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TEST – 20 (25 QUESTIONS) INSIGHTS TEST SERIES -‐ 2015 WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM

1. Consider the following statements: 1. Amrita Bazar Patrika, one of the oldest newspapers in India, was launched in

Bengali. 2. Mahratta was launched by B.G. Tilak in English.

Which of the above is/are true?

a) Only 1. b) Only 2. c) Both. d) None.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Bal Gangadhar Tilak used to run his two newspapers, Kesari, in Marathi and Mahratta in English from Pune.

Amrita Bazar Patrika was one of the oldest newspapers in India; it was launched in Bengali. It debuted on 20 February 1868. It was started by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh, sons of Hari Naryan Ghosh, a rich merchant from Magura, in District Jessore, in Bengal Province of British Empire in India. Amrita Bazar Patrika, which used to be a nationalist newspaper during the British rule, discontinued its publication from 1986.

2. Consider the following statements: 1. At its Delhi session in 1919, the Congress demanded India’s representation at

the Peace Conference through its elected representatives. 2. At its Calcutta session in 1920, the Congress asked the people of India not to

join the army to fight in West Asia. 3. In May 1921, Gandhiji declared that the Indian people would oppose any

attack on Afghanistan.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

a) Only 1. b) Only 2 & 3. c) Only 3. d) All.

Answer: d.


Explanation:

After the First World War, the nationalists developed their foreign policy in the direction of opposition to political and economic imperialism and Cooperation of all nations in the cause of world peace. As part of this Policy, at its Delhi session in 1919, the Congress demanded India’s representation at the Peace Conference through its elected representatives.

Indians also continued to voice their sympathy for the freedom fight of other countries. The Irish and Egyptian people and the Government of Turkey were extended active support. At its Calcutta session in 1920, the Congress asked the people not to join the army to fight in West Asia.

In May 1921, Gandhiji declared that the Indian people would oppose any attack on Afghanistan. The Congress branded the Mandate system of the League of Nations as a cover for imperialist greed. In 1921, the Congress congratulated the Burmese people on their struggle for freedom. Burma was at that time a part of India, but the Congress announced that free India favoured Burma’s independence from India. In 1924, the Congress asked the Indian settlers in Burma to demand no separate rights at the cost of the Burmese people.

3. Who moved an adjournment motion in the Central Legislative Assembly to protest against Indian troops being used to suppress the Chinese people in January 1927? a) Maharaja of Harihar b) B.G. Tilak. c) L. Ramaswamy. d) S. Srinavasa Iyengar.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

In January 1927, S. Srinavasa Iyengar moved an adjournment motion in the Central Legislative Assembly to protest against Indian troops being used to suppress the Chinese people. The strong Indian feelings on the question were also repeatedly expressed by the Congress during 1927 (including it Its Madras session). The Madras Congress advised Indians not to go to China to fight or work against the Chinese people who were fellow fighters in the struggle against imperialism. It also asked for the withdrawal of Indian troops from Mesopotamia and Iran and all other foreign counties.


In 1928, the Congress assured the people of Egypt, Syria, Palestine, Iraq, and Afghanistan of its full support in their national liberation struggles.

4. Consider the following statements: 1. Jawaharlal Nehru participated in the International Congress against colonial

Oppression and Imperialism as a representative of the Congress. 2. The International Congress against colonial Oppression and Imperialism was

held in Moscow in February 1927.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT true?


Answer: b

Explanation:

In 1926-27, Jawaharlal Nehru travelled to Europe and came into contact with left-wing European political workers and thinkers. This had an abiding impact on his political development, including in the field of foreign affairs.

The highlight of Jawaharlal’s European visit was his participation as a representative of the Congress in the International Congress against colonial Oppression and Imperialism held in Brussels in February 1927. The basic objective of the Conference was to bring together the colonial people of Africa, Asia and Latin America struggling against imperialism and the working people of the capitalist countries fighting against capitalism.

