Test Series Paper-II PHYSICAL...

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Contact: +91-8946891920 www.hgaurchemistry.com Page 1 CSIR-UGC-NET/JRF DECEMBER-2018 TEST SERIES Test Series Paper-II PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY Duration: 3:00 hrs Marks: 180 Date: 30-11-2018 Read the following instructions carefully: * Single Paper Test is divided into Three Parts. Part-A: This part shall carry 15 questions. The candidate shall be required to answer any 10 questions. Each question shall be of 2 marks. Part-B: This part shall carry 30 questions. The candidate shall be required to answer any 20 questions. Each question shall be of 2 marks Part-C: This part shall carry 40 questions. The candidate shall be required to answer any 30 questions. Each question shall be of 4 marks * Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB pencil/Ball Pen to write your answer. * There will be negative marking @25% for each wrong answer. * The candidates shall be allowed to carry the question paper booklet after completion of the exam. * For rough work, blank sheet is attached at the end of test booklet. H. GAUR CHEMISTRY CLASSES 1-K-4, M.N. Ext. KOTA Contact: +91-8946891920 Visit us: www.hgaurchemistry.com, Email: [email protected]

Transcript of Test Series Paper-II PHYSICAL...

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CSIR-UGC-NET/JRF DECEMBER-2018

TEST SERIES

Test Series Paper-II

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

Duration: 3:00 hrs Marks: 180 Date: 30-11-2018

Read the following instructions carefully:

* Single Paper Test is divided into Three Parts.

Part-A: This part shall carry 15 questions. The candidate shall be required to answer any 10 questions. Each

question shall be of 2 marks.

Part-B: This part shall carry 30 questions. The candidate shall be required to answer any 20 questions. Each

question shall be of 2 marks

Part-C: This part shall carry 40 questions. The candidate shall be required to answer any 30 questions. Each

question shall be of 4 marks

* Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB pencil/Ball Pen to write your answer.

* There will be negative marking @25% for each wrong answer.

* The candidates shall be allowed to carry the question paper booklet after completion of the exam.

* For rough work, blank sheet is attached at the end of test booklet.

H. GAUR CHEMISTRY

CLASSES

1-K-4, M.N. Ext. KOTA

Contact: +91-8946891920

Visit us: www.hgaurchemistry.com, Email: [email protected]

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PART-A

Q.1 After distributing the sweets equally among 25 children, 8 sweets remain. Had the number of children been 28, 22

sweets would have been left after equally distributing. What was the total number of sweets?

(a) 328 (b) 348 (c) 358 (d) Data inadequate

Q.2 A student marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks for the class got increased

by half. The number of pupils in the class is

(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 73

Q.3 A man went 15 Km to the west from my house, then turned left and walked 20 Km. He then turned east and walked

25 Km and finally turning left covered 20 Km. How for is he now from his house?

(a) 15 Km (b) 20 Km (c) 25 Km (d) 10 Km

Q.4 Find the sum:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

2 6 12 30 42 56 72 90 110 132

(a) 7

8 (b)

11

12 (c)

15

16 (d)

17

18

Q.5 Find the missing number.

(a) 38 (b) 66 (c) 68 (d) 70

Q.6 There are 600 boys in a hostel. Each plays either hockey or football or both. If 75% play hockey and 45%

play football. How many play both?

(a) 48 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 120

Q.7 A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percentage is:

(a) 10% (b) 1

11 %9

(c) 1

12 %2

(d) None of these

Q.8 In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and diagonals bisect each other at P. If 060DBC and

030BAC then BCD is.

(a) 90º (b) 60º (c) 80º (d) 120º

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Q.9 In a chess tournament, each of six players will play with all other players exactly once. How many matches

will be played during the tournament.

(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 30 (d) 36

Q.10 A is twice as good as workman B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days

taken by A alone to finish the work is

(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 42

Q.11 A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk the first contains 25% water and the rest milk the second contains 50% water.

How much milk should, He mix from each of the containers so as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of wa-

ter to milk is 3:5?

(a) 4 litres, 8 litres (b) 6 litres, 6 litres (c) 5 litres, 7 litres (d) 7 litres, 5 litres

Q.12 Find out the missing number:

25 17 41

32 83 11

26 ? 31

(a) 26 (b) 25 (c) 34 (d) 38

Q.13 Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the other from Patna to Howrah, start simultaneously. After they meet,

the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours respectively. The ratio of their speeds is

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 6 : 7 (d) 9 : 16

Q.14 A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells is at double the price, the percentage of profit

would be

(a) 40 (b) 100 (c) 120 (d) 140

Q.15 How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?

