VII STANDARD Social Science Term 2 History Chapter 1 ...

VII STANDARD Social Science Term 2

History Chapter 1

Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.

Who was the greatest ruler of Sangama Dynasty?

Answer:

(b) Devaraya II

Question 2.

Which was the most common animal depicted on the pillars of Vijayanagara style?

Answer:

(b) Horse

Question 3.

Who was the last ruler of the Sangama Dynasty?

(Answer:

(d) Virupaksha Raya II

Question 4.

Who ended the Sultanate in Madurai?

(Answer:

(c) Kumara Kampana

Question 5.

Name the Bahmani King who was a linguist and a poet.

Answer:

(c) Sultan Firoz

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ___________ was the capital of Aravidu dynasty.

2. Vijayanagar emperors issued a large number of gold coins called ___________

3. Mahmud Gawan used ___________chemists to teach the preparation and use of

gunpowder.

4. In Vijayanagara administration ___________ looked after the affairs of villages.

Answers:

1. Penukonda

2. Varahas

3. Persian

4. Gaudal

III. Match the Following

Question 1.

1. Vijayanagara – Ruler of Odisha

2. Prataparudra – Astadiggajas

3. Krishna Devaraya – Pandurangamahatyam

4. Abdur Razzaq – City of victory

5. Tenali Ramakrishna – Persian emissary

Answer:

1. Vijayanagara – City of victory

2. Prataparudra – Ruler of Odisha

3. Krishna Devaraya – Astadiggajas

4. Abdur Razzaq – Persian emissary

5. Tenali Ramakrishna – Pandurangamahatyam

IV.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The Vijayanagar army was considered one of the feared armies in India.

Reason (R): Vijayanagar armies used both firearm and cavalry.

(a) R is not the correct explanation of A

(b) R is correct explanation of A

(c) A is correct and R is wrong

(d) (A) and (R) are Correct

Answer:

(b) R is correct explanation of A

Question 2.

Find’out the wrong pair

(a) Silk – China

(b) Spices – Arabia

(c) Precious stone – Burma

(d) Madurai Vijayam – Gangadevi

Answer:

(b) Spices – Arabia

Question 3.

Find the odd one out

Harihara II, Muhammad I, Krishnadeva Raya, Devaraya I

Answer:

Muhammad I

Question 4.

Consider the following statements and find out which is/are correct

I. Turquoise throne is one of the bejewelled royal seats of Persian kings described in

Firdausi’s Shah Nama.

II. The fertile regions between the rivers Krishna and Tungabhadra and Krishna-Godavari

delta were the zones of conflict among the rulers of Vijayanagar, and Bahmani.

III. Muhammad I was educated at Multan.

IV. Mahmud Gawan served with great distinction as the Prime Minister under Muhammad

III.

(a) I, II, are correct

(b) I, II, III are correct

(c) II, III, IV are correct

(d) III, IV, are correct

(e) I, II & IV are correct

Answer:

(e) I, II & IV are correct

V. True or False

1. Harihara and Bukka were the founder of Bahmani kingdom.

2. Krishnadeva Raya, who reigned for 20 years, was the most illustrious rulers of

Sangama dynasty.

3. Alasani Peddana was the greatest of all Astadiggajas.

4. Kingship of Vijayanagar administration was hereditary, based on the principle of

primo geniture.

5. There were 18 monarchs of the Bahmani dynasty.

Answers:

1. False

2. False

3. True

4. True

5. True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.

The four dynasties of Vijayanagara kingdom with reference to prominent rulers of each

dynasty.

Answer:

Four dynasties, namely

1. Sangama (1336-1485)

2. Saluva (1485-1505)

3. Tuluva (1505-1570)

4. Aravidu (1570-1646) ruled this kingdom.

Question 2.

Battle of Talikota.

Answer:

The sultans of Deccan kingdoms formed a league to fight the Vijayanagar Empire. The

combined forces of the enemies met at Sadasiva Raya Talikota in 1565. In the ensuing battle,

known as Rakasa Tangadi (Battle of Talikota), Vijayanagar was defeated.

Question 3.

The structure of governance in Vijayanagar kingdom.

Answer:

1. The empire was divided into different mandalams (provinces), nadus (districts),

sthalas (taluks) and finally into gramas (villages).

2. Each province was administered by a governor called Mandalesvara.

3. The lowest unit was the village. Each village had a grama sabha. Gauda, village

headman, looked after the affairs of the village.

4. The army consisted of the infantry, cavalry and elephant corps.

Question 4.

five independent kingdoms of Deccan Sultanate.

Answer:

Bidar, Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Berar and Golconda.

Question 5.

The educational reforms of Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah

Answer:

Alaud-din Hasan Shah on his accession, took special care in founding a school to educate his

sons and opened institutions for the purpose of educating the children of noble families in the

art of soldiery.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.

Discuss the career and achievements of Krishna Devaraya.

Answer:

(i) Krishnadevaraya who reigned for 20 years was the most illustrious rulers of the Tuluva

dynasty.

(ii) He brought under control the independent chieftains in the Tungabhadra river basin.

(iii) The Bahmani sultan, Mahmud Shah, had been overthrown and kept in imprisonment by

his minister. Krishnadevaraya freed the sultan and restored him to the throne. Prataparudra

negotiated for peace and offered to marry off his daughter to him.

(iv) Accepting the offer, Krishnadevaraya returned the territory he had conquered from

Prataparudra.

(v) Krishnadevaraya, with the assistance of the Portuguese gunners, could easily defeat the

Sultan of Golconda and subsequently take over Raichur from the ruler of Bijapur.

A Great Builder:

(i) Krishnadevaraya built huge irrigation tanks and reservoirs for harvesting rainwater.

(ii) He built the famous temples of.Krishnaswamy, Hazara Ramaswamy and Vithalaswamy in

the capital city of Hampi.

(iii) He distributed the wealth he gained in wars to all major temples of South India for the

purpose of constructing temple gateways (gopura), called ‘Rayagopuram,’ in his honour.