5. Who established Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College? a) Syed Ahmad Khan b) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan c) Maulana Azad d) S.C. Bose

Answer: a.


Explanation:

Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College was established by Syed Ahmad Khan at Aligarh. It was specially founded to fight the bias against modern education among Muslims, received financial support from moneyed Hindus; and its faculty and students had a large Hindu component.

6. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was established in 1885? a) Lord Dufferin b) A.O. Hume c) Lord Irwin d) Lord Minto

Answer: a.

Explanation:

Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India when the Indian National Congress was founded in 1885.

7. Consider the following statements regarding Badruddin Tyabji: 1. He never served as the President of the Indian National Congress 2. He was the first Indian to hold the post of Chief Justice in Mumbai.



Answer: b)

Explanation:

Badruddin Tyabji (10 October 1844 – 19 August 1906) was an Indian lawyer who served as the third President of the Indian National Congress. Badruddin Tyabji presided over the Congress session in 1887. He became the first Indian Barrister in Mumbai in April, 1867. He accepted a Judgeship of the Bombay High Court in 1895. In 1902, he became


the first Indian to hold the post of Chief Justice in Mumbai. He was also active in women's emancipation and worked to weaken the zenana system. He was considered among the moderate Muslims during the freedom movement of India.

8. Consider the following statements: 1. The Punjab Hindu Sabha , founded in 1909 was instrumental in spreading

communalism 2. The first session of the All-India Hindu Mahasabha was held in April 1915

under the presidentship of the Maharaja of Travancore.



Answer: a.

Explanation:

The Punjab Hindu Sabha was founded in 1909. Its leaders, U.N. Mukherji and Lal Chand, were to lay down the foundations of Hindu communal ideology and politics. They directed their anger primarily against the National Congress for trying to unite Indians into a single nation and for ‘sacrificing Hindu interests’ to appease Muslims.

The first session of the All-India Hindu Mahasabha was held in April 1915 under the presidentship of the Maharaja of Kasim Bazar. But it remained for many years a rather sickly child compared to the Muslim League.

9. A large number of Muslim communal leaders met at Delhi in December 1927 and evolved basic demands known as the Delhi Proposals. The Delhi Proposal includes which of the following? 1. Sind should be made a separate province. 2. The North-West Frontier Province should be treated constitutionally on the

same footing as other provinces. 3. Muslims should have 50% representation in the central legislature.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Only 1.


b) Only 2 & 3. c) Only 3. d) Only 1 & 2.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

A large number of Muslim communal leaders met at Delhi in December 1927 and evolved four basic demands known as the Delhi Proposals. These proposals were: (1) Sind should be made a separate province; (2) the North-West Frontier Province should be treated constitutionally on the same footing as other provinces; (3) Muslims should have 33 1/3 per cent representation in the central legislature; (4) in Punjab and Bengal, the proportion of representation should be in accordance with the population, thus guaranteeing a Muslim majority, and in other provinces, where Muslims were a minority, the existing reservation of seats for Muslims should continue.

10. Consider the following statements: 1. The Nehru Report was put up for approval before an All-Party Convention at

Calcutta in 1928. 2. The Nehru Report recommended that India should be a federation on the

basis of linguistic provinces and provincial autonomy. 3. The Nehru Report recommended the separation of Sind from Bombay and

constitutional reform in the North-West Frontier Province.



Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Congress proposals came in the form of the Nehru Report drafted by an all-parties committee. The Report was put up for approval before an All-Party Convention at Calcutta at the end of December 1928. Apart from other aspects, the Nehru Report recommended that India should be a federation on the basis of linguistic provinces and provincial autonomy, that elections be held on the basis of joint electorates and that


seats in central and provincial legislatures be reserved for religious minorities in proportion to their population. The Report recommended the separation of Sind from Bombay and constitutional reform in the North-West Frontier Province. The Report could not be approved unanimously at the Calcutta Convention.