(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 22 (d) 44

PART-B

Q.16 Ionic mobility decrease with

(a) decrease in potential gradient (b) increase in charge number of ion

(c) increase in temperature (d) decrease in viscosity of solvent

Q.17 A sparingly soluble electrolyte M3X4 ionises as 4 33 4 3 4M X M X . Then molal solubility (s) and

molal activity coefficient ( ) are related by solubility product as.

(a) 3 34spK s (b) 3 527spK s (c) 7 76912spK s (d) 9 910412spK s

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Q.18 A gas X when dissolved in water, heat is evolved. Then the solubility of X will increase at

(a) Low pressure, high temperature (b) Low pressure, low temperature

(c) High pressure, high temperature (d) High pressure, low temperature

Q.19 Sodium sulphate is completely ionised in an aqueous solution. The number of component is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Q.20 For water, the variation of pressure with temperature is

(a) Increase in pressure with temperature for fussion

(b) Increase in pressure with temperature for vaporization

(c) Decrease in pressure with temperature for vaporization

(d) Decraese in pressure with temperature for sublimation

Q.21 Which one of the following is not a criterion of spontaneity

(a) ,( ) 0U VS (b)

,( ) 0S PU (c) ,( ) 0T VA (d)

,( ) 0S PH

Q.22 CP–CV for 1 mole of a gas representing equation P(V- nb) = nRT is

(a) R (b) RT (c) nR

P (d) 0

Q.23 The intermolecular Vander waals potential is inversely proportional to r8. The corresponding force is

proportional to

(a) 6

1

r (b)

8

1

r (c)

9

1

r (d)

7

1

r

Q.24 In a Gouy-Chapman diffuse layer the incorrect option in the favour of thickness (rD) is

(1) Thickness is proportional to density (2) Proportional to ionic strength

(3) Inversely proportional to dielectric constant (4) Proportional to temperature.

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 4 (d) 1 only

Q.25 Let x and p denote, respectively, the coordinate and momentum operators satisfying the canonical commutation rela-

tion [ , ]x p i in natural units ( 1) .Then the commutator [ , ]px pe is

(a) (1 ) pi p e (b) 2(1 ) pi p e (c) (1 )pi e (d) pipe

Q.26 The correct plot representing the variation of surface film pressure against surface area is

(d) None of these

Q.27 Suppose particles is negligible. The fugacity of a gas at 10 atm any 298K is [Given 0.01515 1.0152e ] if

2 13.707 10b Lmol

(a) 9.85 atm (b) 9.5 atm (c) 10.15 atm (d) 10.59 atm

Q.28 The unit of the slope of ad

P

V versus P plot in Langmuir theory of adsorption is

(a) Pa (b) Pa cm–3 (c) cm–3 (d) Pa–1

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Q.29 The correct plot representing a first order reaction is/are

Q.30 A first order reaction is 50% completed in 4 mins, the time required for 75% completion is

(a) 8 mins (b) 12 mins (c) 16 mins (d) none of these

Q.31 In case of sphelerite structure the anions occupy

(a) half of Td Vd (b) all Td Vd (c) All Oh Vd (d) none of these

Q.32 In case of n-type extrinsic semiconductor the fermi energy level lies in between

(a) Valence band and donar band (b) Donar band and conduction band

(c) Below valence band (d) Above conduction band

Q.33 The incorrect statement among the following is

(a) In D.C. polarography, the interference from H+ is negligible due to high over-potential of H+ in mercury elec-

trode.

(b) Migration current is removed by adding supporting electrolyte.

(c) Purpose of passing inert gas through the solution in polarography is to dissolve the gas in solution

(d) Diffusion current is directly proportional to concentration of solution

Q.34 The molar conductivity of an electrolytic solution is 326 Scm2mol–1. If the ratio of velocity of cation and anion is

1.4. The molar conductivity of cation is

(a) 136.6 Scm2mol–1 (b) 190.1 Scm2mol–1

(c) 150 Scm2mol–1 (d) 176 Scm2mol–1

Q.35 Calculate ionic strength of a solution having 0.4 M MgCl2 and 0.2 M AlCl3

(a) 1.2 (b) 2.4 (c) 3.6 (d) 4.8

Q.36 In a cubic crystal, the value of d123 is 400 pm. The Edge length of the unit cell is approximately

