of:

(a) s-block elements (b) p-block elements

(c) d-block elements (d) f-block elements

58If the ionic radii of K+ and F- are nearly the same (i.e., 1.34 Å), then the atomic radii of K and F respectively are:

(a) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å(b) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å(c) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å(d) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å

59Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The magnitude of the second electron affinity of sulphur is greater than that of oxygen

(b) The magnitude of the second electron affinity of sulphur is less than that of oxygen

(c) The first electron affinities of bromine and iodine are approximately the same

(d) The first electron affinity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine

60The formation of the oxide ion O2-(g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below:

O(g) + e- O-(g); kJ mol-1

O-(g) + e O2-(g); kJ mol-1

This is because:

(a)O- ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom

(b)Oxygen has high electron affinity

(c)O- ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron

(d)Oxygen is more electronegative

61The ground state electronic configurations of the elements, U, V, W, X and Y(these symbols do not have any chemical significance) are as follows:

U1s22s22p3

V1s22s22p63s1

W1s22s22p63s23p2

X1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2

Y1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6

Determine which sequence of elements satisfy the following statements:

(i) Element forms a carbonate which is not decomposed by heating

(ii) Element is most likely to form coloured ionic compounds

(iii) Element has largest atomic radius

(iv) Element forms only acidic oxide

(a) V W Y U(b) V X Y W

(c) V W Y X(d) V X W U

62When magnesium burns in air, compounds of magnesium formed are magnesium oxide and:

(a) Mg3N2(b) MgCO3

(c) Mg(NO3)2(d) MgSO4

63In which of the following arrangements, the order is not correct according to the property indicated against it:

(a) Increasing size: Al3+< Mg2+< Na+< F-

(b) Increasing I.E.1 : B < C < N < O

(c) Increasing E.A.1: I < Br < F < Cl

(d) Increasing metallic radius:

Li < Na < K < Rb

64.Electronic configuration of an element X having atomic number 24 is

(a) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 (b) [Ar] 3d4 4s2

(c)[Ne] 2p5 3s1 (d) [Ar] 3d64s2

65. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p6, 4d10, 5s2, 5p3. From which group of the periodic table it belongs?

(a) 2nd (b) 5th (c) 3rd (d) 7th

66. Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionisation energy?

(a) [Ne]3s1, 3p3 (b) [Ne] 3s2, 3p2

(c) [Ar]3d10, 4s2, 4p3 (d) [Ne]3s2, 3p1

67. An element X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one fo the following is true regarding the outer electronic configuration of X?

(a) It has partially filled d – orbitals and completely filled s – orbitals

(b) It has completely filled s – orbitals and completely filled p – orbitals

(c) It has completely filled s – orbitals and half – filled p – orbitals

(d) it has half – filled d – orbitals and completely filled s – orbitals

(e) It has completely filled d, s and p – orbitals

68. Which element is not of p – block from the following?

(a) As (b) Ga (c) Sr (d) Po

69. The electronic configuration of four elements are

I. [Xe] 6s1 II. [Xe] 4f14, 5d1, 6s2

III. [Ar] 4s2, 4p5 IV. [Ar] 3d7, 4s2

Which one of the following statements about these elements is not correct?

(a) I is a strong reducing agent

(b) II is a d – block element

(c) III has high electron affinity

(d) IV shows variable oxidation state

(e) The compound formed between I and III is ionic

70. Elements A, B and C belong to the same period in the long form of the periodic table. The nature of the oxides of A, B and C is amphoteric, basic and acidic respectively. The correct order of the atomic numbers of these elements is

(a) C > B > A (b) C > A > B

(c) A > B > C (d) B > A >C

71. Sodium forms Na+ ion but it does not form Na2+ because

(a) very low value of 1st and IInd IE

(b) very high value of 1st and IInd IE

(c) high value of 1st IE and low value of IInd IE

(d) low value of 1st IE and high value of IInd IE

72. In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it?

(a) HF < HCl < HBr < H (Increasing acidic strength)

(b) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2 (Increasing pKa values)

(c) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 (Increasing acidic character)

(d) CO2 < SiO3 < SnO2

73. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Radius of Ca2+ < Cl- < S2-

(b) Radius of Cl- < S2- < Ca2+

(c) Radius of S2- < Cl- = Ca2+

(d) Radius of S2- < Cl- < Ca2+

74. In periodic table, the basic character of oxides

(a) increases from left to right and decrease from top to bottom

(b) decreases from right to left and increases from top to bottom

(c) decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom

(d) decreases from left to right and increases from bottom to top.