11. Consider the following statements regarding the Communal Award: 1. It was announced by Prime Minister MacDonald In August 1932. 2. It expanded the separate-electorate formula reserved for Muslims to other

minorities, including Sikhs.



Answer: c.

Explanation:

In August 1932 Prime Minister MacDonald announced his Communal Award. It was Great Britain’s unilateral attempt to resolve the various conflicts among India’s many communal interests. The award, which was later incorporated into the act of 1935, expanded the separate-electorate formula reserved for Muslims to other minorities, including Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. The Award was highly controversial and opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, who was in Yerveda jail, and fasted in protest against it.

12. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian provincial elections held in 1937: 1. Elections were held in eleven provinces. 2. The Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces. 3. The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province.

Which of the above statements are true?



Answer: d.

Explanation:

Provincial elections were held in British India in the winter of 1936-37 as mandated by the Government of India Act 1935. Elections were held in eleven provinces - Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.

The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937. The Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces - the three exceptions being Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh. The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province.

The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people.

13. Who gave Muhammad Ali Jinnah the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity”? a) Sarojini Naidu b) B.R. Ambedkar c) Dadabhai naoraoji d) Annie Besant

Answer: a.

Explanation:

After the unpopular partition of Bengal, Jinnah approached the Muslim League to make it more popular among the Muslim masses. Due to the reconciliation brought about by Jinnah between the Congress and the League, the Nightingale of India, Sarojini Naidu, gave him the title of “the Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity”.


14. Consider the following statements with reference to the Individual Satyagraha: 1. Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature. 2. It was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis. 3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagraha.


a) Only 1 & 2 b) Only 1 & 3 c) Only 2 & 3. d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

During the course of the Second World War in order to secure the cooperation of the Indians, the British Government made an announcement on 8 August 1940, which came to be known as the ‘August Offer’. The August Offer envisaged that after the War a representative body of Indians would be set up to frame the new Constitution.

Gandhi was not satisfied with this offer and decided to launch Individual Satyagraha. Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahis. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first to offer Satyagraha and he was sentenced to three months imprisonment. Jawaharlal Nehru was the second Satyagrahi and imprisoned for four months. The individual Satyagraha continued for nearly 15 months.

15. Which of the following were the recommendations made by Sir Stafford Cripps? 1. The promise of Dominion Status to India. 2. Protection of minorities. 3. Setting up of a Constituent Assembly in which there would be representatives

from the Princely States along with those of the British Provinces.


a) Only 1. b) Only 2 & 3. c) Only 3.


d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

In the midst of worsening wartime international situation, the British Government in its continued effort to secure Indian cooperation sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India on 23 March 1942.

This is known as Cripps Mission. The main recommendations of Cripps were:

• The promise of Dominion Status to India, • Protection of minorities • Setting up of a Constituent Assembly in which there would be representatives

from the Princely States along with those of the British Provinces, • There would be provision for any Province of British India not prepared to accept

this Constitution, either to retain its present constitutional position or frame a constitution of its own.

The major political parties of the country rejected the Cripps proposals. Gandhi called Cripp’s proposals as a “Post-dated Cheque”. They did not like the rights of the Princely States either to send their representatives to the Constituent Assembly or to stay out of the Indian Union. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied as its demand for Pakistan had not been conceded in the proposal.

16. Indian and China have declared 2014 as the Year of Friendly Exchanges to commemorate the 60th anniversary of the: a) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (Panchsheel). b) Non Alignment Movement. c) Tripartite agreement involving Japan. d) Cultural Exchange Programme.

Answer: a.

Explanation:

Indian and China have declared 2014 as the Year of Friendly Exchanges to commemorate the 60th anniversary of the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (Panchsheel).


17. Consider the following statements with reference to “Japan Plus”: 1. It was set up by the Ministry of External Affairs. 2. It was set up to facilitate and fast track investment proposals from Japan. 3. It will comprise representatives from Government of India and METI

(Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry), Government of Japan.


a) Only 1 & 3 b) Only 2 & 3. c) Only 2. d) All.