(iv) He had good friendly relationship with the Portuguese and Arabian traders, which

increased the Empire’s income through customs.

Patron of Literature, Art and Architecture:

Krishnadevaraya patronised art and literature. Eight eminent luminaries in literature known as

astadiggajas adorned his court.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.

Discuss the causes for the decline of Vijayanagar rule. To what extent the Bahmani sultans

contributed to it?

Answer:

The main causes of the decline of the Vijayanagar empire were

(i) The military ambitions of the Vijayanagar rulers and Deccan sultan resulted in shifting

alignment.

(ii) In the battle of Talikota, the Vijayanagar empire was completely defeated. Both the

Vijaya nagar and Bahamani kingdoms claimed Raichur doab lying between Krishna and

Tungabadhra because of its fertile rich land. Both wanted to conquer Golconda because of its

gold mines. Both the powers descried to extend their. Kingdom and had religious jealousy.

Each considered the other as a danger to its existence.

History Chapter 2

The Mughal Empire


Question 1.

Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in India?

Answer:

(b) Babur

Question 2.

In which battle did Akbar defeat Rana Pratap?

Answer:

(c) Haldighati

Question 3.

Whose palace in Delhi was destroyed by Sher Shah?

Answer:

(b) Humayun

Question 4.

Who introduced Mansabdari system?

Answer:

(b) Akbar

Question 5.

Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?

Answer:

(b)Raja Todarmal


1. _______ was the name of the horse of Rana Pratap.

2. _______ was a hall at FatehpurSikri where scholars of all religions met for a

discourse.

3. The Sufi saint who received Akbar’s utmost respect was _______

4. During the reign of _______ the Zabti system was extended to the Deccan provinces.

5. _______ were tax-free lands given to scholars and religious institutions.

Answers:

1. Chetak

2. Ibadatkhana

3. Salim Chishti

4. Shah Jahan

5. Suyurghal

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Babur – Ahmednagar

2. Durgavati – Jaipur

3. Rani Chand Bibi – Akbar

4. Din Ilahi – Chanderi

5. Raja Man Singh – Central Province

Answer:

1. Babur – Chanderi

2. Durgavati – Central Province

3. Rani Chand Bibi – Ahmednagar

4. Din Ilahi – Akbar

5. Raja Man Singh – Jaipur

IV. True or False

1. Babur inherited Farghana, a small kingdom in Central Asia.

2. Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1565.

3. Aurangzeb married a girl of a notable Rajput family.

4. Jahangir ordered execution of Sikh leader Guru Arjun for helping his son Khusrau.

5. During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture received much patronage.

Answers:

1. True

2. False

3. False

4. True

5. False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.

Assertion (A): The British established their first factory at Surat.

Reason (R): Jahangir granted trading rights to the English.

(a) R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is wrong and R is correct.

(d) (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer:

(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.

Assertion (A): Aurangzeb’s intolerance towards other religions made him unpopular among

people.

Reason (R): Aurangzeb re-imposed the jizya and pilgrim tax on the Hindus.

(a) R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is wrong and R is correct.

(d) (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer:

(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.

Find out the correct statements

(i) Kamran was the son of Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.

(ii) Akbar abolished the jizya poll tax on non-Muslims and the tax on Hindu pilgrims.

(iii) Aurangzeb acceded the throne after killing his three brothers.

(iv) Prince Akbar entered into a pact with Shivaji’s son Shambuji in the Deccan.

(a) (I), (II) and (III) are correct

(b) (II), (III) and (IV) are correct

(c) (I), (III) and (IV) are correct

(d) (II), (III), (IV) and (I) are correct

Answer:

(b) (II), (III) and (IV) are correct

Question 4.

Arrange the battles in chronological order

1. Battle of Khan wa

2. Battle of Chausa

3. Battle of Kanauj

4. Battle of Chanderi

Answer:

1. Battle of Khanwa (1527)

2. Battle of Chanderi (1528)

3. Battle of Chausa (1539)

4. Battle of Kanauj (1540)

Question 5.

Arrange the following administrative divisions in descending order

1. Sarkars

2. Parganas

3. Subhas

Answer:

1. Subhas

2. Sarkars

3. Parganas

Match the Father and son

Father Son

1 Akbar Dilawar Khan

2 Daulat Khan Lodi Rana pradap

3 Hasan suri Humayun

4 Babur Sher Shah

5 Uday singh Jahangir

Answer:

Father Son

1 Akbar Jahangir

2 Daulat Khan Lodi Dilawar Khan

3 Hasan suri Sher Shah

4 Babur Humayun

5 Uday singh Rana pradap

VI. Give short answer

Question 1.

Write the circumstance that led to the Battle of Panipat in 1526.

Answer:

Babur did not have any ambition beyond Punjab till 1524. Then a greater opportunity came

knocking. Dilawar Khan, who was Daulat Khan Lodi’s son, and Alam Khan, who was the

uncle of Sultan of Delhi, arrived in Kabul to seek Babur’s help in removing Ibrahim Lodi

from power. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the famous Battle of Panipat in 1526.

Question 2.

Mention the Humayun recapture the Delhi throne in 1555.

Answer:

Sher Shah defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539) and again at Kanauj (1540). Humayun,

defeated and overthrown, had to flee to Iran. With the help of the Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp

of the Safavid dynasty, Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1555.

Question 3.

Write a note on Mansabdari system.

Answer:

Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system. According to this system, the nobles, civil and

military officials were combined to form one single service. Everyone in the service was

given a mansab, meaning a position or rank. A Mansabdar was a holder of such a rank.

Mansabdar rank was dependent on Zat and Sawar.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.

Describe the land revenue administration of the Mughals.

Answer:

Land Revenue Administration:

(i) Land revenue administration was toned up during the reign of Akbar. Raja Todar Mai,

Revenue Minister of Akbar, adopted and refined the system introduced by Sher Shah.

