TEST CODE:1531...Navadhanya Movement 3. Chipko Movement Silent Valley Movement (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 3 4...

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Test Booklet Series TEST CODE:1531 GS COMPLETE MOCK TEST Time: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION , YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100items (questions). Each item is printed in English only .Each item comprises Four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any Case; choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong Answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. i. There are four alternatives for all questions. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. DO NOT OPEN BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DOSO 1

Transcript of TEST CODE:1531...Navadhanya Movement 3. Chipko Movement Silent Valley Movement (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 3 4...

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

TEST CODE:1531

GS COMPLETE MOCK TEST Time: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION , YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES

OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE

APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the box provided alongside.

DO NOT Write anything else on Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100items (questions). Each item is printed in English only .Each item

comprises Four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the

answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response

which you consider the best. In any Case; choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions

in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,

you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong Answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. i. There are four alternatives for all questions. For each question for which a wrong answer

has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question

will be deducted as penalty ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one

of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that

question. DO NOT OPEN BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DOSO

1

ABHIMANU‟s IAS -AAGHAZ GS Mock – 1531

1. Which of the following reflects upon

the inclusive growth?

1. The State GDPs growth rates of

different states of India

2. Inequality Adjusted Human

Development Index

3. Gender Development Index

4. Multi-dimensional Poverty Index

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above*

2. The deficit after adjusting the revenue

account for state grants that have been

used for the creation of Capital Assets

is called as

(a) Net Revenue Deficit

(b) Effective Revenue Deficit*

(c) Effective Fiscal Deficit

(d) Primary Deficit

3. Ecological pyramids show the relative

amount of energy or matter contained

within each trophic level in a given

food chain or food web.

Which of the following statements are true

in context of ecological pyramids?

1. There are mainly three types of

ecological pyramids

2. Pyramid of numbers can be both

upright and inverted

3. Pyramid of Biomass can be both

upright and inverted

4. Pyramid of energy is always inverted

Codes

(a) All of the above

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3*

(d) 1, 3 and 4

4. An estuary is a channel that has the sea

at one end and a river at the other.

Which of the following statements is not

true in context of estuaries?

(a) They are the most productive regions

of the along the coasts

(b) World‟s almost 60% of population

reside along estuaries and sea coasts

(c) Major estuaries in India occur in the

Arabian Sea*

(d) The salinity varies between 0 to 35%

5. Which of the following statements is

not correct in the context of anti-

oxidants and free radicals?

(a) Antioxidants are man-made or natural substances that may prevent or delay some types of cell damage.

(b) Antioxidant molecules have been

shown to counteract oxidative stress in laboratory experiments

(c) The use of high-dose beta-carotene

supplements to an increased risk of lung cancer in smokers and use of high-dose vitamin E supplements to increased risks of hemorrhagic stroke and prostate cancer.

(d) Free radicals are highly stable

molecules. Cigarette smoke, air pollution, and sunlight can cause

2

increased supply of free radicals in the

body. *

6. Marshall Plan was meant for

(a) Building the economics of the third

world

(b) Rebuilding Western European

economics *

(c) Rebuilding the economics of the

North-American countries

(d) Building the economics of African

countries

7. As per the Indian fiscal scenario during

last decade, arrange the following

deficits in their increasing order?

1. Fiscal Deficit

2. Revenue Deficit

3. Primary Deficit

Codes

(a) 3, 2, 1*

(b) 1, 2, 3

(c) 2, 1, 3

(d) 3, 1, 2

8. India has decided to enhance

transparency of its nuclear

infrastructure by ratifying an

Additional Protocol with the

International Atomic Energy Agency

(IAEA).

Which of the following statements are correct in context of the above development?

(1) This will pave the way large imports of

nuclear technology, boosting power

generation and other civilian purposes.

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(2) Additional Protocol will cover only those facilities which are monitored by the IAEA, and will have no bearing on the non-safeguarded facilities which are used for building weapons.

