TESTE LICENTA SEPTEMBRIE 2019 Theme 1. Anesthesia in ... · TESTE LICENTA SEPTEMBRIE 2019 Theme 1....

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TESTE LICENTA SEPTEMBRIE 2019

Theme 1.

Anesthesia in dental medicine ( pag. 6-16)

1. The nerve block of the anterior superior alveolar nerve is also called:

A. Infraorbital nerve block

B. Anterior superior alveolar nerve block (ASA)

C. Plexus anesthesia

D. Greater palatine nerve block

E. Nasopalatine foramen anesthesia.

AB

2. *By means of “tuberosity” anesthesia, the following is subjected to anesthesia

of:

A. Posterior and superior alveolar nerves

B. Anterior superior alveolar nerves

C. Anterior palatine nerve

D. Scarpa's nasopalatine nerve

E. Middle superior alveolar nerves.

A

3. Alternative methods of anesthesia towards the nasopalatine nerve of Scarpa:

A. Veisbrem ’s technique

B. Dan Theodorescu’s technique

C. Tuberosity nerve bblock

D. The Escat procedure

E. Hoffer procedure

DE

4. *In posterior superior alveolar nerve anesthesia:

A. The needle makes a 60º angle with the plane of occlusion

B. The needle is oriented perpendicularly on the axis of tooth implant

C. The needle makes a 45 ° angle with the plane of occlusion

D. The needle is oriented in a 30º angle to the axis of the tooth implant

E. The needle is oriented parallel to the axis of the tooth implant

C

5. *In posterior superior alveolar nerve anesthesia, in adults, the needle is

inserted as deep as:

A. Over 2 cm

B. 5-6 mm

C. 1.5-2 cm

D. Under 5 mm

E. 2-3 cm.

C

6. The nerve block of the anterior palatine nerve is also called:

A. Anterior superior alveolar nerve anesthesia

B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve anesthesia

C. Greater palatine nerve block

D. Scarpa's nasopalatine nerve anesthesia

E. Anterior palatine nerve block

CE

7. *Greater palatine nerve anesthesia lasts:

A. Maximum 10-15min

B. Approximately 30 min

C. 45-60 min

D. Maximum 10 min

B

2

E. Over 60 min.

Theme 2.

Dental extraction

8. *The following indications relate to the extraction of permanent teeth, except

one:

A. Extended crown destruction which cannot be restored

B. Chronic marginal periodontitis disease without mobile teeth

C. Teeth which maintain general infectious complications

D. Based on the orthodontist’s recommendation

E. Teeth impeding adequate prosthetic treatment

B pag.40

9. *The tooth extraction steps include:

A. Anesthesia, consultation, forceps aplication

B. Anesthesia, Syndesmotomy, luxation

C. Forceps application, luxation of the tooth, proper extraction

D. Syndesmotomy, forceps application, luxation of the tooth, proper

extraction

E. Incision, luxation, proper extraction

D pag. 43

10. *Upper molars extraction with root separation will need an interradicular

groove:

A. C-shaped

B. L-shaped

C. T-shaped

D. S-shaped

E. Linear, mesio-distal

C pag. 55

11. *The extraction with the elevator is recommended when:

A. The root has an infra-bone position

B. The root is fractured under the cortical bone

C. The root has hypercementosis

D. The patient is young

E. The root is located under a bridge

A Pag. 58

12. The following statements are true about the alveoloplasty extraction:

A. Represents the procedure of removing two or several adjacent teeth

B. Is intended to regularize the interdental or interradicular septa

C. A trapezoidal flap is always needed

D. Curettage is not necessary

E. A very harsh regularization of the bone level is recommended

AB Pag. 61

13. The most frequent tooth extraction accidents are caused by:

A. The use of instruments with controlled force

B. Practitioner’s lack of experience

C. Incorrect use of a technique

D. Pre-existing pathology

E. Improper use of instruments

BCDE Pag. 66

14. About the sinus accidents is true that:

A. Are caused by the lack of clinical and particularly radiologic

evaluation

B. The diagnosis is performed through the Witzel technique

ADE Pag. 67

3

C. The teeth that are most frequently in contact with the sinus are the

mandibular first molars

D. The simple post extraction wound stitch is recommended in small

perforations

E. The larger perforations need a trapezoidal flap and the full covering

of the socket

15. Direct tooth luxation by means of the elevator is not allowed when:

A. The alveolar bone allows it

B. Vigorous interdental septum

C. Thin interdental septum

D. Tooth is partially erupted

E. Partially erupted tooth with vigorous interdental septum

CDE pag.43

16. Syndesmotomy is performed using:

A. Fast movements follow the gum sulcus as the concave face of the

elevator rests upon the tooth

B. Gentle movements follow the gum sulcus as the convex face of the


C. Gentle movements follow the gum sulcus as the concave face of the


D. Elevator

E. Forceps

CD pag. 43

Theme 3.

Disorders of permanent tooth eruption

17. *According to Bucur’s classification the chronological disorders refer to:

A. Dental ectopy

B. Dental transposition

C. Septic complications

D. Delayed eruption

E. Heterotopias

D pag.107

18. *The following statements are true about dental impactation, except one:

A. Represents the intra-bone or submucous retention of a completely

mature tooth

B. Submucosal impaction refers to the presence of the tooth that has

ceased to erupt under the fibro-mucosa

C. Partial impaction relates to the moment when the tooth has

perforated the mucosa

D. The most commonly impacted teeth are mandibular third molars

E. Is a very rare situation

E pag.

108

19. The etiopathology of dental impaction refers to:

A. the lack of the eruption space

B. obstacles in the way of eruption

C. shape or position anomalies of the crown

D. endocrinal disorders

E. neurological disorders

ABCD Pag.

108

20. The symptomatology of dental impaction is dominated by:

A. Inflammatory phenomena due to pericoronitis

ABCD pag.

108

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B. The tooth absence from the dental arch

C. The temporary tooth persistence

D. Radicular resorptions of the nearby teeth

E. Pain located in the genian region

21. *The most frequent complication of dental impaction is:

A. acute pericoronitis of the mandibular canine

B. acute pericoronitis of the maxillary third molar

C. acute pericoronitis of the mandibular third molar

D. acute pericoronitis of the mandibular first molar

E. acute pericoronitis of the mandibular first premolar

C Pag.

109

22. The therapeutically conduct of dental impactation consists of:

A. Coronal filling

B. Surgical-orthodontic recovery

C. Tooth removal by the odontectomy method

D. Transmaxilarry drainage

E. Apicectomy

BC Pag.

114

23. The surgical steps of odontectomy are:

A. Incision and reflection of mucoperiosteal flap

B. Trepanation of the cortical bone

C. Exposure of the tooth crown

D. Proper extraction of the tooth

E. Suturing is not needed

AB Pag.

114

24. The diagnosis of pericoronitis is based on:

A. trismus, violent pain at the level of molars 1 and 2, painful

deglutition and congestion of the fibromucosa at the level of the

absent molar

B. trismus, violent pain at the level of retromolar trigone, painful

mastication and congestion of the fibromucosa at the level of the

absent molar

C. trismus, violent pain at the level of retromolar trigone

D. painful deglutition

E. congestion of the fibromucosa at the level of the absent molar

CDE pag.10

9

25. The surgical steps of odontectomy does not include:

A. Exposure of cortical bone

B. Trepanation of spongious bone

C. Exposure of tooth

D. The proper extraction of tooth

E. The curettage of the socket

BE pag.

114

Theme 4.

Endodontic surgery ( pag. 77-104)

26. The main techniques in endodontic surgry refer to:

A. Apical resection

B. Odontectomy

C. Periapical curettage

D. Dental transplantation

ACD pag.77

5

E. Alveolectomy

27. The iatrogenic factors in which apical resection is indicated are :

A. Severe root curvatures

B. Internal radicular resorbtion

C. Excessive radicular filling

D. Marginal periodontitis

E. False ducts

CE pag. 78

28. *The operational technique of apical resection has the following steps:

A. Incision, flap reflection, bone trepanation, periapical curettage and

removal of the apex, endodontic obturation and suture

B. Incision, periapical curettage, suture

C. Bone trepanation, curettage, apex removal, endodontic obturation

and suture

D. Incision, flap elevation, sindesmotomy, luxation, extraction, suture

E. Incision, flap elevation, marginal bone removal, curretage and

suture

A pag. 79

29. The following afirmations regarding the retrograde obturation are true :

A. The usual materials used are the zinc oxide cement and thegutta-

percha cones

B. The cavity is prepared with spherical burs

C. The most used materials are amalgam and super EBA

D. Other materials used are IRM, MTA, composite resins

E. Before obturation, the mechanical treatment of the endodontic canal

is required

CD Pag 80

30. *In apical resection, the creation of the flap depends on the following factors

except one :

A. The extent of the pathological process

B. The presence of some anatomic elements

C. The root lenght

D. The instruments that are being used

E. The association with periodontal pathology

D Pag. 79

31. *The transmaxillary drainage :

A. Is indicated in stage 1 or 2 of acute apical periodontitits

B. Is indicated after the roots are accidentally pushed in the sinus

cavity

C. Is indicated after Wasmundt technique

D. Is indicated in stage 4 of chronic apical periodontitis

E. Is indicated in only in curved root canals

A Pag.99

32. Periapical curretage :

A. It is contraindicated after dental extraction

B. It is recommended after every dental extraction

C. It is a surgical method that consists in removing the excessive

obturation material from the periapical space

D. Its goal is essentially to eliminate pain or the nervous disorders

E. It is a method by which one root is removed

CD Pag

101

33. Radicular amputation is not indicated for:

A. The mono-radicular teeth that have the root affected by an extended

periradicular lesion that does not tolerate apical resection

B. The pluriradicular teeth that have one of the roots affected by

incipient periradicular lesion that does not tolerate apical resection

ABE

pag.

101

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while the other root (roots) is correctly treated endodontically with

no periapical lesions

C. Maxillary molars that have one of the roots affected by extended

periradicular lesion that does not tolerate apical resection while the

other root (roots) is correctly treated endodontically with no

periapical lesions

D. Maxillary molars that have one of the roots affected by extended

periradicular lesion that does not tolerate apical resection while the

other root (roots) is correctly treated endodontically with no

periapical lesions

E. The pluriradicular teeth that have all the roots affected by extended

periradicular lesions that does not tolerate apical resection

34. The apical resection phases include:

A. Incision, reflection of mucoperiosteal flap, trepanation stage,

B. Periapical curettage, removal of the apex, endodontic obturation

C. Syndesmotomy, forceps application, tooth luxation, removal of the

apex, endododontic obturation

D. Abcess drainage, trepanation stage, removal of the apex, endodontic

obturation

E. Incision, reflection of mucoperiosteal flap, alveoloplasty,

periapical curettage, removal of the apex, endodontic obturation

AB pag.

79-80

Theme 5.

Surgical preprosthetic procedures ( pag. 127-139)

35. The preprosthetic soft tissue surgery is indicated in the following

circumstances:

A. Gingival fibromatosis

B. Short labial frenulum

C. Hypertrophy of maxillary tuberosity

D. Severe alveolar ridge atrophy

E. Thin gingival mucosa

ABE pag.127

36. The surgical correction techniques for the labial frenulum are :

A. Frenotomy

B. Frenectomy

C. Frenuloplasty

D. “W” plasty

E. “I” plasty

ABC pag.

127

37. The following afirmations about balancing crest are true:

A. The term describes a thick hyperplasia are in the vestibular mucosa

B. It results from wearing of an incorrect adapted denture

C. The incision is parallel to the alveolar crest

D. The excision is made at the periosteaum level

E. It is recommended the wearing of the old denture

BCD pag.

133

38. The maxillary Obwegeser vestibuloplasty :

A. It is indicated in total edentoulousness with very severe atrophy

and low muscular insertion

BCE Pag.

133

7

B. It is indicated in total edentoulousness with very severe atrophy

and high muscular insertion

C. It can be associated with anterior nasal spine resection

D. It can be associated with posterior nasal spine resection

E. The suture needs to be followed by the wearing of a conforming

denture fixed by bolts

39. *Celesnik tuberoplasty :

A. It is recommended when the total denture is unstable due to the

presence of mandibular tori

B. It aims to decrease the size of the tuberosity

C. The incision has a ‘orange slice’ shape

D. At the same time, the mobile teeth are extracted

E. The intervention is less recommendable due to the risk of

hemorrhage from the pterygoid venous plexus

E Pag.

138

40. Preprosthetic bone surgery techniques are the following :

A. The plasty of the periosteal grooves

B. Clark’s technique

C. Trauner plasty of the pelvilingual groove

D. The molding resection of the sharp milohioid crest

E. The molding resection of the hypertrophic genial tubercle

DE Pag

133-

137

41. The palatal torus molding plasty :

A. The incisions are ‘H’ or ‘Y’ shaped

B. The flap is reflected lingually

C. The torus is resected with the surgical handpiece or with the chisel

gab and the hammer or the rongeur

D. A conforming denture will be applied

E. The denture is stabilized with circummandibular ligatures

ACD Pag.13

8

42. The soft tissue surgery is indicated in the next circumstances:

A. Thin gingival mucosa

B. Fibromatosis

C. Short labial frenulum

D. Periodontal disease

E. Long labial frenulum

ABC pag.12

7

43. In frenuloplasty the incision and suture are:

A. L-incision

B. Z-suture

C. V-incision

D. W-incision

E. Y-suture

CE pag.

130

Theme 6.

Oro-maxillo-facial infections (lectures available on e-learning system)

44. The transosseous path for maxilo-facial infections implies the following

stages, except for:

A. Periapical stage

B. Septic punctures

BC

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C. Accidental foreign bodies

D. Superiostal stage

E. Submucosal stage

45. The differential diagnosis for internal perimandibular abscess is made with:

A. Sublingual space abscess

B. Palatal abscess

C. Whartonitis

D. Vestibular abscess

E. Lithiasic periwhartonitis

ACE

46. The treatment guidelines for maxillofacial infections include the following:

A. The treatment of maxillofacial infections is performed in

emergency

B. The incision is generally placed in the central region of the abscess

C. There is no need for drainage placement

D. Incisions lines are performed in declivous areas

E. It includes the removal of the causal tooth

ADE

47. Choose the specific infections affecting the maxillofacial territory:

A. Staphylococcal infection

B. Actinomycosis

C. Syphilis

D. Tuberculosis

E. Streptococcal infection

BCD

48. Possible etiologic factors for masseteric space abscess are:

A. Infections of the mandibular molars

B. Infections of the frontal mandibular teeth

C. Infections of the superior molars

D. Osteomyelitis of the mandibular ramus

E. Maxillary osteomyelitis

AD

49. The treatment of necrotizing fasciitis includes the following except for:

A. Endodontic treatment of the causal tooth

B. Removal of necrotic tissues

C. Removal of the causal tooth

D. Incision and drainage of all affected areas

E. Antibiotics as the only treatment

AE

50. *The mediastinis as a complication of maxillofacial infections of dental origin

is not characterized by the following sign:

A. The worsening of the general condition of the patient

B. Positive meningeal signs

C. High fever

D. Dyspnea

E. Thoracic pain

B

Theme 7.

Maxillary sinus diseases with dental origin (lectures available on e-learning system)

51. The treatment of the chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin in the irreversible

stage is comprised by the following combined steps: AD

9

A. The removal of the etiologic factor

B. Medical treatment only

C. Repair of the nasal septum

D. Caldwell-Luc technique

E. Maxillary sinus puncture and lavage

52. The following statements are false regarding the Caldwell-Luc technique:

A. Access is made at the level of the middle meatus

B. Access is made at the level of the canine fossa

C. Access is made at the level of the superior meatus

D. It is an endoscopic procedure

E. It implies creating a bony window at the level of the antero-lateral

wall of the maxillary sinus

ACD

53. The following symptoms are found in the case of an old oro-antral fistula:

A. Increased bleeding from the alveolus

B. Symptoms of chronic maxillary sinusitis

C. Positive Valsalva maneuver

D. Negative Valsalva maneuver

E. Fistulous opening in the maxillary alveolar ridge

BCE

54. Untreated acute maxillary sinusitis can be followed by the development of:

A. Buccal abscess

B. Masseteric abscess

C. Temporal space abscess

D. Orbital abscess

E. Parotid space abscess

AD

55. The diagnostic of maxillary sinusitis of dental origin is based on the following:

A. The triad: pain, cacosmia, purulent rhinorrhea

B. The triad: pain, fever, cough

C. Clinical signs are correlated with radiologic and dental

investigations

D. Clinical signs are sufficient for the diagnosis of maxillary sinusitis

of dental origin

E. The triad: pain, nasal obstruction, serous rhinorrhea

AC

56. The differential diagnosis of chronic maxillary sinusitis of dental origin

includes:

A. Chronic maxillary sinusitis of rhinologic origin

B. Buccal abscess of dental origin

C. Fungal maxillary sinusitis

D. Allergic maxillary sinusitis

E. Maxillary sinus tumours

ACDE

57. *Acute maxillary sinusitis of dental origin must be differentiated from the following,

except:

A. Acute maxillary sinusitis of rhinologic origin

B. Infraorbital neuralgia

C. Maxillary osteomyelitis

D. Sinus retention cyst

E. Unilateral purulent rhinitis

D

Theme 8.

Oro-maxillo-facial traumatology

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(lectures available on e-learning system)

58. The clinical signs in case of hematoma are:

A. Crepitation due to air escaped from a cavity

B. Crepitation due to hemolysis of blood

C. Symmetrical facies

D. Painful swelling which grows in volume

E. Ecchymosis

BDE

59. The emergency treatment for mandible fractures is represented by:

A. LeBlanc ligatures

B. Ivy ligatures

C. Wire osteosyntesis

D. Fixation with miniplates and monocortical screws

E. Hipocratic ligatures

ABE

60. What are the factors predisposing the displacement of the fracture fragments?

A. The force of the blow

B. Muscular contraction

C. The age of the patient

D. The associated conditions of the patient

E. The direction of the blow

ABE

61. The zones of increased resistance of the mandible are the following, except

for:

A. The mandibular symphysis and the basilar border

B. The mandibular symphysis and the mandibular angle

C. Mental foramen

D. Maximal curvature in the region of the canine

E. The coronoid

BCDE

62. Midfacial fractures heal in:

A. 4 weeks in adults

B. 8 weeks in adults

C. 1 month in adults

D. 2 weeks in elderly people

E. 6 months in adults

AC

63. The term “open fracture” refers to:

A. A fracture that does not communicate with the oral cavity or skin

B. A fracture that communicates with the exterior through a skin

laceration

C. A fracture that communicates with the oral cavity through a

mucosa laceration

D. Displaced fragments

E. An angled displacement of the fragments

BC

64. *Which ones of the following complications of mandibular fractures are late

complications?

A. Osteomyelitis

B. Soft tissue cellulitis

C. Hemorrhage

D. Pseudarthrosis

E. Shock

D

11

Theme 9.