(ii) According to Zabt system, after a survey, lands were classified according to the nature

and fertility of the soil. The share of the state was fixed at one-third of

(iii) the average produce for 10 years.

(iv) The Mughal emperors enforced the old iqta system, renaming it jagir. It is a land tenure

system developed during the period of Delhi Sultanate. Under the . system, the collection of

the revenue of an area and the power of governing

(v) it were bestowed upon a military or civil official now named Jagirdar.

(vi) Every Mansabdar was a Jagirdar if he was not paid in cash. The Jagirdar collected the

revenue through his own officials.

(vii) Those appointed to collect the revenue from the landholders were called zamindars.

Zamindars collected taxes and maintained law and order with the help of Mughal officials

and soldiers.

(viii) The local chieftains and little kings were also called zamindars.

Question 2.

Estimate Akbar as a patron of learning.

Answer:

(i) Akbar was a great patron of learning. His personal library had more than four thousand

manuscripts.

(ii) He patronised scholars of all beliefs and all shades of opinions.

(iii) He extended his benevolence to authors such as Abul Fazl, Abul Faizi and Abdur Rahim

Khan-i-Khanan, the great storyteller Birbal, competent officials like Raja Todar Mai, Raja

Bhagwan Das and Raja Man Singh.

(iv) The great composer and musician Tansen and artist Daswant adorned Akbar’s court as

well.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.

Shah Jahairs time witnessed the climax of Mughal splendour. Support this statement in

comparison with the times of other Mughal rulers.

Answer:

(i) The famous peacock throne, covered with expensive jewels, was made during Shah

Jahan’s time for the emperor to sit on. The world famous Taj Mahal, the Moti Masjid, the

pearl mosque at Agra, the Jama Masjid of Delhi, the Diwan-i- Khas and Diwan – i Am in his

palace exhibit his taste for Art and Architecture.

(ii) Babur built many structures at Agra, Biana, Dholpur, Gwalior and Kiul in Persian style of

Architecture.

(iii) Sher shah built a mausoleum at Sasaram. Diwan-i-khas, Diwan-i-Am, Panch Mahal Rang

Mahal, Salim Chishti’s tomb and Buland Darwaza were built during Akbar’s time.

(iv) Jahangir completed Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara and the beautiful building containing the

tomb of Itmad-ud-daula, at Agra.

(v) During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture did not receive much patronage.

History Chapter 3

Rise of Marathas and Peshwas

I. Choose the correct answer?

Question 1.

Who was the teacher and guardian of Shivaji?

Answer:

(a) Dadaji Kondadev

Question 2.

How was the Prime Minister of Maratha kings known?

Answer:

(b) Peshwa

Question 3.

Name the family priest of Shambhuji who influenced him in his day-to-day administration.

Answer:

(d) Kavi Kalash

Question 4.

What was the backbone of Shivaji’s army in the beginning?

Answer:

(c) Infantry

Question 5.

Who proclaimed wars and freed Malwa and Gujarat from Mughal domination?

Answer:

(b) Bajirao


1. The spread of the _______ movement in Maharashtra helped the Maratha people

develop consciousness and oneness.

2. _______ was the key official of revenue administration of Peshwa.

3. The imperial moment of the Marathas sadly ended at _______ in 1761.

4. _______ was the foreign minister in the Ashtapradhan.

5. Shambhuji succeeded Shivaji after a succession tussle with _______

Answers:

1. Bhakti

2. Kamavisdar

3. Panipat

4. Sumant / Dubeer

5. Anaji Dattcu


Question 1.

1. Shaji Bhonsle – Mother of Shivaji

2. Shambhuji – General of Bijapur

3. Shahu – Shivaji’s father

4. Jijabai – Son of Shivaji

5. Afzal khan – Shivaji’s grandson

Answer:

1. Shaji Bhonsle – Shivaji’s father

2. Shambhuji – Son of Shivaji

3. Shahu – Shivaji’s grandson

4. Jijabai – Mother of Shivaji

5. Afzal khan – General of Bijapur

IV. True or False

1. The rocky and mountainous terrain gave protection to the Marathas from invaders.

2. Hymns composed in Sanskrit by the Bhakti saints were sung by people of all castes

and classes.

3. Shivaji captured Puranthar from the Mughals.

4. Deshmukhs held sway over rural regions and their control was over between twenty

and hundred villages.

5. Abdali invaded ten times before finally marching on Delhi.

Answers:

1. True

2. False

3. True

4. True

5. False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Soldiers were to live in forts and towns far away from home

Reason (R): Maratha soldiers were not permitted to retire from battle fields each year for the

purpose of cultivating their land.

(a) R is correct explanation of A

(b) R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is Wrong and R is correct

(d) A and R are wrong

Answer:

(b) R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 2.

Statement I: Judging from the ledgers of correspondence and account books, Peshwas were

keen on accurate record – keeping.

Statement II: Artillery decided the battle at Panipat in 1761.

(a) I is correct

(b) II is correct

(c) I and II are correct

(d) I and II are false

Answer:

(c) I and II are correct

Question 3.

Find the odd one out

Shahji, Shivaji, Shambhuji, Shahu, Rahuji, Bhonsle.

Answer:

Rahuji

Question 4.

Find out the wrong pair

1. Gaikwad – Baroda

2. Peshwa – Nagpur

3. Holkar – Indore

4. Shiride – Gwalior

Answer:

2. Peshwa – Nagpur

Question 5.

Arrange the events in chronological order

(i) Shivaji became totally independent after the death of his guardian Kondadev.

(ii) Emperor Shahu died when Balaji Bajirao was Peshwa.

(iii) Shivaji resumed his military raids after his father’s death and conquered Javali.

(iv) Balaji Vishwanath became Peshwa.

Answer:

(i) Shivaji became totally independent after the death of his guardian Kondadev.

(iii) Shivaji resumed his military raids after his father’s death and conquered Javali.

(iv) Balaji Vishwanath became Peshwa.

