TS EAMCET - 2020 Agriculture and Medicine Botany 1 ...

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TS EAMCET - 2020 Agriculture and Medicine

29-SEP-SHIFT- 2

Botany

1. The study of different kinds of organisms, their diversities and relationship among them is studied in: Options: a) Biodiversity b) Plant taxonomy c) Systematics d) ∝ - Taxonomy

2. Which of the following structures of blue green

algae are sites for dinitrogen fixation? Options: a) Akinete b) Heterocysts c) Hormogonia d) Endospores

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3. Assertion (A) : Carolius Von Linnaeus popularized the binomial system of nomenclature and proposed sexual system of classification. Reason (R) Sexual reproduction in plants was discovered by Camararius. The correct. option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A) b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct

explanation of (A) c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true

4. Agar-agar is extracted from Gelidium and

Gracillaria, they belong to which family? Options: a) Chlorophyceae b) Rhodophyceae c) Phaeophyceae d) Cyanophyceae

5. Choose the correct statements.

A) Pseudoelaters. archegonia on archegoniophore are seen in Marchantia. B) Wolffia and Salvinia are the smallest plants belonging to pteridophytes.

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C) Embryophytic. archegoniate. tracheophytes with underground rhizome is seen in Dryopteris. D) Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds for the aquatic animals. E) The reduced male gametophyte develops within the microspore. Options: a) A, B D only b) A, B C only c) C, D, E only d) B, C, E only

6. Fill up the blanks with suitable words respectively.

i protect the apex of the root above this ii is present with cells of thin walls and iii . The cell iv to this region are usefi1l for rapid elongation. These cells gradually differentiate and v . A. dense cytoplasm B. root cap C. meristematic region D. mature E. proximal Options:

i ii iii iv v a) B C D A E

i ii iii iv v

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b) B C A E D i ii iii iv v

c) C A B D E i ii iii iv v

d) B C A D E

7. Match the following lists: List I List II A) Sessile unisexual and neuter flowers arranged in acropetal succession

I) Euphorbiaceae

B) All the flowers are brought to the same height due to varied length of pedicle

II) Jasmine

C) Achlymadeous stalked, unisexual flowers ananged in a cup like structure

III) Cocos

D) A three flower cymose inflorescence

IV) Cauliflower

The correct match is Options:

A B C D a) III I II IV

A B C D

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b) III IV I II A B C D

c) III II I IV A B C D

d) IV III II I

8. Choose the correct statements. A) In fig tree after fertilization whole inflorescence become a fruit. B) One seeded bits of schizocarpic fruit is called nut. C) In watermelon, terminal buds are modified as stem tendril. D) Taeniophyllum has chlorophyllous roots and it is an epiphyte. Options: a) A, Conly b) A, D only c) B, Conly d) B, D only

9. If the endosperm cell of an angiosperm has 24

chromosomes the root cell(s) and pollen grain(s) have how many chromosomes? Options: a) 16 and 8 b) 16 and 16

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c) 8 and 16 d) 24 and 8

10. Identify the typical angiosperm embryo sac from

the following. Options: a) 7 nucleate, 8 celled b) 8 nucleate, 7 celled c) 8 nucleate 8 celled d) 8 nucleate, 6 celled

11. Arrange the following, based on the number in

ascending order. A) The number of haploid cells present in a flower with 121 megaspore mother cells development on maturity. B) The number of pollen grains released in a flower showing anemophily. C) The anther lobes in Hibiscus. D) The number of integuments in ovule of polypetalae. E) The number of PEN chromosome number in maize flower with 48 meiotic divisions during megasporogenesis. Options: a) C,D,B A,E b) C,D A,E,B

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c) E,C,B,A,D d) A,C D,E,B

12. Identify the plants with the following characters

respectively. I) Herb, pulvinate leaf base zygomorphic, monodelphous, protandrous. II) Herb, hairy stem, exstipulate, axillary inflorescence, persistent calyx, protogynous. II) Radical leaves, hypogynous, basifixed anthers axile placentation protandrous, polyembryony. A) Solanum B) Allium C) Datura D) Arachis E) Crotalaria F) Asparagus Options:

I II III a) E A F

I II III b) D C F

I II III c) E C F

I II III d) D A B

13. Colchicine , a mutagen is extracted from which

plant? Options: a) Bulb bearing Liliaceae plant

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b) Rhizome bearing Liliaceae plant c) Corm bearing Liliaceae plant d) Cladophyll bearing Liliaceae plant

14. Which of the following synthesizes the cell wall?

Options: a) Vacuoles b) Golgi apparatus c) Cell membrane d) Glyoxysomes

15. What is 'Inulin ?

Options: a) Polymer of fructose b) Polymer of glucose c) Heteropolysaccharide chain d) Homopolymer of cellulose

16. Identify the correct sequence of the following sub-

phases of prophase I. I. Zygotene II. Diplotene III. Leptotene IV. Pachytene V. Diakinesis Options: a) I, II III IV V

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b) I, II, III, V, IV c) III, I, IV, II, V d) III, I, IV, V, II

17. Identify the cells/parts based on the characters

given below respectively. - Highly thickened dead cells with narrow lumen - Lysigenous cavities with water - Radially placed parenchyrmatous cells between vascular bundles - Polyarch xylem bundles A: Monocot stem B: Leaves of tea C: Medullary rays D: Monocot root Options: a) A,D,C,B b) B,A,C,D c) A,C,D,B d) B,D,C,A

18. Match the following lists:

List I List II A) Deposition of aromatic substances in secondary xylem

i) Couple of layers

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B) Dumb bell shaped cells

ii) Resistance to insects

C) Peripheral cytoplasm with large vacuole

iii) Highly thickened

D) Narrow, thin walled rectangular cells

iv) Perforated end walls

The correct match is Options: a) A B C D b) ii, II iii,I i,III iv, IV c) A B C D d) iii, I ii,IV iv,III i,II e) A B C D f) iii, II i,III ii, I iv,IV g) A B C D h) ii, II iii, IV iv, I i, III


A) During succession same species colonise an area whereas populations of other species decline. B) Both excessive water and dryness create a uniform situation to plants to survive. C) The rotation of our planet around the sun and its axis cause distinct seasons.

