TRAINING ON ROBOTICS

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

REFERENCE BOOK

ROBOTICS TRAINING

REFERENCE BOOK FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

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MATHEMATICS

1. Prime factorization of 18 is

a. 2 x 9

b. 3x3x2

c. 6 x 3

d. 1x18

Ans: b

2.

a. 600

b. 500

c. 350

d. 400

Ans: d

3. What is the scientific notation of (4.7 x 10-3) x (9.1 x 107) ?

a. 4.277 x 105

b. 42.77 x 104

c. 4277 x 103

d. 4.27 x 10-5

Ans: a

4. A recipe that calls for 3/4 cup of sugar needs to be doubled. Which measuring

cups could be used for the doubled amount?

a. 1 cup and 1/4 cup

b. 1 cup and 1/4 cup

c. 1 cup and 1/2 cup

d. 1/2 cup and 1/4 cup

Ans: c

5. Maria enters the car park at 10.10 and leaves at 1.30. how much should she

pay as parking charge?

a. Rs.6

b. Rs.12

c. Rs.18

d. Rs.24

Ans: c

6. A= 6x +10. If x is increased by 2, what will be the corresponding change in A?

a. 12

b. 15

c. 16

d. 9

Ans: c

7. A flower pot is hanging as shown in the figure. The angle X is__

a. 220

b. 300

c. 400

d. 500

Ans: d

8. This set of data is arranged in order from smallest to largest.

5, 6, 11, x, 13, 18, 25

The range is six less than twice the value of x.

Which of the following is true?

a. The median is 12 and the inter quartile range is 7.

b. The median is 12 and the inter quartile range is 12.

c. The median is 13 and the inter quartile range is 7.

d. The median is 13 and the inter quartile range is 12.

Ans: c

9. When x = 3 and y = 5, by how much does the value of 3x

2 – 2y exceed the value of 2x

2 – 3y ?

a. 4

b. 14

c. 16

d. 20

e. 50

Ans: b

10. What is the degree measure of the acute angle formed by the hands of a 12-

hour clock that reads exactly 1 o’clock?

a. 15°

b. 30°

c. 45°

d. 60°

e. 72°

Ans: b

11. What is the difference between 1.8 and 1.08 ?

a. 0.71

b. 0.71

c. 0.719

d. 0.72

Ans: d

12. An industrial cleaner is manufactured using only the 3 secret ingredients A,

B, and C, which are mixed in the ratio of 2:3:5, respectively, by weight. How many

pounds of secret ingredient B are in a 42-pound (net weight) bucket of this cleaner?

a. 4.2

b. 12.6

c. 14.0

d. 18.0

e. 21.0

Ans: b

13. If n = 8 and 16 · 2m = 4n – 8, then m = ?

a. -4

b. –2

c. 0

d. 1

e. 8

Ans: a

14. If xy = 144, x + y = 30, and x > y, what is the value of x – y ?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 18

d. 22

f. 24

Ans: c

15. Ding’s Diner advertised this daily lunch special: “Choose 1 item from each

column—only Rs: 250 only!!” Thus, each daily lunch special consists of a salad, a

soup, a sandwich, and a drink.

Salads Soups Sandwiches Drinks

Cole slaw

lettuce

potato

onion

tomato

meat loaf

chicken

hamburger

ham

tenderloin

milk

cola

coffee

tea

How many different daily lunch specials are possible?

a. 4

b. 14

c. 30

d 120

e. 180

Ans: d

16. What is the value of (42 - 6 + 5) / (32 + 8 - 7 × 2) ? a. x – 1

a. 6

b. 4

c. 9

d. 5

Ans: d

17. Each of the variables t, w, x, y, and z represents a different positive real

number. Given the equations below, which of the 4 variables w, x, y, and z

necessarily has the greatest value?

Given:

1.23w = t

1.01x = t

0.99y = t

0.23z = t

a. w

b. x

c. y

d. z

e. z and x

Ans: d

18. How many irrational numbers are there between 1 and 6?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 4

d. 10

e. Infinitely many

Ans: e

19. The number 597 in roman numerals is

a. CDCXIII

b. CDCXIV

c. DXCVII

d. CDXCVII

Ans: c

20. What is the difference between the greatest 7 digit number and smallest 4

digit number?

a. 9998999

b. 999999

c. 989945

d. 9999899

Ans: a

21. Hindu Arabic period numeral for MCDXX?

a. 1418

b. 1405

c.1420

d. 1481

Ans: c

22. There are 222 red balls in a basket. A boy takes out red balls from it and

replaces them with 12 white balls. He continuous to do so till all red balls are

replaces by white balls. Then the number of white balls put in the basket is

a.333

b.444

c.345

d.400

Ans: b

23. If we write down all the natural numbers from 259 to 492 side by side get a

very large natural number 259260261....491492. How many 8’s will be used to

write this large natural number?

a.53

b.67

c.42

d.34

Ans: c

24. If x and y are any natural numbers, then which of the following is an odd

number?

a. xy+yx+(x−y)(xy+x)

b. xy(x+y)(xy+x)

c. yx(xy–y)(xy−x)

d. None of these

Ans: a

25. A and B are playing mathematical puzzles. A asks B “which whole numbers,

greater than one,

can divide all the nine three digit numbers 111,222,333,444,555,666,777,888 and

999?”, B immediately gave the desired answer. It was

a. 3, 37 and 119

b. 3, 37 and 111

c. 9, 37 and 111

d. 3, 9 and 37

Ans: b

26. The HCF of two number is 28 and their LCM is 336.if one of the numbers is

112 then the other number is

a. 64

b. 84

c. 34

d. 92

Ans: b

27. Find the angle marked P.

a. 1100

b. 1200

c. 890

d. 900

Ans: a

28. In the diagram at the right, the angles are represented as shown. Find the

angle DBC.

a. 250

b. 1250

c. 1550

d. 1580

Ans: c

29. A cricket team won 15 matches out of the total number of matches they played.

If their win

percentage was 60, then how many matches did they play in all?

a. 24

b. 26

c. 25

d. 22

Ans: c

30. The number of diagonals drawn from one vertex of a polygon of n sides

is____.

a. n-1

b. n-2

c. n-3

d. n

Ans: c

31. The value of x for which ((125)/8)5

× (125/8)x

= (( 5)/2)18 is

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 9

Ans: c

32. The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of the

total expenditures of a

company under various expense heads during 2003.