(ii) Emperor Shahu died when Balaji Bajirao was Peshwa.

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.

The impact of Bhakti movement on Marathas.

Answer:

The spread of the Bhakti movement in Maharashtra helped the Maratha people develop

consciousness of their identity and oneness. It promoted a feeling of unity, especially in terms

of social equality, among the Marathas.

Question 2.

Chauth and Sardeshmukhi

Answer:

Shivaji claimed suzerainty, but he did not administer them himself. He protected the people

from loot and plunder for which they were required to pay Chauth (one- fourth of the revenue

as protection money) and Sardeshmukhi (an extra one-tenth, as the chieftain’s due).

Question 3.

Role of Kamavisdar in Maratha revenue administration.

Answer:

The revenue administration of Peshwas was headed by a key official called the Kamavisdar.

He was appointed by the Peshwa. He was empowered to maintain a small body of soldiers to

police the administrative area, from where tribute or tax had to be collected.

Question 4.

Execution of Shambhuji by Mughal Army.

Answer:

Marathas under Shambhuji were in no position to resist the Mughals. Aurangzeb himself

arrived in the Deccan in 1681. Aurangzeb’s main goal was the annexation of Bijapur and

Golconda. These two sultanates fell to Aurangzeb by 1687. In little over a year, Shambhuji

was captured by the Mughals and, after torture, put to death.

Question 5.

Battle of Panipat fought in 1761.

Answer:

The imperial moment of the Marathas sadly ended at Panipat near Delhi in 1761. The king of

the Afghans, Ahmad Shah Abdali, invaded eight times before finally marching onto Delhi.

The Marathas were now divided among several commanders, who approached the battle with

different tactics. Artillery decided the battle in January 1761. The mobile artillery of the

Afghans proved lethal against both Maratha cavalry and infantry.

VII. Answer the following.

Question 1.

Examine the essential features of Maratha administration under Shivaji.

Answer:

Shivaji’s political system consisted of three circles. At the centre was the swaraj. Shivaji was

caring and would not allow the people to be harassed in any way.

He protected the people from loot and plunder for which they were required to pay Chauth

(one-fourth of the revenue as protection money) and Sardeshmukhi (an extra one-tenth, as the

chieftain’s due). In the third circle, Shivaji’s only objective was plunder.

Army

Shivaji gave utmost attention to his army and training of its personnel. In the beginning, the

backbone of his army was the infantry. Shivaji took great care in the maintenance and

security of his forts.

Ashtapradhan

Shivaji designated eight ministers as the Ashtapradhan, each holding an important portfolio.

Peshwa was the equivalent of a modem prime minister in the Maratha Empire. Shivaji was

influenced by the Mughal revenue system. The assessments were made on the actual yield,

with three-fifths left to the cultivator and two-fifths taken by the government.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.

Compare the revenue administration of the Peshwas with that of Shivaji.

Answer:

Revenue administration of Shivaji:

1. Shivaji abolished the zamindari system.

2. Loans were provided to the farmers in the times of famine.

3. The state also collected custom duties and professional taxes.

4. The two important taxes collected during his time were Chauth and Sardeshmuki.

Revenue administration of Peshwas :

1. The revenue administration of peshwas was headed by a key official called the

kamavisdar.

2. He was expowered to maintain a small body of soldiers to police the administrative

area, from where tribute or tax had to be collected.

3. A prospective tax or revenue collector who won the contract was expected to have a

reputation for wealth and probity.

4. He was required to pay a portion of the whole of the anticipated revenue – one third to

one half-either out of his own wealth or from the money borrowed from bankers.

Geography Chapter 1

Resources


Question 1.

Which one of the following is renewable resource?

Answer:

(d) solar energy

Question 2.

Where is the largest solar power project situated in India?

Answer:

(a) Kamuthi

Question 3.

Which is one of the first metals known and used by man?

Answer:

(b) Copper

Question 4.

_______ is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics Industry.

Answer:

(b) Mica

Question 5.

Electricity produced from coal is called ________.

Answer:

(a) Thermal Power

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ is the largest producer of hydroelectricity.

2. Iron ores found at ______ in Tamil Nadu.

3. ______ is produced from bauxite ore.

4. ______ is used in making electrical batteries.

5. Petroleum and its derivatives are called ______.

Answers:

1. China

2. Kanjamalai

3. Aluminium

4. Manganese

5. Black Gold


Question 1.

1. Renewable resource – Iron

2. Metallic resource – Mica

3. Non-metallic resource – Wind energy

4. Fossil fuel – Sedimentary rock

5. Limestone – Petroleum

Answers:

1. Renewable resource – Wind energy

2. Metallic resource – Iron

3. Non-metallic resource – Mica

4. Fossil fuel – Petroleum

5. Limestone – Sedimentary rock

IV. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.

Assertion (A): Wind power is Clean Energy.

Reason (R): Wind turbines do not produce any emissions

(a) A and R are correct and R explains A

(b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A

(c) A is incorrect but R is correct

(d) Both A and R are incorrect

Answer:


Question 2.

Assertion (A): Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits.

Reason (R): it can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.


(b) A and R are correct but R does not explain A



Answer:


V. Answer the following

Question 1.

Define – Resource.

Answer:

Anything which can be used for satisfying the human needs is called resource.

Question 2.

What are the uses of iron?

Answer:

(i) Iron is used to manufacture steel and also used in civil engineering like reinforced

concrete, griders etc.

(ii) It is used to make alloy steels like carbon steels with additives such as nickel, chromium,

vanadium, tungsten and manganese.

Question 3.

What are the major utilizers of solar energy in the world?

Answer:

India, China, Japan, Italy and States of America are major utilizers of solar energy in the

world.

Question 4.

Name the types of coal based on carbon content.

Answer:

Coal is classified into four types based on carbon content. They are :

1. Anthracite

2. Bituminous

3. Lignite

4. Peat

Question 5.

Give a short note on Duralumin.