Answer: b.

Explanation:

The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) has set up a special management team to facilitate and fast track investment proposals from Japan. The team, known as “Japan Plus”, will comprise representatives from Government of India and METI (Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry), Government of Japan.

The mandate of the “Japan Plus” team runs through the entire spectrum of investment promotion – research, outreach, promotion, facilitation and aftercare. The team will support the Government of India in initiating, attracting, facilitating, fast tracking and handholding Japanese investments across sectors. The team will also be responsible for providing updated information on investment opportunities across sectors, in specific projects and in industrial corridors in particular. In addition, the “Japan Plus” team will identify prospective Japanese companies, including, Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) and facilitate their investments in India.

The “Japan Plus” team will also provide assistance to DIPP in undertaking regular benchmarking studies, identifying bottlenecks and areas of concern in sectors of interest to Japanese companies, and analyzing their impact on industrial development production in India.

18. Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification: 1. It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and

development to sustainable land management.


2. It is the first and only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the problem of desertification.

3. Only countries having deserts are members to this convention.



Answer: a

Explanation:

Desertification, along with climate change and the loss of biodiversity, were identified as the greatest challenges to sustainable development during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. Established in 1994, UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. In the 10-Year Strategy of the UNCCD (2008-2018) that was adopted in 2007, Parties to the Convention further specified their goals: "to forge a global partnership to reverse and prevent desertification/land degradation and to mitigate the effects of drought in affected areas in order to support poverty reduction and environmental sustainability". It is the first and only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the problem of desertification.

The Convention’s 195 parties work together to improve the living conditions for people in drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the effects of drought. The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation. The UNCCD secretariat facilitates cooperation between developed and developing countries, particularly around knowledge and technology transfer for sustainable land management.

19. Consider the following statements with reference to the Arctic Council: 1. Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council. 2. Chairmanship of the Council rotates every two years and the current chair is

Canada, which serves until the Ministerial meeting in May 2015. 3. Observer status is open to non-Arctic states approved by the Council at the

Ministerial Meetings.


4. Only permanent observers have voting rights in the Council.


a) Only 1. b) Only2, 3 & 4. c) Only 1 & 4. d) Only 1, 2 & 3.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum that addresses issues faced by the Arctic governments and the indigenous people of the Arctic. It has eight member countries: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United States.

Only states with territory in the Arctic can be members of the Council. All eight countries are members making the Arctic Council a circumpolar forum. The Council also has permanent and ad hoc observer countries and "permanent participants".

Chairmanship of the Council rotates every two years. The current chair is Canada, which serves until the Ministerial meeting in May 2015. Observer status is open to non-Arctic states approved by the Council at the Ministerial Meetings that occur once every two years. Permanent observers have no voting rights in the Council. As of May 2013, twelve non-Arctic states have Permanent Observer status. Observer states receive invitations for most Council meetings. Their participation in projects and task forces within the Working Groups is not always possible, but this poses few problems as few Observer States want to participate at such a detailed level.

Ad hoc observer states need to request permission for their presence at each individual meeting; such requests are routine and most of them are granted. There are six ad hoc members, not including the European Union. At the 2013 Ministerial Meeting in Kiruna, Sweden, the EU requested full observer status. It was not granted, mostly because the members do not agree on the EU ban on hunting seals. Approved intergovernmental and interparliamentary organizations (both global and regional) and non-governmental organizations can also obtain Observer Status.


20. Consider the following statements regarding the Research and Information System RIS) for Developing Countries: 1. It is an autonomous think-tank under the Ministry of External Affairs,

Government of India. 2. The focus of the work programme of RIS is to promote South- South

Cooperation and assist developing countries in multilateral negotiations in various forums.