Percentage Distribution of Total Expenditure of a Company

If the expenditure on advertisement is 2.10 crores then the difference between

the expenditure

on transport and taxes is?

a. Rs. 1.25 crores

b. Rs. 95 lakhs

c. Rs. 65 lakhs

d. Rs. 35 lakhs

Ans: d

33. If the interest on loans amounted to Rs. 2.45 crores then the total amount of

expenditure on

advertisement, taxes and research and development is?

a. Rs. 7 crores

b. Rs. 5.4 crores

c. Rs. 4.2 crores

d. Rs. 3 crores

Ans: c

34. John’s father is thrice as old as John. 6 years from now, his father will be 24

years older than

John. How old is John now?

a. 12 years

b. 10 years

c. 16 years

d. 13 years

Ans: b

35. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenth of that number

is:

a. 35

b. 36

c. 45

d. 54

Ans: d

36. 80 – 39 + 5 = 8 × [?] + 6

a. 3

b. 5

c. 7

d. 4

Ans: b

37. If DICTIONARY is written at 1234256789, then ORDINARY is written as

a. 59126789

b. 58126789

c. 57326789

d. 56126789

Ans: b

38. Which one will replace the question mark?

a. 60

b. 30

c. 20

d. 45

Ans: b

39. Look at this series: V, VIII, XI, XIV, __, XX,... What number should fill the

blank?

a. IX

b. XXIII

c. XV

d. XVII

Ans: d

40. The volume, V, of the right circular cone with radius r and height h can be

found using the

Formula V = ⅓πr²h. A cone-shaped paper cup has a volume of 142 cubic

centimeters and a height of 8.5 centimeters. What is the radius, to the nearest

centimeter, of the paper cup?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 7

d. 15

Ans: a

PHYSICS

1. At which temperature, the density of water is maximum?

Ans: 4 degrees C.

2. Loudness of sound depends upon ___________ of the sound wave.

Ans: Amplitude.

3. The reason behind decrease in the boiling point of water at higher altitude is:

Ans: Low atmospheric temperature.

4. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend upon its.

Ans: Angular velocity.

5. The instrument used to study the laws of vibrating string is:

Ans: Sonometer

6. Device used to measure the wavelength of X-ray?

Ans: Spectrometer.

7. Hydraulic press depends upon?

Ans: Pascal’s law.

8. The Newton’s first law is also referred to as:

Ans: Law of Inertia.

9. Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric humidity?

Ans: Hygrometer.

10. Ocean depth can be measured by:

Ans: Fathometer

11. Which device is used to measure the intensity of light?

Ans: Lux meter

12. Specific gravity of milk is measured by:

Ans: Lactometer.

13. A transformer works with:

Ans: Alternating current.

14. The unit of Planck’s constant:

Ans: JS.

15. SI unit of electric charge is:

Ans: Coulomb.

16. Which instrument is used to convert heat into electrical energy?

Ans: Thermoelectric generator.

17. The colors of stars depend upon:

Ans: Temperature.

18. How stationary waves are formed?

Ans: Two waves of same frequency travelling in opposite direction.

19. In a filament type light bulb most of electric power consumed appears as:

Ans: Infrared rays.

20. The purpose of using diode is:

Ans: Purification.

21. What is the minimum escape velocity of rocket to be launched into the space?

Ans: 11KM/Sec.

22. Who invented Electron Microscope?

Ans: Knoll and Ruska.

23. What is the wavelength of visible spectrum?

Ans: 390 to 700 nm.

24. Decibel unit is used to measure:

Ans: Intensity of Sound.

25. Which atmospheric layer helps in radio transmission?

Ans: Ionosphere.

26. Kilowatt-hour (KWh) unit is used to measure.

Ans: Power.

27. Golden view of sea shell is due to:

Ans: Polarization.

28. The “Greenhouse effect” is mainly due to increase in atmospheric:

Ans: Carbon dioxide.

29. Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?

Ans: Sphygmomanometer.

30. Which device is used to convert solar energy into electricity?

Ans: Solar cell.

31. According to special theory of relativity the mass of a particle increases with

____________

Ans: increase in velocity with respect to an observer.

32. The field produced by current carrying conductor is:

Ans: Magnetic field.

33. Cause of rainbow formation is:

Ans: Refraction and reflection.

34. The unit used to measure the distance between stars is:

Ans: Light year.

35. Tesla is a standard unit of:

Ans: Magnetic induction.

36. Which type of mirror is used in the head light of vehicles?

Ans: Concave mirror.

37. Heavy water is used in the nuclear reactor as:

Ans: Moderator

38. Which metals are used in fuse wire?

Ans: An alloy of tin and lead.

39. Which device is used to convert sound energy into electrical energy?

Ans: Microphone.

40. The device dynamo is used to convert:

Ans: Mechanical energy to electrical energy.

41. Ball pen works on the principle of:

Ans: Surface tension.

42. Because of ______ red light is used for signals?

Ans: Long wavelength.

43. Light ray used for eliminating bacteria:

Ans: Ultraviolet radiation.

44. Which type of coal produces greatest energy?

Ans: Anthracite.

45. UV radiations of the sun do not reach the earth because of layer of:

Ans: Ozone.

46. Which metal is used for the manufacturing of heating elements used in electric

iron ?

Ans: Nichrome.

47. Which device is used to measure the speed of wind?

Ans: Anemometer.

48. What is found in frequency modulation?

Ans: Fixed frequency.

49. Color of light is related to its ________.

Ans: Frequency.

50. What principle/law explains the working of hydraulic brakes in automobiles?

Ans: Pascal’s law.

51. Longitudinal waves cannot travel through:

Ans: Vacuum.

52. Fourth state of matter is known as:

Ans: Plasma.

53. Cryogenics is a science dealing with:

Ans: Low temperature

54. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have

Ans: Polaroids.

55. The unit of noise pollution (level) is:

Ans: Decibel.

56. The pitch of sound depends on its:

Ans: Frequency.

57. Solar energy is due to.

Ans: Fusion reaction.

58. A body absorbs heat most if it is:

Ans: Black and rough

59. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents:

Ans: Acceleration.

60. A rear-view mirror for driving is:

Ans: Convex.

61. The audio signals of TV are:

Ans: Frequency modulated.

62. Red is used as an emergency or danger signal as

Ans: its wavelength is longest.

63. Which color of light shows maximum deviation when passed through a prism?

Ans: Violet.

64. Pure water is a poor conductor of electricity because it is:

Ans: Feebly ionized.

65. The filament of electric bulb is made up of:

Ans: Tungsten.

67. The device which transfer the signal from low resistance region to high

resistance region:

Ans: Transistor.

68. When a detergent is added to pure water, its surface tension:

Ans: Decrease.

69. ‘Therm’ is the unit of:

Ans: Heat.

70. Pond water appears less deep due to:

Ans: Refraction.

71. Heat from the Sun reaches the Earth by:

Ans: Radiation.

72. The mass of a star is two times the mass of the Sun. How it will come to an

end:

Ans: Neutron star.

73. A boat will submerge when it displaces water equal to its own:

Ans: Weight.

74. Where are mesons found?

Ans: Cosmic rays.

75. Tungsten is used for the manufacture of the filament of an electric bulb,

because:

Ans: It has a very high melting point

76. The term ‘Isoneph’ indicates the lines of equal.

Ans: Cloudiness.

77. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is:

Ans: 24 hrs.

78. The time period of second’s pendulum is:

Ans: 2.

79. Lens is made up of:

Ans: Flint glass.

80. The head mirror used by ENT doctors is

Ans: Concave.

81. The word ‘insolation’ means:

Ans: Incoming solar radiation.

82. A NOT gate can be implemented by:

Ans: A single transistor.

83. True or False: The earth is a bad absorber and bad radiator of heat.

Ans: True

84. A light year is a unit of

Ans: Distance.

85. Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use.