75.Which one of the following is correct order of the size?

(a) I > I- > I+ (b) I > I+ > I-

(c) I+ > I- >I (d) I- > I> I+

76. The first ionisation energies of the elements of the first transition series (Ti Cu)

(a) increases as the atomic number increases

(b) decrease as the atomic number increases

(c) do not show any change as the addition of electrons takes place in the inner (n – 1) d – orbitals

(d) increase from Ti to Mn and then decrease from Mn to Cu

77. The value of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The % ionic character of the A – B bond is

(a) 50%(b) 72.24%

(c) 55.3%(d) 43%

78.The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V (23), Cr(24) and (Mn (25) is

(a) Cr > Mn > V > Ti

(b) V > Mn > Cr > Ti

(c) Mn > Cr> Ti > V

(d) Ti > V > Cr > Mn

79. In the graph given below, the one which represents an alkali metal with the higher atomic number is

(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d)M

80.The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chrominum (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionisation enthalpy?

(a) V (b) Cr (c) Mn (d) Fe

81. The elements X, Y and Z form oxides which are acidic, basic and amphoteric respectively. The correct order of their electronegativity is

(a) X > Y > Z (b) Z > Y > X

(c) X > Z > Y(d) Y > X > Z

82.Ionic radius are is

(a) inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge

(b) inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge

(c) directly proportional to effective nuclear charge

(d) directly proportional to square of effective nuclear charge

83. Identify the correct order of the size of the following

(a) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2- < Cl-

(b)Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl- < S2-

(c) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < S2-

(d) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl- < S2-

84. The electronic configurations of four elements are given below. Arrange these elements in the correct order of the magnitude (without sign) of their electron affinity.

I. 2s2, 2p5 II. 3s2, 3p5

III. 2s2, 2p4 IV. 3s2, 3p4

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) I < II < III < IV (b) II < I < IV < III

(c)I < III< IV < II (d) III < IV < I < II

85. Which of the following species has the highest electron affinity?

(a) F (b) O (c) O- (d) Na+

86. Among the following transition elements, pick out the element/ elements with highest second ionisation energy.

I. V (atomic number = 23)

II. Cr (atomic number = 24)

III. Mn (atomic number = 25)

IV. Cu (atomic number = 30)

V. Zn (atomic number = 30)

(a) I and III(b) II and IV

(c) II and V (d) Only IV

(e) Only III

87.The ionic radius (Å) of C4- and O2- respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. The ionic radius of the isoelectronic ion N3- would be

(a) 2.6 (b) 1.71 (c) 1.4 (d) 0.95

88. Pauling’s equation for determining the electronegativity of an element is

[XA, XB = electronegativity values of elements A and B ∆ represents polarity of A – B bond]

(a) XA – XB = 0.208

(b) XA + XB = 0.208

(c) XA – XB = 0.208 ∆2

(d) XA – XB =

89. Assertion First ionisation energy for nitrogen is lower than oxygen

Reason (R) Across a period, effective nuclear charge decreases.

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c)A is correct but R is incorrect

(d) Both A and R are incorrect

90. Identify the correct order in which the ionic radius of the following ions increases

I. F - II. Na+ III. N3-

(a) III, I and II (b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and I (d) II, I and III

SECTION - III BIOLOGY

91. Which one is correct?

(a) Notochord is ectodermal in origin present in some animals

(b)Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the dorsal side in embryonic development in some animals

(c) Arthropoda are non – chordates

(d)Both (b) and (c)

92.Radial symmetry is seen in

(a) Echinodermata, Ctenophora and Cnidaria

(b)Mollusca, Porifera and Echinodermata

(c) Porifera, Annelida and Arthropoda

(d)None of the above

93.Which one of the following figure shows coelomate condition?

