TABLE OF CONTENTS (MCQs) TOPIC PAGE NOS Principles of … · 2021. 2. 2. · 2. Pre-Sanction...
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1 TABLE OF CONTENTS (MCQs) TOPIC PAGE NOS Principles of Sound Lending 1 - 21 Concept of MSME 22-49 Types of Charges & Documentation 50-69 KYC Compliance 70-90 Loaning Powers 91-107 Frauds in Banks 108-120 Digital Products 121-142 Lockers, Safe Custody, Nomination 143-176 Types of Customers, Garnishee Order etc 177-207 Priority Sector and Agri Credit 2021 208-234 Retail Lending Schemes 235-260 1. Principles of Sound Lending 1. What are the principles of Sound Lending? a. Safety & Security b. Speculation c. Liquidity d. None of the above e. A & C 2. Pre-Sanction Appraisal is Mandatory for a. Retail Loans only b. MSME Loans only c. Corporate Loans only d. Agricultural loans e. All the loans 3. Every loan application received will be entered in a. PNB 586 b. PNB 572 c. PNB 587 d. PNB 567 e. PNB 589 4. In the process of pre sanction appraisal CPTS is referred as a. Credit process tracking system b. Credit procedure tracking system c. Credit process trading system d. Credit proposal tracking system e. Core Process Track System 5. Which is correct about command area of applications? a. large corporates availing limits of above Rs 5.00 crore will be dealt by at place where the registered/head/administrative office of company/firm is located b. large corporates availing limits of above Rs 5.00 crore will be dealt by at place where factory manufacturing unit of borrowing company/firm/project site is located c. ZOCAC-I & above may consider cases of large corporate borrowers beyond purview of command area
Transcript of TABLE OF CONTENTS (MCQs) TOPIC PAGE NOS Principles of … · 2021. 2. 2. · 2. Pre-Sanction...
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TABLE OF CONTENTS (MCQs) TOPIC PAGE NOS
Principles of Sound Lending 1 - 21 Concept of MSME 22-49 Types of Charges & Documentation 50-69 KYC Compliance 70-90 Loaning Powers 91-107 Frauds in Banks 108-120 Digital Products 121-142 Lockers, Safe Custody, Nomination 143-176 Types of Customers, Garnishee Order etc 177-207 Priority Sector and Agri Credit 2021 208-234 Retail Lending Schemes 235-260
1. Principles of Sound Lending 1. What are the principles of Sound Lending? a. Safety & Security b. Speculation c. Liquidity d. None of the above e. A & C 2. Pre-Sanction Appraisal is Mandatory for a. Retail Loans only b. MSME Loans only c. Corporate Loans only d. Agricultural loans e. All the loans 3. Every loan application received will be entered in a. PNB 586 b. PNB 572 c. PNB 587 d. PNB 567 e. PNB 589 4. In the process of pre sanction appraisal CPTS is referred as a. Credit process tracking system b. Credit procedure tracking system c. Credit process trading system d. Credit proposal tracking system e. Core Process Track System 5. Which is correct about command area of applications? a. large corporates availing limits of above Rs 5.00 crore will be dealt by at place where the
registered/head/administrative office of company/firm is located b. large corporates availing limits of above Rs 5.00 crore will be dealt by at place where factory
manufacturing unit of borrowing company/firm/project site is located c. ZOCAC-I & above may consider cases of large corporate borrowers beyond purview of command
area
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d. Small & medium accounts availing limits upto Rs 5.00 Cr will be dealt by branch which is near to the factory/commercial establishment
e. All of above 1 e 2 e 3 c 4 d 5 E
6. Due diligence and market intelligence on borrowers/borrowing firms are important ingredients of
Credit Management before sanction and disbursement of loan, a. Only Due diligence b. Only market intelligence c. Due diligence and market intelligence d. None of the above e. All of above 7. At What stages, processing fee is required to be collected from the Borrower a. At the time of Disbursement of Credit b. Immediately after Sanction of Credit c. In instalments - on receipt of proposal, on acceptance of T&C and on disbursement d. As desired by Banker e. None of above 8. The following proposal is to be rejected by next sanction authority a. SC/ST only b. MSME only c. Agriculture loans d. Education loan e. a, b, d 9. the proposals pertaining to Education loans is to be rejected by ____? a. ZOCAC b. ZOCAC-I if proposal falls within powers of PLP c. Circle Head irrespective of power d. Circle Head if proposal falls within powers of GBB e. b&d 10. Which is correct about rejection of applications? a. all rejected proposals other than NBG are available on Non CBS page b. All rejected proposals including NBG are available on NON CBS page c. all rejected proposals will be removed from rejected list after one year from date of rejection or after
submission of latest ABS which is earlier d. all rejected proposals will be available for one year e. b& c
6 c 7 C 8 e 9 e 10 e 11. Complains regarding the Delay in Sanction/Rejection of Loans at Branch level will be resolved by a. Circle Head b. Branch Head c. Credit Manager d. Zonal Head e. LEAD Bank Manager 12. __renewal is devised for review of ___term loan from___ to ___. a. Green, composite, 10 lacs, 5cr b. regular,CC & , 5 cr, 50 cr c. GREEN,STANDALONE, 50 LACS, 5CR d. None of the above e. All of above 13. __renewal is devised for review of _____ credit facilities from ___ to ___.
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a. Green, revolving, 10 lacs, 5cr b. regular,CC & , 5 cr, 50 cr c. GREEN,STANDALONE, 50 LACS, 5CR d. None of the above e. All of above 14. The Time limit prescribed by RBI for sanctioning of Fresh/Enhancement limit for Gold Card
Exporters is a. 25 days b. 15 days c. 10 days d. 07 days e. 30 Days 15. The Time limit prescribed by RBI for sanctioning of Fresh/Enhancement limit for Other Exporters is a. 20 days b. 14 days c. 45 days d. 30 days e. 21 days
11 A 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 c 16. the proposals falling under powers of _____ & above at present exceeding Rs____, the report be
sought from _____. a. HOCAC-II, 75Cr , CBI b. HOCAC-I, 75Cr , CBIE c. HOCAC-I, 50Cr , CEIB d. ZOCAC-I, 30Cr , CEIB e. No information is required 17. The Time limit prescribed by RBI for sanctioning of Renewal of Existing limit for Other than export
Proposals is a. 45 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 30 days e. NONE OF THESE 18. Loan system of credit delivery is not applicable in case of : ________ industry a. Hardware Industry b. Software Industry c. Hardware and Software industry d. All of the above e. None of the above 19. The Maximum Time for disposal of all type of Loans (Except Retail) with loan amount above Rs 2
lacs upto Rs 50 lacs is a. 4 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 5 weeks d. 2 weeks e. 15 days 20. The Maximum Time for disposal of all type of Loans (Except Retail) with loan amount above Rs 100
Crs is a. 8-9 weeks b. 6-7 weeks c. 7-8 weeks d. 2-3 weeks e. 4-5 weeks
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16 C 17 a 18 b 19 a 20 a 21. Which of the credit appraisal formats are available ? a. Credit Appraisal format for limits above Rs 10 Lacs to 1 Cr b. Credit Appraisal format for limits above Rs 1Cr to 5 Cr c. Credit Appraisal format for limits above Rs 5 Cr to 25 Cr d. Credit Appraisal format for limits above Rs 25 Cr. e. All of above 22. A lapsed sanction can be revalidated within a maximum period of_______ from the date of sanction a. 6 months b. 9 Months c. 12 Months d. 15 Months e. 18 Months 23. Sensitive scenario such as these will affect the DSCR while reviewing the Proposal a. Project Cost b. Cash generating capacity c. Raw material Cost d. Schedule follow up e. All of above 24. A Bank Official should not conduct the Pre Sanction Visit without a. Entering in Unit Inspection Register b. Informing the borrower c. Assistance of Valuer d. Advocates opinion. All the above 25. In a loan proposal, which document clearly indicates the past credit history of the
Borrower/Guarantor? a. Declaration of the Borrower/Guarantor b. Credit Information Report from CIC c. Pre Sanction Performa d. Loan Application e. Project Report
21 e 22 c 23 e 24 a 25 B 26. Which one is correct combination? a. CA details verification: WWW.icai.org b. company details verification: www.mca. gov.in c. udin verification: https://udin.icai.org/ d. only B & C e. All of above 27. what is correct about UDIN? a. to upload All Certification done by practicing CAs b. to upload All GST and Tax Audit Reports by CAs c. To upload All other attest functions d. only A e. All the above 28. Verification of antecents of Borrower/Guarantor/Supplier includes a. Spot verification of factory/business premises has been done before sanctioning the limits b. Verification of antecedents of suppliers of equipment/machinery etc have been verified c. Independent surprise verification IPs is undertaken. d. Regulatory approval including NOC from Pollution Control Board is obtained by borrower e. All of the above
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29 It is not mandatory to draw CIR ? a. Prop & its firm b. company & is individual director c. allied & associate concerns d. All trustees e. None of above 30. Credit Information Report (CIR) is to be drawn at the time of: a. Fresh Sanctions & Enhancements b. Fresh sanctions & Renewals c. Fresh Sanctions, Enhancements & Renewals d. Fresh sanctions, Enhancements, Renewals & Review e. None of the above
26 E 27 e 28 e 29 d 30 d 31. Under Consumer Category CIBIL charges are Rs____ a. 59 b. 54.5 c. 64.31 d. 58 e. 62.35 32. Which is not true in case of Consumer CIRs a. Amount less than Rs 10.00 lacs ,only one CIR b. Amount Rs 10.00 lacs & above, 2 CIRS c. In case customers having credit risk rating of B2 & below , 2 CIRS d. a & c only e. None of above 33. which is True in case of Commercial CIRs a. Amount less than Rs 50.00 lacs only one CIR from CIBIL/CRIFMARK/Experian with score b. Amt more than Rs 50.00 lacs : 2 CIRS with score c. Amt more than Rs 50.00 lacs : 2 CIRS without score d. Amount less than Rs 50.00 lacs only one CIR from CIBIL/CRIFMARK/Experian without score e. A & B 34. Which one is true? a. LEI is 20 digit code to identify parties to financial transactions worldwide b. LEI is key measure to improve the quality & accuracy of data systems c. Borrowers who do not obtain LEI as per schedule are not granted renewal/enhancment of credit
facilities d. All exposures of Rs 200.00 Cr must have LEI by 31.03.2020 e. all the above 35. Legal Entity Identifier for large Corporate Borrower is introduced for exposure of Rs__ & above a. Rs 50.00 Cr b. Rs 100.00 Cr c. Rs 5.00 Cr d. Rs 10.00 Cr e. Rs 25.00 Cr
31 a 32 e 33 e 34 e 35 c 36. Which is true? a. verification of GST may be done from https://services.gst.gov.in b. verification of Aadhar may be done from https://resident.uidai.gov.in c. Voter id may be verified from https://electoralsearch.in/ d. verification of DL may be done from https://parivahan.gov.i e. All of above
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37. As per guidelines, borrowers are required to submit audited financial statements in case of (Give most appropriate)
a. Credit exposure of Rs.20 lakh and above from bank b. Turnover of Rs.1 crore & above c. If Profit is below 8% of sale (under Presumptive Taxation Scheme) d. In case of professional receipts are more than Rs.50 lakh e. All the above 38. The Audited Balance sheet submitted by the Borrower for availing Credit facility should be duly
signed by a. Managing Director b. Whole-time Director c. Company Secretary d. Only A & C e. All the Above 39. Pre Sanction appraisal include collecting of independent information of the potential borrower about a. Legal Disputes b. Raids by Govt Agencies c. Default list of ECGC/CIC d. Checking CFR data base e. All the Above 40. The documents executed by a company must be in conformity with its: a. Articles of Association b. Memorandum of Association c. Resolution passed by Board d. Letter of Incorporation e. by laws of company
36 E 37 e 38 e 39 e 40 c 41 Doctorine of Ultravires borrowing relates to : Borrowing by a company for an activity, which it is not
authorized to undertake as per its ________________ a. Memorandum of Association b. Article of Association c. Attachment order d. Garnishee order e. None of the above 42. At MCA website DIN can be used to uniquely identify a person, What is DIN? a. Directors Identification Number b. Debtor Identification Number c. Directors Information Number d. Debtors Information Number e. Do's & Don't of Director 43. Fresh Confidential Report is mandatory after the lapse of how much time even if there are no
adverse development or new change. a. Annually b. Half Yearly c. 2 Years d. 5 Years e. Annually then half yearly 44. Which form to be used in case of Joint Stock Companies. a. PNB 282 A b. PNB 282 B c. PNB 282 C d. PNB 905 e. PNB 539
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45. Which form to be used in case of brief confidential report. a. PNB 282 A b. PNB 282 B c. PNB 282 C d. PNB 905 e. PNB 539
41 a 42 A 43 c 44 a 45 d 46. Which form to be used in case of Co-operative Societies. a. PNB 282 A b. PNB 282 B c. PNB 282 C d. PNB 905 e. PNB 539 47. Which form to be used in case of Partnership Firm. a. PNB 282 A b. PNB 282 B c. PNB 282 C d. PNB 905 e. PNB 539 48. Which form to be used in case of individual borrowers in retail lending schemes a. PNB 282 A b. PNB 282 B c. PNB 282 C d. PNB 905 e. PNB 539 49. Which form to be used in case of HUF Firms. a. PNB 282 B b. PNB 282 D c. PNB 282 C d. PNB 905 e. PNB 539 50. Definition of Branch Firms in case of Confidential Report for partnership firms is as under a. One of the partners are common. b. More than one partners are common but not all. c. All partners are common. d. All the above. e. None of the above
46 a 47 b 48 c 49 a 50 c 51. In the Registered Partnership Firm, the firm is registered with the Registrar of Firms in terms of a. Indian Partnership Act 1932 b. Indian Partnership Act 1922 c. Indian Partnership Act 1942 d. Indian Partnership Act 1952 e. Indian Partnership Act 1872 52. How many reports are to be taken in CR from the market. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four e. Not Required 53. In the case of time barred debt, the banker’s right of set off
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a. Can be exercised as the effect of limitation is to bar the remedy and not to extinguish the debt. b. Cannot be exercised without permission of the court c. Cannot be exercised because a time barred debt is not recoverable d. Cannot be exercised without borrower’s consent e. Can be excercised after revival of limitation 54. which is true regarding search of title deed a. Only Photocopy of the Title deeds should,be passed on to local counsel for his inspection b. The Original Title deeds should, therefore, be passed on to local counsel for his inspection c. the documents to be given by the bank to the advocate d. a & c are true e. None of the above 55. Where the value of immovable property to be mortgaged/ charged is Rs. 1 crore & above, branches
shall take NEC a. branches shall take NEC from 2 different advocates b. one before sanction c. the 2nd after sanction, but before disbursement d. In all cases only one NEC is required e. a,b,c are true
51 a 52 b 53 a 54 d 55 e 56. Search to be made from cersai portal a. before creation of charge b. after creation of charge c. there is no such requirement however, entry is required d. either a or b e. CERSAI is govt portal & bank has nothing to do with it 57. Particulars of mortgages (registered or equitable) created/ modified by limited liability companies
should be got registered with the registrar of companies within ___ days of creation a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 30 e. 270 58. Mortgage to be created before disbursement and entered in CERSAI on the date of creation of
Mortgage itself without waiting for __ days period a. 70 b. 80 c. 90 d. 30 e. 60 59. Which combination is false a. Value of property mortgaged/ charged is upto Rs. 20 lac or credit facilities are upto Rs. 1crore b. In case of property is primary security At least on yearly basis or as per terms of sanction, whichever
is earlier c. in case of collateral security At least once in three years or as per terms of sanction, d. a,b,c are true e. a,b, are true 60. Which types of Security interest are also required to be filed on the CERSAI portal a. Particulars of creation, modification or satisfaction of security interest in immovable property by
mortgage other than mortgage by deposit of title deeds equitable mortgage) shall be filled in Form I and Form II, as the case may be and shall be authenticated by a person specified in the Form for such purpose by use of valid digital signature
b. Particulars of creation, modification or satisfaction of security interest in hypothecation of plant and machinery, stocks, debt including book debt or receivables, whether existing or future shall be filled
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in Form I or Form II , as the case may be, and shall be authenticated by a person specified in the Form for such purpose by use of valid digital signature.
c. Particulars of creation, modification or satisfaction of security interest in intangible assets being knowhow, patent, copyright, trade mark, license, franchise or any other business or commercial right of similar nature, shall be filed in Form I or Form II, as the case may be, and shall be authenticated by a person specified in form for such purpose by use of valid signature
d. a,b,c are true e. b,c are true
56 a 57 d 58 d 59 d 60 d 61. Asset ID so generated is to be recorded in Title deed register along with name & signatures of the
officials filing particulars of IP with Central Registry a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Assets ID are generated but no need to record d. Assets IDs are generated but no need of name & signature of officials e. Assets ID are part of documentation no need to mention in Title deed register 62. In case of accepting mortgage from Muslim borrowers the following document should be taken
additionally a. Affidavit stating the property is free from 'Waqf-Ul-Ulad' b. Affidavit stating the property is free from 'Haq-E-Mahr' c. Affidavit stating that he will not apply for any new load. d. Both A & B e. Only B is true 63. The following type of entities cannot enter in to any contract a. Minor b. Lunatic c. Insolvent d. All of a), b) & c) e. Only A 64. Who will sign the documents on behalf of the company while raising a loan a. Managing Director b. Executive Director c. Chief Financial Officer of the company d. Authorised official whose name is mentioned in the resolution e. Company Secretary of Company 65. The visit to the site of mortgaged property should also be done at the time of granting additional
facilities/enhancement of limits against the extension of EM on the existing property. a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Visit @ time of Original sanction is suffficient d. As per guidelines visit @ time of renewal is required e. As per guidelines, visit is required for additional facilities not for enhancement in existing one
61 a 62 d 63 d 64 d 65 a 66. If a company has availed loan for purchase of a heavy tanker, the registration is mandatory, with
which of the following: a. Regional Transport Authority b. Registrar of Assurances c. Registrar of Companies d. Registration with Vahan is sufficient e. (a) & (c) both 67. Which one is correct regarding obtaining of NEC for the IP to be mortgage having value of Rs.1
crore & above a. One NEC from approved advocate before sanction
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b. Two NEC from approved advocate, one before sanction and again after sanction but before disbursement of facility
c. One NEC from approved advocate before or after sanction d. None of the above e. Any of the above 68. satisfaction of charge to be filed with CERSAI waiting how many days a. 45 b. 50 c. 60 d. 30 e. 70 69. Section 27 of SARFAESI Act deals with a. filing satisfaction of charge b. satisfaction of chage with CERSAI c. none d. a and b are true e. Only A is true 70. _______of rule ____implies clearly that charges should be registered at the earliest possible
instance so that____of charge, remains with bank. a. INSERTION, 6 & bank b. DELETION & 5 & prioirty c. DELETION &7 & prioirty d. INSERTION, 5 & bank e. NONE OF ABOVE
66 e 67 b 68 d 69 d 70 b 71. In the event of loss of title deed deposited for creating mortgage a. The concerned branch will give a certificate that title deed has been lost from bank ‘s possession b. In appropriate matters (like when terrorists have taken away the title deeds) an FIR be also lodged c. If bank ‘s officials have lost the title deed, in transit when taking the same out for any purpose, a
report from the official be taken. Paper publication be also given d. all are true e. all are false 72. CERSAI Fee for Satisfaction of any existing Security Interest is a. 45 b. 50 c. 60 d. 75 e. Nil 73. What is mean by Mortgage? a. Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of securing money advanced
by way of loan. b. Transfer of an interest in specific movable property for the purpose of securing money advanced by
way of loan. c. Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of securing principle amount. d. Transfer of an interest in specific movable property for the purpose of securing principle amount. e. Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property with or without any purpose 74. Who will be the mortgagor and mortgagee? a. Borrower and Bank b. Bailor and Bailee c. Both of above d. Either a. And b. e. Lessor or lessee
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75. Mortgage money is classified as a. Principle money and interest of which payment is secured b. Loan amount c. Both of above d. Either a. Or b. e. Neither of two
71 d 72 e 73 a 74 a 75 a 76. The instrument by which the transfer is effected is called a. Mortgage Deed b. Title Deed c. Conveyance Deed d. ALL of above e. None of above 77. Following types of Mortgages are generally taken by the Bank as security: a. Mortgage by conditional sale b. Simple Mortgage c. Equitable Mortgage d. English Mortgage e. Both a. And b. 78. Genuineness of E-stamps be verified through E-stampting by filling up__ a. Certificte No b. Unique doc c. purchased by d. Stamp duty amount e. All of the above 79. Which document is required to be attested (witnessed) (a) mortgage deed (b) pledge agreement (c)
Hypothecation agreement :________________ a. Pledge b. Hypothecation c. Mortgaged deed d. Pledge and Hypothecation e. None of the above 80. Search Report of an asset should be obtained for how many no.of years? a. Entire period from date of last transfer or 13 years whichever is longer b. Entire period from date of last transfer or 12 years whichever is longer c. Entire period from date of last transfer or 30 years whichever is longer d. Entire period from date of last transfer or 31 years whichever is longer e. Entire period from date of last transfer or 13 years
76 a 77 c 78 e 79 c 80 a 81. Ownership of mortgaged property will be transferred to financial institution if the a. borrower defaults b. borrower does not default c. borrower want less rate d. borrower want profit e. Borrower & guarantor has to default 82. In case the property to be mortgaged is situated at a place where equitable mortgage is not
permissible, the equitable mortgage can be created at any other branch of the Bank in the towns as notified by the
a. State Govts b. Central Government c. RBI d. PNB e. Both a. And b.
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83. In some cases like plots allotted by HUDA and UIT, before creation of mortgage , permission for
mortgage is required from a. the concerned development authority b. the State Govt. c. The Central Govt. d. Both a. And b. e. All of the above 84. Mortgage by deposit of title deeds is also known as a. Equitable Mortgage b. Simple Mortgage c. Registered Mortgage d. Both b and c e. English Mortgage 85. A mortgage of specific immovable property for Bank's advances as may be provided in the sanction
can be taken as a. a primary security b. an additional c. Only A & B d. collateral security. e. All a, b and c
81 a 82 a 83 a 84 a 85 e 86. Agricultural properties should not be mortgaged for facilities to be granted for ? a. Agriculture purpose b. Since Agriculture land is exempted under SARFAESI thus, it cannot be mortgaged c. Non agriculture purpose d. Both a & b e. Either a & b 87. In respect of Cantonment Area, which mortgage we can create if it a notified town ? a. Equitable Mortgage b. Registered Mortgage c. English Mortgage d. Both a & b e. Either a & b 88. The branches needs to do independent surprise verification in case of ? a. Fresh/ First Mortgage b. Second Mortgage c. Either a or b d. Both a & b e. No need for surprise verification 89. In which case bank needs to take “letter of continuity”? a. Equitable Mortgage b. Simple Mortgage c. Enhancement of Limit d. Both a & b e. Reduction in limits 90 In which case bank needs to take “No Objection Certificate”? a. Simple Mortgage b. Equitable Mortgage c. For creation of second or third charge d. Both a & b e. No need for any NOC certificate
86 c 87 a 88 a 89 c 90 c
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91. As per Transfer of property Act and Registration Act, any interest created / to be created in writing,
in immovable property of value of Rs...... ? a. Rs. 100 or more b. Rs. 1000/- or more c. Rs. 10000/- or more d. All of above e. Rs 5000 or more 92. What will be the periodicity of visits for value of property charged as collateral security is up to Rs.
20.00 lakh or credit facilities are up to 1.0 cr? a. At least once in 03 years or as per terms of sanction, whichever is earlier b. At least once in 02 years or as per terms of sanction, whichever is earlier c. At least once in 01 years or as per terms of sanction, whichever is earlier d. All of above e. At least twice in a year 93. What will be the periodicity of visits for value of property charged as primary security is above Rs.
20.00 lakh or credit facilities are of above Rs. 1.0 cr? a. At least on half yearly basis or as per terms of sanction, whichever is earlier b. At least on yearly basis or as per terms of sanction, whichever is earlier c. At least on quarterly basis or as per terms of sanction, whichever is earlier d. At least bi monthly since amount involved is more than Rs 1.00 Cr e. All of above 94. In respect of creation of mortgage, find out the correct one of followings? a. Memo of deposit of title deeds bears the same date as the one on which the Title Deeds are
deposited. b. Memo of deposit of title deeds bears subsequent to the date of actual deposit of the Title Deeds. c. Memo of deposit of title deeds bears prior to the date of actual deposit of the Title Deeds. d. Both a & b e. Either a or b 95. In respect of creation of mortgage, find out the correct one of followings? a. Acknowledgement of the receipt of Title Deeds is either not sent or is sent by ordinary mail by the
Branches. b. Acknowledgement of the receipt of Title Deeds is to be sent by registered mail by the Branches
instead of under ordinary post with acknowledgement due as required. c. Acknowledgement of the receipt of Title Deeds is to be sent by courier by the Branches instead of
under ordinary post with acknowledgement due as required. d. Both a & b e. Either a or b
91 a 92 e 93 a 94 a 95 b 96. In respect of creation of mortgage, find out the correct one of following? a. Postal acknowledgement receipt is not required to keep along with the relative loan documents. b. No postal acknowledgement is required c. Postal acknowledgement receipt is required to keep along with the relative loan documents. d. Both a & b e. Either a or b 97. In respect of creation of mortgage, find out the correct one of followings? a. Date appearing on the `Letter of Continuity' should be subsequent to the date of making the entry for
the enhanced portion of the limit in the Title Deeds Register. b. Date appearing on the `Letter of Continuity' is not subsequent to the date of making the entry for the
enhanced portion of the limit in the Title Deeds Register. c. Date appearing on the `Letter of Continuity' should be prior to the date of making the entry for the
enhanced portion of the limit in the Title Deeds Register. d. Both a & b
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e. Ether a or b 98. If the Limit is Rs 9 lakhs and the property value is Rs 4 crores, then how many no of valuations are
recommended a. One b. Two c. Three d. None of the above e. Incumbent may put his valuation 99. One valuator has given a valuation of Rs 500 lakhs and the second valuator is giving a valuation of
Rs 580 lakhs. How many valuation is required in this case a. One b. Two c. A & B d. Three e. Four 100. If aggregate limit is above INR 100 Lakhs, then the valuation to be done once in how many years a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four e. None of above
96 c 97 a 98 a 99 d 100 c 101. If the sale deed is dated 31/03/2020 then the value of the property in question is derived from a. Market Value b. Realizable Value c. Guideline Value d. Purchase value on Sale Deed e. Purchase value or guideline value which ever is lower 102. what is true about recently purchased IPs? a. the period of 12M from date of sale deed is recently purchase but in case of LAND value purchased
beyond year, 85% of Market value or RV which ever is lower will be taken value of land b. in case additional construction has been made during the 1st year, cost of additional construction
given by chartered engineer/valuer may be added to the consideration mentioned in the sale deed c. If the duration between the date of allotment and date of conveyance deed / sale deed (executed by
the development agencies/private builder) is more than 1 year, fresh valuation shall be obtained. d. If property is gifted / transferred to close relative & value of consideration is not mentioned in the gift
/ transfer deed, valuation shall be accepted as assessed by the empanelled valuers. e. All of above 103. at time of revaluation, negative variance of the Individual property is ___ or more from earlier
valuation, it is reported to ____? a. 20% & sanctioning authority b. 25% & controlling office c. 15% & Zonal Audit office for investivatiod. borrower be asked to provide additional security e. nothing is required 104. If value of plant and machinery is above INR 5 crores but below 50 crores, then how many
valuation to be done. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four e. None of the above 105. Minimum years of experience in Public Sector Banks for a valuator to be empanelled.
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a. 1 b. 7 c. 3 d. 5 e. None of the above
101 d 102 e 103 a 104 a 105 d 106. Minimum years of experience for a Plant and Machinery valuator to be empanelled? a. 1 b. 7 c. 3 d. 10 e. None of the above 107. Category A Valuers should have minimum how many years of work experience. a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. None of the above 108. Category B Valuers should have minimum how many years of work experience a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. None of the above 109. Category C Valuers should have how many years of work experience a. 3 b. 5 c. 2 d. 10 e. None of the above 110. Category B Valuers can do valuation upto how many crores a. 1 b. 15 c. 25 d. 50 e. None of the above
106 d 107 c 108 b 109 e 110 d 111. Category A Valuers can do valuation upto how many crores a. 1 Cr b. 15 Cr c. 25 Cr d. No Limit e. 50Cr 112. Under normal circumstances, HOW much payment to valuers may be made to a maximum limit
of a. 25000 b. Rs 50000 c. Rs 15000 is maximum ceiling d. Rs 70000 e. Rs 25000 is maximum ceiling 113. Under exceptional circumstances, the circle Head can permit payment to valuers up to a maximum
limit of
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a. Rs 40000 b. Rs 50000 c. Rs 60000 d. Rs 70000 e. Rs 25000 is maximum ceiling 114. What is the criteria of valuation in the accounts ? a. where aggregate credit limits are Rs.10 lac & above and value of immovable property to be
mortgaged/charged is Rs.20 lac & above b. where aggregate credit limits are Rs.20 lac & above and value of immovable property to be
mortgaged/charged is Rs.10 lac & above, c. where aggregate credit limits are Rs.10 lac & above and value of immovable property to be
mortgaged/charged is Rs.10 lac & above, d. where aggregate credit limits are Rs.100 lac & above and value of immovable property to be
mortgaged/charged is Rs.20 lac & above e. Valuation is required irrespective of limit or value 115. When should two valuations of the IP be done ? a. where the value of immovable property to be mortgaged/ charged is above Rs.5 crore b. where the value of immovable property to be mortgaged/ charged is above Rs.1 crore c. where the value of immovable property to be mortgaged/ charged is above Rs.2 crore d. in every case where the difference in valuation is less than 15%. e. in every case where the difference in valuation is less than 25%.
111 d 112 c 113 b 114 e 115 a 116. What should be done if the Branch Head feels that realisable value of IPs is significantly lower
than the one on bank’s records ? a. he may get the property re-valued from the bank‟s approved valuer provided the valuation is more
than one year old b. he may get the property re-valued from the bank‟s approved valuer provided the valuation is more
than six months old c. he may get the property re-valued from the bank‟s approved valuer provided the valuation is more
than two years old d. he may get the property re-valued from the bank‟s approved valuer provided the valuation is more
than three year old e. he may get the property re-valued from the bank‟s approved valuer provided the valuation is more
than five year old 117. What is the frequency of valuation in borrowal accounts having aggregate limit of Rs.1 crore &
above ? a. valuation of immovable properties charged/mortgaged to the Bank be got done from approved valuer
once in three years b. valuation of immovable properties charged/mortgaged to the Bank be got done from approved valuer
once in two years c. valuation of immovable properties charged/mortgaged to the Bank be got done from approved valuer
once in five years d. valuation of immovable properties charged/mortgaged to the Bank be got done from approved valuer
once in every year e. valuation of immovable properties charged/mortgaged to the Bank be got done from approved valuer
once in every 2 years 118. What can be added to the valuation of the IP for strngtheneing the due diligence ? a. valuers to include photograph of owner with the property in the background b. Photograph of the owner only c. Only the photograph of the property d. photograph of the property with valuer & owner e. None of the above 119. What should be the average difference between the loan tenure and residual age of the IP ? a. residual age of the immovable property should be at least 5 years more than the tenure of loan
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b. residual age of the immovable property should be at least 1 years more than the tenure of loan c. residual age of the immovable property should be equal to the tenure of loan. d. Residual age of the immovable property should 10 yeas more than the tenure of loan. e. None of the above 120. What is the Concession in Rate of Interest to be given on the basis of realizable value of Immovable
Property offered as security if the realisable value is above 250% & upto 300% of loan amount? a. 0.75% b. 0.005 c. 1.25% d. 0.0025 e. None
116 a 117 a 118 a 119 a 120 e 121. When are two separate valuers required in the case of valuation of P&M? a. where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.50 crore & above b. where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.5 crore & above c. where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.1 crore & above d. where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.0.5 crore & above e. where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.2 crore & above 122. Which of the following holds true in case of valuation of P&M? a. In cases where new plant and machinery is to be financed, the cost price indicated in the quotation/
supplier‟s bill shall be reckoned as its value, which should be verified by making enquiries through other vendors supplying such machinery
b. In fresh borrowal accounts where credit facility is to be considered against the principal/collateral security of existing plant & machinery to be charged to the bank by way of hypothecation, mortgage, etc., valuation of such plant & machinery be got done by branches from the valuer on the Bank‟s approved panel
c. However, where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.50 crore & above, branches shall get valuation of such P&M done from minimum two valuers on the Bank‟s approved panel.
d. However, where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.5 crore & above, branches shall get vetting of such Quotations done from minimum two valuers before accepting
e. ALL OF THE ABOVE 123. Why should be the valuation of property be ascertained a. the purpose of ascertaining the value of the property offered as security b. for the purpose of realizing the value of non-performing assets ( NPAs ) c. for the purpose of resumption of properties in cases of default d. the purpose to ascertain the amount to be given as a a loan. e. All of the above 124. Of which assets the valuation is done by the empanelled valuers ? a. Land and Building b. Plant & Machinery c. Stocks and Trade d. All of the above e. None of the above 125. which combination is true? a. Category A & 21 yrs OF MIN AGE b. Category B & 25 yrs OF MIN AGE c. Category C & 30 yrs of min AGE d. Category D &25 yrs of mie. Category D & No such min age criteria
121 a 122 e 123 e 124 d 125 b 126. What is the minimum valuation fees for the value of property upto Rs20 lacs ? a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 3000
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d. 4000 e. 2500 127. In case value of property is above Rs.5.00 Crores, valuation is to be done from minimum 2 valuers
in category A or B in bank’s approved panel. Which valuation is to be considered in such cases a. Lower of the two valuations obtained. b. Higher of the two valuations obtained. c. If the difference in valuation is less than 25%, average value of both is to be taken d. If the difference in valuation is less than 15%, average value of both is to be taken e. THE BH must ensure that no difference in there in valuation of two valuers 128. What is true in case property value is more than Rs.5.00 Crores and difference in two valuations
(obtained from valuers of category A or B) is more than 15% a. Third valuation to be obtained from Senior valuer in Category A and average of two valuation having
difference of not more than 15% is to be taken. b. Third valuation to be obtained from valuer in Category A or B and average of two valuation having
difference of not more than 15% is to be taken. c. Third valuation to be obtained from Senior valuer in Category A and average of three valuations to
be taken. d. Third valuation to be obtained from Senior valuer in Category A and higher amount of the three
valuations to be taken. e. there is no provision of third valuation in any circumstance 129. Valuer should ensure completion of due diligence exercise in order to check incidence of
increasing frauds, which of the following is true in this reference a. Visit to the site by valuer himself is not required b. Not required to support the value arrived by necessary calculations and also not required to furnish
market value as well as realisable value. c. To mention longitude/latitude and co-ordinates of the property in valuation report. d. It is not required to include photograph of owner with property in background in the valuation report
submitted to branch. e. There is no need to mention longitude/latitude and co-ordinates of the property in valuation report. 130. Value required to be taken in to consideration to arrive at present value of the property mortgaged
/ to be mortgaged a. Purchase price of the property b. Realizable value of the property c. Market Value of the property d. Market Value or Realizable value of the property whichever is lower e. Market Value or Realizable value of the property whichever is higher
126 b 127 D 128 a 129 c 130 d 131. Which division is the owner division for empanelment of valuers a. Sastra b. Inspection & Audit c. Loans & Advances d. Integrated Risk Management Division e. MSME Div 132. Valuers having qualifications as Diploma in Civil Engg / Architecture are allowed to do valuation
for property having maximum value of a. Rs.1.00 Crore b. Rs 4.00 Crore c. Rs.2.00 Crores d. Rs.3.00 Crores e. Rs.5.00 Crores 133. The borrower/ guarantor is to inform change in their office/ residential address to the Bank in a. 7 days b. 15 days
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c. 30 days d. 21 days e. No such onus on part of the borrower/ guarantor 134. Mortgaged IP to be Insured with agreed Bank clause, if a. It is a primary security b. If it is a collateral security c. If the mortgage is Registered Mortgage d. If the mortgage is equitable mortgage e. All of the above 135. As per Company Act 2013 , the responsibility for restration of charge with RoC is lies with a. Borrowing Company b. Bank c. Both d. Company Secretary e. None of the Above
131 a 132 e 133 c 134 e 135 a 136. Hypothecation of book debt & stock should be registered with CERSAI within______________
days from the date of documentation. a. 60 b. 90 c. 30 d. Registration not required e. None of the Above 137. A Contract of Guarantee is: a. Primary Contract b. Secondary Contract c. Principal Contract d. (b) & (c) both e. None of the above 138. A Term Loan sanctioned on 12.04.2018, documents got executed on 18.08.2018, advise the
validity date by which sanction shall be valid a. 11.10.2018 b. 11.04.2019 c. 17.02.2019 d. 17.08.2019 e. None of the above 139. The Articles of Association of a company is a document which: a. Defines rules & regulations for internal management of the company which are related to its day to
day functioning b. Describes the constitution & objectives of the company c. Is formulated to issue shares d. Is formualted to issue debentures/ bonds e. None of the above 140. Which type of charge is not required to be registered with ROC? a. Hypothecation b. Pledge c. Mortgage d. All of above are required to be registered with ROC e. Only (a) & (c) are required to be registered with ROC
136 C 137 b 138 c 139 a 140 d 141. "Set-Off" means a. That the bank has to remit some money to a court.
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b. That the bank can debit a firm's current account for the debit balance in a partner's personal account c. That the bank has to remit some money to Income Tax department d. That the bank has to remit some money to Sales Tax department e. That the bank can adjust the credit balance in a customer's account against a debit balance in another
account maintained by the same customer. 142. A lien may be (Give most appropriate) a. Particular b. General c. Negative d. All the above e. None of above 143. it is madatory to obtain self certified copy of Passport where exposure is ? a. Rs 5.00 Crores b. Rs 10.00 Cr c. Rs 20.00 Cr d. Rs 50.00 Cr e. Rs 50.00 Lacs 144. it is optional to obtain self certified copy of Passport where exposure is small ? a. Rs 10.00 lacs b. Rs 50.00 lacs c. Rs 100 lacs d. Rs 10.00 Cr e. Rs 10.00 lacs 145. While dealing with credit proposals concerned officials must ensure that a. All favourable & adverse features should be specifically mentioned in the loan proposals alongwith
the comments & justification for proposed credit facilities b. for timely renewal close follow up should be made with borrowers for obtaining latest audited balance
sheets c. Credit risk rating should be based on latest financial data d. All of the above e. None of above
141 e 142 d 143 d 144 b 145 d 146. Maximum cap is to be fixed to give personal guarantee i.e____ times of ______ a. 4-5, capital b. 2,TNW c. 3,net worth d. 2-3 ,net worth e. No such criteria 147. Govt. of India under EASE program has emphasized on strict segregation of Pre & Post Sanction
Roles & Responsibilities for Enhanced Accountability. In this direction,Bank has created MCCs, RAM, LCBs, E-LCBs to ensure improved ______________
a. Strict Segregation of Pre & Post sanction roles and responsibilities. b. TAT c. TAT, Qualitative Credit Assessment, Efficient Monitoring and Strict Segregation of Pre & Post
sanction roles and responsibilities. d. Qualitative Credit Assessment e. Efficient Monitoring 148. What type of bench mark is used for lending in banks : Benchmark Prime Lending Rate a. BPLR b. MCLR c. RRLR d. Base Rate e. B & C
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149. Proposals related to Gems &Jewellery Sector, Rubber Industry & PSU Disinvestment announced
by Govt. of India: Only ________ is empowered to sanction loans irrespective of amount a. Management committee b. HOCAC-I c. HOCAC-III d. HOCAC-III e. None of the above 150. Authenticity of the Audited Balance sheet submitted by the Borrower can be verified with a. ROC’s Copy b. ITR of the Borrowers c. ICAI Site d. Balance Sheet submitted to bank e. All the Above
146 d 147 c 148 e 149 a 150 e
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2. MSME 1. GOI has issued revised guidelines for definition of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
w.e.f._________ a. 01.07.2020 b.. 01.06.2020 c. 01.03.2020 d. 01.05.2020 e. one of the above 2. An _________Enterprise, where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does
not exceed one crore rupees and turnover does not exceed five crore rupees. a. Macro Enterprise b. Micro Enterprise c. Small Enterprise d. Medium Enterprise e. one of the above 3. The value of Plant and Machinery or Equipment shall mean the _________ as at the end
of the Financial Year as defined in the Income Tax Act. a. cost of acquisition b. original price. c. Written Down Value d. None of the above e. All of the above 4. All units with _________listed against the same Permanent Account .umber (PA. ) shall be
collectively treated as one enterprise and the turnover and investment figures for all of such entities shall be seen together and only the aggregate values will be considered for deciding the category as micro, small or medium enterprise.
a. GSTIN b. TIN c. TAN d. PAN e. All of the above 5. An Enterprise, where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed
ten crore rupees and turnover does not exceed fifty crore rupees a. Macro b. Micro c. Small d. Medium e. None of the above
1 a 2 b 3 c 4 a 5 c 6. An e-certificate, namely_________shall be issued on completion of the registration process
of Micro, Small or Medium enterprise a. Madhyam Registration Certificate b. Udyam Registration Certificate c. Uttam Registration Certificate d. Udaan Registration Certificate e. None of the above
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7 The calculation of investment in plant and machinery or equipment will be linked to the Income Tax Return (ITR) of the ______ filed under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
a. Previous year b. Last two years c. Last three years d. Last four years e. None of the above 8. Exports of_______ , shall be excluded while calculating the turnover of any enterprise
whether micro, small or medium, for the purposes of classification a. goods b. services c. goods or services or both d. None of the above e. None of the above 9. The fee for filing Udyam Registration is Rs.____ a. 0 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150 e. 200 10. Aadhaar number shall be required for Udyam Registration. The Aadhaar number shall be
of the ______ in the case of a proprietorship firm, of the _______in the case of a partnership firm and of a in the case of a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF).
a. Proprietor, Karta, managing partner b. managing partner, Proprietor, Karta c. Proprietor, Karta, Managing Partner d. Proprietor, Managing Partner, Karta e. None of the above
6 b 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 d 11. An ______Enterprise, where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does
not exceed fifty crore rupees and turnover does not exceed two hundred and fifty crore rupees
a. Macro b. Micro c. Small d. Medium e. None of the above 12. In case of an upward change in terms of investment in plant and machinery or equipment
or turnover or both, in MSME, and consequent re-classification, an enterprise will maintain its prevailing status till expiry of ______ from the close of the year of registration
a. Six months b. One year c. Two years d. Three years e. None of the above 13. The newly developed menu _____ in Finacle system now onwards for proper classification
of MSME accounts.