Ans: Concave lens.

86. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is.

Ans: Sonar.

87. A device which is used to limit the current in an electrical circuit is called a

Ans: Fuse.

88. A transformer:

Ans: is used to decrease or increase AC voltage.

89. Eclipses occur due to which optical phenomena?

Ans: Reflection.

90. The material used in the fabrication of a transistor is.

Ans: Silicon.

91. For a person having hyper-metropia, the near point is:

Ans: 50cm.

92. Angle of friction and angle of repose are.

Ans: Equal to each other.

93. Intensity of gravitational field of earth is maximum at:

Ans: Poles.

94. The sound production by a bat is:

Ans: Ultrasonic.

95. When a person sitting on a swing stands up the swing, the frequency of

oscillation.

Ans: Increases.

96. Forged documents are detected by:

Ans: Ultraviolet rays.

97. When light passes from air to glass its speed:

Ans: Decreases.

98. A green leaf when seen in red light would appear to be:

Ans: Yellow.

99. The wave theory of light cannot explain the phenomenon of

Ans: Photoelectric effect.

100. 1 Horse power equals:

Ans: 736 watt.

101. Rate of change of displacement is called:

Ans: Velocity.

102. Acceleration is a vector quantity, which indicates that, its value:

Ans: Can be positive, negative, zero.

103. Formula to find the average velocity of a body is given by:

Ans: Vav= (u + v)/2.

104. An example of a body moving with constant speed but still accelerating is:

Ans: A body moving with constant speed in a circular path.

105. The acceleration of a body from a velocity –time graph is.

Ans: Equal to the slope of the graph.

106. Distance covered by a body from velocity-time graph is:

Ans: Area under the graph.

107. Inertia is a measure of:

Ans: Mass.

108. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of.

Ans: Momentum.

109. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin which falls.

Ans: Behind him.

110. A bullet of mass 20gm is fired from a gun of mass 8kg with a velocity of 400

m/s, calculate the recoil velocity of gun.

Ans: -1m/s.

111. Type of inertia that tends to resist the change in case of an “Athlete often

jumps before taking a long jump “.

Ans: Inertia of motion.

112. Qualitative definition of Force is given by.

Ans: Newton’s first law of motion.

113. The action and reaction forces referred to in the third law.

Ans: Must act on different objects.

114. An object will continue to accelerate until the.

Ans: Resultant force on it is zero.

115. The value of acceleration due to gravity of the surface of the earth is.

Ans: 9.8 m/s2

.116. The value of acceleration due to gravity at the poles.

Ans: Is more than at the equator.

117. Weight of an object on the surface of the moon is.

Ans: 1/6 that on the surface of the earth.

118. The time of ascent when measured from the point of projection of a body

projected upwards, the.

Ans: Time of ascent=Time of descent.

119. The force which keeps the body to move in circular motion when accelerated

is.

Ans: Centripetal force.

120. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called.

Ans: Thrust.

121. The weight of an object is:

Ans: Greater on earth and lesser on moon.

122. Work done by a body from Force-distance curve is.

Ans: Area under the curve.

123. A stone rubbed on a rough surface and placed on the skin will show heating

sensation, because.

Ans: Friction causes heat.

124. On a rough surface a mass is (a) pulled,(b) pushed by a force acting at an

angle with the surface.

Ans: Pulling is easier.

125. When a spring is compressed work is done on it.Its elastic potential energy.

Ans: Decreases.

126. When force acts in opposite direction the work done is.

Ans: Negative.

127. When a body falls freely towards the earth then the total energy.

Ans: Remains constant.

128. Sound waves are.

Ans: Longitudinal in nature.

129. SI unit of frequency is.

Ans: Hertz.

130. Pitch of the wave is measured in terms of.

Ans: Frequency of the wave.

131. Speed of sound in vacuum is.

Ans: 340 m/s.

132. The time period of a simple pendulum in a spacecraft orbiting the earth is.

Ans: Infinity.

133. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish one sound from

another having the same pitch and loudness.

Ans: Timber.

134. In gases a sound wave is.

Ans: Both Transverse and Longitudinal.

135. The resultant of balanced forces is ________

Ans: Equal to zero.

136. The physical quantity, which is the measure of inertia, is ________

Ans: Mass.

137. The sparks produced during sharpening of a knife against a grinding wheel

leaves the rim of the wheel tangentially. This is due to ________

Ans: Inertia of direction.

138. When a force of 1N acts on a mass of 1kg that is free to move, the object moves

with.

Ans: an acceleration of 1 m/s2.

139. What is the force acting on an object of mass 10 kg moving with a uniform

velocity of 10 m/s?

Ans: 0.

140. 1 newton = ________.

Ans: 1kgm/s2

141. The physical quantity, which is equal to change in momentum, is.

Ans: Impulse.

142. The two factors on which the momentum of a body depends are ______ and

_________ .

Ans: Mass, Velocity.

143. The resultant of action and reaction forces is _______.

Ans: Greater than zero.

144. Coin placed in a bowl when seen from a place just disappears. When water is

poured into the bowl without disturbing the coin, the coin

Ans: Becomes visible again.

145. Nature of the image formed by a convex mirror is.

Ans: Virtual, erect, and diminished.

146. The power of a lens is -3.5D. The lens is

Ans: concave.

147. Formula to find the refractive index of a medium is

Ans: n=speed of light in the air/speed of light in the medium.

148. In case of refraction through a glass slab

Ans: Incident ray is parallel to the emergent ray.

149. Mirror that can be chosen to view a tall building in a small mirror is

Ans: Convex mirror

150. Mirror formula is

Ans: 1/v+1/u =1/f

151. The mirror used by ENT specialists is

Ans: Concave mirror

152. A student obtained a blurred image of an illuminated distant tower on a

screen by using a convex lens

Ans: Away from the screen

153 An object AB is placed in front of a convex Lens at its principal focus the image

will be formed at _______.

Ans: Infinity

154 When an object moves closer to a concave lens, the Image formed by it shifts

Ans: Away from the lens

155 When a ray of light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium which

angle is greater

Ans: Angle of refraction

156. 30 electrons are flowing through a electric wire in a time of 3sec. Then the

amount of current flowing through the wire is

Ans: 1.6 X 10-18A

157. A current of 0.5A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes.

The amount of electric charge flowing through the bulb is

Ans: 300C

158. The resistance of the wire when the length of the wire increases two times

Ans: Becomes 4 times

159. Resistance of the wire is given by

Ans: R= V/I.

160. The resultant resistance when three resistances 2ohms, 4ohms, 5ohms, when

connected in series are

Ans: 11ohms

161. Potential difference in a circuit in which components are connected in series

Ans: Gets divided across each component

162. Electric fuse is connected with:

Ans: parallel to the line wire

163. To determine the equivalent resistance of two resistors, when connected in

series, the correct way of connecting ammeter and voltmeter in the circuit is

Ans: Ammeter in series and voltmeter in parallel

164. In a voltmeter there are 20 divisions between 0 to 0.5 the least count of

voltmeter is

Ans: 0.025.