(a) 1500 pm (b) 1000 pm (c) 500 pm (d) 50 pm

Q.37 The polymer having random sequence of D and L configurations are

(a) isotactic polymers (b) syndiotactic polymers (c) Atactic polymers (d) Grafted polymers

Q.38 According to Arrhenius equation for nth order reaction

(a) 1/2t is independent of temperature (b) 1/2t increases with increase in temperature

(c) 1/2t decreases with increase in temperature (d) 1/2t decreases with decrease in temperature

Q.39 In case of lattice point at the face centre in a F.C.C. lattice, the C.N. is

(a) 6, 6 from adjacent edge centres

(b) 8, 4 from adjacent corners and 4 from adjacent face centres

(c) 12, 4 from adjacent corners and 8 from adjacent face centres

(d) 12, 8 from adjacent corners and 4 from adjacent face centres

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Q.40 The correct matches

Isotherm Adsorption equation

(I) Langmuir 1

kP

kP

(II) Gibbs 1/nkP

(III) Freundlich 1 2ln( )c c P

(IV) Temkin 2u

(a) II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I only (d) II, III and IV

Q.41 The dielectric constant of 0.1M NaCl and 0.2 M MgCl2 solution is 121 and 100. The Debye screening length is same

for both the solution if

(a) 2NaCl MgClT = 2.5 T (b)

2NaCl MgClT = 7.3 T (c) 2MgCl NaClT = 2.5 T (d)

2MgCl NaClT = 7.3 T

Q.42 3 2NO NO (acidic medium) E = 0.8 V

3 4NO NH OH (acidic medium) E = 0.74 V

The pH at which both the half cell have same Ecell is

(a) 8.23 (b) 1.16 (c) 4.23 (d) 3.28

Q.43 0.1 mol of NaOH and 0.3 mol of Ca(OH)2 is added in a flask and volume is raised to 100 L. The pH of resulting solu-

tion is

(a) 2.7 (b) 11.3 (c) 2.3 (d) 11.7

Q.44 In successive emission of β and α- particles, how many α and β particles should be emitted for the natural (4n + 1

series) conversion of 94Pu241 to 92U233 ?

(a) 2α, β (b) 2α, 2β (c) 2α, 3β (d) α, 2β

Q.45 Which change in the system will drive equilibrium to the left in the following reaction? N2O5 (g) ⇌ NO2 (g) + NO3

(g):

(a) Increase the volume (b) Increase the pressure

(c) Decrease the amount of NO3 (d) Increase the amount of N2O5

PART-C

Q.46 If temperature coefficient of cellE is –0.125VK–1. The S for the given cell at 25ºC is

(a) 1–26.125kJK (b) 1–24.125kJK (c) 122.125kJK (d) 1–20.125kJK

Q.47 What volume of 0.3M NH4OH should be mixed with 30 mL of 0.2M solution of NH4Cl to give buffer solution of

pH 8.65 (Given pKb = 4.75)

(a) 10 mL (b) 30 mL (c) 5 mL (d) 20 mL

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Q.48 The correct order of residual entropy of SbH3 and NF3 is

(a) SbH3 > NF3 (b) SbH3 < NF3

(c) 3 3SbH NF (d) sufficient information is not provided

Q.49 For polarographic experiment, the current corresponds to E1/2 for 0.01M solution of divalent cation is 10μA. When

solution of the same ion is 10–4M, the current flow is 0.05μA on applying potential of –0.142V. The E1/2 for 10–4 M

solution is.

(a) 0.128V (b) –0.128V (c) 0.156V (d) –0.156V

Q.50 The pH of solution on the electrolysis of 10L of aqueous solution of Na2SO4 when 1F of electricity is passed through

it is

(a) 4.6 (b) 7 (c) 8.3 (d) 10.4

Q.51 The 0reductionE for Cu|CuS electrode is

Given: spK of 368 10CuS ; 2

0

/0.34

Cu CuE V

(a) 0.56 (b) –0.43 (c) 0.23V (d) –0.71V

Q.52 The change in enthalpy is 40 kJ mol–1. The temperature at which change in molar volume is 0.0567 m3

(a) 600 K (b) 300K (c) 529 K (d) 423 K

Q.53 For a gas (isobaric expansion coefficient) can be expressed as

(a) V

P

UC

T

(b)