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a. URDM b. URCA c. URDA d. URA e. None of the above 14. What is a Mudra Loan ? a. A loan granted in Indian rupees b. A loan granted to MSE borrowers c. A loan granted to nonfarm enterprises engaged in trading, services, or manufacturing not
exceeding Rs. 10 lacs d. A loan granted to dairy industry. e. None of the above 15. No Collateral security should be insisted for MSE loans upto Rs.____ a. Rs. 10 lacs b. Rs. 5 lacs c. Rs. 25 lacs d. Rs.200 lacs e. None of the above
11 d 12 b 13 a 14 c 15 a 16. The calculation of investment in plant and machinery or equipment will be linked to the----
------ a. Declaration given by the customer b. IT return of the previous years c. Now it is not required d. UDAYAM portal e. None of the above 17 What is the full form of NCGTC? a. National Credit Guarantee trust Company b. National Cooperative Guarantee Trust Company c. National Cooperative Guarantee Trust Company d. National Common Guarantee Trust Company e. None of the above 18. Which of the following is correct w.r.t composite criteria of investment and turnover for
classification of MSMEs: a. A composite criterion of investment and turnover shall apply for classification of an
enterprise as micro, small or medium. b. If an enterprise crosses the ceiling limits specified for its present category in either of the
two criteria of investment or turnover. It will cease to exist in that category and be placed in the next higher category but no enterprise shall be placed in the lower category unless it goes below the ceiling limits specified for its present category in both the criteria of investment as well as turnover
c. All units with Goods and Services Tax Identification .umber (GSTI.) listed against the same Permanent Account .umber (PA. ) shall be collectively treated as one enterprise and the turnover and investment figures for all of such entities shall be seen together and only the aggregate values will be considered for deciding the category as micro, small or medium enterprise
d. All of the above e. None of the above
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19. Which of the following is correct w.r.t calculation of investment in plant and machinery or equipment for classification of MSMEs under composite criteria:
a. The calculation of investment in plant and machinery or equipment will be linked to the Income Tax Return (ITR) of the previous years filed under the Income Tax Act, 1961
b. In case of a new enterprise, where no prior ITR is available, the investment will be based on self-declaration of the promoter of the enterprise and such relaxation shall end after the 31st March of the financial year in which it files its first ITR.
c. The expression ‘’plant and machinery or equipment’’ of the enterprise, shall have the same meaning as assigned to the plant and machinery in the Income Tax Rules, 1962 framed under the Income Tax Act, 1961 and shall include all tangible assets (other than land and building, furniture and fittings).
d. The purchase (invoice) value of a plant and machinery or equipment, whether purchased first hand or second hand, shall be taken into account excluding Goods and Services Tax (GST), on self-disclosure basis, if the enterprise is a new one without any ITR.
e. All of the above 20. Which of the following is correct w.r.t calculation of Turnover for classification of MSMEs
under composite criteria: a. Exports of goods or services or both, shall be excluded while calculating the turnover of any
enterprise whether micro, small or medium, for the purposes of classification. b. Information as regards turnover and exports turnover for an enterprise shall be linked to the
Income Tax Act or the Central Goods and Services Act (CGST Act) and the GSTI. c. The turnover related figures of such enterprise which do not have PA. will be considered on
self-declaration basis for a period up to 31st March, 2021 and thereafter, PA. and GSTI. shall be mandatory.
d. All of the above e. In case of reverse-graduation of an enterprise, whether as a result of re-classification or
due to actual changes in investment in plant and machinery or equipment or turnover or both, and whether the enterprise is registered under the Act or not, the enterprise will continue in its present category till the closure of the financial year and it will be given the benefit of the changed status only with effect from 1st April of the financial year following the year in which such change took place.
16 b 17 a 18 d 19 e 20 D 21. The Govt. has introduced a Scheme named as ‘Distressed Assets Fund - Subordinate
Debt for Stressed MSMEs’ and the credit product for which guarantee would be provided under the Scheme ‘Credit Guarantee Scheme for Subordinate Debt (CGSSD)’. Under the scheme the guarantee coverage will be provided to the eligible borrower for the credit facilities extended under this scheme. Under this arrangement, promoters of the MSME unit will be given credit equal to _____% of his stake (equity plus debt) or Rs _____ lakh whichever is lower.
a. 10; 50 b. 15; 75 c. 25; 100 d. 40; 100 e. None of the above 22. ZED rated MSME units reflect better performance in terms of manufacturing processes
and financial discipline, following concessions may be allowed: Gold _____ Diamond & Platinum _______
a. 50% Concession in Processing Charges b. 40% Concession in Processing Charges c. 30% Concession in Processing Charges d. 20% Concession in Processing Charges
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e. None of the above 23. STAND UP INDIA- Scheme for Financing ______ a. Only SC/ST b. Women Entrepreneurs with min of 51% share only c. SC/ST & Women Entrepreneurs with min of 51% share d. None of the above e. None of the above 24. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in Stand Up India a. aboveRs.10 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs b. Rs.40 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs c. Rs.10 lakhs and Need based d. Rs.30 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs e. Rs.20 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs 25. PM Street Vendors Atam Nirbhar Nidhi(PM Svanidhi)- The vendors availing loan of
Rs_____ under the scheme are eligible to get ______interest subsidy which is available upto______ for ___year
a. 10000, 7%, one, 31.03.22 b. 20000, 5%, one, 31.03.21 c. 10000, 7%, one, 31.03.21 d. 10000, 7%, two, 31.03.22 e. 10000, 3%, one, 31.03.22
21 b 22 a 23 c 24 a 25 C 26. Which field has been made NON mandatory in PM Svanidhi loan application form? a. Voter ID No. b. Minority Status c. PWD Status d. Benefits availed under Central Government Schemes e. ALL OF THE ABOVE 27. Street Vendors category code are a. A b. B c. C, C1,C2 d. D,D1,D2 e. All of the above 28. The following is exempted under PM Svanidhi scheme a. MARGIN b. CIBIL & CIBIL CHARGES c. INSURANCE d. DOCUMENTATION/PROCESSING FEE e. All of the above 29. Which IT platform has been developed by Indian Bank, .PCI and UIDAI for facilitating the
PM Svanidhi scheme implementation and management. a. www.svanidhi.mohua. gov.in b. www.pslbloanin59minutes.com c. www.kviconlin.gov.in d. All of the above
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e. None of the above 30. What is the limit of cash back incentive available in PM Svanidhi scheme a. Rs. 1200 only b. Rs. 1500 only c. Rs. 1300 only d. Rs. 1100 only e. Rs. 1000 only
26 a 27 e 28 e 29 A 30 a 31. PNB GURUKUL - maximum finance for the land shall not exceed ________ a. Rs.5.00 crores b. Rs. 4.00crores c. Rs.3.00crores d. Rs.2.00crores e. Rs.1.00crores 32. PNB GURUKUL - Tenure of loan for Term Loan is upto ______ including moratorium
period upto 24 months a. 12years b. 5years c. 10years d. 7years e. 8years 33. Education Institutions are ______________ to be covered under CGTMSE Scheme. a. Eligible b. not eligible c. sometimes eligible d. depends on the amount e. depends on the place 34. To provide hassle free financial support from the banking system to our existing Small
business units, retail traders, artisans, village industries, Micro & Small Enterprise (Manufacturing and processing), Micro & Small-Services & Business Enterprises (MSSBE), professionals and self-employed persons, etc., a friendly credit product namely ____ those are having relation with minimum of _____years
a. PNB Laghu Udhyami Credit Card & 5 b. PNB Udhyami Credit Card & NO minimum c. PNB Laghu Udhyami Credit Card & 3 d. PNB Laghu Udhyami Card & 5 e. None of the above 35. For Professionals and Self-employed persons, _______of their gross annual income as
per Income Tax return shall be considered as the limit for issuing the PNB LUCC & Max limit is Rs____ lacs with validity of ____yrs.
a. 20%, 20, 5 b. 30%,10,5 c. 40%,10,2 d. 50%, 10, 3 e. 60%,10, 3
31 d 32 c 33 b 34 c 35 d 36. PNB MAHILA UDHYAMI- MARGIN Upto Rs. 2.00 Lakh:____
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Above Rs. 2.00 Lakh to Rs. 5.00 Lakh: _____ Above Rs. 5.00 Lakh to Rs. 10.00 Lakh: _____ a. NIL 10% 30% b. NIL 20% 30% c. NIL 20% 10% d. NIL 20% 25% e. NIL 10% 25% 37. PNB SANJEEVANI SCHEME - Maximum Overdraft allowed is __________ a. Rs.2.00crore b. Rs.3.00crore c. Rs.5.00crore d. Rs.7.00crore e. Rs.8.00crore 38. PNB SANJEEVANI SCHEME - No collateral is required if realizable value of the primary
security in the shape of Land & Building mortgaged is more than ____ of the total exposure a. 1.2 b. 1 c. 1.1 d. 1.3 e. 1.5 39. PNB SEVA SCHEME - tenure of loan - Repayment period shall be maximum 7 years for
Term Loan a. 5 years b. 6 years c. 7 years d. 8 years e. 9 years 40. PNB SEVA SCHEME - Advance shall be covered by collateral coverage of at least 40%
of the total exposure (FB+NFB). a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 1
36 d 37 a 38 c 39 c 40 B 41. PNB TATKAL SCHEME - LOAN LIMIT a. From Rs.1.00 lacs to Rs. 25.00 lacs. b. From Rs.5.00 lacs to Rs. 25.00 lacs. c. From Rs.1.00 lacs to Rs. 20.00 lacs. d. From Rs.10.00 lacs to Rs. 25.00 lacs. e. None of the above 42. PNB TATKAL SCHEME - Loan Exposure upto Rs10.00 lacs shall be classified under
Mudra a. Upto Rs. 50.00 lacs b. Upto Rs. 40.00 lacs c. Upto Rs.5.00 lacs d. Upto Rs. 10.00 lacs e. None of the above
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43. PNB TATKAL SCHEME - tenor of the Term loan _______ a. Upto 7 years b. Upto 8 years c. Upto 9 years d. Upto 10 years e. None of the above 44. All other loan accounts under MSME category above ₹10 Lac and upto ₹ 1 Crore are
dealt by ________ a. MCC b. Loan Point c. LCC d. ELCC e. None of the above 45. Internal rate of return is: A discount rate, at which the net present value of a project is ____ a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of the above
41 a 42 d 43 a 44 b 45 a 46. __________ ratio indicates: Capacity of a firm to meet its current liabilities a. DSCR b. Current ratio c. Liquidity ratio d. Debt equity ratio e. Interest service coverage ratio 47. In compliance with GoI’s EASE Reforms Agenda, the Bank has introduced the concept of
Screening Committee. Primary responsibility of the Committee is to scrutinize fresh/enhancement credit proposals (standard category of borrowers) with exposure of more than Rs.________
a. 20crores b. 15crores c. 25crores d. 50crores e. None of the above 48. Internal rate of return is : A discount rate, at which the net present value of a project is
____ a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of the above 49. While appraising proposal for term loan, the following four fundamentals should be
carefully studied and analysed: Ø Technical feasibility of the project. Ø Economic viability of the project.
Ø Financial viability of the project. Ø Managerial competence. a. Only Managerial competence. b. Only Financial viability of the project, Managerial competence.
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c. Only Technical feasibility of the project, Economic viability of the project, Financial viability of the project, Managerial competence.
d. Only Technical feasibility of the project, Economic viability of the project. e. None of the above 50. The appraisal of term loan broadly involves an analytical assessment of the following: a. Only Purpose, cost of project and how it is to be tied up, b. Only Future trends of production and sales, c. Only Estimates of costs, expenses, earning and profitability d. Only Cash flow statements during the period of the loan. e. All of the above
46 b 47 d 48 a 49 c 50 e 51. The bank has developed, in-house, an online portal ‘PNB MICRO LOANS PORTAL’ to
provide ‘In-principle approval’ of loans up to Rs. ____ LACS to eligible MSME applicants a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 500 e. No Such portal 52. Though online portal " PNB Micro loans portal " The minimum CIBIL score required for
getting ‘In-Principal’ approval is ‘____’ & also for "-1" a. 600 b. 700 c. 650 d. 750 e. 800 53. Though online portal " PNB Micro loans portal " MSME applicants are required to first
register themselves on the portal by feeding their ________ number & verify through OTS a. PAN CARD b. Aadhar c. Udyog Aadhar d. Trade Licence e. Voter card 54. Contactless Loans to MSME Borrowers through online 59 minutes portal is for loans from a. 1 -100 lacs b. 1-500 lacs c. 0-500 lacs d. 0-100 lacs e. upto 1 lacs only 55. Under 59 minutes portal , The Pre-requisites conditions / eligibility criteria for On-boarding
of MSME proposals (new / renew / enhancement) on the portal are a. unit must be GST registered unit (not under Composite Scheme) b. firm should be regular in filling of GST returns c. firm should have filed atleast one year ITR (ITR 03 / 05 / 06 / 04-S) d. unit should be regular in loan repayment & has not defaulted in past e. All of the above
51 a 52 c 53 b 54 b 55 e
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56. Under 59 minutes portal , Which report has been has been customized in MIS server where branch can generate account statement in PDF format for an account for a given period.
a. PNBRPT_2_83 b. PNBRPT_ 3_83 c. PNBREP_3_83 d. SENSRPT_2_83 e. No such report 57. Under 59 minutes portal , after in principle sanction branch can download CAM report for
the applicant which of the following is reflected in this report a. Customer profile, including partner’s / director’s profile & their CIBIL report b. Analysis of bank’s statement for last six months c. Financial for the last three years (PL and BS) on CMA format. d. Hunter Analysis e. All of the above 58. Under 59 minutes portal, Hunter analysis in CAM report reflects which feature of the
applicant a. Loan eligibility amount / PBF calculation b. Analysis of bank’s statement for last six months c. Risk score assessed through model, inbuilt in the portal d. Back end checks for multiple fraud, bureau checks, MCA site checks and bank’s product
policy checks e. Financial for the last three years (PL and BS) on CMA format 59. Under PMEGP, the minimum education qualification required for service unit with project
cost above 5 lacs and manufacturing units with project cost above 10 lacs is a. no minimum education qualification b. 10th pass c. VIII th pass d. 12 th pass e. Graduate 60. Under PMEGP , a women beneficiary in rural area wants to set up a manufacturing unit of
Project cost 20 lacs . What will be the borrowers margin? a. 1 lac b. 2 lac c. 4lac d. 5 lac e. Nil
56 a 57 e 58 d 59 e 60 e 61. Under PMEGP , a women beneficiary in rural area wants to set up a manufacturing unit of
Project cost 20 lacs . What will be the subsidy assistance ? a. 3.5 lac b. 2.5 lac c. 5 lac d. 7 lac e. 3 lac 62. Under PMEGP, a women beneficiary in rural area wants to set up a manufacturing unit of
Project cost 20 lacs . What will be the Bank's loan amount ? a. 12 lac
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b. 13 lac c. 15 lac d. 19 lac e. 20 lac 63. Under PMEGP , a women beneficiary in rural area wants to set up a manufacturing unit of
Project cost 20 lacs . What will the loan amount on which Bank will charge interest ? a. 19 lacs b. 12 lac c. 13 lacs d. 15 lacs e. 20 lac 64. Under PMEGP , the govt assistance/subsidy so received is to be kept unde zero percent
TDR for a minimum lock in period of ______ years a. 5 years b. 3 years c. 7 years d. 10 years e. 15 years 65. Under PMEGP , which of the following statements is correct regarding eligibility for
upgradation of existing units after repayment of early PMEGP/ MUDRA loans a. Borrowers contribution of 10% is required for all categories b. Maximum Project cost for Manufacturing unit upgradation is 100 lacs c. Maximum Project cost for Service unit upgradation is 25 lacs d. Govt Subsidy for all categories is 15 % & 20% for .E & hilly areas e. All of the above
61 d 62 d 63 b 64 b 65 e 66. Under PMEGP , which of the following statements is correct regarding eligibility of the
borrower a. No income criteria b. Only one person from a family ( self or spouse ) c. No education criteria except 8th pass for project cost more than 10 lacs for manufacturing
& 5 lacs for service units d. All of the above e. None of the above 67. Under PMEGP, which of the following units Can be financed a. Auto Rickshaw in Andaman & Nicobar Island b. Sikhara in J& K c. CNG auto Rickshaw in North Eastern states d. All of the above e. None of the above 68. Under PMEGP , Working capital component should be utilized in such a way that it
touches ____% limit of Cash Credit within 3 years of Lock-in-Period of Margin Money and not less than 75% utilization of sanctioned limit
a. 75 b. 50 c. 80 d. 100 e. 150
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69. Member of Backward Classes having annual family income less than Rs. ___Lakhs can
obtain loan under National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation (NBCFDC) scheme
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 e. 100 70. Activities that can be financed under National Backward Classes Finance and
Development Corporation (NBCFDC) scheme are a. Small Business/Artisan & Traditional Occupation b. Transport Sector c. Service units d. Technical and Professional Trades e. All of the above
66 d 67 d 68 d 69 b 70 e 71. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, which of the following is not correct
regarding eligibilty of the applicant a. All handicrafts artisans / workers having valid PAHCHAN card. b. All artisans involved in production/ manufacturing process c. Beneficiaries of other Government sponsored loan schemes d. Loan applications, routed through the field offices of Development Commissioner
(DC Handicrafts) e. The applicant should not be defaulter of any bank 72. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, The maximum limit for Term Loan
& Working Capital limit to be sanctioned under the scheme would be Rs._____ a. 50000/- b. 1 Lac c. 3 Lacs d. 5 Lacs e. 10 lacs 73. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, Loans upto Rs.______ may be
sanctioned as OD under ODMUD with Mudra Card a. 15000/- b. 25000/- c. 50000/- d. 1 lac e. Need based 74. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, which of the following is not correct
regarding assistance from govt. a. Interest Subvention of 6%, b. Interest subvention to be capped to a maximum of Rs. 1 lakh in three years c. Margin Money of 20% d. margin money to be capped to maximum of Rs. 10,000/- e. All of the above
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75. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, Reimbursement of Interest subsidy shall not be taken place in case of
a. During the period of default by the borrower, even within the period of 3 years. b. After completion of eligible period of 3 years for Interest Subvention. c. Non receipt of Interest Subvention from the Office of DC (Handicraft), MoT, GOI d. All of the above e. None of these
71 c 72 d 73 C 74 e 75 d 76. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, Margin required for cc or TL for 2
lacs - 5lacs is ___ % a. Nil b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 e. 30 77. Under PNB Kushal Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme, Margin required for TL upto 5 lacs
For purchase of land & construction of Building or purchase of eligible old P& M _ % a. Nil b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 e. 30 78. Under Scheme For Financing Persons With Disabilities (PWDs), 100% refinance is
available from a. SIDBI b. RBI c. NHFDC d. IFCI e. No refinance available 79. Under Scheme For Financing Persons With Disabilities (PWDs), which of the following
condition is true regarding eligibility a. Any Indian citizen with 40% or more disability. b. Age between 18 and 60 years. c. Annual Income below Rs. 500000/- per annum for urban areas and Rs. 300000/-per annum
for rural areas d. Relevant Educational/ Technical/ Vocational qualification/ experience and background e. All of the above 80. Under Scheme For Financing Persons With Disabilities (PWDs), which of the following is
correct regarding extent of loans a. For setting up of self employment service units, upto 5 lacs b. For purchase of vehicle including auto rickshaw for commercial hiring Purpose upto 10 Lacs c. For setting up of self employment manufacturing/ fabrication/ production units upto 25 Lacs d. All of the above e. None of these
76 c 77 d 78 c 79 e 80 d 81. Under Scheme For Financing Persons With Disabilities (PWDs), which of the following is
correct regarding interest rate in case refinance from NHFDC is received
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a. Upto Rs 50,000/-- 5% b. Above Rs 50,000/- and up to Rs.5.00 lacs - 6 % c. Above Rs.5.00 lacs - 8 % d. A special rebate of 1% on interest is given to women with disabilities e. All of the above 82. Under Scheme for financing against pledge of warehouse receipts issued by approved
Collateral Managers, which of the following is correct regarding extent of finance a. Extent of loans is minimum Rs50000/- b. Maximum amount will be Rs.50.00 Lakhs for individual farmers including SHG/ JLGs c. Maximum amount will be Rs.25.00 crores for Sole Proprietorship Concerns d. All other categories of borrowers i.e. Partnership, Pvt. Ltd Co., Public Ltd Co. etc : As per
vested loaning powers e. All of the above 83. Under Scheme for financing against pledge of warehouse receipts issued by approved
Collateral Managers, which of the following is correct regarding Charges paid to collateral Managers
a. Collateral Management fee @ 0.75% per the monthly/ periodical invoice raised b. referral fee @ 0.25% per the monthly/ periodical invoice raised c. To be paid after application of interest in the account d. All of the above e. None of these 84. Under Schemes for Financing against Pledge of Warehouse Receipts in electronic form
,margin required is ___ % a. Nil b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 e. 40 85. Under Scheme for financing against pledge of warehouse receipts issued by approved
Collateral Managers, In no case, repayment period to exceed for more than _______ or validity of lease period of godown, in which stocks are pledged, whichever is earlier
a. 9 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 3 Years e. 5 years
81 e 82 e 83 d 84 d 85 B 86. PNB STANDBY Credit facility for MSEs provides Term loan facility to existing MSME
borrowers of the Bank for the purpose of ______ a. working capital requirements like additional purchase of raw materials etc b. clearance of statutory dues c. meeting unforeseen capital expenditure of the unit d. Both a & b above e. None of these 87. Existing MSE borrowers having satisfying dealings with the Bank are eligible for credit
under PNB Standby Credit facility if a. threshold credit rating is B1 as on the closing of previous financial year.
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b. credit risk rating/scoring for any of the earlier years should not be below 'B2' c. threshold credit rating is B2 as on the closing of previous financial year. d. Both a & b above e. Both b & c above 88. Repayment period of term loan in case of Standby Credit Facility is a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 3 to 5 years e. 3 to 7 years 89. Quantum of loan in PNB Standby Credit facility is upto 25% of original value of the existing
Plant and Machinery, subject to a maximum of Rs.______ a. 20 lakh b. 25 lakh c. 30 lakh d. 35 lakh e. None of these 90. The Margin in case of PNB Stanby Credit facility is a. 15% of the cost of the fixed asset proposed to be acquired. b. 20% of the cost of the fixed asset proposed to be acquired. c. 25% of the cost of the fixed asset proposed to be acquired. d. 30% of the cost of the fixed asset proposed to be acquired. e. 25-30% of the cost of the fixed asset proposed to be acquired.
86 c 87 d 88 d 89 b 90 c 91. Standby Credit Facility should be sanctioned for capital expenditure, by way of fresh Term
loan facility: a. At the time of renewal of the existing working capital limits of the unit and will be valid for
12 months b. At the time of renewal of the existing working capital limits of the unit and will be valid for
12 months or next renewal, whichever is earlier. c. Whenever there is unforeseen capital expenditure and will be valid for 12 m d. Whenever there is unforeseen capital expenditure and will be valid for 6 m e. None of these 92. Quantum of loan in PNB Standby Credit facility to MSE is upto _______, subject to a
maximum of Rs.25 lakhs a. 10% of original value of the existing Plant and Machinery b. 20% of original value of the existing Plant and Machinery c. 25% of original value of the existing Plant and Machinery d. 30% of original value of the existing Plant and Machinery e. None of these 93. Max interest rate cap ____% for loans sanctioned under Shishu category a. MCLR b. RLLR+.15 % c. 12 d. RLLR+ 1.4% e. None of the Above 94. MUDRA stands for
37
a. Medium Units Development and Restructuring Agency b. Medium Units Development And Refinance Agency c. Micro Units Development and Refinance Act d. Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency e. None of these 95. Incumbent Incharges at all branches shall earmark timings from _________ on _______
exclusively for attending the customers applying for MUDRA loans & addressing/ redressing grievances /queries related to PMMY scheme.
a. 4.00 PM to 5.00 PM, every Thursday b. 4.00 PM to 5.00 PM, Every Wednesday c. 3.00 PM to 5.00 PM, Every Wednesday d. 3.00 PM to 5.00 PM, Every Day e. None of the above.
91 b 92 c 93 c 94 d 95 c 96. All advances granted on or after 8th April, 2015 falling under this category (non-farm
enterprises in manufacturing, trading and services, whose credit needs are upto Rs. ______ be classified as MUDRA loans under the PMMY
a. 10 lakh b. 50 lakh c. 100 lakh d. 20 lakh e. None of the above. 97. MUDRA Loan Scheme 'Kishor' covers loans upto Rs _____ a. 50,000/- b. 1 lakh c. 1,00,000 to 5 lakh d. 50,000/- to 5 lakh e. 5 lakh to 10 lakh 98. Bank has launched MUDRA Card to disburse all Shishu category loans up to Rs _______
of PMMY a. 25000/- b. 50,000/- c. 1,00,000/- d. 15,000/- e. None of these 99. MUDRA Loan Scheme 'TARUN' covers loans upto Rs _____ a. 50,000/- b. 1 lakh c. 1,00,000 to 5 lakh d. 50,000/- to 5 lakh e. 5 lakh to 10 lakh 100. Under Scheme for financing against pledge of warehouse receipts issued by approved
Collateral Managers, which of the following is correct regarding extent of finance
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a. Extent of loans is minimum Rs50000/- b. Maximum amount will be Rs.50.00 Lakhs for individual farmers including SHG/ JLGs c. Maximum amount will be Rs.25.00 crores for Sole Proprietorship Concerns d. All other categories of borrowers i.e. Partnership, Pvt. Ltd Co., Public Ltd Co. etc : As per
vested loaning powers e. All of the above
96 a 97 d 98 b 99 e 100 e 101. Under Scheme for financing against pledge of warehouse receipts issued by approved
Collateral Managers, which of the following is correct regarding Charges paid to collateral Managers
a. Collateral Management fee @ 0.75% per the monthly/ periodical invoice raised b. referral fee @ 0.25% per the monthly/ periodical invoice raised c. To be paid after application of interest in the account d. All of the above e. None of these 102. Under Schemes for Financing against Pledge of Warehouse Receipts in electronic form,
margin required is ___ % a. Nil b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 e. 40 103. Under Scheme for financing against pledge of warehouse receipts issued by approved
Collateral Managers, In no case, repayment period to exceed for more than _______ or validity of lease period of godown, in which stocks are pledged, whichever is earlier
a. 9 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 3 Years e. 5 years 104. Under Scheme of "Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Castes" , IFCI nodal agency has
set a fund with initial capital of Rs.200 crore to be supplemented each year to provide concessional finance to SC Entrepreneurs . The Sponsoring agency for this fund is
a. Ministry of Finance b. Ministry of Minority Association c. Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment d. Ministry of Corporate affairs e. none of these 105. Under Scheme of "Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Castes" , eligible companies to
have at least _____% stake holding by Scheduled Caste entrepreneurs for the past 12 months with management control whiche they will not dilute till exit under this scheme .
a. 50 b. 60
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c. 75 d. 80 e. 100
101 d 102 d 103 B 104 c 105 B 106. Under above scheme, it is mandatory for the eligible companies to get financial
assistance from bank upto ___% of the total project cost, if the company is getting finance above Rs. 5 crore from IFCI Venture and also IFCI Venture shall prefer proposals forwarded by the banks/FIs, under this scheme
a. 75 b. 25 c. 50 d. 20 e. No such criteria 107. Under above scheme, the investment size is to be from 0.5 crore to 15 crore. However,
Aggregate assistance not more than ____ times the current net worth of the company a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4 e. none of these 108. Who are eligible to be gratned loan under PNB GCC Scheme for non farm entrepreneurial
activities? a. Individual b. Propritorship Firm c. Partnership Fim d. SHG e. JLG 109. What is the maximum amount of loan that can be given under PNB GCC Scheme? a. Rs 5.00 Lakh b. Rs 10.00 Lakh c. Rs 1.00 Lakh d. Rs 20.00 Lakh e. Rs 0.50 Lakh 110. What is the borrower's margin in PNB GCC Scheme? a. 10 b. 5 c. 15 d. 20 e. Nil
106 b 107 c 108 b 109 a 110 E 111. PNB GCC is valid for a. 1 Year b. 2 Year c. 3 Year
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d. 5 Year e. None of the above 112. The maximum limit sanctioned under Artisian credit card Scheme for term loan and
working capital will be ____ a. 1 lac b. 2 lac c. need based d. 5 lac e. 10 lac 113. The margin required under ACC will be _____% a. Nil b. 10 c. 5 d. 25 e. 20 114. The PNB Artisans Credit Card limit sanctioned will be valid for _____years, subject to
annual review by the bank, based on genuine trade transactions and satisfactory track record.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 1 e. 7 115. What is the nature of Credit Facility offered under PNB Artisan Credit Card Scheme? a. Demand Loan b. Cash Credit c. Term Loan d. Both 2nd & 3rd e. All the three
111 c 112 b 113 a 114 b 115 D 116. What is the amount of Service Charge that needs to be taken for issuance of PNB Artisan
Credit Card? a. Rs 100/- b. Rs 200/- c. Rs 500/- d. Rs 1000/- e. Nil 117. Under PNB LUCC Scheme what is the suggested periodicity for submission of Inventory
statement of stock / Book Debts a. Fortnightly b. Monthly c. Quarterly d. Bi Monthly
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e. Not Required 118. CGTMSE can cover a maximum of Rs. _____ Lacs collateral free loan to MSE units . a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 e. None of the Above 119. CGTMSE can cover a maximum of Rs. _____ collateral free loan to Retail Trade units a. upto 10 lacs b. 10 lacs to 100 lacs c. upto 100 lacs d. upto 200 lacs e. 10 lacs to 200 lacs 120. CGTMSE coverage of collateral free loans from rs.10 lacs to 50 lacs ion deserving cases
will be permitted by a. BM any Scale b. BM Scale IV c. Circle Head d. Zonal Manager e. Not allowed
116 e 117 e 118 d 119 c 120 C 121. CGTMSE coverage of collateral free loans from rs.50 lacs to 200 lacs ion deserving cases
will be permitted by a. BM any Scale b. BM Scale IV c. Circle Head d. Zonal Manager e. Not allowed 122. Max extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE for loan amount more than Rs 50 lacs
sanctioned & covered after 01.01.2017 but before 01.04.2018 is ____ % a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 80 e. None of the Above 123. Max extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE for loan amount to micro enterprises upto
Rs.5 lacs sanctioned & covered after 01.04.2018 ____ % a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 80 e. 85
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124. Max extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE for loan amount to Women
entrepreneurs/ Units located in North East Region (incl. Sikkim) (other than credit facility up to 5 lakh to micro enterprises) enterprises upto Rs.50 lacs sanctioned & covered after 01.04.2018 ____ %
a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 80 e. 85 125. Max extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE for loan amount to micro enterprises
above Rs.5 lacs and upto Rs.50 lacs sanctioned & covered after 01.04.2018 ____ % a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 80 e. 85
121 d 122 a 123 e 124 d 125 C 126. Max extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE for loan amount to micro enterprises
above Rs.5 lacs and upto Rs.50 lacs is ____ % a. 50 b. 60 c. 75 d. 80 e. 85 127. Max extent of guarantee cover under CGTMSE for loan amount more than Rs 50 lacs is
____ % a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 e. None of the Above 128. Modified Standard Rate of AGF for loan account renewed /sanctioned after 01.04.18
having exposure up to 5 lacs for CGTMSE cover ______% + Risk premium of Sanctioned amount for 1st year and thereafter on o/s balance
a. 1.35 b. 1 c. 1.25 d. 1.8 e. None of the Above 129. AGF for CGTMSE for Retail Trade units will be charged at the rate of ___% + Risk
Premium of the guaranteed amount for the first year and on the outstanding amount for the remaining tenure of the credit facility.
a. 1 b. 1.35
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c. 1.8 d. 2 e. None of the Above 130. Any loan sanctioned under CGTMSE cover should be reported to CGTMSE through
portal by a. 90 Days from date of disbursement b. 90 days from date of sanction c. By end of the current quarter d. By end of the next quarter e. None of the Above
126 c 127 c 128 b 129 d 130 D 131. Any loan sanctioned under CGTMSE has been classifed as NPA it should be reported
to CGTMSE through portal by a. 30 Days from the date of NPA b. 60 days from end of the month c. By end of the current quarter d. By end of the next quarter e. None of the Above 132. The AGF to be paid upfront to the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust For Micro And Small
Enterprises by the lending institution availing of the guarantee cover within _________ days from the date of first disbursement of credit facility or ___________ days from the date of Demand Advice (CGDA. ) of guarantee fee, whichever is later
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 15 e. None of the Above 133. Lockin period for loan covered under CGTMSE a. 12 months b. 24 Months c. 18 Months d. 36 Months e. None of the Above 134. Risk weightage for the account covered under CGTMSE a. 0.15 b. 0.5 c. 0.2 d. 0 e. None of the Above 135. What is Free code text in case of loan covered under CGTMSE for guarantee cover a. CGTSI b. CGFMU
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c. CGSSI d. TLCEG e. CCCEG
131 d 132 a 133 c 134 d 135 a 136. Claim period for accounts sanctioned & covered under CGTMSE on or after 01.01.2013
but account become NPA after 15.03.18 for invocation of guarantee is a. If loan classified as NPA within lockin period than 3 years from date of expiry of lockin period
otherwise 3 years from the date of NPA b. If loan classified as NPA within lockin period than 2 years from date of expiry of lockin period
otherwise 2 years from the date of NPA c. If loan classified as NPA within lockin period than 1 years from date of expiry of lockin period
otherwise 1 years from the date of NPA d. If loan classified as NPA within lockin period than 4 years from date of expiry of lockin period
otherwise 4 years from the date of NPA e. None of the Above 137. The Trust shall pay __ % of the guaranteed amount on preferring of eligible claim by the
lending institution, within ___ days, subject to the claim being otherwise found in order and complete in all respects.