165. SI unit of magnetic field strength is

Ans: Tesla

166. Inside the magnet the field lines run

Ans: From south to north

167. Strength of the magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet

is measured by

Ans: The number of lines crossing a given point

168. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is

Ans: same at all points

169. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit _____.

Ans: Increases heavily

170. Device used to test whether the current is flowing in a conductor or not is

Ans: Galvanometer

171. The process of Inducing current in a coil of wire by placing it in a region of

changing magnetic field is

Ans: Electromagnetic induction

172. The frequency of power supply used in India is

Ans: 50Hz

173. Which of the following property of proton will change while it moves freely in

a magnetic field?

Ans: Velocity and momentum

174. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid is in the form of :

Ans: parallel straight lines

175. In case of Thermal power plant

Ans: Heat energy is converted into electrical energy

176. Tehri Dam is constructed on the river

Ans: Ganga

177. The largest wind energy farm is established in

Ans: Kanyakumari

178. The value of solar constant is

Ans: 1.4kW/m2

179. The device which converts solar energy into electricity is

Ans: Solar cell

180. More amount of heat energy can be produced in a solar cooker by using

Ans: A concave mirror

181. The working of atom bomb is based on the principle of

Ans: Release of energy in Nuclear fission

182. The energy from the hot water springs of the underground used to produce

electrical energy that is Geo-thermal energy is operational in

Ans: New Zealand

183. What is the ultimate source of energy?

Ans: Sun.

184. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing

Ans: Dam.

185. The energy possessed by huge waves needed to generate electricity is:

Ans: Kinetic energy.

186. The most common material used for making solar cell is

Ans: Silicon

187. In alpha decay (α-decay) proton number of parent nucleus :

Ans: Decreases by 2

188. Times a proton is heavier than an electron is

Ans: 1836

189. In fission, mass of products is

Ans: less than original nucleus

190. Phenomenon in which radiations split matter in to ions is called

Ans: Ionization

191. Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is

Ans: Tracer.

192. Isotopes have same number of protons but different number of

Ans: neutrons

193. In beta decay nucleon number :

Ans: remains unchanged

194. Nucleons are collection of :

Ans: protons and neutrons

195. Release of energy from sun is due to

Ans: nuclear fusion

197. Age of fossil when C-14: C-12 in bone is one fourth of ratio in bone of living

animal and half-life of C-14 is 5732 years is

Ans: 11460 years.

198. During second half-life original material is decayed :

Ans: Three quarter

199. Radiation emitted from uranium salt has ability to

Ans: Ionize the gas

200. Nuclei bombarded with protons, neutron or alpha particles are changed to

Ans: Radioisotopes

201. Alpha (α) particles are helium (He) nucleus with a charge of

Ans: 2e.

202. Radiation that causes redness and sores on skin is

Ans: Beta and gamma.

201. Mass doesn't stop at mean position due to

Ans: Inertia Answer A

202. In SHM of a simple pendulum, component of weight which is directed towards

mean position is

Ans: mg sinθ

203. Expression for Hooke's law is

Ans: F = -kx

204. If waves are reflected back in first medium after falling on second medium

then angle of reflection and angle of incidence are

Ans: equal

205. If time period of simple pendulum is 2 s then its length is

Ans: 1.02m.

206. Characteristic of wave independent of others is :

Ans: Amplitude

207 If length of simple pendulum is doubled then its time period will be

Ans: 2.8π√(l⁄g)

208. If mass of bob is increased 3 times then it's time period

Ans: remains same

209. Maximum displacement of a body from its mean position is

Ans: amplitude

210. In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have same :

Ans: Speed.

211. Motion of particles about their mean position in regular intervals of time is

called

Ans: Wave

212. Velocity of bob in SHM becomes zero at

Ans: Extreme position

213. Velocity of wave with frequency 4Hz and wavelength 0.4m is

Ans: 1.6ms-1

214. Number of vibrations of a body in one sec is called

Ans: Frequency

215. Waves which doesn't require any medium for their propagation are

Ans: Electromagnetic

216. Restoring force pushes or pulls oscillatory object

Ans: Towards mean position

217. If potential energies and kinetic energies are equal then displacement of an

object in SHM is

Ans: 0

218. Kinetic energy of mass attached to spring at extreme position is

Ans: Zero

219. Potential energy of mass attached to spring at extreme position is

Ans: Maximum.

220. Least count of digital stopwatch is

Ans: 0.01 s

221. Least count of Vernier calipers is

Ans: 0.01 cm

222. Least count of physical balance is

Ans: 0.01 g

223. Least count of ruler is

Ans: 1 mm.

224. Flying speed of a falcon is

Ans: 200 kmh-1

225. Velocity with which a paratrooper comes to ground is called.

Ans: Translational motion.

BASIC ELECTRONICS

1. What is an ideal voltage source?

Answer: A device with zero internal resistance.

2. What is an ideal current source?

Answer: A device with infinite internal resistance.

3. What is a practical voltage source?

Answer: A device with small internal resistance.

4. What is a practical current source?

Answer: A device with large internal resistance.

5. The voltage out of an ideal voltage source is

A. Zero

B. Constant

C. Load resistance dependent

D. Internal resistance dependent

Answer: B

6. The current out of an ideal current source is

A. Zero

B. Constant

C. Load resistance dependent

D. Internal resistance dependent

Answer: B

7. The path between two points along which an electrical current can be carried is

called

A. A network

B. A relay

C. A circuit

D. A loop

Answer: C

8. The formula for current as per Ohm’s Law is

A. Voltage / Resistance

B. Resistance * Voltage

C. Voltage + Resistance

D. Resistance / Voltage

Answer: A

9. The unit of electrical resistance is

A. Volt

B. Amp

C. Ohm

D. Coulomb

Answer: C

10. In a constant voltage DC circuit, when the resistance increases, the current

will

A. Decrease

B. Stop

C. Increase

D. Remains constant

Answer: A

11.The unit for voltage is the ___ and the symbol for voltage is ___.

A. joule, V

B. coulomb, J

C. volt, Q

D. volt, V

Answer: Option D

12. A connection to the frame of a piece of electronic equipment is sometimes

referred to as ___ ground.

A. a chassis

B. an earth

C. a circuit

D. either chassis or circuit

Answer: Option D

13. Fuses and circuit breakers are designed to ___ when excessive current flows.

A. buzz

B. illuminate

C. close

D. open

Answer: Option D

14. The capacity of a battery cell is measured by the amount of __________ that

can be supplied over time.

A. current

B. voltage

C. coulombs

D. joules

Answer: Option A

15. A rheostat is ___.

A. a three-terminal device that controls current

B. a two-terminal device that controls current

C. a two-terminal device that divides voltage

D. a three-terminal device that divides voltage

Answer: Option B

16. "Half-splitting" is

A. a means for nuclear fuel cells to produce electricity

B. a means of isolating a problem in a circuit

C. a means for reducing a high ac voltage to a low dc voltage

D. a means of limiting current in a circuit

Answer: Option B

17. If doubling the voltage across a resistor doubles the current through the

resistor then

A. the resistor value decreased

B. the resistor value did not change

C. the resistor value increased

D. it is impossible to determine the change in the resistor value

Answer: Option B

18. If the voltage across a fixed value of resistance is increased five times, what

does the current do?