Cysts and benign tumors of the oral, cervical and facial soft tissues (lectures available on e-learning system)

65. The following statements are false concerning the tyroglossal cyst:

A. It is mobilised with the deglutition

B. Usually located in the midline

C. It extends from the base of the tongue to the tip

D. Surgical treatment implies the removal of a portion of the hyoid

bone

E. It is located anterior and beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle

CE

66. The brachial cyst must be differentiated from:

A. Carotid glomus tumours

B. Cervical lymph node metastasis

C. Cervical lipoma

D. Dermoid kyst

E. Cervical lymphangiomas

ABCE

67. Choose the true statements related to the treatment of epulis fissuratum:

A. Refrain from wearing the denture for 10-14 days associated to a

local anti-inflammatory treatment

B. It is recommended to remove the tumour together with the

underlying periosteum

C. Surgical removal of the lesion if it does not disappear in 14 days

without the traumatic stimulus

D. It is recommended to remove the tumour sparing the underlying

periosteum

E. It is recommended to remove the tumour together with the

underlying bone

BE

68. The diagnostic of fibrous epulis:

A. Associated with removable dentures

B. It is related to the presence of a causal tooth

C. In edentulous patients

D. It is excluded in the edentulous alveolar ridge

E. Located at the level of the interdental papilla

BDE

69. The following statements are true regarding the papilloma:

A. Proliferation of the basal epithelial layer

B. Proliferation of the spinous epithelial layer

C. Associated with CMV infection

D. Associated with HPV infection

E. Exofitic, verrucous, cauliflower-like growth

BDE

70. The differential diagnosis of gingival fibromatosis includes the following:

A. Gingival hyperplasia from acute leukemia

B. Hereditary neurofibromatosis

C. Fibrous epulis

D. Granulomatous epulis

E. Gingival drug induced hyperplasia

ABE

71. *The differential diagnosis of the dermoid cyst consists of the following entities with

exception:

A. Teratoid cyst

B. Ranula

D

12

C. Submental adenitis

D. Branchial cyst

E. Sublingual space abscess

Theme 10.

Cysts, benign tumours and osteopathies of maxillary bones (lectures available on e-learning system)

72. The following statements are false concerning the mandibular torus:

A. Located on the lingual side of the mandibular body

B. Present in young adults

C. Associated with bruxism

D. Present only in elderly patiens

E. Located on the vestibular side of the mandibular body

CDE

73. The following statements are true regarding the brown tumour:

A. The treatment is represented by radical surgical removal

B. It is associated with primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism

C. It is pathologically identical with the giant cell central tumour

D. It is associated with primary or secondary hyperthyroidism

E. The treatment is represented by radical surgery and radiotherapy

BC

74. The Gardner syndrome is characterised by the following:

A. Digestive signs: intestinal polyposis

B. Skeletal signs: multiple osteomas

C. Endocrine signs: hyperparathyroidism

D. Dental signs: odontomas, supernumerary teeth, impacted teeth

E. Cutaneous signs: epidermoid and sebaceous cysts

ABDE

75. The radiologic appearance of cementoblastoma:

A. Important opacity engulfing the roots of the tooth

B. The opacity is located mainly in the coronal half of the root

C. It is separated from the surrounding bone by a radiolucent halo

D. Important opacity engulfing the crown of the tooth

E. It is not clearly separated from the adjacent bone

AC

76. The radiologic appearance of the compound odontoma:

A. Opacity compound from structures resembling teeth surrounded by

a radiolucent area

B. Amorph calcificated mass with the radiologic density of a tooth

C. Amorph calcificated mass with the radiologic density of bone

D. Diffuse opacity surrounding the crown of a tooth

E. Opacity resembling an agglomeration of multiple teeth

AE

77. The treatment options for ameloblastoma are:

A. Segmental bony resection in all cases

B. Segmental bony resection in voluminous tumours or for recurrences

C. Removal of the tumour by curettage, recurrence rate 50-90%

D. Marginal bony resection is the treatment of choice with 15-20%

recurrence rate

E. Removal of the tumour by curettage, recurrence rate 15-20%

BCD

78. * One of the following is an inflammatory cyst:

A. Keratocyst

B

13

B. Periapical cyst

C. Dentigerous cyst

D. Nasopalatine cyst

E. Aneurysmal cyst

Theme 11.

Oro-maxillo-facial malign tumors (lectures available on e-learning system)

79. Prophylaxis of oral cancer includes the following:

A. Early excision of benign lesions

B. Supressing local irritating factors

C. Removal of risk factors like alcohol and smoking

D. Treatment of oral candidosis

E. Early diagnosis of precancerous lesions

BCE

80. Metastatic risk is correlated with the following:

A. Time passed from surgical treatment

B. Depth of invasion

C. The size of the primary tumour

D. Histology of the primary tumour

E. Perineural spread

BCDE

81. The cervical level I contains the following lymph nodes:

A. Submental

B. Inferior Jugular

C. Superior jugular

D. Submandibular

E. Kuttner I

AD

82. The following statements are false regarding the triple endoscopy:

A. Useful in determining a second tumour in a malignancy field

B. It includes a nasopharyngoscopy, laryngoscopy, traheoscopy,

esophagoscopy

C. It includes a bronchoscopy and colonoscopy

D. Useful for the determination of the primary tumour in the presence

of occult metastasis

E. Useful for the determination of the occult metastasis in the presence

of a primary tumour

CE

83. Leucoplakia can be encountered as:

A. Homogenous leucoplakia

B. Vesicular leucoplakia

C. Reticular leucoplakia

D. Nodular leucoplakia

E. Proliferative verrucous leucoplakia

ADE

84. The following factors are risk factors of oral cancer:

A. Smoking

B. Alcohol

C. Coffee

D. Poor oral hygiene

E. HPV infection

ABDE

14

85. *M1 in the TNM staging stands for:

A. Absence of distant metastasis

B. Presence of distant metastasis

C. Locally advanced disease

D. Lymphatic spread

E. Extension to surrounding tissues

B

Theme 12.

The pathology of temporo-mandibular joint (lectures available on e-learning system)

86. The imagistic methods of examination used in case of suspecting TMJ disorders are:

A. Orthopantomogram

B. SAF x-ray

C. Full body CT

D. Arhrography

E. Retroalveolar x-ray

AD

87. The clinical signs for septic arthritis are:

A. Traumatic edema

B. Local pain

C. Limiting movements (lockjaw)

D. Laterocervical lymphadenopathy

E. The attempts of active and passive mobilization are not painful

BCD

88. The radiologic examination in case of septic arthritis reveals:

A. Bone opacity

B. Blurry and poorly limited erosions of the bone in the absence of

treatment

C. A well defined transparency of the bone

D. Blurry erosion of the bone after the 5th day of treatment

E. Narrowing of the joint space

BE

89. Osteonecrosis of the condyle:

A. Classically affects young girls

B. The MRI scan shows an affected meniscus

C. All of the above

D. The TMJ radiography shows a notch and a gap on the condyle

E. None of the above

AD

90. Condyloglenoid dislocation:

A. It is an accident

B. Occurs during a yawn

C. The patient can close his/her mouth

D. It is painless

E. The treatment consists of the Nelson maneuver

AB

91. Inflammatory rheumatism:

A. Is a destructive polysinovite nonimmune-mediated affection

B. Is more frequent in women

C. Is a destructive polysinovite immune-mediated affection

D. Can sometimes cause sleep apnea

E. Radiological signs highlight bone condensation

BCD

15

92. *The treatment for septic arthritis does not consists of:

A. Surgical drainage

B. A mild and gradual mobilization of the joint

C. Antibiotic medication

D. The choice of this antibiotic therapy is first empirical

E. Intermaxillary fixation

E

Theme 13.

The pathology of salivary glands (lectures available on e-learning system)

93. The following statements are true concerning the c at scratch disease:

A. Penicillins and retroviral drugs are used for treatment

B. Treponema pallidum is the etiologic agent

C. Rochalimaea henselae is the etiologic agent

D. Listeria monocistogenes is the etiologic agent

E. Cyclins and macrolids are used for treatment

CE

94. Parotid metastasis:

A. Lymphatic metastasis come from the drained territory: scalp,

auricular region

B. Is never encountered in association with skin cancer in the drained

territory

C. Lymphatic metastasis come from the drained territory: neck and

occipital region

D. Hematogenous metastasis come from the drained territory: scalp,

auricular region

E. Is encountered in association with skin cancer in the drained territory

AE

95. The following tumors are benign tumors of the salivary glands:

A. Odontoma

B. Pleomorphic adenoma

C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

E. Warthin tumor

BE

96. The clinical signs of malignant transformation of pleomorphic adenoma are

the following:

A. Fluctuant consistency

B. Sudden increase in tumor volume

C. Absence of spontaneous pain or upon palpation

D. Facial nerve paralysis

E. Fixation to adjacent structures

BDE

97. The pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland is characterized by the

following:

A. Facial nerve paralysis by compression

B. Histologically a mixed tumor

C. Slow, progressive growth

D. Aggressive growth

E. Facial nerve paralysis by invasion

BC

98. Sjogren’s syndrome is characterised by:

A. Hair dryness

BDE

16

B. Nasal dryness

C. Palm dryness

D. Ocular dryness

E. Oral dryness

99. *One of the following is not a characteristic of mumps:

A. Appears particularly in children

B. More frequent in the elderly

C. Initially unilateral, then bilateral

D. The saliva remains clear

E. More frequent in boys

B

Theme 14.

The surgical treatment of severe dento-maxillary anomalies (lectures available on e-learning system)

100. The abnormal relationships between dental arches in the vertical plane are:

A. deep bite: covered occlusion - over-covery of an arcade with his

antagonist

B. micromandibular: small mandible, and combining retromandibular

retrogenia

C. macromandibular: large mandible, combining promandibular and

macrogenie (mandibular hypertrophy)

D. open bite: dental gap- the lack of contact between the dental arches

E. all of the above

AD

101. The volumetric abnormalities of the bone bases and chin include:

A. horizontal maxillary deficiency: insufficient transverse development

of the maxilla

B. horizontal maxillary excess: Excessive transverse development of

the maxilla

C. lateral development of maxillary, mandibular and chin: the

asymmetric development of bone structures

D. micromandibular: small mandible, and combining retromandibular

retrogenia

E. macromandibular: large mandible, combining promandibular and


DE

102. The abnormalities of the bone bases and chin in the horizontal plane include:

A. horizontal maxillary deficiency: insufficient transverse

development of the maxilla

B. horizontal maxillary excess: Excessive transverse development of

the maxilla

C. lateral development of maxillary, mandibular and chin: the

asymmetric development of bone structures

D. micromandibular: small mandible, and combining retromandibular

retrogenia

E. macromandibular: large mandible, combining promandibular and


ABC

103. On the lateral cephalometric radiography:

A. We can appreciate the volume of the maxillary sinuses

BCE

17

B. We measure angles

C. We measure distances

D. We can appreciate the age of the patient

E. We are making plans, lines, landmarks

104. Among the goals of orthognathic surgery, we find the following:

A. Balancing the dental arches

B. Making space for dental implants

C. Getting a facial harmony

D. Balancing the occlusion

E. The optimization of functions

ACDE

105. The following are indications for orthognathic surgery:

A. Severe abnormalities

B. Exceeded duration of orthodontic treatment

C. Surgery filling orthodontics

D. Failed orthodontics

E. Short duration of orthodontic treatment

ABCD

106. *Among the classification of dento-facial deformities we find the following:

A. structural teeth anomalies, congenital malformations;

B. chin and nose hystological anomalies;

C. abnormal maxillary and mandibular bases abnormal relationship

between dental arches cellular abnormalities

D. hyperemic apearance of the face skin;

E. eyes position, ear deformities

C

Theme 15.

Clefts (lectures available on e-learning system)

107. The diagnosis for clefts is established with the help of:

A. Prenatal ultrasound

B. Sonographic malformation balance and amniocentesis - fetal

karyotype

C. CT exam

D. RMN exam

E. All of the above

AB

108. The therapeutic goals in clefts are the following:

A. maintenance of normal facial appearance

B. early return of a pleasant facial appearance

C. normal phonetic development

D. improper jaw growth

E. dental management

BCE

109. The embryologic stage of the primary palate formation reveals the following:

A. Fusion of the maxillary process occurs between the 5th and 7th

embryonic week (for the primary palate)

B. The nasal-labial region is forming in front of the incisive foramen

C. Fusion of the mandibular process of default with the milohiod line

D. maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process

E. the peripheral part of the palate is forming in front of the incisive

foramen

ABDE

18

110. The interdisciplinary team in the management of clefts is formed by the

following:

A. pediatric oto-rhino-laringologist,

B. maxillofacial surgeon,

C. Geneticist,

D. speech therapist,

E. orthodontist

BCDE

111. The cleft of the lip and palate is:

A. The most frequent congenital diseases of the cephalic extremity

B. They result from a lack of apposition of one or more facial process

C. Resulting interruption of continuity, complete or incomplete,

unilateral or bilateral, primary and / or secondary palate.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

ABCD

112. The functional symptoms for clefts are:

A. Oronasal reflux

B. Epistaxis

C. Nasal obstruction

D. Microstomia

E. Phonation disorders

ACE

113. *From embryologic point of view the formation of the second palate involves the

following with one exception:

A. maxillary process fusion with the internal nasal process

B. the second palate formation occurs Between the 7th and 12th week

C. the fusion of the second palate occurs between a median sagittal

partition and two horizontal partitions;

D. sagittal partition and two horizontal partitions meet in the midline

E. the fusion of the second palate take place at the incisive papilla,

back and forth until the uvula

A

Theme 16.

Oro-facial pain (lectures available on e-learning system)

114. Classification of the orofacial pain is:

A. Musculoskeletal and soft tissue

B. Dentoalveolar

C. Iatrogenic

D. Neurological and vascular

E. Psychogenic

ABDE

115. The etiology of orofacial pain is:

A. Peripheral / central

B. Inflammation / irritation +/-

C. Demyelination +/-

D. Vascular or nerve compression +/-

E. Viral infection

ABCD

116. Differential diagnosis in essential trigeminal neuralgia:

A. Zollinger-Ellison disease

BCD

19

B. Secondary trigeminal neuralgia

C. A secondary inflammatory or neoplastic disease

D. tumor infiltration or compression (neuroma V, VIII; bulbar tumors

or protuberance, skull base tumor),

E. Ewing disease

117. The treatment of trigeminal neuralgia includes the following drugs:

A. Carbamazepine

B. Statins

C. Baclofen

D. Radiofrequency

E. Baloon compression

AC

118. The surgical treatment of trigeminal neuralgia includes the following:

A. Craniectomy

B. Infiltrations with anesthetics

C. Thermocoagulation

D. Carbamazepine

E. Stereotactic radiosurgery (gamma-knife)

BCE

119. The clinical features of neuralgia glossopharyngeal nerve are:

A. May be accompanied by hypotension, syncope

B. Triggered by coughing, yawning or swallowing

C. Trigger area below the tongue base

D. Trigger area below the eyes

E. May be accompanied by hypertension

ABC

120. *Classification of the orofacial pain:

A. Acute stage, inflammatory stage, chronic stage (pain lasting for less

than 5 months)

B. Subacute stage, chronic stage (pain lasting for more than 6 months)

C. Rubor, calor, dolor, subacute stage, chronic stage (pain lasting for

more than 6 months);

D. Inflammatory stage, subacute, chronic stage;

E. Acute stage, subacute stage, chronic stage (pain lasting for more

than 6 months)

E

Theme 17. PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY

Pediatric dentistry (Cursuri postate pe platforma de e-learning în limba EN)

(Stomatologie comportamentală pediatrică - pag. 43-57, 129-177; Elemente

introductive în pedodonție - pag. 62-81; Practica pedodontică - pag. 219-248,

207-216, 251-259, 261-280)

121. Among the characteristics of 3-6 years period are included the following:

F. egocentrism

G. affectivity

H. the lack of imitative character in action and behavior

I. excessive episodic negativism

J. hearing, optical and tactile fear

ABDE Stomatologi

e

comportame

ntală, pg.50

sau

Slide 23 –

Introductory

course_child

hood

periodization

122. During the “big childhood” (3rd childhood), from dental view point take place: AC Slide 25 –

Introductory

course_child

20

A. the 2nd physiological elevation of the occlusion

B. the 1st physiological movement of the mandible

C. the 3rd physiological elevation of the occlusion

D. the 2nd physiological movement of the mandible

E. the 1st physiological elevation of the occlusion

hood

periodization

123. Frankl behavioral rating scale class III, is characterized by the following

elements:

A. the child is forceful crying

B. the child accepts the treatment

C. the child refuses the treatment

D. the child respects the treatment sessions (dental appointments)

E. the child is fearful

BD Stomatologi

e

comporatme

ntală pg.136

Slide 13 –

Behavioural

_manageme

nt

124. *The following statements is NOT true about the informed consent in pediatric

dentistry:

A. is not an inherent part of behavioral management

B. it is a part of the behavioral management

C. represent a legal obligation

D. has real preventive psycho-social valences

E. has real preventive medical-legal (forensic) valences

A Stomatologi

e

comportame

ntală, pg.141

Slide 14

Behavioral

mangement

course

125. HOME (hand-over-mouth exercise) method is recommended to be used as last

resort in:

A. too small children

B. uncooperative young children (3-6 years old)

C. children with disabilities

D. adults

E. cooperative young children

BC Stomatologi

e

comportame

ntală pg.163

Slide 25 –

Behavioural

_manageme

nt

126. *In pediatric dentistry, the 3rd degree of clinical eruption is considered when:

A. the cusp tip pierces the mucosa

B. 2/3 of crown has erupted

C. ¼ of crown has erupted

D. ½ of crown has erupted

E. the tooth has fully erupted

B Elemente

introductive

în

pedodonție,

69

Slide 8–

Dental_erupt

ion

127. The following mandibular temporary teeth erupt before the maxillary ones:

A. lateral incisors

B. central incisors

C. canines

D. 1st premolars

E. 2nd molars

BCDE Practica

Pedodontică,

Pg.56

Slide 18 –

Dental_eupti

on

128. *The periodicity of the permanent teeth eruption is:

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 6 month

D. 1 year

E. 9 month

D Slide 19 –

Dental_eupti

on

129. For temporary teeth, the delayed eruption may NOT be associated with:

A. eruptive fevers

B. down syndrome

C. turner syndrome

D. rickets

E. hyperthyroidism

AE Slide 21 –

Dental_erupt

ion

21

130. Among the temporary teeth general features are the following:

A. pulp horns are more superficial because the dentine layer is bigger

B. distal horns are closer to surface than mesial ones

C. pulp chamber od mandibular molars is bigger than pulp chamber of

maxillary molars

D. frontal teeth root is mesio-distal flattened

E. the roots are relatively long compared to the crown

CDE Slide 10-11

–Temporary

teeth

morphology

131. Among the general factors that influence the dental eruption are the following:

A. temporary teeth dental trauma

B. premature extraction of temporary teeth

C. heredity

D. racial and regional type

E. central nervous system

CDE Practica

pedodontică

pg.51

Slide 13 –

Dental-

eruption

132. *Not taking into consideration the normal variability of temporary teeth, 7.4 will

erupt at:

A. 6 years

B. 18 months

C. 6 months

D. 10 years

E. 24 months

B Elemente

introductive

în

pedodonție,

pg. 56

Slide 16 –

Dental

eruption

course

133. *Normally, 2.5 erupts at:

A. 8 years old

B. 10 years old

C. 12 years old

D. 7 years old

E. 13 years old

B Elemente

introductive

în

pedodonție,

pg. 56

Slide 18 –

Dental

eruption

course

134. *The Main Bacteria Isolated In Children With Early Childhood Caries (ECC)

is:

A. Streptococcus mutans

B. Streptococcus salivarius

C. Escherichia coli

D. Streptococcus viridans

E. Porfiromonas aeruginosa

A Slide 25 –

Temporary_t

eeth_caries

135. The following caries risk assessment factors in temporary teeth are behavioral

factors:

A. child’s diet

B. gingival and periodontal status of the child

C. child’s ethnicity

D. tooth brushing

E. socio-economic status

AD Slide 10 –

Temporary_t

eeth_caries_t

reatment_1

136. Atraumatic Restorative Treatment (ART) has the following indications:

A. treatment of caries localized on two dental surfaces

B. small non-cooperative children

C. treatment of caries localized on three or more dental surfaces

D. anxious children

E. temporary/permanent teeth

BDE Slide 15 –

Temporary_t

eeth_caries_t

reatment_2

137. *In preparation for class I cavities for restoration with amalgam in primary

molars, ideally, the cavity will be:

A. 0.5 mm into enamel

B. 1.5 mm into dentine

C Practica

pedodontică,

pg.210

Slide 8 –

Temporary_t

eeth_caries_t

reatment_3

22

C. approximately 1.5 mm from the enamel surface

D. approximately 1.5 mm from the dentine surface

E. 2 mm into dentine

Theme 18.