Answer:

Duralumin is an alloy, a trade name given to the earliest types of the age hardenable

aluminum alloys. It is an alloy made up of 90% aluminum, 4% copper, 1 % magnesium and

0.5% to 1 % manganese. Duralumin is.a hard, but a lightweight alloy of aluminum.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.

Biotic resources and abiotic resources.

Answer:

Biotic resources:

1. Biotic resources are found in the biosphere which are obtained from living and

organic materials.

2. Biotic resources depend on abiotic resources for their survival.

3. Example : Plants, trees, animals, microorganisam etc.

Abiotic resources :

1. Abiotic resources are the non-living parts of an environment.

2. Abiotic resources do not depend on biotic resources for their survival.

3. Example : Sunlight, temperature, water, soil, air, etc.

Question 2.

Renewable resources and non-renewable resources.

Answer:

Renewable resources:

1. Renewable resources can be used again and again throughout its life.

2. These resources are present in unlimited quantity.

3. These resources are pollution free

4. Example : Solar energy, wind energy and hydropower.

Non-renewable resources:

1. Non-renewable resources cannot be used again and again as it is limited which can be

depleted one day.

2. These resources are present in a limited quantity only.

3. These resources are not pollution free.

4. Example : Fossil fuels, iron, copper, gold silver etc.

Question 3.

Metallic resources and non-metallic resources.

Answer:

Metallic resources:

1. Metallic resources are the types of resources that are composed of metals.

2. These are hard substances, which are the good conductors of heat and electricity.

3. Example for metallic resources are iron, copper, gold, bauxite, silver, manganese, etc.

Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of

metals.

2. These are not hard substances and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.

3. Example for non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite,

phosphate, etc.

VII. Give reason

Question 1.

Aluminium has wide range of uses compared to other metals.

Answer:

1. Aluminium is light in weight, tough and cheaper, which makes it popular metal for

constructional purpose.

2. It is mainly used in the construction of aircrafts, ship, automobiles, railway coaches

and etc.

3. So, Aluminium has wide range of use compared to other metals.

Question 2.

Water is considered as a great source of energy.

Answer:

At present, water is used for producing hydroelectric power. Hydroelectricity is generated

from moving water with high velocity and great falls with the help of turbines and dynamos.

So water is considered as a great source of energy.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.

Explain the different types of renewable resources.

Answer:

Solar energy :

1. The sun produces energy in the form of heat and light. Solar energy is not harmful to

the environment.

2. Photovoltaic devices or solar cells, directly convert solar energy into electricity.

3. India, China, Japan, Italy and States of America are major utilizers of solar energy in

the world.

Hydropower:

1. Hydroelectricity power is the cheapest and most versatile source of energy out of all

the know energy. Hydroelectric power is a renewable resource.

2. China, Canada, Brazil, United States of America, Russia, India, Norway and Japan are

some countries producing hydroelectricity. China is the largest producer of hydro-

electricity.

Wind energy :

1. Wind power is clean energy since wind turbines does not produce any emission.

2. In recent years, wind energy has become one of the most economical and renewable

energy technologies.

3. Major wind energy producing countries are United States, China, Germany, Spain,

India, United Kingdom, Canada and Brazil.

Question 2.

Describe the non-metallic resources.

Answer:

Non-metallic resources:

1. Non-metallic resources can be described as the resources that do not comprise of

metals.

2. These are not hard substances, and are not good conductors of heat and electricity.

3. Example for non-metallic resources are mica, limestone, gypsum, dolomite,

phosphate, etc.

Mica:

1. Muscovite and Biotite are the common ores of Mica.

2. It is one of the indispensable minerals used in electrical and electronics industry.

3. In powder form, it is used for making lubricating oils and decorative wallpapers.

Limestone:

1. Limestone is a sedimentary rock, composed mainly by skeletal fragments of marine

organisms such as coral, foraminifera and molluscs.

2. About 10% of sedimentary rocks are limestones. Mostly limestone is made into

crushed stone and used as a construction material.

3. It is used for facing stone, floor tiles, stair treads, windows sills and many other

purposes.

4. Crushed limestone is used in smelting and other metal refining process. Portland

cement is made from limestone.

Question 3.

What are the different types of fossil fuel resources? Explain them.

Answer:

Fossil fuel resources:

1. Fossil fuel resources are normally formed from the remains of dead plants and

animals.

2. They are often referred to as fossil fuels and are formed from hydrocarbon.

Coal:

1. This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel that forms when dead plant matter is

converted into peat.

2. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as iron and steel, steam engines to

generate electricity.

Petroleum:

1. Petroleum is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil fields located in

Offshore and coastal areas.

2. Petroleum and its derivatives are called Black Gold as they are very valuable.

Natural gas:

1. Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought

to the surface.

2. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.

Geography Chapter 2

Tourism


Question 1.

The oldest type of tourism is

Answer:

(a) Religious

Question 2.

In which state is the Kaziranga national park located.

Answer:

(c) Assam

Question 3.

Which one of the following is not a beach of India?

Answer:

(d) Miami

Question 4.

Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary in India?

Answer:

(d) Kanha in Madhya pradesh

Question 5.

In which district courtallam waterfalls is located?

Answer:

(b) Tirunelveli


1. The three main components of tourism together known as _________

2. Gastronomy refers to an aspect of _________ tourism.

3. Suruli falls is also called as _________

4. The second largest urban beach is _________

5. Expansion of TAAJ _________

Answers:

1. A3 concept

2. cultural

3. cloud land falls (or) Meghamati falls

4. Marina beach

5. Travel Agents Association of India

III. Circle the Odd one

Question 1.

Transport, Attraction, Accommodation, Amenities

Answer:

(Transport) Attraction, Accommodation, Amenities

Question 2.

Nainital, Shillong, Munnar, Digha

Answer:

Nainital, Shillong, Munnar, (Digha)

Question 3.

Corbett, Sundarbans, periyar, Mayani

Ans.

Corbett, Sundarbans, periyar, (Mayani)

Question 4.