(a)A(b)B (c)C(d)None of these

94.Match the column. Give the most appropriate one match only.

Column I Column II

A. Ctenophora 1. Bilateral symmetry

B. Cnidaria 2. Comb plates

C. Platyhelminthes 3. Radial symmetry

D. Echinodermata 4. Tissue level of organisation

ABCD

(a)4123

(b)3214

(c)2413

(d)1342

95.Some of the statements are given below.

I. Porifera to Echinodermata lack a notochord.

II. Platyhelminthes display tissue level organisation.

III. Mesoglea is present in coelenterates during development.

IV. Aschelminthes are coelomates.

Choose the correct options.

(a)I, II, and IV are True (b)I and II are True

(c)I and III are True (d) II and III are True

96. Which of the following statements are true/ false?

I. Cell aggregate body plan is found in phylum – Platyhelminthes.

II. Radial symmetry is the most common symmetry found in animals

III. Pseudocoelom is only found in phylum – Aschelminthes.

IV. All Triploblastic animals have a true Coelom.

V. Haemocoel is sometimes observed in animals belonging to phylum – Platyhelminthes.

(a)I and V are true and II, III and IV are false

(b)II, III and V are true and I and IV are false

(c)I, II and III are true and IV and V are false

(d) I, II, IV and V are false, only III is true

97. Match the following columns

Column I Column II

A. Pennatula 1. Brain coral

B. Meandrina 2. Sea – fan

C. Gorgonia 3. Sea – pen

D. Adamsia 4. Sea anemone

ABCD

(a)3124

(b)1324

(c)2413

(d) 2341

98. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

A. Statocysts 1. Radiating plates

B. Radula 2. Respiratory function

C. Gills 3. Organs of balance

D. Tentacles 4. Sensory organs

5. Organ of feeding

6. Organs of locomotion

AB C D

(a)4136

(b)3524

(c)4156

(d)2354

99. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of

(a) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda

(b)Echinodermata and annelida

(c) Annelida and Arthropoda

(d) Mollusca and Chordata

100. Fill in the blanks marked in the classification table from the choices in the box with respect to A, B, C, D, E and F and choose the correct option.

I. Pisces

II. Osteichthyes

III. Agnatha

IV. Gnathostomata

V. Chondrichthyes

VI. Cyclostomata

ABCDEF

(a)VI IVIIIIIIV

(b)IIIIVVIIVII

(c)IVIIVIIIIIV

(d)IVVIIIIIVII

101 Which of the following features are present in chordates?

(a)Dorsal heart, presence of post – anal tail and central nervous system is dorsal

(b)Ventral heart, presence of post – anal tail and presence of gill slits

(c)Dorsal heart, pharynx perforated by gill silts and dorsal neural system

(d)Ventral heart, absence of notochord but presence of post – anal part of the tail

102.Which statement is incorrect for animals belonging to class of Chondrichthyes?

(a)Presence of placoid scales

(b) Absence of air bladder

(c)Presence of cartilaginous endoskeleton

(d)Notochord is persistent only at larval stage, after that it disappears.

103.The number of gills present in Osteichthyes is

(a)2 pairs (b) 6 pairs (c) 5 pairs (d) 4 pairs

104. Select the correct set of animals of class – Mammalia.

(a)Lion, Hippopotamus, penguin, bat

(b) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich

(c)Hippopotamus, penguin, whale, kangaroo

(d) Whale, bat, kangaroo, Hippopotamus

105.Bilateral symmetry, Metameric segmentation, true coelom and open circulatory system are the features of

(a)Annelida (b) Arthropoda

(c)Mollusca (d) Echinodermata

106.Choose the correct options for the following diagram.