(3) IAEA also known as the "Atoms for

Peace" organization within UN, was set up in 1957 to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3*

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

9. Endogenous technological change is

not caused by

(a) FDI

(b) Population size

(c) Population density

(d) Educational level*

10. Which of the following are the

differences between the Fundamental

Rights and the Directive Principles?

1. Fundamental Rights are negative injunctions, while the Directive Principles are positive instruction to the government

2. Fundamental Rights are justiciable

while the Directive Principles of State

Policy are non-justiciable

3. Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional basis while the Directive Principles are based on conventions

4. In case of a conflict between

Fundamental Rights & most Directive Principles the former get precedence.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4*

(d) All of the above

11. Which of the following is not correct

about the micro, small and medium

enterprises in India ?

1. It covers both registered and informal

sectors.

2. Its classification criteria is investment

in plant and machinery.

3. The fourth Census of the MSMEs is for

the year 2009-10.

4. According to the fourth Census of MSME, total registered MSME sector comprised 67.1 percent manufacturing units white 32.9 percent were service enterprises.

Codes

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above*

12. Identify the animal on the basis of the

following characteristics

1. Endemic to temperate forests of the

Himalayas

2. Omnivorous

3. Habitat is Sikkim, Assam and

Northern Arunachal Pradesh

4. The main threat habitat loss, fragmentation, poaching and inbreeding depression

4

Codes

(a) Red Panda*

(b) Marbled Cat

(c) Swamp Deer

(d) Indian Bison

13. Which of the following statements are

correct in the context of Biodiversity

Hot Spot?

1. The concept was put forth by Norman

Myers in 1988

2. To be qualified as Biodiversity Hot Spot, it must contain atleast 1,500 species of vascular plants and loss of atleast 70% of original habitat

3. Over 50% of world‟s plant species and

42% of all terrestrial vertebrate species are endemic to 34 biodiversity hot spots

Codes

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3*

(d) Only 3

14. Arrange the chronological order of the

beginning of the following

environmental movements :

1. Narmada Bachao Andolan

2. Navadhanya Movement

3. Chipko Movement

4. Silent Valley Movement

Codes :

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 4 2 1*

(d) 1 3 4 2

15. Indicate the correct chronological

sequence of the following monuments

in order of their construction.

1. Humayun tomb

2. Moti mosque

3. Din Panah

4. Red Fort, Delhi

Select your answer from the codes given

below:

(a) 3 1 4 2*

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 4 1 3 2

16. With which of the following part of

the World Trade Organisation, the

term Reverse Consensus is specifically

related?

(a) Trade Policy Review

(b) Trade Related Intellectual Property

Rights

(c) Dispute Settlement Body *

(d) All of the above

17. Arrange the following treaties in the

context of European Union in

chronological Order

1. Lisbon Treaty

2. Treaty of Paris

3. Treaty of Rome

4. Maastricht Treaty

Codes

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1*

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(b) 1, 2, 3, 4

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4

(d) 1, 2, 4, 3

18. Which of the following is basic term

used for the Optional Money?

(a) Unlimited Legal Tender

(b) Legal Tender Money

(c) Limited Legal Tender

(d) Non-Legal Tender Money*

19. Which of the following is the correct

order?

(a) Terabyte, Petabyte, Exabyte, Zettabyte,

Yottabyte *

(b) Terabyte, Petabyte, Zettabyte,

Yottabyte, Exabyte

(c) Terabyte, Petabyte, Exabyte,

Yottabyte, Zettabyte

(d) None of the above

20. Consider the following statements are

true in the context of Brahmos Missile.

Which of the following are true?

1. BRAHMOS is a two-stage missile with a liquid propellant booster engine as its first stage

2. It operates on „Fire and Forget

Principle‟, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.

3. High radar signature

4. Stealth technology and guidance

system with advanced embedded software

Codes

(a) 2 and 4*

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

21. Which of the following statements are

true in the context of Ground Level

Ozone?

1. It is formed through a complex reaction involving hydrocarbons, Nitrogen Oxides, and sunlight

2. This Ozone is formed when pollutants

released from gasoline, diesel powered vehicles and oil based solvents react with heat and sunlight

3. While the ozone in the stratosphere

protect earth from harmful UV radiation, ozone on ground is also good for human health

Codes

(a) 1 and 2*

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Which of the following statements are

true in the context of International Union for Conservation of

Nature (IUCN) threatened species in

India?