3. It is an advisory body to the Government of India.


a) Only 1. b) Only 2 & 3. c) All. d) None.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS), a New Delhi based autonomous think-tank under the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India, is an organization that specializes in policy research on international economic issues and development cooperation. RIS is envisioned as a forum for fostering effective policy dialogue and capacity-building among developing countries on international economic issues. The focus of the work programme of RIS is to promote South- South Cooperation and assist developing countries in multilateral negotiations in various forums. RIS is engaged in the Track II process of several regional initiatives. RIS is providing analytical support to the Government of India in the negotiations for concluding comprehensive economic cooperation agreements with partner countries. Through its intensive network of policy think tanks, RIS seeks to strengthen policy coherence on international economic issues.

RIS is mandated to function as an advisory body to the Government of India on matters

pertaining to multilateral economic and social issues, including regional and sub-‐‑regional cooperation arrangements and innovation policies. RIS functions in close association with various governmental bodies, research institutions, academicians,

policy-‐‑makers, and business and industry circles in India and abroad. RIS has a consultative status with UNCTAD, NAM and the WTO and has conducted policy

research and other activities in collaboration with agencies including UN-‐‑ESCAP,

UNCTAD, UNU, Group of 77, SAARC Secretariat, Asian Development Bank (ADB), The World Bank, and the South Centre.


21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Awards: 1. It is the highest honour conferred on overseas Indians. 2. Only on a Non-Resident Indian is eligible for this award.



Answer: a.

Explanation:

The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) is the highest honour conferred on overseas Indians. PBSA is conferred by the President of India as a part of the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Conventions organized annually since 2003 on a Non-Resident Indian, Person of Indian Origin or an organization or institution established and run by the Non-Resident Indians or Persons of Indian Origin, who has made significant contribution in any one of the following fields:

• Better understanding abroad of India; • Support to India’s causes and concerns in a tangible way; • Building closer links between India, the overseas Indian community and their

country of residence; • Social and humanitarian causes in India or abroad; • Welfare of the local Indian community; • Philanthropic and charitable work; • Eminence in one’s field or outstanding work, which has enhanced India’s prestige

in the country of residence; or • Eminence in skills which has enhanced India’s prestige in that country (for non-

professional workers).


22. Which of the following categories of Industries require compulsory industrial license in India? 1. Coal and Lignite 2. Petroleum (other than crude) and its distillation products 3. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks 4. Sugar 5. Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufacture tobacco substitutes


a) Only 1. b) Only 2, 4 & 5. c) Only 1, 4 & 5. d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The list of industries requiring compulsory industrial licence will be reduced to the following nine categories:

• Coal and Lignite • Petroleum (other than crude) and its distillation products • Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks • Sugar • Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufacture tobacco substitutes • Electronic aerospace and defence equipment; all types • Industrial explosives, including detonating fuse, safety fuse, gun powder,

nitrocellulose and matches. • Hazardous chemicals • Drugs and Pharmaceuticals (according to Drug Policy)

23. Which of the following sectors are reserved for Public Sector? 1. Atomic energy. 2. Railway transport. 3. Port Constructions.




Answer: b.

Explanation:

List of industries reserved for the public sector and where private companies cannot enter

• Atomic energy. • The substances specified in the scheduled to the notification of the Government

of India in the Department of Atomic Energy number S.O.212(E), dated the 15th March, 1995.

• Railway transport.

24. Consider the following statements with reference to the Index of Industrial production (IIP): 1. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation

(CSO). 2. Mining and Manufacturing sectors are not included in the Index.



Answer: a.

Explanation:

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which details out the growth of various sectors in an economy such as mining, electricity and manufacturing. The all India IIP is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to


that in a chosen base period. It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks after the reference month ends.

The level of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an abstract number, the magnitude of which represents the status of production in the industrial sector for a given period of time as compared to a reference period of time.

25. The Eight Core Industries of India include: 1. Crude Oil 2. Natural Gas 3. Fertilizers 4. Cement 5. Electricity 6. Textiles


a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 5 b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 6. c) Only 1, 3, 5 & 6. d) Only 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Eight Core Industries are:

1. Coal 2. Crude Oil 3. Natural Gas 4. Petroleum Refinery Products (0.93% of Crude Throughput) 5. Fertilizers 6. Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy) 7. Cement 8. Electricity

26. Consider the following statements with reference to the Khadi & Village Industies Commission (KVIC): 1. It is a statutory body.