(a)A – Cnidocil, B – Refractile rod, C – Stylet

(b) A – Thread tube, B – contractile fibril, C – lasso

(c)A – Stylet, B – Refractile rod, C – Capsule

(d) A – Cnidocil, B – Spine, C – Thread tube

107. In most simple type of canal system of Porifera, which of the following ways exhibit water flow?

(a) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum Exterior

(b) Spongocoel Ostia Osculum Exterior

(c)Osculum Spongocoel Ostia Exterior

(d)Osculum Ostia Spongocoel Exeterior

108.Match the items in column I with those in column II and choose the correct option.

AB C ABC

(a)234(b)342

(c)431(d)123

109.Rhabditiform is the larva of

(a) Hydra (b) Platyhelminthes

(c)Ascaris (d) Earthworm

110. Class – Crustacea have the following features.

(a) Tracheae and Malphighian tubules

(b) Tracheae and green glands

(c) Book gills and coxal glands

(d) Gills and antennal glands

111.Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes are similar in which of the following features?

(a)Presence of two chambered heart and ctenoid scales

(b) Presence of 10 pairs of cranial nerves and absence of neck

(c)Presence of opisthonephric kidneys and bony endoskeleton

(d)Presence of poision string and electric organs

112.Assertion (A) The duck – billed platypus and the spiny ant – eater both are the egg – laying animals yet they grouped under mammals.

Reason (R)Both of them have seven cervical vertebrae and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanations of A

(c)A is true, but R is false

(d)Both A and R are false

113.Match the following columns .

(a)A – (ii) – 2, B – (iii) – 1, C – (i) – 3, D – (iv) – 4

(b) A – (i) – 4, B – (iv) – 1, C – (ii) – 2, D – (iii) – 3

(c) A – (i) – 1, B – (ii) – 2, C – (iii) – 3, D – (iv) – 4

(d) A – (iii) – 2, B – (iv) – 3, C – (i) – 4, D – (ii) – 1

114. Which of the following statements is false?

(a)Male roundworm is smaller than female

(b)Earthworms are hermaphrodites

(c) Echinoderms are protostomous coelomates

(d)Human teeth are anatomically comparable to scales

115. Choose the group of parasitic animals.

(a)Wuchereria - - Pheretima – Nereis

(b) Liverfluke – Dugesia – Ascaris

(c)Fasciola – Taenia – Ancylostoma

(d) Wuchereria – Fasciola – Dugesia

116.Insects are different from spiders in which of the following features.

(a)Presence or absence of wings, number of legs, presence of absence of haemocoel

(b)Presence or absence of antennae, number of germ layers, presence or absence of appendages

(c) Number of body divisions, number of legs, absence or presence of spinnerets

(d) None of the above

117. The diagram represents the reproductive organ of male cockroach. Choose the correct combination of labeling

(a)A – 8th sternum, B – Anal cercus, C – 10th tergum,

D – anal styles

(b)A – 10th tergum P – anal cercus, C – anal styles,

D – sternum

(c)A – Anal styles, B – Anal cercus, C – 10th Tergum,

D- 8th sternum

(d) A – 8 sternum, B – anal cercus, C – 10th Tergum,

D – 8th sternum

118. Choose the correct statement associated with ovoviviparous condition.

(a)when the embryo directly derives nourishment from the mother

(b) The animals lay eggs in a nest especially made for this purpose

(c)The eggs are heavily yolked eggs

(d) none of the above

119. Pheromone is

(a) a product of endocrine gland

(b) used for animal communication

(c)mRNA

(d) always protein

120. The substance or structure found in the eyes of birds is

(a) keratin (b) nectin (c) pleura (d) pecten

121. Which of the following groups of animal are uricotelic ?

(a)Reptiles, Birds, Land snails , insects

(b) Reptiles, Birds, Lands snails

(c)Aquatic amphibians, Birds, Land snails, insects

(d) Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds, insects

122. Which of the following statement is incorrect about squamous epithelium?

(a)It consists of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular bounders