The role of functional factors in the development of the dento-maxilary complex

138. *On an electromyogram, one cannot appreciate:

A. The amplitude of the electric potential

B. The frequency

C. The duration of occurrence of the action potentials

D. The chronology of occurrence of the action potentials in different

muscles

E. The atmospheric pression in different muscles

E page

412

139. *On an electromyogram, one cannot appreciate:


B. The intensity of the nerve impulses

C. The duration of occurrence of the action potentials

D. The frequency of the nerve impulses

E. The chronology of occurrence of the action potentials

B page

412

140. *The time cycle in which the functions are constantly repeated is of:

A. 18 hours

B. 12 hours

C. 1 minute

D. 24 hours

E. 30 minutes

D page

406

141. On an electromyogram, one can appreciate:


B. The intensity of the nerve impulses

C. The kinetic energy

D. The frequency of the nerve impulses

E. The duration and chronology of occurrence of the action potentials

ADE page

412

142. The therapeutic objectives pursued in balancing the musclesʼ actions consist

of:

A. Establishing an appropiate balance as far as the tone of the

antagonistic muscle groups are concerned

B. Using movable active orthodontic appliances

C. Modifying the neuromuscular behavior of the deficient muscle

groups

D. Using fixed orthodontic appliances

E. Using muscle contraction in order to ensure the morphological

changes

ACE page

415

Theme 19.

The development of dental occlusion

23

143. *The differentiated increase of the two jaws in the first two months of

intrauterine life determines:

A. Jaw retrognathism

B. Mandibular retrognathism

C. Jaw prognathism

D. Mandibular prognathism

E. Neutral interjaw relations

B Pag. 36

144. *In the absence of space, M3 can unbalance the dento-alveolar relations by:

A. The appearance of the secondary dento-alveolar incongruence

B. Compromising the results obtained during the orthodontic treatment

C. The collapse of the occlusion

D. The appearance of the primary dento-alveolar incongruence

E. The increase of the degree of incisive overcoat

B Pag. 49

145. The post-lacteal plan:

A. In a straight line, offers the cusp to cusp ratio of the molar 1

B. In the distal phase, leads to a distal occlusal relation at the level of

the molar

C. In the mesial phase, offers the cusp to cusp ratio

D. In the mesial phase, leads to a mesial ratio

E. In the slightly mesial phase, offers the cusp ratio in the

intercuspidian ditch

ABDE Pag. 43

146. The eruption of Molar 1:

A. Changes the length of the arch

B. Changes the shape of the arch

C. By the mesial spurt, it does not reduce the primate space

D. Produces the second ascension of the occlusion

E. Alters the shape of the arch from parable to semicircle

ABD Pag. 45

147. In the absence of space, M3 can unbalance the dento-alveolar relations by:

A. The appearance of the tertiary dento-alveolar incongruence

B. Compromising the results obtained during the orthodontic

treatment

C. The collapse of the occlusion

D. The appearance of the primary dento-alveolar incongruence

E. The increase of the degree of incisive overcoat

AB Pag. 45

Theme 20.

The etiopathogeny of dento maxillary abnormalities

148. *The approximal decay of the temporary tooth can lead to:

A. Extension of the arch

B. Keeping the spare space

C. Difficulties in eruption C

D. Difficulties in eruption M

E. The absence of migrations of the adjacent teeth

C page 73

149. *Anodontism can rarely be:

A. Total

B. Partial

C. Reduced

A page

76

24

D. Extended

E. Unique

150. The most common abnormalities of shape for the lateral incisor are:

A. Shape of nail

B. Shape of hook

C. Shape of fish

D. Shape of letter "T"

E. Shape of premolar

AB page

76

151. Anodontism can be the expression of the evolutionary tendency, thus occuring

the reduction of teeth:

A. M3

B. PM2

C. IL

D. C

E. PM2

ABC page

75

152. Delays in the eruption of permanent teeth can be caused by:

A. Genetic patterns

B. Teratogenic factors

C. General causes

D. Fibrous barriers

E. Bone barriers

ADE page

75

Theme 21.

Classification of dento maxillary abnormalities

153. *According to French School classification, maxillary prognathism means

A. Maxilla toward anterior

B. Maxilla toward posterior

C. Narrower maxilla

D. Wider maxilla

E. Asymmetric maxilla

A 3, pg. 14

154. *According to French School classification, mandibular retrognathism means:

A. Long mandible

B. Mandible toward posterior

C. Mandibular laterodeviation

D. Narrow mandible

E. Wide mandible

B 3, pg. 14

155. *Which classification in orthodontics uses the term “ syndromes” for

definition of different types of malocclusions?

A. Angle’s classification

B. French School classification

C. Romanian School classification

D. German School classification

E. Other classifications

D 3, pg.

13

156. Class II division 1 Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Labioversion of the upper incisors

B. Increased over jet

C. Deep bite

ABC 3, pg.

13

25

D. Maxillary retrognathism

E. Mandibular prognathism

157. Class II division 2 Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Proclination of the upper central incisors

B. Retroclination of the upper central incisors

C. Deep bite

D. Increased over jet

E. Mandibular prognathism

BC 3, pg.

13

158. Class I Angle malocclusion is characterized by:

A. Distal occlusion

B. Mesial occlusion

C. Neutrocclusion

D. Local dental anomalies

E. Possible anomalies in transverse and vertical plane

CDE 3, pg.

13

159. *According to Angle classification class III malocclusion means:

A. The buccal groove of the lower first molar is positioned distal to

the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar

B. The buccal groove of the lower first molar is positioned mesial to

the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar

C. The buccal groove of the lower first molar is positioned normal in

relation to the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar


E. Anterior open bite

B 3, pg.

13

Theme 22.

The radiological examination in orthodontics

160. *The Gn point (from the cephalometric analysis) is:

A. The lowest point of the menton symphysis

B. The most anterior point of the menton symphysis

C. The most posterior point of menton symphysis

D. The most anterior and inferior point of the menton symphysis

E. The most inferior and posterior point of the menton symphysis

E page

154

161. *The cephalometric analysis has as reference plan:

A. The Frankfurt Horizontal (Or-Po)

B. The mandibulary basal plan

C. The Frankfurt Horizontal (Or-Kdl)

D. The maxillary basal plan

E. The Y axis (S-Gn)

A page

153

162. *The Y axis (growth axis) is bounded by one of the following points:

A. S-Go

B. S-N

C. S-Ba

D. S-Gn

E. S-Me

D page

156

163. As far as the distance Ao-Bo is concerned, are TRUE the following statements:

A. Represents the absolute sagittal interbasis gap

B. Is in direct relation with the angles SNA, SNB

ABE page

164

26

C. Represents the relative sagittal interbasis gap

D. Is in inversely proportional relation with the ANB angle

E. Completes the skeletal class notion

164. The Bitewing Radiographic Technique is used for:

A. Included teeth

B. Ectopic teeth

C. Vestibular teeth

D. Rotated teeth

E. None of the above answers is correct

ABC page

145-

146

Theme 23.

Class II/1 malocclusion

165. Which of the following clinical features are seen in class II/1 malocclusion :

A. “Long face” syndrome

B. Dolichocephal pattern

C. Convex profile

D. Concave profile

E. Hypertonic upper lip

ABC 3, pg. 88

166. In class II/1 malocclusion the functional exam reveals:

A. Hypotonic mentalis muscle

B. Hypertonic buccinators muscle

C. Hypotonic upper lip

D. Hypotonic nostrils

E. Hypertonic mentalis muscle

BCDE 2, pg.

159

167. In class II/1 malocclusion the following cephalometric values from Tweed

analysis are increased:

A. SNA angle

B. SNB angle

C. ANB angle

D. AO-BO distance

E. The angle between the long axis of the upper and lower incisor

ACD 3, pg. 88

168. In class II/1 malocclusion the interceptive treatment consists of:

A. Identifying the genetic and endocrine syndromes

B. Natural alimentation of newborn child

C. Eliminating vicious habits

D. Prophylactic measures and oral hygiene

E. Prophylaxis of calcium and vitamin D deficiency

AC 3, pg. 89

169. *Which of the following clinical features are not seen in class II/1

malocclusion?

A. Protruded upper incisors

B. Concave profile

C. Retrognathic mandible

D. Convex profile

E. Increased over jet

B 3, pg.

88

170. *Which of the following cephalometric findings do not match with class II/1

malocclusion diagnostic?

C 3, pg.

88

27

A. Increased SNA angle

B. Decreased SNB angle

C. Increased SNB angle

D. Increased ANB angle

E. Increased FMA angle

171. *The most common shape of the upper dental arch in class II/1 malocclusion

is:

A. “V” shape

B. “M” shape

C. “trapezoid shape”

D. “W” shape

E. Square shape

A 3, pg.

88

Theme 24.

Class II/2 malocclusion

172. Class II/2 malocclusion is characterized by :

A. Distal occlusion

B. Dental crowding

C. Deep overbite


E. Spacing in the maxillary anterior area

ABC 3, pg. 90

173. The extra oral exam in class II/2 malocclusion patient reveals:

A. Short face

B. Long face

C. Accentuated labial mental sulcus

D. Lower lip protrusion

E. Absence of labial seal

AC 3, pg. 90

174. Which of the following cephalometric values are decreased in class II/1

malocclusion?

A. SNA angle

B. SNB angle

C. FMA angle

D. ANB angle

E. The gonial angle

BCE 3, pg. 92

175. The possible shapes for upper dental arch in class II/2 malocclusion are:

A. Trapezium

B. “V” shape

C. Square shape

D. “U” shape

E. “M” shape

ACDE 3, pg. 91

176. *Which of the following statements do not match with class II/2 malocclusion:

A. Deep bite

B. Distal occlusion

C. Open bite

D. Palatal inclination of the upper central incisors

E. Accentuated curve of Spee

C 3, pg.

92

28

177. *Which of the following functional findings in class II/2 malocclusion are not

true?

A. Hypertonic mentalis muscle

B. Hypertonic masseter muscle

C. Hypertonic temporal muscle

D. Hypotonic orbicularis oris muscle

E. Palatal swallow

D 3, pg.

91

178. *Which statement is false for class II/2 malocclusion definition?

A. Class II/2 malocclusion is characterized by sagittal bases

discrepancy

B. Distal occlusion

C. Deep bite

D. Labial inclination of the upper central incisors

E. Maxillary apical base larger then coronary base

D 3, pg.

91

Theme 25

Class III malocclusion

179. In class III malocclusion the positive diagnostic is based on :

A. Concave profile

B. Mesial occlusion at the level of first molars and canines

C. Anterior cross bite

D. Positive over jet

E. Distal occlusion

ABC 3, pg. 93

180. Anatomic mandibular prognatism is characterized by:

A. Excessive development of the mandible in sagittal , transverse and

vertical plane

B. Short maxilla and normal mandible

C. Normal skeletal growth of the mandible, but in a forward position

D. Short mandible

E. Spacing in the lower dental arch

AE 3, pg. 94

181. In anatomic mandibular prognathism the following cephalometric findings are

increased:

A. SNA angle

B. SNB angle

C. ANB angle

D. FMA angle

E. Gonial angle

BDE 3, pg. 94

182. Skeletal class III malocclusion due to maxillary retrognathism is characterized

by:

A. Convex profile

B. Undeveloped maxilla in sagittal, transverse and vertical plane

C. Cross bite in the anterior or/and lateral area

D. Reversed lip step

E. Excessive growth of the mandible

BCD 3, pg. 97

183. *The etiopathogeny of functional mandibular prognatism is:

A. Excessive skeletal growth of the mandible

B. Maxillary retrognathism

D 3, pg.

99

29

C. Cleft lip and palate

D. Non attrition of the deciduous canines or dental malpositions

E. Excessive growth of the maxilla

184. *Which clinical sign is not found in class III malocclusion patients?

A. Cross bite

B. Mesial occlusion for molars and canines

C. Increased positive overjet

D. Concave profile

E. Flatted face

C 3, pg.

97

185. *In class III malocclusion patients we find:

A. Distooclusion at the level of molars and canines

B. Normal occlusion

C. Hypertonic mentalis muscle

D. Mesiooclusion at the level of molars and canines

E. Hypotonic upper lip

D 3, pg.

94

Theme 26

The open bite syndrome

186. The diagnostic of the skeletal open bite is based on:

A. Decreased height of the lower face

B. Increased height of the lower face

C. Fronto-lateral space between the upper and the lower teeth

D. Accentuated labial-mental sulcus

E. Tight (firm) labial seal

BC 3, pg. 82

187. In functional anterior open bite there are the following clinical signs:

A. Normal height of the lower face

B. Increased height of the lower face

C. Normal labial-mental sulcus

D. Abnormal swallowing pattern

E. Posterior rotation of the mandible

ACD 3, pg. 82

188. The difference between skeletal and functional open bite is given by:

A. The severity of the malocclusion

B. The differences in vertical growth of the lower face

C. The values of FMA angle

D. Dental transposition

E. Congenitally missing teeth

ABC 3, pg. 83

189. Which angles are increased on lateral cephalometric analysis in skeletal open

bite patients?

A. FMA angle

B. Gonial angle

C. SNB

D. Mandibular – occlusal plane angle

E. The angle between the cranial base planum ( S-N) and mandibular

plane

ABDE 3, pg. 82

190. Which characteristic is not found in open bite syndrome?

A. Increased height of the lower face

B. Convex profile

30

C. Hypotonic lips

D. Tight (firm) labial seal

E. Vertical space between teeth in the anterior or/and lateral area

191. *Which statement does not match with the cephalometric diagnostic of

skeletal open bite?

A. The FMA (Frankfort mandibular plane angle) angle is decreased

B. The Gonial angle is increased

C. The SNA angle is increased

D. The occlusal plane-mandibular plane angle is increased

E. The Kondilion angle is increased

A 3, pg.

82

192. *Which dysfunction is not mentioned in the etiopathogenesis of open byte

syndrome?

A. Oral breathing

B. Thumb sucking

C. Tongue thrusting

D. Tongue sucking

E. Bruxism

E 3, pg.

81

Theme 27

Anomalies of the dental system

193. Which of the following statements are isolated dental tooth anomalies?

A. Mesiodens

B. Tooth impaction

C. Diastema

D. Dental crowding

E. Transposition

ABE 3, pg.

63-80

194. Which of the following statements are related to number anomalies?

A. Oligodontia

B. Macrodontia

C. Dens in dente

D. Transposition

E. Ectopic tooth

AC 3, pg.

63-75

195. Which isolated dental anomalies are anomalies in teeth position?

A. Ectopic tooth

B. Version (tipping)

C. Rotation

D. Egression

E. Impaction

BCD 3, pg. 69

196. What are the dental anomalies that describe a situation in which a tooth is not

in the normal place on the dental arch?

A. Ectopic

B. Rotation

C. Impaction

D. Transposition

E. Ingression

ACD 3, pg.

63-75

197. *Hypodontia means:

A. Complete absence of teeth

D 3, pg.

64

31

B. The absence of more than 6 teeth on the dental arches

C. Supernumerary teeth

D. The absence of 1-6 teeth on the dental arches

E. The presence of 1-2 teeth on the dental arches

198. *Peridens is:

A. An extra tooth on the midline

B. Supplementary tooth in the lateral area of the dental arches

C. Supplementary tubercles

D. Synonym to missing tooth

E. Supplementary tooth situated within another tooth

B 3, pg.

63

199. *Tooth impaction is:

A. The tooth is erupted outside the dental arch

B. The tooth is congenitally missing

C. The tooth is erupted inside the dental arch

D. The tooth is erupted and has an abnormal shape

E. The tooth is not erupted, but is inside the bone or inside the soft

tissues

E 3, pg.

63-75

Theme 28

The clinical examination in orthodontics

200. Abnormal cranial types that occur due to early cranial suture closure are:

A. Scaphocephalia

B. Acrocephalia

C. Oxicephalia

D. Dolicocephal

E. Mesocephal

ABC pag.100

201. *The shape of the face is determined by the facial contour and can NOT be:

A. Foursquare

B. Round

C. Parallelepiped

D. Rectangular

E. Triangle

C pag. 100

202. The shape of the profile is determined by the sagittal position of the Subnazal

point (Sn) relative to the Gnathion cutanat (Gn) point and can be:

A. Straight - anterior position of Gn towards Sn

B. Convex - anterior position of Sn or posterior position of Gn

C. Posterior- posterior position of Sn or anterior position of Gn

D. Straight- normal Sn position versus Gn position

E. Convex - anterior position of Gn or posterior of Sn

BCD pag. 101

203. Functional examinations of swallowing are as follows:

A. Conscious water swallowing

B. Conscious saliva swallowing

C. Unconscious saliva swallowing

D. Unconscious water swallowing

E. Conscious paraffin swallowing

ABC Pag 106

204. *Type of abnormal shape of dental arches is:

A. X

D Pag

107

32

B. P

C. R

D. W

E. Y

205. The masticatory function is examined to determine:

A. The type of masticator

B. Intensity of parafunction

C. Type mastication

D. Abnormal sounds

E. Food preference

ACE Pag.

106

206. *The phonation function is examined to determine:

A. Respiratory function

B. Type of parafunction

C. Type of mastication

D. Phonation dysfunction

E. Normal sounds

D Pag.

106

Theme 29

The analysis of the study model in orthodontics

207. The necessary instruments for the analysis of study models are represented by:

A. Orthometer

B. Symmetroscope

C. Comparator Compass

D. Three-dimensional Compass

E. Rapporteur

ABCD pag.109

208. *The study of dento-alveolar arches does NOT aim at analyzing:

A. The shape of the dental arches

B. The arcade symmetry

C. Palatine vault depth

D. Presence of palatine torus

E. Inserting of upper lip frenulum

E pag.109

209. For the analysis of the transverse and sagittal symmetry of dento-alveolar

arches, the following reference plans are traced on the study models:

A. Medio-sagital mandibular plane

B. Medio-sagital maxillary plane

C. Median plane

D. Tuberosity plane

E. Pyrimiform plane

ABD pag. 109

210. Analysis transverse symmetry using Pont reference points of the right and left

dental arches:

A. Mid-sagittal groove of the first upper premolar

B. Central fossa of the lower first molar

C. The central fossa of the lower first premolar

D. Vestibular lower interpremolar contact point

E. The tip of the centro-vestibular cuspid of the first lower molar

ACDE Pag 109

211. *The transverse asymmetries of dental arches do not occur in:

A. Reverse unilateral occlusion

E Pag

109

33

B. Vestibularized occlusion

C. Lingualized occlusion

D. Head to head occlusion

E. Reverse bilateral occlusion

212. *For the Pont index analysis, the sum of the upper incisors (SI) must be:

A. SI<28

B. 28≤SI≤35

C. SI<27

D. SI≥34

E. 27≤SI≤34

B Pag.

111

213. *When one or more incisors (central or lateral) are missing, the sum of the

upper incisors (SI max) is calculated with the formula of Tonn, where SI mand

is the sum of inferior incisors:

A. SI max = SI mand x 4/3 + 0.5

B. SI max = SI mand x 100/80

C. SI max = SI mand

D. SI max = SI mand x 100/65

E. SI max = SI mand x 100/95

A Pag.