A. It increases by a factor of five.

B. It decreases by a factor of five.

C. It stays the same.

D. Not enough information

Answer: Option A

19. If the resistance in a circuit with constant voltage increases, the current will

A. increase

B. decrease

C. stay the same

D. Not enough information

Answer: Option B

20. A damaged resistor

A. may appear burned

B. may have an increased resistance value

C. may be checked with an ohmmeter

D. All of the above

Answer: Option D

21. Power supplies differ from batteries in that

A. power supply output voltages are ac and not dc

B. power supply voltages are not stable

C. power supplies are low-current devices

D. None of the above

Answer: Option D

22. What is the current flow through R1, R2, and R3?

A. 1A, 1A, 1A

B. 1A, 2A, 3A

C. 3A, 3A, 3A

D. 3A, 2A, 1A

Answer: Option A

23. One of the most common applications of a potentiometer is as an adjustable

voltage divider, also known as

A. voltage control

B. current control

C. volume control

D. divider control

Answer: Option C

24. If the resistance total in a series circuit doubles, current will:

A. be the same

B. be doubled

C. reduce source voltage

D. be halved

Answer: Option D

25. Power is defined as:

A. the rate at which work is done

B. work

C. the conversion of energy

D. joules

Answer: Option A

26. What is the dc source voltage?

A. 78 V

B. 39 V

C. 13 V

D. 0 V

Answer: Option A

27. Flow of electrons is generally termed as _____________.

a) electric current

b) electric shock

c) semiconductor

d) none of the above

ANSWER. OPTION A

28. A _______________ is a material which offers very little resistance to theflow of

current through it.

a) good conductor

b) insulator

c) semiconductor

d) none of the above

ANSWER: OPTION A

29. The resistance offered by ______________ is extremely large for the flow of

current through it.

a) good conductor

b) insulator

c) semiconductor

d) none of the above

ANSWER: OPTION

30. The materials which behave like perfect insulators at low temperatures & at

higher temperatures, they behave like a good conductor are termed as

________.

a) good conductor

b) insulator

c) semiconductor

d) none of the above

ANSWER: OPTION B

31. The conductivity of a semiconductor _____________ with temperature.

a) increases

b) decreases

c) can’t say

d) none of the above

ANSWER: OPTION A

32. When parallel resistors are of three different values, which has the greatest

power loss?

A. The smallest resistance

B. The largest resistance

C. They have the same power loss.

D. Voltage and resistance values are needed.

ANSWER: OPTION A

33. What is the product-over-sum result of 150 and 6800?

A. 150

B. 146.7

C. 0.006

D. 6800

Answer: Option B

34. Voltage across any branch of parallel circuit:

A. varies as the total current varies

B. is inversely proportional to total circuit resistance

C. is equally applied to all branch conductances

D. is dropped in proportion to each branch resistance

Answer: Option C

35. What is the total power loss if 2 k and 1 k parallel-connected resistors have an

IT of 3 mA?

A. 6 W

B. 36 W

C. 6 mW

D. 36 mW

Answer: Option C

36. What happens to total resistance in a circuit with parallel resistors if one of

them opens?

A. It increases.

B. It halves.

C. It remains the same.

D. It decreases.

Answer: Option A

37. Components that connect in parallel form:

A. branches

B. open circuits

C. short circuits

D. a voltage divider

Answer: Option A

38. A parallel circuit differs from a series circuit in that a parallel circuit has

A. no path for current flow

B. fewer paths for current flow

C. one path for current flow

D. more than one path for current flow

Answer: Option D

39. If two parallel-connected resistors dissipate 6 watts and 10 watts of power,

then what is the total power loss?

A. 3.75 watts

B. 4 watts

C. 16 watts

D. 60 watts

Answer: Option C

40. In a 20 Vac series RC circuit, if 20 V is measured across the resistor and 40 V

is measured across the capacitor, the applied voltage is:

A. 45 V

B. 50 V

C. 55 V

D. 60 V

Answer: Option A

41. When is a capacitor fully charged?

A. when the voltage across its plates is of the voltage from ground to one of

its plates

B. when the current through the capacitor is the same as when the capacitor

is discharged

C. when the voltage across the plates is 0.707 of the input voltage

D. when the current through the capacitor is directly proportional to the area

of the plates

Answer: Option B

42. Most practical alternators generate electricity from

A. a coil rotating within a magnetic field

B. a magnetic field rotating around fixed windings

C. a permanent magnet rotating within a varying electromagnetic field

D. none of the above

Answer: Option B

43. A half-cycle average voltage of 12 V is equal to what rms voltage?

A. 13.33 V

B. 8.48 V

C. 18.84 V

D. 7.64 V

Answer: Option A

44. What is an ideal voltage source?

Answer: A device with zero internal resistance.

43. What is an ideal current source?

Answer: A device with infinite internal resistance.

44. What is a practical voltage source?

Answer: A device with small internal resistance.

45. What is a practical current source?

Answer: A device with large internal resistance.

