SAMPLE TEST PAPER

CLASS Xfor

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PART-IIQ (MENTAL ABILITY)

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Direction : In the given question, one number is missing in the series. You have to understand the pattern of theseries and insert the number.4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, …, 123, 199(1) 76 (2) 70 (3) 84 (4) 95

2. Direction : In the given question, one number is missing in the series. You have to understand the pattern of theseries and insert the number.2, 6, 12, 20, …, 42, 56, 72, 90(1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 30 (4) 23

3. If in a certain language PENSION is coded as NEISNOP, how is FOLIAGE coded in that code ?(1) EOAILGF (2) FGLIAOE (3) EGAILOF (4) FILOGAE

4. If in a certain language KINDLE is coded as ELDNIK, how is EXOTIC coded in that code ?(1) CXOTIE (2) COXITE (3) CITOXE (4) EOXITC

5. A and B starts from a point in opposite directions. A travels 3 km and B also travels 3 km. Then, A turns towardsright and travels 4 km and B turns towards right and travels 4 km. What is the distance between A and B:(1) 8 km (2) 10 km (3) 12 km (4) 14 km

6. Two groups of letter to the left side of the sing :: are associated with each other following the same rule. You haveto select one group of letter from the given alternative that will replace the sign (:) and from the same associationshipwith the group given to the right of sign (::)JOCK : QLXP :: HEAT : ?(1) OBTX (2) SVZG (3) PHWY (4) SVYF

7. In the following question three out of four alternatives contain letters of the alphabet placed in a particular form.Find the one that does not belong to the group.(1) CdaB (2) VwtU (3) LmjK (4) RsqP

8. Today is 1st August. The day of the week is Monday. This is a leap year. The day of the week on this day after3 years will be.(1) Wednesday (2) Thursday (3) Friday (4) Saturday

INSTRUCTIONSTime duration: 2:30 hours. (The initial 30 minutes are given for filling Response Sheet and the test durationis 2 hours). 

Maximum Marks: 320This Question Paper consists of 2 parts which contains 80 MCQs with 4 choices Part 1: 20 questions on IQ (which comprises questions on application of logic & mental ability) Part 2 : 60 questions (Compulsory Subjects: Physics: 20, Chemistry: 20 & Optional Subjects

(only 1 subject to be attempted):  Biology: 20 or Maths: 20)

Marking Scheme: For each correct answer 4 marks are awarded and for each wrong answer -1 mark isawarded. In case of no response zero mark will be awarded.

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9. Direction : In the left hand column are given problem figures and in the right hand column the answer figures.Pick up from the answer figures, one which will continue the series to the problem figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

10. Direction : In the left hand column are given problem figures and in the right hand column the answer figures.Pick up from the answer figures, one which will continue the series to the problem figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

11. Direction : Out of the Four given figures, three are similar in a certain way. One figure is not like the other three.That means three figures form a group based on some common characteristics. Find out the figure which doesnot belong to the group i.e. which does not share the common features/characteristics with other three figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

12. Direction : In the given question four alternatives are given which follow a word. You have to select onealternative which exactly matches with the mirror image of the word in question.NIRMALA(1) ALAMRIN (2) (3) NRILAMA (4) INRMALA

13. Direction : In the following question, a figure marked (X) is followed by four figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) whichshow that possible water iamges of figure (X). Choose one out of these four figures which shows the correct waterimage of the figure (X).

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

14. Direction : There is some relationship between the first two figures and the same relationship exists between thetwo figures. Find out the missing Figure.

?:(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. Direction : In the given question a dot is placed in the figure marked as (X), this figure is followed by fouralternatives marked as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One out of these four options contains the common region to circle,squares triangle similar to that of marked by dot in figure (X). Select that option.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

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16. How many squares are there in the following figure ?

(1) 10 (2) 16 (3) 20 (4) 19

DIRECTION (17 to 18) : Read the following informations and answer the question.1. P # Q mean Q is father of P.2. P * Q means Q is mother of P.3. P £ Q means Q is brother of P4. P $ Q means Q is sister of P.

