UNIT 6 REVIEW 6 REVIEW O C H H H H 1. What shape is the molecule below: A) trigonal planar B)...

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UNIT 6 REVIEW O C H H H H

Transcript of UNIT 6 REVIEW 6 REVIEW O C H H H H 1. What shape is the molecule below: A) trigonal planar B)...

UNIT 6 REVIEW

O C H

H H

H

1. What shape is the molecule

below:

A) trigonal planar

B) trigonal pyramidal C) tetrahedral D) see-saw

E) square planar

F) T-shaped

1. What shape is the molecule

below:

A) trigonal planar

B) trigonal pyramidal C) tetrahedral D) see-saw

E) square planar

F) T-shaped

2. FeBr3(s)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

2. FeBr3(s)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

3. Fe(s)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

3. Fe(s)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

4. Fe(g)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

4. Fe(g)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

5. NH3(l)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

5. NH3(l)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

6. C6H12O6(s)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

6. C6H12O6(s)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

7. SiO2(quartz)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

7. SiO2(quartz)

A) Oppositely charged particles arranged

systematically

B) Oppositely charged particles arranged

randomly

C) Neutral atoms arranged systematically

D) Neutral atoms arranged randomly

E) Neutral molecules arranged systematically

F) Neutral molecules arranged randomly

8. Two randomly selected Co atoms will contain the same number of protons A) always B) sometimes C) never

8. Two randomly selected Co atoms will contain the same number of protons A) always B) sometimes C) never

9. Delocalized sea of electrons

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

9. Delocalized sea of electrons

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

10. Creates crystals with slippage planes

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

10. Creates crystals with slippage planes

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

11. Initiated by random electron movement

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

11. Initiated by random electron movement

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

12. Involves a very small atom with a partial

positive charge

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

12. Involves a very small atom with a partial

positive charge

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

13. Between two molecules which each have

permanently lop-sided electron distributions

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

13. Between two molecules which each have

permanently lop-sided electron distributions

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

14. Alloys

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

14. Alloys

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

15. What causes diamond’s hardness

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

15. What causes diamond’s hardness

A) Metallic bonding

B) Covalent bonding

C) Ionic bonding

D) Dispersion forces

E) Hydrogen bonding

F) Dipole-dipole forces

16. A) isomers B) ions C) isotopes D) allotropes E) polymers F) electrons

16. A) isomers B) ions C) isotopes D) allotropes E) polymers F) electrons

A) 10 g

B) 15 g

C) 30 g

D) 39 g

E) 60 g

F) 78 g

17. How much KNO3

can dissolve in 50 g

of water at 20*C?

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Temperature (*C)

150

140

130

120

110

100

90

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0

Gra

ms o

f so

lute

per

100 g

of

H2O

A) 10 g

B) 15 g

C) 30 g

D) 39 g

E) 60 g

F) 78 g

17. How much KNO3

can dissolve in 50 g

of water at 20*C?

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Temperature (*C)

150

140

130

120

110

100

90

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0

Gra

ms o

f so

lute

per

100 g

of

H2O

A) 33*C

B) 45*C

C) 62*C

D) 73*C

E) 80*C

F) 128*C

18. What temperature

would be required to

get 70 g of KNO3 to

dissolve in 140 g of

water?

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Temperature (*C)

150

140

130

120

110

100

90

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0

Gra

ms o

f so

lute

per

100 g

of

H2O

A) 33*C

B) 45*C

C) 62*C

D) 73*C

E) 80*C

F) 128*C

18. What temperature

would be required to

get 70 g of KNO3 to

dissolve in 140 g of

water?