46. The voltage out of an ideal voltage source is

A. Zero

B. Constant

C. Load resistance dependent

D. Internal resistance dependent

Answer: B

47. The current out of an ideal current source is

A. Zero

B. Constant

C. Load resistance dependent

D. Internal resistance dependent

Answer: B

48. The path between two points along which an electrical current can be carried

is called

A. A network

B. A relay

C. A circuit

D. A loop

Answer: C

49. The formula for current as per Ohm’s Law is

A. Voltage / Resistance

B. Resistance * Voltage

C. Voltage + Resistance

D. Resistance / Voltage

Answer: A

50. The unit of electrical resistance is

A. Volt

B. Amp

C. Ohm

D. Coulomb

Answer: C

51. In a constant voltage DC circuit, when the resistance increases, the current

will

A. Decrease

B. Stop

C. Increase

D. Remains constant

Answer: A

52. Number of valence electrons in a silicon atom are

A. 1

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: B

53. The most commonly used semiconductor element is

A. Silicon

B. Germanium

C. Gallium

D. Carbon

Answer: A

54. Copper is a

A. Insulator

B. Conductor

C. Semiconductor

D. Super Conductor

Answer: B

55. Number of protons in the nucleus of a silicon atom are

A. 4

B. 14

C. 29

D. 32

Answer: B

56. The valence electron of a conductor are also called as

A. Bound electron

B. Free electron

C. Nucleus

D. Proton

Answer: B

57. An intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature has

A. A few free electrons and holes

B. Many holes

C. Many free electrons

D. No holes

Answer: A

58. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it due to

A. Doping

B. Free electrons

C. Thermal energy

D. Valence electrons

Answer: C

59. The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is

A. Equal to number of free electrons

B. Greater than number of free electrons

C. Less than number of free electrons

D. None of the above

Answer: A

60. Holes act as

A. Atoms

B. Crystals

C. Negative charges

D. Positive charges

Answer: D

61. Pick the odd one in the group

A. Conductor

B. Semiconductor

C. Four valence electrons

D. Crystal structure

Answer: A

62. To produce P-type semiconductors, you need to add

A. Trivalent impurity

B. Carbon

C. Pentavalent impurity

D. Silicon

Answer: A

63. Electrons are the minority carriers in

A. Extrinsic Semiconductors

B. p-type Semiconductors

C. Intrinsic Semiconductors

D. n-type Semiconductors

Answer: D

64. A p-type semiconductor contains

A. Holes and Negative ions

B. Holes and Positive ions

C. Holes and Pentavalent atoms

D. Holes and Donor atoms

Answer: A

65. How many electrons does pentavalent atoms have?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: D

66. Negative ions are

A. Atoms that obtained a proton

B. Atoms that lost a proton

C. Atoms that obtained an electron

D. Atoms that lost an electron

Answer: C

67. Depletion layer is caused by

A. Doping

B. Recombination

C. Barrier potential

D. Ions

Answer: B

68. The reverse current in a diode is usually

A. Very small

B. Very large

C. Zero

D. In the breakdown region

Answer: A

69. Avalanche in Diode occurs at

A. Barrier potential

B. Depletion layer

C. Knee voltage

D. Breakdown voltage

Answer: D

70. The potential barrier of a silicon diode is

A. 0.3 V

B. 0.7 V

C. 1 V

D. 5V

Answer: B

71. The reverse saturation current in a Silicon Diode is _____ than that of

Germanium Diode

A. Equal

B. Higher

C. Lower

D. Depends on temperature

Answer: C

72. A Diode is a

A. Bilateral Device

B. Nonlinear Device

C. Linear Device

D. Unipolar Device

Answer: C

73. The diode current is large for which condition

A. Forward Bias

B. Inverse Bias

C. Poor Bias

D. Reverse Bias

Answer: A

74. The output voltage signal of a bridge rectifier is

A. Half-wave

B. Full-wave

C. Bridge-rectified signal

75. Sine wave

Answer: B

76. If the maximum DC current rating of diodes in Bridge Rectifier is 1A, what is

the maximum DC load current?

A. 1A

B. 2A

C. 4A

D. 8A

Answer: B

77. Voltage multipliers produce

A. Low voltage and low current

B. Low voltage and high current

C. High voltage and low current

D. High voltage and high current

Answer: C

78. What is a Clipper?

Answer: A circuit that removes a part (positive or negative) of a waveform so

that it doesn’t exceed a certain voltage level.

79. What is a Clamper?

Answer: A circuit that adds a DC voltage (positive or negative) to a wave.

80. Zener diode can be described as

A. A rectifier diode.

B. A device with constant – voltage.

C. A device with constant – current.

D. A device that works in the forward region.

Answer: B

81. If the Zener Diode is connected in wrong polarity, the voltage across the load

is

A. 0.7 V

B. 10 V

C. 14 V

D. 18 V

Answer: A

82. Number of PN Junctions in a Transistor

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Answer: B

83. The doping concentration of Base in NPN Transistor is

A. Lightly Doped

B. Moderately Doped

C. Heavily Doped

D. Not Doped

Answer: A

84. The Base – Emitter Diode (Base – Emitter Junction) in an NPN Transistor

is

A. Doesn’t conduct

B. Forward Biased

C. Reverse Biased

D. Operates in breakdown region

Answer: B

85. The size comparison between Base, Emitter and Collector is

A. Base > Collector > Emitter

B. Emitter > Collector > Base

C. Collector > Emitter > Base

D. All are equal

Answer: C

86. The Base – Collector Diode (Base Collector Junction) is usually

A. Reverse Biased

B. Forward Biased

C. Breakdown Region

D. No Conduction

Answer: A

87. The DC Current Gain of a Transistor is

A. Ratio of Emitter Current to Collector Current

B. Ratio of Base Current to Emitter Current

C. Ratio of Collector Current to Base Current

D. Ratio of Base Current to Collector Current

Answer: C

88. If base current is 100µA and current gain is 100, then collector current is

A. 1A

B. 10A

C. 1mA

D. 10mA

Answer: D

89. The majority carriers in NPN and PNP Transistors are

A. Holes and Electrons

B. Electrons and Holes

C. Acceptor Ions and Donor Ions

D. None

Answer: B

90. A Transistor acts as a

A. Voltage Source and a Current Source

B. Current Source and a Resistor

C. Diode and Current Source

D. Diode and Power Supply

Answer: C

91. The relation between Base Current IB, Emitter Current IE and Collector

Current IC is

A. IE = IB + IC

B. IB = IC + IE

C. IE = IB – IC

D. IC = IB + IE

Answer: A

92. The total power dissipated by a transistor is a product of collector current

and

A. Supply Voltage

B. 0.7V

C. Collector – Emitter Voltage

D. Base – Emitter Voltage

Answer: C

93. The input impedance of Common Emitter Configuration is

A. Low

B. High

C. Zero

D. Very High

Answer: A

94. The output impedance of Common Emitter Configuration is

A. Low

B. Very Low

C. High

D. Zero

Answer: C

95. The current gain in Common Base configuration (α) is

A. Ratio of Base Current to Emitter Current (IB/IE)

B. Ratio of Collector Current to Emitter Current (IC/IE)

C. Ratio of Collector Current to Base Current (IC/IB)

D. None

Answer: B

96. Relation between α and ß is

A. α = ß / (ß + 1)

B. ß = α / (1 – α)

C. α = ß * (ß + 1)

D. α = ß / (ß – 1)

Answer: Both A and B

BASIC COMPUTER

1. C' in CPU denotes …

a) Central

b) Common

c) Convenient

d) Computer

e) None of these

Ans: a

2. Which of the following uses a handheld operating system?

a) supercomputer

b) personal computer

c) Laptop

d) PDA

e) None of these

Ans:d

3. To display the contents of a folder in Windows Explorer you should------

a) click on it

b) collapse it

c) name it

d) give it a password

e) None of these

Ans:a

4. The CPU comprises of Control, Memory and --------- units

a) Microprocessor

b) Arithmetic/Logic

c) Output

d) ROM

e) None of these

Ans:b

5.------is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network

a) Desktop

b) Network client

c) Network server

d) Network station

e) None of these

Ans:c

6. A(n)------appearing on a web page opens another document when clicked

a) anchor

b) URL

c) hyperlink

d) reference

e) None of these

Ans: c

7. Which of the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information

and running programs?

a) Desktop

b) Dialog box

c) Menu

d) Window

e) None of these

Ans: d

8.------is a windows utility program that locates and eliminates unncessary

fragments and rearranges filed and unused disk space to optimize operations

a) Backup

b) Disk cleanup

c) Disk defragmenter

d) Restore

e) None of these

Ans:c

9. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage

surge?

a) Anomaly

b) Shock

c) Spike

d) Virus

e) None of these

Ans: c

10. The software that is used to create text-based documents are referred to as

a) DBMS

b) Suites

c) Spreadsheets

d) Word processors

e) None of these

Ans:d

11.-----devices convert human understandable data and programs into a form that

the computer can process.

a) Printing

b) Output

c) Solid state

d) Input

e) None of these

Ans:d

12. Allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited

from another location

a) General purpose applications

b) Microsoft Outlook

c) Web-hosted technology

d) Office live

e) None of these

Ans: b

13. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered

vertically on the printed page?