(b)It is present on secretory and absorptive surfaces

(c) It is found on the walls of the kidney

(d)It is involved in many functions like forming a diffusion boundary

123. The type of epithelium seen in the walls of blood vessels is

(a) squamous epithelium (b)columnar epithelium

(c)ciliated epithelium (d) cuboidal epithelium

124. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

(a)Pila globosa – Pearl (b)Apis indica – Honey

(c) Kenia lacca – Lac (d)Bombyx mori – Silk

125. The epithelial tissues present on the inner surface of bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

(a) cuboidal tissue (b) glandular tissue

(c)ciliated tissue (d) squamous tissue

126. Categorisation of secretory gland can be done on the basis of

(a) mode of pouring of their secretion

(b) mode of breaking down of molecules

(c) mode of segregation of products

(d) None of the above

127. In the given diagram of T.S. cartilage, identify a and B.

(a) A - collagen; B – Chondrocyte

(b) A – Osteocyte; B – collagen

(c) A – Microtubule; B – Osteocyte

(d) A – Chondrocyte; B – Collagen

128. Tendon is an example of which of the following connective tissue?

(a) Loose connective tissue

(b)Dense connective tissue

(c)specialized connective tissue

(d) all of the above

129. Identify A to C in the given diagram of areolar tissue.

(a)A – Macrophage, B – fibroblast, C – Collagen fibres,

(b) A – Mast cells, B – Collagen fibres, C – Plasma membrane

(c)A – Chondrocyte, B – Fat storage area, C – Plasma membrance

(d)A – Fibroblast, B – Macrophages, C – Mast cells,

130.Match the following columns.

Column IColumn II

A. Columnar epithelium 1. Larynx

B. Ligaments 2. Eosinopaenia

C. Chondrioblast 3. Elastic tissue

D. Acidophils 4. Urinary bladder

E. Uninucleated spindle 5. Microvilli

shaped muscle fibres

ABCDE

(a)53124

(b)51324

(c)15324

(d)53142

131. In human body neuroglia cells occurs in the

(a)liver (b) brain

(c) kidney (d) brain and spinal cord

132. On an average female cockroach produces ootheca and in each ootheca fertilised eggs are present.

(a)A:7- 8 ; B: 14 – 16 (b) A :9-10 ; B : 14- 16

(c)A : 20 – 25 ; B :10 – 11 (d) A: 14 – 16 ; B: 9 – 10

133. Hypopharynx of the cockroach acts as

(a) Mouth (b) Lips (c) Tongue(d) Jaws

134. In which of the following body segments of cockroach wings are not present?

(a)mesothorax (b) metathorax

(c) prothorax (d) prethorax

135. In female cockroach, the 7th sternum together with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a

(a) Collateral gland (b) Gonopore

(c) Genital pouch (d) Anal cercus

136. In male cockroach, genital pouch lies at the hind end of the abdomen, bounded dorsally by..... and ....... terga, and ventrally by ...... sternum. Fill in the blank appropriate combination.

(a)6th ,7th ,7th (b) 7th ,8th ,8th

(c)9th ,10th,9th (d) 10th ,9th ,10th

137. In the digestive system of cockroach gastric caecae is present at the junction of

(a) Mid gut and hind gut

(b) Hind gut and fore gut

(c) Fore gut and mouth

(d) Mid gut and fore gut

138. In the respiratory system of cockroach, trachea opens through 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles. The part of integument supporting spiracles is

(a) bronchioles (b) alveoli

(c)peritreme (d) tracheoles

139. The development of Periplanata americana is

(a)holometabolous (b) paurometabolous

(c)ametabolous (d) hemimetabolous

140. Given below the figure of open circulatory system of cockroach. Identify A, B, and C choose the correct options.

(a)A – Lateral aorta, B – Ciliary muscles, C – Chambers of heart

(b) A – Internal aorta, B – Alary muscles, C – Chambers of heart

(c) A – anterior aorta, B – Alary muscles, C – Chambers of heart

(d) A – Posterior aorta, B – fibrous muscles, C – Chambers of heart.