Hogenakal, Kumbakkari, Suruli, Kalakad

Answer:

Hogenakal, Kumbakkari, Suruli, (Kalakad)

Question 5.

Rishikesh, ladakh, Gulmarg, Kotagiri

Answer:

Rishikesh, ladakh, Gulmarg, (Kotagiri)

IV. Match the following

1. Anamalai hills – West Bengal

2. Monkey falls – Goa

3. Darjeeling – Coimbatore

4. Nature’s Haven – Top slip

5. Aguda Beach – Javadi

Answers:

1. Anamalai hills – Top slip

2. Monkey falls – Coimbatore

3. Darjeeling – West Bengal

4. Nature’s Haven – Javadi

5. Aguda Beach – Goa

V. Consider the following statement and tick (✓) die appropriate answer

Question 1.

Assertion (A) : Tourism is an essential activity for the life Of the society.

Reason (R) : its direct impact on social cultural, education and economic sector of the nation.

(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R

(c) A is in correct but R is correct

(d) Both A and R are in Correct

Answer:


Question 2.

Assertion (A) : One of the most popular beaches in Goa Calangute is a treat for the adventure

sports activities.

Reason (R) : Foreigners throng the beaches

(a) A and R are correct and A explain R

(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R



Answer:


VI. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.

Define Tourism.

Answer:

1. The word tourist was derived from an old English word “tourian” which refers to a

person who travels out of his usual environment for not more than one year and less

than 24 hours.

2. The purpose of travel may be religious, recreation, business, historical and cultural.

Question 2.

Write short note on ECO Tourism.

Answer:

1. Eco tourism typically involves travel, to destinations where plants and animals thrive

in a naturally preserved environment.

2. Amazon rain forest, African forest safari, trekking in the slopes of Himalayas are the

famous incredible Eco friendly attractions.

Question 3.

What are the basic elements of Tourism?

Answer:

Certain elements are fundamental to attract tourists as travel destinations. They are:

1. Pleasant weather

2. Scenic beauty

3. Historical and cultural monuments

Question 4.

Name any five hill stations in India.

Answer:

1. Kodaikanal, Ooty

2. Namital, Mussoorie

3. Darjeeling

4. Gulmarg

5. Shillong

Question 5.

Name any five beaches in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

1. Kanyakumari beach

2. Rameshwaram beach

3. Golden beach

4. Elliot beach

5. Mahabalipuram beach

VII. Distinguish between

Question 1.

International Tourism and Historical Tourism

Answer:

International Tourism:

1. International tourism refers to tourism that crosses national borders

2. Globalization has made tourism a popular global leisure activity.

Historical Tourism

1. Historical tourism is primarily focused upon historical places.

2. The individuals make visits to these places with the purpose of leisure as well as

acquiring information.

Question 2.

Religious Tourism and Adventure Tourism

Answer:

Religious Tourism:

1. Religious tourism is one of the oldest type of tourism, wherein people travel

individually or in groups for pilgrimage to a religious location such as temples,

churches, mosques and other religious places.

2. Religious tour to Kasi (Varanasi) by Hindus, to Jerusalem by Christians and to Mecca

by Muslims are few of the examples for religious tourism.

Adventure Tourism:

1. Adventure tourism is a type of tourism involving travel to remote or exotic places in

order to take part in physica 11 y challenging outdoor activities

2. For e.g. sky dive in Australia, Bungee jumping in New Zealand, mountaineering in

the peaks of Himalayas, rafting in the Brahmaputra River at Arunachala Pradesh.

Question 3.

Attraction and Accessibility

Answer:

Attraction:

1. Attractions mainly comprise of two types such as: Natural attraction, Cultural

attraction

2. Natural attraction includes landscape, seascape, beaches, climatic condition and

forests. Cultural attraction are historic monuments and other intellectual creations.

Apart from this, cultural attractions also includes fairs and festivals.

Accessibility:

1. Accessibility means reachability to a particular place of attraction through various

means of transportation such as road, rail, water and air

2. Transport decides the cost of travel and the time consumed in reaching or accessing a

specific attraction.

VIII. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.

Explain the Geographical components of Tourism.

Answer:

(i) Landforms : Mountains, Plateaus, Canyons, Valleys, Caves, Cirques, Sand dunes, Coral

reefs, Cliffs, etc.,

(ii) Water: Rivers, Lakes, Waterfalls, Hot springs and Geysers, Snow and Glacier, Water

Currents, Tides and Waves.

(iii) Vegetation : Forest, Grasslands, Moors, Deserts etc.,

(iv) Climate: Sunshine, Clouds, Admirable Temperature, Rain and Snow.

(v) Animal life :-

(a) Wildlife : Birds, Game Reserves, Zoos.

(b) Hunting and Fishing

(vi) Settlement features:-

(a) Towns, Cities, Villages

(b) Historical remains and Monuments

(vii) Culture:-Ways of life, traditions, folklore, arts and crafts.

Question 2.

Write briefly about the waterfalls in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

1. Mountains and rivers of Tamil Nadu combined together created many endearing

waterfalls.

2. Waterfalls in Tamil Nadu with its inspiring natural wonders attracts many tourists. A

trek amidst thick green trees, steep hills and a bath in the gushing water is most

rejuvenating.

3. Here is the list of famous waterfalls of Tamil Nadu.

Waterfalls Geographical location

1. Hogenakal falls - It is a beautiful waterfall located in Dharmapuri district .

2. Kumbakkarai falls- River Pambar cascades to form this fall at the foot hills of

Kodaikanal in Theni district.

3. Monkey falls - This waterfall lies on Anaimalai hills range in Coimbatore surrounded

by Evergreen forests

4. Killiyur falls - Situated in the shervarayon hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats.

Question 3.

Describe the Environment Impact of Tourism.

Answer:

Environmental Impact of Tourism

The quality of the environment is essential for tourism. The tourism industry created several

positive and negative impacts on the environment.