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Temperature (*C)

150

140

130

120

110

100

90

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0

Gra

ms o

f so

lute

per

100 g

of

H2O

19. A typical hot cup of coffee contains ____ mL of coffee at a temperature of ____°C A) 30, 25 B) 30, 85 C) 30, 195 D) 300, 25 E) 300, 85 F) 300, 195

19. A typical hot cup of coffee contains ____ mL of coffee at a temperature of ____°C A) 30, 25 B) 30, 85 C) 30, 195 D) 300, 25 E) 300, 85 F) 300, 195

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

20. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid K?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

20. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid K?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

21. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid KBr?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

21. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid KBr?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

22. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid Br2?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

22. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid Br2?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

23. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid Ne?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

23. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid Ne?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

24. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid Cgraphite?

A) dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole forces

C) hydrogen bonding

D) metallic

E) ionic

F) covalent

24. What type of bonding/IMFs must

be overcome to melt a sample of

solid Cgraphite?

25.

a) 27.7 mL

b) 20.77 mL

c) 22.7 mL d) 30.23 mL e) 32.3 mL f) 30.023 mL

mL

20

30

25.

a) 27.7 mL

b) 20.77 mL

c) 22.7 mL d) 30.23 mL e) 32.3 mL f) 30.023 mL

mL

20

30

A) Na

B) Mg

C) K

D) Ca

E) impossible to tell

26. Which of the following would

have the highest predicted melting

point?

A) Na

B) Mg

C) K

D) Ca

E) impossible to tell

26. Which of the following would

have the highest predicted melting

point?

A) LiCl

B) BeS

C) LiF

D) BeO

E) impossible

to tell

27. Which of the following would

have the highest predicted melting

point?

A) LiCl

B) BeS

C) LiF

D) BeO

E) impossible

to tell

27. Which of the following would

have the highest predicted melting

point?

A) F2

B) Cl2

C) Ne

D) Ar

E) impossible

to tell

28. Which of the following would

have the lowest predicted melting

point?

A) F2

B) Cl2

C) Ne

D) Ar

E) impossible

to tell

28. Which of the following would

have the lowest predicted melting

point?

A) CH3F

B) CH2F2

C) CHF3

D) CF4

E) impossible

to tell

29. Which of the following would

have the lowest predicted melting

point?

A) CH3F

B) CH2F2

C) CHF3

D) CF4

E) impossible

to tell

29. Which of the following would

have the lowest predicted melting

point?

Which would have the highest frequency? a) A b) B c) C d) all would have the same e) more information is needed

30. Consider the three EMR waves in a vacuum shown at right:

Which would have the highest frequency? a) A b) B c) C d) all would have the same e) more information is needed

30. Consider the three EMR waves in a vacuum shown at right:

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

F) none of the above

Question 34

(35)

31. Which of the following represents an ionic

bond

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

F) none of the above

Question 34

(35)

31. Which of the following represents an ionic

bond

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

F) none of the above

Question 34

(35)

32. Which of the following represents a shared

pair of electrons

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

F) none of the above

Question 34

(35)

32. Which of the following represents a shared

pair of electrons

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

F) none of the above

Question 34

(35)

33. Which of the following represents a very

strong IMF?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

F) none of the above

Question 34

(35)

33. Which of the following represents a very

strong IMF?

34. Delayed emission A) Phosphorescence B) Chemiluminescence C) Fluorescence D) Lasers E) Scattering F) None of the above

34. Delayed emission A) Phosphorescence B) Chemiluminescence C) Fluorescence D) Lasers E) Scattering F) None of the above

35. What’s the correct name for Sn(ClO4)2?

A) tin chlorate

B) tin perchlorate

C) tin(II) chlorate

D) tin(II) perchlorate

E) tin(IV) chlorate

F) tin(IV) perchlorate

Question 3 (35)

35. What’s the correct name for Sn(ClO4)2?

A) tin chlorate

B) tin perchlorate

C) tin(II) chlorate

D) tin(II) perchlorate

E) tin(IV) chlorate

F) tin(IV) perchlorate

Question 3 (35)

36. What type of hybridization does a

square planar molecule have?

A) sp

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) sp4

E) sp3d

F) sp3d2

Question 12

(35)

36. What type of hybridization does a

square planar molecule have?