17. Which of the following means D is grandson of B?(1) D £ F # C * B (2) ) D # F $ A £ F (3) F £ D # C # B (4) Can't be determined

18. Which of the following will show that B is mother of X?I. B £C#X$Y II. X $ D £C # B III. X £Y$ C*B(1) Only I (2) Only II and III (3) Only III (4) Only I and III

Direction (19 to 20) : Study the following information and answer the question given below it.I. There are six friends A, B, C, D, E and F.II. Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Volleyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo.III. Each owns a different coloured car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.IV. D plays Polo and owns a yellow coloured car.V. C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow coloured car.VI. E owns a white car and plays Badminton.VII.B does not play Tennis, he owns a red coloured car.VIII.A plays Cricket and owns a black car.

19. Who plays Volleyball :(1) B (2) C (3) F (4) None of these

20. Which coloured car F owns :(1) Green (2) Blue (3) either Green or Blue (4) None of these

PART-IISECTION-A : PHYSICS

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. What is the total resistance, between A and B in the circuit shown in the given figure.

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 2

(4) 9

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22. A rotating device is shown in figure then the direction of force acting on arm AB is :

B C

NS

A D

C1

C2

B1 B2

QP

+ –

(a)

C B

NS

D A

C2

C1

B1 B2

QP

+ –

(b)(1) Inwards (into the paper) (2) Outwards (out of paper)(3) Leftwards (4) No force will act on arm AB

23. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity u from the top of a tower. It reaches the groundwith a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is

(1)23u

g (2)24u

g (3)26u

g (4)29u

g

24. When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with uniform(1) Speed (2) velocity (3) Acceleration (4) Momentum

25. Circuit I :- Ammeter reads current i1 and voltmeter reads V1

Circuit II : Ammeter reads current i2 and voltmeter reads V2

V1VR2

A+

–

+ –

(I)

R1

Vi1

V2V

R2

A i2+

–

+ –

(II)

R3

R1

V

The relationship between the readings is :

(1) i1 > i2 ; V1 = V2 (2) i1 < i2 ; V1 = V2 (3) i1 > i2 ; V1 > V2 (4) i1 < i2 ; V1 < V2

26. A 2 KW boiler used for 1 hour everyday consumes the following electrical energy in thirty days :(1) 60 units (2) 120 units (3) 15 units (4) None of these

27. The velocity versus time graph of a body moving along a straight lineis as shown in fig. The ratio of displacement and distance covered bybody in 5 seconds is

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 5 1 2 3 4 5

1

2

–2

–1

0t (s)

v (m/s)

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1.5 : 5

28. A certain force applied to a body A gives it an acceleration of 10 ms–2. The same force applied to body B givesit an acceleration of 15 ms–2. If the two bodies are joined together and the same force is applied to thecombination, the acceleration will be(1) 6 ms–2 (2) 25 ms–2 (3) 12.5 ms–2 (4) 9 ms–2

29. A certain force acting on a body of mass 2kg increases its velocity from 6 m/s to 15 m/s in 2s. The work doneby the force during this interval is(1) 27 J (2) 3 J (3) 94.5 J (4) 189 J

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30. Which one of the following expressions has the same units as power?(1) Force x distance (2) Work x time (3) Force x acceleration (4) Force x velocity

31. Three rings P, Q and R are dropped at the same time over identical hollow magnets as shown below :

Plastic ring Copper ring

Which of the following describes the order in which the ring P. Q and R reach the bottom of the magnet?(1) They arrive in the order, P, Q, R.(2) They arrive in the order P, R, Q(3) Rings P and R arrive simultaneously, followed by Q.(4) Rings Q and R arrive simultaneously, followed by P.

32. If 5J of work is done in moving 12.5 × 1018 electrons from one end to other end of a conductor, then thepotential difference between the two ends of conductor is :(1) 1.5 V (2) 2 V (3) 2.5 V (4) 3 V

33. The mass of two bodies are 1 kg and 2 kg respectively and their kinetic energy are 1J and 2J respectively. Theratio of their momentum is given by :(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

34. 1 kWh equals to :(1) 36 × 102 Joules (2) 36 × 104 Joules (3) 36 × 105 Joules (4) 36 × 106 Joules

35. Two metallic spheres of same mass are given equal and opposite charges, then :(1) The mass of positively charged sphere increases(2) The mass of both spheres remains the same(3) The mass of the negatively charged sphere increases(4) The mass of the both spheres increases