Positive Impacts:

1. Direct financial Contributions

2. Contributions to government revenues

3. Improved environmental management and planning

4. Increasing environmental awareness

5. Protection and reservation of environment

Negative Impacts

1. Depletion of Natural Resources

1. Water resources

2. Local resources

3. Land degradation

2. Pollution

1. Air and Noise Pollution

2. Solid Waste and Litering

3. Sewage

3. Destruction and Alteration of Eco system

1. Air

2. Water

3. Soil

IX. Hots

Question 1.

Why do we like sightseeing so much?

Answer:

1. Sightseeing is considered to be one of the most important activities a tourist chooses

to take part on reaching a destination.

2. Sightseeing gives the tourist a chance to know a destination and experience it.

3. Some people like adventures and to escape their normal monotonous life.

4. So some people like sightseeing so much.

Question 2.

What are the ways to protect the sanctuaries?

Answer:

1. Adopt: From wild animals to wild places, there’s an option for everyone.

2. Volunteer : if you don’t have money to give, donate your time.

3. Visit zoos, aquariums, national parks and wildlife refuges are all home to wild

animals.

4. Donate

5. Speak up

6. Buy responsibility

7. Pitch in

8. Recycle

9. Restore

10. Join

Question 3.

List any five reasons for travelling.

Answer:

1. We travel to learn, whether its learning a new language or learning about an area’s

history, travel allows us to learn so many different things.

2. We travel to escape. Travel provides a momentary break from the humdrum of our

daily lives.

3. We travel to discover.

4. We travel to make new friends.

5. We travel to experience.

Civics Chapter 1

State Government


Question 1.

What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the State Legislative Council?

Answer:

(d) 30 years

Question 2.

How many states does India have?

Answer:

(d) 29

Question 3.

The word State government refers to

Answer:

(c) both a and b

Question 4.

The overall head of the government in the state is the .

Answer:

(b)Prime Minister

Question 5.

Who appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers?

Answer:

(c) Governor

Question 6.

Who becomes the Chief Minister?

Answer:

(a) Leader of the Majority party

Question 7.

What are the three branches of the state government?

Answer:

(d) Legislative, executive and judiciary


1. The Governor is appointed by the _______

2. The leader of the majority party is appointed as _______ in the state assembly.

3. _______ is the highest judicial organ of the state.

4. MLA stands for _______.

5. _______ is a particular area form where all the voters living there choose their

representatives.

6. The elected representatives who are not the member of ruling party are called

_______.

Answers:

1. President of India

2. the Chief Minister

3. The High Court

4. Member of Legislative Assembly

5. Electoral Constituencies

6. Opposition Party


Question 1.

1. MLAs – Secretariat

2. Governor – 7

3. Chief Minister – Head of the state

4. Union territories – Legislative Assembly

5. Fort St. George – leader of the Majority party

Answers:

1. MLAs – Legislative Assembly

2. Governor – Head of the state

3. Chief Minister – leader of the Majority party

4. Union territories – 7

5. Fort St. George – Secretariat

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.

Which of the following statement is/are not correct?

To become a governor, one

a. should be the citizen of India

b. should have completed 25 years of age

c. should have sound mind

d. should not hold any office of profit.

i. a & b

ii. c & d

iii. a

iv. b

Answer:

iv. b

Question 2.

Consider the following statements and state true or false.

a. MLAs are together responsible for the working of the government

b. All the MLAs of other political party who do not belong to the ruling party are called

opposition.

e. MLAs are not the representatives of people.

Answers:

a. True

b. True

c. False

Question 3.

Find out the correct meaning of bicameral legislature.

a. It means that there are cameras in the legislature.

b. It means that the legislature has men and women members.

c. It means that there are two houses like upper house and lower house..

d. It means that the governor is the leader over the members of the legislature.

Answer:

c. It means that there are to houses like upper house and lower house.

Question 4.

Assertion: India has a federal system of government.

Reason: According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state

governments.

a. A is correct and R explains A

b. A is correct and R does not explain A

c. A is correct and R is wrong

d. Both are wrong

Answer:


Question 4.

Assertion: India has a federal system of government.

Reason: According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state

governments.


b. A is correct and R does not explain A

c. A is correct and R is wrong

d. Both are wrong

Answer:


V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.

What are the qualifications to become the Governor of a state?

Answer:

A person to be eligible to the post of Governor should be :

1. A citizen of India.

2. Should have completed 35 years of age.

3. Should have sound mind and

4. Should not hold any public office of Profit.

Question 2.

Who are called oppositions?

Answer:

All the MLAs of other political parties who do not belong to the ruling party are called

opposition party.

Question 3.

Write a note on Lok Adalat.

Answer:

Lok Adalat (people’s court) also have been established by the Government of India to settle

dispute through conciliation and compromise. Lok adalats have been given statutory status

under the Legal Service Authorities Act, 1987.

Question 4.

What is a constituency?

Answer:

Political parties nominate their candidates to each constituency. All the people residing in that

constituency who has completed 18 years of age cast their vote.

Question 5.

Who appoints the chief minister and other ministers?

Answer:

The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor who also appoints other ministers on the

advice of the Chief Minister. The council of Minister is collectively responsible to legislative

assembly of the state.

VI. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.

Describe the powers of the Governor.

Answer:

1. The Governor is an integral part of the State Legislature.

2. Governor is the head of the state executive and he has enormous powers.

3. All the administration is carried on in his name. He is the chancellor of Government

universities in the state.

4. All bills become law only after his assent. He appoints important officials of the state

government such as advocate General, Chairman and members of State Public Service

Commission,

5. State Election Commissioner, Vice chancellors of state universities etc.

Question 2.

Who is an MLA?

Answer:

1. The term MLA stands for a Member of Legislative Assembly.

2. The member of the Parliament is called MP whereas the member of the Legislative

Assembly is called MLA. Both the Central and State Governments work according to

our constitution.