A) sp

B) sp2

C) sp3

D) sp4

E) sp3d

F) sp3d2

Question 12

(35)

37. Which of the following will have

the highest melting point:

A) wax

B) salt C) sand

D) zinc

E) ice

37. Which of the following will have

the highest melting point:

A) wax

B) salt C) sand

D) zinc

E) ice

38. How many hydrogen bonding

sites per molecules are in N2H4

& CH3OH?

A) 2, 0

B) 2, 1

C) 2, 2

D) 4, 0

E) 4, 1

F) 4, 2

N N H H

H

H O H

C H

H H

38. How many hydrogen bonding

sites per molecules are in N2H4

& CH3OH?

A) 2, 0

B) 2, 1

C) 2, 2

D) 4, 0

E) 4, 1

F) 4, 2

N N H H

H

H O H

C H

H H

39. When a nonpolar substance like wax

melts, it is not the ______ inside the

molecules that are being broken. What

is being broken are the ______ between

the molecules.

A)ionic bonds, covalent bonds

B)ionic bonds, dispersion forces

C)covalent bonds, dipole-dipole

forces

D)covalent bonds, dispersion force

E)dispersion forces, covalent bonds

F)dispersion forces, nonpolar bonds

39. When a nonpolar substance like wax

melts, it is not the ______ inside the

molecules that are being broken. What

is being broken are the ______ between

the molecules.

A)ionic bonds, covalent bonds

B)ionic bonds, dispersion forces

C)covalent bonds, dipole-dipole

forces

D)covalent bonds, dispersion force

E)dispersion forces, covalent bonds

F)dispersion forces, nonpolar bonds

40. A substance will _____ when its

______ equals the pressure

pushing down on the substance’s

surface.

A)melt, intermolecular force

B)melt, vapor pressure

C)melt, bonding energy

D)boil, intermolecular force

E)boil, vapor pressure

F)boil, bonding energy

40. A substance will _____ when its

______ equals the pressure

pushing down on the substance’s

surface.

A)melt, intermolecular force

B)melt, vapor pressure

C)melt, bonding energy

D)boil, intermolecular force

E)boil, vapor pressure

F)boil, bonding energy

41. What shape would the

molecules below have:

A) trigonal planar

B) trigonal pyramidal C) tetrahedral D) see-saw

E) square planar

F) T-shaped

41. What shape would the

molecules below have:

A) trigonal planar

B) trigonal pyramidal C) tetrahedral D) see-saw

E) square planar

F) T-shaped

42. What happens when a solute

crystal is added to an unsaturated

solution? … to a saturated solution?

A)It dissolves, nothing

B)It dissolves, it dissolves more slowly

C)It dissolves, it causes

recrystallization

D)nothing, nothing

E)nothing, it dissolves

F)nothing, it causes recrystallization

42. What happens when a solute

crystal is added to an unsaturated

solution? … to a saturated solution?

A)It dissolves, nothing

B)It dissolves, it dissolves more slowly

C)It dissolves, it causes

recrystallization

D)nothing, nothing

E)nothing, it dissolves

F)nothing, it causes recrystallization

43. At what point along the way is this

solution first supersaturated?

A) 10 g X are placed in 2 g water…

B) Even after shaking it doesn’t all

dissolve…

C) It is heated but still some X is

undissolved

D) It is shaken and all of it dissolves

E) It is cooled back down & nothing

changes

F) After a crystal of X is added, a lot of X

recrystallizes

43. At what point along the way is this

solution first supersaturated?

