THIS TEST CONTAINS 90 QUESTIONS, EACH HAVING FOUR ...

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SPSC EXAM PREPARATION TEST NO 05 BIOLOGY (ANSWERS) Time Allowed: 2 hrs Maximum Marks: 100 INSTRUCTIONS THIS TEST CONTAINS 90 QUESTIONS, EACH HAVING FOUR RESPONSES, SET YOUR TIMER FOR 2 HOURS AND START ANSWERING THE PAPER. ALL QUESTION CARRIES EQUAL MARKS THIS IS A SELF ASSESSMENT SO BE HONEST WITH YOURSELF AND TRY NOT TO CHEAT BY CHEATING IN THIS TEST YOU ARE CHEATING YOURSELF WAIT FOR OUR NEXT MAIL FOR THE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATION OF THE QUESTION. WE WISH YOU ALL THE BEST SPSC EXAM PREPARATION TEAM (FACEBOOK PAGE) CHEERS.

Transcript of THIS TEST CONTAINS 90 QUESTIONS, EACH HAVING FOUR ...

SPSC EXAM PREPARATION

TEST NO 05

BIOLOGY (ANSWERS)

Time Allowed: 2 hrs Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

THIS TEST CONTAINS 90 QUESTIONS, EACH HAVING FOUR RESPONSES, SET

YOUR TIMER FOR 2 HOURS AND START ANSWERING THE PAPER.

ALL QUESTION CARRIES EQUAL MARKS

THIS IS A SELF ASSESSMENT SO BE HONEST WITH YOURSELF AND TRY NOT TO

CHEAT

BY CHEATING IN THIS TEST YOU ARE CHEATING YOURSELF

WAIT FOR OUR NEXT MAIL FOR THE ANSWERS AND EXPLANATION OF THE

QUESTION.

WE WISH YOU ALL THE BEST

SPSC EXAM PREPARATION TEAM (FACEBOOK PAGE)

CHEERS.

1. Aims of plant breeding is to produce

A. Early maturing varieties

B. High yielding varieties

C. disease free varieties

D. all of the above

Ans : (d) all of the above

Plant breeding aims to improve the characteristics of plants so that they become more desirable

agronomically and economically. The specific objectives may vary greatly depending on the crop

under consideration.

2. Hybrid vigour is mostly due to

A. homozygosity of pure characters

B. superiority of all genes

C. heterozygosity

D. mixing of cytoplasm of the male with that of female

Answer: A

3. The vegetative propagule of ginger is called

A. bulbil

B. eyes

C. rhizome

D .tuber

Ans.(C) rhizome

Vegetative propaguels of potato, agave, water hyacinth are eyes , bulbils and offset respectively.

4. In some sexually reproducing organisms the gametes produced are morphologically similar,

such gametes are called

A. iso gametes

B. hetero gametes

C. Both A and B

D. None

Answer: A

5. Number of autosomes in humans is

A. 24

B. 34

C .44

D. 54

Answer: C

Explanation: In humans there are 23 pairs ( 46 number) of chromosomes ;22 pair of autosomes

and 1 pair of sex chromosome.

6. In nature cleistogamous flowers are

A. wind pollinated

B. water pollinated

C. self pollinated

D. insect pollinated

Answer: C

Explanation: Cleistogamous flower do not open at all. In such flowers the anther and stigma lie close

to earth other

7. Ovule is attached to the placenta of ovary wall by

A. funicle

B. raphae

C. hilumd

D. testa

Answer: A

8. The coconut water and edible part of coconut are equivalent to

a. mesocarp

B. embryo

C. endosperm

D. endocarp

Answer: C

9. An egg apparatus consist of

A. egg cell and synergids

B. antipodals and polar nuleii

C. synergids and polar nucleii

D. central cell and polar nuclei

Answer: A

10. Apomixes is a type of reproduction that results in the development of

A. a new seed without fusion of gametes

B a new organism from fusion products of gametes

C. an embryo from endosperm

D. an embryo from nucleus

Answer: A

11. Cells of leydig occur in

A. liver

B. ovary

C. testis

D. spleen

Answer: C

12. Where does fertilisation usually takes place

A. cervix

B. vagina

C. uterus

D. fallopian tube

Answer: D

13. Which one of the following secretes gonadotrophic hormone

A. adrenal

B. anterior pituitary

C. posterior pituitary

D. thyroid

Answer: B

Explanation: Secreted by: hypothalamus

Target tissue: anterior pituitary

Function: Stimulates secretion of Growth Hormone (HGH)

14. In ___________ the egg is first fertilised outside the body and then it is inducted into the

oviduct

A. GIFT

B. ZIFT

C. ICSI

D.IVF

Answer: B

Explanation: ZIFT is an assisted reproductive procedure similar to in vitro fertilization and embryo

transfer, the difference being that the fertilized embryo is transferred into the fallopian tube instead

of the uterus.