1. India has added 15 more species to the

“Red List” in 2014

2. India had 988 threatened species on the

list, which lists critically endangered,

endangered and vulnerable species.

3. India has climbed down by one position to now seventh position for number of species in Red List

4. In a related development, World Bank

mapping of endangered mammals

shows India as having the fourth largest

number of threatened species in

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the world, 31 of them endemic to the

region

Codes

(a) All of the above*

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

23. The greatest share of fisheries comes

from

(a) Deep seas

(b) Continental shelves

(c) Deep ocean trenches

(d) Fresh waters *

24. Which of the following groups is

produced by erosion?

(a) Drumlins, Fjords, Arete

(b) Eskern, Out-wash plains, Moraines

(c) Cirque, V-shaped valley, Lavees *

(d) Playa, Pincles, Swallow holes

25. Which of the following set of nations

are the world‟s largest producers of oil

and natural gas hydrocarbons in the

increasing order for the year 2014?

(a) USA, Russia and Saudi Arabia*

(b) Saudi Arabia, Russia and USA

(c) USA, Venezuela and Saudi Arabia

(d) Saudi Arabia, Russia and Venezuela

26. Public Accounts Committee has the

following Members. Tick the correct

answer :

Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha Total

(a) 10 5 15

(b) 15 7 22*

(c) 11 5 16

(d) 17 10 27

27. When a mixture of Azospirillum,

Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to

rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric

nitrogen was increased. It was due to

activity of

(a) All the three*

(b) Azospirillum and Vibrio

(c) Azotobacter and Vibrio

(d) Azotobacter and Azospirillum 28. With reference to SEBI (Alternative

Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012,

there are three categories of Alternative

Investment Funds (AIFs) depending

upon their impact on the economy.

Match List I with List II.

List I List II

(Category) (Examples)

1. AIF I A. Angel investors, VCFs

2. AIF II B. PE Funds, Debt Funds

3. AIF III C. Hedge funds

Codes

(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C*

(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B

(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A

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29. Which of the following nations have

not been assigned the market economy

status by India?

(a) China*

(b) Belarus

(c) Brazil

(d) Russia

30. Xenobiotic substances are transferred

from food to an organism resulting in

higher concentrations compared with

the source. This process continues

across the food chain. It is called as

(a) Bio-magnification *

(b) Hyper accumulation

(c) Bioaccumulation

(d) None of the above

31. The most noticeable difference

between two polar Ice Caps is

(a) Arctic Ice Cap is on land

(b) Antarctic Ice Cap is on land

(c) Both are on land but Antarctic Ice Cap

is thicker *

(d) Both are on sea but Arctic Ice Cap is

thicker

32. Match the following by using the

codes given below.

List – I List – II

A. Creation of Israel 1. 1978

B. Camp David Deal 2. 1948

C. UN recognises PLO 3. 1974

D. Islamic Revolution 4. 1979

Codes :

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 1 3 4*

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 1 4 3 2

33. In case, China devalues its currency

Yuan against US dollar.

Which of the following are the likely

fallouts of this decision?

1. US trade deficit with China will

decrease.

2. The move is likely to hurt Indian

exports

3. There are apprehensions of currency

war

4. India‟s trade deficit with China will

widen further

5. World‟s major currencies are likely to

depreciate against US dollar

Codes

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only *

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 5 only

34. Which of the following is not a

component of Bharat Nirman ?

(a) Rural housing

(b) Rural electrification

(c) Agro-based industries *

(d) Rural telephony

35. Right to clean environment is

guaranteed in Indian Constitution by

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 21*

(d) Article 25

36. The country‟s Balance of payment

condition may improve by adopting the

combination of the following measures

I. Import control

II. Export promotion

III. Foreign exchange control

IV. Devaluation

Codes :

(a) I and II are correct.

(b) I, II, III and IV are correct *

(c) II and III are correct.

(d) I, II and III are correct.