A) 10 g X are placed in 2 g water…

B) Even after shaking it doesn’t all

dissolve…

C) It is heated but still some X is

undissolved

D) It is shaken and all of it dissolves

E) It is cooled back down & nothing

changes

F) After a crystal of X is added, a lot of X

recrystallizes

44. Which of the following is true about the

reaction:

A) The reaction takes in heat B) The energy diagram looks like: C) The reaction is endothermic

D) The total bond energy of the reactants is

greater than the total for the products

E) The reverse reaction would give off heat

F) None of the above

44. Which of the following is true about the

reaction:

A) The reaction takes in heat B) The energy diagram looks like: C) The reaction is endothermic

D) The total bond energy of the reactants is

greater than the total for the products

E) The reverse reaction would give off heat

F) None of the above

45. Which two of the following is true about

water freezing:

A) The reaction gives off heat B) The energy diagram looks like: C) Covalent bonds are breaking

D) Covalent bonds are forming

E) IMF’s are breaking

F) IMFs are forming

45. Which two of the following is true about

water freezing:

A) The reaction gives off heat B) The energy diagram looks like: C) Covalent bonds are breaking

D) Covalent bonds are forming

E) IMF’s are breaking

F) IMFs are forming

46. What is DH for the reaction: H2 + F2 2HF

A) -750 kJ

B) +750 kJ

C) -540 kJ

D) +540 kJ

E) -160 kJ

F) +160 kJ

46. What is DH for the reaction: H2 + F2 2HF

A) -750 kJ

B) +750 kJ

C) -540 kJ

D) +540 kJ

E) -160 kJ

F) +160 kJ

47. What is Ea for the reaction: H2 + F2 2HF

A) -750 kJ

B) +750 kJ

C) -540 kJ

D) +540 kJ

E) -160 kJ

F) +160 kJ

47. What is Ea for the reaction: H2 + F2 2HF

A) -750 kJ

B) +750 kJ

C) -540 kJ

D) +540 kJ

E) -160 kJ

F) +160 kJ

48. For a given reaction, the total bond energies

for all the reactant molecules is 500 kJ and the

total bond energies for all the product molecules

is 900 kJ. DH for the reaction would be…

A) +1400 kJ

B) -1400 kJ

C) +700 kJ

D) -700 kJ

E) +400 kJ

F) -400 kJ

48. For a given reaction, the total bond energies

for all the reactant molecules is 500 kJ and the

total bond energies for all the product molecules

is 900 kJ. DH for the reaction would be…

A) +1400 kJ

B) -1400 kJ

C) +700 kJ

D) -700 kJ

E) +400 kJ

F) -400 kJ

49. What property of liquid water allowed you to

float paper clips on it, and what causes this

property?

A) high density, dispersion forces

B) high density, H-bonding

C) strong surface tension, dispersion forces

D) strong surface tension, H-bonding

E) very adhesive, dispersion forces

F) very adhesive, H-bonding

49. What property of liquid water allowed you to

float paper clips on it, and what causes this

property?

A) high density, dispersion forces

B) high density, H-bonding

C) strong surface tension, dispersion forces

D) strong surface tension, H-bonding

E) very adhesive, dispersion forces

F) very adhesive, H-bonding

50. P has a higher specific heat capacity than Q.

The largest increase in temperature would result

from adding...

A) 20 J to 50 g of P

B) 20 J to 50 g of Q

C) 30 J to 50 g of P

D) 30 J to 50 g of Q

E) 30 J to 100 g of P

F) 30 J to 100 g of Q

50. P has a higher specific heat capacity than Q.

The largest increase in temperature would result

from adding...

A) 20 J to 50 g of P

B) 20 J to 50 g of Q

C) 30 J to 50 g of P

D) 30 J to 50 g of Q

E) 30 J to 100 g of P

F) 30 J to 100 g of Q

51. X has a higher specific heat capacity than Y.

If 40 g of X at 40°C is mixed with 20 g of Y at

50°C, what final temperature might they reach?

A) 42°C

B) 44°C

C) 45°C

D) 46°C

E) 48°C

F) not enough information is given

51. X has a higher specific heat capacity than Y.

If 40 g of X at 40°C is mixed with 20 g of Y at

50°C, what final temperature might they reach?