a) Vertical justifying

b) Vertical adjusting

c) Dual centering

d) Horizontal centering

e) None of these

Ans:a

14. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the internet?

a) Chat

b) Instant messaging

c) Instanotes

d) Electronic mail

e) None of these

Ans: c

15. What is the overall term for creating editing, formatting, storing, retrieving

and printing a text document?

a) Word processing

b) Spreadsheet design

c) Web design

d) Database management

e) None of these

Ans:a

16. Fourth generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing

the transfer of both------ data, including full-motion video, high-speed internet

access, and video conferencing.

a) video data and information

b) voice and non-voice

c) music and video

d) video and audio

e) None of these

Ans:b

17.------ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly

sends SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.

a) Cybergaming crime

b) Memory shaving

c) Syn flooding

d) Software piracy

e) None of these

Ans:c

18. Which of these is a point and draw device?

a) Mouse

b) Scanner

c) Printer

d) CD-ROM

e) None of these

Ans:a

19. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a

a) procedural language

b) structures

c) natural language

d) programming language

e) None of these

Ans:d

20. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program,

along with the test results and a printout of the program is called

a) documentation

b) output

c) reporting

d) spec sheets

e) None of these

Ans:a

21. Forms that are used to organize business data into rows and coloumns are

called

a) transaction sheets

b) registers

c) business forms

d) spread sheets

e) None of these

Ans:d

22. In power point, the header and footre button can be found on the insert tab in

what group?

a) Illustrations group

b) Object group

c) Text group

d) Tables group

e) None of these

Ans: c

23. A(n)-----is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer,

including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory and

coordinating tasks between input and output devices.

a) application suite b) compiler

c) input/output system

d) operating system

e) None of these

Ans:d

24. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

a) photo images charts, and graphs

b) graphs and clip art

c) clip art and audio clips

d) full motion video

e) None of these

Ans:c

25. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organized in rows and coloumn

is called a

a) spreadhsheet

b) word processing document

c) presentation mechanism

d) database record manager

e) None of these

Ans: a

26. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

a) exponentiation, addition of subtraction, muliplication of division

b) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation

c) multiplication or division, exponenitation, addition or subtraction

d) exponentiation, multiplication or division, addition of subtraction

e) None of these

Ans:d

27. To find the Paste Special option, you use the clipboard group on the tab of

power point

a) Design

b) Slide show

c) Page layout

d) Home

e) None of these

Ans: d

28. A(n)----------- program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered

in any way.

a) Interpreter

b) High level

c) Compiler

d) Executable

e) None of these

Ans:d

29. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary internet files, --------- are

written to your computer's hard disk by some of the websites you visit.

a) anonymous files

b) behaviour files

c) banner ads

d) cookies

e) None of these

Ans: d

30. What is the easiest way to change the phrase, revenues, profits, gross margin,

to read revenues, profits, and gross margin?

a) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in the gross, then type

the word and followed by a space

b) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the

word and followed by a space

c) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type

the word and followed by a space

d) None of these

Ans: a

31. A program either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for

automatic download over the internet is called a

a) Wiki

b) Broadcast

c) Vodcast

d) Blog

e) None of these

Ans:d

32. Which power point view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail

and is useful for rearranging slides?

a) Slide sorter

b) Slide show

c) Slide master

d) Notes page

e) None of these

Ans:a

33. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by

se ts of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

a) Conductors

b) Buses

c) Connectors

d) Consecutives

e) None of these

Ans:b

34. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound,

graphics, motion video, and/or animation?

a) Motionware

b) Anigraphics

c) Videoscapes

d) Multimedia

e) None of these

Ans:d

35. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless

communication for notebook users is called a

a) USB wireless network adapter

b) wireless switch

c) wireless hub d) router

e) None of these

Ans: a

36. A(n)----------language reflects the way people think mathematically.

a) cross-platform programming

b) 3GL business programming

c) event driven programming

d) functional

e) None of these

Ans:d

37. When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally pressed at

the end of every

a) Line

b) Sentence

c) Paragraph

d) Word

e) None of these

Ans:b

38. When a real time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using

computers, it is called

a) a chat session

b) an e-mail

c) an instant message

d) internet telephony

e) None of these

Ans:d

39. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a window?

a) Point to the title bar

b) Pull down the view menu to display the toolbar

c) Point to any corner or border

d) Pull down the view menu and change to large icons

e) None of these

Ans:a

40. Which of the following software could assist someone who cannot use their

hands for computer input?

a) Video conferencing

b) Speech recognition

c) Audio digitizer

d) Synthesizer

e) None of these

Ans:b

41.------------a document means the file is transferred from another computer to

your computer

a) Uploading

b) Really Simple Syndication

c) Accessing

d) Downloading

e) None of these

Ans:b

42. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being

processed by the CPU?

a) Mass memory

b) Internal memory

c) Non-volatile memory

d) PROM

e) None of these

Ans:b

43. Computers that control processes accept data in a continuous

a) data traffic pattern

b) data highway

c) infinite loop

d) feedback loop

e) None of these

Ans:c

44. What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

a) Keyface

b) Formation

c) Calligraph

d) Stencil

e) None of these

Ans:c

45.---------- is used by public and private enterprises to publish and share financial

information with each other and industry analysis across all computer

platforms and the Internet.

a) Extensible Markup Language

b) Extensible Business Reporting Language

c) Enterprise Application Integration

d) Sales Force Automation Software

e) None of these

Ans:b

46. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?

a) ALU

b) Control unit

c) Disk unit

d) Modem

e) None of these

Ans:a

47. The method of Internet access that requires a phone line, but offers faster

access speeds than dial- up is the--------- connection.

a) cable access

b) satellite access

c) fiber-optic service

d) modem

e) None of these

Ans:d

48.---------software creates a mirror image of the entire hard disk, including the

operating system, applications, files and data.

a) Operating system

b) Backup software

c) Utility programs

d) Driver imaging

e) None of these

Ans:b

49. What is a URL?

a) A computer software program

b) A type of programming object

c) The address of a document or page on the World Wide Web

d) An acronym for unlimited resources for Learning

e) None of these

Ans:c

50. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed) command in a pull-down menu?

a) The command is not currently accessible

b) A dialog box appears if the command is selected

c) A help window appears if the command is selected

d) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command

e) None of these

Ans:d

51. Your business has contracted with another company to have them host and

run an application for your company over the Internet. The company providing

this service to your business is called an

a) Internet service provider

b) Internet access provider

c) Application service provider

d) Outsource agency

e) None of these

Ans:d

52. A(n)------------- allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere.

a) forum

b) webmail interface

c) message board

d) weblog

e) None of these

Ans:b

53. Which of the following would you find on Linkedin?

a) Games

b) Connections

c) Chat

d) Applications

e) None of these

Ans:b

54. -------------- is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single

line.