36. In column-I, the situations are shown in which a conductor is placed in a region of uniform magnetic field andthe direction of current is shown by arrow, while in column-II, the direction of force acting on that wire is given.Match the entries of column-I with the entries of column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(I) P. Rightwards

(II) Q. Leftwards

(III) R. Into the plane of paper

(IV) S. Out of the plane of paper

(1) (I)-Q, (II)-S, (III)-P, (IV)-S (2) (I)-Q, (II)-R, (III)-R, (IV)-Q(3) (I)-P, (II)-S, (III)-P, (IV)-S (4) (I)-Q, (II)-R, (III)-Q, (IV)-R

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37. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it.The heat developed is doubled if(1) both the length and the radius of the wire are halved(2) both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled(3) the radius of the wire is doubled(4) the length of the wire is doubled

38. The device that converts electric energy into mechanical energy is(1) AC generator (2) Dynamo (3) Electric motor (4) Transformer

39. A magnetic field cannot exert any force on a :(1) Moving magnet (2) Moving charge (3) Stationary magnet (4) Stationary charge

40. The three resistance of equal value are arranged in the different combinations shown below. Arrange themin increasing order of power dissipation :

Ii

II

i

III

i

IV(1) III < II < IV < I (2) II < III < IV < I (3) I < IV < III < II (4) I < III < II < IV

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRYThis section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. What happens when one molecule of sodium carbonate is made to react with one molecule of hydrochloricacid?(1) A salt is produced and H2 gas is evolved.(2) A salt is produced and CO2 gas is evolved.(3) A salt and a normal salt are produced.(4) A salt is produced and CO2 and H2O are formed.

42. Which of the following is an organic acid ?(1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Sulphuric acid(3) Citric acid (4) Nitric acid

43. Which of the following acids is present in vitamin C?(1) Malic acid (2) Lactic acid(3) Ascorbic acid (4) Tannic acid

44. Complete the reaction Zn + 2NaOH :(1) Zn(OH)2 + H2 (2) Na2ZnO2 + H2(3) Zn(OH)2 + Na2 (4) Na2ZnO2 + Na2O

45. The necessary condition (s) for the formation of ionic bond is/are :(1) Low ionisation energy of electropositive element(2) High electron affinity of electronegative element(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None of these

46. In the formation of a compound A2B3, two atoms of A lose three electrons each while three atoms of B gaintwo electrons each. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the compound A2B3 ?(1) A2B3 will be insoluble in organic solvents but soluble in water(2) High temperatures are to be supplied to cause melting and boiling of A2B3(3) A2B3 will have an ordered arrangement of its costituent species(4) A2B3 will conduct electricity in solid state, molten state as well as in aqueous solution.

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47. Alloy is an example of :(1) Homogeneous mixture (2) Heterogeneous mixture(3) Solution (4) Compound

48. 12 grams of potassium sulphate dissolves in 75 grams of water at 60°C. Its solubility at 60°C is (Density ofwater = 1g/ml.(1) 16.0 g/ml (2) 1.6 g/ml(3) 0.16 g/ml (4) 160 g/ml

49. 20 cm3 of acetone is added into water to make total volume of 250 cm3. The percentage by volume ofacetone in this solution is :(1) 0.8% (2) 7%(3) 0.7% (4) 8.0%

50. Allotropes differ in the :(1) Number of neutrons (2) Number of protons(3) Way their atoms are arranged (4) Number of electrons

51. Graphite is used as lubricant because it is / has :(1) Greyish black (2) Insoluble in water(3) High melting point (4) Soft and slippery

52. When ammonium dichromate is heated then :(1) N2O gas is evolved (2) CrO3 is formed(3) NO2 gas is evolved (4) None of these

53. In the reaction : 3MnO2 + 4Al 3Mn+2 + 2Al2O3the oxidising agent is :(1) MnO2 (2) Al(3) Al2O3 (4) Mn

54. Which of the following is not a balanced equation :(1) Mg + CuSO4 MgSO4 + Cu (2) Fe + Cl2 FeCl3(3) Zn + S ZnS (4) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O

55. aFeS2 + bO2 xFe2O3 + ySO2. The above equation balances when :(1) a = 4, b = 11, x = 2, y = 8 (2) a = 11, b = 4, x = 8, y = 2(3) a = 2, b = 4, x = 8, y = 2 (4) a = 4, b = 11, x = 8, y = 2