111

Theme 30

Principles in the orthodontic therapy

214. *The prophylactic principle

A. refers to obtaining therapeutic results to restore the normal occlusal,

articular and muscular functionality of the dento-maxillary device

B. refers to the suppression of the potential causal factors of the dento-

maxillary anomalies in an early period of their action

C. refers to the correction of the dento-maxillary abnormality and the

preservation of the macro-systemic relationships of the human body

D. refers to all interventions that prevent the installation of a dento-

maxillary abnormality

E. refers to the removal of causal factors of dento-maxillary

anomalies

D pag.225

215. *The curative principle

A. refers to the use of orthodontic forces that do not have unwanted

effects on the structures on which they act

B. refers to the suppression of the potential causal factors of the

dento-maxillary anomalies in an early period of their action


preservation of the macro-systemic relationships of the human

body

D. refers to the results of orthodontic treatment that should last

throughout the patient's life.

E. refers to the achievement of harmony between the dental,

maxillary and muscular elements of the dento-maxillary apparatus

C pag.

225

216. *The biomechanical principle

A. refers to the use of orthodontic forces that do not have unwanted


A pag. 225

34

B. refers to the suppression of the potential causal factors of the




body

D. refers to the results of orthodontic treatment that should last


E. refers to the achievement of harmony between the dental,


217. *The principle of preserving dento-maxillary homeostasis.

A. refers to the achievement of harmony between the dental,

maxillary and muscular elements of the dento-maxillary aparatus

B. refers to the morpho-functional rehabilitation of the dento-

maxillary apparatus in accordance with its normal growth.

C. refers to the use of orthodontic forces that do not have unwanted


D. refers to the suppression of the potential causal factors of the


E. refers to the correction of the dento-maxillary abnormality and the


body

B Pag 225

218. *The etiological principle:

A. refers to the correction of the dento-maxillary abnormality and the


body

B. refers to the achievement of harmony between the dental,

maxillary and muscular elements of the dento-maxillary aparatus

C. refers to the removal of causal factors of dento-maxillary

anomalies

D. refers to the suppression of the potential causal factors of the


E. refers to the results of orthodontic treatment that should last


C Pag

225

219. The interceptive principle:

A. It refers to the suppression of the potential causal factors of the


B. refers to the correction of the dento-maxillary abnormality and the


body

C. refers to the achievement of harmony between the dental,


D. refers to the removal of causal factors of dento-maxillary

anomalies

E. It leads to the spontaneous balancing of the dento-maxillary

apparatus

AE Pag.

225

220. The functional principle:

A. refers obtaining therapeutic results to restore the normal occlusal of

the dento-maxillary apparatus

B. refers to the correction of the dento-maxillary abnormality and the

preservation of the macro-systemic relationships of the human body

ACE Pag.

225

35

C. refers obtaining therapeutic results to restore the normal articular of

the dento-maxillary apparatus

D. refers to the removal of causal factors of dento-maxillary anomaly

E. refers obtaining therapeutic results to restore the normal muscular

functionality of the dento-maxillary apparatus

Theme 31.

Removable orthodontic appliances

221. *Clinical indications of removable orthodontic appliances are:

A. in the pasive treatment of dento-maxillary abnormalities

B. in patients with inadequate dental hygiene

C. effective after 20 years when growth sutures are closed

D. in the interceptive treatment of dento-maxillary abnormalities

E. in the treatment of skeletal dento-maxillary abnormalities

D pag.

262

222. *The common features of removable orthodontic appliances are NOT:

A. Presents anchoring elements - clasps or splints-

B. Present orthodontic force generating elements

C. It has a large surface of dento-periodontal support and mucosal

support

D. Intermittently (18 hours a day)

E. Can not be removed by the patient

E pag. 262

223. *Classification of removable orthodontic appliances, by nature of forces, is:

A. Biomechanical orthodontic appliances

B. Functional devices

C. Appliances anchored with clasps

D. Appliances anchored with springs

E. Appliances anchored with splits

A pag. 262

224. Classification of removable orthodontic appliances, by anchoring mode, are:


B. Functional devices

C. Appliances anchored with clasps

D. Appliances anchored with springs

E. Appliances anchored with splits

CD pag. 262

225. Stahl clasp consist of:

A. Circular loop

B. Ringlet

C. Retention zone

D. Subequatorial loop

E. Romboidal loop

ABC Pag.

264

226. *Advantages of Simple clasp:

A. Easy to make

B. Difficult activation

C. Repair in the cabinet

D. Pluridentar clasp

E. High degree of elasticity

A Pag.

265

227. Disadvantages of Adams clasp:

A. It fractures easily

ABD Pag

265

36

B. The repair is done in the only dental laboratory

C. Pluridentar clasp

D. It can cause frontal crowding teeth

E. Repair is done in only the cabinet

Theme 32.

Functional orthodontic appliances

228. Clinical indications of functional orthodontic appliances are as follows:

A. In etiological treatment

B. In the interceptive treatment of dento-maxillary abnormalities

C. In the passive treatment of dento-maxillary anomalies of functional

causes

D. In adulthood

E. During growth

ABE pag.

277

229. *The common features of functional appliances :

A. Presents anchoring elements - clasps or splints-

B. Present orthodontic force generating elements

C. It has a large surface of dento-periodontal support and mucosal

support

D. Establishes a new lower jaw position relative to the upper jaw

E. Eliminates normal muscle strength

D pag. 277

230. *The advantage of functional devices is NOT:

A. Eliminates dental-maxillary dysfunction

B. Treat dento-maxillary functional abnormalities,

C. Apply early in the first stage of mixed dentition

D. They are effective in the young adult

E. Low cost

D pag. 277

231. Classification of functional appliances, by anchoring mode, are:


B. Mobile functional appliances

C. Fixed functional appliances

D. Appliances anchored with clasps

E. Appliances anchored with springs

BC pag. 277

232. *Classification of functional appliances, by action mode, is:


B. Pasive functional devices

C. Fixed functional appliances

D. Appliances anchored with clasps

E. Appliances anchored with springs

B Pag.

277

233. *Monoblock is NOT indicated in the treatment:

A. Treatment of class II malocclusion due to functional causes

B. Frontal open bite

C. Deep bite

D. Mandibular functional lateral shift

E. Treatment of class III malocclusion due to functional causes

E Pag.

283

234. *The Type I Balters is indicated in:

A. Functional Malocclusion Class II / 1 Angle

A Pag

283

37

B. Functional Malocclusion Class II / 2 Angle

C. Functional Malocclusion Class III Angle

D. Functional Malocclusion Class I Angle

E. Skeletal abnormalities

Theme 33.

Retention and relapse in orthodontics

235. Final balance:

A. It is not a stage of orthodontic treatment

B. To balance muscle activity

C. To balance dental occlusion

D. For dental recovery

E. Not necessary

BCD pag.

374

236. *Process by which the final balancing is achieved:

A. Selective polishing of oblique crests

B. Stripping

C. Small dental movements

D. Dental extraction

E. Scaling

B pag. 374

237. *Causes of relapse do NOT include:

A. Bone growth

B. Persistence of etiological factors

C. Condylian post-treatment growth

D. Poor dental hygiene

E. The eruption of the 3rd molars

D pag. 375

238. Causes of relapse include:

A. Bone growth

B. Hereditary transmissions

C. Modification of intercanine distance

D. The young age of the patient

E. Nonstructuring the periodontal ligament

ABCE pag. 375

239. *Treatment of relapse:

A. Not accomplished

B. It is done with dental extractions

C. Cuts of the cusp

D. Uses a Rapid Maxillary Expander

E. Fixed segmental dental realignment is performed

E Pag.

376

240. The objectives underlying the period of contention are:

A. Obtaining bone growth

B. Obtaining teeth stability

C. Obtaining permanent occlusal balance

D. Obtain proper hygiene

E. Obtaining prevention of relapse post-treatment

BCE Pag.

376

241. *There are several types of contention, less one:

A. natural

B. artificial

C. biomechanical

C Pag

376

38

D. gnatological

E. surgical

Theme 34.

The treatment of dental caries.

Cariology – lecture available on “Gr.T.Popa” University e-learning system

The treatment of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation)

The etiology and pathogeny of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation)

242. In deep caries, infected dentin is removed with:

A. sharp excavators and sharp spoon excavators

B. round burs made of steel rotated at low speed and using air cooling

C. round burs made of tungsten carbide rotated at low speed and using

air cooling

D. sharp dentin hatchets

E. any blunt hand instrument

ABC slide 67

243. *The LASER used for the removal of altered dentin has the following

advantages:

A. can be used without anesthesia even in deep caries

B. noise related to bur rotation is eliminated

C. it is used without direct contact with the tooth

D. pressure and vibration are eliminated

E. all the advantages mentioned above

E 70

244. Modern conservative preparation of cavities requires that preventive extension

should be done according to:

A. caries risk of each patient

B. oral hygiene

C. dietary habits

D. patient age

E. cavity depth

ABC 74

245. Retention form for traditional amalgam restorations involves:

A. parallel walls

B. flat floor

C. convergency of the walls towards occlusal

D. beveled margins

E. additional cavities (dovetail cavity)

ABCE 78

246. The following factors must be considered when finishing the enamel walls and

margins:

A. the direction of the enamel rods

B. caries risk

C. location of the margins

D. the type of restorative material

E. the matrix used for restoration

ACD 82

247. *Amalgam is contraindicated for the restoration of fissure caries:

A. when perfect isolation cannot be achieved

B. in patients with poor hygiene

C. in large cavitated caries

D. in patients with history of allergy to amalgam (lichen planus)

D 93-94

39

E. multiple occlusal contacts on the surface of the future restorations

248. In class II Black cavities for amalgam restoration, box-only preparation is

indicated in:

A. proximal lesions in the absence of large carious lesion or defective

restoration on the occlusal surface

B. patients with low caries risk

C. patients with good oral hygiene

D. large lesions

E. proximal lesions with absence of occlusal contacts on the future

restorations

ABC 133

249. The amalgam restoration should be burnished:

A. using perfectly polished burnishers

B. immediately after the carving of the restoration and before the

complete hardening of amalgam

C. by moving the instrument with a light pressure from the center

towards the periphery of the restoration

D. by moving the instrument parallel with the margin of the

restoration

E. by moving the instrument from the margin towards the center of the

restoration

ABC 277

250. *In class III cavities restored with composite resins, the beveling of the gingival

margin should be done:

A. when the gingival margin is situated supra-gingival more than

2mmm above the enamel-cement junction

B. when the gingival margin is situated subgingivaly within the dentin

C. when the gingival margin is situated juxta-gingivaly

D. when the gingival margin is situated subgingivaly within the root

cement

E. the beveling of the gingival margin is never allowed when

composite resins are used for restorations

A 165

251. The indications of using resin-modified glass ionomer cements in class III

cavities are:

A. small cavities

B. high caries risk

C. minimal occlusal stress

D. large cavities

E. high occlusal stress

ABC 166

252. *When using multiple layers of light-cured composite resins for restoration,

the maximum thickness of each layer should be:

A. 4mm

B. 2mm

C. 1mm

D. 6mm

E. 0.5mm

B 248

253. When using tunnel preparation:

A. any damage of the marginal ridge should be avoid

B. the access may be gained through the occlusal surface starting in

the adjacent pit

C. only Black spoon excavators should be used for removing infected

dentin

AB 150

40

D. beveling of all the margins is mandatory

E. the material of choice for restoration is composite resin

254. *One of the following properties does NOT characterize the glassionomer

cement used as a base of restoration:

A. high compressive strength

B. caries preventive effect as a result of fluoride release

C. thermal expansion coefficient 3 times higher than that of dentin

D. adhesion to dentin

E. adhesion to dentin is increasing for 3-4 months after insertion

C 204

255. The causes that may be involved in the accidental opening of the pulp chamber

are:

A. large volume of the pulp chamber

B. chronical slowly progressive caries

C. the topography of the carious lesion

D. lack of visibility during of cavity preparation

E. small teeth

ACDE 214

Theme 35.

The etiology and pathogeny of dental caries.

Cariology – lecture available on “Gr.T.Popa” University e-learning system

The treatment of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation) The etiology and pathogeny of dental caries. (Power Point Presentation)

256. Dental caries:

A. is considered to be an infectious disease

B. is irreversible, even in early stage of the lesions

C. can involve any dental surface expose to oral environment

D. is a a dynamic process

E. is an immune disease

AD slide 2,3

257. The salivary pH:

A. is normally maintained at values close to neutral

B. is identical to the pH of the bacterial plaque

C. is not influenced by the food intake

D. is 5.5 between meals in patients with low caries activity

E. varies with age and systemic health

AE 137,138

258. *The most part of the salivary buffer capacity is provided by:

A. peroxydase-thyocianate system

B. bicarbonate system

C. lysozyme

D. salivary glycoproteins

E. calcium ions

B 140

259. Salivary lysozyme:

A. inhibits the precipitation of calcium phosphate on the enamel and

dental substitutes

B. interact with monovalent anions resulting in complexes that bind the

bacterial wall

C. activates bacterial autolysins which disrupt the bacterial cell wall

D. can determine bacterial aggregation

BCD 113

41

E. stimulates the bacterial glucydic metabolism

260. Salivary components with predominant antibacterial activity are:

A. lactoferrin

B. peroxidase

C. glycocalyx

D. enolase

E. Ig As

ABE 112,125

261. The salivary Ig As inhibits the bacterial adhesion by:

A. stimulating the bacterial glycolysis

B. binding to the surface of bacterial adhesins

C. neutralizing the negative charge of bacterial surface

D. neutralizing the activity of other enzymes (GTF)

E. stimulating coaggregation of bacteria

BCD 126

262. Some of the following salivary components play a major role in controlling

remineralization:

A. statherin

B. proline-rich proteins

C. histatin

D. cystatin

E. amylase

ABCD 150

263. The buffer capacity:

A. is lower in men comparing to women

B. increases during the last moths of pregnancy

C. decreases during menopause

D. increases with saliva flow rate

E. may be affected by systemic conditions

CDE 145

264. Acquired pellicle:

A. is an organic acellular biofilm which covers the enamel of erupted

teeth

B. is a result of degeneration of ameloblasts at the end of mineralization

of enamel

C. plays a role in decreasing the solubility of hydroxyapatite in acid

D. it is formed by the selective adsorption of salivary proteins

E. mediates the colonization of dental tissues by the oral bacteria

ACDE 172

265. During the pre-eruptive stage of tooth maturation:

A. the organic content of tooth increases

B. the already existing crystals grow in size

C. the intake of fluoride is not relevant

D. the optimal intake of calcium/phosphate ratio is mandatory

E. ionic exchanges between enamel and surrounding tissues cannot

influence the caries-resistance

BD 78

ENDODONTICS, EN

References:

1) Elements of Endodontic Pathology and Therapy. Liana Aminov, Maria

Vataman.”Gr.T.Popa” Publisher, UMF Iasi 2014.

2) Endodontic courses. ( C-course, S-slide)

Theme 36

42

Anatomical and clinical forms of pulpitis in permanent teeth

266. In pre-inflammatory hyperaemia:

F. The pain persists for a few hours after removing the excitant

G. The pain can be provoked or spontaneous

H. On palpation, the pulp chamber is closed

I. Axial percussion is negative

J. On inspection, a decay (carious process) is never present

CD pg.93-

94

267. In acute serous partial pulpitis:

F. The pain is sharp, vivid, and localized

G. Vitality tests reveal hypoexcitability

H. The pain lasts minutes-hours

I. The pain cannot be relieved by analgesics

J. Axial percussion is negative

ACE pg. 96

268. Pulp capping (direct/indirect) represents a treatment option in the following

pathologies:

A. Acute serous total pulpitis

B. Chronic proper closed pulpitis

C. Acute purulent partial pulpitis

D. Acute serous partial pulpitis

E. Pre-inflammatory hyperaemia

DE pg. 92-

109

269. The differential diagnosis in chronic proper closed pulpitis is done with:

A. Chronic closed granulomatous pulpitis

B. Ulcerous open chronic pulpitis

C. Simple dental carious process

D. Acute serous partial pulpitis

E. Septic/aseptic necrosis

ABCE pg.108

270. Pulsating pain is a clinical aspect that characterizes:

A. Acute purulent partial pulpitis

B. Acute serous partial pulpitis

C. Acute serous total pulpitis

D. Acute purulent total pulpitis

E. Pre-inflammatory hyperaemia

AD pg.92-

101

271. *Which of the following types of pulpitis is characterized as "teeth rage":

F. Chronic open ulcerative pulpitis

G. Acute serous total pulpitis

H. Acute serous partial pulpitis

I. Chronic closed granulomatous pulpitis

J. Acute purulent partial pulpitis

B pg. 98

272. *Which of the following is TRUE for chronic closed granulomatous pulpitis

(Palazzi’s internal granuloma):

A. There is no risk for fractures

B. Vitality tests are negative at high intensity electrical test

C. Internal remineralization can be present on radiological

examination

D. Internal demineralization can be present on radiological

examination

E. Axial percussion is positive

D pg.109

43

Theme 37.