37. Arrange the origin of money in a

sequential order

I. Cheque

II. Metallic money

III. Commodity money

IV. Paper money

Codes :

(a) IV, I, III, II

(b) I, III, II, IV

(c) III, II, IV, I *

(d) II, IV, I, III

38. There was Nehru-Liaqat Pact in April

1950, according to which Indian 8

gov­ernment was not to have any say

regarding the minorities in Pakistan.

Which of the following leaders left Nehru cabinet on this issue, and joined Hindu Maha Sabha in 1950?

(a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee*

(b) Vir Savarkar

(c) Balraj Madhok

(d) Deen Dyal Upadhaya

39. Algal bio-fertilizer consists of

(a) Blue green algae and earthworm

(b) Algal biomass and Mycorrhiza

(c) Blue green algae and Azolla*

(d) Green algae and Rhizobia

40. The main objective of Akbar‟s policy

of territorial expansion

(a) Safeguarding the North-west frontier

from Mangol invasions *

(b) Consolidation of royal authority over

the Rajputana and the Deccan

(c) Establishment of supreme power over

the conquered territories

(d) Propagation of his religion Tauhid-i-

Ilahi

41. Consider the following statements

about the Harappan civilization :

1. The sites are discovered both from the

urban and rural areas.

2. The inscriptions are in different

contemporary scripts.

3. The tools and metals provide the idea

of the specialised artisans.

4. The dock-yards have been found at

Lothal and Dholavira.

9

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3*

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 4 and 2

42. What is the correct chronological order

of the developments listed below ?

1. Indo-Soviet Treaty of Friendship

2. India‟s first Nuclear Explosion at

Pokhran

3. Cuban Missile Crises

4. Adoption of structural adjustment

programme of India

Select the correct answer from the

following codes :

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 1 2 4 *

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 1 4 3 2

43. Who delivered a series of lectures

under the title of „Wake up India‟?

(a) B. G. Tilak

(b) AurobindoGhosh

(c) Bipinchandra Pal

(d) Annie Besant*

44. What are the consequences if Financial

Regulators don‟t put any restrictions

on foreign portfolio investors?

1. Exchange rate volatility

2. Sensex may become volatile

3. Higher probability of Balance of

Payment crisis

Codes

(a) only 1 and 2

(b) only 2 and 3

(c) only 1 and 3

(d) All of them*

45. Match the countries in List – I with

their name in List – II by using the

codes given below :

List – I List – II

A. Benin 1. Gold Coast

B. Burkina Faso 2. South West Africa

C. Ghana 3. Dahomey

D. Namibia 4. Upper Volta

Codes

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 4 1 2*

(c) 1 4 2 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

46. Which of the following

statement/sis/are correct about the

Kushanas ?

(a) Their traces have been found in

Central Asia.

(b) They perhaps initiated the practice of

appointing two governors simultaneously in the same province.

(c) The Gandhara art which developed

under them not only popularised the Buddha in the anthropomorphic form, but also encouraged the amalgam of Indian and foreign arts.

10

(d) All the above *

47. By which constitutional amendment

Parliament acquired the right to

amend fundamental rights?

(a) 21st

(b) 22nd

(c) 23rd

(d) 24th*

48. The premise that present-day processes

have been operating throughout

geological time is the principle of

(a) Continental drift

(b) Uniformitarianism *

(c) Earth Systems

(d) Plate Tectonics

49. Consider the following statements

about Lipids

1. Lipids are organic compounds that contain the same elements as carbohydrates such as carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

2. Hydrogen to Oxygen ratio in lipids is

greater than 2: 1

3. They are fat soluble and will not

dissolve in water

4. Fats, waxes and steroids are not types

of lipids

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) All of the above*

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) 2, 3 and 4

50. The area of the biosphere which is

protected entirely, without any

experimentation and research and no

biotic interference, is known as

(a) Undisturbed zone

(b) Buffer zone

(c) Core zone *

(d) Principal zone

51. The metal which is generally absorbed

by plants along with Zn and causes

“Ouch Ouch” disease in human beings

is

(a) Pb

(b) Cd *

(c) Hg

(d) Cr

52. Government recently launched

Diagnostic kits for Celiac Disease.