a. 75, 15 b. 75, 30 c. 50, 30 d. 100, 30 e. None of the Above 138. Every amount recovered and due to be paid to the Trust shall be paid without delay, and
if any amount due to the Trust remains unpaid beyond a period of ___ days from the date on which it was first recovered.
a. 15 b. 10 c. 30 d. 45 e. Not required to be return to the Trust 139. The AGF to be paid upfront to the .CGTC by the lending institution availing of the
guarantee cover within 16 days from the end of Quarter or ___________ days from the date of Demand Advice (CGDA. ) of guarantee fee, whichever is earlier.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 e. None of the Above 140. The guarantee fees for the first year shall be paid within 30 days from the date of GP. or
within 30 days of first disbursement of the loan, whichever is later, but not exceeding _________ days from the date of sanction in case of CEGSSC.
a. 45 b. 30 c. 3 d. 90
45
e. None of the Above
136 a 137 b 138 c 139 a 140 d 141. Max extent of guarantee cover under CEGSSC for loan amount more than Rs 25 lacs &
up to Rs 2 Crore sanctioned to registered company a. 80% of the sanctioned facility b. 75 % of the sanctioned facility c. 60 % of the sanctioned facility d. 50 % of the sanctioned facility e. None of the Above 142. Max extent of guarantee cover under CEGSSC for loan amount more than Rs 25 lacs &
up to Rs 2 Crore sanctioned to Registered Partnership Firms, Sole Proprietorship firms and Societies
a. 80% of the sanctioned facility b. 75 % of the sanctioned facility c. 60 % of the sanctioned facility d. 50 % of the sanctioned facility e. None of the Above 143. Lockin period for loan covered under CEGSSC a. 12 months b. 24 Months c. 18 Months d. 36 Months e. None of the Above 144. Tenure of guarantee cover in case of working capital limt cover under CGTMSE a. 3 Years b. 5 Years c. 1 years d. 7 Years e. None of the Above 145. Tenure of guarantee cover in case of working capital limt cover under CEGSSC a. 3 Years b. 5 Years c. 1 years d. 7 Years e. None of the Above
141 a 142 c 143 a 144 b 145 d 146. Claim period for accounts sanctioned & covered under CEGSSC for invocation of
guarantee is a. 1 Year from date of NPA b. 1 year from date of expiry of lockin period c. 2 year from date of expiry of lockin period d. 2 year from date of expiry of lockin period
46
e. None of the Above 147. Max extent of guarantee cover under MUDRA Cover a. 60 % of residual loss amount after reduction of first loss of 5 %. b. 50 % of residual loss amount after reduction of first loss of 5 %. Y c. 75 % of residual loss amount after reduction of first loss of 5 %. d. 80 % of residual loss amount after reduction of first loss of 5 %. e. None of the Above 148. The balance 25 per cent (Second installment) of the guaranteed amount will be paid by
trust (CGFTMSE) on conclusion of recovery proceedings by the lending institution or after ______________ years of obtention of decree of recovery, whichever is earlier
a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 e. None of the Above 149. Nodal agency for Credit Enhancement Guarantee Scheme for Scheduled castes
(CEGSSC) a. Credit Guarantee Fund Trust For Micro And Small Enterprises b. IFCI Ltd c. National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.(.CGTC) d. NABARD e. None of the Above 150. Governing body for MUDRA Guarantee cover a. Credit Guarantee Fund Trust For Micro And Small Enterprises b. IFCI Ltd c. National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.(.CGTC) d. NABARD e. None of the Above
146 a 147 b 148 b 149 b 150 c 151. Governing body for CGTMSE Guarantee cover a. Credit Guarantee Fund Trust For Micro And Small Enterprises b. IFCI Ltd c. National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.(.CGTC) d. NABARD e. None of the Above 152. What is Free code text in case of loan covered under STA. D UP Gaurantee cover for
guarantee cover a. CGTSI b. CGFMU c. CGSSI d. TLCEG e. CCCEG
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153. Max extent of guarantee cover under STA. D UP for loan amount more than Rs 10 lacs & up to Rs 50 Lac is __ %
a. 75 b. 60 c. 80 d. 50 e. None of the Above 154. What is the time limit for settlement of claim under MUDRA scheme if otherwise claim is
correct a. 45 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 60 Days e. None of the Above 155. The extension in repayment period and moratorium period may be allowed by next higher
sanctioning authority shall be one step higher but not below ZOCAC-I in case of a. PNB Udyog b. PNB SEVA c. PNB Tatkal d. both a and b e. a, b and c
151 a 152 c 153 c 154 d 155 d 156. The relaxation in collateral security may be allowed by next higher sanctioning authority
shall be one step higher but not below ZOCAC-I in case of a. PNB Vyapar b. PNB SEVA c. PNB Tatkal d. both a and b e. a, b and c 157. Which is the designated Nodal Office for subsidy in case of PNB Weaver Mudra a. BO: Bhikhaiji Cama Place New Delhi b. BO : Parliament Street New Delhi c. BO: Nagpur link cell d. both a and b e. a, b and c 158. Which is the designated Nodal Office for Claim Lodgement in case of PNB Kushal
Handicraft Welfare Mudra Scheme a. BO: Bhikhaiji Cama Place New Delhi b. BO : Parliament Street New Delhi c. BO: Nagpur link cell d. both a and b e. a, b and c 159. Which of these are operative MSME schemes for amalgamated entity w.e.f 01.04.2020
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a. PNB Satkar b. PMEGP c. Scheme for Venture Capital Fund for SC d. both a and b e. a, b and c 160. What type of facility is available in PNB VYAPAR a. Cash Credit (Fund based +Non fund based) b. Term loan c. OVERDRAFT d. BOTH a and b e. a, b and c
156 A 157 b 158 a 159 E 160 D 161. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in PNB Vyapar a. Rs.10 lakhs and Need based b. Rs.1 lakhs and Need based c. Rs.40 lakhs and Need based d. Rs.20 lakhs and Need based e. Rs.30 lakhs and Need based 162. What is the tenure of loan in PNB VYAPAR a. TL upto 10 years inclusive of maximum moratorium of 6 months b. WORKING CAPITAL to be renewed every year c. TL upto 7 years inclusive of maximum moratorium of 6 months d. TL upto 10 years exclusive of maximum moratorium of 6 months e. Both a and b 163. What type of facility is available in PNB GST Express a. Cash Credit b. Term loan c. OVERDRAFT d. BOTH a and b e. a, b and c 164. What is the minimum and maximum loan amount in PNB gst Express a. Rs.10 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs b. Rs.40 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs c. Rs.10 lakhs and .eed based d. Rs.30 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs e. Rs.20 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs 165. What is the tenure of loan in PNB GST Express a. One year b. Two year c. Three year d. Four year e. Five year
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161 A 162 e 163 A 164 A 165 a 166. What is the area of operation in PNB GST Express a. in all geographies b. Northern region c. Central Region d. Western region e. Southern region 167. MSME Application for Credit Facilities of over Rs.2 crores a. PNB 1017 b. PNB 1012 c. PNB 1011 d. PNB 1166 e. None of the above 168. MSME Application for Credit Facilities of over Rs.1 crore and upto Rs.2 crores a. PNB 1016 b. PNB 1017 c. PNB 1011 d. PNB 1166 e. None of the above 169. Application Form for Loan under Pradhan Mantri MudraYojana (PMMY)(For Loan upto
Rs.50,000/- under Shishu) a. PNB 1166A b. PNB 1166B c. PNB1166 d. PNB1016 e. PNB1017 170. MSME Application for Credit Facilities UP TO 100 Lakhs a. PNB 1166 b. PNB 1166B c. PNB1166A d. PNB1016 e. PNB1017
166 A 167 a 168 A 169 a 170 a 171. Loan application for warehouse reciepts is a. PNB 2093 b. PNB 1166B c. PNB1166A d. PNB1016 e. PNB1017
171 a
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3. Types of Charges and Documentation 1. If any BOE falls due on a holiday, it should be complied with on a. Next Day b. immediate preceding day c. Day after tomorrow d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 2. Pledge is defined under section …………. Of Indian Contract Act a. 172 b. 272 c. 171 d. 372 e. 74 3. The Charge created on moveable assets without possession is known as a. Lien b. Assignment c. Mortgage d. Hypothecation e. Set Off 4. When a loan is given by a bank on the security of railway receipt or goods receipt issued by
transport company, which type of charge is created a. Pledge b. Lien c. Hypothecation d. Assignment e. Set Off 5. On which of the following, the charge hypothecation cannot be created a. Stock in Process b. Land & Building c. Motor Car d. Raw Material e. None of the above
1 b 2 a 3 d 4 a 5 b 6. Mortgage has been defined u/s ……….. Of Transfer of Property Act a. 57 b. 58 c. 59 d. 60 e. None of the above 7. A company, being a borrower in your branch has created an equitable mortgage. The registration,
under section 77, of such a charge with Reigstrar of Companies is a. Required to make it binding on liquidator within 30days b. Not required being oral mortgage c. Required to make it binding on liquidator within 90 days d. Never required e. Required sometimes when memorandum of deposit is submitted. 8. Charge on immoveable property to be created is known as a. Mortgage b. Lien c. Hypothecation d. Assignment e. Set Off
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9. Which of the following documents requires to be witnessed a. Mortgage Deed b. Pledge agreement c. Hypothecation agreement d. All of the above e. Term loan agreement 10. In case of locker relation between banker and customer is- a. Bailee- Bailor b. Balior-Bailee c. Lessor-Lessee d. Agent Principal e. Principal-agent
1 b 2 a 3 a 4 a 5 c 11. In the case of a Partnership firm, the documents should be executed by a. Any one of the partners b. authorised partners only c. Minimum two partners d. By all the partners e. by atleast one senior partner 12. A borrwing customer of yours wants to create equiatble mortgage in favour of the bank. Which of
the following is NOT true in case of equitable mortgage. a. It can be created only in respect of a property which is specific. b. It can be created with deposit of title deed and no registration is needed. c. Deposit of title deed is made with an intention to secure a loan d. Property to which the title deed is related should be located in a town notified by the state
government e. Place where mortgage is created should be a notified place 13. Clayton's rule applies to following type of loan accounts: a. Demand Loans b. Term Loans c. Cash Credit Account d. Overdraft Accounts e. c & d above 14. Right of Set off is available due to a. mutual contract b. provisions in RBI act c. implied contract d. provisions in NI act e. provisions in Banking regulation act 15. The right of set off arises when two parties are a. rivals in business b. business partners c. customers of bank d. debtors and creditors to each other e. None of the above
11 d 12 d 13 e 14 c 15 d 16. Which of the following conditions is necessary for exercising the right of set off a. Both accounts should be in same right and capacity b. Debt should be due and not accruing due c. reasonable notice to be sent to depositor before exercising the right d. all the above
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e. None of the above 17. Loan is in the name of Mr X. Bank can exercise the right of set off in which of the following
accounts a. Minor a/c under gaurdianship of Mr X b. Partnership a/c where Mr X is a partner c. Propietorship a/c where Mr X is propreitor d. SB a/c held jointly with Mr Y e. Client a/c maintained by Mr X 18. Loan is in the name of Mr X. and Mr Y. Bank can exercise the right of set off in which of the
following accounts a. SB a/c of Mr X b. SB a/c of Mr Y c. SB a/c held jointly with Mr Y d. all the above e. a and b only 19. Right of set off is not exercisable a. on FDR's which have not matured b. on regular TL accounts c. on regular CC accounts d. on regular OD accounts e. all the above 20. Bankers can exercise the right of general lien on a. Valuable articles kept in safe deposit vaults b. Securities left with the bank negligently c. Securities deposited for securing a loan d. Securities in the name of the other relatives e. None of the above
16 d 17 c 18 d 19 e 20 c 21. Banker can not exercise the right of Set Off a. If the two accounts are in the same name and same right b. If the amount recoverable from A is lying in two different branches in the same name c. After the garnishee order is received d. if the customer's dues are recoverable in the future date. e. None of the above 22. Which of the following are true for Bankers Right of General lien a. The Banker possesses the right of general lien on all the goods and securities entrusted to him as
banker. b. A Banker's lien is tantamount to an implied pledge. c. The Right of Lien is conferred upon the Banker by the Indian Contract Act d. The right of Lien can be exercised on Goods or other securities standing in the name of the
Borrower only and not jointly with others. e. All of the above 23. The Right of Set Off can be exercised in the following cases a. The account must be in the same name and right b. When debts are due and not in respect of any future debt. c. When Debts are certain d. The right may be exercised in the absence of an agreement. e. All of the above 24. The Right of Set Off can be exercised in the following cases a. In case of a sole trader, the account in his personal name and that in the firm's name. b. In case of a Partnership firm the debts due from the partner can be set off from the partnership
account
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c. In case of a partnership firm the debts due by the firm can be set off from the pertners individual account
d. Only A & C e. All of the above 25. A stands as guarantor for a loan of Rs.50000/- given to B by a Bank. Now, in order to exercise the
Right of Set off against the standing balance of the Guarantor , the following must be ensured. a. Banker must first demand the amount from the borrower. b. Banker must exercise the right of set off against the standing balance of the borrower. c. Banker must demand the amount from the guarantor once the borrower defaults. d. All A, B & C e. None of the above
21 d 22 e 23 e 24 d 25 D 26. The Banker can exercise the Right of Set Off to accounts maintained at a. Loan disbursement branch of the bank only b. All the branches of the bank of the same area only c. All the branches of the same bank only. d. All the branches of any bank. e. None of the above 27. In case of accepting mortgage from Muslim borrowers the following document should be taken
additionally a. Affidavit stating the property is free from 'Waqf-Ul-Ulad' b. Affidavit stating the property is free from 'Haq-E-Mahr' c. Affidavit stating that he will not apply for any new loan d. Both A & B e. NONE OF THE ABOVE 28. In EM register, Borrower should sign in place of a. Witness b. Manager c. Should not sign anywhere d. Can sign anywhere e. NONE OF THE ABOVE 29. For Extension of Mortgage which of the folowing is to be obtained a. Letter of thanks b. Letter of continuity c. Letter of Credit d. Letter of undertaking e. Letter of Comfort 30. In EM the date of deposit of title deed i.e. the date of register should be a. After the date of letter of intent. b. Before the date of letter of intent c. Same but timing should be mentioned and the time of EM register should be before than the timing
of letter of intent d. Both B and C e. All of the above
26 c 27 d 28 c 29 b 30 d 31. Banks prefer which type of mortgage a. Equitable Mortgage b. English Mortgage c. Usufructuary Mortgage d. Conditional Sale e. Anomolous Mortgage
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32. 2 NEC ARE TO BE OBTAINED IF THE VALUE OF THE PROPERTY IS GREATER OR EQUAL TO
a. 2 Crores b. 1 Crore c. IN ALL ADVANCES d. 5 Crores e. NONE OF THE ABOVE 33. The IP visit report must contain a. Date of visit b. Nearby landmark c. Name & address of nearby neighbours with mobile number d. Market value e. All of the above 34. For loan amount upto Rs. 1 crore, the frequency of visit to primary mortgaged property is a. Yearly b. Monthly c. Weekly d. Every alternate year e. None of the above 35. For loan amount upto Rs. 1 crore, the frequency of visit to collateral mortgaged property is a. Yearly b. Monthly c. Weekly d. Once in 3 years e. None of the above
31 a 32 b 33 e 34 a 35 d 36. Valuation from approved valuer is required to be conducted when a. Loan amt is Rs.10 lac & above b. Property value is Rs. 20 lac & above c. Both A & B d. All of a), b) & c) e. None of the above 37. Legal opinion received from approved advocate to be a. Kept on record only b. To be studied thoroughly and conditions to be fulfilled and kept on record. c. To be handed over to borrower d. All of a), b) & c) e. None of the above 38. Visit to be conducted in case of housing loan a. Before sanction and after 10 days of disbursement by 2 different officials. b. Before sanction only c. After disbursement only d. Not required at all e. None of the above 39. Valuation to be conducted once in every ________ year for limit / outstanding above Rs.1 crore a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years e. 10 years 40. Mortgaged IP to be Insured with agreed Bank clause, if a. It is a primary security
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b. If it is a collateral security c. If the mortgage is Registered Mortgage d. If the mortgage is equitable mortgage e. All of the above Y
36 c 37 b 38 a 39 c 40 e 41. While alloting searching jobs to empanelled advocate, which of the following point is not true a. Searching Job to be allotted to advocate by Borrower with the photocopy of the title deed under
proper receipt. b. Searching Job to be allotted to advocate by Bank with the photocopy of the title deed under proper
receipt. c. Branch should not preferably allot all searching jobs to a single advocate. d. Advocates are required to maintain registers where they will keep track of the property of which
they are giving opinion. The serial number & register number of the property to be given in Annexure-V of the search report.
e. No advocate will give opinion on the same property twice. 42. While scrutinising a search report which of the following point is not true and to be taken up with
the advocate? a. Advocate should submit the report directly to Bank. b. Advocate should submit the report as per Bank’s approved format c. Advocate should submit a detail search report as per format convenient to him. d. Advocate should submit NEC along with search report. e. Advocate should submit Certified copy of the title deed along with search report. 43. While creating mortgage, in which of the following cases BM valuation is not required? a. If IP is recently purchased i.e. within 12 months. b. If the loan amount is less than 10 lacs c. If value of property is less than 20 lacs d. BM valuation is required in all cases of mortgage. e. None of the above 44. While accepting mortgage as Collateral Security which of the following is not true? a. Letter of Intent/ continuity of the IP is not required. b. Search report not required. c. Property declaration form not required. d. Both A & B e. None of A, B & C above 45. After accepting Title deed as a part of mortgage, the following precautions should be taken a. Title deeds are kept separately in the fire-proof cabinet after entering in PNB-363 register under
joint custody. b. Movement of title deeds, if to be taken out for any purpose, be
accounted for/recorded in a separate prescribed register. c. Every year, stock taking of title deeds be also done by branch official
on rotation basis and certificate to this effect should be given by the checking official, which should be recorded in a register.
d. When title deeds are taken for creation of mortgage by deposit of title deeds, its physical status be assessed, if it is torn or fragile, its status report be made and got signed by the party. If the document requires lamination to be done, it should be got done by the party.
e. All of the above Y
41 a 42 c 43 d 44 e 45 e 46. The period of limitation is usually with reference to a. The type of security b. The document which entitles the beneficiary to take action in a court of law c. Type of loan account
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d. All the above e. None of the above 47. Validity of a stamp paper once it is issued is a. 6 Months b. 12 Months c. 24 Months d. No time limit e. None of the above 48. All loans over which amount is to be vetted? a. 2 Crores FB b. 2.5 Crores FB AND 2.00 Crores NFB c. 2 Crores AND above FB & NFB d. 1 Crore FB & NFB e. Vetting of documents are not required if documents are executed on bank's printed form 49. In case of HUF any loan documents to be signed by a. KARTA only b. Karta & all major Co parceners including female c. Karta & all major Co parceners excluding female d. Karta & all Co parceners including Minor e. None of the above 50. In case of Power of Attorney (POA), the following are to be followed: a. POA should be registered b. Notice to be sent to principal for confirming the POA. c. True copy of POA to be obtained. d. POA Certified as correct by executant be obtained and kept on record e. All of the above Y
46 b 47 d 48 c 49 b 50 e 51. Documents change with a. Security b. Borrower c. Charge d. Facility e. All of the above 52. The following type of entities cannot enter in to any contract a. Minor b. Lunatic c. Insolvent d. All of a), b) & c) e. None of the above 53. In case of loan to Partnership firm the loan documents to be signed by a. Any one partner b. Any two partners c. All the partners d. All of a), b) & c) e. None of the above 54. In case of scenario where, documents are to be signed in multi state, the stamp duty will be
applicable a. Where it is minimum b. Where the loan is sanctioned c. Where it is maximum d. Any one of a), b) & C)
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e. None of the above 55. In case of scenario where, documents are to be signed in multi location, the date & place will be
mentioned as a. The date & place when the document is to be signed first b. The date & place when the document is to be signed last c. The date & place of every signatories will be different as per their signing date & place d. Any one of a), b) & C) e. None of the above
51 e 52 d 53 c 54 c 55 c 56. The details of mortgage are to be entered in CERSAI a. Before creation of EM b. Before Sanction c. After sanction but before creation of EM d. After sanction and creation of EM but before disbursement e. None of the above 57. Which of the following is not true about CERSAI? a. CERSAI is not required for Registered mortgage. b. The details of Title Deed accepted as mortgage to be entered in CERSAI before disburment. c. If the loan amount / tenure is changed CERSAI entry is required to be modified accordingly. d. Once the loan is adjusted fully, satisfaction of charge in CERSAI to be done. e. CERSAI search to be conducted prior to accepting a property as Mortgage. 58. Details of Title Deed is not required to be eneterd in CERSAI in which of the following cases? a. In case of Consortium finance. b. In case of finance with multiple banking arrangement. c. In case of Registered Mortgage. d. Where copy of title deed is accepted as documentary evidence of IP for preparing CR. e. All of the above 59. While filing particulars of mortgages with CERSAI an acknowledgement / receipt is generated with
the following ID_______ a. Asset ID b. Account ID c. E-Mail ID d. Voter ID e. AADHAR ID 60. The Asset ID generated after filing particulars of mortgages with CERSAI is required to be? a. Noted in the PNB-363 (EM register) & in Legal Compliance certifcate if applicable. b. Entered in CBS system. c. To be handed over to borrower as it is a mere acknowledgement. d. Both A & B e. None of the above
56 d 57 a 58 d 59 a 60 d 61. The charges for satisfaction of any security interest with CERSAI is a. Nil b. Rs.10.90/- + GST c. Rs.54.50/- + GST d. Rs.545/- + GST e. None of the above 62. The charges for searching CERSAI portal is _________ per search. a. Nil b. Rs.10.90/- + GST c. Rs.54.50/- + GST d. Rs.545/- + GST
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e. None of the above 63. CERSAI charges are required to be collected from a. Borrower b. It is paid by Bank. c. It is paid by Govt. d. It is being shared by Bank & Borrower on 50 - 50 basis. e. None of the above 64. Filling of charge with ROC to be filed within 30 days from a. Date of sanction b. Date of disbursement c. Date of Documents d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 65. In case of hypothecation, the following point is true a. Only Ownership of goods stand transferred to creditor. b. Only possession of goods stand transferred to creditor. c. Both ownership & possession of goods stand transferred to creditor. d. Neither ownership nor possession of goods stand transferred to creditor. e. None of the above
1 a 2 b 3 a 4 b 5 D 66. In case of loans against shares which of the following charges are applicable a. Pledge b. Hypothecation c. Mortgage d. Either A or B e. None of the above 67. In case of financing vehicles which of the following charges are applicable a. Pledge b. Hypothecation c. Mortgage d. Assignment e. None of the above 68. ROC charge to be filed for following types of borrowers a. Company b. LLP c. Partnership Firm d. Both A & B e. All of the above 69. Which of the following is not a charge registering authority a. ROC b. CERSAI c. CIBIL d. Both A & B e. All of the above 70. In case of loans against Life Insurance Policies, which of the following charges are applicable a. Pledge b. Hypothecation c. Mortgage d. Assignment e. None of the above
66 a 67 b 68 d 69 c 70 d
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71. ROC search is not required to be conducted in which of the following cases? a. While considering the proposal for financing a limited company. b. In case of existing accounts company, at the time of renewal. c. In case of existing company accounts, at the time of enhancement. d. While considering the proposal for financing a trust. e. None of the above 72. The fee of ROC search to be paid by a. Borrower b. Bank c. No fees are required to be paid. d. Either A or B e. None of the above 73. As per Y H Malegam committee report it is recommended that the failure to disclose the financial
information or the disclosure of incorrect information by the borrower would constitute an a. “Event of Non disclosure”. b. “Event of concealment”. c. “Event of misrepresentation”. d. “Event of incorrect information”. e. “Event of Default”. 74. Master Agreement in addition to the facility- specific agreements is to be obtained for a. FB facility b. NFB facility c. all credit facilities d. Bill discounting facility e. CC/OD facility only 75. Master Agreement along with other document shall be obtained from …………….. a. the borrowers b. the guarantors c. Co-borrowers and guarantors d. the minors e. a), b) and d)
71 d 72 a 73 e 74 c 75 a 76. Sanctions in respect of working capital and term loan facilities shall be valid for a. 6 months from the date of sanction b. 12 months from the date of sanction c. 12 months from the date of sanction if revalidated d. a) or b) depending upon the facility e. a) and c) 77. For All Term Loans, ______________ annual review should be done as per the prescribed format a. other than retail loans, with sanctioned limit of Rs.1 crore & above, b. with sanctioned limit of Rs.1 crore & above, c. with sanctioned limit of Rs.2 crore & above, d. other than retail loans, with sanctioned limit of Rs.2 crore & above, e. sanctioned by CLPC 78. Types of security interest that can be filed on the CERSAI portal are a. Immovable property by all types of mortgages. b. Hypothecation of plant and machinery, stocks, debt including book debt or receivables,
whether existing or future. c. Intangible assets like knowhow, patent, copyright, trade mark, license, franchise etc d. Under construction residential or commercial by an agreement or instrument other than mortgage. e. All of the above
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79. As per notification, particulars of assets charged to Bank have to berecorded on CERSAI within ____ days of creation of charge on an asset.
a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 e. 60 80. As per guidelines in the Bank, particulars of the security interest must be entered in the
CERSAI portal a. Within 30 days of the date of charge creation b. Within 60 days of the date of charge creation c. Within 90 days of the date of charge creation d. On the same day as charge creation date e. Within 120 days of the date of charge creation
76 e 77 a 78 e 79 c 80 A 81. For filing of charge after a period of 30 days request for delay condonation should be sent to a. CO b. ZO c. HO d. Central Government e. Any of the above 82. Particulars of assets filed with Central Registry shall be entered in CBS system through menu
option a. HCLM b. HSCLM c. SRM d. HACLHM e. None of the above 83. Asset ID entered in CBS is a a. 7 digit number b. 9 digit number c. 10 digit number d. 11 digit number e. 12 digit number 84. Assistance to BO users is available at a. [email protected] b. [email protected] c. [email protected] d. [email protected] e. [email protected] 85. Form I is used for a. Creation of charge b. Modification of charge c. Creation or modification of charge d. All of the above e. None of the above
81 d 82 a 83 e 84 a 85 c 86. Form II is used for a. Creation of charge b. Modification of charge c. Satisfaction of charge d. All of the above e. None of the above
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87. What is the charge for Satisfaction of any existing Security Interest a. Rs 50 b. Rs 100 c. Rs 250 d. No Charges e. Rs 500 88. In the CERSAI Portal Form I is spread over ___ tabs a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. 10 89. QMS I is to be obtained on ____ basis a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Half Yearly d. Yearly e. As per need 90. QMS II is to be obtained on ____ basis a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Half Yearly d. Yearly e. As per need
86 c 87 d 88 c 89 b 90 c 91. QMS I is to be obtained within ____weeks of the close of Quarter a. 1 b. 6 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of the above 92. QMS II is to be obtained within ____months of the close of Quarter a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of the above 93. QMS is applicable for FB and NFB exposure above Rs a. 1 Cr b. 2 Cr c. 3 Cr d. 4 Cr e. None of the above 94. QIS is applicable in FB WC limits is Rs a. 1 Cr b. 2 Cr c. 3 Cr d. 4 Cr e. 5 Cr and above 95. Project Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is applicable where TL limits is Rs a. 5 Cr
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b. 10 Cr c. 15 Cr d. 20 Cr e. 25 Cr and above
91 b 92 b 93 a 94 e 95 E 96. Discretionary powers to relax/exempt requirement of QMS/QIS rest with a. ZOCAC b. HOCAC I c. HOCAC II d. Either HOCAC II or HOCAC III e. MC 97. As per extant guidelines, PNB SAJAG
(PMS+EWS) report applicable in respect of all borrowal accounts having exposure of ……………….
a. Below Rs.1 crore b. above Rs.1 crore c. only TL account above Rs.1 crore d. all FB limit above Rs.1 crore e. None of the above 98. As per extant guidelines
QRS applicable in respect of all borrowal accounts having exposure ……………….. a. Above Rs.1 crore b. upto Rs.2 crore c. upto Rs.1 crore d. upto Rs.10 crore e. None of the above 99. In case of individual borrower documentation which is correct a. documentation can only be done by the person himself b. it can be done by his properly constituted attorney c. either a or b is correct d. a and b both are correct e. None of these 100. In case of partnership firm Balance and security confirmation letter to be signed by a. at least one of the partner b. all the partners to make the liable c. majority of the partners d. all are true e. None of above.
96 d 97 b 98 c 99 d 100 a 101. During the currency of a bank loan what is true regarding admission of a partner a. new partner can not be admitted b. it can be admitted provided a letter should be obtained to the effect that in consideration of Bank's
continuing the Banking facilities he agrees to be liable for the amount due by the firm to the Bank as on a particular date and also for future advances from time to time, and is bound by the terms and conditions agreed to by the other partners, as per documents already executed by the firm
c. new partner can be admitted but he will not be liable for for past dues to the bank. d. either b or c is true. e. None of these 102. as per the Hindu Sucession Act 1956 amended in 2005 which is true a. daughter of a coparcener is a coparcener b. She has the same rights in the coparcenary property as she would have if she had been a son. She
is also subject to same liabilities in respect of the said coparcenary property as that of a son c. both a and b are true
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d. only a is true e. only (b) 103. in case of two units which are owned by same person the investement in P&M or Equipments in
both should be added to classification to MSME - a. No it can not be clubbed b. Yes it can be clubbed in case the units are under proprietorship of same person c. It can be clubbed in case of allied concern d. it can be clubbed only in case of classification to Micro and Small unit. It is not applicable to
medium enterprises. e. it can be clubbed if total exposure exceeds Rs. 5.00 crore 104. certificate for commencement of business is required a. in case of public limited companies only b. in case of Pvt. Ltd. Companies only c. not required for new companies d. both (a) & (b) e. both a & c only 105. which is true regarding legal status of LLP a. LLP is a hybrid form of legal entity which combines the features of an incorporated company and of
a partnership firm b. LLP is a body corporate formed and incorporated under the LLP Act which is a distinct legal entity
separate from that of its partners c. It has perpetual succession d. Any change in the partners will not affect the existence, rights or liabilities of the LLP. On
Registration, a LLP be capable of suing and being sued, acquiring, owning, holding and developing or disposing of property moveable or immoveable
e. all are true 101 b 102 c 103 a 104 d 105 e
106. Which of the documents need to be witnessed a) Mortgage Deed
b) Guarantee Deed c) Power of Attorney d) Conveyance Deed e) Gift Deed f) Will
a. a & b b. a&c c. all but (e) d. only a,b,c e. all are true 107. regarding charge ceation with ROC which is correct a. the company has to register the charge within 30 days b. it can be extended by 300 days by the company itself on payment of additional fee c. it can be extended by further period of 60 days by the registrar on payment of additional fee and
request by company d. it can never be extended e. both a & c only 108. If BC letter is taken in a barred debt a. limitation is revived b. limitation is not revived c. limiation is not revived if not signed by all the borrowers / guarantors d. either a or c are true e. limitation is revived for only one year 109. In case of debt acknowledgement
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a. Balance Sheet published by companies can be relied as acknowledgement b. All the signatories on the original documents should sign the Balance and Security Confirmation
Letters, unless otherwise provided c. stamp should be affixed according to the law of state if taken in different states. d. only a&C e. all are true 110. which of the mortgage is not recognised by the law i) Simple Mortgage.
ii) English Mortgage. iii) Mortgage by conditional sale. iv) Usufructuary Mortgage. v) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds (Equitable Mortgage). vi) Anomalous Mortgage.
a. i b. both iv an vi c. only vi d. only iv e. None of the above
106 e 107 e 108 b 109 e 110 e 111. Which is true regarding submission of LSS: (a) it is to be submitted in five parts, (b) details of
cases requiring confirmation of action is also reported, (c) minutes of loans to be submitted by COCAC to HO CAD
a. only (a) is true b. All are true c. a and b are true d. a and c are true e. only (b) 112. in English Mortgage: a) The mortgagee also has right for immediate possession;
b) The debtor is personally liable for the debt; c) There is power of sale without intervention of court; d) the mortaggee has to retransfer the property after recovery of dues
a. all are true b. only a,b,c are true c. None d. only b,c are true e. only (b) 113. in case of simple mortgage a. There is personal obligation/liability to pay & Possession is not given; b. There is a right to cause the property to be sold through court c. Power of sale without intervention of the court can be conferred if the property is, on the date of the
execution of the mortgage deed, situated at Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Delhi and at such other places specified by State Governments.
d. all are true e. only a & c 114. Mortgage by deposit of title deed a. it is also known as equitable mortgage b. The mortgagor deposits the title deeds with the Mortgagee with the intention of giving the
mortgagee an interest in the property c. both a and b are true d. the mortgagor should sign on the mortgage register e. None 115. in regard to valuation of account which is true a. Wherever the Incumbent feels that realisable value of IPs is significantly lower than the one on
bank’s record in accounts with aggregate limits/ outstanding of _10 lakhs & above but less than _1 crore and value of immovable property mortgaged/charged to the bank is _20 lakhs & above, he
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may get the property re-valued from the bank’s approved valuer provided the valuation is more than one year old.
b. As regards borrowal accounts having aggregate limit of _ 1 crore & above, valuation of immovable properties charged/mortgaged to the Bank be got done from approved valuer once in three years
c. However, where the value of immovable property to be mortgaged/ charged is _5 crore & above, branches shall get valuation of such IPs done from minimum two valuers on the Bank’s approved panel. In case the difference in valuation is less than 15%, the average value may be taken
d. all are true e. only a & c
111 c 112 a 113 d 114 c 115 d 116. regarding mortgage of the IP a. search be made in the data base of CERSAI to ascertain whether IP is already mortgaged or not b. If leasehold, the original lease deed in favour of the borrower must be examined to ascertain the
unexpired period of lease and also to study the terms and conditions of the lease to find out if there are any onerous conditions
c. Borrower should be asked to surrender latest ground rent receipt to ensure that leasemoney/ground rent is not in arrears and that the lease continues to subsist
d. In case of lease hold property of State Industrial Development Corporation or any other such authority, permission to mortgage should specify the name/place of activity of the borrower for which mortgage is being created.
e. all are true 117. Where IP is mortgaged to the Bank as Primary Security a. Risk Coverage Policy equivalent to reconstruction cost of the property excluding land cost instead
of full market value should be obtained. b. Risk Coverage Policy equivalent to market value of the property excluding land cost instead of
reconstruciton cost should be obtained. c. both are true d. either a or b are true e. None 118. Where IP is mortgaged to the Bank as Collateral Security a. Risk Coverage Policy equivalent to full market value excluding land cost should be obtained b. Risk Coverage Policy equivalent to reconstruction cost of the property excluding land cost instead
of full market value should be obtained. c. both are true d. either a or b are true e. None 119. It is mandatory to obtain Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) for corporate borrower, if aggregate
expsosure is a. Rs. 1 crore and above b. Rs. 2 crore and above c. Rs. 3 crore and above d. Rs. 5 crore and above e. None of these 120. Directors Report is to be signed by (Give most appropriate): a. Chairman of the Company, if Resolution is passed by the Board of Directors b. Two Directors of the Company, of which one is to be Managing Director c. Two Directors of the Company, if no Managing Director has been desiganted by the Company d. All of the above e. None of the above
116 e 117 a 118 a 119 d 120 d 121. Which document require witness: a. Demand Pronote b. Letter of Continuity c. Letter of Assignment
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d. Power of Attorney e. None of the above 122. Where the value of immovable property to be mortgaged/ charged is more than Rs.5 crore: a. Valuation from minimum two valuers on the Bank’s approved panel is required. b. Valuation done from single valuer is enough. c. Valuation to be done by FGM office. d. Valuation to be done by HO. e. Valuation to be got done as per specific instructions of CO. 123. Where the value of Plant & Machinery to be charged is Rs.__________ crore & above, branches
shall get valuation of such P&M done from minimum ___ valuers on the Bank’s approved panel: a. 3 Crore/Two b. 50 Crore/Two c. 5 Crore/One d. 5 Lac/two e. 5crore /one 124. The term `pari-passu' means: a. A charge which would have priority to any other charge, existing or future b. With equal pace or progress: side by side, without partially, equality, fairly c. A charge which would have the last priority to any other charge, existing or future d. A charge which does not require any registration e. None of the above 125. Vetting of documents needs to be compulsorily conducted in case of: a. Sanctioned limit of Rs.2.00 crore & above (both fund based & non-fund based) b. Sanctioned limit of Rs.2.00 crore & above (Fund Based) c. Sanctioned limit of Rs.5.00 crore & above (both fund based & non-fund based) d. Sanctioned limit of Rs.5.00 crore & above (Fund Based) e. None of the above
121 d 122 a 123 b 124 b 125 a 126. The Memorandum of Association is a document which: a. Describes the powers of the shareholders of the company b. Defines the powers of the officials of the company c. Defines the constitution, objectives, authorised capital and gives names and addresses of
registered office and defines the liability of the shareholders d. All of the above e. None of the above 127. A document executed outside India should be stamped: a. At the time or before execution of document b. Within 3 months of receipt of document in India c. Within 6 months of receipt of document in India d. Stamping is not required if executed abroad e. None of the above 128. Post Sanction is necessary a. To ensure that the funds released are utilised for the purpose for which these have been provided b. To ensure that the terms and conditions as stipulated in the sanction have been complied with c. To monitor operations in the account particularly cash credit facilities d. To detect signals and symptoms of sickness or deterioration e. All of the above 129. Legal compliance certificate to be sent to CO for loans a. Rs. 1 lacs and above b. Rs. 5 lacs and above c. Rs. 2 lacs and above d. Rs.10 lacs and above
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e. None of the above 130. PNB SAJAG (PMS+EWS) to be submitted online in loan accounts above a. Rs. 1 lacs b. Rs.10 lacs c. Rs. 50 lacs d. Rs. 1 Cr e. None of the above
126 c 127 b 128 e 129 d 130 d 131. During monthly stock inspection the following aspect to be checked a. Books of the borrowers to be checked to ensure stock & BD position b. Unpaid stocks are not included in the stock statement. c. Insurance d. Bank’s hypothecation board e. All of the above 132. While checking Insurance, the following aspect to be checked a. Location of stock which is insured b. Name of the owner / Borrower c. Name of Bank i.e. hypothecation clause. d. All of a), b) & c) e. None of the above 133. Stock audit in standard account to be conducted a. IF FB & NFB exposure is more than Rs. 50 lacs b. IF FB & NFB exposure is more than Rs. 1 crore c. IF FB & NFB exposure is more than Rs. 2 crores d. IF FB & NFB exposure is Rs. 5 crores and above e. None of the above 134. Stock audit to be conducted a. Quarterly b. Half yearly c. Annually d. Any one of a), b) & c) e. None of the above 135. CARD audit to be conducted in al cases where FB+NFB exposure is more than a. Rs. 1 crore b. Rs. 2 crores c. Rs. 5 crores d. Rs. 10 crores and above e. None of the above
131 e 132 d 133 d 134 c 135 d 136. CARD audit to be conducted in take over accounts above a. Rs.1 lacs b. Rs.2 lacs c. Rs. 5 lacs d. Rs. 1 Crore & above e. None of the above 137. BC letter to be obtained in standard accounts a. After every 6 months b. Every 1 year c. Every 5 years d. Every 10 years e. None of the above
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138. Balance Confirmation Letters in loan accounts against the security of bank deposits will not be obtained unless
a. The debit balance exceeds the value of security b. Deposit under pledge matures after two years and above from the date of
advance c. Where the depositor has given mandate for auto renewal of fixed deposit d. option a and b e. option a, b and c 139. In accounts other than standard/regular, BC Letters confirming balance be obtained from the
borrowers and guarantors a. on quarterly basis b. on half yearly basis c. on monthly basis d. on yearly basis e. on bi-monthly basis 140. Reports on limitation/BC letter already expired and expiring in definite period are available in , a. CBS (MIS) server b. EDW c. CBS (Main) server d. option a and b e. option a, b and c
136 d 137 b 138 e 139 b 140 d 141. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has now made UDIN mandatory in the
following a. All Certification done by practising CAs w.e.f. 1st February, 2019. b. All GST and Tax Audit Reports w.e.f. 1st April, 2019. c. All other attest functions w.e.f. 1st July, 2019. d. option a and b e. option a, b and c 142. Branches to verify GST returns, Tax Audit Reports and all other attest functions w.e.f. 1st April,
2019 and 1st July, 2019 respectively on the UDIN Portal at a. https://udin.icai.org b. https://uidai.icai.org c. https://cersai.org d. https://icai.org e. https://serices.gst.in 143. Documents should NOT be a. ante-dated b. post-dated c. without date d. option a and b e. option a, b and c 144. which of the following documents should be witnessed a. Cash Credit/Overdraft Agreement b. Conveyance Deed c. Demand Pronote d. Combined Agreement for Hypothecation of Goods and Book-Debts. e. Agreement of Hypothecation 145. When an executant of documents knows one of the vernacular or regional languages but does
not know English/Hindi a. a letter must be taken from him written in his own hand writing, in whatever language he has
signed the documents
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b. a letter must be taken from him written in any language understandable to bank and signed by him in whatever language he has signed the documents
c. Branch Head must give a certificate to the effect that the contents of the documents were read and the implications thereof explained to borrower and they have put their signatures after fully understanding the said contents and implications
d. option a & c are correct e. option b & c are correct
141 e 142 a 143 e 144 b 145 d 146. All loan documents, including guarantees executed by illiterate persons should be supplemented
by a certificate a. issued by a notary public b. issued by a magistrate c. issued by an independent witness d. issued by incumbent in charge e. issued by incumbent in charge and signed by a witness. 147. A deed has to be a. verbal & mutual b. non-verbal, written and signed c. delivered d. option b & c are correct e. option a,b & c are correct 148. Contract can be defined as a/an a. accepted proposal b. Deed c. agreement enforceable by law d. none of the above e. Any of the above 149. which of the following is essential for a contract a. offer and acceptance b. free consent of parties c. consideration d. competent parties to contract e. all the above 150. Which of the following is not true about Documentation a. Documentation is the source of rights and obligation b. It provides written evidence c. It does not help to identify the security d. helps to identify the concerned borrower/gaurantor e. None of the above
146 e 147 d 148 c 149 e 150 C 151. The date of execution of documents should be a. earlier than the date of purchase of stamp paper b. later than the date of purchase of stamp paper c. date of purchase of stamp paper does not matter d. within 1 month from the date of purchase of stamp paper e. the date of issuing of sanction letter by Bank.