Because the fertilized egg is transferred directly into the tubes, the procedure is also referred to as

tubal embryo transfer (TET).

The main difference between ZIFT and GIFT is that ZIFT transfers a fertilized egg directly into the

fallopian tubes while GIFT utilizes a mixture of sperm and eggs.

15. Humans are ____ animals.

A. oviparous

B. viviparous

C. ovoviviparous

D. None

Answer: B

Explanation: The main difference between an Oviparous and viviparous is that the oviparous animals

give birth to an egg or in other words it reproduce but there is no embryonic development within

the animal. While, viviparous are those that bear the child in mother and give birth to the live young

ones.

16 The term antibiotics was first coined by

A. Howard floray

B. John tyndall

C. Selman Waksman

D. Grard domogk

Answer: C

Explanation: Waksman was the first to use the word antibiotic as a reference to natural derivations

of bacteria and fungi to kill the microbes. Specifically, Waksman discovered that streptomycin

occurred as an agent against tuberculosis.

17. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is

A. Detecting any genetic abnormalities

B. Detecting sex of unborn foetus

C. Artificial insemination

D. Transfer of embryo into the uterus of surrogate mother

Answer: A

18 Which of the following statement is wrong regarding medical termination of pregnancy?

A. in India it is legal up to the 20th

week of pregnancy

B.MTP’s cannot be done without surgery

C.MTP’s are considered to be relatively safe during the first trimester

D. It needs the assistance of qualified medical experts

Answer: A

19. What is common name of Drosophila Melanogaster

A. fruit fly

B. butterfly

C house fly

D dragonfly

Answer: A

20. Test cross is cross between

A. hybrid into hybrid parent

B. hybrid into recessive parent

C. hybrid into dominant

D. to distantly related species

Answer: B

21. In the blood group typing in humans, if an allele contributed by one parent is IA and allele is

contributed by other parent is i ,the resulting blood group of offspring will be

A.A

B.B

C.O

D.AB

Answer: A

22. the genetic disorder in which there is an extra X chromosome,

A. Down syndrome

B. Patau syndrome

C. Turner’s syndrome

D. Klinefilter’s syndrome

Answer: D

23................occur in RNA instead of the nitrogenous base Thymine found in DNA.

A. Cytosine

B. Guanine

C. Uracil

D. Ribose

Answer: C

24 .What does lac refer to in what we call the lac-operon.

A. lactose

B lactase

C 1lakh

D lac-inset

Answer: B

25. HIV is classified as retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in

A. DNA instead of RNA

B.RNA instead Of DNA

C. protein

D. DNA

Answer: B

26. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in particular region of non-coding strand of a DNA

molecule was found to be CAT GTT TAT CGC. What would be the sequence of nitrogenous bases in

the mRNA that synthesised by the corresponding region of the coding strand in that DNA?