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D) Plants growing in water conditions possess well developed root system for good absorption of water. Options: a) A, B only b) B, C only c) C, D only d) A, C only


A) Developing a carbon tax system will help in prevention of global warming. B) Biome is the major ecological community consisting of all ecosystems. C) Primary succession in water starts with planktons free floating angiosperms, rooted hydrophytes sedges, grasses and finally trees as forest. D) Eugen Wanning classified plant communities. Options: a) A, B, C only b) A, C,

D only c) B, C, D only d) A, B, D only

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21. Pickles are preserved for longer period by the addition of salt. Which process is involved here? Options: a) Osmosis b) Guttation c) Plasmolysis d) Imbibition

22. Which mineral elements are present as stn1ctural

components of electron carriers? Options: a) Cu, Mn b) Fe, Cu c) Cu, Cl d) Fe, Mn

23. Match the following lists: List I List II List III A) Low temperature

i) Refers to product formed per unit time

I) Fumaric acid

B) Rate of process

ii) Lyase II) Temporarily inactive state

C) Arginosuccinic acid

iii) Coenzyme III) Cofactors

D) Prosthetic group

iv) Pressure the enzyme

IV) Also called velocity

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Options: a) A B C D b) iii,II i,IV iv I ii, III c) A B C D d) iii II ii, IV i III iv, I e) A B C D f) ii, I iii ill iv IV i, II g) A B C D h) iv, II i IV ii I iii, III

24. Identify the correct sequence of e- transport of

photosynthesis. Options: a) 680 700fA B Q CP pheo Q Q P FeS cyt P P− − − − − − − − b) 680 700fA B Q Q CP pheo Q Q P FeS P cyt P P− − − − − − − − − c) 680 6 700fA B Q CP pheo Q Q P FeS cytb cytb P P− − − − − − − − − d) 680 6 700fA B Q Q CP pheo Q Q P cytb cyt P P P− − − − − − − − −

25. Arrange the substrate of the following enzymes

based on their carbon number m ascending order: A) Sedoheph1lose-l, 7 bisphosphatase B) Ribose-5-phosphate isomerase C) Phosphoglycerokinase D) PEP carboxylase E) Malate dehydrogenase

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Options: a) A,C,B,D,E b) D,E,B,C,A c) D,B,E,C,A d) B,C,D,A,E

26. In the given reactions identify the substrates of

respiration respectively. 6 12 6 2 2 26 6 6C H O O CO H O energy+ → + + ( )51 98 6 2 2 22 145 102 98C H O O CO H O energy+ → + +

Options: a) Sucrose Albumin b) Glucose, Stearic acid c) Glucose, Albumin d) Glucose, Tripalmitin

27. Assertion (A) : Respiration is a good example for

an amphibolic pathway. Reason (R) : In amphibolic pathway both anabolism and catabolism dependent reactions are catalyzed by the same enzymes, thus glucose is oxidized and can be synthesized from amino acids. The correct option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A)

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b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true

28. Identify bolting' promoting phytohormone in

cabbage plants. Options: a) Gibberellin b) Auxin c) Cytokinin d) Ethylene

29. Match the following lists:

List I List II A) Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus

I) Griffith experiment

B) Discovery of DNA as genetic material

II) Changes shape depending on nutrients

C) Salmonella typhimurium

III) Parasite on bacteria

D) Pleomorphic bacteria IV) Transfer of genetic material through phage

The correct match is: Options:

A B C D a) I III IV II

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A B C D b) II IV I III

A B C D c) III I IV II

A B C D d) II III I IV

30. Choose the incorrect statements.

A. The TMV is with .molecular weight of 49xl06 Daltons and _130 protein subunits. B. The number of capsomers are characteristics for each type ofvin1s. C. Conrat confirmed that genetic material of virus is RNA. D. The burst size' is refe1Ted to the number of newly synthesized phage particles released by single host cell. Options: a) A, B only b) C, D only c) B, Conly d) A, C only

31. Identify the correct expression of the F2 generation

of monohybrid ratio. Options:

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a) 1 1 1 12 2 2 2

T t T t + × +

b) 1 1 1 14 2 2 4

T t T t + × +

c) 1 1 1 14 4 2 2

T t T t + × +

d) 1 1 1 14 2 4 2

T t T t + × +

32. In Drosophila, the genes for body color and eye

color are present on: Options: a) Autosomes b) X-chromosomes c) Y-chromosomes d) Sat-chromosomes

33. Match the following lists

List-I List-II A. Length of the one coil of DNA

I. 20 oA

B. Diameter of DNA II. 10 C. H-bond between G and C

III. 34 oA

D. Number of base pairs in one coil of DNA

IV. 2

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V. 3 The correct match is Options:

A B C D a) III II V I

A B C D b) IV III II V

A B C D c) V III IV I

A B C D d) III I V II

34. Assertion (A) : Lac mRNA is synthesized in the

presence of inducer. Reason (R) : Inducer suppresses the activity of repressor protein. The correct option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A) b) (A) is true, (R) is true but (R) is not the correct

explanation of (A) c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true


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A) tRNA looks like an inverted 'L’ . B) Single D A dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription of types of RNA in eukaryotes. C) The stn1ctural gene in a transcription unit is polycistronic in proka1yotes. D) Transcriptase catalyses the polymerization of DNA in 51 3' direction where 31 51 strand acts as template. Options: a) A, B, C only b) B, C, D only c) A, B, D only d) A, C, D only

36. Identify the reaction site of the Hind II enzyme,

DNA ligase and ribonuclease respectively. A) RA B) DNA-sugar-phosphate back bone C) Joining sticky ends of DNA Options: a) A,B,C b) C,B,A c) B,A,C d) B,C,A

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37. Arrange the process of isolation of genetic material in a correct order. A) Removal of RNA by ribonuclease and protein. by protease enzyme. B) Breaking the cell by enzymes and release of DNA with other macromolecules. C) DNA is separated by pooling. D) Dissolution of all the biological membranes by detergent lysis. E) DNA is precipitated after addition of chilled alcohol. Options: a) A, B, C, E, D b) B, D, A, E, C c) B, C, A, D, E d) A, C, B, D, E

38. Assertion (A) : D A fingerprinting is the pattern of

D A fragments on the gel. Reason (R) : It is a technique used for the identification of individuals based on differences in D A fragment patterns. The correct option among the following is Options: a) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A)

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b) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c) (A) is hue but (R) is false. d) (A) is false but (R) is true

39. Which technique is used to produce vin1s free

plants from virus infected plants? Options: a) Anther culture b) Meristem culture c) Embryo culture d) Ovule culture

40. Blood cholesterol lowering agents, statins are

produced by the following yeast: Options: a) Aspergillus niger b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Monascus purpureus d) Trichoderma polysporum

Zoology

41. In the hierarchy of classification, the lowest obligatory category m five Kingdom classification is

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Options: a) Order b) Species c) Phylum d) Class

42. Assertion (A) : Species is an evolutionary unit

Reason (R) : Having similarity in structural and functional characteristics The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation

for A b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct

explanation for A c) A is true. But R is false d) A is false. But R is true

43. Which one of the following secretes chemicals

acting opposite in function? a) Adipocytes b) Mast cells c) Plasma cells d) Phagocytes

44. Study the following statements:

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Statement I : Bundle of muscle fibres is called a fascicle. Statement II : Ependymal cells of nervous tissue develop from mesodenn. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both statements I and II are correct b) Statement I is correct and statement II is wrong c) Statement I is wrong and statement II is correct d) Both statements I and II are wrong

45. Match the following:

Nematode Common name A) Ancylostoma I) Filaria won B) Enterobims II) Hookworm C) Trichutris III) Pin won D) Wuchereria IV) Guinea worm V) Whip worm

Options:

A B C D a) II IV V I

A B C D b) II III IV I

A B C D c) I V III II

A B C D

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d) I II III IV

46. Study the following statements: I. Echinoderms having Aristotle s lantern are commonly called sea urchins. II. Larva of enterocoelomates with stomochord is tornaria. III. Circulatory system is open type in molluscs having a foot modified into aims around mouth. IV. Bivalves have radula in their buccal cavity. Among the above, the correct statements are: Options: a) I, III b) I, II c) II, IV d) III, IV


Genus C onunon name A. Exocoetus I. Flying frog B. Pteropus II. Flying lizard C. Draco III. Flying fish D. Rhacophorus IV. Flying dog V. Flying fox


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A B C D a) I II V III

A B C D b) III V II I

A B C D c) III IV II I

A B C D d) IV III I II

48. Study the following regarding frog:

I) Corpora bigemina is present in the mid brain II) Bidder's canal is present in the kidney of female frog. III) Sinus venosus is present on the ventral side of heart. IV) Columella auris is present in the middle ear Tue correct statement from the above are: Options: a) Only I and IV b) Only I, II and III c) Only II, III and IV d) Only III and IV

49. Statement I : During binary fission in

Paramoecium, the daughter individual fanned from the posterior part of the parent is called proter.

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Statement II : Sporogony in Plasmodium is a type of multiple fission. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both statements I and II me connect b) Both statements I and II are wrong c) Statement I is false and II is correct d) Statement I is correct and II is false


Type of flagellum Example A) Stichonematic I) Peranema B) Pantonematic II) Chilomonas C) Acronematic III) Euglena D) Pantacronematic IV) Chlamydomonas V) Urceolus


A B C D a) II IV I V

A B C D b) III II V I

A B C D c) III I IV V

A B C D d) III IV II I

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51. Study the following and pick up the incorrect combinations S.No Parasite Infective stage

to man Mode of infection

Plasmodium vivax

Sporozoite Biting of male Cu/ex mosquito

Entamoeba histolytica

Tetranucleate cyst

Contamination of food and water

Ascaris lumbricoides

Miracidium Contamination of food and water

Wuchereria bancrofti

Third stage microfilaria

Biting of female Cu/ex mosquito

Options: a) I, II b) III, IV c) II, III d) I, III

52. The following are the different stages in the cycle

of Golgi of P!asmodi11111. Anange them in coned sequence. I) Amoeboid state II) Trophozoite III) Erythrocytic merozoite

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IV) Schizont V) Signet ring stage Options: a) III, IV, I, V, II b) I, II, III, IV, V c) V, IV, III, I, III d) II, V, I, IV, III

53. Statement I: Adolescence is a very vulnerable

phase of mental and psychological development of an individual. Statement II: Use of TDA even once can be a fore runner to addiction The correct option among the following is Options: a) Statements I and II are tnie. b) Statements I and II are false. c) Statement I is true. But II is false. d) Statement I is false. But II is true.