151 b
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4. KYC Customer Service (Answers are after every 5 questions)
1. Customer Rights Policy a. It tells only about the responsibilities of the bank b. Applies only to products and services offered by bank or its agents c. It applies to services products offered across counter, over phone, by post through interactive
electronic devices, on internet, or any other method d. None of the above e. All of the above 2. Right to fair treatment is a part of a. Customer Rights Policy b. Grievance redressal policy c. Ombudsman scheme d. Human Rights policy e. None of the above 3. Which is not related to right to fair treatment a. promote safe and fair customer dealing in case of banking in digital environment b. Efforts for providing doorstep banking for the needy c. Ensure customer awareness of their rights d. train bank staff attending to the customers adequately and properly e. None of the above 4. What is MITC with respect to right to transparency , fair and honest dealing? a. Most important terms and conditions b. Maximum interactive threshold limit c. Most inhibiting terms and conditions d. Most interpreted transaction conditions e. None of the above 5. Changes in terms and conditions are to be made effective only after giving a. Notice of 1 month b. Notice of 2 months c. Notice of 3 months d. Notice of 15 days e. None of the above
1 e 2 a 3 e 4 a 5 a 6. If the bank has made any change without giving such notice that is favourable to the customer,
changes in terms and conditions are to be informed to customer a. within 30 days of the change b. within 60 days of the change c. within 45 days of the change d. within 15 days of the change e. None of the above 7. Right to suitability does not mean a. not compelling the customer to subscribe to any third party products b. sell third party products only if the bank is authorised to do it c. Adhere to all statutory guidelines of RBI / IRDA/ SEBI etc on parabanking activities . d. Ensure that bank has a Board approved policy for assessing suitability of products for customers
prior to sale. e. None of the above 8. Bank shall adhere to TELECOM COMMERCIAL COMMUNICATIONS CUSTOMER PREFERENCE
Regulations, 2010 issued by telecom regulatory Authority of India a. Under Right to privacy
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b. under Right to grievance redressal c. under right to suitability d. under right to fair treatment e. None of the above 9. Bank shall correct mistakes promptly under the a. Right to privacy b. under Right to grievance redressal c. under right to suitability d. under right to fair treatment e. None of the above 10. Bank has to acknowledge all formal complaints within a. three working days b. five working days c. ten working days d. seven working days e. None of the above
6 a 7 e 8 a 9 b 10 a 11. Who reviews Customer rights policy? a. MD and CEO of the Bank b. Customer rights committee c. The Board of directors d. SLBC e. None of the above 12. Branches are advised to keep the latest customer rights policy in a. the counter b. PNB customer guide c. At the managers cabin d. in the notice board. e. None of the above 13. Who approves cheque/ instruments collection policy of the Bank ? a. MD and CEO of the Bank b. The Board of Directors c. SLBC d. Customer rights committee e. None of the above 14. Purchase of cheques depends on a. request of the customer b. Standing of the drawer of the cheque c. Conduct of the account d. ALL THE OPTIONS 1, 2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT e. None of the above 15. Minimum value of a cheque to be presented in high value clearing a. Rs 10.00 lakhs b. Rs 1.00 lakh c. Rs 2.00 lakhs d. Rs 5.00 lakhs e. None of the above
11 C 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 b 16. For cheques and other instruments sent for collection to centers within the country the norms
applied are
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a. Cheques presented at CTS Centers: Maximum period of 7 days and Non CTS Centers : Maximum period of 10 days
b. Cheques presented at CTS Centers: Maximum period of 8 days and Non CTS Centers : Maximum period of 10 days
c. Cheques presented at CTS Centers: Maximum period of 7 days and Non CTS Centers : Maximum period of 14 days
d. Cheques presented at CTS Centers: Maximum period of 10 days and Non CTS Centers : Maximum period of 14 days
e. None of the above 17. In cheque collection, Interest for delayed collection of LOCAL cheques shall be paid at the rates: a. Savings Bank rate for the period of delay beyond 3 working days b. Savings Bank rate for the period of delay beyond 5 working days c. Savings Bank rate for the period of delay beyond 2 working days d. Savings Bank rate for the period of delay beyond 7 working days e. None of the above 18. In cheque collection, in case of extraordinary delay, i.e. delays exceeding ------ days interest will
be paid at THE RATE OF ------% above the corresponding term deposit rate a. 90 days. 2% b. 60 DAYS ,2% c. 45 DAYS ,2% d. 31 DAYS ,1% e. None of the above 19. In the event the proceeds of cheque under collection was to be credited to an OD/loan account , a. In case of delay in collection , Interest will be paid at the rate applicable to loan account. b. In case of delay in collection , Interest will be paid at 2% PLUS the rate applicable to loan account. c. In case of delay in collection , Interest will be paid at 1% PLUS the rate applicable to loan account. d. In case of delay in collection , Interest will be paid at 0.50% PLUS the rate applicable to loan
account. e. None of the above 20. Cheuqes which are deposited with wrong account number mentioned on the pay-in slip,bank will
return the same within ----- hours . a. 48 working hours b. 24 working hours c. 60 working Hours d. 72 workingHours e. None of the above
16 a 17 a 18 a 19 a 20 a 21. In cases with incomplete address, incomplete phone no. or no phone number mentioned in pay
slip, bank is responsible to keep the cheque for a. 3 months b. 60 DAYS c. 45 DAYS d. 1 MONTH e. None of the above 22. Force Majure means ? a. not crediting the proceed s of the cheque in loan account. b. The bank shall not be liable to compensate customers for delayed credit if some unforeseen event
like war, floods , lack of communication systems etc happens c. not crediting the proceed s of the cheque in savings account. d. crediting the proceed s of the cheque in a wrong account. e. None of the above 23. URR BCH wrt clearing means
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a. Uniform rules and regulations for bankers clearing houses b. Uniform rights and regulations for bankers clearing houses c. Uniform rules and rights for bankers clearing houses d. Uniform rules and restrictions for bankers clearing houses e. None of the above 24. Data base of complaints along with acknowledgement and all correspondence will be preserved
for a. At least for 3 years b. at least for 5 years c. at least for 10 years d. At least for 2 years e. None of the above 25. Customer can submit complaint through email on a. custcare @pnb.co.in b. [email protected] c. custacare @pnb.co.in d. pnbcare @pnb.co.in e. None of the above
21 a 22 b 23 a 24 a 25 B 26. What is CGRMS? a. Centralised Grievances redressal management system b. Central Grievances redressal management system c. Central government redressal management system d. Centralised Grievances record management system e. None of the above 27. MOBILE APP FOR GRIEVANCE REDRESSAL IN PNB a. WE CARE b. CUSTCARE c. CUSTACARE d. welcare e. None of the above 28. On the basis of ---------- committee recommenadtions , bank has appointed chief customer service
officer a. Damodaran b. ghosh and Jilanee c. Gopalakrishnan d. NAYAK e. None of the above 29. Chief customer service officer will act as a. Internal ombudsman b. Chief risk officer c. Customer service coordinator d. Ombudsman e. None of the above 30. Which is corrrect ? a. general complaints are resolved in 10 days b. Complaints from PM's office are resolved in 5 days c. ATM complaints related to dispensation of cash are resolved in 7 working days d. Comlaints related to POS transactions are resolved in 45 days e. None of the above
26 a 27 a 28 a 29 a 30 e
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31. Customer service committee is set up at a. circle offices only b. BRANCHES ONLY c. Both CO and BO d. SLBC e. None of the above 32. Customer's day is celebrated on a. 15th of every month/ or next working day if 15th is holiday b. 10th of every month/ or next working day if 10th is holiday c. 20th of every month/ or next working day if 20th is holiday d. Last day of every month/ or next working day if last day is holiday e. None of the above 33. Name of monthy bulletin regarding grievance redressal is a. CUSTSPEAK b. Customer Speaks c. CUSTCARE d. HELP FOR YOU e. None of the above 34. Performance linked half yearly scheme to improve customer service is a. Best circle for customer service award b. Best Branch for customer service award c. Best zone for customer service award d. Best state for customer service award e. None of the above 35. Kyc policy 2020 of the Bank incorporates amendments in a. PMLrules ,2005 only b. PML ACT, 2002 only c. BOTH 1 AND 2 ARE CORRECT d. Anti money laundering ACT e. None of the above
31 c 32 b 33 b 34 a 35 c 36. Policy guidelines on ---------is called KYC policy a. KYCnorms/ Antimoney laundering standards only b. Antimoney laundering standards only c. Combating of financing terrorrism measures only d. Obligation of bank under PML act only e. All the above 37. Where the customer is a company, beneficial owner is having controlling ownership to the extent
of a. ownership of / entitlement to more than 25 per cent of the shares or capital or profits of the
company b. ownership of / entitlement to more than 15 per cent of the shares or capital or profits of the
company c. ownership of / entitlement to more than 10 per cent of the shares or capital or profits of the
company d. ownership of / entitlement to more than 50 per cent of the shares or capital or profits of the
company e. None of the above 38. Where the customer is a partnership firm beneficial owner is having controlling ownership to the
extent of a. has / have ownership of / entitlement to more than 25 per cent of capital or profits of the
partnership.
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b. has / have ownership of / entitlement to more than 15 per cent of capital or profits of the partnership.
c. has / have ownership of / entitlement to more than 10 per cent of capital or profits of the partnership.
d. has / have ownership of / entitlement to more than 20 per cent of capital or profits of the partnership.
e. None of the above 39. Where the customer is an unincorporated association or body of individuals a. has / have ownership of/ entitlement to more than 15 per cent of the property or capital or profits of
the unincorporated association or body of individuals. b. has / have ownership of/ entitlement to more than 10 per cent of the property or capital or profits of
the unincorporated association or body of individuals. c. has / have ownership of/ entitlement to more than 25 per cent of the property or capital or profits of
the unincorporated association or body of individuals. d. has / have ownership of/ entitlement to more than 5 per cent of the property or capital or profits of
the unincorporated association or body of individuals. e. None of the above 40. Where the customer is a trust, the identification of beneficial owner(s) shall include . a. identification of the author of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with 15% or more interest in the
trust and any other natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership.
b. identification of the author of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with 25% or more interest in the trust and any other natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership.
c. identification of the author of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with 5% or more interest in the trust and any other natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership.
d. identification of the author of the trust, the trustee, the beneficiaries with 12.5% or more interest in the trust and any other natural person exercising ultimate effective control over the trust through a chain of control or ownership.
e. None of the above 36 e 37 a 38 b 39 a 40 A
41. CKYCR is a. Central KYC records registry b. Central KYC records c. Central KYC registry d. Certified KYC record e. None of the above 42. OVD is a. passport / job card issued by NREGA / Letter issued by national population register only, b. the driving licence only c. proof of possession of Aadhaar number only d. the Voter's Identity Card issued by the Election Commission of India ONLY e. All the above 43. Where the OVD furnished by the customer does not have updated address then he may produce a. Utility bill which is not more than two months old of any service provider (electricity, telephone,
post-paid mobile phone, piped gas, water bill) ONLY b. property or Municipal tax receipt only c. pension or family pension payment orders (PPOs) issued to retired employees by Government
Departments or Public Sector Undertakings, if they contain the address ONLY d. letter of allotment of accommodation from employer issued by State Government or Central
Government Departments, statutory or regulatory bodies, public sector undertakings, scheduled commercial banks, financial institutions and listed companies and leave and licence agreements with such employers allotting official accommodation only
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e. ANY ONE of the options 1,2, 3 and 4 44. If customer fails to give OVD with current / updated address at the time of on boarding, a. He must give an undertaking that proof of current adddress shall be produced within 3 months time. b. He must give an undertaking that proof of current address shall be produced within 2 months time. c. He must give an undertaking that proof of current shall be produced within 1 months time. d. He must give an undertaking that proof of current adddress shall be produced within 45 DAY'S
time. e. None of the above 45. If customer fails to give OVD with current / updated address within 3 months, a. the operations in the account shall be restricted (Debit-freezed) b. The account shall be closed c. account will be ring fenced d. Acount shall be credit freezed e. None of the above
41 a 42 e 43 e 44 a 45 A 46. CRS wrt KYC means a. Common reporting standards b. Customer review atandards c. Customer record specimen d. Customer record sample e. None of the above 47. FATCA Means ? a. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act b. Foreign Account Trade Compliance Act c. Foreign Agency Trade Compliance Act d. Foreign Agency Travel Compliance Act e. None of the above 48. Shell bank a. means a bank which is incorporated in a country where it has no physical presence and is
unaffiliated to any regulated financial group b. means a bank which is incorporated in a country where it has only less than 5 branches and is
unaffiliated to any regulated financial group c. means a bank which is incorporated in a country where it has only less than 3 branches and is
unaffiliated to any regulated financial group d. means Head office of the bank located in another country e. None of the above 49. KYC Policy includes key element like a. customer acceptance policy b. Risk management c. Customer identification procedure d. Monitoring of transactions e. All the above 50. For opening account of a trust ,requirements are , a. Registration certificate of trust b. Trust deed c. Permanent Account Number or Form No.60 of the trust d. KYC Documents, of the person holding an attorney to transact on its behalf. e. all the above
46 a 47 a 48 a 49 e 50 e 51. Periodic updation shall be carried out at least once in every ------- years for high risk customers, a. 3
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b. 2 c. 5 d. 6 e. None of the above 52. Periodic updation shall be carried out at least once in every ------- years for medium risk
customers a. 8 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2 e. None of the above 53. Periodic updation shall be carried out at least once in every -------years for low risk customers as
per the following procedure: a. 10 b. 8 c. 6 d. 5 e. None of the above 54. Individual entries below Rs -------- are not reported in Cash transaction report . a. Rs 50000 b. Rs 1.00 lakh c. Rs25000 d. Rs 10000 e. None of the above 55. Non profit organisation transaction report a. Is report of all transactions of more than rupees 10 lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency b. Is report of all transactions of more than rupees 15 lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency c. Is report of all transactions of more than rupees 20 lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency d. Is report of all transactions of more than rupees 5 lakhs or its equivalent in foreign currency e. None of the above
51 b 52 a 53 a 54 a 55 a 56. CROSS BORDER WIRE TRANSFER REPORT a. for all cross border wire transfers of the value of more than Rs 5 lakh or its equivalent in foreign
currency where either the origin or destination of fund is in India. b. for all cross border wire transfers of the value of more than Rs 15 lakh or its equivalent in foreign
currency where either the origin or destination of fund is in India. c. for all cross border wire transfers of the value of more than Rs 20 lakh or its equivalent in foreign
currency where either the origin or destination of fund is in India. d. for all cross border wire transfers of the value of more than Rs 2 lakh or its equivalent in foreign
currency where either the origin or destination of fund is in India. e. None of the above 57. WHAT IS UAPA ACT ,1967 a. Unlawful activities prevention act ,1967 b. Undesirable activities prevention act ,1967 c. Unethical activities prevention act ,1967 d. Unidentified activities prevention act ,1967 e. None of the above 58. Any remittance of funds by way of demand draft, mail / telegraphic transfer / NEFT / IMPS or any
other mode and issue of travelers' cheques for value of rupees ----------- and above shall be effected by debit to the customer's account or against cheques and not against cash payment
a. Rs 1.00 lakh b. Rs 50000
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c. Rs 25000 d. Rs 2.00 lakhs e. None of the above 59. The name of the purchaser shall be incorporated on the face of the demand draft, pay order,
banker‘s cheque, etc., by the issuing bank wef ……….. a. September 15, 2018. b. September 25, 2018. c. September 01, 2018. d. September 20, 2018. e. None of the above 60. Permanent account number (PAN) of customers shall be obtained and verified while undertaking
transactions a. As per the provisions of Income Tax Rule 114B b. as per the provisions of Income Tax Rule 111B c. as per the provisions of Income Tax Rule 114A d. as per the provisions of Income Tax Rule 118B e. None of the above
56 a 57 a 58 b 59 a 60 A 61. WHICH ONE IS TRUE a. transactions involving rupees fifty thousand and above shall be undertaken only by:debit to
customers' account or against cheques and obtaining and verifying the PAN given by the account based as well as walk-in customers.
b. transactions involving rupees one lakh and above shall be undertaken only by:debit to customers' account or against cheques and obtaining and verifying the PAN given by the account based as well as walk-in customers.
c. transactions involving rupees two lakh and above shall be undertaken only by:debit to customers' account or against cheques and obtaining and verifying the PAN given by the account based as well as walk-in customers.
d. transactions involving rupees twentyfive thousand and above shall be undertaken only by:debit to customers' account or against cheques and obtaining and verifying the PAN given by the account based as well as walk-in customers.
e. None of the above 62. Under risk based transaction monitoring which one is unusual activity? a. An account of a customer who does not reside/have office near the branch even though there are
bank branches near his residence/office. b. A customer who often visits the safe deposit area immediately before making cash deposits,
especially deposits just under the threshold level. c. Funds coming from the list of countries/centers, which are known for money laundering d. ALL THE OPTIONS 1,2AND 3 ARE CORRECT e. None of the above 63. Some of the Medium risk customers are a. Non banking financial institution. b. IMPORT /EXPORT c. GAS STATION d. Electronics wholesale e. all the above 64. WHO INTRODUCED Ombudsman scheme in 2006 ? a. RBI b. GOI c. FINANCE MINISTRY d. IBA e. None of the above 65. What is CSCB?
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a. CUSTOMER SERVICE COMMITTEE OF THE BOARD b. CUSTOMER SINCERE COMMITTEE OF THE BOARD c. CUSTOMER SERVICE CORE OF THE BOARD d. CARE AND SERVICE COMMITTEE OF THE BOARD e. None of the above
61 a 62 d 63 e 64 a 65 A 66. Banking ombudsman is appointed for a tenure of a. Not exeeding 3 years at a time b. Not exeeding 5 years at a time c. Not exeeding 2 years at a time d. Not exeeding 7 years at a time e. None of the above 67. Any person aggrieved by the Award given by Ombudsman may appeal, within ---------- days
of the date of receipt of the award . a. 45 days b. 30 DAYS c. 60 DAYS d. 90 DAYS e. None of the above 68. customer compesation policy is designed to a. areas relating to unauthorised debiting of account only b. unauthorized Electronic banking transactions only c. Banking payment of interest to customers for delay in collection of cheques alone d. ALL OTIONS1,2 AND 3 ARE CORRECT e. None of the above 69. With respect to customer compensation policy which is correct ? a. The Policy covers only compensation for financial losses which customer might incur due to
deficiency in service offered by bank which can be measured b. The Policy covers compensation for all types of losses which customer might incur c. The Policy covers only compensation for all types of losses which customer might incur due to
inefficacy of Bank d. The Policy covers only compensation for defame caused by bank e. None of the above 70. In case a cheque has been paid after stop payment instruction is acknowledged by the bank, the
bank shall reverse the transaction within ---- working days a. 2 working days after receiving intimation b. 3 working days after receiving intimation c. 7 working days after receiving intimation d. 5 working days after receiving intimation e. None of the above
66 a 67 b 68 d 69 a 70 A 71. Duplicate draft shall be issued within a period of a. fortnight b. 1 week c. 5 days d. 3 days e. None of the above 72. All Pensioners are compensated if the delay by the bank is beyond the due date a. at a fixed interest rate of 8 % b. at a fixed interest rate of 5 % c. at a fixed interest rate of 3 % d. at a fixed interest rate of 10 % e. None of the above
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73. BCSBI is a. Banking codes and standards board of India b. banking customs and standards board of India c. Basic codes and standards board of India d. Broad codes and standards board of India e. None of the above 74. BCSBI is registered under a. societies Registration act b. companies registration act c. banking registration act d. firm registration act e. None of the above 75. BCSBI was constituted under the recommendation of a. TARAPORE committee b. Ghhosh and Jilanee committee c. Damodaran committee d. Radhakrishnan Committee e. None of the above
71 a 72 A 73 a 74 a 75 a 76. BCSBI wants the bank to a. set up help desk to address customer querries b. Display name and address of BANKING ombudsman c. To have a code compliance officer d. ALL THE OPTIONS 1,2AND 3 ARE CORRECT e. None of the above 77. Membership in BCSBI a. Is compulsory for all banks b. is voluntary for all Scheduled banks c. is voluntary for all cooperative banks d. is compusory for all cooperative banks e. None of the above 78. How many codes have been evolved under BCSBI a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. None of the above 79. THE CODES under BCSBI are a. code of banks commitment to customers b. Code of banks commitment to Micro and small enterprises c. CODE of customer care d. Both 1 and 2 are correct e. Both 1 and 3 are correct 80. How Financial inclusion is defined in our bank? a. Banking for the Rural India b. Banking for the unbanked c. banking for the needd. banking for the poor e. None of the above
76 d 77 b 78 a 79 d 80 b 81. Those people who do not have OVD can open a. normal SB account
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b. normal SB account subject to certain conditions c. can not open any account d. can open small account e. None of the above 82. KBS is a. Kerala banking srvice b. Karnataka banking Service c. Karnataka banking solution d. Kiosk Banking Solution e. None of the above 83. Which is not true about KBS ? a. KBS facilitates online real time banking solutions at BC locations b. KBS is primarily used by BC agents at their locations c. KBS is a web based solution d. KBS is a on line solution for BC location e. None of the above 84. Banking services offererd under KBS are a. Customer enrolment for opening accounts in CBS b. Cash with drawal c. Cash deposit / Generation of statements d. Transfer of funds within bank / outside bank e. All the above 85. NPCI is a. National payment corporation of India b. National payment corporation Instrument c. National paying corporation of India d. National petroleum corporation of India e. None of the above
81 d 82 d 83 e 84 e 85 a 86. Non kyc compliant account with zero balance for more than one year can be closed after giving --
-- days notice a. 30 days b. 20 DAYS c. 60 DAYS d. 120 DAYS e. None of the above 87. NG RTGS means a. New generation RTGS b. neo gen RTGS c. new grade RTGS d. at a fixed interest rate of 10 % e. None of the above 88. The Internal Ombudsman shall not be over ___of age a. 65 Years b. 68 Years c. 70 Years d. 60 Years e. 55 Years 89. ‘May I Help You’ Counter will be extended at all branches having staff strength of ___or more. a. 15 b. 10 c. 20
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d. 5 e. 12 90. On Customer Day, Branch Manager is to meet customers between__________ without any prior
appointment. a. 4 pm and 5 pm b. 2 pm and 5 pm c. 3 pm and 4 pm d. 5 pm and 6 pm e. 3 pm and 5 pm
86 a 87 a 88 c 89 b 90 e 91. Time Frame for Collection of Cheques presented at CTS centres is maximum period of _____
days. a. 5 Days b. 7 Days c. 10 Days d. 14 Days e. 21 Days 92. As per our Cheque Collection Policy in cases where the cheques need to be re-presented without
any recourse to the payee, such re-presentation shall be made in the immediate next clearing presentation not later than
a. 72 hours(excluding holidays) b. 3 Days(excluding holidays) c. 48 hours(including holidays) d. 24 hours(excluding holidays) e. 7 Days(excluding holidays) 93. Reduction of validity of cheque /draft /pay order/Banker’s cheque from 6 months to 3 months
w.e.f. a. 01.04.2012 b. 01.04.2013 c. 01.04.2014 d. 01.04.2015 e. 01.04.2011 94. What will be Customer Liability in unauthorized electronic Banking
Transactions in case of Third party breach where the deficiency lies neither with the bank nor with the customer but lies elsewhere in the system, and the customer notifies the bank within three working days of receiving the communication.
a. 10000 b. 15000 c. 20000 d. 25000 e. Zero Liabiltiy 95. In case of unauthorised Electronic Banking Transactions where there is third party breach, the
customer will bear the entire loss (if reported within 30 days) . Bank may compensate customer an amount of maximum Rs _____/- irrespective of the fact whether there is single or multiple number of transactions or transaction amount whichever is lower.
a. Rs 50000/- b. Rs 10000/- c. Rs 5000/- d. Rs 25000/- e. Rs 20000/-
1 b 2 d 3 a 4 e 5 D
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96. On being notified by the customer , the Bank shall credit( shadow reversal) the amount involved in the unauthorized electronic transaction to the customer’s account within_________rom the date of such notification by the customer (without waiting for settlement of insurance claim , if any) .
a. 10 working days b. 15 working days c. 7working days d. 3 working days e. 5 working days 97. In case of delay in crediting the beneficiary customer’s account or in returning the uncredited
amount to the remitter in case of NEFT, Bank shall pay penal interest @____for the period of dalay/till the date of refund.
a. Reverese Repo Rate b. LAF Repo Rate plus two percent c. Bank Rate d. Bank Rate plus two percent e. LAF Repo Rate 98. In case of delay in payment of Inward (Foreign)Remittance Bank shall pay the beneficiary a. interest the savings bank interest rate b. interest @ 2% over the term deposit interest rate c. interest @ 2% over the savings bank interest rate d. interest @ 2% over the Current Account interest rate e. interest @ 2% over the savings bank interest rate 99. Duplicate draft will be issued within a _________from the receipt of such request from the
purchaser thereof along with submission of documents as prescribed by the bank. bank
a. Week b. Month c. 3 Days d. Fortnight e. 10 Days 100. It is mandatory for bank to reimburse the customer, the amount wrongfully debited on account of
failed ATM transactions within a maximum period of T plus ………. from the receipt of the customer complaint.
a. 5 (five) working day b. 10 (Ten) working day c. 15 (Fifteen) working day d. 3 (Three) working day e. 7 (seven) working day
96 a 97 b 98 c 99 d 100 a 101. Customer is entitled to receive compensation from bank on its failure to credit customer's
account in case of the amount wrongfully debited on account of failed ATM transactions within a maximum period of 5 (five) working days only if claim is lodged with the issuer bank within _____of the date of transaction.
a. 15 days b. 21 days c. 7 days d. 45 days e. 30 days 102. The Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act), is applicable to a. The whole of India b. The whole of India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir c. Ony in States of India d. Ony in Union Territories of India e. The whole of India except the North East State
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103. The CIC (Central Information Comission), at the time of deciding any complaint against non-
funishing of information or appeal under RTI Act, has power to impose penalty of_____ each day of delay in providing information up to a maximum of _______.
a. Rs. 250; maximum of Rs.5000/- b. Rs. 250; maximum of Rs.10000/- c. Rs. 250; maximum of Rs.25000/- d. Rs. 250; maximum of Rs.2500/- e. Rs. 2500; maximum of Rs.250000/- 104. Under Right to Information Act, any person who does not receive an information/ decision within
_______ or aggrieved by the decision of a CPIO may within ______ from the date of receipt of the decision, prefer an appeal to Appellate Authority(AA).
a. 7 Days; 7 Days b. 30 Days; 60 Days c. 15Days; 30 Days d. 30 Days; 15 Days e. 30 Days; 30 Days 105. The limitation period for filing complaint under Consumer Protection act before the District
Forum, State Commission or National Commission is ___________ from the date on which cause of action has arisen.
a. Two years b. Three years c. One Year d. Three years e. 6 Months
101 e 102 b 103 c 104 e 105 a 106. Complaints under Cunsumer Protection Act for deficiency in service in which the value of the
services and the compensation, if any, claimed does not exceed Rs.100 lac may be filed in a. State Forum b. District Forum c. National Forum d. Supreme Court e. Central Commission 107. Under Consumer Protection Act preservation of records in the case of complaint, containing
main files with original order sheet shall be preserved for a period of a. Three Years b. Seven years c. Five years d. Two years e. Nine years 108. Under Consumer Protection Act, in case of records of first appeal and revision petitions, it shall
be preserved for ……………. from the date of disposal of the appeal or revision, as the case may be.
a. Seven Years b. Two years c. Five Years d. One Year e. Three Years 109. Complaints under Cunsumer Protection Act for deficiency in service in which the value of the
services and the compensation, if any, claimed does not exceed Rs.10 crores may be filed in a. State Forum b. District Forum c. National Forum d. Supreme Court
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e. Central Commission 110. Complaints under Cunsumer Protection Act for deficiency in service in which the value of the
services and the compensation, if any, claimed does not exceed Rs.100 crores may be filed in a. State Forum b. District Forum c. National Forum d. Supreme Court e. Central Commission
106 b 107 c 108 e 109 a 5 c 111. The Bank started implementation of BCP Automation Project in a. March, 2009 b. 39904 c. 39845 d. 39814 e. 40210 112. Circle Offices may monitor the status of Cash Txns. done by branches through BCP Tool by
generating the following report a. MIS PNBREP 9/11 b. MIS PNBRPT 9/11 c. MIS RAUDIT 9/11 d. MIS SENSRPT 9/11 e. DAYRPT 9/11 113. The software prompts for an undertaking if payments in an account during the day exceed the
prescribed limit of________as per the extant BCP guidelines a. Rs.5000/- b. Rs.25000/- c. Rs.10000/- d. Rs.30000/- e. Rs.15000/- 114. Balance, Stop Payment and Signature (One Time as well as Incremental) in respect of
CA/CC/OD/SF Accounts are transferred to the Branch BCP PC as per following time schedule: a. •Balance Files 9.00 a. m. 1.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m. • Stop Payment Files 9.00 p.m. (on previous day) b. •Balance Files 8.00 a. m. 1.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m. • Stop Payment Files 9.00 p.m. (on previous day) c. •Balance Files 8.00 a. m. 1.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m. • Stop Payment Files 9.00 a. m. (on same day) d. •Balance Files 9.00 a. m. 1.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m. • Stop Payment Files 9.00 a. m. (on same day) e. •Balance Files 8.00 a. m. 1.00 p.m.5.00 p.m. • Stop Payment Files 9.00 p.m. (on previous day) 115. —BCSBI was formed in which year and month? a. 38718 b. 38808 c. 38961 d. 38777 e. 38749
111 a 112 b 113 e 114 b 115 e 116. What is maximum time period for transferring the account to transferee branch? a. 24 Hours b. 48 Hours c. 3 Days d. 7 Days e. 10 Days 117. —Doorstep Banking should be provided to Senior Citizens more than___of age? a. 60 Years
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b. 70 Years c. 65 Years d. 75 Years e. 80 Years 118. Lunch hour should be managed through a proper time table so that there is no impact on
customer service and at least _________must be opened for customers. a. One Counter b. Two Counters c. Three Counters d. Four Counters e. None 119. Customer Acceptance policy indicates a. Not accept any person / entity barred by law of the land to avail banking facilities as its customer b. Not open accounts in the name of anonymous or fictitious/benami person c. Parameterize risk perception of the customer in terms of nature of business/activity, location of
customer and his clients, mode of payments, volume of turnover, social and financial status, etc d. All of these e. None of these 120. STR has to be reported within …... days of arriving at a conclusion by the Principal Officer of the
Bank that any transaction, whether cash or non-cash, or a series of transactions integrally connected are of suspicious nature
a. Immediately b. 7days c. 10days d. 15days e. 30days
116 c 117 b 118 a 119 d 120 d 121. While serving senior citizens, visually impaired, differently abled and illiterate persons, Banks’
will endeavour to : a. Develop systems & procedures to facilitate easier physical access & service b. Sensitize staff to interact with special customers c. Accord due priority and personalised services d. All the above e. None of the above 122. Mr Shankar lodged a complaint with XYZ Bank. After how many days, the complainant can
approach ombudsman if he don’t get a satisfactory reply a. Within 7 days b. Within 15 days c. Within 30 days d. Within 45 days e. Within 60 days 123. As per BCSBI, a Loan application of Rs. 10 Lakh, completed in all respect and along with all
documents submitted to Bank . Bank will convey its decision within __________ from date of receipt of thwe application .
a. 3 Working Days b. 7 Working Days c. 15 Working Days d. 30 Working Days e. No time line is fixed 124. As per BCSBI, for designating an account as dormant, inoperative or unclaimed prior notice of
_____________ is to be given to the customer. a. 3 Months b. 2 Months
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c. 1 Month d. 15 Days e. No fix time limit 125. If a customer has registered with a Bank’s Do Not Call Service, the bank will not transmit him a. Any unsolicited commercial information regarding Bank’s products and services through telephone
calls/SMS/email etc b. Information regarding customer’s account statements c. Information including alerts relating to transactions on customer’s a/c d. All the above e. Do Not Call service is not applicable.