56. Which of the following metals have very high thermal conductivity ?(1) Lead (2) Mercury(3) Copper (4) Both A and B

57. A non-metal having lustrous appearance is(1) Phosphorus (2) Iodine(3) Sulphur (4) Bromine

58. Which gas is filled in hot air balloons ?(1) Nitrogen (2) Helium(3) Oxygen (4) Chlorine

59. The chemical formula of crystals of copper sulphate is :(1) CuSO4.5H2O (2) Cu2SO4.5H2O(3) CuSO4 (4) Cu2SO4

60. The necessary condition (s) for the liquification of a gas is/are :(1) By cooling (2) By compression(3) Both A and B (4) None of these

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Attempt any one of the section C or DSECTION-C MATHEMATICS

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Find the pairs of natural numbers whose least common multiple is 78 and greatest common divisor is 13.

(1) 58 and 13 or 16 and 29 (2) 68 and 23 or 36 and 49

(3) 78 and 13 or 26 and 39 (4) none of these

62. Factorize : x4 + x2 + 1

(1) (x2 + x + 1) (x2 – x + 1) (2) (x2 – 1 + x) (x2 + 1 + x)

(3) (x2 – x + 1) (x2 + x – 1) (4) (x2 + x + 1) (1 – x – x2)

63. If a + b + c 0 & a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc & a, b, c are real numbers then which of the following is true :(1) a = b = c (2) b = c a (3) a = b c (4) a + c = b

64. Last digit of 6n, where n is a positive integer:(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

65. If mean of x and1x

is M then mean of x2 and 2

1x

is :

(1) M2 (2)2M

4(3) 2M2 – 1 (4) 2M2 + 1

66. The perimeter of the triangle formed by the points (0, 0), (1, 0) and (0, 1) is :

(1) 1 2 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2 2

67. Find the probability of having 53 Fridays in a leap year.

(1)17

(2)27

(3)37

(4) None of these

68. The first and last terms of an A.P. are 2 and 12. If the sum of its terms is 42, then the number of terms will be:(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8

69. If one root of polynomial f(x) = 6x2 + 37x + k is reciprocal of the other, then the value of K is :

(1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4)16

70. How many key strokes are needed to type all the integers from 1 to 1000 ?(1) 2892 (2) 2891 (3) 2894 (4) 2893

71. If the point (1, 1) is equidistant from the point (a + b, b – a) and (a – b, a + b), then :(1) a + b = 0 (2) a + b = 1 (3) a = b (4) b – a = 1

72. Straight line 3x + 4y – 12 = 0 will pass through the following quadrants(1) I, II, III (2) IV, I, II (3) II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III

73. Ifx y

13 2 and

x y 16 k 2 having infinite common solution then k is -

(1) 4 (2) – 4 (3) 1 (4) – 1

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74. If the roots of the equation ax2 + 4x + 1 – 2a2 = 0 are reciprocal to each other then a is -(1) –1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) –2

75. The last digit in 2917 is(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 9 (4) 3

76. How many zeroes are there are at the end of the product 125×16×92×15×12×75×24 ?

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 3

77. Given that 12 + 22 + 32 + ...+ 102 = 385 , find the value of 2 2 2 22 +4 +6 +...+20 ?

(1) 1,740 (2) 1,640 (3) 1,540 (4) 1,200

78. What is the remainder when 61 × 62 × 63 is divided by 4 ?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) None of these

79. If x = 2, y = 1 and z = – 3 then x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz is equal to :

(1) 6 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 8

80. The points (7, 2) and (–1, 0) lie on a line :

(1) 7y = 3x – 7 (2) 4y = x + 1 (3) y = 7x + 7 (4) x = 4y + 1

SECTION-D : BIOLOGYThis section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3)and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. Digestion of proteins begins in the ____, and digestion of polysaccharides begins in the__,(1) Mouth...Stomach (2) Stomach ...Small intestine(3) Stomach ...Mouth (4) Stomach ....Stomach

62. With reference to normal human being, which of the following statements is not correct :(1) Human saliva is slightly acidic(2) An adult human may secrete 1 to 1.5 litres of saliva per day.(3) Saliva is secreted by six pairs of salivary glands in human beings.(4) The salivary enzyme (ptyalin) breaks down cooked starch into maltose.