54. Identify the product 'x that is reabsorbed in the

Malpighian tubule of cockroach.

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Options: a) Potassium carbonate b) Potassium oxalate c) Potassium bicarbonate d) Carbonic acid

55. Match the following

Sclerite Location on the head of cocla:oach

A) Veriex I) Cheek Sclerite B) Frons II) Sclerite bordering

the occipital formen C) Clypeus III) Front large sclerite D) Gena IV) Narrow rectangular

sclerite V) Top of the head


A B D C a) V III IV I

A B D C b) III II V IV

A B D C c) V I IV III

A B D C d) III IV II I

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56. Observe the following diagram of ommatidium of cockroach and pick up the correct set of labelling:

Options:

I II III a) Cornea Crystalline cone Iris pigment cells

I II III b) Rhabdome Retinulae Retinal pigment cells

I II III c) Crystalline cone Rhabdome Pigment cells

I II III d) Crystalline cone Rhabdome Retinulae

57. The density of the population will increase when:

Options: a) (Natality+ Immigration) = (Mortality+

Emigration)

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b) (Natality+ Emigration) > (Mortality+ Immigration)

c) (Natality+ Immigration) > (Mortality + Emigration)

d) (Mortality + Emigration) > Natality + Immigration)

58. Match the following: List -1 List -2 A) Mutualism I) +, - B) Competition II) +, o C) Parasitism III) -, o D) Commensalism IV) +, + V) - , -


A B C D a) IV V I II

A B C D b) IV V III II

A B C D c) II I V IV

A B C D d) IV II V I

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59. Which of the following is a green house gas? Options: a) Ethane b) Chlorofluoro carbons c) Methane d) Nitrogen oxides

60. Statement I : In human beings, molars are absent in

milk dentition. Statement II : The hardest substance in human body is secreted by odontoblasts. The correct option among: the following is Options: a) Statements I and II are true. b) Statements I and II are false. c) Statement I is true. But II is false. d) Statement I is false. But II is true.

61. Assertion (A): In the transport of carbon dioxide

by blood bicarbonates are formed in plasma and in red blood cells, but more rapidly in RBC. Reason (R): RBC contains higher quantity of carbonic anhydrase than in plasma. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation

of A.

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b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

62. The composition of lymph and blood plasma ai-e

almost the same except for the absence of Options: a) Lymphocytes b) Neutrophils c) Erythrocytes d) Antibodies

63. Following are the parts of nephron

I) Proximal convoluted tubule II) Collecting duct III) Distal convoluted tubule IV) Loop of Henle V) Malpighian body Arrange these parts in correct sequence. Options: a) V, III, I, II, IV b) V, I, IV, III, II c) V, I, IV, II, III d) V, IV, III, II, I

64. A - band in skeletal muscle doesn’t contain:

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Options: a) M line b) Thin filaments c) Z line d) Thick filaments


Spinal nerves Number A) Cervical nerves I) 12 pairs B) Thoracic nerves II) 8 pairs C) Lumbar nerves III) 1 pairs D) Coccygeal nerves IV) 6 pairs V) 5 pairs


A B C D a) II IV V III

A B C D b) II I V III

A B C D c) III V I II

A B C D d) IV III I II

66. Statement I : Thyroxine regulates the basal

metabolic rate

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Statement II : Thyrocalcitonin plays an imp01iant role in maintaining the calcium and phosphate levels in blood. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Statement I and statement II are connect b) Statement I and statement II are false c) Statement I is true. Statement II is false d) Statement I is false. Statement II is true

67. Assertion (A): Spleen is a secondary lymphoid

organ. Reason (R) : Mature lymphocytes become functional lymphocytes in it. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and Rare true. R is correct explanation

for A b) Both A and Rare hue. R is not correct


68. Statement I: During spermatogenesis, the sperm

heads embedded in Sertoli cells are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process spermatogenesis.

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Statement II: The mature follicle called Graafian follicle contains secondary oocyte. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Statements I and II are true. b) Statements I and II are false. c) Statement I is true But II is false. d) Statement I is false. But II is true.

69. Study the following statements.

I) Barrier contraceptives like condoms prevent SIDs. II) The ideal contraceptives for spacing the children are IUDs in India. III) Depotmecdroxy progesterone acetate injection provides contraception for three years. IV) Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation as well as implantation and alters cervical mucus retarding sperm entry. Find out the correct from the above statements. Options: a) Only I and II are correct b) Only III and IV are correct c) Only I, II and IV are correct d) I, II, III and IV are correct

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70. If one gene influences many phenotypic traits, the phenomenon is called Options: a) Polygenetic inheritance b) Pleiotropy c) Multifactorial inheritance d) Multiple alleles

71. Assertion (A) : In honey bees females are diploid

and males are haploid Reason (R) : Females develop from fertilized egg while unfertilized eggs develop into males. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and R are true. R is correct explanation

for A b) Both A and R are true. R is not correct



Karyotype Sexual phenotype A) AAXX A) Metafemale B) AAXY II) Female C) AAXXX III) Male D) AAAXX IV) Metamale

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V) Intersex The correct match is Options:

A B C D a) II III IV I

A B C D b) II III I V

A B C D c) I II III IV

A B C D d) IV III V I

73. Study the following and pick up the incorrect

statement: Options: a) Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused when Rh-

mother carries Rh+ foetus. b) In honey bees, unfertilized eggs develop into

drones c) Genes located on non-homologous part in Y-

Chromosome are called holandric genes d) Thalassemia is an X-linked recessive disorder

74. The hormone that stimulates the reabsorption of

Ca++ ions in the uriniferous tubules is Options:

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a) Parathormone b) Calcitonin c) Thyroxine d) Vasopressin

75. In human evolution, more ape like individual

Options: a) Astralopithecusa b) Dryopithecus c) Ramapithecus d) Homo habihs

76. Follow the three column matching and find out the

correct combination. S. No Era Period Significant

event I) Palaeozoic Carboniferous Origin of

cotylosaurs II) Palaeozoic Permian Extinction

of trilobites

III) Mesozoic Triassic Origin of dinosaurs

IV) Mesozoic Jurassic Origin of birds

Options: a) Only II & IV

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b) Only III & IV c) Only I, II and IV d) I, II, III and IV

77. Peripatus is a connecting link between

Options: a) Reptilia – Mammalia b) Reptilia -Aves c) Annelida – Arthropoda d) Protozoa – Porifera

78. ∝ - 1 antitrypsin is used to treat

Options: a) Emphysema b) Phenylketonuria c) Haemophilia d) Sickle cell anaemia


Type of cancer Affected tissue A) Carcinoma I) Genetical B) Sarcoma II) Epithelial tissue C) Familial cancer III) Non genetical D) Sporadic cancer IV) Connective tissue V) Nervous tissue

The correct match is

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Options: A B C D

a) II IV V III A B C D

b) V III I IV A B C D

c) III I IV II A B C D

d) II IV I III

80. Assertion (A) : MRI is, a very safe diagnostic procedure Reason (R) : This technique uses magnetic resonance. The correct option among the following is Options: a) Both A and Rare true. R is correct explanation

for A b) Both A and R are true. R is not coned


Physics

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81. Identify the scientist who experimentally verified the predictions of theory of electro-weak force. Options: a) Carlo Rubia b) Abdus Salam c) Steven Weinberg d) Edwin Hubble

82. At normal incidence, a beam of light propagating

in vacuum reflects of an interface with a medium of refractive index n= 3. The fraction of energy

reflected R is given as 21

1nRn− = +

If the

fractional error in the value of 11 is 1 %, the fractional error in the estimation of R is Options: a) 1.5% b) 2.0% c) 2.5% d) 0.5%

83. A man in a lift ascending with an acceleration

throws a ball vertically up with a velocity V and catches it after time 3 sec. Aft.e1wards when the lift i8 descending with the same acceleration, the man again throws the ball vertically up with the

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same velocity and catches it after 1 sec. Find V (use g= 10 m/s2). Options: a) 7.5 m/s b) 9.0 m/s c) 10.5 m/s d) 12.0 m/s

84. An object is moving in a plane and its trajectory

( )r t

(in meter) is given by, ( ) ( ) 3 2 2r t t t i t j= + +

,

where tis time (in second). The angle that the velocity vector makes with the X-axis at t = 0. Options: a) 0o b) 30o c) 45o d) 60o

85. A ball is projected at a cliff of height H with an

initial speed of 100 m/s at an angle 30° above the horizontal. The ball hits the point A on the cliff after 5s. The height of the cliff is (Assume g = 10 m/s2)

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Options: a) 50 m b) 100 m c) 125 m d) 150 m

86. A particle starts from the origin with an initial

velocity ( )3.0 /v j m s=

and a constant

acceleration ( )0.5 1.0a i j= − −

The velocity of the

particle when it reaches its maximum y coordinate is Options: a) 2 i b) -1.5 i +1.5 j c) -1.5 i d) 1.5 i + 1.0 j

87. A constant horizontal force F of 30 N is applied to

block A of mass 10 kg which pushes against block

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B of mass 5 kg. What is the net force on the block A? The blocks are placed on a frictionless table.

Options: a) 20N b) 15N c) 10N d) 5N

88. A particle is tied to a string describes a ve1tical

circular motion of radius r continually. If it has a velocity 3gr at the highest point, then the ratio of the respective tensions in the string holding it at the highest and lowest points is Options: a) 4 : 3 b) 5 : 4 c) 1 : 4 d) 3 : 2

89. An elevator can cany a maximum load of 1000 kg

is moving up with a constant speed of 2 m/s. The

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frictional force opposing the motion is 2000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the elevator is (Assuming = 10 m/s2 ) Options: a) 18 kw b) 24 kw c) 20 kw d) 26 kw

90. A force ( ) ( ) 23 4F x N i N j= +

, (where x is in meters) acts on a particle. Assuming that only kinetic energy is changed the net work done on the pariicle as it moves from position ( )2 3i j+ to

( )3 1i j m+

Options: a) 10 J b) 15 J c) 20 J d) 25 J

91. Consider a two block system having masses MA =

3kg and MB = 2kg, as shown in the figure. If block A is pushed towards the centre of mass through a distance 200 cm, by what distance should the block

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B be moved so as to keep the centre of mass at the same position.