A. GUA CAA AUA CGC

B. GTA CAA ATA GCC

C. CAU GUU UAU CGG

D. CAA GAA TAU GCC

Answer: A

27. Gel electrophoresis is used for

A. isolation of DNA molecule

B. cutting of DNA into fragments

C. separation of DNA fragments according to their size with cloning vectors

Answer: A

28. Mitochondria are semi autonomous as thy posses

A.DNA

B.DNA+RNA

C.DNA +RNA ribosome

D. Proteins

Answer: C

29. Whose experiment cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that the genetic code is

triplet

A. Beadle and tatum

B. Nirenbeng and Matthaei

C. Hersey and chase

D. Morgan and Sturtevant

Answer: B

30. Fossils are most commonly preserved in

A. metamorphic rocks

B. sedimentary rocks

C. igneous rocks

D all types of rocks

Answer: A

31. An Analogous structures are

A. anatomically similar but functioning is different

B. anatomically similar but performing different functions

C. anatomically different but performing similar functions

D. anatomically different but functioning different

Answer: C

32. what is common in whale, Eel and Shark

A. homeothermy

B. seasonal migration

C. thick subcutaneous fat

D. convergent evolution

Answer: D

33. Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by

A. elongated sickle like RBCs with the nucleus

B. an autosomal linked dominant trait

C. caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in betaglobin chain of haemoglobin

D. change in a single base pair of DNA

Answer: D

34. Point mutation involves

A. deletion

B. insertion

C. change in single base pairs

D. duplication

Answer: C

35. Rh factor can produce life threatening disease

A. erythroblastosis fatalis

B. Turner’s syndrome

C. AIDS

D. sickle cell anaemia

Answer: A

36. Crosses between two plants of the same variety are

A. Intra varietal

B. Inter varietal

C. Inter specific

D. Inter generic

Answer: A

37. In which crops is the method of mass selection applied

A. cross pollinated

B. self pollinated

C. both self and cross pollinated

D. potato and sugarcane

Answer: A

37. In order to obtain disease free plants through tissue culture technique, the best method is

A. protoplast culture

B. anther culture

C. embryo rescue

D. meristem culture

Answer: A

38. Which of the following is not a bio fertilizer?

A. nostoc

B. mycorhiza

C agrobacterium

D. rhizobium

Answer: D

39 Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for a disease resistance against rust