121 d 122 c 123 d 124 a 125 a 126. In how many days, Banks’ are required to return all the securities / documents / title deeds to
mortgaged property after repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted a. 7 days of repayment b. 15 days of repayment c. 3 days of repayment d. None of the above e. None of these 127. Are Banks free to pay interest at different rates to its different Savings Bank account holders? a. No such discrimination is permitted. b. Yes, it depends on the prerogative of the Bank in its business interest c. Yes, for SB deposits over 1 lakh on a non-discriminatory manner d. Yes, for SB deposits over 1 lakh on a selective manner e. None of the above. 128. What is the information a bank is not required to give the customer at the time of opening a term
deposit? a. Terms and conditions of the term deposit opted for b. Interest rates applicable and charges for premature withdrawal c. Details of deployment of these deposits in Money Market Schemes d. Provisions of the I T Act applicable to interest income interest accruing to the deposit(s) e. None of the above. 129. Which of the following statements is true? a. A term deposit is a contract between the bank and the customer for a definite term and it can be,
paid prematurely at the bank's option also in times of liquidity surplus. b. A term deposit can be paid prematurely at the request of the customer subject to the terms of the
contract, including penalty, if any. c. Banks have no freedom to determine their own penal rates of interest for premature withdrawal of
term deposits. d. Form 15G / 15H is required to be submitted before the completion of each financial year e. All are correct 130. Mark the Correct Statement a. All Banks in India to follow codes brought in by BCSBI b. Customers have to send their complaints regarding deficiency in service by member banks to
BCSBI c. BCSBI is formed to replace the Banking Ombudsman d. BCSBI's objective is to promote good and fair banking practices by setting minimum standard in
Bank's dealing with customer e. Promote good and fair banking practices by setting maximum standard in Bank's dealing with
customer 126 b 127 c 128 c 129 b 130 d
131. What is the time limit to get the information through RTI concerning the life and safety of a
person? a. 3 days
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b. 3 days c. 36 hours d. 60 hours e. 48 hours 132. Is it necessary to disclose the purpose of seeking information under the RTI Act 2005? a. Yes b. No c. Purpose is to be disclosed in case of information related to Central Government departments d. Purpose is to be disclosed in case of information related to life and liberty of a person e. None of the above 133. Record' under the RTI Act, 2005 is defined as one or more of the followings, which one is
incorrect option? a. Any document b. A laptop c. A file d. A manuscript e. A microfilm 134. What is the retention period of record under the RTI Act, 2005? a. 10 years b. 5 years c. No such period is prescribed d. 20 years e. 7 years 135. What is the applicable fee to seek information under the RTI Act, 2005? a. Rs. 10 b. Rs. 100 c. Rs. 15 d. Rs. 20 e. Rs. 30
1 e 2 b 3 b 4 c 5 A 136. What is the mode of deposit of the fee to seek information under the RTI Act, 2005? a. Bank Demand Draft b. Indian Postal Order c. NEFT or RTGS d. By cash e. Any one of the options 137. When information is provided in the form of CD/Floppy or Diskette, what is the additional charge
payable by the applicant under the RTI Act, 2005? a. Re. 100/- plus postage b. Re. 25/- plus postage c. Re. 40/- plus postage d. Re. 150/- plus postage e. Re. 50/- plus postage 138. What is the charge for inspecting any document under the RTI Act, 2005 for the first hour? a. No fee for the first hour b. Rs. 5/- minimum c. Rs. 10/- d. Rs. 20/- e. Rs. 25/- 139. What is the charge for inspecting any document under the RTI Act, 2005 for the subsequent
hours (beyond one hour)? a. Rs. 10/- for the first hour and Rs. 5/- per subsequent hour or fraction thereof.
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b. Rs. 5/- for the first hour and Rs. 10/- per subsequent hour or fraction thereof. c. Nil for the first hour and Rs. 5/- per subsequent hour or fraction thereof. d. Rs. 10/- for the first hour and Rs. 15/- per subsequent hour or fraction thereof. e. Rs. 5/- for the first hour and Rs. 10/- per subsequent 2 hour & Rs. 15/- per hour thereafter or
fraction thereof. 140. Grievance Redressal Policy is based on the guiding principal elisted a. In banks internal policyy document b. In RBI master circular on Customer Services in banks c. In BCSBI guidelines d. In IBAs diirctive e. None of the above
136 b 137 e 138 a 139 c 140 b 141. The reason for customer complaint can be divided into followig categories a. Attitudinal b. Operational c. Technology Related d. All of the above e. Only 1 and 3 142. A monthly quiz contest is conducted in the branches on the Monthly Theme. The cash incentive
given to the winner of the contest is a. Rs.150/- b. Rs.200/- c. Rs.500/- d. Rs.750/- e. Rs.100/- 143. Which of the following is incorrect in respect to mandatory display requirements at the branches a. The name, address and contact number of Principal Nodal Officer(s) / Circle Heads / Nodal
Officer(s) b. Magnifying Glass for visually impaired persons c. Contact details of Banking Ombudsman of the area d. All the above e. All except Option 2 144. What is the concept of Mystery Shopping a. Officials of the bank visiting the branches and acertaining that the staff is not refusing of banking
services b. Miscreants taking advantage of customer gullibility in taking OTP etc. from them c. Frauds done by miscreants using bank’s POS terminals d. Fraudsters using stolen credit card of a customer to do shopping e. Options 3 & 4 145. Outreach Programme are conducted specifically for the purpose of a. Making customers aware about bank's products b. Create awareness amongst public about Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006 c. Create awareness amongst public about BCSBI Code d. Options 2 & 3 e. All of the above
141 d 142 a 143 d 144 a 145 d 146. All feedbacks (positive as well as negative) received on social media platforms will be accessed
and dealt with by a team of officials at a. Principal Nodal Officer b. Customer Care Centre c. Chief Customer Service Officer (CCSO) d. Contact Centre e. Respetive Circle Offices
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147. Analysis of CCTV Footage/ Investigation shall be done in following case of grievance a. Grievances relating to transactions b. Grievances relating to operations c. Grievances related to attitudnal aspects d. Grievances relating to technology e. Options 1 & 2 148. Which of the statements is incorrect in respect of a complaint lodged grievance relating to
transaction a. Branch would be responsible for ensuring rectification of transaction b. Branch can reverse / rectify the transaction only after getting a permission from Circle Office c. If customer is not satisfied with the solution, then branch will provide him/her with alternate avenues
to escalate the issue d. If the issue not getting resolved at branch level, branch can refer the case to Circle Office for
guidance/resolution e. If the issue not getting resolved at branch level, branch can refer the case to Zonal Office for
guidance/resolution 149. For effective monitoring of transactions of the customers, Bank has implemented an AML
software…. a. TCS Bancs Compliance b. Infosys Bancs Compliance c. Wipro Bancs Compliance d. IBM Bancs Compliance e. CTS Bancs Compliance 150. A Pakistani student has approached for opening NRO account on the basis of Pass Port a. You will Open the account b. You will not Open the account c. You will seek permission from IBD d. You will seek permission from RBI e. You will seek permission from MoF
146 b 147 c 148 b 149 a 150 d
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5. PNB Loaning Powers 1. The power of branch head of LCB/ZOCAC-1 to relax service charges is
a. Upto 25% of the card rate
b. Upto 10% of the card rate
c. Upto 50% of the card rate
d. Upto 5% of the card rate
e. No power to permit to relaxation
2. HOCAC-II has the power to relax concession in ROI in accounts having minimum B3 rating
a. MCLR+1%
b. MCLR+0.5%
c. MCLR+1.5%
d. MCLR+2%
e. MCLR+.75%
3. Where LCB/ELCB is established then the interchangeability can be allowed by LCB/ELCB head upto _____ of sanctioned LC limit or BG limit given for procurement of raw material or Rs. _____, whichever is lower.
a. 10%, 10Cr
b. 25%, 25Cr
c. 25%, 10Cr
d. 15%, 15Cr
e. 10%, 25Cr
4. What is the maximum limit of KCC/KGS can be sanctioned under branch power?
a. 3 L
b. 10L
c. 2L
d. vested cash credit power
e. None of the above
5. What is the adhoc loaning power of GBBs
a. 2L
b. 5L
c. 10L
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d. Nil
e. None of the above
1 e 2 a 3 c 4 a 5 d
6. What is the aggregate commitment per borrower in case of GBBs for Retail Segment
a. 10L
b. 20L
c. Nil
d. 20L
e. None of the above
7. Officials from Scale-III to Scale-V level shall exercise____ of their None Fund Based (NFB) powers for sanction of ILC/FLC (DA basis)* limit and ____ of NFB powers for ILG (Financial) and FLG.
a. 30%, 70%
b. 20%,80%
c. 30%, 60%
d. 40%,60%
e. None of the above
8. What is the power of branch heads RAM/MCCs/LCBs/ELCBs in case of Negotiation of DA/DP bills on or before due date drawn under bank’s own ILCs strictly in terms of ILC.
a. 0.8
b. 0.6
c. 0.7
d. Full Power
e. None of the above
9. Credit facilities sanctioned to senior officers (i.e. any officer in Senior Management in Grade -IV and above) of the Bank are required to be reported to -----
a. CO
b. HO
c. Board
d. Can’t say
e. None of the above
10. Aggregate commitment per borrower for Scale-I officials capacitated as incumbents of GBBs
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a. 20Lac
b. 10Lac
c. 15Lac
d. 12Lac
e. No Power of scale 1
6 a 7 c 8 d 9 c 10 B
11. Aggregate commitment per borrower for AGM (MCC-CAC)
a. 20Cr
b. 15Cr
c. 50Cr
d. 10Cr
e. None of the above
12. What is the power of a GM/CGM ZOCAC-II in case of unsecured fund based limit
a. 12.50Cr
b. 20Cr
c. 15Cr
d. 30Cr
e. None of the above
13. Loaning powers for taking fresh exposure in B3, C1 to C3 rated borrowers is with
a. ZOCAC-II
b. ZOCAC-I
c. HOCAC-III
d. HOCAC-I
e. HOCAC-II
14. Which Section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 also lays down the restrictions on loans and advances to the directors and the firms in which they hold substantial interest.
a. Section 20(1)
b. Section 19
c. Section 18
d. Section 35
e. None of the above
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15. What is the frequency of submitting LSS when incumbents are retiring within 3 months?
a. 30 days
b. Not required
c. fortnightly
d. Quarterly
e. None of the above
11 d 12 a 13 c 14 a 15 c
16. In respect of proposals for financing against Future Lease Rentals falling within the vested loaning powers of Branch Head, the administrative clearance shall be given by
a. ZOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC-II
c. HOCAC-III
d. HOCAC-I
e. None of the above
17. Loaning powers for sanction of proposals for Hotels including guest houses shall be exercised by_____ and above within their vested loaning powers
a. AGM
b. Chief Manager
c. Senior Manager
d. DGM
e. GM
18. Advance against book debt is a type of ---------- advance?
a. SECURED
b. UNSECURED
c. Can’t say
d. both
e. None of the above
19. In case of adhoc facility find the correct statement
a. The adhoc facilities are not to be allowed by GBB Branch Heads.
b. Branch head of RAM(above scale V has the power to allow adhoc
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c. Branch head of MCC has the power to allow adhoc
d. Branch head of LCB has the power to allow adhoc
e. All of the above
20. In case of borrowal accounts in operation with the bank for less than 12 months, in such accounts, the proposals for sanction of adhoc facilities may be referred to ____ & above as per their vested loaning powers.
a. HOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC-I
c. HOCAC-III
d. ZOCAC-II
e. HOCAC-II
16 a 17 b 18 a 19 e 20 A
21. What should be the minimum credit risk rating for allowing adhoc facilities by the competent authority.
a. A1
b. B1
c. B2
d. A2
e. None of the above
22. Upto what extant of their loaning power, Branch Heads of the MCCs and RAMs may consider takeover proposals in case of MSME/Trading Advances without obtaining prior approval from the next higher authority.
a. 0.25
b. 0.3
c. 0.5
d. 0.75
e. 1
23. The competent authority for amount of Refund above 3Lac upto 5Lac on account of correction of mistake
a. ZOCAC (GM Headed)
b. ZOCAC (CGM Headed)
c. ZOCAC (DGM Headed)
d. AGM RAM
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e. None of the above
24. If there is no other officer posted in the branch , branch manager can sanction upto --- L under tractor loan?
a. 1L
b. 2L
c. 3L
d. 5L
e. Not allowed
25. If there is no other officer posted in the branch , branch manager can sanction upto --- L under Housing loan?
a. 10L
b. 2L
c. 5L
d. 6L
e. None of the above
21 b 22 c 23 c 24 c 25 b
26. Powers to Relax Service Charges by ZOCAC-II is
a. upto 10%of card rate
b. upto 25% of card rate
c. Upto 50% of the card rate
d. Upto 5% of the card rate
e. upto 30% of the card rate
27. What is the loaning power of GBB Scale II incumbent in case of Adance against Banks on deposit
a. 20L
b. 50L
c. 15L
d. 25L
e. 30L
28. What is the laoning power of GBB scale IV in Adance against LIC Policies/PLIs (assined), Postal Sain Certificates (NSCs/KVPs) dul leded/assined
a. 20L
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b. 25L
c. 100L
d. 50L
e. None of the above
29. Aggregate Commitment per Staff Member in case of staff loans for a scale III is
a. 80L
b. 60L
c. 70L
d. 50L
e. 35L
30. Can a bank Advances against Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) Issued by Other Banks
a. YES
b. NO
c. Can’t say
d. If lien is marked
e. None of the above
26 a 27 b 28 c 29 a 30 B
31. Aggregate Commitment per Staff Member in case of staff loans for a scale I is
a. 10L
b. 5 L
c. 3L
d. 2 L
e. None of the above
32. Staff Loans to staff posted at deputation to PNB Subsidiaries/ Regional Rural Banks/ other organisation shall be sanctioned by designated officials not below the rank of Scale____, at the respective zonal offices
a. IV
b. V
c. III
d. VI
e. None of the above
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33. who has been empowered to sanction credit facilities to allied/associate concerns taken together, upto 2 times of their aggregate commitment per borrower.
a. HOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC-I and above
c. HOCAC-III
d. HOCAC-II and above
e. ZOCAC-II and above
34. CMs, AGMs of RAMs and MCCs, ZOCAC-I & above shall exercise what percent of their normal loaning powers when credit risk rating is A1 and A2
a. 1
b. 1.1
c. 1.25
d. 0.9
e. 1.15
35. What is the ceiling of Total advance granted without recommendation of second man, where there is none.
a. 10L
b. 30L
c. 50L
d. 20L
e. Not allowed
31 a 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 d
36. Clean Overdraft may be allowed/ permitted for short periods, not exceeding, ____ months by officials up to DGM level.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6
37. Overdraft up to ____may be allowed in Saving Fund Accounts (including minor/staff accounts) where regular income such as salary, pension, etc. are credited at fixed periodical intervals.
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a. Rs10000
b. Rs15000
c. Rs5000
d. Rs20000
e. Not allowed
38. Substitution/ release of IP ( where cash security/ FDR not available ) falls under the power of _____
a. ZOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC-II
c. MCCCAC
d. branch power
e. None of the above
39. Nature of Clean OD is basically
a. SECURED
b. UNSECURED
c. cant say
d. both
e. None of the above
40. the powers to sanction FCL/FCTL shall be exercised by HOCAC-II in case where amount is
a. $10 Million
b. $20M
c. $15M
d. $30M
e. None of the above
36 b 37 c 38 b 39 b 40 c
41. the powers to sanction FCL/FCTL shall be exercised by HOCAC-III in case where amount is
a. $10 Million
b. $20M
c. $15M
d. $30M
e. None of the above
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42. ___________may permit issuance of Letter of Guarantee up to a maximum of 10 years, excluding the claim period of 12 months.
a. CM
b. AGM
c. HOCAC-I
d. ZOCAC-I
e. ZOCAC-II
43. who shall have the power in case of GBBs to permit transfer of any loan facility within their respective areas?
a. Branch head scale 3
b. Branch head scale 2
c. CIRCLE HEAD
d. ZONAL MANAGER
e. None of the above
44. Who shall have the power in case of LCBs to transfer accounts
a. HO credit Division
b. DGM
c. CIRCLE HEAD
d. ZONAL MANAGER(GM)
e. Zonal Manager (CGM)
45. who can permit interchange of unavailed fund based facilities upto two times of their respective powers within overall sanctioned limits.
a. Branch Head LCB
b. Branch Head ELCB
c. ZOCAC-I and above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
41 b 42 d 43 c 44 a 45 d
46. Who has the power of Agency arrangements with other banks institutions.
a. CGM/GM Credit
b. CGM CAC
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c. GM IBD
d. CGM IBD
e. All of the above
47. Officers in Scale______ at specified branches and above may waive insurance of collateral security in deserving cases.
a. Scale V
b. Scale VI
c. Scale IV and above
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
48. Internal Risk Rating should be done in _________for loans above Rs 50Lac
a. PNB Score
b. PNB Score SME
c. PNB Trac
d. PNB Farm Score
e. None of the above
49. For sanction of Term Loan and or working capital (fund and or non-fund based) to Educational institutions, collateral security (other than Land & Building of Educational Institutions) when proposal falls under ZOCAC-I, minimum collateral should be
a. 50% of total Exposure
b. 80% of total exposure
c. 75%of total exposure
d. 100% of total exposure
e. 25% of total exposure
50. Exposure per borrower in the film industry sector shall not be more than
a. ₹25 cr
b. ₹50 cr
c. ₹20 cr
d. ₹35 cr
e. ₹75 cr
46 a 47 c 48 c 49 d 50 a
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51. Which authority is empowered to consider all fresh proposals/enhancement/additional/adhoc/temporary facilities to NBFCs
a. ZOCAC I and above
b. ZOCAC II and above
c. HOCAC I and above
d. HOCAC II and aove
e. ZOCAC III and above
52. all Term Loans, other than retail loans, with sanctioned limit of _______& above needs to be reviewed annually.
a. Rs 1 cr
b. Rs 5 Cr
c. Rs 3 cr
d. Rs 2 Cr
e. None of the above
53. Simplified Procedure for Renewal of Credit Facilities ,Green renewal will be applicable for borrowers:
a. Having aggregate credit facilities of `50 Lakh to ` 5 Crores. (Retail Term Loan)
b. Having aggregate credit facilities above `10 Lakh and upto ` 5 Crores (Credit facilities in cases of revolving Credit facilities) Include term loan also.
c. both A and B
d. Having aggregate credit facilities of `50 Lakh to ` 1Crores. (Retail Term Loan)
e. Having aggregate credit facilities above `10 Lakh and upto ` 50 Crores (Credit facilities in cases of revolving Credit facilities) Include term loan also.
54. what should be the internal credit rating and external credit rating for Borrowers to be eligible for FCL/FCTL
a. B1 &above and BBB &above
b. B2 &above and BBB &above
c. A1 &above and BBB &above
d. A1 &above and AAA &above
e. A2&above and AAA&above
55. Which authority can extend drawing power in case of book debts upto 180 days.
a. ZOCAC I and above
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b. ZOCAC II and above
c. HOCAC I and above
d. HOCAC II and aove
e. None of the above
51 b 52 d 53 c 54 a 55 c
56. relaxation in rate of interest in case of Rupee Advances against Bank’s own deposits to third party, by the GM is upto ____% below the applicable rate
a. 2
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 1.5
e. 2.5
57. In cases where prepayment penalty is to be charged in account, authority to permit waiver of such prepayment penalty, if required, shall be at the level of
a. HOCAC-I and above.
b. HOCAC-II and above.
c. ZOCAC-I and above.
d. ZOCAC-II and above.
e. HOCAC III and above
58. Who has been vested with the discretion to permit charging of guarantee commission on year to year basis instead of for full period of the guarantee in the first instance itself, when guarantee has been issued for a longer period.
a. Zonal Manager
b. Circle Heads
c. HOCAC I and above
d. HOCAC II and aove
e. All of the above
59. Relaxation in desired benchmark levels upto 20% may be permitted by
a. ZOCAC I and above
b. ZOCAC II and above
c. HOCAC I and above
d. HOCAC II and above
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e. None of the above
60. Advances against Claims under export incentives schemes is a type of
a. SECURED
b. UNSECURED
c. can’t say
d. both
e. None of the above
56 c 57 a 58 a 59 b 60 B
61. Advances against Bills accompanied by receipted Challans (other than drawn on Govt./PSU) are_____in nature
a. SECURED
b. UNSECURED
c. cant say
d. both
e. None of the above
62. PLPs will sanction loans to MSME and other Loans above ` 10 Lakh and upto ___ crore
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 5
e. 10
63. Loaning power in case of Ad-hoc by way of drawings beyond limits of a scale IV in GBB is
a. 10 L
b. 20 L
c. 5L
d. 2L
e. NIL
64. In emergent circumstances, drawings in SECURED FUND BASED LIMITS in excess of sanctioned limits, within available DP, may be allowed for 2-3 days but not exceeding 7 days subject to
a. 10% of sanctioned limit or `1.00 Lakh whichever is lower
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b. 10% of sanctioned limit or `5.00 Lakh whichever is lower
c. 5% of sanctioned limit or `1.00 Lakh whichever is lower
d. 5% of sanctioned limit or 50 K whichever is lower
e. Nil
65. What is the power of a scale IV in PLP in case of Ad-hoc facilities by way of reduction in margin
a. 10% or ` 10.00 Lakh
b. 10% or ` 1.00 Lakh
c. Nil
d. 15% or ` 10.00 Lakh
e. 10% or ` 5.00 Lakh
61 b 62 b 63 e 64 a 65 c
66. Who shall exercise 100% of NFB powers for LC (DA) facilities for Capital goods under Project financing.
a. ZOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC II and above
c. HOCAC-I
d. HOCAC-II
e. None of the above
67. Loaning powers for taking fresh exposure in B2 rated accounts shall be considered by
a. ZOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC II and above
c. HOCAC-I and above
d. HOCAC-II and above
e. None of the above
68. Who has the powers to revise ceilings in case of GBBs subject to maximum of loaning powers vested with the Branch Head/the ceiling prescribed under the scheme.?
a. ZM
b. HO
c. MCC
d. RAM
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e. Circle Head
69. All fresh credit proposals envisaging total exposure (both fund based and non-fund based) of above ₹50 crore shall be placed before____
a. ZOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC-II
c. HOCAC-I
d. HOCAC-II
e. New Business Group
70. Which of the following category of advances are exempted from New Business Group (NBG) approval:
a. Exposures to Public Sector Undertakings/ Both Central and State Government
b. Exposures to Central Governments and exposures guaranteed by Central Governments
c. The adhoc facilities are exempted from the purview of “Expression of Interest” approval
d. Retail credit proposals up to ₹ 25 Crore
e. All of the above
66 a 67 c 68 e 69 e 70 e
71. The enhancement within 6 months of sanction under exceptional and genuine cases shall by exercised by next higher authority not below
a. HOCAC-I
b. ZOCAC-I
c. ZOCAC-II
d. MCC Head
e. None of the above
72. SANCTION OF CREDIT FACILTIES WHERE PROSPESTIVE BORROWER’s ACCOUNT/ GROUP ACCOUNT HAS BEEN RESTRUCTURED IN OTHER BANK , SUCH PROPOSALS SHALL BE TAKEN ONLY AT
a. ZO
b. MCC
c. HO
d. Management Committee
e. Should not be considered
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73. In special cases where separate facility, other than ones already sanctioned, is required and which falls within the power of an officer junior to the sanctioning authority, such facility may be sanctioned by____
a. ZOCAC-I and above
b. ZOCAC-II and above
c. HOCAC-I and above
d. HOCAC-II and above
e. HOCAC-III only
74. Proposals under Gems & Jewellery sector to be considered by _____on merit basis
a. ZOCAC-II and above
b. HOCAC-II and above.
c. HOCAC-III and above
d. HOCAC-I and above
e. Management committee
75. In exceptional and deserving cases, part disbursement of term loan may be allowed through current/cash credit account by the sanctioning authority not below the level of CM subject to maximum of _____% of the sanctioned limit.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 25
d. 50
e. 40
71 a 72 c 73 a 74 e 75 c
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6a. FRAUDS IN BANKS 1. What is the defination of fraud as per IPC? a. Any behavior by which one person intends to gain a dishonest advantage over another can be termed as fraud b. Conversion of property is fraud c. Cheating/ Opening bogus bank accounts in the name of non-existing person is fraud d. Embezzlement is fraud e. Unauthorized handling of securities charged to the bank is fraud 2. The study group on large value frauds constituted under whose chairmanship ? a. R.D.Narang b. Vimal Jalan c. Rashid Jilani d. Arundhati Chakarborty e. B.D.Narang 3. Instalation of Biometric devices to check unauthorised entry is ______________ control. a. Physical b. Detection c. Scheme d. Application e. none of these 4. A crime committed with brain and technology as the tools instead of physical weapons is known as _____________. a. Blue collar offence b. Cyber Crime c. Data Breach d. White collar offence e. None of the above 5. Attack from employee within the organisation is known as --------------- ? a. Employee threats b. corporate threats c. Insider threats d. Colligue threats e. None of the above
1 a 2 e 3 a 4 d 5 c 6. Who is the Competent Authority to decide any case as fraud where amount involved is below ₹1 lakh a. ZAO Head b. GM FRMD c. ED d. MD & CEO e. None of the above 7. Who is the Competent Authority to decide any case as fraud where amount involved from ₹1 lakh to less than ₹100 lakh a. ZAO Head b. GM FRMD
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c. ED d. MD & CEO e. None of the above 8. Who is the Competent Authority to decide any case as fraud where amount involved from from ₹100 lakh to less than ₹300 lakh a. ZAO Head b. GM FRMD c. ED d. MD & CEO e. None of the above 9. Who is the Competent Authority to decide any case as fraud where amount involved from from ₹300 lakh & above a. ZAO Head b. GM FRMD c. ED d. MD & CEO e. None of the above 10. Who can permit lodging of complaint with Police/CBI/ other agencies in case of fraud where amount involved is below ₹1 lakh? a. Branch Head b. Circle Head c. Zonal Head d. GM FRMD e. None of the above
6 a 7 b 8 c 9 d 10 A 11. Who can permit lodging of complaint with Police/CBI/ other agencies in case of fraud where amount involved is Rs.3 Crore and above? a. GM-FRMD b. Circle Head c. Zonal Head d. MD & CEO e. None of the above 12. Who can permit lodging of complaint with Police/CBI/ other agencies in case of fraud where amount involved is Rs.1 lakh & above but below Rs.3 Crore? a. Branch Head b. Circle Head c. Zonal Head d. GM FRMD e. None of the above 13. In case of fraud where amount involved is Rs.1 lakh and above but up to Rs.3 crore, complaint t be lodged with ______ a. Local police station b. CID/EOW of State Police c. CBI d. Either A or B e. None of the above
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14. In case of fraud where amount involved is Rs.3 crore and above, complaint to be lodged with ______ a. Local police station b. CID/EOW of State Police c. CBI d. Either A or B e. None of the above 15. As soon as a fraud is suspected at any branch/ office, a preliminary/flash report either through Fax/e-mail is to be sent to the respective Circle Office/Controlling Office under copy to FRMD, HO/ZAO within 24 hours, but not later than ____________ hours of detection of any fraud/ suspected fraud a. 36 hours b. 48 c. 72 d. 7 days e. 5 working days
11 d 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 b 16. On receipt of the preliminary/ flash report, an experienced Senior Official shall be deputed by the ___________ to the branch for immediate investigation into the matter a. Zonal Head b. Zonal audit head c. Circle head d. ZAO vigilance dept head e. None of the above 17. Senior Official deputed for the purpose of Preliminary Investigation in Suspected Fraud cases are to submit the report within ____ working days a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. None of the above 18. What should bring out Investigation into a fraud ? a. Modus operandi of the fraud b. Lapses c. Persons accountable for the loss to the Bank d. All of A, B & C e. None of these 19. Circle/ Controlling Office shall advise the detailed investigation to ZAO within _____________ working days of cited instances after coming to notice. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
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20. In cases of Fraud, On receiving Investigation request, ZAO to depute auditors within __ working days a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 b 21. In case opf Frauds, Auditor shall ensure investigation and submission of the report to ZAO within maximum outer limit of ____ working days. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 14 e. 5 22. FMR shall be submitted to ZO under copy to FRMD, HO (frauds of ₹1.00 lakh & above) latest within _____ from the date of detection of fraud. a. 3 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 15 days e. None of the above 23. FMR shall be submitted to Zonal Audit Office for frauds of below ₹1.00 lakh, latest within ______ from the date of detection of fraud. a. 3 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 15 days e. None of the above 24. Frauds in banks arising out of both system and human failures may be grouped into ___________categories on the basis of perpetrator of fraud a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 e. None 25. Fraud Risk Management Cell (FRMC) should be created under Inspection & Audit Department in each ________ a. Circle Offce b. Zonal Office c. RAM d. MCC e. Both A & B
21 d 22 b 23 b 24 b 25 E 26. Fraud Risk Management Cell (FRMC) will be headed by _____ in Zonal Office a. Dt. Circle Heads
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b. RAM Heads c. DGM d. MCC Head e. None of the above 27. Which of the following will be treated as fraud even when fraudulent intention is not suspected/ proved? a. Cases of cash shortage more than ₹10,000/- b. Cases of cash shortage more than ₹5,000/-, if detected by management/ auditor/ inspecting officer and not reported on the day of occurrence by the persons handling cash. c. Both A & B d. Cases of cash withdrawal of more than 10 lac in amonth e. None of the above 28. The Fraud Monitoring Cell attached to the Department of Banking Supervision, Central Office (DBS, C.O.) of RBI has started operations from which of the following Regional Office of Reserve Bank of India a. Delhi b. Kolkata c. Chennai d. Bengaluru e. Kanpure 29. In case of hacking or phishing under Internet Banking Services which branch has to report it as fraud? a. Branch which holds the beneficiary’s account, should report the fraud if beneficiary has received the funds illegally b. Branch maintaining the victim’s account should report the fraud in case fund is credited to more than one Beneficiary's account at different branches c. Both A & B d. Fraud will be reported by Police e. None of the above 30. To ensure uniformity and to avoid duplication, frauds involving forged instruments may be reported only by the ____________ and not by the _________________. a. Paying Branch , Collecting Branch b. Collecting Branch , Paying Branch c. CTS Grid, Branch d. Circle Office, Branch e. None of the above
26 c 27 c 28 d 29 c 30 a 31. Frauds are to be reported through which of the following portals by branch? a. e-rbia b. FRMIS c. E-Veda d. CLAPS e. None of the above 32. Frauds involving amount below ₹1 lakh to be reported through FRMIS portal within __________________ days of detection of fraud. a. 7
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b. 12 c. 10 d. 14 e. 21 33. Fraud cases are required to be reported to RBI, on the prescribed format, within ___________ weeks (maximum period for the bank) from the detection of fraud. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. No time limit 34. In context of Bank Fraud, CFR stands for? a. Central Fraud Rregistry b. Central Fraud Report c. Crimnal Fraud Registry d. Crimnal Fraud Report e. None of the above 35. Flash report (in addition to FMR) is to be submitted to regulators for which of the following cases? a. For frauds involving₹500 lakh and above b. For frauds involving₹100 lakh and above c. For frauds involving₹700 lakh and above d. For frauds involving₹1000 lakh and above e. For frauds involving₹50 lakh and above
31 b 32 c 33 b 34 a 35 a 36. __________, HO will conduct an annual review of all the frauds and place a note before the Board of Directors for information. a. IAD b. FRMD c. IRMD d. GBD e. None of the above 37. FRMD, HO will place a quarterly review of frauds for the quarters ended June, September and December of every year before the ______ during the month following the quarter to which it pertains a. ZAO b. GM Credit c. ZM d. Audit Committee of Board e. None of the above 38. Bank has constituted a Special Committee of Board (SCBF) exclusively for monitoring and follow up of cases of frauds involving amounts of _______________ crore and above. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 2.5
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e. 1 39. The Special Committee consists of MD & CEO, _____ members from Audit Committee of Board, ________ members from Board excluding RBI nominee for fraud a. 2,2 b. 1,1 c. 2,1 d. 2,3 e. None of the above 40. The major functions of the Special Committee of Board are to monitor and review all the frauds of ₹1.00 crore and above so as to: a. Identify the systemic lacunae if any that facilitated perpetration of the fraud and put in place measures to plug the same. b. Identify the reasons for delay in detection, if any, reporting to top management of the bank and RBI. c. Monitor progress of CBI/Police investigation and recovery position. d. Ensure that staff accountability is examined at all levels in all the cases of frauds and staff side action, if required, is completed quickly without loss of time. e. All of the above
36 b 37 d 38 e 39 a 40 e 41. In terms of RBI circular, Bank need not report cases of attempted frauds of _________ to Reserve Bank of India. a. ₹ 1 crore and below b. ₹ 1 crore and above c. ₹ 2 crore and above d. ₹ 2 crore and below e. None of the above 42. Who is the competent authority to permit closure of fraud case upto Rs.1 lakh? a. CH b. ZM c. ZAO Head d. GM FRMD e. None of the above 43. Authority for deciding any case as fraud (for reporting to RBI) in case amount involved is Rs 300 lakhs & above a. GM FRMD b. ZM c. ED d. MD & CEO e. No such guidelines 44. Authority for deciding any case as fraud (for reporting to RBI) in case amount involved is Rs 50 lakh & above but less than Rs 300 lakhs a. GM FRMD b. ED c. MD & CEO d. ZM e. No such guidelines
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45. Authority for deciding any case as fraud (for reporting to RBI) in case amount involved is Rs 1 lakh & above but less than Rs 50 lakhs a. GM FRMD b. ED c. MD & CEO d. ZM e. No such guidelines
41 b 42 C 43 d 44 b 45 a 46. As per the guidelines of Central Vigilance Commission/ RBI fraud cases above ₹10,000/- but below ₹1 Lakh are to be reported to _____________, only if staff of the bank is involved. a. Local police b. CBI c. RBI d. State CID e. None of the above 47. Fraud Cases of ₹___________ crore and above should be reported to CBI, after permission from MD & CEO. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 48. In fraud cases involving amount of ₹1 lakh & above (but below ₹300 lakhs) branch /Office to submit the draft FIR to Circle/ Controlling Office through email within ________ days of detection of fraud. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 4 49. In case of CBI complaint for fraud cases, any inputs sought by CBI should be furnished by the bank in no later than _______ days from receiving comments on the initial complaint from CBI. a. 4 working b. 3 working c. 7 working d. 10 working e. None of the above 50. In cases of collection of altered/fake cheque involving ___________ of the same bank, the branch where the altered/fake instrument has been encashed, should file a Police complaint. a. More than three branches b. More than one branches c. More than 2 customers d. More than four branches e. None of the above
46 a 47 b 48 c 49 a 50 b
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51. While settling customer claim in fraud cases, the power of DGM Circle Head is ________ a. 5 lakh b. 10 lakh c. 15 lakh d. 20 lakh e. None of the above 52. While settling customer claim in fraud cases, the power of AGM Circle Head is ________ a. 6 lakh b. 10 lakh c. 15 lakh d. 20 lakh e. None of the above 53. While settling customer claim in fraud cases, the power of CM Circle Head is ________ a. 3 lakh b. 10 lakh c. 15 lakh d. 20 lakh e. None of the above 54. While settling customer claim in fraud cases, the power of MD & CEO is ________ a. 20 lakh b. 30 lakh c. 50 lakh d. 70 lakh e. None of the above 55. While settling customer claim in fraud cases, the power of ED is ________ a. 20 lakh b. 30 lakh c. 50 lakh d. 70 lakh e. None of the above
51 b 52 a 53 a 54 c 55 b 56. While settling customer claim in fraud cases, the power of GM-HO is ________ a. 20 lakh b. 30 lakh c. 50 lakh d. 70 lakh e. None of the above 57. RBI has defined 45 Early warning signals (EWS), which is now reduced/ modified to _____ a. 40 b. 42 c. 35 d. 30 e. None of the above
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58. Branch will examine each EWS in relation to business profile of the customer and manually enter status in CBS within _____ days from date of identification of EWS. a. 40 b. 10 c. 35 d. 30 e. None of the above 59. ZO/CO/LCB shall ensure to report all Red Fagged Accounts (RFA) of ₹ ______ crore & above on CRILC platform through HO, SASTRA a. 40 b. 50 c. 35 d. 30 e. None of the above 60. The process of classifying an account as Red Fagged Accounts (RFA) or otherwise is to be completed within ________ month of reporting by other banks in CRILC portal. a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of the above
56 a 57 b 58 b 59 b 60 a 61. OTS proposal related to Borrowal fraud account to be submitted to ________ a. SASTRA HO b. FRMD HO c. IAD-HO d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 62. OTS proposal related to Non Borrowal fraud account is to be submitted to ________ a. SASTRA Ho b. FRMD HO c. IAD-HO d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 63. OTS proposal related to Non Borrowal (other than fraud) account is to be submitted to ________ a. SASTRA Ho b. FRMD HO c. IAD-HO d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 64. Write Off proposal related to Borrowal fraud account is to be submitted to ________ a. SASTRA Ho b. FRMD HO c. IAD-HO d. Any one of the above e. None of the above
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65. Write Off proposal related to Non Borrowal fraud account is to be submitted to ________ a. SASTRA Ho b. FRMD HO c. IAD-HO d. Any one of the above e. None of the above
61 a 62 b 63 c 64 a 65 b 66. Write Off proposal related to Non Borrowal (other than fraud) account to be submitted to ________ a. SASTRA Ho b. FRMD HO c. IAD-HO d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 67. Legal Audit to be conducted in accounts where all credit exposure is ₹________ crore and above a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 e. None of the above 68. What is the full form of EFRM? a. Enterprise wide Fraud Risk Management b. Effective Fraud Risk Management c. Efficient Fraud Risk Management d. Both B & C e. None of the above 69. Enterprise wide Fraud Risk Managem (EFRM) Solution monitor and prevent the suspicious transactions of __________ a. Core Banking Solution b. Internet Banking c. Mobile Banking d. Credit Card & Debit Card e. All of the above 70. Total __________ scenarios from different channels have been implemented in monitoring mode under EFRM a. 16 b. 50 c. 75 d. 89 e. None of the above
66 c 67 c 68 a 69 e 70 d 71. Total __________ scenarios from CBS & ADC have been implemented in prevention mode under EFRM a. 16
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b. 50 c. 75 d. 89 e. None of the above 72. Working hour of EFRM cell is ________ a. 8 AM to 8 PM b. 6 AM to 6 PM c. 24*7 d. Only on Holiday e. None of the above 73. Toll Free number of EFRM Cell is ______ a. 1800111626 b. 18001802222 c. 18001802223 d. 18018012345 e. None of the above 74. Does RBI penalises in any delay (beyond 21 days) in reporting fraud a. Yes. Under Section 47(A) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949. b. No c. Yes, if more than 6 months d. Yes, if more than 3 months e. None of the above 75. Timeline for deciding to lift RFA status or to classify as fraud a. 6 months from date of classifying an account as RFA. b. 3 months from date of classifying an account as RFA. c. 1 month from date of classifying an account as RFA. d. 5 month from date of classifying an account as RFA. e. None of the above
71 a 72 c 73 a 74 a 75 A 76. Whether FMR to be submitted for attempted fraud cases? a. Yes b. No c. Yes, if amount involved more than 1 cr d. Yes, if amount involved more than 3 cr e. None of the above 77. While marking Borrowal fraud in CBS, which of the following is correct? a. The details are to be entered under FRMD menu b. The details are to be entered under Free Code 9 of MISC details in HACM menu c. The details are to be entered under FRM menu d. Both A & B e. None of the above 78. While marking Borrowal fraud in CBS, which of the following code is to be selected? a. YYYYY b. XXXXX c. ZZZZZ
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d. AAAAA e. None of the above 79. While marking Non Borrowal fraud in CBS, which of the following code is to be selected? a. YYYYY b. XXXXX c. ZZZZZ d. AAAAA e. None of the above 80. While marking fraud in CBS, where the account is not fraudulent but only a few transactions are fraudulent, which of the following code is to be selected? a. YYYYY b. XXXXX c. ZZZZZ d. AAAAA e. None of the above
76 a 77 b 78 b 79 c 80 a 81. What is the maximum amount of Cash Award which can be given to any employee for preventing fraud under Alertness Award Scheme? a. 10000 b. 25000 c. 35000 d. 50000 e. None of the above 82. All the eligible cases identified in a quarter should be sent by all Cases related to prevention of fraud under Alertness Award Scheme to be reported by Controlling Offices to FRMD:HO within _____________ days from ending of the quarter. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. None of the above
81 d 82 c
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8. PNB Digital Products 1. Can a minor customer avail PNB Internet Banking Services? a. Yes b. No c. Yes, only view facility in Self Operated Account only d. Yes, in the account operated by guardian e. Yes, only view facility in guardian operated Account 2. What is mandatory requirement for availing Retail Internet Banking Services? a. Account must be KYC compliant b. Mobile Number should be registered for SMS Alerts Services c. Debit Card linked with the Account d. All of the above e. Both 1 & 2 3. Password of PNB Verify should be _______ a. a Number only b. Alpha Numeric c. Alpha Numeric with Special Character d. Alpha Numeric at least one alpha should be in Capital letter e. Alpha Numeric with special character, wherein at least one alpha should be in Capital letter 4. A User can set _______ default login option for PNB Verify. a. Password b. Pattern Login c. Finger Print Login d. All or any of the above e. Both 1 & 2 5. PNB Verify is an alternate of _______ a. Login Password b. Internet Banking Transaction Password c. OTP d. Both 1 & 2 e. None of the above
1 c 2 e 3 b 4 d 5 c 6. In Internet Banking, the process of registration of IBS Shied includes ________ a. Registration of Security Answers b. Choosing an Image c. Setting-up of Phrase d. All of the above e. Only option 2 & 3 7. After a cooling period of _________ of confirmation, a User can initiate Fund Transfer to the beneficiary. a. 1 Hour b. 2 Hours c. 3 Hours d. 4 Hours e. 24 Hours
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8. In how many wrong Login attempts, login password get disabled for retail internet banking ? a. 2 consecutive attempts b. 3 consecutive attempts c. 4 consecutive attempts d. 5 consecutive attempts e. 6 consecutive attempts 9. User enrolled for PNB Verify would get in-app notifications for authenticating _______ transactions. a. Bill Payment b. NEFT c. RTGS d. Within PNB Payments e. All of the above 10. What is the per day maximum limit of third party funds transfer under Retail Internet Banking services? a. 10,00,000/- b. 15,00,000/- c. 20,00,000/- d. 25,00,000/- e. No limit
6 d 7 b 8 d 9 e 10 b 11. What is the per day maximum limit of payment of Government Dues under Retail Internet Banking services? a. 10,00,000/- b. 15,00,000/- c. 20,00,000/- d. 25,00,000/- e. No Threshold limit has been fixed 12. What is the form number of PNB Corporate Internet Banking Services? a. PNB 1210 b. PNB 1211 c. PNB 1212 d. PNB 1213 e. PNB 1214 13. What is the menu option to enter Internet Banking requests through branch? a. IBSRPOST b. ADCREQ c. ACDREQ d. HIBRPOST e. IBRPOST 14. How can a Corporate Customer register for Internet Banking Services? a. Through Branch b. Online c. Through Contact Centre d. Either A or B
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e. Either A or C 15. In Corporate Internet Banking, Admin User cannot perform Transactions in Admin User ID? a. TRUE b. FALSE
11 e 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 a 16. In Corporate Net Banking, maximum _______ corporate users can be created by the Admin User. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. unlimited 17. It is mandatory to create at least 2 C-Users in Corporate Internet Banking to perform transactions. a. TRUE b. FALSE 18. In Corporate Net Banking, minimum __________ Corporate Users are required to perform the transaction. a. 1 b. 2 19. In Corporate Internet Banking, Admin User can reset password of C-Users by logging into his/ her Admin User ID? a. TRUE b. FALSE 20. The Login password of Internet Banking gets expired after ___________ days. a. 30 b. 150 c. 180 d. 365 e. Never expires
16 e 17 b 18 a 19 a 20 e 21. What is the validity period of PNB Uphaar Card? a. Minimum 6 months, Maximum 3 years b. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 3 years c. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 7 years d. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 5 years e. Minimum 6 months, Maximum 1 year 22. A Retail customer can register for internet banking services through which of the following channels? a. Branch b. ATM c. Contact Center d. Online at www.netpnb.com e. Any of the above
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23. The facility of Free access at Airport Lounge is available with _____Card Type a. Classic b. Platinum c. Suvidha d. Uphaar e. None of the above 24. User ID of Internet Banking gets expires, if the customer does not login within ______ days after registration. a. 90 days b. 120 days c. 180 days d. 365 days e. None of the above 25. Per day transaction limit through BHIM app is ___________ a. Rs. 10,000/- b. Rs. 20,000/- c. Rs. 40,000/- y. d. Rs. 50,000/- e. Rs. 1,00,000/-
21 b 22 e 23 b 24 c 25 c 26. Per transaction limit through BHIM app is ___________ a. Rs. 10,000/- b. Rs. 20,000/- c. Rs. 40,000/- d. Rs. 50,000/- e. Rs. 1,00,000/- 27. What is the maximum transaction limit in a day through BHIM PNB app ___________ a. Rs. 10,000/- b. Rs. 20,000/- c. Rs. 40,000/- d. Rs. 50,000/- e. Rs. 1,00,000/- 28. What is the monthly threshold limit of BHIM PNB? a. Rs. 1,00,000/- b. Rs. 2,00,000/- c. Rs. 4,00,000/- d. Rs. 5,00,000/- e. Rs. 10,00,000/- 29. What is the weekly threshold limit of BHIM PNB? a. Rs. 1,00,000/- b. Rs. 2,00,000/- c. Rs. 4,00,000/- d. Rs. 5,00,000/- e. Rs. 10,00,000/- 30. Which out of the following type of customers are eligible for using BHIM PNB?