Which of the following statements are true

in the context of Celiac disease?

1. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder that can occur in genetically predisposed people where the ingestion of gluten leads to damage in the small intestine.

2. When people with celiac disease eat

gluten, their body mounts an immune response that attacks the small intestine.

3. Gluten, a protein is mainly found in

wheat, rye and barley.

4. The main damage is mainly done to

the lining of the large intestine.

5. When the villi get damaged, nutrients

cannot be absorbed properly into the body.

11

Codes

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5*

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1,2,3 and 4

(d) All of the above

53. The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhar

card is not mandatory for the citizens.

Which of the following are correct in the

context of judgement?

1. The court ruled that Aadhar card will remain optional for availing various

welfare schemes of the government.

2. Aadhar card will continue to be required for PDS and LPG distribution system.

3. Authorities have to ensure that no

personal information of Aadhar card holders is shared.

4. The court has not allowed the use of

details of Aadhar card holders for criminal investigations.

Codes

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only *

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

54. In context of which of the following

Peninsulas make up most of countries?

(a) Italy and Denmark*

(b) Poland and France

(c) Ireland and Great Britain

(d) Austria and the Czech Republic

55. Which of the following acts governs

the Radioactive Waste Management in

our country?

(a) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Trans-boundary Movement)

(b) Atomic Energy Act, 1962 *

(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(d) Biomedical Waste (Management &

Handling) Rules 1998

56. Consider the following statements

about health adalats in India?

1. Karnataka became the first State in the

country to launch a Health Adalat.

2. It was launched to address health issues at the grassroots level and ensure that all health facilities extended by the government reached all sections of society.

3. The adalat aimed at narrowing the gap

between the Health Department and the elected representatives who function as a bridge between the government and the people.

Codes

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) All of the options are correct *

(d) 1 and 3 only

57. Match the List-I with List-II and select

the correct answer using codes given

below :

List – I List - II

(Local Winds) (Countries)

1. Loo A. West Africa

2. Samun B. Former Yugoslavia

12

3. Harmattan C. Pakistan

4. Bora D. Iran

Codes :

1 2 3 4

(a) B C D A

(b) C D A B*

(c) D A B C

(d) A B C D

58. Consider the following statements in

the context of Suez Canal

1. Egypt has recently opened a major

expansion of Suez Canal

2. The canal carries almost 7% of the

world trade as per last few years‟ data

3. Egypt is the gatekeeper of Suez Canal

4. It was nationalised in 1969 during war

with Israel

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only*

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) All are correct

(d) 1 and 2 only

59. Which of the following statements is

not correct in the context of Mercosur?

(a) Mercosur was established in 1991 by the Treaty of Asunción, which was later amended and updated by the 1994 Treaty of OuroPreto.

(b) Gaucho is regional currency of

Mercosur *

(c) Mercosur is composed of 5 sovereign member states: Argentina; Brazil;

Paraguay; Uruguay; and Venezuela.

(d) Bolivia‟s membership status is "in

accession process

60. Which of the following personalities

propounded the term “Delhi

Consensus”?

(a) Shinzo Abe *

(b) Xi Jinping

(c) Barrack Obama

(d) Vladimir Putin

61. Which of the following is not a

Millennium Development Goal ?

(a) Ensuring environmental sustainability

(b) Eradicating extreme poverty and

hunger

(c) Developing global partnership for

development

(d) Achieving universal energy security *

62. Which of the following statements are

correct in the context of revised solar

mission?