141. The nymphs of cockroaches grows by moulting about ……times to reach the adult form

(a)6(b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 13

142. The given figure is related with the head region of cockroach. Identify A to F the correct combination of options.

(a)A- Maxilla, B- Compound eye, C-Ocellus,D- Labium , E-Labrum, F- Mandible

(b) A- Ocellus, B- Compound eye, C-Maxilla,D-Labium E-Labrum , F- Mandible

(c)A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C- Maxilla, D-Labrum E- Labium, F-Mandible

(d) A- Mandible, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, D- Ocellus E-Labrum, F-Labium

143. Blood of a cockroach contains

(a) plasma and leucocytes

(b) erythrocytes and plasma

(c)erythrocytes and platlets (d) all of these

144. With reference to cockroach match the following columns.

Column I Column II

A. Anal cerci 1. 4th and 6th segment

B. Tegmina 2. 10th segment

C. Testes 3. Forewings

D. Ommatidia 4. Sclerites

E. Exoskeleton 5. Visceral unit

AB CDE

(a)23154

(b)43251

(c)34521

(d) 54321

145.In cockroaches, the structure which acts as pseudopenis is

(a)Anal cerci (b)Anal style

(c) left phallomere(d) right phallomere

146. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are a type of

(a) Intercellular gland (b) Multicellular gland

(c) Unicellular gland (d) None of these

147. Match the following column.

Column- I

Column II

A. Squamous epithelium

1.Present in bronchioles

B. Cuboidal epithelium

2.Present in lungs

C. Columnar epithelium

3.Present in stomach

D. Ciliated epithelium

4.Present in kidneys

ABCD

(a)2431

(b)4321

(c)3214

(d)1234

148. Haversian canal system is present in

(a) spongy bone (b) compact bone

(c) Hyaline cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilage

149. Three types of cell junction, i.e., the tight, adhering and the gap junctions are found in

(a)muscular tissue (b) connective tissue

(c)epithelial tissue (d) neural tissue

150. Cells of connective tissues that exhibits signet ring structure are called

(a) fibroblast (b) mast cells

(c) macrophages (d) adipocytes

151. The skeleton of corals is composed of

(a) siliceous spicules (b) calcium sulphate

(c) calcium carbonate (d) potassium sulphate

152. Choose the respiratory organs that are not present in phylum – arhropoda

(a) Tracheal system (b) gills

(c) Water vascular system (d) Book lungs

153. Match the following columns

Column I Column II

A. Loligo 1. Cuttle fish

B. Aplysia 2. Chiton

C. Sepia 3. Pearl oyster

D. Chaetopleura 4. Tusk shell

E. Pinctada 5. Squid

6. Sea hare

ABCD E

(a)63145

(b)54623

(c)45316

(d)56123

154. The mantle in Phylum Molluscs is a

(a)calcareous shell (b)chitinous membrane

(c)soft spongy layer of skin (d) none of these

155. Excretory organ in phylum – Hemichordata is

(a) proboscis gland (b) gills

(c) collar (d) None of these

156. Urchordate animals have

(a) notochord that extends from head to tail region

(b)notochord is present throughout larval stages and adult life

(c) notochord present only in adult stages

(d) notochord present only in larval stage

157. Which of the following do not belong to class – Mammalia?

(a) B and E (b) A and c

(c) E and C (d) D and E

158. Which of the following is incorrect for Aves?

(a) Heart is four chambered and animals are oviparous

(b) Presence of air cavities in bones and presence of feathers on the body

(c) Digestive tract has additional chambers and animals are homiothermous

(d) The forlimbs are not modified into wings

159. Which of the following sets of derivatives of integumentary structures characterise birds, as glorified reptiles ?

(a)scales & claws (b) syrinx & uropygial gland

(c)claws & uropygial gland (d)syrinx and scales

160. Skeletal system in phylum – Arthropoda is

(a) endoskeletal spicules structures

(b) endoskeletal siliceous structures

(c)exoskeletal calcareous covering

(d)exoskeletal chitinous covering

161. Mark what is incorrect regarding to the phylum – Arthropoda

(a) Open type of circulatory system

(b) Bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate animals

(c) Diploblastic with head, thorax and abdomen

(d) Presence of Malpighian tubules and antennae

162. Solenocytes are associated with

(a) respiration (b) digestion

(c) nutrition (d) excretion

163. Features common to the animals belonging to class – Amphibia and class – Reptilia are

(a) presence of scales with internal fertilisation and usually four chambered heart