V

P

UC

T

V

(c)

P

U

T

(d)

V

V

UC

T

V

Q.54 Which of the following is correct statement

(a) 1 1, 2 2, 1, 1 2, 2 0m m m mn dY n dY Y dn T dn

(b) Gibb’s-Duhem equation is studied for chemical potential

(c) In Gibbs-Duhem equation , assumption was made that number of moles of components remain constant even

though mole fraction can be changed

(d) Gibbs-Duhem equation was derived at constant temperature and pressure

Q.55 The masses recorded when a substance is weighed 4 times are 16.8, 16.4, 16.6 and 17.0 mg. The variance (square of

the standard deviation) and standard deviation closest to

(a) 0.10 and 0.10 (b) 0.05 and 0.05 (c) 0.05 and 0.05 (d) 0.10 and 0.10

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Q.56 In an ideal monoatomic gas the speed of sound is given by 4

3

RT

M. If the speed of sound in argon at 25ºC is 1260

km/h. The root mean square velocity is

(1) 1890 km/h (2) 1245 km/h (3) 1890 m/s (4) 525 m/s

(a) 1, 4 (b) 1, 2 (c) 3, 4 (d) 2, 4

Q.57 Following two reactions,

5 3 2( ) ( )PCl PCl g Cl g 2 2( ) ( )COCl CO g Cl g

Are simultaneously at equilibrium in a container at constant volume. A few moles of CO(g) is added into the vessel,

the new equilibrium concentration of.

(a) PCl5 remain unchanged (b) Cl2 will be greater (c) PCl5 become greater (d) PCl5 become less

Q.58 The surface tension of dilute solution of a solute is given by

2

0acae

Where 0 is surface tension of pure solvent and ‘a’ is some arbitrary constant and c2 is concentration of solute.

Using Gibbs adsorption equation, the surface excess per unit surface area is given by

(a) 0

RT

(b) 2ac

RT (c) 2 0( )ac

RT

(d) None of these

Q.59 The ground state energy of 6 identical spin-1/2 particles which are subject to a 1-D simple harmonic oscillator po-

tential of frequency is

(a) 15

2

(b) 13

2

(c) 1

2

(d) 9

Q.60 The minimum energy of a collection of 6 non-interacting electrons of spin 1

2 placed in a one dimensional infinite

square well potential of width L is

(a) 2 2 214 / mL (b) 2 2 291 / mL (c) 2 2 27 / mL (d) 2 2 23 / mL

Q.61 Consider the reactions

( ) ( ) ( )A g B g Pdt g ……(1)

( ) ( ) ( )C g D g Pdt g ……(2)

According to Collision theory the squares of pre-exponential factors of reaction (1) and reaction (2) is.

Species M(g/mole) Diameter (nm)

A 2 1

B 4 3

C 6 2

D 8 4

(a) 149

96 (b)

96

149 (c)

96

189 (d)

189

96

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Q.62 In the adsorption of 5.2g of an acid (molar mass=100gmole–1) on an adsorption site, the total surface area covered

was found to be 150 cm2. The area corresponding to 1 molecule is (in cm2)

(a) 478.93×10–21 (b) 478.93×10–20 (c) 4.78×10–23 (d) 4.78×10–21

Q.63 A first order reaction involves energy of activation to be 2 kcalmole–1. The ratio 400

200

K

K

k

k is approximate

(a) 0.0025 (b) e0.0025 (c) e2.5 (d) e25

Q.64 For the elementary bimolecular reaction involving same reactions. The correct rate law is

(a) 1 1

kta x a

(b) ( )

akt

x a x

(c)

2(1 )

xkt akt

a (d) 2 (1 )kt a akt

Q.65 For the reaction, 2A B C Product. For the ionic strengths, I1 = 25 unit I2 = 16 unit, the ratio of

2

1

logI

I

k

k

is (in units of Debye Huckel constant)

(a) 10 A (b) –10A (c) 6A (d) –6A

Q.66 If 0.6 A Bx is a normalized molecular orbital of a diatomic molecule AB. Constructed from A and B

which are also normalized. The overlap between A and B and value of x are

(a) 0, 0.8 (b) 0.31, 0.64 (c) 0.8, 0.31 (d) 0.64, 0.31

Q.67 In a fcc lattice, the 2sin values obtained from X-ray powder diffraction pattern of a solid are observed at

(a) 1K, 2K, 3K, …… (b) 3K, 4K, 6K, …… (c) 3K, 4K, 8K, …… (d) 3K, K, 9K, …..