a) Digital transmission

b) Infrared transmission

c) Digitizing

d) Multiplexing

e) None of these

Ans:d

55. The search companion can

a) locate all files containing a specified phrase

b) restrict its search to a specified set of folders

c) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a

specified set of folders

d) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its search to

a specified set of folders

e) None of these

Ans:a

56. Which of the following cannot be part of an e-mail address?

a) Period

b) At sign

c) Space

d) Underscore

e) None of these

Ans:c

57. Which of the following must be contained in a URL?

a) A protocol identifier

b) The letters www.

c) The unique registered domain name

d) www.and the unique registered domain name

e) None of these

Ans:d

58. Which of the following information systems focuses on making manufacturing

processes more efficient and of higher quality?

a) Computer aided manufacturing

b) Computer integrated manufacturing

c) Computer aided software engineering

d) Computer aided system engineering

e) None of these

Ans:a

59. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called a

a) logical error

b) syntax error

c) procedural error

d) compiler error

e) None of these

Ans:b

60. A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration

is

a) a converter

b) a competent

c) an attachment

d) an adapter

e) None of these

Ans:d

61. To navigate to a new web page for which you know the URL, type that URL in

the browser's … and press Enter

a) Address bar

b) Domain bar

c) Address button

d) Name button

e) None of these

Ans:a

62. The CPU also called the … when talking about PCs, does the vast majority of

the processing for a computer.

a) Macroprocessor

b) RAM

c) Memory system

d) microprocessors

e) None of these

Ans:d

63. A computer's type, processor and operating system define its …

a) Brand

b) Size

c) Platform

d) Speed

e) None of these

Ans:d

64. A kiosk

a) is data organised and presented in a manner that has additional value

beyond the value of the data itself

b) combines microscopic electronic components on a single integrated circuit

that processes bits according to software instructions

c) is a computer station that provides the public with specific and useful

information and service

d) describes a computer's type, processor, and operating system

e) None of these

Ans:c

65. The part of the CPU that accesses and decodes programme instructions, and

coordinates the flow of data among various system components is the

a) ALU

b) Control unit

c) Megabertz

d) Motherboard

e) None of these

Ans:b

66. Computer programs are written in a high level programming language,

however, the human readable version of a program is called

a) cache

b) instruction set

c) source code

d) word size

e) None of these

Ans:c

67. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW?

a) They are the same just two different terms used by different manufacturers

b) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot

c) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from

d) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW

e) None of these

Ans:c

68. What is the term for how words will appear on a page?

a) Text formatting

b) Character formatting c) Point size

d) Typeface

e) None of these

Ans:a

69. The process of a computer receiving information form a server on the Internet

is known as

a) Pulling

b) Pushing

c) Downloading

d) Transfering

e) None of these

Ans:c

70. When sending an e-mail, the … line describe the contents of the message

a) Subject

b) To

c) Contents

d) CC

e) None of these

Ans:a

71. All the deleted files go to

a) Recycle bin

b) Task bar

c) Tool bar

d) My computer

e) None of these

Ans:a

72. You organise files by storing them in

a) Archives

b) Folders

c) Indexes

d) Lists

e) None of these

Ans:b

73. A website address is a unique name that identifies a specific on the web

a) Web browser

b) Website

c) PDA

d) Link

e) None of these

Ans:a

74.------------------are specially designed computer chips that reside inside o ther

devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat

a) Servers

b) Embedded computers

c) Robotic computers

d) Mainframes

e) None of these

Ans:b

75. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest

to largest?

a) Character, file, record, field, database

b) Character, record, field, file, database

c) Character, field, record, file, database

d) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database

e) None of these

Ans:d

76. Which of the following statements is false concerning file names?

a) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both

b) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name

c) File extension is another name for file type

d) None of these

Ans:d

77. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot

be changed or erased by the user is

a) Memory only

b) Write only

c) Read only

d) Run only

e) None of these

Ans:c

78. Distributed processing involves

a) solving computer component problems from a different computer

b) solving computing problems by breaking them into smaller parts that are

separately

processed by different computers

c) allowing users to share files on a network

d) allowing users to access network resources away from the office e) None of

these

Ans:b

79. The operating system determines the manner in which all of the following

occurs except

a) user creation of a document

b) user interaction with the processor

c) printer output

d) data displayed on the monitor

e) None of these

Ans:b

80. Office LANs that are spread geographically apart on a large scale can be

connected using a corporate

a) CAN

b) LAN

c) DAN

d) WAN

e) None of these

Ans:c

81. You can keep your personal files/folders in

a) My folder

b) My documents

c) My files d) My text

e) None of these

Ans:b

82. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into

a) Websites

b) Information

c) Programs

d) Objects

e) None of these

Ans:b

83. A directory within a directory is called

a) Mini Directory

b) Junior Directory

c) Part Directory

d) Sub Directory

e) None of these

Ans:d

84. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into

a) Machine language

b) An algorithm

c) A debugged program

d) Java

e) None of these

Ans:a

85. When your turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test

a) RAM test

b) disk drive test

c) memory test

d) power on self test

e) None of these

Ans:d

86. A ---------------- is a unique name that you give to a file of information

a) Device letter

b) Folders

c) File name

d) File name extension

e) None of these

Ans:d

87. Hardware includes

a) all devices used to input data into a computer

b) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes

c) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and

output data

d) all devices involved in processing information including the central

processing unit, memory and storage

e) None of these

Ans:c

88. A ----------------------- contains specific rules and words t hat express the logical

steps of an algorithm

a) Programming language

b) Syntax error

c) Programming structure

d) Logic chart

e) None of these

Ans:a

89. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors

is

a) multiprogramming

b) multitasking

c) time-sharing

d) multiprocessing

e) None of these

Ans:a

90. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs

a) Password

b) Passport

c) Entry code

d) Access code

e) None of these

Ans:a

91. Computers use the ------------------- number system to store data and perform

calculations.

a) Binary

b) Octal

c) Decimal

d) Hexadecimal

e) None of these

Ans:a

92. The main function of the ALU is to

a) perform arithmetic and logical operations

b) store data and information for future use

c) control computer output, such as printing

d) monitor all computer activities

e) None of these

Ans:a

93. ----------------- is the process of carrying commands.

a) Fetching

b) Storing

c) Executing

d) Decoding

e) None of these

Ans: c

94. Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy?

a) The physical parts of the computer

b) The printed parts of the computer

c) The printed output

d) The physical output devices

e) None of these

Ans:c

95. A(n)----------------- is a program that makes the computer easier to use

a) utility

b) application

c) operating system

d) network

e) None of these

Ans:c

96. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components

on a small silicon chip is called a(n)--------------------

a) workstation

b) CPU

c) magnetic disk

d) integrated circuit

e) None of these

Ans:d

97. Computer systems are comprised of

a) hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people b) hardware,

programs, information, people and procedures

c) hardware, programs, information, people and networks

d) hardware, software, procedures, networks and people

e) None of these

Ans:d

98. An error in a computer program

a) Crash

b) Power Failure

c) Bug

d) Virus

e) None of these

Ans:c

99. What is output?

a) What the processor takes from the user

b) What the user gives to the processor

c) What the processor gets from the user

d) What the processor gives to the user

e) None of these

Ans:d

100. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a

a) programmer

b) computer scientist

c) software engineer

d) project developer

e) None of these

Ans:c

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