1. Centre plans to leverage bilateral and international donors, including Green

Climate Fund under UNFCCC

2. The revised capacity has been divided into 60 GW for rooftop solar electricity generation and 40 GW for large and medium-scale grid-connected projects

3. The capital subsidy will be provided

for viability gap funding-based projects to be developed through Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Codes

(a) 1 and 3*

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

13

(d) 1 only

63. A change in a population‟s gene pool

over time is called

(a) Microevolution*

(b) Macroevolution

(c) Chemical evolution

(d) Inorganic evolution

64. Bangladesh is concerned about India‟s

plans to construct the Tipaimukh dam

over Barak river in

(a) Tripura

(b) Assam

(c) Manipur *

(d) Bhutan

65. Match the List-I with List-II and select

the correct answer from the codes

given below :

List – I List - II

Vegetation Indian States/UTs

1. Conifers A. Jharkhand

2. Evergreen B. Rajasthan

3. Xerophytes C. Andaman &

Nicobar

4. Deciduous D. J & K

Codes :

1 2 3 4

(a) C D A B

(b) D C B A*

(c) B A C D

(d) A B D C

66. The core of the Great Himalayan is

made up of

(a) Dharwar Rocks

(b) Archaean Rocks *

(c) Quaternary Rocks

(d) Gondwana Rocks

Codes:

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) II, III, I, IV

(c) III, I, II, IV

(d) IV, III, II, I

67. The term of Kyoto Protocol has been

extended beyond December 2012 by

(a) 5 years

(b) 7 years

(c) 8 years *

(d) 3 years

68. Which one of the determinants of

Indian Foreign Policy is not the reason

for defacto recognition of Israel by

India before 1980?

(a) Economic factor *

(b) Pluralist nature of Indian Society

(c) History and tradition of India

(d) Ideology of Indian Nation

69. Which of the following is the correct

sequence regarding the passage of the

Budget ?

1. Voting on Grants

2. General Discussion

3. Finance Bill

14

4. Appropriation Bill

Select the correct code from the following :

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 3, 2, 1, 4*

(c) 3, 1, 2, 4

(d) 1, 2, 4, 3

70. In which of the following economies

that are among top 15 economies of the

world, the share of service sector in its

GDP is less than half?

(a) Australia

(b) China *

(c) Mexico

(d) Germany

71. According to Article 170, the maximum

members of the State Legislative

Assemblies which are directly elected

could be

(a) 403

(b) 485

(c) 484

(d) 500*

72. Match List I with List II an select the

correct answer by using the code given

below the lists:

List I List II

A Sumant 1 Religious affairs

B Amatya 2 State correspondence

C Sachiva 3 Revenue department

D Panditrao 4 Foreign affairs

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1*

(b) 4 2 3 1

(c) 2 4 1 3

(d) 3 1 2 4

73. The concept of “a countrywide

network for higher education that will

allow students the flexibility to design

their own curriculum and combine

subjects of their choice” is basically of

(a) Innovation University

(b) Meta University *

(c) Central University

(d) Deemed University

74. According to Economic Survey 2014-15,

which of the following are two

dimensions of double financial

repression of Indian Banking system?

1. Deployment of a bank‟s resources in less productive assets due to Statutory Liquidity Ratio and Priority Sector Lending on Assets side

2. High Volatility in share prices of banks

3. Need for recapitalization of Public

Sector Banks due to stringent Basel norms

4. A reduction in household financial

savings due to high negative returns on their deposits due to high inflation on liabilities side

Codes :

(a) 1 and 4*

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

15

75. Answer the following Indo-Pak

agreements in chronological order :

1. Agra Accord

2. Tashkent Agreement

3. Lahore Agreement

4. Shimla Agreement

Select the correct answer from the codes

given below :

Codes :

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 2 4 3 1*

(d) 1 2 3 4

76. Which of the following statements are

true about Asian Infrastructure

Investment Bank?

I. Asian countries are holding around

three fourth of the total shares

II. The total authorised capital stock of

bank is $ 100 billion

III. India is the second largest shareholder

of the bank, Japan being the largest shareholder

IV. There are 50 initial signatories on

Articles of Agreement

Codes

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, II and IV*

(c) II, III and IV

(d) All are true

77. Match the List – I the annual sessions

of Indian National Congress with List

– II its President in that session :

List – I List – II

A. Lucknow (1916) 1. Hakim Ajmal

Khan

B. Delhi (1918) 2. C.R. Das

C. Ahmedabad (1920) 3. M MMalaviya

D. Gaya (1922) 4.AmbikaCharan

Mazumdar

Codes :

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2*

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 2 4 3 1

78. The doctrine of Subsidiary Alliance

was introduced by Lord Wellesley who

was Governor-General from 1798-1805,

to build an empire in India.