Options: a) 200 cm b) 300 cm c) 130 cm d) 250 cm

92. A force of ( )7 3 5i j k N+ − acts on a pa1iicle

whose position vector is ( )i j k m− + . Find the

torque experienced by the particle about the origin in N - m. Options: a) 2 12 10i j k+ + b) 3 10 12i j k+ + c) 10 12 2i j k+ + d) 12 10 2i j k+ +

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93. A damped oscillator consists a mass-spring system with mass 2 Kg and spring constant of 10 N/m.

The damping . force is given by dxbdt

−

where b

= 280 g/s. The time required for the amplitude of

the oscillations to reduce to one-fourth 14

th

of its

Options: a) 14 s b) 20 s c) 28 s d) 30 s

94. The escape velocity of a spherical planet of radius

R and density ρ is V. If the radius of this planet is changed to 3R and density is changed to 3 ρ , then the escape velocity of the planet will be changed to Options: a) 9V b) 3 2 V c) 2 3V d) 3 3V

95. A wire of 2 m has its one end fixed to a rigid

support and a mass of 4 kg is suspended from the

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other end. If the radius of the wire is 0.2 mm find the extension produced in the wire. • Neglect the mass of wire • Assume g = 9.8 m/s2

10 29.8 10 /Y N m= × Options:

a) 1 cmπ

b) 2 cmπ

c) 4 cmπ

d) 8 cmπ

96. Select the incorrect statements from the following:

Options: a) Bunsen burner and sprayers work on Bernoulli's

principle b) Blood flow in arteries is explained by Bernoulli's

principle c) A siphon works on account of atmospheric

pressure d) Relative viscosity of blood is always constant in

humans

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97. Specific heat of an ideal gas at constant volume Cv and at constant pressure C Pare related to universal gas constant are as Options:

a) 1p

v

CR

C= −

b) p vC C R− =

c) 1p vC C

R− =

d) p vC C R+ =

98. A body cools down from 75 °C to 70 °C in time ( ∆ t1 ) from 70 °C to 65 °C in time (∆ t2 ) and 65 °C to 60 °C in time ( ∆ t3 ) . The correct statement according to Newtons law of cooling is Options: a) 1 2 3t t t∆ > ∆ > ∆ b) 1 2 3t t t∆ < ∆ < ∆ c) 1 2 3t t t∆ = ∆ = ∆ d) 2 1 32 t t t∆ = ∆ > ∆

99. 1 gm of water at 100 °C is completely conve1ied

to steam at 100 °C, occupies 1800 cc. The increase in the internal energy of the molecules is: (take the pressure = 105 Pa, Latent heat of vaporisation (L) = 540 cal/gm, 1 cal = 4.2 J)

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Options: a) 2088 J b) 2488 J c) 2178 J d) 2218 J

100. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are

connected to each other via a stopcock. Cylinder A contains an ideal gas at standard pressure P0. The cylinder A & B are in thermal contact with a reservoir at temperature T. The stopcock is suddenly opened. After the gas reaches equilibrium the pressure P is related to the original pressure P0 by Options:

a) 012

P P=

b) 0P P= c) 02P P= d) 0 log 2P P=

101. A bat is moving at 10 mis towards a wall and

sends a sound signal of 6.6 kHz towards it. On reflection, it hears a frequency 'f . Find the value of 'f . (The speed of sound = 340 n s)

Options:

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a) 7.5 kHz b) 7.0 kHz c) 7.2 kHz d) 7.1 kHz

102. Consider a glass and water interface. If a light ray

incident at the glass water interface with an angle of i' and the ray emerges parallel to surface of water. what is refractive index of glass?

a) 1 b) 1.5

c) 1sin i

d) Sini

103. A light ray through a glass prism of angle 60° under goes a minimum deviation of 30° .What is the speed of light in the prism? (Assume c = speed of light in air)

a) 2c

b) 2

c

c) 2 c d) 2c

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104. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction have a phase difference S . After they superpose, the intensity of the resulting wave will be proportional to

Options: a) ( )cos δ b) ( )cos / 2δ c) ( )2cos / 2δ d) ( )2cos δ

105. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric

field. Assuming the angle between the electric field and dipole axis is 45°, the dipole will experience

Options: a) a force that will displace it in the direction of the

field b) a force that will displace it in a direction opposite

to the field c) a torque which will rotate it without displacement d) a torque which will rotate it and a force that will

displace it.

106. The equivalent capacitance between points P and Qin the following circuit is

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Options: a) 2 Fµ b) 4 Fµ

c) 83

Fµ

d) 163

Fµ

107. A metal wire carries a charge of 1200 C in 20

minutes. If the area of the cross-section of the wire is 25 mm2 and the material of the metal contains 6.0 × 10-22 free electrons cm3, the drift velocity of the electrons in the wire is

Options: a) 64.9 10 /m s−× b) 64.2 10 /m s−× c) 64.6 10 /m s−× d) 64.5 10 /m s−×

108. Find the current I in the circuit below that flows

through 20 Ω resistor.

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Options:

a) 138

A

b) 178

A

c) 218

A

d) 238

A

109. In the case of moving coil galvanometer, the

deflection is Options: a) non linearly proportional to the current b) directly proportional to the current c) directly proportional to the product of the current

and the sine of the angle of deflection. d) inversely proportional to the current.

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110. Consider a long straight conducting wire. The magnetic field is determined as B at a distance of 5 cm from the wire. The field at 40 cm from the wire would be

Options: a) 4B

b) 2B

c) 8B

d) B

111. In the magnetic meridian of a ce11ain place, the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

is 35

G and the dip angle of a magnetic neeclle is

30°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location?