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a. Individual Customers having Account in single name b. Joint account holders with mode of operation any one or survivor/ either or survivor c. Sole Proprietor d. All of the above e. A & B only
26 b 27 d 28 e 29 c 30 d 31. Per day limit at ATMs for transfer of funds to other PNB accounts is ______ a. Equivalent to cash withdrawal limit of the card b. Rs. 25,000/- c. Rs. 50,000/- d. Rs. 60,000/- e. Rs. 1,00,000/- 32. What is the amount of Personal Accidental Insurance Cover with RuPay Classic card? a. Nil b. Rs. 1.00 lakh c. Rs. 2.00 lakh d. Rs. 2.50 lakh e. Rs. 3.00 lakh 33. Personal Accidental Cover for permanent Disability or Death in case of RuPay Platinum card is a. Rs. 1.00 lakh b. Rs. 1.50 lakh c. Rs. 2.00 lakh y. d. Rs. 2.50 lakh e. Rs. 3.00 lakh 34. What is the per day POS/ E-com limit of Business Debit Card? a. Rs. 3,00,000/- b. Rs. 2,50,000/- c. Rs. 2,00,000/- d. Rs. 1,50,000/- e. Rs. 1,00,000/- 35. The OTP received by the customer for setting/ resetting of debit card pin is valid for a period of a. 24 hours b. 36 hours c. 72 hours d. 90 hours e. 96 hours
31 a 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 C 36. What is the per day Cash withdrawal limit of Business Debit Card? a. Rs. 50,000/- b. Rs. 60,000/- c. Rs. 70,000/- d. Rs. 80,000/- e. Rs. 1,00,000/- 37. Customer can set his Debit Card PIN _____ a. at www.pnbibanking.in (without logging in)
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b. by logging into Retail Internet Banking c. At PNB ATM d. Both B & C e. Any of the A, B or C 38. What is the validity period of PNB Suvidha Card? a. Minimum 6 months, Maximum 3 years b. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 3 years c. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 7 years d. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 5 years e. Minimum 1 year, Maximum 10 years 39. Type of Account for supporting Suvidha Card is _____ a. General Current Account b. Current account with no QAB criteria c. General Saving Account d. Sundry Prepaid Card Account e. Non-interest bearing Saving Fund Account 40. The minimum age to get add on credit card is…. a. 18 years b. 21 years c. 25 years d. No age criteria has been defined for issuance of add-on credit card e. No add on credit card can be issued
36 e 37 e 38 c 39 e 40 a 41. BHIM Aadhar PNB App is available for _______ a. Merchants having accounts in Individual name including Sole Proprietors b. Partnership Firms c. Public/ Pvt Ltd Co. d. HUF e. All of the above 42. Instant Money Transfer service provides the facility of ___________ a. Real time fund transfer from one account to other account b. Real time fund Transfer from wallet to wallet c. Card to Card Transfer d. Cardless cash withdrawal at ATMs e. None of the above 43. World Travel Card of our bank can be issued in? a. Indian Rupees b. GBP, EURO and USD c. GBP, USD, EUR & JPY d. Same as FCNR e. None of the above 44. Customer can recharge the eRupaya card with the maximum balance of ____________ in the card at any point of time. a. Rs. 1,000/- b. Rs. 2,000/-
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c. Rs. 5,000/- d. Rs. 8,000/- e. Rs. 10000/- 45. Menu option for issuance of e-rupaya card is ___________ a. HERUPAYA b. HRUPAYA c. ERUPAYA d. HERUPAY e. RUPAYA
41 a 42 d 43 b 44 b 45 c 46. Liability of the customers in case of un-authorized electronic transaction shall be zero, in case of third party breach, where the deficiency lies neither with the bank nor with the customer but lies elsewhere in the system, and the customer notifies the bank within ____________working days of receiving the communication a. 2 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 e. 15 47. To be eligible for obtaining PNB RuPay Select Credit Card, the annual income of the customer should be minimum Rs. _______________ per annum. a. Rs. 2,00,000/- b. Rs. 3,00,000/- c. Rs. 5,00,000/- d. Rs. 8,00,000/- e. Rs. 10,00,000/- 48. Global Visa Platinum Credit Card can be issued with a maximum limit of Rs. ___________ a. Rs. 5,00,000/- b. Rs. 7,00,000/- c. Rs. 7,50,000/- d. Rs. 8,00,000/- e. Rs. 10,00,000/- 49. The amount of insurance cover available on RuPay Select Credit Card in case of accidental death or permanent disability of the card holder is ____________ a. Rs. 2.00 lakh in case of permanent disability and Rs. 5.00 lakh in case of death b. Rs. 5.00 lakh in case of permanent disability and Rs. 10.00 lakh in case of death c. Rs. 2.00 lakh in both the cases d. Rs. 5.00 lakh in both the cases e. Rs. 10.00 lakh in both the cases 50. For credit card PIN generation, customer can send request through SMS to our fixed number 7092200200 from his/her registered mobile number. The template is ________________ a. CARDPIN<space> <last 6 digits of card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> b. CREDITCARD <space> PIN<space> <last 6 digits of card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> c. PIN<space> <last 6 digits of card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> d. CCPIN<space> <last 6 digits of card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> e. CARD <space> PIN<space> <last 6 digits of card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy>
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46 b 47 c 48 e 49 e 50 a 51. The name of PNB Credit Card Mobile App is __________ a. PNB GENIUS b. PNB GENIE c. PNB KITTY d. PNB CCPAY e. PNB MOBIEASE 52. What is the form number of NACH Mandate? a. PNB1212 b. PNB1213 c. PNB1215 d. PNB1216 e. PNB1217 53. What is the maximum amount of contact less transaction through Wave and Pay Credit Card? a. Rs. 2,000/- b. Rs. 5,000/- c. Rs. 6,000/- d. Rs. 8,000/- e. Rs. 10,000/- 54. What is the maximum per day limit of contact less transaction (s) through Wave and Pay Credit Card? a. Rs. 2,000/- b. Rs. 5,000/- c. Rs. 6,000/- d. Rs. 8,000/- e. Rs. 10,000/- 55. SMS Template for Hotlisting of debit card is ______ a. HOT <space> Card Number b. HOTLIST <space> Card Number c. BLOCK <space> Card Number d. HOTLIST <space> last 6 digits of Card Number e. DISABLE <space> Card Number
51 b 52 e 53 a 54 c 55 a 56. What is the long code for performing SMS Banking Services? a. 9264092640 b. 9064090640 c. 9246092460 d. 9046090460 e. None of the above 57. What is the short code for performing SMS Banking Services? a. 5706040 b. 5407040 c. 5607040 d. 5406070 e. 5407060
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58. Which out of the following is not a prepaid card? a. Uphaar Card b. PMJDY Card c. Suvidha Card d. Kite Co-Branded Card e. World Travel Card 59. Bank has launched Co-branded mobile wallet service in the name of ____________ for BSNL Retailers. a. SpeedPay b. EasyPay c. QuickPay d. PNBPay e. FastPay 60. What are the charges for SMS Alerts in the accounts other than Saving Bank? a. Rs. 15/- plus GST per quarter b. Rs. 20/- plus GST per quarter c. Rs. 25/- plus GST per quarter d. Rs. 30/- plus GST per quarter e. Rs. 50/- plus GST per quarter
66 a 67 c 68 b 69 a 70 c 61. Auto Debit Mandate is a CMS based facility for collection of funds for corporate customers, whose clients have accounts _______ a. with any Bank b. with PNB only c. with any Nationalized Bank only d. with any Bank, who is member of NPCI e. With any Bank and/or Financial Institution 62. Which statement is not true in respect of Bharat QR Code? a. Merchant can download PNB “Bharat QR” android application from android Play Store and generate static as well as dynamic Bharat QR Code at their end b. In case of Static QR code, purchaser enters the amount manually. c. In case of dynamic QR code, for every new transaction the merchant will generate a new QR Code every time valuing the Transaction amount. d. None of the above e. Both B & C 63. The threshold limits for the Alerts are............................ a. Alert is sent for every transaction of Rs. 1000/-& above, through branch for pension accounts. b. Alert is sent for every transaction of Rs. 5000/- & above, through branch for all other accounts except pension accounts. c. Alert is sent for every transaction done through ADC, irrespective of amount for all accounts. d. Both B & C e. All A, B & C 64. Currently, Credit Card on SMS facility is available for ____________ a. Salary Account Holders b. Housing Loan customers
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c. FD Account Holders d. HNI Customers e. All of the above 65. The charges for Retail Internet Banking duplicate printed password (offline request through Branch/ ATM/ Contact Centre), are ____________ a. Rs 25/- + GST per event b. Rs 40/- + GST per event c. Rs 50/- + GST per event d. Rs 60/- + GST per event e. Rs 100/- + GST per event
61 b 62 d 63 e 64 b 65 c 66. The EMI offers on credit card transactions are valid for ________ a. Resident Indian citizens only and for transactions with in the territory of India. b. Any customer including NRIs for transactions with in the territory of India. c. Resident Indian citizens only for transactions with in or outside the territory of India. d. Any customer including NRIs for transactions with in or outside the territory of India. e. None of the above 67. The number of free ATM transactions in a month for our customers at PNB ATMs, is ________ a. 5 b. 3 in metro cities and 5 in other than metro c. 10 d. 20 e. No limit 68. RuPay Platinum Debit Card can be issued to ____________, who are maintaining _____________ QAB in their accounts. a. SF/CA holders, Rs. 1,00,000/- b. SF/CA holders, Rs. 50,000/- c. SF/CA holders, Rs. 25,000/- d. SF/CA holders, Rs. 20,000/- e. SF/CA holders, Rs. 15,000/- 69. Master Platinum Debit Card can be issued to ____________, who are maintaining _____________ QAB in their accounts. a. SF/CA holders, Rs. 1,00,000/- b. SF/CA holders, Rs. 50,000/- c. SF/CA holders, Rs. 25,000/- d. SF/CA holders, Rs. 20,000/- e. SF/CA holders, Rs. 15,000/- 70. Free Airport Lounge access is available on ________ a. RuPay Platinum Debit Card b. RuPay Select Debit Card c. Master International Card d. All of the above e. Both A & B
66 a 67 a 68 e 69 b 70 e
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71. How many security answers are required to be registered by Internet Banking Users for enhanced security of his/her IBS Account? a. 5 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 e. 10 72. What is the name of mobile app launched by PNB for Merchants? a. PNB BHARAT QR MERCHANT b. BHIM AADHAAR PNB c. PNB mBanking d. PNB Yuva Udyami e. Both 1 & 2 73. What is the URL for PNB Bharat Bill Payment System? a. www.bharatbillpay.in b. www.pnbbillpay.in c. www.pnbbharatbillpay.in d. www.bharatbillpay.pnb.in e. www.bharatpnbbillpay.in 74. How can a customer make payment by scanning merchant's Bharat QR Code? a. PNB One, by linking Debit Card b. BHIM PNB c. BHIM UPI of any Bank d. Any of the above modes e. Both A & B 75. What is the minimum age criteria for buying Fas Tag? a. 18 years b. 21 years c. 25 years d. 30 years e. No age criteria is defined
71 b 72 e 73 d 74 d 75 b 76. What is the applicable rule for performing transactions through Corporate Internet Banking? a. 1 Final Approver b. 1 Initiator + 1 Final Approver c. 1 Initiator + 1 Approver + 1 Final Approver d. Any of the above e. Both B & C 77. In Internet Banking (Corporate), customer can perform transactions by uploading bulk file. The format of bulk file is __________ a. Comma Separated Text file format b. Excel file format c. Word file format d. Both 2 & 3 e. Both 1 & 2
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78. What is the format of UPI PIN? a. 6 characters with a combination of alpha, number and special character b. 6 digits number c. 6 character with a combination of alpha and number d. 8 character with a combination of alpha and number e. 8 characters with a combination of alpha, number and special character 79. How many mobile numbers can be registered with one Corporate Customer ID? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 8 e. 10 80. Business Card can be issued in ________ type of account. a. CA b. CC c. OD d. SF e. CA, CC & OD
76 d 77 e 78 b 79 e 80 a 81. Minimum QAB criteria for issuance of Business Debit Card is ________ a. Rs. 10,000/- b. Rs. 50,000/- c. Rs. 1,00,000/- d. Rs. 2,00,000/- e. Rs. 2,50,000/- 82. What is the default User ID of ECS NACH Secured Portal? a. 6 digit Sol ID of the Branch b. 4 digit Sol ID of the branch c. BO followed by 6 digit Sol ID of the Branch e.g. BO111100 d. NACH followed by 6 digits sol ID of the branch e. BO followed by 4 digit Sol ID of the Branch e.g. BO1111 83. NACH Mandate can be cancelled by ___________ request of the customer. a. Sponsored Bank b. Destination Bank c. NPCI d. Either A or B e. Either A or C 84. How can a Retail Customer get his account balance without visiting the branch? a. by giving missed call on 1800 180 2223 b. By sending SMS BAL <Space> Account number to 5607040 c. by downloading PNB mPassbook mobile application d. All of the above e. Either A or C 85. Balance of which type of accounts can be viewed in PNB mPassbook? a. Saving and Current ONLY
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b. Saving, Current, RD, OD c. Saving, Current, CC, OD d. Saving, Current, OD e. All type of accounts
81 c 82 a 83 d 84 d 85 b 86. Which among the following is not a feature of PNB Corporate Internet Banking? a. Lodgement of Bills b. View Outward Bills c. View lodged Collections d. View Collections awaiting acceptance e. Both A & B 87. For e-CMS, a _______ digits customer code is allocated to the Customer. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. 10 88. The cust_id for opening of CMS Account is ___________ a. AFC007418 b. AFC007145 c. AFC007148 d. AFC007150 e. AFC007814 89. IMPS can be performed through ____________ a. ATMs b. Mobile Banking c. Branch d. Internet Banking e. All of the above 90. The handler "@pnb" in Virtual ID reflects that _________ a. User is maintaining account with PNB b. User is using BHIM PNB UPI app c. User has opted for remitting money to PNB account holders only d. Both A & B e. None of the above
86 a 87 d 88 c 89 e 90 b 91. Mudra Cards can be issued in the accounts opened with scheme code a. ODMUD b. CAMUD c. SFMUD d. CCMUD e. None of the above 92. PNB Uphaar Card is a … a. Personalized Card b. Non- Personalized Card
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c. Personalized as well as non-personalized d. Co-branded Card e. None of the above 93. For better customer service, PNB has launched ________________ mobile app wherein customer can lodge/ track the status of complaint. a. PNB Care b. PNB We Care c. PNB Customer Care d. PNB Assist e. None of the above 94. In terms of extant guidelines regarding ATM owners, who will be ATM owner in case of Onsite/ Lobby ATM? a. Second Man of the Branch b. Preferably IT Official/ any other officer if IT Officer is not posted in branch c. Second man or any other officer who is the joint custodian of the ATM d. Branch Incumbent e. None of the above 95. One of the prerequisite for becoming Tab User is that he / she must be __________ a. Having Tab in his/ her own name b. Posted at Circle Office c. GBPA Holder d. Posted at Back Office e. IT Officer
91 a 92 b 93 b 94 c 95 c 96. In Corporate Internet Banking, during the process of verification of “Automated Bulk File Upload”, the Checker can approve part file by selecting the records for approval & execution. a. TRUE b. FALSE 97. What are the charges for issuance of Add-on Debit Card? a. NIL b. Rs 50/- + GST c. Rs 75/- + GST d. Rs 100/- + GST e. Rs 150/- + GST 98. What are the charges for outward NACH Credit Transactions of Corporate Customers? a. Rs.5/- per record + charges payable to NPCI and Destination Banks subject to a minimum of Rs. 2000/- + GST b. Rs. 2/- per record subject to a minimum of Rs. 500/- + GST c. Rs.5/- per record + charges payable to NPCI and Destination Banks subject to a minimum of Rs. 500/- + GST d. Rs. 3/- per record subject to a minimum of Rs. 2000/- + GST e. Rs. 2/- per record subject to a minimum of Rs. 2000/- + GST 99. What are the charges for outward NACH Debit Transactions of Corporate Customers? a. Rs.3/- per record + charges payable to NPCI and Destination Banks subject to a minimum of Rs. 2000/- + GST
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b. Rs. 2/- per record subject to a minimum of Rs. 500/- + GST c. Rs.5/- per record + charges payable to NPCI and Destination Banks subject to a minimum of Rs. 500/- + GST d. Rs. 3/- per record subject to a minimum of Rs. 2000/- + GST e. Rs. 2/- per record subject to a minimum of Rs. 2000/- + GST 100. What are the charges for inward NACH mandate verification? a. Rs. 100/- + GST per mandate on acceptance b. Rs. 100/- + GST per mandate on presentation (whether accepted or rejected) c. Rs. 200/- + GST per mandate on acceptance d. Rs. 50/- + GST per mandate on acceptance e. Rs. 200/- + GST per mandate on presentation (whether accepted or rejected)
96 a 97 e 98 b 99 b 100 a 101. What are the charges for outward NACH mandate of Corporate customers? a. Rs. 50/- + GST per mandate on acceptance b. Rs. 100/- + GST per mandate on presentation (whether accepted or rejected) c. Rs. 100/- + GST per mandate on acceptance d. Rs. 200/- + GST per mandate on acceptance e. Rs. 100/- + GST per mandate on presentation (whether accepted or rejected) 102. What are the charges for Door step Banking services? a. Rs. 60/ - for Non-financial and Rs. 100/- for Financial Transaction b. Rs. 50/ - for Non-financial and Rs. 100/- for Financial Transaction c. Rs. 60/ - for Non-financial and Rs. 120/- for Financial Transaction d. Rs. 75/ - for Non-financial and Rs. 100/- for Financial Transaction e. Rs 50 per visit + cash handling charges + GST 103. What are the charges for issuance of prepaid cards? a. Rs. 10/- + GST b. Rs. 20/- + GST c. Rs. 25/- + GST d. Rs. 50/- + GST e. Nil 104. UPI payments can be made through _________ a. PNB Internet Banking b. PNB One c. BHIM PNB d. Both B & C e. All of the above 105. Both the custodians of the ATM have to physically check the cash while conducting ____________________________ activity a. ATMEOD b. DAYEND c. HSCOD d. ABH e. HSCOLD
101 a 102 a 103 d 104 e 105 A 106. Which out of the following is not a feature of Cash Deposit Machine?
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a. Can hold up to 2500 currency notes. b. Can accept currency notes of Rs. 100/-, Rs. 500/- and Rs. 2000/- c. can deposit up to 40 currency notes or Rs. 30,000/- in a single transaction d. Machine will accept cash even if the Journal Printer Roll is not functioning e. Both A & D 107. What is the Credit Card cash withdrawal limit in case of RuPay Select Credit Card? a. Maximum 20% of card credit limit b. Maximum 30% of card credit limit c. Maximum 40% of card credit limit d. Maximum 45% of card credit limit e. Maximum 50% of card credit limit 108. SMS Template for deactivation of Credit Card is __________ a. DEACT <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> b. DEACTIV <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> c. DEACTIVATE <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> d. DEACT <space> <last 4 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> e. DEACTIVE <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> 109. SMS Template for activation of Credit Card is __________ a. ACT <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> b. ACTIV <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> c. ACTIVATE <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> d. ACT <space> <last 4 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> e. ACTIVE <space> <last 6 digits of Card number> <space> <DOB in ddmmyyyy> 110. For getting Corporate Credit Card with Corporate liability, the corporate should ____________ a. be profit generating organizations at least for the three previous years and Should have minimum credit rating of A4 b. be profit generating organizations at least for the two previous years and Should have minimum credit rating of A4 c. be profit generating organizations at least for the three previous years and should have minimum credit rating of B 1 d. be profit generating organizations at least for the three previous years and should have minimum credit rating of B 2 e. be profit generating organizations at least for the three previous years and should have minimum credit rating of B
106 d 107 a 108 b 109 b 110 b 111. Which out of the following type of Credit Card transactions is/are not eligible for EMI? a. Cash withdrawal b. fuel c. gold jewellary d. All of the above e. Both A & B 112. What is the Credit Card Application form number for staff members (For Classic & Gold Cards)? a. PNB 1150 b. PNB 1151 c. PNB 1152 d. PNB 1153
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e. PNB 1154 113. What is the pre approved credit card limit for PNB Staff- SMG V? a. Rs. 1,75,000/- b. Rs. 2,00,000/- c. Rs. 2,50,000/- d. Rs. 3,00,000/- e. Rs. 3,50,000/- 114. What is the maximum per day transaction limit through PNB One? a. Rs. 50,000/- b. Rs. 1,00,000/- c. Rs. 2,00,000/- d. Rs. 5,00,000/- e. Rs. 10,00,000/- 115. The amount of Security deposit required to be deposited for getting FASTAG for a Car is ____________ a. Rs. 100/- b. Rs. 200/- c. Rs. 300/- d. Rs. 500/- e. Nil
111 d 112 c 113 e 114 e 115 b 116. What is the fee for replacement of a FasTag? a. Rs. 100/- b. Rs. 150/- c. Rs. 200/- d. Rs. 500/- e. Nil 117. What is the threshold deposit amount for buying FasTag for a Car? a. Rs. 100/- b. Rs. 200/- c. Rs. 300/- d. Rs. 500/- e. Nil 118. One FasTag can be used for more than one vehicles? a. TRUE b. FALSE 119. What is the monthly cap on Card to Card Fund Transfer at ATM? a. Rs. 25,000/- b. Rs. 50,000/- c. Rs. 60,000/- d. Rs. 1,00,000/- e. Rs. 1,25,000/- 120. What is per transaction limit for Card to Card Fund Transfer at ATM? a. Rs. 2,000/-
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b. Rs. 5,000/- c. Rs. 10,000/- d. Rs. 15,000/- e. Rs. 25,000/-
116 a 117 a 118 b 119 a 120 b 121. Which statement (s) is/are true in respect of Card to Card Fund transfer Facility? a. No prior registration is required to avail this service b. Instant fund transfer through debit card at member Banks’ ATMs c. Only domestic transactions are allowed d. All of the above e. Both A & B 122. Which menu option is used to block the debit card at branch level? a. HOTLIST b. SWCM c. BLOCKDC d. STOPCRD e. HOT 123. Debit Card _________ a. can be issued to Minor in Self Operated Account b. can be issued to Minor in Guardian Operated Account c. cannot be issued to Minor in Self Operated Account d. cannot be issued to Minor in Guardian Operated Account e. Both A & D 124. UPI stands for a. Unified Payment Interface b. United Payment Interface c. Unified Payment on Internet d. Universal Payment Interface e. None of the above 125. World Travel Card(WTC) is a a. Post paid Foreign Currency Card b. Pre paid Indian Currency Card c. Post paid Indian Currency Card d. Pre paid Foreign Currency Card e. None of the above
121 d 122 a 123 e 124 a 125 d 126. What type of debit card is issued to the customer in PNB Power Saving Account? a. Classic Debit Card b. Platinum Debit card c. As per the demand of customer d. As per the discretion of Branch Manager e. Business Debit Card 127. Corporate Customer visits the Branch for updation of Internet Banking limits of his C-user (other than Admin User), what is the process? a. Branch RM User will update the limits in Corporate Relationship Manager Link
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b. Branch will update the limit in ADCREQ c. Corporate admin will update the Corporate User's limit under his login d. C-User will increase his limit under his login, which will be approved by his Admin User. e. None of the above 128. IMPS is interbank fund transfer service, which is available 24*7*365. a. True b. FALSE 129. What is e-mail Bombing? a. Sending virus by Email b. Sending a forged Email c. Sending large number of mails resulting in crashing of mail server d. All of the above e. None of the above 130. What are the precautions, one must take at ATMs a. Cover your keyboard while entering PIN b. Review your statements c. Notify Bank if found some suspicious devices installed d. All of the above e. None of the above
126 b 127 d 128 a 129 c 130 d 131. What steps should we use to secure System Data? a. Take regular backup of important files b. Regularly download security patches for your Operation System Software c. Use secured WIFI Network d. All of the above e. None of the above 132. Key loggers may be used to collect a. Users Name and Passwords b. Credit Card Numbers c. Name and address of the person d. All of the above e. None of the above 133. Our passwords should be easy to remember but difficult to guess. So we should not set password as a. Spouse or Children Name b. Vehicle Number c. House Number d. Date of Birth e. All of the above 134. Vishing attacks are often run by the following a. Banks b. Insurance Companies c. Professional Crews d. Foreigners e. None of the above
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135. Vishing is a combination of a. Voice and Spoofing b. Voice and Spamming c. Voice and Phishing d. All of the above e. None of the above
131 d 132 d 133 e 134 c 135 c 136. By which Modus Operandi, Cyber Criminals convince customers to share their Customer ID, Password etc. a. Spamming b. Phishing c. Email Spoofing d. Data Diddling e. Skimming 137. Can we issue PMJDY Card to an illiterate customer in his/her SBBDA Account? a. Yes b. No 138. Through which out of the following channels, a customer can not get his debit card hot listed? a. Through Branch b. Through Retail Internet Banking c. Through Call Centre d. Through ATM e. Through SMS Banking 139. A mobile number registered with one Retail CIF ID cannot be registered with a Corporate CIF ID for SMS Alerts Services. a. TRUE b. FALSE 140. In a Sole Proprietorship Account, only one mobile number can be registered for SMS Alerts Services? a. TRUE b. FALSE
136 b 137 a 138 d 139 b 140 b 141. In PNB One, Pay-to-Contact option, amount can be transferred to _______ a. Any person having a valid Mobile Number b. Any Person having account with PNB c. Any Person, who has registered himself for receiving money through PNB One d. All the above e. None of the above 142. Maximum amount, that can be transferred in a day through PNB One> Pay-to-Contact option, is ______ a. Rs. 1000 b. Rs. 5000 c. Rs. 10000 d. Rs. 50000
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e. Rs. 1,00,000 143. Account Number once registered with PNB ONE for receiving money through Pay-to-Contact Feature can be changed subsequently by the receiver as per requirement. True or False? a. TRUE b. FALSE 144. Which of the following, is/ are a feature (s) of PNB One? a. Apply for a New Debit Card b. Update ATM/ Pos- E-Commerce Per day Transaction limit c. Hotlist Debit Card d. Debit Card On/Off e. All of the above 145. For which Account Types, e-Interest Certificate can be generated through PNB One? a. Home Loan Account b. Education Loan Account c. Term Deposit Account d. All Of the Above e. Both A & B
141 c 142 c 143 a 144 e 145 d 146. What is the password for viewing e-Certificate downloaded in the mobile through PNB One? a. Account Number b. PAN Number c. No Password is required d. Date Of Birth in DDMMYYYY format e. CIF ID of the Customer 147. Indo-Nepal Remittance facility is available in PNB, for which funds can be transferred using __________ of the beneficiary. a. National ID b. Account ID c. Either National ID or Account ID d. Both National ID and Account ID 148. What is the per day limit of Quick Transfers in PNB One? a. Rs. 5,000/- b. Rs. 10,000/- c. Rs. 50,000/- d. Rs. 1,00,000/- e. Rs. 10,00,000/- 149. For how much maximum amount, FD can be opened through PNB One? a. Rs. 2,00,000/- b. Rs. 10,00,000/- c. Rs. 99,99,999 d. Rs. 1,99,99,999 e. Unlimited 150. What is NCMC? a. National Common Mobility Card
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b. New Common Mobility Card c. National Common Mobile Card d. Nation Common Mobility Card e. None of the above
146 c 147 c 148 b 149 c 150 a 151. NCMC is a dual interface card, wherein PIN/Signature is not required for transactions valuing up to Rs. _____ with maximum cap of Rs. _______ a. 2000, 5000 b. 2000, 10000 c. 2000, 25000 d. 1000, 5000 e. 1000, 10000
151 b
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Quiz on Lockers 1. Death Claim form no. in case nominee is available in account or locker? a. PNB 831 b. PNB 57 c. PNB 59 d. PNB 46/47 e. None of these 2. If a Locker is operated by A, B, C with ‘Anyone or Survivor’ Clause. In the event of death of ‘B’, the account will be operated by a. A & C b. A, C & Nominee of B c. A, C & Legal Heirs of B d. Nominee e. Option B or C, as the case may be 3. A saving account was opened by A, B and C under joint operation. They nominated Mr. X. After death of B, Mr. X, nominee, claimed for the balance outstanding in account. Choose appropriate option. a. Amount will be paid to him as he is nominee and nominee's right arises after death of depositor. b. it will be dealt as a claim case in favor of surviving depositors, A and C. c. Surviving depositors A and C can continue operations of account. d. it will be dealt as a claim case in favor of surviving depositors, A and C and legal heirs of B. e. Branch Head discretion. 4. Articles were kept in safe custody with your branch by Sameer and Naresh under E/S operation. After death of Sameer, Naresh approaches you and requests for delivery of articles to him. Choose most appropriate option ? a. Articles will be delivered to Naresh as he is survivor b. Articles will be delivered to legal heirs of Sameer and Naresh, proportionately c. Articles will be delivered to Naresh and legal heirs of Sameer/Nominee, as the case may be d. Articles will be delivered to Nominee e. Articles will be delivered to Naresh and legal heirs of Sameer 5. For settlement of claim in favor of legal heirs, where value of the claim exceeds Rs 50000/-, document formalities required are (i) PNB 46/47 with annexed death certificate (ii) Indemnity Bond with surety (iii) Power of attorney or Request cum Relinquishment, as the case may be (iv) Receipt from claimant ? a. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) b. Ony (i) and (ii) c. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) d. Only (i) and (iv)
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e. All are required 1 a 2 a 3 d 4 e 5 e
6. In an HUF account having outstanding balance of more than Rs 1 lac, on death of Karta_______ a. Next Senior most member will be new Karta and can operate account. b. Next Senior most member will be new Karta and can operate account, after permission of Circle Head. c. Next Senior most member will be new Karta and can operate account, after permission of Zonal Head. d. The operation in HUF account be stopped and dealt as a claim case e. New Karta can operate after permission of Competent Court 7. The claimant(s) should be asked to submit claim form ________ duly filled in along with death certificate and other required documents, if claim is to be settled in favor of legal heir(s) on the basis of Probate ? a. PNB 831 b. PNB 57 c. PNB 59 d. PNB 46/47 e. PNB 816 8. What will be the status of the nominee after the death of depositor a. Legal Heir b. Owner of Funds c. Trustee of Legal heirs d. All the above. e. None of above 9. On the death of one of the joint hirers of a locker the contents of the locker are only allowed to be removed by a. Nominee b. Survivor c. Jointly by the nominee and the survivors after an inventory is taken d. a,b only e. At the discretion of the bank 10. In the case of a joint deposit account the nominee‟s right arises only after the death a. First account holder b. Second account holder c. All the depositors d. a,b only e. a, b, c only
6 d 7 d 8 c 9 c 10 c
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11. On the death of the locker hirer/safe custody, the account held singly with nomination the case will be settled by handing over the contents to the nominee with witness a. One witness b. Two witness c. No witness required d. None of these e. At the discretion of the bank 12. Premature termination of the Term Deposit Account in case of death of the account holder with nomination will be settled by payment to a. Nominee b. Legal heirs c. a,b only d. None of these e. At the discretion of the bank 13. Valuation for the purpose of exercising powers for sanction of claims in deposit accounts a. Balance Outstanding in SF/CA account b. Deposit Amount (excluding interest)in FD account c. Amount deposited till the date of claim excluding interest in RD Account d. a,b only e. a,b, c only 14. What is the limit for making payment to the legal heirs for obtaining Succession Certificate? a. Rs.5000 b. Rs.50000 c. Above Rs.50000 d. Rs.5 lakh e. No upper or lower limit 15. What is the treatment of pipeline inflows in the name of the deceased depositors a. You will credit the account b. You will not credit the account c. Amount will be kept in Sundry Ac for subsequent claim by survivor/Nominee d. To be returned to the remitter with a remark "Account holder deceased "and intimate the Survivor/ Nominee e. You will seek permission from Co
11 b 12 a 13 e 14 e 15 d 16. What is the maximum time limit for the banks to settle the claims in respect of a deceased depositors and release payments to the survivors/nominees : a. 7 days
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b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 30 days e. No time limit prescribed 17. As per BCSBI, maximum time-frame available for death claim settlement of deposits accounts (without nomination) is a. 10 Days b. 20 Days c. 15 Days d. 25 Days e. 1 month 18. After death of the lessee, operation of locker will be done by a. Authorized person b. Nominee c. As per court order d. All of the above. e. None of the above 19. Where claim is settled on the basis of Succession Certificate/ Letter of Administration/ Probate, indemnity/ surety need not be obtained. State this statement as True or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 20. When a NRI customer, having NRI/FCNR deposit dies, payment may be repatriated to Non Resident nominee a. By the deposit branch itself b. By the deposit branch after permission from Circle Office c. By the deposit branch after permission from Zonal Office d. By the deposit branch after permission from HO e. By the depositor branch after permission from RBI
16 c 17 e 18 e 19 a 20 e 21. The PoA executed abroad, should be attested by official authorized at ______ ? a. Competent Court of that country b. Ministry of External Affairs c. Indian Consulate or High Commission, as the case may be d. Notary Public e. None of the above 22. Which one is not primary legal heir of Hindu male ? a. Son
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b. Daughter c. Father d. Wife e. All are primary legal heirs 23. While settling claim of a person missing for last seven years or more, documents required are :- (i) A letter from the claimant stating all the factual details of the missing person along with declaration of legal heir(s) (ii) A copy of FIR lodged with the police in respect of the missing person and non-traceability final report of the police (iii) Claim form on PNB 46-47 duly filled in and signed (iv) Certified copy of the order / declaration of the competent court presuming such missing person to be dead (v) Indemnity Bond with surety(ies). a. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) is required b. Only (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) is required c. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) is required d. Only (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) is required e. All are required 24. Time Norms for settlement of claims pertaining to deceased customers are to be settled expeditiously and positively within ? a. Within a period not exceeding 15 days from the date of receipt of the completed claim form, in case of deposit accounts and lockers having nomination/survivorship mandate. b. Within a period not exceeding 30 days from the date of receipt of the completed claim form, in case of deposit accounts and lockers having nomination/survivorship mandate c. within one month from the date of receipt of the completed claim form, in case of deposit accounts and lockers without nomination/survivorship mandate. d. Both i & ii e. Both i & iii 25. For settlement of claims in a deposit account of a missing person, how many years one should wait if a person is not heard of alive or dead ? a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 12 years e. 30 years
21 c 22 c 23 e 24 e 25 c 26. Power delegated to Branch Manager/ Officer-in-charge of Branch/ Section to sanction payment of balance/ delivery/ release of the articles kept in safe custody/ locker to the nominee, on the basis of Nomination as recorded in the system/bank’s record ? a. Rs 1.00 Crore b. Rs 50.00 lacs c. Rs 6.00 lacs
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d. Rs 25.00 lacs e. Full Powers 27. Forms required for Settlement of claims in the absence of ‘Nomination’ and / or‘Survivorship’ mandate a. PNB -831 b. PNB 46-47 28. If all the legal heirs are not able to join for receiving the payment of the deposit /delivery of articles , such of them who cannot join, may execute…….in favour of one of the legal heirs / claimants a. Power of attorney b. Probate c. Succession certificate d. a,b ,c only e. a,b only 29. In case of Joint account/s with survivorship clause, after death of one of the account holders, payment has to be made a. Nominees b. Only one Nominee c. Survivor and the Legal Heir d. Either to Nominee or to Legal Heir e. Survivor(s) 30. In respect of claims up to the value of Rs.2.00 lac, in place of Power of Attorney, a................. , duly notarized/attested, may be executed by the legal heirs in favour of one of the major legal heirs authorizing him/her to lodge claim,execute documents, receive claim amount a. Will b. Letter of Consent-cum-Relinquishment c. Probate d. Succession certificate e. a,b only
26 e 27 b 28 a 29 e 30 b 31. Nominee should fill up claim format for establishing his identity, duly certified by a. Magistrate of judicial officer b. An officer of central or state govt. or bank officer c. Two reputed persons acceptable to the bank d. a,b only e. any one of a,b or c 32. Payment may be made to the legal heirs of the deceased customer, after relying on the declaration made in the claim form, in case the amount does not exceed
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a. Rs.5000 b. Rs.10000 c. Rs.25000 d. Rs50000 e. Rs. 5 lakh 33. Succession Certificate is to be obtained when the balacne in the account is a. Rs.5000 b. Rs.50000 c. Rs5 lakh d. Rs.10 Crore e. Not mandatory unless there is a dispute 34. Mr. Ram and Shyam has a fixed deposit of Rs 20.00 lacs in your branch under E/S mode of operation. One of the depositor Mr. Shyam expires before maturity of FD. Survivor Mr. Ram approaches the branch and asks for premature withdrawal of FD. Choose most appropriate option given below ? a. Amount is to be paid to Ram as mode of operation is E/S and he is survivor. b. Can be paid to Ram with consent of Nominee/legal heirs of Shyam, as the case may be. c. Can be paid to Ram as per terms of contract. d. Premature withdrawal by survivor is not allowed. e. None of the above 35. Mr. Harish Singh died leaving behind his wife, two sons and one married daughter as primary legal heirs. He has total deposit of Rs 50.00 lacs with your branch. All legal heirs approach the branch for claim settlement in his/her favour. Whether succession certificate is required for settlement of claim as claim amount is more than Rs. 20 lac. a. Yes b. No
31 e 32 a 33 e 34 c 35 a 36. In case of death of minor who maintains a self operated saving account, balance in the account will be payable to..!! Choose most appropriate option. a. Nominee b. Guardian c. Executor d. Authorises person e. Person appointed by Court 37. Banks can not provide nomination facility for a. Jointly operated deposit accounts b. Singly operated safe custody of articles c. Joint Locker account with Eor S
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d. Joint Locker account e. Propreitory Concern account 38. Nomination can be made in favour of a. a company b. firm / HUF, association trust, etc c. Trust d. Individual only e. Any of above 39. Can nomination be done in favour of Entities in deposit accounts ? a. Yes b. RBI permission c. GOI permission d. Not at all, only individual e. None of these 40. Can nomination be done in favour of person other than blood relation a. No b. Only Mother c. Only children d. Only spouse e. Yes any individual
36 b 37 c 38 d 39 d 40 e 41. Nomination is permissible in favour of_______ a. Trust b. HUF c. Company d. Firm e. Minor 42. Forms specified for availing , Cancellation & Variation of nomination in Locker Facility in Single Name- a. PNB 821A, PNB 821C, 821D b. PNB 821A, PNB 821B, 821C c. SC-1, SC-2, SC-3 d. SL-1, SL-2, SL-3 e. Both 1 & 4 43. Legal heirs of Ramesh, a locker holder of your branch, who had nominated Suresh as his nominee, threaten to file a suit for damages against the bank for allowing liberty to remove articles to Suresh. Choose the best option out of the following relevant to this case ?