pathogens uses a variety of

A. wheat

B. chilli

C. maize

D. sugarcane

Answer: A

40. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. honey beeapiculture

B. silk mothpiscie culture

C. fish sericulture

D. mosquitos’ aquaculture

Answer: A

41. Antrum is cavity of

A. ovary

B. graffian follicle

C. blastulla

D gastrula

Answer: B

42. A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits and other is not affected is called

A. ectomycorhiza

B. endomycorhiza

C. commensalism

D. helotism

Answer: C

43. Agriculture by using only bio fertilizers is

A. manuring

B composite farming

C. organic farming

D. inorganic farming

Answer: C

44. The yeast that is used in production of bread making is

A. saccaromyces cerevisiae

B. e.coli

C. bacillus subtilis

D. pseudomonas putida

Answer: A

45 .Crop rotations is used by farmers to increase

A. organic content of soil

B .nitrogen content of soil

C. soil fertility

D. all of these

Answer: D

46. Concept of ecological pyramid was proposed by

A. Odum

B. Clements

C. Tansley

D. Charles Altoon

Answer: D

47. About 70% of total global carbon is found in

A. forest

B. grasslands

C. agro ecosystem

D .oceans

Answer: D

48. Acacia arabica is

A. hydrophytes

B mesopthyte

C. xerophytes

D. none of these

Answer: C

49. The nature s cleaners are

A. producers

B. consumers

C. decomposers and scavengers

D. symbionts

Answer: C

50. the most recently discovered ecosystem is

A. crater

B. tundra

C. floating ice bergs

D. vents

Answer: D

51. Identify the correctly matched pair

A. Kyoto protocol => climatic change

B. Basal convention =>biodiversity conservation

C. Montreal protocol =>global warming

D. Ramasar convention =>ground water pollution

Answer: A

51. eutrophication is the process of

A. natural aging of lake by nutrient enrichment of its water

B .pollution of lake by chemicals

C. Both A and B

D. none

Answer: A

53. Noise pollution is measured in

A decibel

B ampere

C fathoms

D Ohm

Answer: A

54. Ozone day is observed on

A. September 16

B. April 25

C. January 15

D. December 16

Answer: A

55. Gas leaked during Bhopal tragedy was

A. ethyl isothiocynate

B. sodium isothiocynate

C. potassium isothiocynate

D. methyl isocynate

Answer: D

56. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of

A. ozone and dust

B. sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide

C. sulphur trioxide and carbon monoxide

D. CO2 and CO

Answer: B

57. Which one of the following is not used foe ex situ plant conservation?

A. field gene banks

B. seed banks

C. shifting cultivation

D. botanical gardens

Answer: C

58. Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms Is correct

A. IPCC international panel for climate change

B. UNEP united nation’s environmental policy

C. EPA environmental pollution agency

D. IUCN international union for conservation of nature and natural resources

Answer: D

59. Sacred grooves are especially useful in

A. Generating environmental awareness

B. Preventing soil erosion

C. Year round flow of water in rivers

D. Conserving rare and threatened species

Answer: D

60. What is meant by term Darwin Fitness?

A. the ability to survive and reproduce

B. high aggressiveness

C. healthy appearance

D. physical strength

Answer: A

61. Age of a tree can be estimated by its

A. height and girth

B. biomass

C. no. of annual rings

D. diameter of its heartwood

Answer: C

62. The air prevention and control of pollution act came into force in

A.1981

B.1985

C.1990

D.1975

Answer: A

63. Pyramid of energy is

A. always inverted

B. inverted and upright

C. always upright

D. never upright

Answer: A

64. The emasculation of flower buds is achieved by removing its

A. petals

B. anthers

C. stigma

D. corolla

Answer: B

65. Of the total incident solar radiation, the proportion of PAR is

A. more than 80%

B .about 70%

C. about 60%

D. less than 50%

Answer: D

66. Deserts, forests, grasslands, tundra are the examples of

A. biomes

B. bio geographical regions

C. herbarium

D. ecosystems

Answer: A

67. A sexually transmitted viral disease is

A. AIDS

B. malaria

C. hepatitis

D. rickets

Answer: A

68. Consider the following statements about organic farming. Which of the statements given

below is/ are wrong?

A. utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton

B. uses only naturally produced inputs like compost

C. does not use inorganic pesticides and urea

D. produces vegetables rich in vitamins in minerals

Answer: A

69. Which one of the following steps is the first one for creating the transgenic animals?

A. Gene shears

B. Gene split

C. Gene construct

D. Gene homeotic

Answer: B

70. A chromosome in which centromere divides the chromosome into two unequal arms is known

as

A. Telocentric chromosome

B. Acrocentric chromosome

C. Suhmetacentric chromosome

D. Metacentric chromosome

Answer: B

72. Where is ribosomal RNA synthesized?

A. Nucleolus.

B. Mitochondrion.

C. Ribosome.

D. Vacuole.

Answer: A

73. The Family planning was started by which country?

A. Brazil

B.USA

C. China

D. India

Answer: D

74. Who among the following is recognized as the father of Immunology?

A. Edward Jenner

B. Louis Pasteur

C. Robert Kotch

D. Ferdinand Kohn

Answer: A

75. Match the following:

Column – I Column - II

A. Leishmania - donovani p. Malaria

B. Wuchereria - bancrofti q Amoebiasis

C. Trypanosoma - gambiense r. Kala azar

D. Entamoeba - histolytica s. Sleeping sickness

t. Filariasis

A B C D

A. r t s q

B. r t q p

C. s r q p

D. r s t t

Answer: A

76. Jaya and Ratna developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of

A. bajra

B. maize

C. rice

D. wheat

Answer: C

77. Which one of the following plant is commonly used as green manure?

A. Cassia fistula

B. Acacia nilotica

C. Dalbergia sissoo

D. Crotalaria junce

Answer: A

78. during anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the

following is left undegraded

A.hemi-cellulose

B. cellulose

C. lignin

D. lipids

Answer: C

79. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from

A. Taxus brevifolia

B. Berberis nilghiriensis

C. Papaver somniferum

D. Cinchona officinalis

Answer: D

80. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel s Law of Dominance?

A. Factors factor occur in pairs

B. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor

C. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive

D. Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation

Answer: D

81. Selective breeding of organisms (Animal husbandry and plant breeding programs) for specific

desirable characteristics are examples of

A. natural selection

B. artificial selection

C. mutation

D. reverse selection

Answer: B

82. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by [NEET 2013]

A. random mating

B. lack of random mating

C. lack of mutations

D. lack of migrations

Answer: A

83. The two strands of DNA are held together by bonds of

A. nitrogen

B. hydrogen

C. carbon

D. oxygen

Answer: B

84. Cry genes or Bt genes are obtained from

A. E.coli

B. tobacco pest

C. cotton plant

D. bacillus thuringienisis

Answer: D

85. the species, though insignificant in number, determines the existence of many other species in

a given ecosystem. Such species is known as

A. sacred species

B. keystone species

C. extinct species

D. endemic species

Answer: B

86. Plants like Aegle marmelos, Ocimum sanctum and Ficus religiosa are a group of plants

designate

A. traditional food crops

B. medicinal plant species

C. lesser known plants

D. sacred species of plants

Answer: B

87. Which of the following pollutants is discharged by jet planes?

A. smog

B. fog

C. Aerosols

D. photo chemical oxidants

Answer: C

88. Maximum deposition of DDT will occur in

A. sea gull

B. phytoplankton

C. crab

D. eel

Answer: A

89. Minamata disease is due to pollution of

A. Industrial waste mercury into fishing water

B. Oil spill in water

C. Organic waste into drinking water

D. Arsenic into the atmosphere

Answer: A

90. Emergency contraceptives may prevent pregnancy if used within 72 hrs of ______.

A. Menstruation

B. Ovulation

C. Coitus

D. Implantation

Answer: C