Options: a) 0.4 G b) 0.2 G

c) 2 35

G

d) 25

G

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112. Tue magnetic flux linked (in Weber) with a coil of resistance 10 Ω is varying with respect to time 't' as (∅) = 4t2 + 2t + 1. Then the current in the coil at time t = 1 second

Options: a) 0.5 A b) 2 A c) 1.5 A d) 1 A

113. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to

Options: a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents b) make it light weight c) make it robust and strong d) increase the secondary voltage

114. Let frequencies of green light infrared light, radio

wave and blue light are 1 2 3, ,v v v and V4 respectively. The correct statement

Options: a) 1 2 3 4v v v v> > > b) 4 4 2 1v v v v> > > c) 4 1 2 3v v v v> > > d) 4 2 1 3v v v v> > >

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115. A hydrogen atom with a velocity V' absorbs a photon of wavelength 1650 A and stops. If the mass of hydrogen atom is 1.6 × 10-27 kg, the value of V is(use h = 6.6 × 10-34 J- sec)

Options: a) 20 m/s b) 2.5 m/s c) 1.5 m/s d) 3.0 m/s

116. The shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of

hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant RH is Options:

a) 4

HR

b) 2

HR

c) 365 HR

d) 1

HR

117. A radioactive sample weighs 1 gram at t =0. The

sample decays to 0.5 g by t = 1Hr. At this time (t = 1 Hr), another 0.5 g is added to the sample. At

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what time after t = 0 the radioactive sample is reduced to 0 .1 g?

Options: a) ( )2ln n

b) ( )

10ln 2

c) ( )( )

ln 5ln 2

d) ( )( )

ln 10ln 2

118. To operate a n-p-n transistor m active region, its

emitter-base and collector-base junction respectively should be

Options: a) reverse biased and reverse biased b) forward biased and forward biased c) forward biased and reverse biased d) reverse biased and forward biased

119. The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates

required to implement a OR gate Options: a) 2 b) 3

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c) 4 d) 5

120. For practical application modulation index

Options: a) can take any value b) should be less than 100 % c) should exceed 100 % d) exactly 100 %

Chemistry

121. Assertion (A) : The effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer shell electron is greater than that of inner shell electron

Reason (R): Shielding by the inner shell electron causes reduced attraction between the nucleus and outer shell electron The correct option among the following is Options: a) (A) is true, (R) is true and (R) is the correct

explanation for (A) b) (A) is true (R) is true but (R) is not the correct

explanation for (A) c) (A) is true but (R) is false d) (A) is false but (R) is true

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122. For which of the following cases, the effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle has significant consequences?

Options: a) An object of mass of 10-6 kg b) An electron of mass of 9.11 × 10-31 kg c) A golf ball of mass 10 g· d) A football

123. Lithium and beryllium have diagonal relationship

respectively with Options: a) Sodium and Calcium b) Boron and Carbon c) Potassium and Calcium d) Magnesium and Aluminium

124. The element with atomic number 61 belongs to

which group? Options: a) Transition element b) Lanthanoids element c) Actinoids element d) Main group element

125. Which of the following species has square planar

geometry?

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Options: a) 4CF b) 4BH − c) 4SF d) 4IF −

126. Calculate the formal charges on each atoms in the

following Lewis structure of O3 molecule

Options: a) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ; 1 , ;0O O O− +

b) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ;0 , ; 1O O O− −

c) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ;0 , ; 1O O O− −

d) ( ) ( ) ( )1 2 3; 1 , ;0 , ; 1O O O+ −

127. 335 gm of a gas is contained in a 50 L container under 8.2 atm pressure at 27 °C. \1/hat is the name of the gas?

Options:

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a) He b) H2 c) N2 d) Ne

128. A mixture of nitrogen and water vapor is admitted

to a flask that contains a solid drying agent. Immediately after admission; the pressure in the flask is 760 Ton. Aft.er standing for some hours, the pressure reaches a steady value of 745 Ton. Calculate the mole percent of water vapor in the original mixture.

Options: a) 20% b) 10% c) 5% d) 2%

129. The correct option referenced to the below

statements is Statement (i) : In the combustion of methane water is one of the products. Statement (ii) : Combustion of 32 grams of methane gives 18 grams of water. Options: a) both (i) and (ii) are true b) both (i) and (ii) are false

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c) (i) is false, but (ii) is true d) (i) is true, but (ii) is false

130. Which of the following statements is not proposed

by Dalton's atomic theory? Options: a) Matter consists of indivisible atoms. b) All atoms of a given element have identical

properties, including identical masses. c) Compounds can be formed when atoms of

different elements combine in fractional number ratios.

d) In a chemical reaction, atoms are neither created nor destroyed.

131. Which of the following statements is true for an open system?

Options: a) There is an exchange of matter but not energy

between the system and the surrounding. b) There is an exchange of energy and matter

between the system and the surrounding. c) There is only exchange of matter between the

system and the surrounding. d) There is no exchange of matter but exchange of

energy is possible.