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a. Bank can be liable for damages and should try for compromise. b. Bank should not allow nominee to remove articles c. Bank need not to bother about the notice since as per BR Act, 1949 only court or other competent authority is empowered to prohibit payment to nominee d. Both (a) and (b) e. None of the above 44. what is false in terms of nomination in locker accounts a. Nomination can be made in favour of one individual only in case of sole hirer of a locker b. Where two or more individuals hire the safety locker jointly, nomination can be made in favour of one or more persons c. In case of jointly hired lockers IBA suggests for maximum two nominees d. Association, Trust, Society can be nominee e. none of the these 45. As per RBI direction, name of nominee can be written on Passbook/Statement a. No permission from Account holder required b. If account holder agrees in writing c. Permission from nominee is required d. If customer does not agree, to be reported to RBI e. 2 & 3
41 e 42 e 43 c 44 d 45 b 46. Our Bank provide nomination facility for a. Jointly operated deposit accounts b. Joint account with E/S mandate of operation c. Joint account with F/S mandate of operation d. All the above. e. None of above 47. PNB can provide nomination facility for - a. Deposit accounts b. Safe custody of article c. Safe custody of Locker d. CC and OD accounts e. 1,2 & 3 only 48. Form specified for nomination in deposit account - a. PNB 819 A/DA-1 b. PNB 819 B/DA-2 c. PNB 819 C/DA-3 d. PNB 819 D/DA-4 e. None of above
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49. If a depositor wants to cancel or change nomination prior to the maturity of the fixed deposit, the same is: a. Permitted b. He may do so only at the time of renewal c. He may break the FD prematurely and make fresh with new/without nomination d. Allowed with CH permission e. Not allowed as RBI prohibits the same 50. In which of the following deposit account nomination facility is not available- a. Minor a/c Guardian operated b. Minor a/c- self operated c. An account of a major person with Autism, Cerebral palsy, mental retardedness. d. ALL OF THE ABOVE e. 2 & 3
46 d 47 e 48 a 49 a 50 e 51. More than one nomination is acceptable in a. Saving accounts operated by two or more persons b. Current accounts operated by two or more persons c. Fixed Deposit accounts operated by two or more persons d. Lockers hired by two or more persons jointly under joint operation e. None of above 52. Nomination facilities in banking were brought into force with effect from- a. 29th March 1983 b. 29th March 1984 c. 29th March 1985 d. 29th March 1986 e. Ab initio 53. RBI advised that banks should insist customer while opening an account to make nomination. If he denies to do so - a. bank should obtain declaration from him to this effect. b. If he declines to give such letter , the bank should record this fact on AOF and open account c. bank should report to RBI d. Bank should not open the account e. Both I & II 54. Signature on Nomination form is to be attested by __ witness/s if the customer is illetrate. a. One b. Two c. Not Required
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d. By one Relative e. Nominee himself 55. Signature on Nomination form of a literate person, is to be attested by __ witness/s a. One b. Two c. Not Required d. Relative e. nominnee hemself
51 d 52 c 53 e 54 b 55 c 56. Where a minor delivers the goods for safe custody, the nomination will be made by _________ a. Minor himself b. Minor with guardian jointly c. Nomination facilty not available d. his lawful guardian e. None of above 57. Which Act governs the rules related to Nomination in Deposit accounts, safe custody and safe deposit vaults a. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 b. Reserve Bank Of India Act, 1934 c. Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 d. The Bankers Books Evidence Act 1891 e. Companies Act, 2013 58. Which of the following sections relate to nomination rules a. 45ZA & 45ZB b. 45ZC & 45ZD c. 45ZE TO 45ZF d. ALL OF THE ABOVE e. NONE OF THE ABOVE 59. In case of safe custody of articles, nomination is available when the account is held a. Individually b. Jointly c. E/S d. F/S e. a, b only 60. Nomination facility is available in respect of lockers hired a. Singly b. Jointly, under joint operation
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c. E/S d. F/S e. a, b only
56 d 57 a 58 d 59 a 60 e 61. According to Banking Companies Nomination Rules 1985, nomination in favour of a non resident person: a. is allowed with RBI permission b. is not allowed c. is allowed d. a and c 62. Which of the following can not be appointed as a nominee: a. minor aged 5 years b. an insolvent person c. an NRI living in UK d. a Trust 63. Whether nomination can be done in favour of Minor__ a. Yes authorised person to be there b. Not at all c. Only if ratified by guardian d. Illterate 8 yrs e. Literate 15 yrs 64. Nomination facility is not available in a. Trust a/c b. Safe Custody a/c (Individual) c. Safe deposit vault d. Safe custody articles a/c (Joint capacity) e. both (a) & (d) 65. AS PER LATEST GUIDELINES, SETTLEMENT OF DECEASED CLAIMS SHALL BE BASED ON NOMINATIONS MADE IN a. AS PER CBS SYSTEM b. AS PER A.O.F c. AS DISCLOSED BY LEGAL HEIRS d. AS PER CLAIMANT e. NONE
61 c 62 d 63 a 64 e 65 b 66. Under Capital Gains Scheme 1988, there can be two accounts, one SF and one Term Deposit. Specify the maximum number of nominations that can be made under both these accounts
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a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. None of the above 67. Banks can provide nomination facility for - a. Jewel Loan b. Cash Credit c. Term Loan d. ALL OF THE ABOVE e. NONE OF THE ABOVE 68. Which among these is not correct a. nomination is carried out at Cust Id level b. nomination is carried out at Account level c. When a Deposit account is renewed, Fresh nomination is not required d. A person may appoint different nominee for all his deposit accounts e. none of these 69. Who among these can be a nominee in Deposit accounts a. a Minor b. a company c. a Lunatic Person d. a Trust e. None of the above 70. Nomination can be changed in deposit account through Form _______ by paying fee of Rs._____ a. PNB 819 B/DA-2, Nil b. PNB 819 B/DA-2, 100+ GST c. PNB 819 C/DA-3, Nil d. PNB 819 C/DA-3, 100+ GST e. PNB 819 A/DA-1, Nil
66 c 67 e 68 a 69 a 70 d 71. Where the style of the account is changed, or some addition/deletion in the name of depositors is made, the nomination____ a. Remain same as earlier. b. Stands cancel 72. Forms specified for availing , Cancellation & Variation of nomination for articles kept under safe custody respectively - a. PNB 820A, PNB 820B, 820C
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b. PNB 819A, PNB 819B, 819C c. DA1, DA2, DA3 d. SC-1, SC-2, SC-3 e. Both 1 & 4 73. If a Fixed deposit is opened in bank with the Joint Name of A & B, with E/S mandate to operate the account, then nominee shall be appointed as- a. ONE nominee shall be appointed by A & B jointly b. ONE nominee shall be appointed by A being the primary account holder c. ONE nominee each by A & B, i.e. maximum 2 d. NO nominee e. Two Oor more nominees may be appointed. 74. Nomination is accepted in current accounts a. In case of sole proprietorship firms or individuals onlyy. b. No nomination in current accounts c. Yes, in all Current accounts,as per Banking Regulation Act 1949 section 45ZA nomination is accepted in all deposit accounts, d. as per incumbent's descretion 75. Sec 45Z (A) of BR Act, 1949 relates to ? a. Preservation of bank records b. Nomination in deposit accounts c. nomination in locker d. payment of interest on eligbile cash balances by RBI e. Both b and c above
71 b 72 e 73 a 74 a 75 b 76. A depositor has exercised nomination in favor of his minor son. He will be required to a. appoint some major person as his nominee in place of minor b. appoint some major person as his second nominee c. appoint a major person as guardian to receive payment on behalf minor in the event of death of deposior d. furnish indemnity discharging the bank from all liability on behalf of minor in case of death of depositor e. None of these 77. A deposit was accepted on 12.07.2014 for 3 years. Nomination was exercised by the depositor. The depsoit was renewed on 12.07.2017 but fresh nomination was not exercised. Out of the following choose the relevant option. a. Nomination exercised earlier will remain in force. b. Nomination exercised earlier stands revoked automatically. c. Nomination exercised earlier can remain in force only if the depositor dies intestate.
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d. In the event of depositor's death, only legal heirs will be entitled to payment. e. None of these 78. In case of death of depositor who has exrcised nomination, bank gets valid discharge by payment to: a. the nominee b. nominee and legal heirs jointly c. legal heirs only d. competent court of law e. none of these. 79. A locker is let out to two persons jointly. They can appoint: a. One nominee b. no nominee as nomination is allowed only in deposit accounts c. one or Joint nominees d. Depends on banks discretion. e. none of these 80. A locker is let out to two persons with instructions 'either or survivor'. In this case: a. these can be no nomination as nomination is allowed in deposit accounts only. b. there can be two or three nominations c. there can be only one nominee d. nomination can't be allowed as instructions are 'either or survivor' e. none of these
76 c 77 a 78 a 79 c 80 d 81. A locker is let out to two persons wth instructions 'to be operated jointly'.in this case: a. nomination is not allowed as it is not a deposit account b. there can be maximum two nominee c. there can be more than one nominee d. there can be only one nominee e. nomination is not allowed as locker is operated jointly. 82. In a time deposit account. The nominee requests the bank for premature payment of the deposit after depositor's death. In tis case the bank: a. cannot do so as the legal heirs of depositor may challege the payment subsequently. b. may allow payment as after death of the depositor, the nominee is entitled to seek premature payment. c. should not accede to his request as he can claim payment only at maturity d. may allow his payment jointly with legal heirs of depositor e. none of these.
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83. One of the literate depostors of your branch who exercised nomination in his account has desired that name of the nomination be indicated in the deposit receipt. In this case the branch: a. should get the fact witnessed by two independent persons b. should not accede to his request as the same tantamounts to bank defiling the sanctity of nominatiom by disclosing it c. should ensure that the fact is brought to the notice of his legal heirs. d. should get the fact verified by notary public e. none of these. 84. Your branch paid a sum of Rs. 94,100/- along with up to date interest to the nominee of a depositor after proper identification and after observing usual formalities on 09.07.2017 and on 25.07.2017 you receive a notice from legal heirs of deceased depositor that the payment has been wrongly made and that the nominee being a distant relation of the deceased was not entitled to the amount and claimed damages from the bank. In this case, the bank: a. should write to the nominee fro efund and payment to legal heeirs b. is discharged in full after making payment to the nominee and claim of legal heirs against the bank as well as the nominee is not admissible. c. is discharged in full in repect of its liability for the deposit though the claim of legal heirs against the nominee may be admissible in the court. d. has acted negligently by not getting 'NOC' from the legal heirs before payment to the nominee e. none of these. 85. Your branch has received cetain debenture certificates of the company from Mohan for safe custody. You receive a legal notice from nagesh, an advocate stating that the debeture certificates were fraudulently got transferred by Mohan and that Paras who is his client is true owner of the same. Nagesh has desired that the certificates be not delivered without his consent to Mohan. Under the circumstatnces bank should: a. not take any congnizance of the notice as it is not bound by it. b. write back to nagesh that no notice of claim of any person other tham the person in whome name articles held in safe custody is receivable and bank is not bound by such notice c. advice Nagesh that he may aapouch the court and give his 30 days time to do so d. Inform Nagesh that no notice of claim of any person other than lodger of the articles is receivable and show our inablility to help his unless ne obtains an roder from a court of competetnt jurisdiction subject to bank being not liable if called upon to return the articles in the meantime. e. either (b) or (d)
81 c 82 b 83 e 84 c 85 a 86. While allowing access to an nomnee of locker holder and preparing inventory, the branch fins amoung other things a sealed packet. Branch should: a. tear it open and specifically mention the particulars of the article it contained in the inventory. b. mention it as sealed packet in the inventory and deliver it after observing usual formalities c. not deliver it to noinee as only legal heirs are entitled to it. d. none of these.
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87. Mr Dilip, the nominee of deeceased FD account holder Pratap, applies to the bank for a loan as he is interested to continue with the deposit till its maturity. a. Loan can be given as Mr Dilip is the nominee. b. Loan can be given with the consent of legal heirs of Pratap c. Loan can not be given. d. Depends on Banks discretion if the deposit scheme permits. e. Can be given with approval of Circle Head 88. Mr Basistha wants to give nomination to his wife for his pension account alongwith the life time arrear due in pension. a. It is already covered with the nomination of the account through which pension is drawn from the bank. b. Bank can accept the nomination seperately for the life time arrear payable c. It can not be accepted. d. Seperate affidavit signed by ist calss Magistrate will be required. 89. For settlement of claims of deceased locker holders without nomination a. Succession certificate is required b. Succession certificate is not required c. Letter of administration from Court is required d. Both b and c are correct e. All legal heirs must be present in the Bank to receive the contents. 90. No court order as "presumed to be dead" is required for missiong persons account if balance is upto a. Rs 2.5 lac b. Rs 3.0 lac c. Rs 5.0 lac d. Rs 1.25 lac
85 b 86 c 87 c 89 d 90 c 91. In case of death of one of the two joint locker holders with nomination , the contents will be released to a. Survivor with the legal heirs of the deceased b. Survivor with the nominee c. Will wait for a Court order d. Survovor and Legal heirs of the deceased 92. Succession certificate, letter of administration, Probate is required to be a. Verified from Court records by the Br incumbent only b. Verified from Court and if found not genuine , ignore the same c. Verified and if found not genuine, file FIR with local police.
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d. No need for further verification but original copy to be kept as record in Br. 93. Who is not eligible to open locker account? a. Literate Blind b. Minor c. Illeterate d. Illiterate Blind e. All of these 94. What is relation between the Banker and the Customer when a locker hired by the bank? a. Assignor & Assignee b. Creditor & Debtor c. Lessor & Lessee d. Bailer & Bailee e. Trustee & Principal 95. What is the registration charge applicable for hiring a locker in Rural / Semi Urban Area? a. Rs.100 b. Rs.200 c. Rs.300 d. Rs.500 e. Registration charges not applicable
91 b 92 c 93 b 94 c 95 b 96. What is the registration charge applicable for hiring a locker in Urban / Metro Area? a. Rs.100 b. Rs.200 c. Rs.300 d. Rs.500 e. Registration charges not applicable 97. Menu Shortcut for operation of the locker in Finacle 10 is a. HLKTRM b. HLKCPM c. HLKKM d. HLKCM e. HLKOPS 98. Menu Shortcut for issuance of new locker in Finacle 10 is… a. HLKTRM b. HLKCPM c. HLKKM d. HLKCM
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e. HLKOPS 99. Menu Shortcut for surrender of Locker in Finacle 10 is …. a. HLKTRM b. HLKCPM c. HLKREPM d. HLKCM e. HLKOPS 100. Discretion of the Circle Head for waiver of One Time Registration charges of Locker for Rural / Semi Urban Branches is a. 25% of Registration Charges b. 50% of Registration Charges c. 75% of Registration Charges d. Full e. No discretion for waiver
96 d 97 e 98 d 99 c 100 d 101. Break open of locker must be done in presence of a. Branch Incubent b. Branch incubent with one independent witness c. Branch incubent with two independent witnesses d. Option 1 or 2 e. None of these 102. Charges applicable for break open of locker in case of loss of key a. Service charge of Rs.1,000 plus GST b. Service charge of Rs.500 plus GST c. Service Charge of Rs.2,000 plus GST and additional charges of the manufacturer for change of keys d. Service Charge of Rs.5,000 plus GST and additional charges of the manufacturer for change of keys e. Service Charge of Rs.1,000 plus GST and additional charges of the manufacturer for change of keys 103. Which of the articles found in event of break open of locker in case of default in payment of locker are not eligible for realisation of bank dues from their value? a. Cash b. Our Banks Term Deposits held in the same capacity c. Jewellery d. Bullion e. Title Deeds of House Property 104. If nothing found on the break open of locker, the recovery of rent and break open and replacement of lock charges, the powers to waive lies with officer a. Scale I and above
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b. Scale II and above c. Scale III and above d. Scale IV and above e. None of these 105. In case of deposit of articles in safe custody, acceptance of nomination, subsequent cancellation or variation of nomination will be taken on the prescribed format are a. SL-1, SL-2 and SL-3 respectively b. DA-1, DA-2 and DA-3 respectively c. SC-1, SC-2 and SC-3 respectively d. Any one of these e. None of these
101 c 102 e 103 e 104 d 105 c 106. Which type of fixed deposit covering 3 years rent and break open charges be taken for hiring locker? a. Sugam Fixed Deposit b. Multibenefit Fixed Deposit c. Varshik Aay Yojana d. Any one of these e. None of these 107. Who is the authority to permit break open the locker in case of Small and Medium Branches? a. Branch Incubent b. Committee of Branch incubent and 2nd man in the branch c. Circle Head d. Zonal Head e. Head Office 108. Who are the two independent witness at the time of break open of locker along with the branch incubent? a. A staff of the branch & a customer b. An Award Staff and Officer of the Branch c. Two customers d. An Advocate and a Staff of the branch e. An advocate and customer or a person known to the bank 109. A nominal fee payable to an Advocate in witnessing break open of a single locker is a. Rs.100 b. Rs.200 c. Rs.300 d. Rs.500 e. At a negotiated fee
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110. Which Fixed Deposit is preferable out of three fixed deposits, namely - Sugam Fixed Deposit, Multi Benefit Fixed Deposit, Varshik Aay Yojna? a. Sugam Fixed Deposit b. Multibenefit Fixed Deposit c. Varshik Aay Yojana d. Any one of these e. None of these
106 d 107 c 108 e 109 b 110 a 111. How many witnesses maximum taken while opening Locker account of the person visually impaired? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four e. None 112. In which case, the branch Incubent may waive outstanding dues of locker rent by accepting Rs.100 only? a. Where locker rent is outstanding for more than 3 years b. Where the locker is empty c. Where locker being surrendered d. Where there is no security deposit or balance available in the relative deposit account e. If all of the conditions stated in option 1, 2 and 3 are fulfilled 113. If a locker is issued on 01.01.2020, what will be the due date of the locker? a. 31.12.2020 b. 01.12.2020 c. 01.01.2021 d. 31.01.2021 e. 01.02.2021 114. What is security deposit for small size locker? a. 10000 b. 15000 c. 20000 d. 30000 e. 40000 115. In which city Premium Locker Rent of 25% applicable? a. Kolkata b. Delhi
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c. Mumbai d. Chennai e. All of these
111 c 112 e 113 e 114 a 115 e 116. Succession Certificate requirement in respect of claim to Locker is a. If worth of valuables are above Rs.5 lac b. succession certificate should not be asked for as it is not a debt. c. If worth of valuables are above Rs.10 lac d. If worth of valuables are above Rs.15 lac e. What ever may be the value of valuables 117. What percentage of lockers should be allotted on first-cum-first served basis by the branches? a. 1 b. 0.9 c. 0.8 d. 0.75 e. 0.7 118. What percentage of lockers can be allotted by the branch manager at their discretion to valued customers on business considerations? a. 0.05 b. 0.1 c. 0.15 d. 0.2 e. 0.25 119. Menu Shortcut for recovery of locker rent in Finacle 10 is a. HTM b. Standing Instruction c. HLKRCM d. HLKRRBAT e. Option 3 or 4 120. In which form a Preliminary reminder is to be sent for default of locker rent? a. PNB 86 b. PNB 87 c. PNB 821 A d. PNB 821 B e. PNB 821 C
116 b 117 c 118 d 119
120 a 121. In which form a secondary reminder is to be sent for default of locker rent?
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a. PNB 86 b. PNB 87 c. PNB 821 A d. PNB 821 B e. PNB 89 122. In which form a final notice is to be sent for default of locker rent? a. PNB 86 b. PNB 87 c. PNB 821 A d. PNB 821 B e. PNB 89 123. How many days after the final notice for payment of locker rent, break open permission to be obtained by the small and medium branches from Circle Office? a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 21 days d. 30 days e. 45 days 124. What is the amount of additional charges to be taken besides the cost of lock and mechanic charges for break open of a locker? a. Rs.25 b. Rs.50 c. Rs.75 d. Rs.100 e. Rs.200 125. Penalty for delayed payment of locker rent for 1st quarter is __ a. 5% of Annual Rent b. 10% of Annual Rent c. 25% of Annual Rent d. 40% of Annual Rent e. 50% of Annual Rent
121 b 122 e 123 d 124 a 125 b 126. Who is empowered for remission of arrears of locker rent? a. Scale I and above b. Scale II and above c. Scale III Officer and above d. Scale IV and above e. None of these
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127. Which is the locker surrender form? a. PNB 86 b. PNB 87 c. PNB 91 d. PNB 821 B e. PNB 89 128. A customer whose annual rent was due on 25th of October, his rent was deducted on 1st of October. He approaches to surrender the locker on 15th October, and asks to refund the rent. a. Branch may refuse to refund as appropriation of GST on locker rent is not possible b. Branch may refund @75% of pro-rata rent for unavailed period of lease worked out on half yearly basis. c. Branch may refund the rent excluding GST amount d. Branch may refund 100% rent along with 100 % GST. e. Branch may refund the remaining 11 months proportionate amount of rent and GST. 129. A person desirous to have a locker with PNB branch a. May visit the branch and ask for the locker availability b. Must have a CA/SF account with our bank c. May visit our website www.pnbindia.in and search for vacant locker by clicking on <BOOK YOUR LOCKER – ANYWHERE IN INDIA> and check up the availability of vacant lockers d. 1 & 2 e. 1,2 & 3 130. At least one locker in every cabinet is left vacant because a. For Bank's use only b. to provide to VIP customers only c. Whenever a locker is surrendered, lock of such locker is interchanged, immediately with that fixed to another vacant locker or replaced by a lock from the reserve supply d. For keeping the keys of the branch e. 3 & 4
126 d 127 d 128 d 129 e 130 c 131. Can more than one locker be allotted to a customer a. No b. yes, but in different branches c. Yes, for genuine requirements, incumbment may allow for second locker d. Yes but CH is authorised, if customer genuinely requires more than two lockers e. 3 & 4 132. CBS Menu for locker operations Maintenance is a. HLKOPR
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b. HLKOPS c. HLKRCM d. HLKPMS e. HLKCPM 133. Concession avaliable for regular Housing Loan Customers on availing locker facility a. 50% waivement of security deposit b. A concession/ Discount of 20% is allowed in respect of all sized lockers c. A concession/ Discount of 20% is allowed in respect of small lockers d. A concession/ Discount of 50% is allowed in respect of small lockers e. A concession/ Discount of 50% is allowed in respect of all sized lockers 134. Concession in locker rent is provided to Staff and Ex-staff(honorably retired from the bank) for a. Small lockers only b. One locker of any type c. Any number and all sizes of lockers d. One small locker e. Two lockers, one must be small 135. If claim in respect of contents of locker is to be settled on the basis of legally established title, the claimant be advised to bring _________ from the competent court ? a. Letter of administration b. Succession Certificate c. Probate d. Court orders appointing receivers e. Will
131 e 132 b 133 a 134 b 135 a 136. If locker rent is paid in advance for a period of five years in lump sum a. A concession/ Discount of 50% is allowed in respect of all sized lockers b. A concession/ Discount of 20% is allowed in respect of all sized lockers c. A concession/ Discount of 20% is allowed in respect of small lockers d. A concession/ Discount of 50% is allowed in respect of small lockers e. No discount permissible 137. In absence of rent recovery the locker must be break open only in the presence of a. Incumbent Incharge or any designated Scale III and above officer in ELBs/VLBs b. An advocate and a customer/ a person known to bank c. The Locker Hirer d. all of the above e. 1 & 2 138. Inventory of the locker contents
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a. is prepared in case of claim to nominee b. is prepared in case of claims of legal heirs c. is prepared in case of claim to survivor d. be prepared in presence of two independent witnesses e. all of these 139. Is bank entitled to recover due locker rent from the locker contents after breaking open it without customer's consent. a. No , as in case of safe deposit vaults the relation between bank and customer is that of landlord and tenant, bank has no right over the locker content b. Bank may seek prior permission from the customer c. One of the conditions in Rent Deed Memorandum provides that the Bank shall have the first lien or charge on the contents of a locker for realization of all rents and charges thereon. d. Circle Head is the competent authority to break e. 2 & 4 both conditions should be satisfied 140. Locker Rent for small and extra large locker in Metro Areas is:- a. 800; 6000 b. 1500; 6000 c. 1500; 10000 d. 800; 10000 e. 1500; 80000
136 b 137 e 138 e 139 c 140 c 141. Locker rent is recovered, in advance on the first day of the month where rent is due during the month, A customer whose rent is deducted in June approaches to surrender the locker in September and demands for the refund of rent paid for the remaining period. a. Branch may refuse to refund as appropriation of GST on locker rent is not possible b. Branch may refund @75% of pro-rata rent for unavailed period of lease worked out on half yearly basis. c. Branch may refund 100 % pro-rata rent for unavailed period of lease excluding GST amount d. Branch may refund 100% rent along with GST for the unavailed portion e. Branch may refund 50 % rent along with GST for the unavailed portion 142. LOCKER ROOM must be eqipped with a. fire alarm b. PIR Sensor c. camera d. all of the above e. any of these 143. Lockers cabinets are available in 11 different sizes, broadly categorized into and as a. small medium & large
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b. small, medium, large & extra large c. small & large d. small, medium, large, very large & extra large e. only one size 144. Number of free visits to operate locker in a year a. 12 b. 10 c. 24 d. 15 e. Maximum 4 per month 145. Charges applicable for operation of locker beyon 15 visits per year is a. Rs.100 b. Rs.200 c. Rs.300 d. Rs.400 e. Rs.500
141 b 142 d 143 b 144 d 145 a 146. One time registration charges for lockers a. Nil for staff & ex staff members b. Rs. 200 for Rural & SU areas c. Rs. 500 for Urban & Metro area d. 1,2 & 3 e. none of the these 147. The facility of locker may be provided to the visually impaired person. which is not correct? a. Jointly and with a person without any visual impairment known / related to him / her with joint operations. b. Jointly and with a person without any visual impairment known / related to him / her with E/S operations c. Singly but operations by an authorised person who is literate with no visual impairment d. Singly but operation of such locker shall be permitted in the presence of one designated literate witness with no visual impairment e. 2 & 4 148. The locker is hired in the names of P & Q operated jointly. How many max. No. of Nominees can be there. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
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e. No nomination is allowed in jointlyi operated Lockers 149. When a locker is let out to more than one lessee a. It should be operated jointly only b. each one of the joint lessees has the right of separate access to it c. each of such joint lessees shall have the right and authority to surrender that locker and terminate the lease, unless otherwise specifically provided d. 2 & 3 e. 1 & 3 150. Whenever a locker is rented, a prescribed Fixed Deposit be taken from the customer, what is correct with respect to this FD a. The amount of the FD would cover rent for three years b. The amount of the FD would cover charges for break open c. the FD shall be lien marked d. 1 & 2 together e. 1,2 & 3 together
146 d 147 b 148 b 149 d 150 e 151. Whenever a locker is rented, prescribed fixed deposit for the amount, which would cover 3 years rent and charges for break open of the locker, under the scheme VAY/MBTD be taken and kept under Bank’s lien a. Branch Head may waive this condition for HNI customers b. Branch Head may waive this condition on very selective basis c. In case of highly placed Government official and respectable clients, the afore said condition may be relaxed by Incumbent of the branch. d. No one can waive e. Only HO RBD is empowered to waive 152. Which among these is correct in relation to operation of a locker a. a High risk locker hirer should operate locker at least once in two years b. a medium risk locker hirer should operate locker at least once in three years c. a Low risk locker hirer should operate locker at least one in three years d. all of the above e. none of the these 153. ABC has hired a locker and appointed an Agent /Authorised person to operate the locker.ABC has been reported dead.Agent /Authorised person want to operate the locker.Examine the status of the event. a. Allow to operate the locker b. The authority in favour of an Agent/an Authorised Person, ceases with the death of the principal c. Authorised Person must not be allowed to operate the locker, after the death of the lessee d. Both b and c
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e. None of these 154. The operative timings of locker should end before the close of office hours a. 1 hr b. 30 mts c. 2 hrs d. 3 hrs e. No such stipulation 155. In case of Locker the relationship between bank and customer can be broadly defined as Landlord and Tenant. Hence in case of destruction/loss of contents in safe deposit lockers a. Bank is liable b. Bank is not liable c. Bank is partially liable d. All of the above. e. None of the above.
151 c 152 b 153 d 154 b 155 b 156. Prescribed format for locker “Rent Deed Memorandum” is a. PNB 80 b. PNB-95 c. PNB 86 d. PNB 90 e. PNB 88 157. When it comes to the notice of bank about the demise of lessees a. Death report of a lessee will be noted boldly in red ink in Rent Deed Memorandum and will be entered in the CBS system b. lockers must be immediately sealed c. blank red slip may be pasted on the locker d. 1, 2 & 3 when death certificate is received e. 1, 2 & 3 even prior to receipt of death certificate 158. The visually impaired lessee may designate ____________at the time of executing the Rent Deed Memorandum. a. one witness b. Two witness c. maximum three witnesses d. leased out only jointly with a person other than visually impaired person e. lockers are not leased out to Visually Impaired customers 159. Customers be advised to a. not use their own padlocks on lockers
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b. operate locker once in two years in case of High Risk lockers c. use their own padlocks also for additional safety of the locker d. 1 & 2 e. 2 & 3 160. The Custodian must a. carefully examine that no articles were left behind by previous visitors b. ensure that the previous visitor has properly locked his locker c. append such certificate on the Visit Register (PNB-82) daily at the time EOD d. 1,2 & 3 e. 1 & 3
156 a 157 e 158 c 159 c 160 d 161. In the absence of standing instructions for recovery of rent and/or when rent is not paid on due date then bank sends reminder notices and final notice on a prescribed format/s a. PNB 80 b. PNB-95 c. PNB 86,87 & 89 d. PNB 88 & 90 e. 1 & 2 162. Inventory of the locker contents a. is prepared in case of claim to nominee b. is prepared in case of claims of legal heirs c. is prepared in case of claim to survivor d. be prepared in presence of two independent witnesses e. all of these 163. When a locker holder reports loss of key: a. bank issue his a duplicate key b. He should be asked to appoach the court of law c. the locker will be drilled open at his cost/expenses d. he should be given a new locker immediately till such time as key traced e. none of these. 164. Normally access to a locker of deceased customer is allowed to his successors / legal heirs om production of a. Indemnity bond b. Letter of administration / probate c. identity card / passport d. a letter of guarantee from a reputed party e. all of these
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165. Concession on advanced locker rent to Senior Citizen is … a. Additional 5% b. Additional 10% c. Additional 15% d. Additional 20% e. No Concession available
161 c 162 e 163 c 164 b 165 b 166. The timing of Safe Deposit Vault at our branch are 10.15 am to 4.45 pm. Alocker holder appaches the branch 09.45 am with a request to allow his operation of locker as he has to catch train as 10.30 am. Under the circumstances the branch a. may allow him operation looking to his urgent requirements b. should not accede to his request c. must allow him operation if the bank is then open d. may accede to his request after obtaining indemnity on plain paper e. none of these. 167. There is a locker in the joint names of A and B and operated by either. A reports loss of key and stops operation is locker and next day B comes with the key to operate the locker. What should the bank do? a. Allow operation as it can be operated by either. b. Allow operation only to A who has reported loss of key c. Allow operation both jointly d. Don’t Allow Operation to either or jointly 168. At the time of allotement of a locker, a bank may accept maximum fixed deposit equal to: a. 3 years rent and charges for breaking open the locker b. 1 year rent and charges fro breaking open the locker c. the amount interest on which will be equal to rent for one year d. None of these. 169. As per RBI Directions, locker hirers will be classified in _____ categories a. Low Risk b. Medium Risk c. High Risk d. Medium & High Risk 170. A document duly stamped and given by a customer authorising another person to act on his behalf- a. Mandate b. POA c. Notice d. Will
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e. None of the above 166 b 167 c 168 a 169 d 170 b
171. Safe deposit vault is governed by provisions of a. Transfer of Property Act b. Banking Regulation Act c. Indian Contract Act d. Act for safe custody of articles e. None of the above 172. CBS menu for batch recovery of locker rent a. HLKCM b. HLKRRBAT c. HLKREPM d. HLKOPS e. HLKRCM 173. Discount on Locker rent for staff is a. 0.2 b. 0.25 c. 0.5 d. 0.75 e. 1 174. In case of safe custody of articles the relationship of Customer to Banker is______. a. Trustee b. Bailor c. Bailee d. Agent e. Debtor 175. Mr A & his wife Mrs B want to keep the articles in bank under safe custody. They have two sons and one daughter, they wish to appoint all three of their kids to be nominee. The bank replies a. They can nominate only one major person b. they can nominate one each i.e two major persons c. all the three, if major can be nominated d. Nomination facilty is not available for articles kept in safe custody under joint names e. They can nominate only One, if minor may be nominated under guardian ship of any major person
171 a 172 b 173 d 174 b 175 d 176. Safe custody of articles is governed by provisions of a. Transfer of Property Act b. Banking Regulation Act
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c. Indian Contract Act d. Act for safe custody of articles e. None of the above 177. Safe custody of articles is bailment of goods and banker customer relationship is of bailee-bailor. Whether this statement is true a. Yes b. No 178. Application form for safe custody of articles is a. PNB 154 b. PNB 142 c. PNB 156 d. PNB 158 e. PNB 146 179. Deposit of articles for safe custody on behalf of minor by his/her Natural guardian or Testamentary guardian or legal guardian, as the case may be is ________ Choose most appropriate option. a. not permitted b. Permitted c. Permitted, but with permission of Circle Head only. d. Permitted, but with permission of Zonal Manager only. e. Permitted, but with permission of law division only. 180. While accepting shares and securities in safe custody, (i) Securities endorsed in blank is not to be accepted. (ii) Shares in third parties' names and accompanied by blank transfer deed not to be accepted. (iii) Articles in safe custody will be kept in the strong room in the joint custody. Choose the correct option ? a. (i), (ii) and (iii) all are true. b. only (i) and (iii) is true c. only (iii) is true d. only (i) and (ii) is true e. only (ii) and (iii) is true
176 c 177 a 178 c 179 b 180 a 181. Charges for Safe Deposit Custody of Bank's own deposit receipts are ? a. Rs 100 per year b. Rs 50 per year c. Rs 150 per year d. No Charges e. Bank's own deposit receipt won't be accepted for safe deposit.