2. It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT true?

a) Only 1. b) Only 2. c) None d) Both.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Khadi & Village Industies Commission (KVIC):

The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament (Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956). In April 1957, it took over the work of former All India Khadi and Village Industries Board.

Function: It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India, which seeks to – “plan, promote, facilitate, organise and assist in the establishment and development of khadi and village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.”

The Commission has three main objectives which guide its functioning. These are –

• The Social Objective – Providing employment in rural areas • The Economic Objective – Providing salable articles • The Wider Objective – Creating self-reliance amongst people and building up a

strong rural community spirit.

The commission seeks to achieve these objectives by implementing and monitoring various schemes and programs.

27. Central Public Sector Enterprises fulfilling which of the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status? 1. Having Navratna status 2. Listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public

shareholding under SEBI regulations


3. An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 20,000 crore during the last three years

4. An average annual net worth of more than Rs.10,000 crore during the last three years


a) Only 1 &3. b) Only 2 & 4. c) Only 1, 2 & 3. d) All.

Answer: d.

Explanation:

Maharatna Scheme was introduced for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), with effect from 19th May, 2010, in order to empower mega CPSEs to expand their operations and emerge as global giants. The objective of the scheme is to delegate enhanced powers to the Boards of identified large-sized Navratna CPSEs so as to facilitate expansion of their operations, both in domestic as well as global markets.

CPSEs fulfilling the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status:

• Having Navratna status • Listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public

shareholding under SEBI regulations • An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 20,000 crore during the last three

years • An average annual net worth of more than Rs.10,000 crore during the last three

years • An average annual net profit of more than Rs. 2,500 crore during the last 3 years • Significant global presence or international operations

28. Who can make laws on matters not included in the state List or Concurrent List? a) Parliament alone. b) State Legislature alone. c) Both Parliament and State Legislature. d) Council of Ministers.

Answer: a.


Explanation:

The Parliament of India is competent to legislate on all matters that are enumerated in the Union List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution. In the Concurrent List, the Parliament and the State Legislatures have joint jurisdiction. However, in case of conflict over any law made under the Concurrent List, the Union Law will prevail upon the State Law provided the State Law has not received the earlier assent of the President. Parliament alone has power to make laws on matters not included in the state list or concurrent list.

29. The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction in any dispute arising: 1. Between the Government of India and one or more States. 2. Between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one

or more States on the other. 3. Between two or more States.



Answer: d.

Explanation:

The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them. The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court. The Supreme Court, if


satisfied that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases itself. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.

30. Consider the following statements with reference to the Gram Nyayalayas: 1. The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the

same power, enjoy same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First Class.

2. A Gram Nyayalaya have jurisdiction over an area specified by a notification by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court.

3. The Gram Nyayalayas have only civil jurisdiction over the offences.

Which of the above statements are true?


Answer: a

Explanation:

Gram Nyayalayas:

Gram Nyayalayas or village courts are established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas of India. The Act came into force from 2 October 2009.

• However, the Act has not been enforced properly, with only 194 functional Gram Nyayalayas in the country against a target of 5000 such courts.


• The major reason behind the non-enforcement includes financial constraints, reluctance of lawyers, police and other government officials.

Important features of Gram Nyayalayas:

• Gram Nyayalayas are established generally at headquarter of every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group of contiguous panchayat in a district where there is no panchayat at intermediate level.

• The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the same power, enjoy same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First Class. Such Nyayadhikari are to be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court.

• A Gram Nyayalaya have jurisdiction over an area specified by a notification by the State Government in consultation with the respective High Court. The Court can function as a mobile court at any place within the jurisdiction of such Gram Nyayalaya, after giving wide publicity to that regards.