Pulp necrosis and gangrene

273. *Vital pulpectomy represents the treatment of choice in all the following

pathologies with ONE EXCEPTION:

A. Chronic proper closed pulpitis

B. Chronic closed granulomatous pulpitis (Palazzi’s internal

granuloma)

C. Septic/aseptic necrosis

D. Acute purulent partial pulpitis

E. Acute serous total pulpitis

C pg.113-

114

274. Choose the correct types of pulp necrosis, according to its classification:

A. Aseptic, septic

B. Partial, total

C. Acute, chronic

D. Closed, opened

E. Toxic, non-toxic

AB pg. 110-

111

275. Which of the following represent chemical-toxic factors implicated in the

ethiopathogeny of pulp necrosis:

A. Traumatisms

B. Silver-nitrate

C. Arsenic

D. High thermal variations

E. Paraformaldehyde

BCE pg. 111

276. The differential diagnosis in septic necrosis is done with:

A. Acute pulpitis

B. Chronic pulpitis

C. Aseptic necrosis

D. Acute apical periodontitis

E. Chronic apical periodontitis

BCE pg.114

277. Which of the following affirmations regarding the evolution/complications of

septic pulp necrosis is true:

A. It can lead to apical periodontitis

B. It can lead to aseptic pulp necrosis

C. It can lead to focal infection (hot bed)

D. Chronic pulpitis is one of its possible complications

E. All of the above

AC pg.114

278. Which of the following are true regarding the treatment of septic and aseptic

pulp necrosis:

A. Isolation is not necessary during treatment

B. At least one antiseptic session (antiseptic intracanalar medication)

is recommended on the classic approach

C. Mechanical treatment should be minimal

D. Treatment of aseptic necrosis should be similar to the treatment of

septic necrosis

E. All the above are true

BD pg. 113-

114

279. *Bacterial contamination in septic necrosis may come from:

A. Dental decays (carious lesions)

B. Accidental opening of the pulp chamber

E pg.113

44

C. Secondary canals/periodontal pockets

D. Ascoli phenomenon

E. All of the above

38th Theme:

Acute and chronic apical periodontitis

280. Differential diagnosis in acute hyperaemic apical periodontitis is done with:

A. Septic/aseptic necrosis

B. Acute total pulpitis

C. Serous acute apical periodontitis

D. Reactivated chronic apical periodontitis

E. Purulent acute apical periodontitis

BCD pg.119-

120

281. *Radiologic examination in acute serous apical periodontitis may show:

A. Folliculitis of included teeth

B. Radiolucency with well delimited contour

C. Mild widening of the periapical space

D. Radiopacity with well delimited contour

E. Intense round radiolucency

C pg. 121

282. Differential diagnosis in acute serous apical periodontitis is done with:

A. Traumatisms

B. Acute serous total pulpitis

C. Folliculitis of included teeth

D. Purulent acute apical periodontitis

E. Aseptic necrosis

BCD pg. 121

283. The symptomatology in acute serous apical periodontitis includes:

A. Mobility of the tooth

B. Adenopathy

C. Altered general state of health

D. Positive vitality test

E. Light pain

ABC pg.121

284. Choose the right answers regarding the evolution/complications of purulent

acute apical periodontitis:

A. Chronic fistula

B. Aseptic pulp necrosis

C. Serous acute apical periodontitis

D. Osteomyelitis

E. Suppuration in neighbouring areas

ADE pg.124

285. Which of the following are true regarding the treatment of purulent acute

apical periodontitis:

A. Drainage (endodontic, transmaxillar) is recommended

B. Treatment may include antibiotics

C. A muco-periosteal incision may be necessary

D. Treatment is similar to that of serous acute apical periodontitis

E. All the above are true

ABC pg. 124

286. *Clinical forms of chronic apical periodontitis (CAP) with contoured

radiologic image include:

D pg.125

45

A. Fibrous CAP, connective granuloma, cystic granuloma, condensed

osteitis

B. Connective granuloma, epithelial granuloma, cystic granuloma,

diffuse progresive CAP

C. Condensed osteitis, diffuse progresive CAP, fibrous CAP,

periapical chronic abcess (Phoenix)

D. Fibrous CAP, epithelial granuloma, connective granuloma, CAP

with hypercementosis

E. All of the above

Theme 39:

Treatment of pulp necrosis and gangrene

287. *The methods used in preparing root canals are:

A. manual

B. sonic

C. ultrasonic

D. laser

E. all of the above

E pg.183

288. *From the methods for measuring root canal lenght which one is considered

the most accurate:

A. clinical method

B. clinical and radiological method

C. radiological method

D. CBCT method

E. electronic method

E pg.170

289. *The local causes of bleeding from the root canal may be:

A. incomplete pulp extirpation

B. perforation of pulp chamber floor

C. false ways with marginal periodontal damage

D. wide open apex in children and young

E. all of the above

E pg.157

290. *Calcium hydroxide has the following uses, except:

A. canal antiseptic

B. canal irrigant

C. local analgesic

D. pulp capping

E. dentin remineralization

C C 13,

S 17

291. *Periapical surgery is indicated in these cases, except:

A. when canal morphology does not allow its seal

B. filling stops at the apical constriction

C. exceeding unresorbable materials

D. to avoid damaging a tooth crown of an incorrectly treated tooth

E. big cystic lesions rebel to endodontic treatment

D pg. 222

292. If there are obstacles like mineralizations inside canal, the mechanical

treatment can be associated with these chemical solutions:

A. EDTA solution 17%

B. EDTA gel, 17%

AB pg.194

46

C. 50-60% sulfuric acid solution

D. 30% chlorhidric acid solution

E. 1% chlorhexidine solution

293. Permeability of root canals can be achieved with the following instruments:

A. Miller files

B. fine and very fine Kerr files

C. fine and very fine tirre-nerf files

D. fine Hedstroem files

E. fine Gates- Glidden drills for enlarging the canal entrance

BE pg.173

Theme 40:

Root canal filling techniques

294. *Which of the following techniques of radicular filling is performed by

injecting soften hot gutapercha:

A. vertical warm condensation

B. Thermafil system

C. Ultrafil system

D. McSpadden technique

E. FibreFill system

C pg. 216

295. *Hand-spreaders have the following advantages over finger-spreaders:

A. easy to use in frontal areas

B. allow rotation around their axis in both directions

C. allow easy removal from the canal without dislocation of

gutapercha

D. are thinner

E. are more efficient in the distal areas

E C14 ,

S11

296. *The following conditions make the root canal filling possible, except:

A. to have a dry canal

B. absence of intracanalar bad smell

C. absence of apical symptomatology

D. positive bacteriological test

E. no intracanalar bleeding

D pg. 200

297. *The ”tug-back” sensation means:

A. provides a good fitting of the accesory cone

B. shows the adaptation of the master cone in the middle third of the

canal

C. ensurse a tight sealing at the apical constriction

D. is felt only with silver cones

E. can give a phenomenon of apical irritation

C pg. 208

298. *Vertical warm condensation technique has a the following advantages:

A. takes longer time

B. can be used in internal resorbtions

C. no need for widening the canal

D. higher frequency of underfillings

E. reduced consumption of gutta-percha cones

B pg. 210

299. In the warm gutta percha injection technique:

A. proper root canal cleaning is needed

AB pg.215

47

B. respecting the rules for root canals preparation

C. doesn’t need a sealing cement to achieve a good apical closure

D. apical placement of the cannula tip

E. doesn’t need the widening of the root canal

300. The disadvantages of gutta percha thermoplastic condensation (Mc Spadden)

are:

A. is faster

B. possible compactor fracture

C. not obturating all canal space

D. facilitate overfilling in the absence of a proper apical stop

E. doesn’t reach the apical part of the canal

BD pg. 213

Theme 41:

Treatment of acute and chronic apical periodontitis

301. *In acute suppurative apical periodontitis subperiosteal stage, is not

reccomended:

A. endodontic drainage

B. transosseous drainage

C. alveolar drainage

D. analgesic medication

E. intracanalar dressing with antiseptics

E pg.124

302. *Treatment of acute hyperaemic apical periodontitis :

A. is not necessary

B. is done only in presence of fistula

C. has to be correlated with the cause

D. no medication has to be used

E. needs more than 3 sessions to be completed

C pg. 120

303. *In acute serous apical periodontitis, the treatment can include the followings,

except:

A. endodontic drainage

B. endodontic surgery

C. root canal treatment

D. biopulpectomy

E. analgesic medication

D pg.124

304. *The treatment of the internal granuloma of Palazzi can include the

following, except:

A. removal of the pulp tissue

B. root canal cleaning with antiseptic irrigants

C. the use of ultrasonic devices

D. root canal filling by lateral cold compaction

E. root canal medication

D pg. 124

305. *The symptomatology in the periapical granuloma:

A. acute painful episodes

B. the presence of a fistula

C. pain to palpation in the apical area of the tooth

D. need for analgesic medication

E pg. 124

48

E. vitality tests negative

306. The treatment of a cystic granuloma can include:

A. medication with calcium hydroxide

B. abundant irrigations with antiseptics

C. root amputation

D. apicectomy

E. expectation of pathological phenomena remission

ABCD

C17 , S7

307. The evolution of a chronic apical abcces can be:

A. extension of the inflamation to the neighbouring areas

B. chronic fistula

C. acutization (reactivation)

D. tooth extrusion

E. acute total pulpitis

ABC C17 , S9

Theme 42.

The morphology of the marginal periodontium

( 1/pag. 9-20)

308. The functional peridontium is formed of:

A. Free gingiva

B. Radicular cementum

C. Desmodontium

D. Attached gingiva

E. Alveolar bone

BCE pag.10

309. Which of the following statements regarding the papilla are true:

A. Is shorten and narrowed when the contours are flat

B. Is shorten and narrowed when the proximal contours are more

convex

C. Is part of the gingiva situated buccaly or/ and lingual

D. Prominent papillae are seen when the teeth are crowded

E. Prominent papillae are associated to diastema

AD pag. 11

310. *The gingival groove is demarcated by:

A. An internal wall – gingival

B. An internal wall – dental

C. An internal wall – the junctional epithelium

D. An external wall – dental

E. An external wall – the junctional epithelium

B pag. 11

311. The following statements regarding the interdental gingiva are true:

A. It is placed in the incisal embrasure

B. It is pyramid shaped in the posterior area

C. It is pyramid-shaped in the frontal area

D. It has the aspect of a tent with a depression on the upper edge,

laterally

E. It has the aspect of a tent with a depression on the lower edge in

the frontal area

CD pag. 11

312. The unattached gingiva is formed of:

A. The palatal mucosa

B. The papillae

BE pag. 10

49

C. The periodontal ligaments

D. The lingual mucosa

E. The marginal gingiva

313. *The following affirmations regarding the consistency of the healthy gingiva

are true:

A. It is smooth

B. It is allways depressible

C. It is very fluctuant

D. It is very laxe when compressed with a blunt probe

E. It is firm, especially in the area of fixed gingiva

E pag. 13

314. The dimensions of dentoalveolar space varies depending on:

A. The degree of tooth functionality

B. The gender

C. The race

D. The eruption degree

E. Systemic diseases

ADE pag. 17

Theme 43.

The etiopathogeny of chronic marginal periodontitis

( 1/pag. 21-46)

315. Which of the following are predispozing factors of irritation:

A. Traumas from occlusion

B. Calculus

C. Smoking

D. Oral respiration

E. Materia alba

BCE pag.22

316. *The bacterial plaque:

A. Is a hard deposit that accumulates on teeth

B. it has a shiny aspect

C. It cannot adhere on artificial surfaces

D. It looks like a matt white-yellowish deposit

E. Can be found especially n the occlusal 1/3 of the tooth

D pag. 22-

23

317. Based on the relationship to the gingival margin, the dental plaque can be:

A. Attached plaque

B. Supragingival plaque

C. Health associated plaque

D. Unattached plaque

E. Subgingival plaque

BE pag. 24

318. The local retentive factors for bacterial plaque can be:

A. Deep occlusal lessions

B. Smoking

C. Intensive tooth brushing

D. Clencing

E. Dental incongruences

AE pag. 26-

28

319. The following affirmation regarding claculus are true:

A. It is a soft deposit

B. It can adhere also on prosthetic work

BD pag. 32-

33

50

C. It contains only minerals

D. The subgingival calculus has a higher Calcium/Phosphorus ratio

E. It cannot adhere on orthodontic apliances

320. *The following statement regarding the consistency of the aliments is false:

A. The soft aliments produce more bacterial plaque

B. The soft aliments create a favorable environment for plaque

retention

C. The fibrous aliments favour the elimination of food debris

D. It has no role in the speed of plaque formation

E. The soft aliments can adhere to the teeth surfaces

D pag. 36

321. Which of the following is a local mechanism of smoking influencing the

periodontium :

A. The inhibition of fibronectin and collagen production

B. The vasodilaton on the peripheral blood vessels

C. The decrease of the neutrophils function

D. The hyperkeratosis

E. The inhibition of IgA production in the sulcus

ADE pag.35

Theme 44.

Diagnosis of gingival-periodontal disease

(2/2-10)

322. The diagnosis of periodontal disease aim to establish:

A. The importance f the attachement loss

B. The age of the patient

C. The type of the disease

D. The race

E. The state of activity or inactivity of the disease

ACE pag. 2

323. An inactive site is characterized by:

A. High number of altered PMN

B. Increased nuber of intact epithelial cells

C. Mobile bacteria

D. Minimum number of functional PMN

E. Absence of specific pathgenic flora

BDE pag. 3

324. The evaluation criteria of the periodontal disease activity are:

A. Geographical

B. Clinical

C. Microbiological

D. Biological

E. Financial

BCD pag. 3

325. The following represents conditions required for the loss of attachement:

A. The presence of virulent bacteria

B. The absence of protective bacteria

C. The presence of protective bacteria

D. Unfriendly environment for virulent bacteria

E. Poor defense system of the host

ABE pag. 3

326. Which of the following are bacterial virulence factors (Charon) related to

colonization:

CDE pag. 4

51

A. Chondroitin sulfate

B. Leucotoxin

C. Fimbriae

D. Adhesin

E. Bacteriocins

327. *Which of the following is not a bacterial virulence factors (Charon) related to

direct tissue destruction:

A. Collagenase

B. Hyaluronidase

C. Free radiclas

D. Proteases for Ig

E. Acid phosphatase

D pag. 4

328. Which of the following is true regarding the endotoxins produced by bacteria:

A. The leucotoxin of A.actinomycetemcomitans interfere with PMN

chemotaxis

B. Are pyretic

C. Are fibrinolytic

D. Induce bone resorbtion

E. Down-regulate the release of proteolysis enzymes

BCD pag. 4

Theme 45.

The classification of marginal periodontium diseases

( 2/pag. 11-18)

329. According to the Armitage (1999) Classification of periodontal diseases, are

gingival disease of viral origin:

A. Linear gingival erythema

B. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

C. Histoplasmosis

D. Varicella-zoster infections

E. Pyogenic granuloma

BD pag. 11

330. *Is not an gingival manifestation of systemic conditions associate to

mucocutaneous disorders:

A. Lichen planus

B. Lupus erythematosus

C. Allergic reaction to nickel

D. Pemphigoid

E. Erythema multiforme

C pag. 12

331. Are localized tooth-related factors that modify or predispose to plaque induced

gingivitis/periodontitis:

A. Lack of keratinized gingiva

B. Dental resorations/appliances

C. Root fractures

D. Cervical root resorption

E. Excessive gingival display

BCD pag. 14

332. According to Carranza and Neuman (1996) classification, gingivitis initiated

by plaque are modified by following systemic factors:

A. Hormonal changes

ABC pag. 15

52

B. Diabetes

C. Hematological and immunlogical conditions

D. High blood pressure

E. Medication

333. *Which of the following is not a periodontitis as a manifestaion of systemic

disease associated with genetic disorders:

A. Down syndrome

B. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome

C. Ehler-Danlos syndrome

D. Cohen syndrome

E. Sickle cell disease

E pag. 13

334. *According to Armitage (1999) classification, puberty associated gingivitis is

a:

A. Gingivitis associated with dental plaque only without other local

contributing factors

B. Cleukimia associated gingivitis

C. Gingivitis associated with dental plaque only with local

contributing factors

D. Gingival disease modified by siystemic factors associated with the

endocrine system

E. Linear gingival eithema

D pag. 11

335. *According to Armitage (1999) classification, periodontal disease is called

localized if:

A. Only one site is involved

B. More than 50% of teeth are involved

C. ≤ 30% of sites are involved

D. ≤ 10% of sites are involved

E. There is periodontal involvmen at least in one sextant

C pag. 12

Theme 46.

Clinical forms - symptoms in marginal periodontitis

( 2/pag. 31-60)

336. Clinical signs of moderate periodontitis are:

A. Bone loss of 1/3 of root length

B. Bone loss up to 1/2 of root length

C. Probing depth up to 4-5 mm

D. Probing depth up to 6-7 mm

E. Tooth mobility

BDE pag. 32

337. *Severe periodontitis is characterised by the following, except :

A. Severe attachement loss

B. Bone loss more than 1/2 of root length

C. Probing depts more than 8 mm

D. Infrabony pockets up to 6-7 mm

E. Incresed tooth mobility

D pag. 32

338. *The histopatological reason for pain during pocket probing is :

A. The blood flow stasis

B. The ulceration of the internal face of the pocket’s soft wall

B pag. 34

53

C. The atrophy of the internal epithelium

D. The suppurative process from the periodontal pocket

E. The dentinal hypersensitivity

339. *The pocket depth represents the distance measured between:

A. Gingival margin and cemento-enamel junction

B. Gingival margin and the gingival groove

C. Cemento-enamel junction and muco-gingival line

D. The bottom of the pocket and the muco-gingival line

E. The gingival margin and the epithellial attachement

E pag. 35

340. Regarding the cytotoxic modifications taking place inside periodontal pocket,

following staments are true:

A. Bactreia can not penetrate the cementum

B. Bactreia can penetrate the cementum up to cemento-dentinal

junction

C. Endotoxins are associated to floating bacterial plaque

D. In the cementum wall of the periodontal pocket can be found

bacterial products (endotoxins)

E. As a result of bacterial endotoxins infiltration into cementum,

areas of hypermineralisation appear

BD pag. 35

341. The content of periodontal pocket is represented by:

A. Blood vessels

B. Food debris

C. Salivary mucins

D. Leukocytes

E. Microorganisms and bacterial products

BCDE pag. 36

342. Which of the following statements regarding alveolysis are true :

A. The interdental crater is a 2 walls bony defect

B. The interdental crater is a 3 walls bony defect

C. Vertical bone loss is often accompanied by infra-bony pocket

D. Vertical bone loss is never accompanied by infra-bony pocket

E. The horizontal bone loss is the most common pattern

ACE pag. 37

Theme 47.

Evolution, prognosis and complications of periodontal diseases

( 2/pag. 61-74)

343. *The evolution of the periodontal disease that induce pathological

modifications only in periodontal tissues is:

A. Periapical abscess

B. Endo-periodontal syndrome

C. Root surface cavities

D. Cuneiform lesions

E. Periodontal abscess

E pag. 61

344. The local-regional signs of the acute periodontal abscess are:

A. The colour of gingiva is fiery-red

B. The hyperplasia is affecting both interdental papilla, marginal

gingiva and attaced gingiva

C. Satellite adenopathy

CE pag. 62

54

D. Painful gingiva

E. Cellulitis of the upper lip if an upper incisor is involved

345. The characteristics of a gingival abscess are:

A. It is localised next to the apex of the tooth

B. It is localised at the level of the marginal gingiva

C. Its evolution follows an existing periodontal pocket

D. Previously the gingiva was healthy

E. It is due to a gingival trauma

BDE pag. 63

346. *Most frequently, the predominant microorganism in root surface caries is:

A. Agregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

B. Prevotela intermedia

C. Actinomyces viscosus

D. Bacteroides forsithus

E. Fusobacterium nucleatum

C pag. 64

347. In the etiology of cuneiform lesions, are general factors:

A. Tooth mobility

B. Bulimia

C. Gingival hyperplasia

D. Drug therapy

E. Acid regurgitations

BDE pag. 65

348. Root hypersensitivity, as a complication of peridontal disease, may appear

after:

A. Scaling

B. Root planning

C. Profesional brushing

D. Periodontal surgery procedure

E. Filling a root cavity

ABD pag. 66

349. Refractory periodontitis is, by definition, resistant to treatment and can be

owed to :

A. Resistant bacteria

B. Untreated morphological problems

C. Defective defending mechanisms

D. Drug abuse

E. Lack of oral hygiene

ABC pag. 70

Theme 48.

The gingivitis treatment

( 1/pag. 157-217)

350. The shortcomings of strong root planning are:

A. Loss of tooth substance

B. Periapical periodontitis

C. Dentin sensitivity

D. Root caries

E. Soft tissue necrosis

ACD pag.

170

351. *Periodontal debridement is also known as:

A. Root planning

B. Maintenance treatment

C pag. 171

55

C. Detoxification

D. Scaling

E. Professional brushing

352. An effective instrumentation depends on these critcal factors:

A. Adequate access

B. Optimal adaptation

C. Insufficient access

D. Effective angulation of the instrument

E. Incomplete covering of the instrumented surface

ABD pag. 170

353. *Using the sickle scaler in the modified pen grasp, the angle of the blade to the

tooth is:

A. 60-70 degrees

B. 40-50 degrees

C. 80-90 degrees

D. 70-80 degrees

E. 90-100 degrees

D pag. 173

354. The following are true concerning the instrumentation technique for Gracey

curettes:

A. Correct adaptation is when the higher edge is against the tooth

B. Terminal shank is parallel to the long axis of the tooth

C. Activate the instrument with a pull upward stroke

D. Activate the instrument with a lateral stroke

E. The burden of the stroke is carried by flexing the fingers

BC pag. 175

355. Which of the following are types of ultrasonic inserts:

A. The probe shaped tip

B. Hoe shaped tip

C. Sickle shaped tip

D. Chisel shaped tip

E. Spatula shaped tip

ACE pag. 180

356. The following statements are part of the ultrasonic scaling technique:

A. The position of the patient must be as close as possible to

horizontal

B. The protection of the patient is ensured with a plastic bib on which

the absorbant bib is applied

C. The protection of the medic and nurse is ensured only with safety

glasses

D. The grasp of the instrument can be digital or digital modified

E. The working end is activated in constant movement with the tip

parallel to the dental surface

BDE pag. 181

Theme 49.