Q.68 In a cubic crystal, the value of interplanar spacing for (444) planes is 25 pm. The cell constant is

(a) 100 pm (b) 100 3pm (c) 100

3pm (d) none of these

Q.69 For a certain particle encountering a barrier, the tunneling probability is approximately e–10. If the mass id doubled

and the width of the barrier is halved, approximate value of the tunneling probability will be

(a) 10/ 2e (b) 10 2e (c) 20 2e (d) 20/ 2e

Q.70 A solution of a compound (M = 250 gmol–1) in Benzene contains 4g of the compound per litr. When this solution

is dropped on a water surface, the benzene evaporates and the compound forms a mono layer film of the solid type.

In order to cover an area of 400 cm2 with a monolayer, the volume of solution that should be used in ltr is (The

area covered by one molecule of the compound is 0.25 nm2)

(a) 21.6×10–5 (b) 12.16×10–5 (c) 16.6×10–5 (d) 1.66×10–5

Q.71 E of cell reaction, 2

1

2g aq s

Cl Ag e AgCl is 1.90 V. If Ksp of AgCl is 1010 , then the value of E for

following reaction is 2

1

2Cl e Cl

(a) 1.35 (b) 1.3 (c) 3.5 (d) 2.2

Q.72 Identify radioactive capture from the following nuclear reactions

(a) 9 8( , )Be n Be (b) 107 107( , )Ag n n Ag (c) 63 24( , 3 9 )Cu p p n Na (d) 23 24( , )Na n Na

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Q.73 The cell potential of the given half-cell is

Pt | Cl2 (10 atm) | HCl (0.1M) E° = 1.36 V

(a) 1.45 V (b) 1.27 V (c) 1.56 V (d) 1.16 V

Q.74 The following Rice-Herzfeld mechanism has been proposed for the gas phase pyrolysis of methane

(i) 1

4 3

kCH CH H (ii) 2

3 4 2 6

kCH CH C H H

(iii) 3

4 3 2

kH CH CH H (iv) 4

3 4

kH CH M CH M

In the last reaction M is a molecule ( 4CH or 2 6C H ) which can carry away the energy of recombination of H and

3CH . Assuming SSA for H and 3CH . The overall activation energy of the reaction is

(a) 1 2 3 4

1

3E E E E (b) 1 3 2 4

1

3E E E E

(c) 1 3 2 4

1

2E E E E (d) 1 2 3 4

1

3E E E E

Q.75 The fraction of volume unoccupied in the unit cell of the B.C.C. lattice is

(a) 8 3

8

(b)

3

8

(c)

6 2

6

(d)

3 2

Q.76 The age of ancient wooden items, if it is known that the specific activity of 14C nuclide in them amount to 3/5 of

that in lately felled trees. (The half-life of 14C nuclei is 5570 years)

(a) 4104.9 years (b) 4204.8 years (c) 4304.9 years (d) 4004.9 years

Q.77 Two substances A and B are present such that initial concentration of A is 4 times the initial concentration of B

and half-lives of A and B are 5 min. and 15 min. respectively. If they start decaying at the same time following

first order kinetics, how much time later will the concentration of both of them would be same ?

(a) 10 min. (b) 15 min. (c) 30 min. (d) 60 min.

Q.78 For the equilibrium, 2 2 33 2N H NH , the kp is expressed as

(a) 3

2

3

23

NH

P

N

Pk

P (b) 3

2 2

2

3

33

NH

P

N H

Pk

P P (c) 3

2

2

3

43

NH

P

N

Pk

P (d) 3

2

4

33

NH

P

N

Pk

P

Q.79 The unit of Michaelis menton constant in enzyme catalyses

1 3

2

k k

KE S ES E P is

(a) sec–1 (b) ltr mole–1 s–1 (c) mole litr–1 s–1 (d) none of these

Q.80 Consider a reaction, A P with rate law, 1 2

3

3

2overall

k kk

k and E1 = 100 kJ mole-1, E2 = 50 kJ mole-1 , E3 = 20 kJ

mole-1. The overall activation energy is

(a) 195 kJ mole–1 (b) 180 kJ mole–1 (c) 150 kJ mole–1 (d) 130 kJ mole–1

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Q.81 For the nuclear reactions

(A) 8 44 22Be He (b) 80 40

36 182Kr Ar

(Given masses : 8Be = 8.005300, 4He = 4.002603 and 8036 79.81638,Kr 40

18 39.96238Ar )

The incorrect statement is

(I) (A) and (B) are both spontaneous fission processes

(II) (A) is spontaneous fission but (B) is not

(III) (B) is spontaneous fission but (A) is not

(IV) Both (A) and (B) are not spontaneous fission processes

(a) II only (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV

Q.82 For the reaction 2 2A A in a closed container, the relation between the degree of dissociation ( ) and the equi-

librium constant Kp at a fixed temperature is given by.