A) 42°C

B) 44°C

C) 45°C

D) 46°C

E) 48°C

F) not enough information is given

52. X has a higher specific heat capacity than Y.

If 20 g of X at 40°C is mixed with 40 g of Y at

50°C, what final temperature might they reach?

A) 42°C

B) 44°C

C) 45°C

D) 46°C

E) 48°C

F) not enough information is given

52. X has a higher specific heat capacity than Y.

If 20 g of X at 40°C is mixed with 40 g of Y at

50°C, what final temperature might they reach?

A) 42°C

B) 44°C

C) 45°C

D) 46°C

E) 48°C

F) not enough information is given

53. How many electrons can fit in a 3p orbital? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6 E) 10 F) None of the above

53. How many electrons can fit in a 3p orbital? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6 E) 10 F) None of the above

54. What is the melting point of substance A?

a) -14°C b) 11°C c) 28°C d) 55°C e) 84°C

54. What is the melting point of substance A?

a) -14°C b) 11°C c) 28°C d) 55°C e) 84°C

55. What is the freezing point of substance A?

a) -14°C b) 11°C c) 28°C d) 55°C e) 84°C

55. What is the freezing point of substance A?

a) -14°C b) 11°C c) 28°C d) 55°C e) 84°C

56. Which phase has the highest specific heat

capacity? a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) can’t tell

56. Which phase has the highest specific heat

capacity? a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) can’t tell

57. Which phase has the highest density?

a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) can’t tell

57. Which phase has the highest density?

a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) can’t tell

58. 56Ba is an example of a(n)… A) alkali metal B) alkaline earth metal C) transition metal D) inner transition metal E) halogen F) noble gas

58. 56Ba is an example of a(n)… A) alkali metal B) alkaline earth metal C) transition metal D) inner transition metal E) halogen F) noble gas

59. What is the freezing point of B at 0.6 atm?

a) -23°C

b) -17°C

c) 0°C

d) 16°C

e) 24°C

f) 35°C

59. What is the freezing point of B at 0.6 atm?

a) -23°C

b) -17°C

c) 0°C

d) 16°C

e) 24°C

f) 35°C

60. What phase(s) is/are stable at 1.4 atm & 45°C?

a) solid only

b) solid & liquid

c) liquid only

d) liquid & gas

e) gas only

f) all three phases

60. What phase(s) is/are stable at 1.4 atm & 45°C?

a) solid only

b) solid & liquid

c) liquid only

d) liquid & gas

e) gas only

f) all three phases

61. A sample of B starts at 0.8 atm and -20°C. If the

pressure were increased it would _____. If instead the

pressure were decreased, it would _______

a) freeze, melt

b) freeze, boil

c) boil, freeze

d) boil, melt

e) melt, boil

f) melt, freeze

61. A sample of B starts at 0.8 atm and -20°C. If the

pressure were increased it would _____. If instead the

pressure were decreased, it would _______

a) freeze, melt

b) freeze, boil

c) boil, freeze

d) boil, melt

e) melt, boil

f) melt, freeze

62. Which phase has the highest specific heat

capacity?

a) solid

b) liquid

c) gas

d) can’t tell

62. Which phase has the highest specific heat

capacity?

a) solid

b) liquid

c) gas

d) can’t tell

63. Which phase has the highest density?

a) solid

b) liquid

c) gas

d) can’t tell

63. Which phase has the highest density?

a) solid

b) liquid

c) gas

d) can’t tell

64. Which of the following is true about a

mole of water?

A) it would contain 18 molecules

B) it weigh 6.022 x 1023 amu

C) it weigh 6.022 x 1023 g

D) it is way too small to see with the naked eye

E) it weighs about 18 g

F) none of the above

Question 28

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64. Which of the following is true about a

mole of water?

A) it would contain 18 molecules

B) it weigh 6.022 x 1023 amu

C) it weigh 6.022 x 1023 g

D) it is way too small to see with the naked eye

E) it weighs about 18 g

F) none of the above

Question 28

(35)