(b) presence of tympanum, poikilotherms and usually three chambered heart

(c)presence of cloaca, oviparous and external fertilisation

(d) skin is moist

164. The nematocysts inject ………….in its prey

(a) coelenterons (b) neurotoxin

(c)hypontoxin (d)hypnotoxin

165. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

A. Phylum – Ctenophora 1. Flame cells

B. Phylum – Annelida 2. Longer females

C. Phylum – Platyhelminthes 3. Coelomate

D. Phylum – Aschelminthes 4. Comb plates

ABCD

(a)3421

(b)4312

(c)4123

(d)2143

166. Which of the following phyla has no freshwater forms?

(a)Echinodermata (b) Mollusca

(c)Chordata (d) Porifera

167. In Cockroach , the ootheca is formed by secretion of

(a)Phallic gland(b) Collaterial gland

(c)Mushroom gland (d)Conglobate gland

168. Which of the following groups of animals have the following feature?

I. Diploblastic II. Acoelomate

III. Radial symmetry

(a)Planaria, Physalia, Aurelia

(b) Taenia, Fasciola, Wuchereia

(c)Adamsia, Gorgonia, Meandrina

(d) Fasciola, Sycon, sea walnut

169. Book lungs and book gills are found in which of the following animals, respectively?

(a)Prawns and lobsters

(b) Cockroaches and cuttle fish

(c) Pila and crabs

(d) scorpion and king crabs

170. Select the prosimians from the given options.

(a)Lemurs, monkey and gibbons

(b) Chimpanzee, monkey and Ioris

(c)Tarsius, lemur and Ioris

(d) chimpanzee, gibbons and orangutan

171. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?

(a) Arthropoda – Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae

(b)Chordata – Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside

(c)Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilisation

(d) Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva

172. Which of the following statements are true/ false?

I. Poikilothermic animals are also called ectothermic animals.

II. Sharks are ovoviviparous animals

III. Coxal gland are excretory organs present in arachnids

IV. Copper containing respiratory pigment is called haemocyanin, it is present in Pila.

(a)All the statements are false

(b) All the statements are true

(c) I and II are true and III and IV are false

(d) I and III are true and II and IV are false

173. In humans compound squamous epithelium is found in

(a) stomach (b) intestine

(c) trachea (d) pharynx

174. The lining of intestine and kidneys in human is

(a)keratinized (b) brush bordered

(c) ciliated (d) None of these

175. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ear) are also found in

(a)Phalanges (b) nails

(c) ear ossicles (d)tip of nose

176. Keratinised dead layer of skin is made up of

(a)stratified squamous epithelium

(b) simple cuboidal epithelium

(c)simple columnar epithelium

(d) stratified columnar epithelium

177. Which of the following is an exclusive character of class mammalia?

(a)Internal fertilization

(b) Presence of completely four chambered heart

(c)Homoiothermy

(d) Presence of a muscular diaphragm

178. Torsion of visceral mass is seen in animals belonging to class

(a)Cephalopoda (b) scaphopoda

(c)Amphineura (d) Gastropoda

179. Phylum – Ctenophora shows affinities with

(a) Cnidaria (b) Aschelminthes

(c) Cephalopoda (d) Turbellaria

180. What is true for Wuchereria bancrofti?

(a) Absence of an intermediate host

(b) Male worms are longer than female worms

(c)Lives in bile ducts of human beings

(d) Seen in lymph of humans

(Rough Work)