The marginal periodontitis treatment

( 2/pag. 75-138)

357. The etiological phase of periodontal treatment involves:

A. Occlusal therapy

B. Caries treatment

C. Correction of irritating prosthetic factors

ABC pag. 76

56

D. Periodontal surgery

E. Implant placement

358. *The maintenance phase of periodontal therapy involves:

A. Plaque and calculus removal

B. Plaque and calculus verification

C. Endodontic therapy

D. Equilibration of the occlusion

E. Scaling and root planning

B pag. 77

359. The auto-control plaque removal methods are:

A. Ultraviolet light

B. Chemical control of plaque

C. Toothbrushes

D. Irrigation devices

E. Supragingival scaling

BCD pag.79

360. *What are the contraindications of orthodontic therapy in the context of

periodontal disease:

A. Dental incongruences

B. Frontal diastema

C. Open interdental contacts

D. Reducing the plaque retention

E. Persistence of active inflammation

E pag. 94

361. What are the indictations of temporary immobilization:

A. Teeth with significant alveolysis

B. Teeth with mobility

C. Before orthodontic treatment

D. Teeth with long roots

E. Teeth with deep occlusion

ABE pag. 99

362. Which of the following antibiotics belong to the tetracycline class:

A. Metronidazole

B. Minocycline

C. Doxycycline

D. Ampicilin

E. Rodogyl

BC pag. 103

363. Which are the contraindications in administering tetracycline:

A. Children under 12

B. Liver disease

C. Elderly patients

D. Pregnancy

E. Gastritis

ABD pag. 105

Theme 50.

Main therapeutical directions and treatment schemes in gingivitis and

periodontitis

( 2/pag. 139-171)

364. Which of the following are caustic medication that should not be used in the

pain management of necrotizing-ulcerative gingivitis:

A. Silver nitrate

ACE pag. 142

57

B. Triclosan

C. Iodine

D. Peroxide

E. Zinc chloride

365. *In the Ist session of treatment for bacterial chronic gingivitis the following are

NOT performed:

A. Tracing local irritation sources

B. Questionnaire on oro-dental hygiene

C. Using plaque revelation substances to raise patient awareness

D. Scaling and root planning

E. Recommend the correct brushing technique

D pag. 145

366. The treatment of inflammatory chronic hypergrowth consists of:

A. Scaling

B. Curretage procedures

C. Surgical excision techniques of soft tissue

D. Discontinuation of the medication that caused it

E. Systemic administration of antibiotics is required

ABC pag. 147

367. *Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of prepubescent

periodontitis is NOT true:

A. It is due to a systemic condition

B. Must not be treated until the treatment of the systemic disease

C. Plaque accumulation must be prevented

D. Local irritants must be removed

E. Administration of antibiotics is required

B pag. 150

368. Which of the following is part of the treatment for refractory periodontitis:

A. Mechanical debridement will remove all bacteria from the

periodontal pockets

B. Scaling and root planning

C. Antibiotic combinations used as conjunct treatment

D. Surgical treatment to eliminate bacteria invaded tissue

E. The first stage of treatment is the surgical phase

BCD pag. 151

369. In the case of patients with stable angina pectoris, we must:

A. Premedicate with diazepam when necessary

B. Shedule the sessions early in the morning 7-8 a.m.

C. Never administer an anesthetic with adrenalin

D. Use preventive pre-medication with sublingual nitroglycerin tablet

E. Always use retractor wire and/or impregnated compress with

adrenaline

AD pag. 155

370. The following statements are part of periodontal therapy for patients with renal

affections:

A. Establishing good oral hygiene

B. Frequent re-evaluations are necessary

C. Tetracycline can be administered

D. Administration of aspirin is cautiously recommended

E. Streptomycine can be administered

ABD pag. 160

Theme 51

Dental Occlusion

58

371. Occlusal aria is natural if:

A. Presents just a filling cervical aria of 3.1

B. Presents cavities

C. Presents preventive occlusal fillings

D. Presents a crown

E. Presents a bridge

AB 13/190

372. Supporting cusps are:

A. Lingual on maxillar

B. Buccal in mandible

C. Lingual in mandible

D. Incisal edges in mandible

E. None above.

AB 13/191,

192

373. *Class II Angle means molar landmark:

A. mesialized

B. distalized

C. normal

D. buccalised

E. lingualized

B 13/204

374. Positive sagittal inocclusion means values of overjet:

A. 2 mm

B. 2,5 mm

C. 1,7 mm

D. 3mm

E. Overjet is not connected with sagittal inocclusion,

BD 13/204

375. Premature occlusal contacts are due to:

A. Caries

B. Dental migration

C. Dental rotation

D. Dental inclination

E. Incorrect prosthodontic treatments.

BCDE 13/211

376. Normal overbite is:

A. 1/3

B. 2/3

C. ¾

D. 4/5

E. 1/5.

AE 13/206

377. Corect test position in laterality assume:

A. Contact between bicuspids (premolars)

B. Contact between cuspids (canines) and lateral incisors

C. Contact between cuspids

D. Contact between cuspids, lateral incisors and molars

E. None above

AC 13/211

Theme 52

Temporomandibular disorder-TMD

378. Complementary examination of TMJ consists in: ABCD 27/88

59

A. profile teleradiography of skull,

B. TMJ tomography open/closed mouth

C. MRI

D. Ultrasonography of TMJ

E. None above

379. Neuromuscle reeducation therepy presents the next steps:

A. Eliminer hypercontraction and pain,

B. Correction of structure problems,

C. Rehabilitation of flexibility and reeducation of neurological

pathways,

D. Rehabilitation of muscle force throughout specific exercises

E. None above

ABCD 27/94

380. The educational and behaveurale therapy ha sthe next objectives:

A. Avoiding difficult mastication

B. To chew chewing-gum

C. Avoiding large opening of the mouth

D. Avoiding bruxism

E. Avoiding bad postures during the sleep.

ACDE 27/95

381. Local aplication of hot moisture has like effect:

A. Increase the blood flux in the aria

B. Muscle relaxation

C. anti-inflammatory effect

D. analgesique effect

E. increase the muscle contraction

ABD 27/95

382. The aim of occlusal splints are:

A. Maintaining the occlusal reports

B. Prevention of dental mobility

C. Decreasing of the pain

D. Modification of the forces at TMJ level

E. Increasing the bruxism action

BCD 27/100

383. The occlusal therapy includes the next elements:

A. Selective grinding

B. Prosthetic therapy

C. Orthodontic therapy

D. Orthopedic therapy

E. None above

ABCD 27/102

384. There are types of bruxism:

A. Day time,

B. Night time,

C. postural

D. centric,

E. ex centric

ABDE 27/105

Theme 53.

Clinical and paraclinical examinations in coronary odontal lesions and partially

reduced edentulism (pg. 116-190)

60

385. On the proportion of face floors, one can say:

A. The size of the lower floor is considered a reference for the other

two floors

B. In rest position, the lower floor can be increased by lateral

edentulism

C. In centric relation, the lower floor can be increased by defective

prosthodontic restorations of the posterior dental areas

D. In centric relation, the floors must be equal

E. In rest position, the floors must be equal

CD Pg. 124

386. The deep palpation addresses to:

A. the humidity of the teguments of the hands

B. the elasticity and quantity of subcutaneous tissue

C. the muscles of mimics

D. the muscles of mastication

E. the bone surfaces

CDE Pg.

125,12

6

387. Among the frequent changes of potential prosthodontic space parameters are:

A. Increased height consecutive to the resorption of the antagonist

alveolar ridge

B. Reduced height consecutive to the extrusion of antagonist teeth

C. Reduced amplitude due to the existence of exostoses

D. Increased amplitude due to incorrect prosthodontic restorations

E. Increased width due to buccal-oral inclinations of adjacent teeth

BE Pg. 138

388. The mechanical stability of tooth is improved:

A. When the ratio between the clinical crown length and the clinical

root length is 1/2

B. By hypercementosis

C. For multi-rooted teeth

D. When the emergence profile is accentuated

E. When alveolar resorption is accentuated

ABC Pg. 166

389. Temporomandibular joint tomography provides information on:

A. The position of condyles in centric relation

B. Morphological changes in the shape of the glenoid cavity,

mandibular condyles and articular eminence

C. The position of condyles in mouth closed position

D. The position of condyles in maximum mouth opening position

E. A and B

BCD Pg. 172,

173

390. On periapical X-ray one can assess:

A. The dental crown integrity

B. The degree of pulp inflammation

C. The shape of the section of the root canal

D. The thickness of the alveolar bone

E. The cervical adaptation of radio-opaque crowns

AE Pg. 164

391. On the study models one cannot check:

A. The dynamic occlusion

B. The dimensional parameters of potential prosthodeontic spaces

C. The existence of peri-apical lesions

D. The continuity of the dental arch

E. The position of the tooth on the dental arch

AC Pg. 160

61

Theme 54

The principles of treatment by single unit restorations and bridges

(pg. 202 - 266)

392. Local prophylaxis in the treatment of reduced partial edentulism should be

achieved by:

A. Primary prophylaxis, which addresses the sound teeth

B. Secondary prophylaxis, which addresses carious lesions,

periodontal disease and their complications

C. Tertiary prophylaxis, which addresses edentulism and its

complications

D. Gnathological prophylaxis, which addresses mandibular-cranial

relationship

E. All the above answers

ABC 213

393. Factors influencing the biomechanical value of teeth include:

A. Vitality of teeth

B. Crown morphology

C. Dento-periodontal morphology

D. Position of teeth on the dental arch

E. Existence of occlusal contact with the antagonist

ACDE 234-240

394. *The occlusal surface of the pontic must withstand bending through:

A. Concave shape

B. Convex shape

C. Correct morphology of the cusps

D. Attenuation of cusps morphology

E. Reducing of the pontic

B 247

395. When polynomial law cannot be satisfied by a bridge, it is necessary:

A. That the antagonist teeth are part of a denture

B. To reduce the height of the cusps

C. To make a linear pontic

D. To make a pontic in infra-occlusion

E. To make a pontic with a small width

ABCE 251

396. The ideal insertion axis of a bridge must:

A. Allow the easy removal of the restoration

B. Coincide with the direction of vertical chewing forces

C. Coincide with the axis of abutment teeth

D. Require a minimal preparation of abutment teeth

E. Ensure the retention of the bridge

BCDE 255

397. The biological principle aims:

A. The morphological recovery

B. To improve the ergonomics of medical activity

C. Preserve the dental tissues

D. The functional recovery

E. The periodontal protection

CE 218, 219

398. The preparation of the abutments is influenced by:

A. The state of their vitality

B. Their position on dental arch

ABCD

E

255

62

C. Their crown volume

D. The type of the chosen retainer

E. The degree of crown destruction

Theme 55.

Intracoronal and extracoronal unidental restorations

399. Ideally, the single unit restoration must meet the following biological

conditions:

A. Maximum retention surface

B. Physionomic appearance

C. Pulp prophylaxis

D. Periodontal prophylaxis

E. Minimum dental tissues sacrifice

CDE 304-306

400. On the orientation of the vertical walls of the inlay class II Black preparation,

one can say:

A. They must always be parallel to each other

B. They can be parallel to the insertion axis of the restoration

C. They may be diverging towards occlusal

D. It depends on the material of the restoration

E. It depends on the degree of required retention

BCDE 403

401. The depth of preparation for physiognomic mixed crown is:

A. 2 mm occlusal, for metal-ceramic crown

B. 1 mm on the oral face, in cervical area

C. 1.5 mm occlusal, for metal-ceramic crown

D. 1.5 mm on the buccal face, for the metal-ceramic crown

E. 2 mm on the buccal face, for the metal-composite crown

AD 441,442

402. Among the fundamental clinical-biological indices of the preparation for the

cover crowns, there are:

A. The buccal-oral index, because it focuses on the need to devitalize

teeth with a reduced diameter in the cervical area

B. The sagittal curve of the crown, because it helps to avoid the

planar preparation of the buccal face

C. The section of the cervical area, because it has a constant shape

and allows the standardization of the preparation

D. The mesio-distal index, because it reflects the need to remove the

undercuts of the proximal faces

E. The coronary length, because it is a marker for vestibular

preparation

BD 395

403. Among the general principles of teeth preparation for metal inlays, there are

the following:

A. The insertion axis of the inlay must coincide or be as close as

possible to the axis of the tooth and the direction of action of the

masticatory force

B. The vertical walls must be rigorously parallel to each other and

perpendicular to the bottom of the cavity (a slight divergence to the

bottom of the cavity is accepted of maximum 60)

ACDE 403

63

C. Preparation must be non-retentive in the sense of introducing the

inlay in the tooth and retentive in the other directions (retentive -

non-retentive preparation)

D. The protection of the dentin wound is carried out to avoid the pulp

reactions of the prepared tooth

E. Preparation limits should be placed in self-cleaning areas

404. The limits of the preparation for 4/5 partial crowns are not:

A. 0.6 supragingival on oral and proximal faces

B. 0.5 mm from the proximal faces of adjacent teeth

C. 0.5 mm buccal or oral from the contact points with adjacent teeth

D. 0,5 supragingival on oral and proximal faces

E. 1 mm of buccal face on buccal cusp

ABCE 418

405. The substitution crown cannot be:

A. Double prosthetic piece, formed by post-core and cover crown

B. Double prosthetic piece, formed by a root post and a metal core

C. A single prosthetic piece, formed by a root post and a box

D. Double prosthetic piece, named also Richmond crown

E. A single prosthetic piece, made of a single-piece post-retained

crown with a physiognomic veneer (Richmond crown)

BCD 450, 453

Theme 56. Structural elements of dental bridges

(pg. 303-340)

(Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale

intercalate. Ed. Apollonia, 2001)

406. The most biological crowns are, in order:

A. adhesive bridges, metallic crowns, ceramic crowns

B. partial crowns, inlays, metallic crowns

C. partial crown, adhesive bridges, mixed metallic and acrylic bridges

D. metallic crowns, mixed crowns, ceramic crowns

E. ceramic crowns, mixed metallic and ceramic substitution crowns

ABD pg.305

407. The type of the abutment dental crowns retention may be:

A. coronary partially intrinsic

B. coronary partially extrinsic

C. corono-radicular

D. occlusal

E. coronary totally extrinsic

BCE pg.311

408. The retention elements for the dental bridge are selected by means of:

A. frontal or lateral arches

B. the prosthetic axis of insertion

C. integrity of the abutment teeth

D. clinical experience

E. laboratory equipment

ABC pg.320

409. The dental bridge section can be:

A. a symmetrical saddle

B. teardrop shaped

C. straight

D. heart shaped

ADE pg.331

64

E. clover shaped

410. In a technological manner, the pontic of the dental bridge can be:

A. acrylic

B. metallic

C. physiognomic

D. sunken

E. galvanised

BC pg.336

411. The semi physiognomic bridge is obtained:

A. in a Y shaped form

B. in a T shaped form

C. in a box type

D. in a triangular form

E. In a form with additional retentions

ABC pg.338

412. The suspended dental pontic:

A. is located 5 mm from the edge of the dental crest

B. is located 2-3 mm from the edge of the dental crest

C. has biomechanical advantages

D. has biological advantages

E. has advantages by matter of hygiene

BDE pg.333

Theme 57. Stages of therapy though dental bridges: The Dental Molding Print

(pg.465-503) (Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate. Ed.

Apollonia, 2001)

413. The impression techniques of the prosthetic field are classified by:

A. impression materials

B. the sequence of their use

C. the degree of rigidity of the impression obtained

D. the number of impression materials used

E. the setting time of the materials used

ABD pg.466

414. The sectorial imprint of the prosthetic field can cause errors due to:

A. an imperfect reproducing of the occlusal contacts

B. the impossibility of rendering a dynamic occlusion

C. absence of the impression of neighboring teeth

D. the unstable occlusion

E. incorrect cervical adaptation of the metal ring, the impression

being achieved only by using this guidance technique

ABD pg.468/p

g.489/p

g.490

THEME 58. Fixed prosthodontics stages: Registration of mandibular-cranial

relationships

(pg. 503-529) (Vasile Burlui, Norina Forna, Gabriela Ifteni, Clinica si terapia edentatiei partiale intercalate. Ed.

Apollonia, 2001)

65

415. Cranial-mandibular relationships registration for fixed prostheses can be

performed from the impression step if:

A. occlusion is stable before dental polishing

B. the centric relation (CR) is stable before and after dental polishing

C. the terminal occlusion is accurate

D. the patient has no traumatic occlusion

E. occlusion parameters are stable before dental polishing

BC pg.504

416. The occlusion key in wax:

A. is not used to record cranial-mandibular relationships in fixed

prosthesis therapy

B. is not indicated in unstable occlusion

C. it may be completed with fluid silicone for better recording of

occlusal areas

D. it can be completed with inlay-wax for precise repositioning on

dental arches

E. it has the highest recording accuracy at a thickness of 0.5mm

BD pg.504/p

g.505

417. The provisional prosthesis type mask Scutan :

A. are indicated for the registration of the occlusion in cranio-

mandibular repositioning

B. are required to mount the laboratory models in the articulators

C. are made before the impression for definitive prostheses, when the

occlusion is unstable

D. are used to achieve occlusal stability

E. require metal devices to transfer occlusion to the articulator

ACD pg.506

418. The reproduction with articulators of the mandibular movements implies the

use of following reference elements:

A. The mandibular alveolar process parallel to the jaw

B. The vertical dimension of occlusion (DVO)

C. The Angle key

D. The maxillary plane parallel to the bi-pupillary line

E. The maxillary plane parallel to the Camper plane

AD pg.508/

pg.509

419. The clinical part of the NOR system, for cranial-mandibular relationships

records, is composed of:

A. the "mandifix" system designed to reproduce the three-dimensional

movements of the temporomandibular joints

B. facial arch, silicone occlusion key and wax occlusion key

C. two pantographs and an articulator

D. stems for recording dynamic mandibular paths

E. two pantographs

DE pg.509/

pg.510

420. In a partially edentulous case, with an unstable occlusion, the recording of

cranial-mandibular relationships, can be done with:

A. metallic capes

B. wax border

C. occlusion wax key

D. solid silicone

E. transitional prostheses after occlusal stabilization

BE pg.506

421. The zinc oxide-eugenol paste (Z.O.E.):

A. it is not used to record cranio-mandibular relationships in a

partially reduced edentation

B. it is an old and imprecise technique

DE pg.506

66

C. it does not indicate whether the number of occlusal contacts is

reduced

D. it is used in combination with borders wax

E. it can also be used to record the occlusion

Theme 59.

Clinical and paraclinical examinations in partial and total edentulism:

partial edentulism

422. The anamnesis has the following component sections:

A. history of the problem;

B. general and dental antecedents;

C. heredo-collateral and personal antecedents;

D. articular and muscular disorders, lesions of the mucosa;

E. re-optimization of old prosthetic restorations

ABC Cap.5,

Pg.80

423. *The face inspections will analyze the following elements but one :

A. The face shape.

B. General morphological, static and dynamic aspect.

C. The proportion of the facial levels

D. Skin temperature.

E. The colour of the teguments.

D C5/85-

86

424. *By palpating the muscular mass we evaluate:

A. the development of the muscle and any volumetric changes;

B. sensitivity: painful points, radiation zones, trigger zones;

C. consistency;

D. tonicity;

E. all answers are correct.

E C5/90

425. The mobilizing muscles of the mandible are:

A. temporal;

B. masseter;

C. external pterygoid , internal pterygoid, geniohyoid, mylohyoid;

D. digastric, sternocleidomastoidian, muscles of the tongue;

E. temporal, masseter, external pterygoid , internal pterygoid,

geniohyoid, mylohyoid, orbicular, buccinator, narinari.