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132. For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 9 by mixing ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide, the ratio of concentrations of salt and base should be ( )310bK −=

Options: a) 1 : 1 b) 10 :1 c) 100 : 1 d) 1000 : 1

133. What is the correct order of acidity for 3 4 2, , ?NH NH NH+ −

Options: a) 3 4 2NH NH NH+ −> > b) 4 3 2NH NH NH+ −> > c) 4 2 3NH NH NH+ +> > d) 3 2 4NH NH NH+ −> >

134. Choose the correct statement with reference to

water and hydrogen peroxide Options: a) Water is polar but H2O2 is non-polar b) Both are polar c) Both are non-polar d) Water is non-polar but H2O2 is polar

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135. The oxidation states of Rb in RbO2 and Na in Na2O2 are respectively

Options: a) +1,+1 b) +2,+1 c) -1,+2 d) -2,-2

136. Borax reacts with cone. HCI to produce a boron

containing compound X. Heating X with C2H5OH converted into Y, which gives greenedged flame. Identify X and Y

Options: a) ( )3 3 2 5 33

and X H BO Y C H BO= = b) 2 2 5 3 and X HBO Y C H BO= = c) ( )2 3 2 5 33

and X B O Y C H BO= = d) 2 6 3 3 and X B H Y H BO= =

137. Among the following, which is metalloid?

Options: a) Si b) c c) Pb d) Ge

138. Which of the below statements is/are correct?

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(i) Ozone is a toxic gas (ii) Ozone is strong oxidising agent (iii) Ozone cannot react with unburnt hydrocarbons in air Options: a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) and (iii) only c) (i) and (iii) only d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

139. The oxidation states of the iron atoms in prussain

blue coloured complex formed during the test for the presence of nitrogen in an organic compound are

Options: a) +2 and +2 b) 0 and +3 c) +3 and +2 d) +3 and +3

140. Which one of the following reactions will not take

place? Options: a) 2 4.

3 2Br CClCH CH CH− = →

b) 2 .3 2 3

Cl hvCH CH CH → c) [ ]6 5 22

3 2HCl C H CO OCH CH CH= →

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d) 3 2 2ElectrolysisCH CH COON →

141. The weakest base among the following species is

Options: a) 3 2CH CH b) 2CH CH −= c) HC C−≡ d) 2 2Ph CH CH −−

142. NaCl and KCl crystallize in FCC structure. Their

respective diffraction patterns will look like Options: a) FCC and FCC b) Simple Cubic and Simple Cubic c) Simple Cubic and FCC d) FCC and Simple Cubic

143. At 300 K, a decimolar solution of ( )4 6

K Fe CN dissociates to 50 %. The osmotic pressure of the solution is

Options: a) 12 atm b) 7.2 atm c) 9.6 atm d) 14.4 atm

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144. Which among the following produces basic aqueous solution?

Options: a) 2 3Na CO b) ( )4 4NH SO c) 3FeCl d) 4NaHSO

145. Calculate the pH of the following half cell:

Pt, H2IH2SO4. (Given the oxidation electrode potential of the half cell is+ 0.3V) Options: a) 0.1 b) 1 c) 5 d) 10

146. For a first order reaction, A B, log k 1

T

curve ha gradient of-5000 K. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ/mol is

(R is the ideal gas constant) Options: a) 11.5R b) 5.5R c) 9.5R

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d) 5.0R

147. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and Dare 0.7. 0.02 0.12 and 0.0047 respectively. The correct order of their protective power is

Options: a) D<A<C<B b) C<B<D<A c) B<D<A<C d) A<C<B<D

148. What is P in the following reaction?

2 3 2 52.3,2 hot conc NaOHKAl O H O P→

Options: a) ( )3 6

Na Al OH

b) ( )4Na Al OH

c) ( )2 5Na Al OH

d) ( )3Na Al OH

149. Which of the following is not an allotrope of phosphorous?

Options: a) White phosphorous b) Red phosphorous c) Black phosphorous

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d) Green phosphorous

150. Which one among the following is the most electronegative element?

Options: a) O b) S c) Te d) Se

151. Which of the following ions exhibits color in aqueous solution?

Options: a) 3Sc + b) 2Ni + c) 4Ti + d) 2Zn +

152. Magnetic measurement indicates that [

Co(OH2)6]2+ has three unpaired electrons. Therefore, the hybridization of the metal in [ Co(OH2 )6]2+ is

Options: a) 3sp b) 3sp d c) 3dsp d) 3 2sp d

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153. Copolymerization of 1, 3-butadiene and

acrylonitrile gives Options: a) Buna-S b) cis-Polyisoprene c) Orlon d) Buna-N

154. "Which of the following amino acids is/are optically active?

(i) Glycine (ii) Alanine (iii) Leucine (iv) Isoleucine Options: a) (i) only b) (iii) and (iv) only c) (i), (iii) and (iv) d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

155. Sulphur containing artificial sweetening agents are

Options: a) Aspartame and Saccharin b) Aspartame and Sucralose c) Sucralose and Alitame d) Alitame and Saccharin

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156. Decreasing order of C-X bond enthalpies of the following alkyl halides is

(i) CH3 CH2Br (ii) CH3CH2F (iii) CH3CH2I (iv) CH3CH2Cl Options: a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) b) (ii)> (i) >(iii)> (iv) c) (iv) > (ii)> (i) > (iii) d) (ii)> (iv)> (i) > (iii)

157. Which one of the following reactions gives a

primary alcohol as the major product? Options: a) Acetone + methyl magnesium bromide b) Formaldehyde + methyl magnesium bromide c) Benzaldehyde + methyl magnesium bromide d) Acetaldehyde + methyl magnesium bromide

158. The major product formed in the following

reaction sequence, is

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Options:

a)

b)

c)

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d)

159. The major products P Q and R in the following reaction sequence, are

Options:

a)

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b)

c)

d)

160. An unsymmetrical organic compound decolorized one mole of Br2 in CCl4 and released N2 gas upon reaction with HNO2 . The compound is

Options:

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a)

b)

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c)

d)

TS EAMCET - 2020 Agriculture and Medicine Botany 1 ...

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