3. He / She is elected through a general election and represents a particular constituency.

4. It is not necessary for one to be a member of a political party to become a MLA.

5. He / She can contest the election as an independent candidate also.

Question 3.

What is the role of Chief Minister and other Council of Ministers at the state level?

Answer:

1. The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state administration.

2. He allocates the portfolios among the ministers.

3. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the State Legislature.

4. All the ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.

5. The Chief Minister formulates programmes and policies for the welfare of the people

of the state.

6. The council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the

state

VII. HOTs

Question 1.

Name some departments of the government

Answer:

1. Health

2. Railway

3. Finance

4. Education

5. Revenue

6. Agriculture

Civics Chapter 2

Media and Democracy


Question 1.

Which one of the following comes under print media?

Answer:

(c) Newspaper

Question 2.

Which one of the following is the broadcast media?

Answer:

(d) Radio

Question 3.

Which invention has brought the world closure?

Answer:

(b) Television

Question 4.

Which is mass media?

(Answer :

(c) Both a & bi

Question 5.

Why is it necessary for media to be independent?

Answer:

(c) to write balanced report

II Fill in the blanks

1. _______ have made the ‘world smaller and closer. 2. Every individual person is a medium of _______ 3. Printing press was invented by _______ 4. _______ is i code of values which govern our lives. 5. _______ is the radio broadcast of the Government of India.

Answers:

1. Mass media 2. expression 3. Johannes Gutenberg 4. Ethics 5. Akashvanil


Question 1.

1. Narrowcast media – films 2. Social media – posters 3. Print media – seminar 4. Web media – google web site 5. Broadcast media – facebook

Answers:

1. Narrowcast media – seminar 2. Social media – facebook 3. Print media – posters 4. Web media – google web site 5. Broadcast media – films

IV. Consider the following statements Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.

Assertion:Print media has been referred to as peoples University

Reason :They perfom the role of public informer, educate, custodian of public interest.

(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is wrong and R is Correct

(d) Both are wrong

Answer:

(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.

Find the odd one

(a) newspapers

(b) magazine

(c) journals

(d) twitter

(e) posters

Answer:

(d) twitter

Question 3.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer form thftsSodes given

below.

a. Media is generally the agency for inter-personal communication.

b. Media is very powerful entity on the earth.

c. Media plays a prominent role in the formation of public opinion.

d. Media does not have any responsibility

i. a,b and c are correct

ii. a,c and d are correct

iii. b,c and d are correct

iv. a,b and d are correct

Answer:

i. a, b and c are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.

What is media?

Answer:

Media is generally the agency for inter-personal communication. Media im in A every

broadcasting and narrowcasting medium.

Question 2.

How does the public get the news about the decision that are taken in the Legislative

Assembly?

Answer:

The procedure is as follows :

1. After the discussion is over in the Legislative Assembly, a press conference called by the minister so as to pass on the necessary information.

2. The Minister then explains all the steps decided and taken by the government to press and media personal.

3. The press and media personnel clarify any doubts related to the meeting 4. All the information is published in the newspapers and shown on TV Channels

Question 3.

What are the importance of local media?

Answer:

Local media is important because it can generate quick and on the spot informal ion about the

facts which are going on and make the people aware of it. It is a very good medium for

getting news instantly.

Question 4.

Media is the fourth pillar of democracy. Justify

Answer:

Media ensures the transparency in the working of all the above three systems. Thus fourth

pillar of democracy ensures that all people living in far off areas of country are aware of

what’s happening in rest of the country.

Question 5.

State any two responsibility of media.

Answer:

1. Maintain transparency in government. 2. Help people in nourishing their rights.

VI. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.

How can we classify media?

Answer:

Classification of Media:

Narrowcast Media – Cable Television, Direct mail, Seminar Broadcast Media – Films, Television, Radio Print Media – Newspapers, Magazine, Journals, Books, Posters, Reports. Web Media – Google website and Blogs Social Media – Twitter, Facebook, WhatsApp and Instagram

Question 2.

In what ways does the media play an important role in a democracy?

Solution:

1. Media is the back bone of democracy. 2. In our democratic society mass media is the driving force of public opinion 3. Media strengthens the democratic value. It enlightens and empowers the peop I o. 4. It can educate the voters and ensures that government is transparenl .m l accountable. 5. Media carry every report of action of administration of the government 6. Based on the information, the citizen can learn about the functioning ol Mi government and

day to day happenings taking place around them.

Question 3.

What are the advantages of media?

Solution:

1. People get the latest news in a very short time 2. People get to bring out their hidden talents. 3. Great in promoting mass consumer products. 4. Serves as a good source of entertainment 5. Media leads to diffusion of different cultures.

VII. HOTs

Question 1.

Is Media necessary? Why?

Answer:

Yes, Media is necessary. In today’s society, the use of social media has become necessary for

daily social interaction and access to news and information and decision making. It is a

valuable communication tool with others locally and worldwide, as well as to share, create

and spread information.

Question 2.

What do you know about the term press conference?

Answer:

A press conference is an event organized to officially distribute information and answer

questions from the media. Press conferences are held by corporations and other businesses,

politicians and other government officials.

Question 3.

In what ways media affects our daily lives?

Answer:

Media is considered as the best source to know about the happenings of world. Newspaper,

magazine, radio, television and internet are the different types of media. It greatly affects our

lives because media has the power to influence out thoughts. This influence is sometimes

positive and sometimes negative.

Question 4.

Media is a boon or bane.

Answer:

The media can be both boon or bane, depending on our usage. If we use it intelligently,it will

be useful in gaining knowledge and for best impact. Also some stunts in movies and

television are copied by people, which leads to major accidents in our society.

VIII. Activity

Question 1

locus on a particular news. Collect information about that news from various media. Compare

and write down the similarity and differences

Answer:

Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.

Prepare an album – ‘the growth of media’ (from early period to till now).

Answer:


Question 3.

Prepare a newspaper and circulate in your class.

Answer:


VII STANDARD Social Science Term 2 History Chapter 1 ...

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