ABCD C5/90

426. *The static inspection of the temporomandibular joint is made at the level of:

A. the retroauricular region;

B. the pretragian and the mentonian region;

C. the Camper's plan;

D. the Frankfurt's plan;

E. all answers are correct.

B C5/94

427. The dynamic inspection of the temporomandibular joint assesses:

A. the cranio-mandibular disorders;

B. the condylar path;

C. the excursions of the front menton (symmetry to the medio-sagittal

plan) and of the profile menton (the movement path of the

menton);

D. the amplitude of mouth opening;

E. the answers A and B are correct.

BCD C5/94

67

428. *The clinical examination classical procedures are:

A. Inspection.

B. Palpation.

C. Perception.

D. Hearing.

E. All the answers are correct.

E C5/p85

429. The vitality tests can be made using:

A. thermal stimuli -cold;

B. thermal stimuli -hot;

C. Fire.

D. Exploratory drilling.

E. Chemicals.

ABD 5/102

430. In the case of bone deformations at the palpation of the bone plane, the

examination will record:

A. localization;

B. limits;

C. size, aspect of the surface;

D. consistency;

E. relation with soft tissues.

ABCD

E

5/92

431. The causes of Physiological Transitory dental mobility are:

A. after periodontal/periapical surgical operations;

B. the ample prosthetic restorations,

C. the excessive orthodontic forces;

D. after a prolonged disocclusion (after sleep)

E. during certain physiological states when the level of vasoactive

hormones is elevated (period/pregnancy).

DE 5/107

432. The occlusal parameters are:

A. morphology of occlusal areas, supporting cusps, guiding cusps;

B. sagittal occlusion curve, transversal occlusion, front curving;

C. morphology of occlusal areas, sagittal occlusion, transversal

occlusion curve, front curving, Camper plane;

D. sagittal occlusion curve, transversal occlusion, front curving,

Frankfurt plane;

E. occlusal plane.

ABE 5/114

433. Paraclinical examinations of the oral mucosa:

A. Cytologic exam.

B. Stomatoscopic exam.

C. Vitamin C test.

D. Intravital colouring.

E. Correct answers A, B, C.

ABCD 5/121

434. The study model:

A. It is a complementary exam.

B. Offers the possibility to visualize some area that are difficult to

access through clinical exam.

C. The models will be examined separately, in occlusion and fixed, in

the simulator.

D. Correct answers A, B.

E. All answers are incorrect.

ABC 7/143

435. *The ligamentary path represent:

A. the path of postural closing;

B 7/117

68

B. the path of closing in centric relation;

C. the path of point-centric;

D. the path of wide centric;

E. the path of long-centric.

Theme 59.

Clinical and paraclinical examinations in partial and total edentulism:

total edentulism

436. *The general personal history:

A. will correlate with age, sex, physiological state, etc.

B. is used to study mandibulocranial relations;

C. is used to assess the condition of the muscles;

D. is used in the study of occlusion;

E. will correlate with diseases of the nervous system

A p. 32

437. *Laboratory examinations of mandibulocranial relations are performed using:

A. a photoelectric simulation;

B. occlusion keys;

C. Computerized occlusal analysis;

D. the electromyograph;

E. no answer is correct.

B p. 74

438. Family dental history is analyzed to detect:

A. metabolic disorders;

B. heart disease;

C. neurological disorders;

D. maxillary dental abnormalities;

E. multiple cavities.

DE p.33

439. The cervicofacial examination is performed:

A. by superficial and deep palpation;

B. face and profile inspection;

C. A and B are the only correct answers;

D. auscultation;

E. all the answers are correct.

ABD p.34

440. Palpation:

A. accompanies and completes the inspection;

B. is made superficial and deep;

C. follows articular noises;

D. follows the development of the goniac angle;

E. A and D are correct answers.

AB p.36

441. Living and working conditions give data on:

A. diet

B. stereotype of chewing;

C. if there are professional tics;

D. the shape of the gangliones;

E. changes in the joints.

ABC p.34

442. The pocket of Eisenring:

A. is examined by superficial palpation;

B. is examined by inspection with a mirror by removing soft tissue;

BD p.43

69

C. it is an area with physiognomic importance;

D. the width is made by tilting the mandible towards the opposite side

to this question;

E. is examined by pulling the lip outward for maximum visibility.

Theme 60.

Partial removable prosthesis. Structure of removable prosthesis

443. *The next affirmations are correct but one:

A. The acrylic saddles are made of polymethacrylate methyl of 2 mm

thickness.

B. The vestibular versant shapes itself and stretches till the reflection

zone of the mobile mucosis.

C. This oral versant can miss from the saddle when the edentulous

ridge from this area is outlined.

D. At the tuberosity level the acrylic saddle will cover this biostatic

area.

E. The acrylic saddle will cover the piriform tuberculus.

C cap

6/165

444. *The oral side of the acrylic saddle has to have:

A. a height equal to the buccal side;

B. a height bigger than the buccal side;

C. a height smaller than the buccal side;

D. a lenght bigger than the buccal side;

E. the answers a) and d) are correct

A cap

6/165

445. *Chayes shows:

A. the occlusal stress force must fall in the middle of the saddle;

B. the surface of a saddle must be at least twice the cervical surface of

the replaced teeth.;

C. the attenuation of the stress on the soft and hard support tissues by

reducing the occlusal surface of the artificial teeth with 10% for

each tooth that it replaces;

D. the number of saddles to be executed must be equal to the number

of edentulous breaches;

E. All are incorrect answers

B cap

6/166

446. About the palatal acrylic major connectors are true the next affirmations:

A. They are rigid.

B. Should be placed as symmetrical as possible.

C. They must insure periodontal prophylaxis.

D. The thickness is 3 mm;

E. Correct answers A,B,C,D.

ABC cap

6/167

447. About palatal acrylic major connector are true the next affirmations:

A. The thickness is 3 mm.

B. Totally covers the palate up to the second molar;

C. The external face is polished.

D. Plays the role of a counter clasp while in contact with the palatinal

face of the remaining teeth.

E. They are not rigid.

CD cap

6/167

70

448. Alveolar acrylic simple clasps:

A. are extensions of the saddles ;

B. are extensions of the main connector;

C. are using the buccal or oral retentive areas on the alveolar ridge;

D. transfer mastication forces towards the soft and hard tissues

support;

E. Transfer the stress forces to the major connector.

AC cap

6/172

449. The Dento-alveolar acrylic simple clasps:

A. Have the shape of a interrupted circle;

B. leaning on the tooth;

C. leaning partially on the tooth, partially on the alveolar process;

D. Can be acrylic or mixed, metallic-acrylic;

E. Correct answers B,C,D.

ACD cap

6/172

450. *Dental opened cervico-alveolar clasp:

A. Also called "clasp with shoulder".

B. suitable on retentive teeth .

C. provides support by shoulder;

D. The loop form could be in the shape of W.

E. is located at 0,6 - 0,7mm from the alveolar mucosa.

B cap

6/173

451. The alveolar clasp:

A. Is set up from two wire segments located on the vestibular wall of

the frontal process.

B. Is set up from two wire segments located on the oral wall of the

frontal process.

C. The retention depends of the retentivity of the alveolar process.

D. The retention depends of the retentivity of the teeth.

E. Correct answers B,C.

AC cap

6/174

452. Round or semi round wire clasps:

A. present a big elasticity in all ways;

B. has 0, 6 - 0, 8 mm diameter;

C. reduced contact with the tooth.

D. has 0, 9 - 1mm diameter;

E. Provides stiffness to the denture.

ABC cap

6/172

453. *Dental open cervical-occlusal clasp:

A. Suitable for teeth with moderate retentivity;

B. Suitable on the mezialized molars.

C. suitable when on the arch there are two neighboring residual teeth

D. Recommended in terminal edentulous areas also as an anti

swinging device;

E. The retention depends of the retentivity of the alveolar process

A cap

6/172

454. Interdental cervico-occlusal clasps are:

A. Stahl.

B. Adams.

C. Schwartz.

D. Jakson.

E. Ackers

ABCD cap

6/173

455. *Bidental cervical-occlusal clasp:

A. The retention depends of the retentivity of the alveolar process;

B. Reciprocity is ensured by the major connector, orally situated;

C. Suitable on the mezialized molars.

B cap

6/173

71

D. Recommended in terminal edentulous areas also as an anti

swinging device;

E. Recommended in class III Kennedy edentation.

456. Edentulous area opened cervical-occlusal clasp

A. Suitable in terminal edentulous areas;

B. Recommended in class III Kennedy edentation.

C. has an antiswinging action.

D. Suitable on the mezialized molars.

E. Has a large contact surface with the tooth

AC cap

6/173

457. Dental opened cervico-alveolar clasp:

A. also called "clasp with loop".

B. is indicated for the retentive teeth.

C. it is opened towards the edentation.

D. the bow can have eighter a "Z" or a "V" form.

E. is located at 0,5 - 0,6 mm from the alveolar mucosa.

ABDE cap

6/173

458. Edental opened cervico-alveolar clasp:

A. Is recommended in interspread partial edentation.

B. Is recommended in the terminal edentation.

C. It offers a good retention.

D. It presents a weak embracing.

E. Correct answers A,C,D.

BCD cap

6/173

459. Interdental cervico-alveolar clasp:

A. Used for the vestibular interproximal zone.

B. Used for the oral interproximal zone.

C. It ends with an interdentally located bow.

D. Recommended in the frontal zone.

E. Correct answers A,C,D.

AC cap

6/173

460. *Flexible acrylate Valplast:

A. It belongs to the Nylon family;

B. Valplast removable partial dentures are the most flexible of the

acrylic removable partial dentures ;

C. it can be processed in very thick and flexible form;

D. Valplast removable partial dentures are the first choice in treating

patients with a large torus or with palatal clefts.


E cap

6/173

461. Artificial arcades- the biomechanical rules are:

A. Chayes: the saddle surface > 2x the sectioned in cervical surface of

the tooth that is removed.

B. Conod: the solicited force must be directed into the middle of the

saddle.

C. Ant: the occlusal surface diminishment a.d. of 10% for each

removed tooth.

D. Ackermann: the 3H rule.

E. Correct answers B,C,D.

ABCD cap

6/166

462. The Acrylic resin saddles:

A. Are designed to support artificial teeth;

B. transfer mastication forces towards the soft and hard tissues

support ;

C. Transfer the stress forces to the major connector;

D. represent an anti swinging element;

ABCD cap

6/166

72

E. Present one side.

463. The role of the main connector are:

A. The liant connection between the saddles.

B. They transmit the solicitation force from one saddle to another

saddle.

C. They transmit the solicitation force from one saddle to EMSS.

D. Correct answers A,B.

E. All are incorrect answers.

ABC cap

6/166

Theme 61.

Structural elements of partially skeletized prosthesis

464. *Minor connectors:

A. Are rigid elements of the metallic frame prosthesis;

B. The secondary connectors can be: elastic, rigid, articulated.

C. Elastic secondary connectors are "S" shaped and link the

segmented saddles with the main connector in the Rigolet system.

D. Rigid secondary connectors are frequently used and can be

localized proximally.

E. All answers are correct.

E 6/pag.19

6

465. *The Metallic Major Connector Plate:

A. Can be located on the maxilla.

B. Can be located on the mandible.

C. Can be located both on the maxilla or the mandible.

D. The plate-like main connectors are metallic bands more than 8 mm

wide.

E. The plate-like main connectors are metallic bands 0,5-0,8 mm thick.

C 6/pag.19

3

466. Back action clasp:

A. Applied especially on molars ;

B. Applied especially on premolars and canines ;

C. Has a very good elasticity ;

D. the occlusal rest doesn’t have a minor connector ;

E. All the answers are correct.

BCD 6/pag.21

3

467. *Roach System uses for retention:

A. the proximal areas of the lateral sides of the teeth;

B. the vestibular and oral parts of the teeth;

C. the occlusal face of the teeth;

D. telescoping crowns;

E. the bars

A 6/pag.21

4

468. The Circumferential clasp with 6 arms or Bonwill Clasp:

A. Is formed from two Ney nr.1 clasps, bound in their bodies ;

B. Presents an excellent support ;

C. Presents very good bracing ;

D. Presens good retention ;

E. Placed usually on the frontal teeth.

BCD 6/pag.21

8

469. Continuous Clasp :

A. Present good retention ;

B. has very good support and stabilization element;

BD 6/pag.21

8

73

C. Placed usually on the premolars;

D. often used as antiswinging element in partial edentation Kennedy

Class I;

E. applied on the oral and occlusal side of the lateral teeth.

470. *Half and half Clasp:

A. applied especially on the premolars in Kennedy class I edentations;

B. it is a clasp with three arms;

C. It is a bi-active clasp but not offer support and bracing;

D. applied especially on the premolars in Kennedy class II

edentations;


E 6/pag.21

9

471. The Arrow Clasp (flash):

A. recommendable in Kennedy class I and II;

B. recommendable in Kennedy class III and IV;

C. Has an extended minor connector which bridges over the alveolar

process;

D. leans interdentally under the contact point;

E. Present very good bracing.

ACD 6/Pag.22

0

472. *The Retentiometer has the following dimensions ;

A. 0,50 mm; 0,75 mm; 1 mm;

B. 0.25 mm; 0.50 mm; 0.75 mm.

C. 0,50 mm; 1 mm; 1,5 mm;

D. 0,30 mm; 0,45 mm; 0,75mm;

E. 0.25 mm; 0.50 mm; 1 mm

B 6/Pag.1

99

473. The Retentiometer allows:

A. Drawing the prosthetic equator;

B. Establishing the most acceptable insertion axis and uninsertion of

the denture;

C. measuring the dental retentivities ;

D. establishment of the position place of the terminal part, flexible, of

the retentive arm of the clasp

E. All the answers are correct

CD 6/Pag.1

99

474. Equi-poise Clasp:

A. has a free rest situated in an occlusal face of the molars;

B. has a free rest situated in an occlusal proximal incrustation;

C. recommendable on abutment teeth visible;

D. it is a clasp with three arms;

E. it is a clasp with four arms.

BC 6/Pag.21

9

475. Nally-Martinet Clasp:

A. the occlusal rest is situated in the mesial grove;

B. is a circumferential clasp;

C. usually used on premolars;

D. has a free rest situated in an occlusal proximal incrustation;

E. the minor connector has shape of "S".

ABC 6/Pag.21

9

476. *The Dolder bar:

A. Is a bar applied in subtotal edentation on the last remaining teeth.

B. The teeth will be treated and prepared for receiving substitution

crowns.

C. The supporting elements are capes with radicular pivots on which

the Dolder bar is applied.

E 6/Pag.23

0

74

D. On the section, reported to the alveolar ridge, the bar can have

different forms: elliptic, pear shaped, tear drop.


477. *About the Ackermann bar is false:

A. Is an round bar.

B. Is used when the edentulous ridge between the remaining teeth is

not rectilinear, but curved.

C. It has the advantage that it extends the dento-periodontal

solicitation beyond the supportive area.

D. Even 2 bars with distal extension can be built.

E. Dental implants are recommended in order to balance the forces.

A 6/Pag.23

0

478. RPI Clasp (Rest-Proximal-Played-I):

A. The occlusal rest is left in the mesial grove and supported by a

minor connector placed interdentally;

B. The occlusal rest is left in the mesial grove and supported by a

minor connector placed on the mesial part of the tooth;

C. the proximal lingual plate which guides the denture and provides

reciprocation with the retentive arm;

D. Applied on premolars or molars in secondary malposition;

E. applied especially on the premolars in Kennedy class III

edentations.

AC 6/Pag.21

9

479. Hair pin clasp:

A. Applied on premolars or molars in secondary malposition;

B. The occlusal rest is left in the mesial grove and supported by a

minor connector placed interdentally;

C. it is an Equi-poise clasp, with recurved elastic arm, forming a loop

in hair pin;

D. The retentive arm is turned in the retention area towards the

restants teeth.

E. The retentive arm is turned in the retention area towards the

edentation.

AE 6/Pag.21

9

480. T clasp with extended minor connector:

A. Used in Kennedy class III and IV edentations;

B. Used in Kennedy class I and II edentations;

C. The extended minor connector starts from the middle of the saddle

D. has a rigid minor connector;

E. has a very elastic minor connector.

BCE 6/Pag.22

0

481. The stabilisation is:

A. the function through which the clasp hampers the involuntary

separation of the denture from the prosthetic field;

B. owed to the retentive arm of the clasp;

C. function through which the clasp opposes to horizontal

movements;

D. the rigid elements of the clasp must be bilaterally placed;

E. function of the clasp through which the effect of the flexible part

of the retentive arm is neutralized, which stresses horizontally the

abutment tooth during insertion and uninsertion.

CD 6/pag.20

2

482. The sustentation is:

A. the function through which the clasp hampers the involuntary

separation of the denture from the prosthetic field;

AB 6/pag.2

02

75

B. owed to the retentive arm of the clasp;

C. function through which the clasp opposes to horizontal

movements;

D. the rigid elements of the clasp must be bilaterally placed;

E. function of the clasp through which the effect of the flexible part

of the retentive arm is neutralized, which stresses horizontally the

abutment tooth during insertion and uninsertion.

483. The support is:

A. function through which the clasp opposes to vertical movements in

mucosal direction, ensuring the periodontal support;

B. the main element which ensures the periodontal support is the rest;

C. the internal rests will be placed on the teeth covered with micro

dentures;

D. the external rests can be applied on the uncovered teeth in small

places operated in enamel by milling;

E. owed to the retentive arm of the clasp;

ABCD 6/pag.2

02

484. Retention is:

A. the function of the clasp that provided the stability of the denture

laterally;

B. This function is realized by placing the elastic arm in the support

cone ;

C. the function which tends to pose the vertical separation forces;

D. This function is realized by placing the elastic arm in the retention

cone

E. the answers A and B are correct

CD 6/pag.20

2

485. *A coronary total telescoping:

A. Imposes a conjunct construction that is fixed on the prepared

organic structure.

B. The system is made up of a metallic cape with a cervical margin.

C. The telescoping crown is in tight relation with the metallic cape,

and towards, the exterior it reproduces the morphology of the

tooth, being connected to the main connector.

D. Retention is offered by the friction between the cape and the

telescoping crown.


E 6/pag.22

4

486. *The partial ring telescoping:

A. Is a construction based on a conjunct element.

B. Is a construction based on a metallic cape.

C. Is a construction based on a ring shape element.

D. Correct answers A,B,C.

E. Correct answers A,B.

D 6/pag.22

4

487. *The partial crown telescopation of the Steigard type crown:

A. Is obtained from a conjunct element.

B. The conjunct element could be semiphysionomic.

C. The conjunct element could be a metallic crown.

D. The lateral faces of the oral cusp are parallel.


E 6/pag.22

4

488. *The Kelly crown:

A. Is a crown which is used on teeth or radicular remaining.

A 6/pag.22

4

76

B. The teeth needs a different preparation than that for a substitution

crown.

C. The disadvantage is the physiognomic aspect.

D. All answers are wrong.


489. *The caps- all affirmations are true but one:

A. Are another variant of the telescopation.

B. This device is there fixed to the prepared substructure.

C. At the level of the prosthetic appliance, a cap is fixed, which will

allow the activation of this metallic part.

D. A variant of the metallic caps is the using of the elastic silicon

material, which can be added to the retentive sphere, allowing us

the insertion and extraction of the prosthesis.

E. Some types of prefabricated caps are: Sandri, Bona, Dalbo, Bayer.

D 6/pag.22

4

490. *The intracoronar glidings:

A. Are disjunctive elements which are fixed on the organic

substructure.