63. The first compound that accepts CO2 during dark phase is :(1) NADP (2) Ferredoxin (3) RUBP (4) Cytochrome

64. Alcoholic fermentation uses :(1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi bodies (3) Mitochondrial enzymes (4) Cytoplasmic enzymes

65. Breathing becomes faster in fever because :(1) Fever stimulates the respiratory centre of brain.(2) O2 carrying capacity of blood becomes lower.(3) Increase in temperature increases metabolic rate thus require more O2(4) O2 is used in fighting germs

66. Uric acid is excreted in :(1) Frog (2) Rabbit (3) Man (4) Pigeon

67. Malpighian body is constituted by :(1) Glomerulus only (2) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule(3) Glomerulus and efferent vessel (4) Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule and efferent vessel

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68. The particles in the blood that protect the body from different diseases are called :(1) Erythrocytes (2) Haemoglobin (3) Leucocytes (4) Gamma globulin

69. Pulmonary veins open into :(1) Precavals (2) Left auricle (3) Right auricle (4) Ventricle

70. The process of transpiration in plants help in :(1) Opening of stomata (2) Absorption of CO2 from atmosphere(3) Upward conduction of water and minerals (4) Absorption of O2 from atmosphere

71. Phagocytosis is carried out by :(1) RBCs (2) WBCs (3) Platelets (4) all the three

72. Which of the statements related to plant hormone auxin are true?(i) Phototropism in plants is result of movement of auxin towards light.(ii) Auxin acts on elongation of the cell wall.(iii) Auxin moves away from light.(iv) Auxin acts on cell differentiation.(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)

73. Opening and closing of flowers represents a kind of :(1) Nastic movement (2) Tropic movement (3) Nutation (4) Autonomic movement

74. Which is mismatched :(1) Cerebrum - memory (2) Cerebellum - equilibrium(3) Medulla oblongata - temperature (4) Olfactory lobes - smell

75. Match the columns :(a) Bowman’s Capsule (p) Spinal Cord(b) A.V. Valves (q) Brain(c) Cerebellum (r) Kidney(d) Alveoli (s) Heart

(t) Lungs(1) a r, b s, c t, d q (2) a r, b t. c s, d q(3) a r, b s, c q, d t (4) a p, b q, c s, d t

76. The first animals to have nervous system were probably similar to modern :(1) Sponges (2) Flat worms (3) Cnidaria (4) Annelids

77. Spinal nerves are :(1) All sensory (2) All mixed (3) All motor (4) Half sensory, half motor

78. During hibernation, the frog respires by :(1) Lungs only (2) Partly by lungs and partly by skin(3) Both skin and lungs (4) Skin only

79. If a respiratory surface dries out, gas exchange will :(1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Stop (4) Not be affected

80. Which of the following are correct statements :(i) Vermiform appendix is a part of large intestine(ii) Premolars are found in milk teeth(iii) Taste buds for sweet taste are located on sides of tongue(iv) Stomach is the widest organ of the alimentary canal.(1) i and ii (2) i and iii (3) i and iv (4) i, ii, and iii

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ANSWER KEY

1.(1) 2.(3) 3.(1) 4.(3) 5.(2) 6.(2) 7.(4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)11.(4) 12.(2) 13.(3) 14.(4) 15.(1) 16.(4) 17.(3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (2)21.(3) 22.(1) 23.(2) 24.(3) 25.(2) 26.(1) 27.(2) 28. (1) 29. (4) 30. (4)31.(3) 32.(3) 33.(4) 34.(3) 35.(3) 36.(4) 37.(2) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1)41.(4) 42.(3) 43.(3) 44.(2) 45.(3) 46.(4) 47.(1) 48. (3) 49. (4) 50. (3)51.(4) 52.(2) 53.(1) 54.(2) 55.(1) 56.(3) 57.(2) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3)61.(3) 62.(1) 63.(1) 64.(3) 65.(3) 66.(4) 67.(2) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (4)71.(3) 72.(2) 73.(1) 74.(1) 75.(4) 76. (1) 77. (3) 78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (2)

BIOLOGY61.(3) 62.(3) 63.(3) 64.(4) 65.(3) 66.(4) 67.(2) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (3)71.(2) 72.(2) 73.(1) 74.(3) 75.(3) 76. (3) 77. (2) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (3)