Which of the following statements is not

true in the context of doctrine?

(a) The allying Indian state's ruler was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance.

(b) Indian ruler had to agree to the posting

of a British Resident in his court.

(c) Indian ruler could not employ any other Europeans except British in his

service. *

(d) The Indian ruler could not negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the governor-general.

79. Arrange the following Chisti saints in

correct chronological order

16

1. Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya

2. Syed Mohammed Gesudaraz

3. Baba Farid

4. Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirag-e-Delhi

Select the correct answer from the codes

given below

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(c) 1, 3, 4, 2

(d) 3, 1, 4, 2*

80. Government has recently announced

its Coal Bed Methane Policy.

Which of the following statements are true in the context of Coal Bed Methane?

1. CBM is trapped in coal beds and

released during and after mining.

2. Methane capture and its utilization from coal mines is not being undertaken in India due to lack of latest technology

3. There is pervasive perception that

commercial viability of exploitation and utilization of Methane is doubtful.

4. Gujarat does not hold any prospects

for CBM.

5. Unlike natural gas from conventional reservoirs, coal bed methane contains high percentage of heavier hydrocarbons such as propane or butane, and no natural gas condensate.

Codes

(a) 1, 2 and 3*

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(d) All of the above

81. For harnessing Ocean Thermal Energy

the temperature difference between the

water at the surface and water at depths

up to two kms should be more than

(a) 5O C

(b) 10O C

(c) 15O C

(d) 20OC*

82. Distributive Justice is the common aim

of

(a) Article 44 and 45

(b) Article 38 and 39*

(c) Article 29 and 30

(d) Article 45 and 46

83. The ideal type of federalism is

(a) Dual federalism

(b) Bargaining federalism

(c) New federalism

(d) Co-operative federalism*

84. Which of the following Article/s of the

Constitution provides that the total

number of Ministers, including PM

and the CMs in the Council of

Ministers and the Council of Ministers

in a State, shall not exceed fifteen per

cent of the total number of members of

the House of the People and the total

number of the members of the

Legislative Assembly of that State, as

the case may be?

(a) Article 75

(b) Article 164

(c) Both (a) and (b) *

(d) Nether a nor b

17

85. Which of the following are the last

states to implement Fiscal

Responsibility and Budget

Management Act?

(a) West Bengal and Sikkim*

(b) West Bengal and Odisha

(c) Odisha and Sikkim

(d) J & K and Assam

86. According to Keynesian approach,

which of the following solution can

help to deal with liquidity trap?

(a) Monetary Policy

(b) Fiscal Policy *

(c) A combination of both (a) and (b)

(d) Liquidity trap can‟t be solved

87. With reference to FDI in India, arrange

the nations making FDI in the India in

their increasing order during FY 2014-

15 ?

(a) USA, Japan, Netherlands, Singapore,

Mauritius

(b) USA, Japan, Netherlands, Mauritius,

Singapore

(c) Mauritius, Singapore, Netherlands,

Japan, USA*

(d) Mauritius, Japan, USA, Singapore,

Netherlands

88. The air pollution an increasing

problem in the developing countries

because of

(a) Burning of more coal to produce

electricity

(b) Changing lifestyles

(c) Unavailability of environmental

friendly technologies

(d) All of these *

89. Arrange the following in

chronological order and choose correct

answer from the codes given below :

1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

3. Rabindra Nath Tagore

4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Codes :

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 2 4 3

(c) 4 2 1 3*

(d) 3 4 2 1

90. Which of the following statements are

true in context of Nutrient Based

Subsidy?

1. A fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs per Kg basis) is announced on nutrients namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S) by the Government on annual basis.

2. The main objective of introducing NBS

was to restore soil health

3. NBS is applicable on Urea also

Codes

(a) 1 and 2 only*

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

91. In the context of any type of market,

what do you understand by the term

Arbitrage?