B. Are conjunctive elements which are fixed on the organic

substructure by a metallic crown.

C. The retentive cavity necessary for a deep preparation of the

organic substructure is not profound.

D. The form of the cavity can be "Y" shaped.

E. The disadvantage offered by the intracoronarial slides is the fact

that the support does not go over the periodontal support perimeter.

B 6/pag.22

4

491. The attaching of specials elements has a series of contraindications:

A. In patients with a precarious general status;

B. In uncooperant patients or with psychomotoric disorders ;

C. in D class Lejoyeux edentations when both the dento-periodontal,

and the one mucous-bone support are not favorable.

D. have a very good sustentation, support and stabilizations of mobile

dentures;

E. they can reduce or amortize in a certain extent the forces

transmitted from the denture to residual teeth.

ABC 6/pag.22

4

492. Advantages of special systems:

A. little visible, discreet, intra- or extra coronal in the proximal area

of the residual teeth;

B. possibilities to reoptimize if inactivated;

C. in D class Lejoyeux edentations when both the dento-periodontal,

and the one mucous-bone support are not favorable.

D. have a very good sustentation, support and stabilizations of mobile

dentures;

E. they can reduce or amortize in a certain extent the forces

transmitted from the denture to residual teeth.

ABDE 6/pag.2

24

493. Indications of telescopic crowns:

A. Stabilization of a mobile denture with pure periodontal support;

B. Interesting is that the mobile teeth, telescoping crowns being applied,

reduce their mobility;

C. On the level of metallic frame prosthesis, a cap attachment is

fixed, realizing the retention;

AB 6/pag.2

24

77

D. a solidified radicular pivot is attached to a substitution crown

which is part of the adjunct denture;

E. Correct answers C, D.

Theme 62.

Biodynamics of skeletized prosthesis in oral cavity

( pag. 193 - 232 ) bibl.16

494. The direct traction forces are :

A. Those forces that act vertically

B. Those forces that tending to dislocate the prosthesis

C. The weight of the prosthesis is favorable to the direct traction

forces on the mandible

D. Are the result of vertical forces

E. Those are not genereted by sticky food

AB pag.207

495. *The horizontal forces has the following caracteristics:

A. They are 3 types of horizontal forces

B. They are 2 types of horizontal forces

C. Can not appear during of mastication

D. The parasite forces born from the lateral movements

E. Can appear following the movements of the correct prosthesis

B pag.211

496. The rotation of the prosthesis in the horizontal plan is annulated by :

A. The lateral mouvements

B. If the supports distributed on the posterior teeth

C. The rigidity of the framework

D. The periodontal ligaments resistance

E. The shape of the ridges

CDE pag.216

497. The movement of the prosthesis in vertical direction has the following

features:

A. Can appear during the mastication

B. Can appear during the deglutition

C. Against the deepening of the prosthesis acts all the flexible

elements of the clasps

D. Can appear during some other parafunctions

E. The flexible elements of the clasps have to be located in the

supporting cone

ABD pag.218

498. Indirect retainers can be characterized by:

A. Prevent displacement towards the ridge

B. The rest is on the mesial face

C. The axis of movement is formed by the saddle

D. Do not prevent displacement towards the ridge

E. The movements is resisted by the occlusal rest on the abutment

tooth

DE pag.219

499. Maxillary denture dislocation is mainly due to :

A. The artificial teeth

B. Their weight being suspended

C. Weight is determined by their size

D. The acrylic denture is the heaviest

BCE pag.217

78

E. Their weight by the material’s specific weight

500. *The horizontal mouvements of the denture are :

A. More reduced as amplitude

B. They are not dangerous

C. They are not generated during function by occlusal contact

D. These forces tend to displace the denture only in lateral direction

E. These forces are not generated by the oral musculature

A pag.226

Theme 63.

Stages of therapy using partially removable prosthesis: dental impression

( pag. 471- 493 ) bibl.16

501. The elastic material used in order to obtain the negative of the prosthetic field

are :

A. The cheapest materials

B. The oldest materials

C. The alginates offer a sufficiently exact impression

D. The reversible hydrocolioids are impression materials with special

qualities

E. The silicons materials have not high stability

CD pag.472

502. The preliminary impression must take into consideration the following

features:

A. This is the first stage in the clinical -technological algorithm

B. This is the second stage in the clinical-technological algorithm

C. Take into consideration the specific features of the partially

edentulous prosthetic field

D. Take into consideration the mucous-osseous and dento-periodontal

supports

E. The tray has to be flexible

ACD pag.473

503. *The impression tray has to be :

A. The margines have to stop at 1 mm from the guideline

B. The margines have to stop at 4 mm from the guideline

C. To cover a part of the prosthetic field

D. This must harm the play of the mobile formations

E. This must be rigid

E pag.473

504. The purpose of the preliminary impression is :

A. Obtaining the working model

B. Serves to obtaine the study model

C. The impression will reproduce entirely the form and will register

exactly the periphery of the prosthetic field

D. Is registered after the nonspecific treatment

E. The impression tray is positioned centrically in the oral cavity

BDE pag.481

505. The technique of corrected model with functionalized impression tray

involve :

A. Two impressions

B. After the first impression the material is removed from tray

C. In the space created it introduce rigid acrylic

D. The second impression represents the final form

ABDE pag.480

79

E. The functional impression is registrered after all the proprosthetic

preparations have been realized

506. The final impression has the following objectives :

A. The impression reproduce the mucosa’s reflexion zone

B. The impression reproduce the edentulous ridge

C. The rigid materials are indicated for impression

D. The impression reproduce neighbouring tissues of the prosthetic

field

E. Durring impression, we realize movements such as

massages,tractions, lips rotations

BD pag.481

507. *Functional impression with dental cut impression tray uses :

A. Two impression support

B. The first impression support is provided with 2 holes

C. The only one impression support

D. The impression is registered with plaster in standard tray

E. Impression material is bucco-plastic material

A pag.483

Theme 64.

Clinical stages of partial edentation through removable means - Mandibulo-

cranial

( pag. 486 - 499 ) bibl.16

508. When there are occlusal deflective contacts or interferences, the therapeutical

decision is:

A. Coronary reshaping

B. Remodelling of the prosthetic occlusal relief

C. The mandibulo-cranial relations not to be modified

D. The minimum number of centric occlusal stops are enough

E. The temporo-mandibular joint may inluence the maxillar

positioning

AB pag.486

509. The parameters of the centric occlusion are:

A. Drawing of the premolar possition

B. The preservation of the occlusal clearance is not necessary

C. The level of the occlusion plane

D. The preservation of the occlusal clearance

E. The orientation of the occlusion planes

CDE pag.487

510. When the 2 arches are mutilated by partial edentations, we shall:

A. Remodel the prosthetic occlusal relief of the deficient

gnatoprosthetic restorations

B. The first step is to determine the centric relation

C. Compression on the masseters method

D. The first step is to determine the postural relation

E. Rebalance the occlusion through selective grinding

AE pag.498

511. When the clinical situation presents mandibulo-cranial stability, the decision

is :

A. The record of mandibulo-cranial relation can be made by

interposing between the arches a ZOE layer

B. Remodel the prosthetic occlusal relief

AE pag.499

80

C. Rebalance the occlusion

D. The record of simple relation through complex methods

E. After the record of the centric relation we check all reference

points

512. *In order to record the mandibulo-cranial relation, the absence of posterior

teeth and large edentulous sectors impose the use of:

A. Alginate materiales

B. Reversible hydrocolioids

C. Viscous silicones

D. Fluid silicones

E. Occlusion maquettes

E pag.495

513. The mounting on the articulator, it must respect several conditions :

A. The approximation according to Weinberg leads to maximum

errors

B. Place the maxillary model on the upper arm of the articulator with

the help of a facial spring in a position given by 3 cranio-facial

points

C. The position of the mandibular model is chosen according to the

occlusal and joint clinical exam

D. The situation of the anterior points can be determined by graphical

record

E. The anterior guiding is preponderant in the maxilar movements in

lateral plane.

BC pag.492

514. *The axis for mounting on the articulator, has the following name :

A. dental

B. bycondilar

C. muscular

D. osseous

E. labial.

B pag.492

Theme 65.

Prosthesis Therapy Steps: Dental Impression

(p. 465-544)

515. *The ALL-ORAL functional dental impression technique:

A. is a process described by Lejoyeux;

B. is a combined dental impression process;

C. is a dental impressioning process that requires ivotray SR dental

impressions;

D. in the functional imprint step used the metal trays;

E. does not require devices for recording intermaxillary relationships

B p. 519

516. *The Biofunctional Prosthetic-Ivoclar System:

A. Is a process of taking impressions with the complex ergonomic

articulator;

B. It has individual porpads with elongated occlusion borders;

C. It has individual porprints of photopolymerizable acrylic resin;

D. The final impression is with the mouth open;


A p. 519

81

517. The choice of serial tray:

A. is mandatory with the reporter;

B. is made by repeated tests;

C. A and B are incorrect answers;

D. implies the choice of a slightly oversized tray;

E. involves the selection of an oversized tray.

CD p. 474-

475

518. For impression with thermoplastic material:

A. It can be used trays with less obvious profile

B. It can be used trays made of acrylate;

C. The material used is deformed after curing;

D. A and C are good answers;


AB p. 476

519. The anatomical landmarks in the maxillary prosthetic field are as follows:

A. The frain of the tongue;

B. medial palatal suture;

C. the oral brake;

D. the foveas of the palace;


BCD p. 481

520. The anatomical landmarks in the mandibular prosthetic field are:

A. the anterior vestibular area;

B. the internal oblique line;

C. the sublingual fold;

D. the genioglossus muscle;

E. the mylohyoid muscle.

CE p. 481-

482

521. The equipment required for the preliminary impression:

A. trays of base plate;

B. fluid silicone;

C. The water at 240 C;

D. spatula;

E. wax.

CDE p.482

Theme 66.

The Total Prosthesis Therapy Steps: The Determination of Intermaxillary

Relationships (p.550-564)

522. Molar reflex stimulation of occlusion:

A. A is a simple method of determining the posture relation;

B. it produces the rebirth of the old reflexes of the periodontal muscles,

postural positioning;

C. is a simple method of determining the centric relation;

D. aims to induce the posture relation;

E. it produces the rebirth of the old reflexes of the periodontal

muscles, of central positioning.

CE p. 559

523. *The right profile:

A. Is the normal prototype, so the Camper and occlusal planes will be

divergent towards distal;

B. Occurs in patients with Class III Angle, so Camper and occlusion

plans will be diverging distally;

D p. 552

82

C. occurs in patients with Class II Angle so Camper and Occlusion

plans will be divergent towards distal;

D. Is the normal prototype, so the Camper and Occlusion plans will be

parallel;


524. Extraoral control of occlusion models:

A. is done in the absence of patient;

B. verifies compliance with the instructions given by the models and

the laboratory sheet;

C. A and B are the correct answers;

D. is a simple method that uses pre-extraction references;

E. all variants are correct.

ABC p. 550

525. *Occlusal orientation establishment:

A. in the lateral areas is made in relation to the Fox plane;

B. at the front is made in relation to the Camper Plan;

C. in the lateral zones is made compared to the Frankfurt plane;

D. is made with the Fox plate


D p. 550-

552

526. The anthropometric methods, without pre-extraction markers, to determine the

DV of the lower stage are:

A. Sears Profileograph;

B. The Wright Method;

C. The Boianov method;

D. The Landa method

E. The Swenson Method

CD p. 554-

555

527. Among the functional methods to determine the DV of the lower tier are:

A. The Frankfurt Plan Method (The Landa Method);

B. The Silvermann method;

C. The Robinson Method;

D. The Willis Method;


BC p. 556

528. Among the simple methods of determining the R.C. are:

A. the temporal Green maneuver

B. The Willis Method;

C. The Silvermann Method;

D. Wild method;

E. the masseterin Gysi maneuver.

AE p. 558-

559

Theme 67.

TOTAL PROSTHETIC THERAPY STEPS: TESTING THE MODEL

(p. 568 -582)

529. The retention zones:

A. can not create problems in the prosthesis;

B. can change the insertion axis of the prosthesis;

C. when having mucosal substrate raises problems in prosthesis

insertion.

BD p. 582

83

D. the edges of the prosthesis exceeding retentivity are made of

resilient materials.


530. *The dates sent to the laboratory by the sheet covers all, except:

A. the location of the foliation areas;

B. the thickness of the foliation zones;

C. refers to the material with which the functional impression was

recorded;

D. the material from which the base of the prosthesis will be made;

E. thickening of the base of the prosthesis in some.

C p. 582

531. *Artificial arcade control follows:

A. lateral ents have stressed cusps;

B. the inter-incisal midline must be consistent with the direction of

palatine folds;

C. the buccal curvature must be concave;

D. the lateral teeth are mounted including tuberosity and tubers;

E. the lower lateral teeth must respect the Pound rule.

E p. 569

532. The occlusor control and models follows:

A. on the model must be drawn the lines incised;

B. on the model must be drawn the American lines;

C. on the model should be drawn the sagittal curvature of the

mandibular crest;

D. the locknut must be fixed;

E. the occluder has an easy game in the hinge for easy maneuverability.

CD p. 568-

569

533. The control of the maxilla model in wax follows all except:

A. at functional movements of the lips and cheeks the base of the model

must not be deployed;

B. the base must contain the entire posterior palatal sealing area;

C. the model to have maximum of mantian;

D. the model must not have tipping tendencies;


ABCD p. 570

534. The mandibular model in wax:

A. the hold is easy to be checked;

B. the posterior position of the tongue can contribute significantly to

its maintenance;

C. the edges are checked by inspection and palpation;

D. its stability is checked by the alternative pressure at the level of the

lower premolars


CD p. 570-

571

535. The aesthetic control of the models involves:

A. the verification of recovery of the vertical dimension of posture;

B. the evaluation of the nasolabial and paralabial troughs which must

be more erased before the prosthesis;

C. the upper lip is more prominent than the lower lip by supraocclusion

(often);

D. removable prosthetic parts be placed in the oral cavity regardless of

whether the practitioner is fully satisfied with it,


BC p. 572-

573

84

Theme 68.

Check and adjustment of dentures (583-593)

536. At the stage of immediate adaptation:

A. wear dentures within 24 hours

B. does not seem the full mouth sensation

C. may occur painful spikes in the mouth

D. The gums should be cleaned and massaged daily with a soft

toothbrush

E. dentures should be cleaned with toothpaste and a toothbrush

CD p. 591

537. Phonetic control with prostheses in the mouth:

A. correct premature contacts

B. is used hinge paper simultaneously on both sides

C. neutral corridor check by the pronunciation of the word

Mississippi

D. Answers A and B are false

E. if S phonemes issued as Zaza

DE p. 591-

592

538. For retouching prostheses:

A. requires polishing if interested the inner side of prostheses

B. it is recommended to remove rigorous traces of aniline from the

mucous membrane with alcohol

C. is recommended the marking of the lesion itself

D. is recommended marking the area around the lesion

E. It is recommended to remove rigorous traces of aniline from the

mucous membrane with distilled water

BD p.583

539. For the upper maxillary decubitus areas occurs mainly:

A. at the level of the internal oblique line

B. vestibullary, at the level of tuberosities

C. to the palate, at the level of tuberosities

D. at the upper labial brake

E. at the toothless edentulous ridge.

BDE p. 583

540. The lack of maintenance of the prosthesis can be caused:

A. DVO too big

B. a foreign body under the prosthesis

C. insufficient peripheral closure

D. DVO too weak

E. perforated base

CE p. 584

541. The lack of maintenance of the prosthesis can be caused:

A. edges too long

B. edges too short

C. Increased DVO

D. DVO too weak

E. no answer is correct

BCD p. 585

542. Treatment for xerostomia can be done with:

A. sialagogues drugs;

B. choleretic like Sulfaren;

C. adrenaline;

D. pilocarpine;

E. Artificial saliva.

ADE p. 588

85

Theme 69.

Prosthetic Stomatopaties in ET (593-601)

543. In the etiology of prosthetic stomatopaties the following local factors may be

incriminating:

A. An increase in local temperature below the acrylic plate

B. diabetes

C. Alternate breaks to wear dentures

D. microporosity of acrylate

E. age.

AD p.593

544. *The treatment of epithelio-connective hyperplasia consists of:

A. remove the aggressor material

B. correct occlusal equilibration

C. polish the edges of the prosthesis

D. surgical excision and reconstruction of the prosthesis


D p.598

545. Oral candidiasis:

A. It is a frequent condition

B. Its appearance is not related to the presence of underlying local or

general factors

C. is favored by local chronic irritation of poorly adjusted prostheses

D. is favored by age


CD p.599

546. *Late marginal reactions:

A. appear in recent dentures;

B. is clinically manifested by ulceration with or without edema;

C. they can not be covered by false membranes;

D. the objective symptoms are pain and burns;

E. does not require differential diagnosis with malignant lesions.

B p.596

547. Treatment of chronic atrophic candidiasis:

A. is a surgical procedure;

B. require the prosthesis to be properly washed;

C. requires removing the prostheses during the night;

D. consisting of rinsing hydrogen peroxide;

E. It is to restore the prosthesis.

CE p.601

548. In situ erosion:

A. are the result of an error in the dental impression;

B. clinically manifest as limited congestive areas with or without

ulceration;

C. are ulcerated areas;

D. give pain ranging from discomfort to severe pain;

E. does not give pain.

ABD p.595

549. The basal immediate reactions:

A. Their treatment is the same as for delayed reactions;

B. are consecutive to an irregular configuration in the prosthetic field;

C. clinically manifests as mucosal hyperplasia

D. A and C are wrong answers;

DE p.596

86

E. are consecutive to an inadequate realization of the inner face of the

prosthesis.

Theme 70.

Reoptimization of the mobile prosthesis (693-703)

550. *In case of completion of the base when the teeth are lost distal:

A. will change the ratio of the old prosthesis with the prosthetic field;

B. Repairs will be made slowly so as not to cause erroneous

execution

C. Avoid application of acrylate monomer to acrylic teeth

D. During repairs apply acrylate monomer to acrylic teeth


C p.702-

703

551. In the case of repairing a single fracture of the prosthesis with two fragments.

A. The two isolated fragments are closely glue in the water

B. the two fragments are temporarily glued together with Repin

C. the two fragments are drip glue with the wax above the fracture

line

D. area where the repair was performed should not be treated and

polished

E. inside prostheses will spread fluid silicone for dental impressions

CE p.699

552. *The indications of the coating are, except:

A. advanced atrophy of the support zone

B. improved support for an already extended prosthesis

C. in laboratory and clinical gaps

D. to the deterioration of functional model

E. prophylaxis of tissues sensitive to masticatory pressure.

B p.693

553. The contraindications of the coating are:

A. the migration of antagonistic teeth in edentulous spaces

B. the extrusion of neighboring teeth in the edentulous space

C. new prosthesis

D. prostheses with multiple repairs

E. answer D is correct.

DE p.693

554. The coating objectives are:

A. increase in suction;

B. braking horizontal displacements

C. obtaining a balanced support on the remaining teeth and the muco-

osseous support

D. B and C are the right answers.

E. Muco-osseous prevention.

BCD p.693-

694

555. The direct coating:

A. is made in the laboratory and in the dental office;

B. is made directly on the mucosa, without having the model;

C. does not have the risk of irritation of the oral mucosa;

D. requires cleaning of the prosthesis field;

E. is a fast method.

CE p.694

556. Indirect coating:

A. is made in the laboratory;

AB p.695

87

B. does not have the risk of irritation of the oral mucosa;

C. It's quick;

D. is made with the minimum consumption of materials;


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