(a) [ / ( 4 )]p pK K p (b) 1/2[( 4 ) / ]p pK p K

(c) [( 4 )]pK p (d) 1/2[ / ( 4 )]p pK K p

Q.83 The variation of equilibrium constant (K) of a certain reaction with temperature (T) is ln 42.0 10

3.0kT

given

R = 8.3 Jk–1 mol–1, the value of 0H and 0S are

(a) 166 kJ mol–1 and 24.9 Jk–1 mol–1 (b) –166 kJ mol–1 and 24.9 Jk–1 mol–

(c) 1166 kJ mol–1 and –24.9 Jk–1 mol–1 (d) –166 kJ mol–1 and 24.9 Jk–1 mol–1

Q.84 Stability of lyophobic dispersions is determined by

(a) Inter-particle excluded volume attraction and intra-particle van der Waals repulsion

(b) Inter-particle electric double layer attraction and intra-particle van der Waals repulsion

(c) Inter-particle excluded volume repulsion and intra-particle van der Waals attraction

(d) Inter-particle electric double layer repulsion and intra-particle van der Waals attraction

Q.85 Which of the following graphs shows the concentration of a sugar solution as a function of the cumulative amount

of sugar added in the process of preparing a saturated solution (the temperature remaining constant)?

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Space for rough work

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Test Series Paper-2 (Dec. 2018)

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.d 15.d

16.b 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.a

31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.a 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.c 41.d 42.b 43.d 44.b 45.b

46.b 47.c 48.b 49.d 50.b 51.d 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.a

61.d 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.a 66.a 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.d 73.a 74.c 75.a

76.a 77.b 78.c 79.d 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.b 84.d 85.c

Test Series Paper-2 (Dec. 2018)

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.d 15.d

16.b 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.a

31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.a 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.c 41.d 42.b 43.d 44.b 45.b

46.b 47.c 48.b 49.d 50.b 51.d 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.a

61.d 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.a 66.a 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.d 73.a 74.c 75.a

76.a 77.b 78.c 79.d 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.b 84.d 85.c

Test Series Paper-2 (Dec. 2018)

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.d 15.d

16.b 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.a

31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.a 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.c 41.d 42.b 43.d 44.b 45.b

46.b 47.c 48.b 49.d 50.b 51.d 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.a

61.d 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.a 66.a 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.d 73.a 74.c 75.a

76.a 77.b 78.c 79.d 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.b 84.d 85.c

Test Series Paper-2 (Dec. 2018)

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.d 15.d

16.b 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.a

31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.a 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.c 41.d 42.b 43.d 44.b 45.b

46.b 47.c 48.b 49.d 50.b 51.d 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.a

61.d 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.a 66.a 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.d 73.a 74.c 75.a

76.a 77.b 78.c 79.d 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.b 84.d 85.c

Test Series Paper-2 (Dec. 2018)

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.d 15.d

16.b 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.a

31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.a 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.c 41.d 42.b 43.d 44.b 45.b

46.b 47.c 48.b 49.d 50.b 51.d 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.a

61.d 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.a 66.a 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.d 73.a 74.c 75.a

76.a 77.b 78.c 79.d 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.b 84.d 85.c

Test Series Paper-2 (Dec. 2018)

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.d 6.d 7.a 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.b 12.a 13.b 14.d 15.d

16.b 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.b 21.b 22.a 23.c 24.a 25.a 26.c 27.c 28.c 29.b 30.a

31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.a 37.c 38.c 39.c 40.c 41.d 42.b 43.d 44.b 45.b

46.b 47.c 48.b 49.d 50.b 51.d 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.a 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.a

61.d 62.d 63.c 64.c 65.a 66.a 67.c 68.b 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.d 73.a 74.c 75.a

76.a 77.b 78.c 79.d 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.b 84.d 85.c