18

(a) Making profit through speculative

trading

(b) Making Profit due to difference

between two stock indices *

(c) The simultaneous purchase and sale of an asset in order to profit from a difference in the price

(d) Buying securities from the primary

market to sell them at higher prices in

secondary market.

92. Match the List I with List II

List I

A. Demand Pull Inflation

B. Cost Push Inflation

C. Suppressed Inflation

D. Creeping Inflation

List II

1. Prices may rise initially

2. Price control by Govt even by

adopting some administrative measure

3. Increase in the cost of factors of

production

4. Price depends upon demand and

supply

Codes

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1 *

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 4 1 2

93. Managed Currency is said to be

(a) Currency, the exchange of which can

be managed easily

(b) Currency the intrinsic value of which

can be managed by decreasing or

increasing its supply

(c) Currency to be managed if the government of the country intervenes in some way to influence the prevailing rate of exchange*

(d) Quota of currency to be managed by

the central bank at the times of

deflation

94. Consider the following statements

1. Ionizing radiation is a type of energy released by atoms in the form of

electromagnetic waves or particles.

2. People are exposed to natural sources of ionizing radiation, such as in soil, water, vegetation, and in human-made sources, such as x-rays and medical devices.

3. Ionizing radiation has many beneficial

applications, including uses in medicine, industry, agriculture and research.

4. The sievert (Sv) is a unit of radiation

weighted dose also called the effective dose. It is a way to measure ionizing radiation in terms of the potential for causing harm.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3and 4 *

(d) 1, 3 and 4

95. Which one among the following is not

guaranteed by the Constitution of

India?

(a) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose

of property anywhere in the country

19

(b) Freedom to move freely throughout

the country

(c) Freedom to assemble peacefully

without arms

(d) Freedom to practise any trade or

profession

96. Which of the following memories has

the shortest access times?

(a) Cache memory *

(b) Magnetic bubble memory

(c) Magnetic core memory

(d) RAM

97. Consider the following statements

1. Brihadeswara temple at Tanjore is the world‟s first complete granite temple in the world.

2. It is the biggest and tallest temple in

the world and UNESCOs world

Heritage

3. It is the master piece of Chola art and

architecture, built by early Cholas.

Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 and 2*

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) All of above

98. Historians and Indologists regard the

Sangam period as the „classical age‟ of

the Tamils. The Sangams flourished in:

(a) Keralaputras

(b) Pandya Kingdom*

(c) Chola Kingdom

(d) Pallava Kingdom

99. Which of the following pairs is not

correctly matched?

Health Problem Pollutant

(a) Nervous System Aldrin

(b) Neurological Disorders Pesticides

(c) Loss of consciousness Oxides of

Nitrogen

(d) Skin Cancer PAN*

100. Which of the following about the

Law Commission is/are correct?

1. The Commission is established for a fixed tenure and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice.

2. Law Commissions are constituted by the

Government to review/repeal obsolete

law, examine the existing laws

3. Government has recently constituted 19th Law Commission of India whose recommendations would be binding on the Government

Select the right combination

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 & 2

(c) 2 & 3

(d) All are correct *

20

1 D

2 B

3 C

4 C

5 D

6 B

7 A

8 A

9 A

10 C

11 D

12 A

13 C

14 C

15 A

16 C

17 A

18 D

19 A

20 A

21 A

22 A

23 D

24 C

25 B

26 B

27 A

28 A

29 A

30 A

31 B

32 B

33 B

34 C

35 C

36 B

37 C

38 A

39 C

40 A

41 C

42 B

43 D

44 D

45 B

46 D

47 D

48 B

49 A

50 C

51 B

52 A

53 B

54 A

55 B

56 C

57 B

58 A

59 B

60 A

61 D

62 A

63 A

64 C

65 B

66 B

67 C

68 A

69 B

70 B

71 D

72 A

73 B

74 A

75 C

76 B

77 A

78 C

79 D

80 A

81 D

82 B

83 D

84 C

85 A

86 B

87 A

88 D

89 C

90 A

91 C

92 A

93 C

94 C

95 A

96 A

97 A

98 B

99 D

100 B