• The Gram Nyayalayas have both civil and criminal jurisdiction over the offences. The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Nyayalayas are fixed by the respective High Courts.

• Both the Central and the State Government can add or remove items in the Schedule. While the Central Government can amend the list in Schedule I and II, by notifying them and thereafter laying it in the Parliament, the State Government can amend the items in Part III of Schedule I or II, in the areas of law which the state is competent to enact law after due consultation with the respective High Court and notifying it. Such notification has to be laid in the State Legislature.

• Gram Nyayalayas can follow special procedures in civil matters, in a manner it deem just and reasonable in the interest of justice.

• Gram Nyayalayas allow for conciliation of the dispute and settlement of the same in the first instance.

• Gram Nyayalayas has been given power to accept certain evidences which would otherwise not be acceptable under Indian Evidence Act.

• Appeals in criminal matter can be made to the Sessions Court in the respective jurisdiction and in civil matters to the District Court within a period of one month from the date of judgment.

31. Consider the following statements with reference to the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY):


1. RSBY was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.

2. Beneficiaries under RSBY are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs. 30,000/- for most of the diseases that require hospitalization.

3. Under the Scheme, Beneficiaries can avail loan upto 1 lakh from local RRBs.


a) Only 1. b) Only 2 & 3. c) Only 1 & 2. d) Only 3.

Answer: c.

Explanation:

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY):

RSBY was launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India to provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.

Objective: To provide protection to BPL households from financial liabilities arising out of health shocks that involve hospitalization.

Details:

• Beneficiaries under RSBY are entitled to hospitalization coverage up to Rs. 30,000/- for most of the diseases that require hospitalization.

• Government has even fixed the package rates for the hospitals for a large number of interventions.

• Pre-existing conditions are covered from day one and there is no age limit. • Coverage extends to five members of the family which includes the head of

household, spouse and up to three dependents. • Beneficiaries need to pay only Rs. 30/- as registration fee while Central and State

Government pays the premium to the insurer selected by the State Government on the basis of a competitive bidding.

• The scheme has won plaudits from the World Bank, the UN and the ILO as one of the world’s best health insurance schemes.

Unique Features of RSBY:

The RSBY scheme differs from other schemes in several important ways.


• Empowering the beneficiary – RSBY provides the participating BPL household with freedom of choice between public and private hospitals and makes him a potential client worth attracting on account of the significant revenues that hospitals stand to earn through the scheme.

• Business Model for all Stakeholders – The scheme has been designed as a business model for a social sector scheme with incentives built for each stakeholder.

• Hospitals – A hospital has the incentive to provide treatment to large number of beneficiaries as it is paid per beneficiary treated.

• Intermediaries – The inclusion of intermediaries such as NGOs and MFIs which have a greater stake in assisting BPL households.

• Information Technology (IT) Intensive – For the first time IT applications are being used for social sector scheme on such a large scale. Every beneficiary family is issued a biometric enabled smart card containing their fingerprints and photographs. All the hospitals empanelled under RSBY are IT enabled and connected to the server at the district level. This will ensure a smooth data flow regarding service utilization periodically.

• Safe and foolproof – The use of biometric enabled smart card and a key management system makes this scheme safe and foolproof. The key management system of RSBY ensures that the card reaches the correct beneficiary and there remains accountability in terms of issuance of the smart card and its usage. The biometric enabled smart card ensures that only the real beneficiary can use the smart card.

• Portability – The key feature of RSBY is that a beneficiary who has been enrolled in a particular district will be able to use his/ her smart card in any RSBY empanelled hospital across India. This makes the scheme truly unique and beneficial to the poor families that migrate from one place to the other. Cards can also be split for migrant workers to carry a share of the coverage with them separately.

• Cash less and Paperless transactions – A beneficiary of RSBY gets cashless benefit in any of the empanelled hospitals.

TEST–$20(25QUESTIONS)$ INSIGHTSTESTSERIES$3$2015$ …€¦ · Provincial elections were held in...

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