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182. Safe Deposit of sealed covers from government organisations are chargeable at a. RS 350 per cover per annum or part thereof b. Rs 350 per annum irrespective of covers c. Rs 500 per cover per annum d. Rs 750 per annum e. Rs 500 per cover per annum or part thereof 183. Safe deposit of sealed boxes from govt bodies (size up to 30*30*30 cms) are acceptable at per annum charges of a. Rs 3500 per box b. Rs 3000 per box c. Rs 2500 per box d. Rs 3250 per box e. Rs 4000 per box 184. Safe deposit of sealed boxes up to size of 30*30*30 cms are acceptable at per annum charges of a. Rs.1000 b. Rs.2000 c. Rs.3000 d. Rs.4000 e. Rs.5000 185. Where a minor delivers the goods for safe custody, the nomination will be made by _________ a. Minor himself b. Minor with guardian jointly c. Nomination facilty not available d. his lawful guardian e. None of above
181 d 182 a 183 b 184 c 185 d 186. In view of the risks involved, the deposit of articles by more than one person jointly, with instructions to deliver them to either or survivor of them, should not, ordinarily be accepted. Whether this statement is true ? a. Yes b. No
186 a
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10 Types of Accounts, Garnishee Order/ Attachment Order 1. Customer is defined in ________________________. a. BR Act b. RBI Act c. KYC Policy of RBI d. NI ACT e. None of the above 2. A minor (of Indian domicile)as defined in sec. 3 of a. Indian Majority Act,1875 b. Indian Citzenship Act,1875 c. Indian Minority Act,1875 d. Indian Contract Act,1875 e. None of the above 3. A minor (of Indian domicile)as defined in sec. 3 of Indian Majority Act, 1875 (amended wef 16, Dec 1999) , is a person who has a. Not completed 21 years of age b. Not completed 18 years of age c. Not completed 19 years of age d. Not completed 21 years of age in case guardian appointed by Court e. None of the above 4. Who is guardian of a Minor a. Testamentary Guardian b. Legal Guardian c. Natural Guardian d. Any of the a,b,c e. Any of the a,b,c as per choice of Minor 5. Legal Guardian is a. Appointed by Court b. Under Indian Majority Act c. Under Guardian and Wards Act d. a and b only e. a and C only
1 c 2 a 3 b 4 d 5 e 6. Step Father and Step Mother can a. Not act as Guardian b. Not act as Natural Guardian c. Not act as Legal Guardian even when appointed by Corut
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d. Not act as Testamentary Guardian e. a and b only 7. Minor aged 17 yers has requested for issue of cheque book in his self operated account. Tell the status of issuing of cheque book. a. It can be issued b. It cannot be issued c. can be issued with consent of guardian d. Can be issued for payment of necessities only e. At Bank's discretion 8. Minor’s account can be opened in the guardianship of _____ a. Only Father, after him, mother b. Mother or father c. Grandmother d. Elder brother e. None of the above 9. Two or more minors if desirous of opening a bank account , can open the account or not? a. Either or survivor b. Jointly c. Only two can join d. Cannot open e. None of the above 10. A hindu minor having a natural guardian or where court of ward is appointed attains majority on completion of ______ a. 18 years b. 18 Years and 21 years respectively c. 21 Years d. 13 years provided he has the power of understanding e. None of the above
6 b 7 a 8 b 9 d 10 a 11. Who shall be natural guardian in case of married minor girl, (Husband being Major)? a. Father b. Mother c. Father in law d. Mother in law e. Husband
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12. Select appropriate option, A minor enters into agreement by himself as major and later on claims such a contract as void on account of his minority at the time of entering into contract. (case of Arooran Sugar Ltd. Vs State Bank of India) a. Minor must restore the benefit derived by him under the agreement b. Bank will be responsible, bear loss. c. Minor is not capable of entering into valid contract. d. All of the above e. None of the Above 13. A minor who was admitted to the firm does not decide to become or not to become, partner of firm within 6 months from date of attaining majority or from the date when he comes to know that he was admitted for benefits only, whicheever is later: a. He is deemed to have become partner. He is liable from date of his admission for benefits. b. It is assumed that he is not a partner. c. Other partners would also decide mutually whether to allow him or not d. a and b e. a to c 14. Illiterate person are a. Not competent to enter into contract b. partially competent to enter into contract c. Fully competent to enter into contract d. Not competent to enter into contract except with Court permission e. Competent to enter into contract only jointly with a literate person 15. Joint Accounts in the name of two illiterates a. Can be opened b. Can not be opened c. Can be opened only with the permission of Circle Head d. Can be opened only with the permission of RBI e. Both c and d
11 e 12 a 13 a 14 c 15 a 16. An illiterate customer in your branch, who is maintaining a savings account, request you to permit him to authorise his friend to operate his account: a. An illiterate being incompetent to contract can not appoint an agent b. Since an illiterate person cannot grant a power of atorney his request can not be complied with c. The request if illiterate customer may be acceded to on his executing a power of attorney/mandate d. The request of illiterate customer may be acceded to provided the transactions on the account are allowed on a restricted scale. e. None of the Above 17. In the account of Illiterate person
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a. Withdrawal allowed in person only b. Third Party Payment allowed c. Third Party Payment allowed to literate person only d. a,b, c only e. Withdrawal allowed in person only after proper identification 18. An illiterate requests for issue of a cheque book in his account with his spouse who is literate and the mode of opearation of the account is E/S. a. It can be issued b. It cannot be issued 19. If an illiterate person open a joint account with a literate person,whether a Cheque book can be issued ? a. Cheque book can be issued to literate person in such accounts where operation mandate is as Either or survivor b. Cheque book can be issued to literate person in such accounts where operation mandate is as Former or survivor c. Cheque book can be issued d. Cheque book can be issued to literate person in such accounts where operation mandate is as Jointly e. either A or B 20. Which type of bank account can be opened in the name of illiterate pardanashin woman ? a. Saving b. Current c. SF and Term deposit and current account d. All of the above e. None of the above
16 c 17 e 18 a 19 a 20 e 21. While making the payment to a Visually Impaired person, the payment: a. Should got witnessed b. Can be made without witness c. Witness must be person other than the passing officials d. option a & c e. None of the Above 22. Visually impaired person a. Can not be issued Cheque Book b. Can be issued Cheque Book only if he is literate c. Can be issued Cheque Book as per bank instructions, following the required precautions d. Can be issued Cheque Book only in joint account with other account holder having normal vision e. Can be issued only with permisson of Circle Head
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23. The following in respect of accounts of Visually impaired person have to be branded with a Stamp " Blind Person " a. Account Opening form only b. Cheque Book only c. Pass Book only d. and B only e. a, b and c and Specimen Signature Sheet 24. While issuing Cheque Book to Visually impaired person a. Cheques should be account payee Crossed only b. Cheques should be Generally Crossed c. Cheque leaves should be Branded Blind d. Cheques should be of order only e. b,c and d only 25. Issuing Cheque Book to Visually Impaired persons a. Can be given to all illiterate visually impaired persons b. Can be given to illiterate visually impaired for specific purposes only c. Can be given to all illiterate visually impaired persons with permission from Incumbent d. Can be given to all illiterate visually impaired persons with permission from Circle Head e. Can not be given to illiterate visually impaired persons
21 d 22 c 23 e 24 e 25 b 26. Pardanashin women can open? a. Saving Account only b. Current Account, but with prior permission of Circle Office c. Term Deposits only d. a and b only e. a, b and c 27. For opening Account of Pardanashin woman ? a. She should be literate b. She can not open Current Account c. She can open Current Account with permission of Circle Office d. a and b only e. a and c only 28. Signature of Pardanashin Women in the account opening form a. Should be attested by Husband in case of married women b. Can be attested by father or mother in case of unmarried wome c. Can be attested by Natural Guardian only in case of unmarried women d. a and b only e. a and c only
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29. Whether a photograph of the purdanashin is required while opening account in her name? a. Yes b. No c. Account can not be opened d. Eithe A or B e. A and B 30. If the sole trustee dies, a. operation in the account should be stopped b. Cheques signed by him are not to be paid. c. Cheques signed by him are to be paid. d. a and b only e. a and C only
26 e 27 e 28 e 29 a 30 d 31. In a trust, one of the trustees who is singly authorised to operate the account has been declared insolvent. Your branch receives a cheque drawn by him for payment. a. You can return the cheque b. You can pay the cheque c. You can pay if other trustees confirm it d. a and b 32. Documents Required for opening Trust account a. Trust deed in case of private trusts b. Certificate from Charity Commissioner in case of public trust c. Latest deed of appointment d. a and b only e. a, b and c only 33. Unless the trust deed provides otherwise a. trustee(s) cannot delegate his/their powers. b. trustees cannot borrow c. trustees cannot overdraw account. d. a and b only e. a , b and c only 34. The provisions governing a particular trust are given in a. Trust Deed b. Article of Association c. Indian trust act,1882 d. memorandum of association
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35. A trustee can raise a loan against the mortgage of property of the trust if: a. Trust deed permits him to do so b. Trust deed does not have conditions to the contrary c. Trustee stands as guarantor d. All of the above e. None of the above
31 b 32 e 33 e 34 a 35 a 36. A trust has 3 trustees, they want to open a current account and insist that any one of them will operate the account. Uder these circumstances bank will: a. open the account as trustees can delegate the powers to one of them b. open the account as requested if the trustees are persons of good means c. not open the account if the trust deed doesnot allow for operation by one person d. not open the account as trustees have always to act jointly e. None of the above 37. An administrator is: a. person appointed by court, when person dies without will. b. A person appointed by share holders at the time of winding up a Company c. A person appointed at the time of insolvency of a firm d. a and b 38. What is meant by the word 'Executor'? a. the person appointed by the court to sell the assets of a decesed person b. the person who is named in the will of a deceased person to manage his estate c. the person mentioned in the will who does not want the benefits d. the person appointed by legal heirs to execute therir orders e. the person appoined by the court and legal heirs 39. Insolvency rules are governed by: a. State Insolvency Act 1920 b. Presidency Towns Insolvency Act c. Insolvency Act 1879 d. a & b e. a & c 40. A banker should not pay the cheque drawn by a Customer who has been sentenced and sent to jail for: a. A Murder b. Criminal liability c. Moral Ground d. Insolvency e. a & b
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36 c 37 a 38 b 39 d 40 d 41. Karta can, for the purpose of family business for the legal necessity of the family a. Incur debt only b. execute document c. pledge securities on behalf of the family d. a and b only e. a, b and c 42. With reference to the HUF a. Karta's liability is unlimited b. Co-parceners liability is limited to the shares in the joint family estate. c. Consent of co-parceners is not required for incurring debt by Karta d. a and b only e. a,b and c 43. HUF account a. Can be operated by Karta only b. Can be operated by authorised co-parceners only c. Can be operated by duly authorisd third party also d. a and b only e. a, b and c only 44. Which of the following actions caanot be taken by Karta of HUF in relation to business of the family: a. Can borrow money b. Can Sign documents c. Can create charge on properties d. can deal with HUF property for benefit of the HUF e. None of the above 45. Karta of an HUF is going for a pilgrimage and wants to delegate authority to operate the account to a younger coparcener.Other coparceners object to this proposal. In this case: a. Karta can delegate authority only to next senior most member of the family b. Karta can delegate authority to junior member with the consent of all other major coparceners c. Karta cannot delegate authority to any one d. Karta can delegate authority to junior member with the consent of the next senior most coparcerner e. Karta can delegate authority to any one and therefore his action of appointing junior member as authority ia valid
41 e 42 e 43 e 44 e 45 e 46. Partnership can be among a. Minors b. Insolvents
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c. Alien Enemy d. a and b only e. None of the above 47. Maximum Number of Partners in a firm could be a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 100 e. 200 48. In a partnership firm, the no. of partners cannot go beyond 100. The rovision regarding maximum no. of the partners is mentioned in: a. Indian partnership Act b. Indian Contract Act c. Indian Companies Act d. Banking Regulation Act e. NI Act 49. The law relating to partnership firms is codified in a. Indian Partnership Act b. Indian Contract Act c. Indian Company Act d. Indian Cooperative Act e. b and c only 50. In respect of a Partnership Firm a. Registration is not Compulsory b. Partners of an unregistered firm cannot sue the firm c. Unregistered firm cannot sue third parties d. a and b only e. a , b and c only
46 e 47 d 48 c 49 a 50 e 51. Two persons aged 21 years and 16 years approach your branch for opening current account under title of Ravi Bros of which they declare themselves to be partners. There are no other partners in the firm. In this case, the branch:____ a. Should open the account as minor can be admitted to the benefits of partnership b. should not open the account c. can open the account if minor undertakes to be a full-fledged partner on attaining majority d. should eek legal advice and act accordingly e. either 1 or 2
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52. A sleeping partner of a firm issues stop payment instructions. In this case bank: a. cannot comply with his request as he is not competent to issue or stop payment of cheque b. must comply with his order c. can act upon his instructions provided one of the operating partners joins him d. should not allow any further operations till the matter is sorted e. either 2 or 4 53. Which of the following cannot be a partner in a partnership firm, as per latest guidelines by RBI: a. a partnership firm b. a company c. an NBFC d. All of the above e. None of the above 54. U/s 30 of Indian Partnership Act: a. A minor and minor can constitute a partnership firm. b. A minor can be admitted to the firm for benefits only. c. A minor will be personally responsible for the losses d. a minor can be a sleeping partner in a firm e. b & c above 55. A company is a. a Firm b. An Association c. A Trust d. A legal person e. a and d only
51 b 52 b 53 c 54 b 55 d 56. Dormant Company means a company formed a. long back and is not functioning b. for a future project c. has no significant accounting transaction d. a and c only e. b and c only 57. A Government Co. is a company where a. not less than 26% of the share capital is held by Government b. Not less than 51% of the share capital is held by Government c. Not less than 76% of the share capital is held by Government d. Government need not hold any Share Capital e. It depends on holding of assets of Company, not share capital
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58. Memorandum of Association means a. Charter of Company b. Document of Outdoor Management c. Document of Indoor Management d. a and b only e. a and C only 59. Documents relating to Company Accounts include a. Certificate of Incorporation b. Memorandum of Association c. Articles of Association d. a and b only e. a , b and c only 60. A public Limited Company can have a. 100 members b. 200 Members c. 500 members d. 1000 Members e. No Limit
56 e 57 b 58 d 59 e 60 e 61. A Private Ltd. Co is a company which by its articles a. Restricts transfer of its shares b. Prohibits itself from inviting subscription of shares/debentures from public c. Limits the number of its members to 200. d. a and b only e. a, b and c only 62. Small company means a company a. other than a public company b. Paid up share capital of which does not exceed 50 lacs rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than 5 crore rupees c. Turnover of which as per its last profit and loss account does not exceed 2 crore rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than 20 crore rupees. d. a and b only e. a, b and c only 63. In India we do not have a. One Person Company b. Limited Liability Company c. Small Company d. a and c only
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e. None of the above 64. Minimum Number of Persons in Public Limited Company a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 e. 20 65. A certificate of incorporation is issued by: a. Registrar of companies b. Registrar of firm c. Company law board d. industries department of the concerned state e. either 1 or 4 depending upon the location
61 e 62 e 63 e 64 c 65 a 66. When the no. of directors in public limited company is more than ____, shareholders’ approval is required: a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 e. 20 67. A club can be registered under a. The Societies Registration Act, 1860 b. Indian Partnership Act c. India Companies Act d. a and b only e. a and C only 68. For opening account in the name of a registered association bank should obtain a. Copy of certificate of Registration b. Copy of Bye-laws c. Certified copy of resolution of the Executive Body d. a and b only e. a, b and c only 69. In respect of unregistered associations a. Account Should be opened only in case of very reliable persons b. All members of managing committee/governing body should sign the resolution c. In no case overdraft should be given in such accounts
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d. a and b only e. a, b and c only 70. What is the purpose of opening a current account? a. Ease in banking transactions b. Ability to prove creditworthiness c. To cater to the diversified banking needs for any business activity d. Segregate business finance from personal finance e. All of these
66 d 67 e 68 e 69 e 70 e 71. Who can open a current account? a. Individuals (either singly or jointly) b. Associations,Trusts, Partnership Firms c. Proprietorship Firms, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Firms d. Societies and Corporate Entities, e. All of these 72. What does DEAF stand for a. Depositor's education annual fund b. Deprived education annual fund c. Depositor's education and awareness fund d. Deaf Equipment Acquisition Fund e. Deaf Equality And Access Forum 73. Who can open a saving account? a. by an individual singly or jointly b. In the name of a minor by his/her natural or legally appointed guardian or by a minor above the age of 10 years c. By the societies/institutions/associations, which are not liable to pay income tax under the Income Tax Act, 1961. d. By a society, club, association, trust, charitable/educational institution/Hindu Undivided family provided it is not a trading or business concern subject to RBI guidelines. e. All of these 74. A Savings Fund as well as a Current Account would be treated as ‘Inoperative Account’ if there is no ‘Customer Induced Transaction’ for a continuous period of …... months a. 6m b. 12 m c. 3m d. 24m e. No such condition
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75. While opening current account of a limited company the bank need not insist upon production of: a. Certificate of incorporation b. Memorendum of assosiation c. Certificate of commencement of business d. Broad of Resolution e. All of above
66 e 67 c 68 e 69 d 70 c 76. What is the relationship of the customer with the banker when he is opening a Saving Fund Account. a. Debtor b. Creditor c. Bailor d. Bailee e. Lessee 77. What is the relationship of the customer with the banker when he is availing a loan. a. Debtor b. Creditor c. Trustee d. Bailor e. Assign 78. Who is a banker? a. An individual that is employed by a banking institution b. a person who manages or owns a bank or group of banks c. A banker is a person undertaking business of banking. Banking means (Sec. 6 of BR Act) accepting deposits from public, for the purpose of lending, repayable on demand or otherwise withdraw able by cheque, draft, order or otherwise. d. None of these e. All of these 79. Banker is defined under______. a. Sec. 6 of BR Act b. Sec 5 (b) of Banking Regulation Act c. Sec. 6(b) of Banking regulation act d. Sec 5 of BR act e. Sec. 7 of BR act 80. On the opening of a deposit account, the relationship between Banker & Customer is a. Banker assumes the position of debtor b. Depositor assumes the position of creditor c. Both A& B
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d. Banker & Depositor both assume the position of Debtor. e. None of the above
76 B 77 a 78 c 79 b 80 c 81. While taking loan from the bank. The relationship between Banker & Customer is a. Customer assumes the position of debtor b. Banker assumes the position of creditor c. Both A& B d. Banker & Customer both assume the position of Debtor. e. None of the above 82. While carrying on standing instruction of a customer , bank acts as _______ , while the customer is Principal a. Trustee b. Bailor c. Bailee d. Agent e. Debtor 83. Bank is selling securities on behalf of the customer. In this case the banker customer relationship will be_____ a. Lessor- lessee b. Bailor- Bailee c. Agent- Principal d. Debtor- Creditor e. Trustee- Beneficiary 84. Whenever a customer tenders money but the instructions for the same yet to be received, bank will act as his_____ a. Principal b. Trustee c. Agent d. Lessee e. Beneficiary 85. A customer while visiting branch left some of his articles in the premises by mistake. Till the time he receives it back we will act as________of the Articles. a. Principal b. Trustee c. Agent d. Lessee e. Beneficiary
81 C 82 d 83 c 84 b 85 b
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86. As a banker we are selling/purchasing the securities/shares on behalf of customer, while carrying out the transaction we are acting as a ______ for customer. a. Trustee b. Bailor c. Bailee d. Agent e. Debtor 87. On assignment the relationship between Banker and customer is________. a. Assignee- Assignor b. Bailor- Bailee c. Agent- Principal d. Debtor- Creditor e. Trustee- Beneficiary 88. A customer has purchased a Draft from one of the branches, bank will be _______. a. Debtor b. Trustee c. Lessee d. Agent e. Creditor 89. While paying a draft bank will be acting as a ______ a. Principal b. Trustee c. Agent d. Lessee e. Beneficiary 90. What is the Banker- Customer relationship while bank is collecting Cheque on behalf of the customer? a. Banker assumes the position of Agent b. Customer assumes the position of Principal c. Both A& B d. Banker & Depositor both assume the position of Agent. e. None of the above
86 D 87 a 88 a 89 b 90 c 91. When a customer mortgages his/her property to bank he assumes the position of a _________. a. Mortgagee b. Trustee c. Creditor
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d. Assigner e. Mortgagor 92. Bank assumes the position of _______in case of Pledge. a. Trustee b. Pledgee c. Pledgor d. Bailor e. Agent 93. What is the relationship of Bank and customer in case of Hypothecation of Goods? a. Hypothecate- Hypothecator b. Hypothecator-Hypothecate c. Bailor- Bailee d. Pladgor- Pledgee e. Agent -Principal 94. Bailor-bailee relationship is applicable in.................... a. Cash deposited with cashier by customer b. Safe deposit locker c. Demand draft issued by bank d. Keeping articles in safe custody with bank e. None 95. What is the relationship of the Bank when Collecting cheque on behalf of customer a. Agent/Principal b. Debtor/Creditor c. Bailee/Bailor d. Debtor/Creditor e. None of the above
91 E 92 b 93 a 94 d 95 a 96. Duty to maintain secrecy of contract between bank and customer not to disclose the affairs of the customers has been mentioned in ________________________. a. RBI Act b. BRA c. NI ACT d. section 13 of banking companies acquisition & transfer of undertakings Act 1970 e. None of the above 97. Under which section and act information can be disclosed to Income tax authorities ? a. U/s 131 and 133, of Income Tax Act b. U/s 151 of Income Tax Act
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c. RBI Act d. NI Act e. None of the above 98. Disclosure to RBI: RBI can collect any information in such a manner as it thinks fit under_________________. a. U/s 42 of RBI Act b. U/s 40 of RBI Act c. U/s 45 B of RBI Act d. U/s 49 of RBI Act e. U/s 46 of RBI Act 99. Under which Act, Disclosure to Incharge of Police Station relating to the customer can be given. a. U/s 91(1) of Cr PC b. No such provision c. RBI Act d. NI Act e. None of the above 100. ___________________ was laid down in the famous case Devayanas Vs. Noble states the rule of appropriation in running accounts like Cash Credit and Overdraft accounts. a. Clayton's Rule b. Right to set off c. Attachment order d. Garnishee Order e. None of the above
96 D 97 a 98 c 99 a 100 a 101. " The first debit in the account is considered to have been discharged or reduced by the first item in credit side and accordingly other entries follow suit in chronological order" This statement is true about a. Right to set off b. Garnishee order c. Order absolute d. Order Nisi e. Clayton's Rule 102. Banker Customer relationship terminates upon a) Death b) Insolvency c) Imprisonment d)Lunacy e)Migration? Find the correct option a. i) a to c b. ii) a,c and d c. iii) a,b and d
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d. iv) a,d and e e. All of these 103. It is to avoid application of which rule, the bankers stop operation of the account in case of death/insolvency of a partner/guarantor/joint account holder in running account like CC & OD. a. Garnishee order b. Clayton's Rule c. Order nisi d. Order absolute e. None of the above 104. The duty of maintaining secrecy of customer's account comes to an end when ? a. The account is closed b. The account is transferred to some other branch c. The account holder is dead d. The account holder is sent to Jail e. None of these 105. A banker has a general lien over : a. artilces deposited for safe custody b. goods left negligently with the bank c. bills lodged for collection to meet a bll drawn on the customer d. All of these e. None of these
101 E 102 c 103 b 104 e 105 e 106. Banker's right of lien can be exercised on ? a. Securities remaining with the bank after loan for which they were lodged has been adjusted b. Securities left negligently with the bank c. goods or securities standing in the name of our borrower and a third party d. All of these e. None of these 107. Banker's general lien tantamounts to pledge because ? a. Bank has a right to sue the borrower in case of default b. Bank puts its own lock over the security under the lien of the bank c. It confers upon him the right to sell securities in case of default by the borrower as in case of pledge. d. either b or c e. None of these 108. A partnership is a relationship a. Between two persons only b. Between two or more persons only
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c. Carried on by all or any of them acting for all d. a and c only e. b and c only 109. Right of appropriation first rests with_____ a. Creditor b. Banker c. Debtor d. Company e. Firm 110. If joint account is opened with the instruction Former or Survivor, who can operate when both are alive a. Only the first person b. Only the Second Person c. Both the persons d. Both the persons if permitted by the Incumbent e. We can not open such account
106 A 107 c 108 e 109 c 110 a 111. In a joint Saving Account where only one person is authorised to operate the account, stop payment instruction can be issued by a. Authorised person only b. Any of the joint Account holders c. Only by all Joint account holders d. Stop payment instructions in such accounts should be got from Courts only e. Stop Payment can not be done in Saving Accounts 112. Shri Ram Prasad is a guarantor for a loan granted to Smt. Sita Devi. The bank can exercise right of set off against depsoit standing in name of guarantor ? a. Any time as liability of guarantor is certain b. Only when Smt Sita Devi fails to meet her liability c. Only when bank files a suit against Shri Ram Prasad for deby recovery d. Only when Smt Sita Devi fails to meet her liability and bank raises demand against guarantor e. None of these 113. The bank has allowed a overdraft of Rs 5,500/- in current account of Mr. Raja Ram. It wants to exercise right of set off. This right will be available in : a. Saving account in name of Mr. and Mrs. Raja Ram b. FD account in name of M/S Supreme (Raja Ram one of the partner) c. Current accunt in the name M/S Raja Ram and Sons, Sole Prop. Mr. Raja Ram d. Recurring Deposit account of Mrs. Raja Ram e. None of these
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114. When the guarantor pays the dues to bank of borrower, he has a legal right to recover those dues from that borrower under ? a. Right of Subrogation b. Right of Set off c. Right of Lien d. Right of Appropriation e. No such right available 115. The process of adjustment of loan from deposit of the same name in same capacity, in the same bank, is called a. Right off set Off b. Right of adjustment c. Right of lien d. Right of appropriation e. None of the Above
111 B 112 d 113 c 114 a 115 a 116. Right of set off is excercisable, where the relationship is of: a. bailor and bailee b. landlord and tenant c. debtor/creditor & creditor/debtor d. Principal and agent e. any of the above 117. In case of Set Off, the accounts of customer should be in_______ a. Same name, same right & capacity b. Different names c. Different capacity d. Legally wrong e. None 118. Firm-A and Firm-B have all the partners as common partners named A, B and C. Firm A has a current account at one branch of the bank while Firm B has an OD at another branch of the bank. Bank wants to exercise right of set off to adjust the OD account. a. the OD can be recovered by using right of set off b. the OD cannot be recovered since these are two firms c. the OD cannot be recovered since the accounts are at different branches d. the Ocan be recoverewith consent of both the firms only 119. the word 'Garnishee" is derived from a Latin word a. Garnire b. Garn
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c. Garnish d. Garni e. Garnier 120. The meaninig of word "Garnishee" means a. to consult b. to warn c. to punish d. to convince e. to ask
116 C 117 a 118 a 119 a 120 b 121. A "Garnishee" order is an order issued by a. income tax officer b. official liquidator c. court d. RBI e. CBI 122. When Garnishee order is issued by court attaching the account of customer, the banker is called a. judgement debtor b. judgement creditor c. garnishee d. garnishor e. adjudicator 123. In a "Garnishee order" the banker on whom a garnishee order served is the a. judgement debtor's creditor b. judgement creditor's creditor c. judgement creditor's debtor d. judgement debtor's debtor e. decree holder 124. Your branch receive a Garnishee order in name of your customer Mr. trivedi, who has the following deposit accounts with your Branch. Which of these can be attached under this garnishee order a. Trivedi-Executor of Ashok Kumar Deceased b. Joint saving Bank account with his wife c. Trivedi trustee of Sewa Dal charitable Tust d. All of the above e. None of these 125. In Garnishee order, balance held outside India
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a. can be attached b. can't be attached c. can be attached if ordered so by the court d. attached upto some extent e. None of these
121 C 122 c 123 d 124 e 125 b 126. Your branch receive a Garnishee order. It attaches all sums owninig or accruing due to Mr. Ashok and Mr. Anand. There is no acconut in branch in joint names of Mr. Ashok and Mr. Anand. But they maintain their individual accounts. Under these circumstances.. a. the court should be advised that there is no account in the joint names of Mr. Ashok and Mr. Anand. Hence garnishee order can not be given effect to b. The garnishee order will attach the individual accounts of Mr. Ashok and Mr. Anand as they are jointly and severally liable for the joint debt c. The matter should be reffered to the court for clarification d. Since the order is not applicable, the bank need not take any action thereon e. None of these 127. In a joint deposit account, which of the following is correct? a. When nomination is proposed to be made, it should be by all of them b. When account is to be closed it should be done by all even if the account is either or survivor, where specific authority to do so has not been obtained in the account opening form c. Garnishee order will be applicable on this account on pro-rata basis if the orders received in the name of one of the account holders d. Bank cannot use the right of set off a loan in the name of one of them e. Garnishee order is not applicable in joint account, if order is passed on single person name 128. In Garnishee order, the personal account of a partner……for the debts of firm a. can be attached b. can't be attached c. can be attached if ordered so by the court d. can be attached if ordered so by the RBI e. None of these 129. In which of the following circumstance, the banker customer relationship does not come to an end a. death of customer b. insolvency of customer c. insanity of customer d. receipt of Garnishee order which has been satisfied by payments e. foreign trip of customer
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130. A cheque drawn by a customer is presented for payment after a Garnishee order has been served on the account, the cheque will be returned with the reason a. Account garnished b. Account attached by the court c. Operations on the account stopped by the court d. Garnishee order received e. Account Garniered
126 B 127 c 128 a 129 d 130 d 131. Which of the following is not true in respect of Garnishee order a. Issued under Sec 60 of the Civil Procedure Code b. Attaches TDRs payable at a Future Date c. Collection items / Clearing Credits realized after the receipt of the order are not attached d. Order in Joint names then deposit in single name not attached e. Order in Joint names then deposit in single name can be attached on pro-rata basis 132. You receive a garnishee order for a current account maintained in your branch. A cheque is received for payment. What memo should be appended while returning the cheque a. garnishee order received b. Refer to drawer c. insufficiency of fund due to Garnishee order d. order by court of law e. None of the these 133. State which of the following is/are correct.. (i) In a garnishee order the banker on whom the order is issued is judgement debtor’s debtor, (ii) A book debt advance is secured by a mortgage, (iii) CAMEL model is used by RBI inspectors a. Only (i) and (ii) b. Only (i) and (iii) c. Only (ii) and (iii) d. (i), (ii) and (iii) e. None of the these 134. A garnishee order is applicable to a. Demand deposits b. Time deposits subject to maturity c. Recurring Deposit d. All of the above e. None of these 135. Mr. Amit has got a term loan account and the balance of Rs 10000/-has been recalled. You receive a garnishee order from court for Rs. 10000/- attaching the credit balance of Rs. 10000/- maintained by Mr. Amit. you will
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a. Exercise right of set off against the credit balance and inform the court accordingly b. comply with the court order c. remit 50% and appropriate 50 % towards loan account d. seek instructions from court e. will wait for court to intervene
131 D 132 b 133 b 134 d 135 a 136. Garnishee order is issued under a. Indian penal code b. Civil Procedure court c. Negotiable instrument Act d. Contract act e. Income tax act 137. A Garnishee order is received at head office at Mumbai of the bank. At which of the following branches of the customer the account will not be attached a. Delhi b. Mumbai c. kolkatta d. London e. Jaipur 138. The garnishee order is not applicable when issued on a single name a. joint accounts b. when drawing power is available in over draft accounts c. articles kept in safe deposit locker d. amount deposited for purchase of DD by that individual e. all of these 139. A garnishee order for Rs.100000/- on the account of customer Mr. Ram is served on your branch. On verification, you find that the customer is having only a cash credit account which is showing a credit balance of Rs.110000/- what you will do a. return the garnishee order stating that customer does not have deposit account b. attach the cash credit account c. cash credit account can not be attached unless the limit is cancelled d. Ask the customer Mr. Ram for the same and will do accordingly e. can,t say anything as information is insufficient 140. Mr. Bhuvan is the legal heir of Mr. Amit. On the death of Mr. Amit, after following the usual formalities the bank has credited Rs. 10500/- being the claim amount of the deceased in the account of Mr. Bhuvan. Immediately after the credit, a Garnishee order attaching the account of Mr. Bhuvan is received for Rs 10000/-. The balance in the account is Rs. 10 600/- after the above credit. You will then
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a. attach Rs. 100/- only b. attach Rs. 10000/- only c. attach Rs. 10600/- only d. attach Rs. 10500/- only e. will not attach any amount
136 B 137 d 138 e 139 b 140 b 141. Garnishee order will be applicable to accounts if the relation between the banker and customer is a. Debtor and creditor b. creditor and debtor c. agent and principal d. bailor and bailee e. Trustee and beneficiary 142. A person has tendered a bearer cheque for Rs 10000/- and the person was given token No.7 .The cheque was in order and it was debited to the respective account and after debit of cheque amount, the balance is Rs. 250/- in the account. The cashier called the token number 7 and collected it. He was about to make the payment. The officer rushes to the cashier and says that a Garnishee order is just received for Rs. 10000/- and hence the payment can not be made.What is correct under these circumstances a. cashier must make the payment as he had collected the token b. cashier has to make payment because the account was properly debited before the receipt of garnishee order c. it is not to be paid because his superior is saying so d. as the money is not yet parted the garnishee order should be given precedence e. Cashier in consultation with Manager can make payment to customer 143. If Garnishee Order does not specify any amount, then the branch should a. Ignore it b. bring it to the notice of court c. attach 50% of the balance d. attach full credit balance e. ask the customer for amount to be attached 144. Hari and Mohan are maintaining a joint savings bank account with instructions Either or Survivor. Bank is receiving garnishee order in Hari’s name. The balance in the account is Rs.10,000/- a. Order will be applicable to the whole of the amount b. order will be applicable to the share of Mr. Hari c. order will not be applicable as it is joint account d. can't say anything as informtion is incomplete e. None of these
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145. A Garnishee Order is issued in a. two stages, first as an Order Nisi and then an Order Absolute b. two stages, first as an Order Absolute and then as order Nishi c. two stages, both as Order Absolute d. two stages, both as an Order Nisi e. one stage only
141 A 142 d 143 d 144 c 145 a 146. A garnishee order attaches a. only debt b. Funds held in safe custody c. safe deposit locker d. funds held in trust e. Cheques, Bills sent on collection 147. A garnishee order can not attach a. salary b. Uncleared Balance in SF/CA account c. sale proceeds of shares/securities yet to be received by the bank d. Call Deposits payable on Notice e. all of these 148. Cheques marked "Good for payment" by a banker can a. Not be paid after receipt of Garnishee order b. Be paid even after the receipt of garnishee order c. be paid partially d. 50% amount can be paid e. can be paid after seeking permission from IT officer 149. Attachment order relates to___ a. Govt dues b. Pvt dues c. Corporate dues d. Personal dues e. Debtor dues 150. An Attachment Order is Issued under _______________________ of Indian Income Tax Act, 1961, by an Income Tax Officer. a. Sec.226 (3) of Income Tax Act, 1961 b. Sec. 160 of Income Tax Act, 1961 c. Sec 125 of Income Tax Act 1961 d. No such powers e. None of the above
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146 A 147 e 148 b 149 a 150 a 151. An Attachment Order can attach a. Saving Fund and Current Account b. Term Deposit c. Proceeds of Collection item not credited to account d. All of the above e. None of the above 152. Attachment Order is applicable to a. credit Balances lying in all accounts of the customer b. amount received subsequent to receipt of order c. Only option A d. Only Option B e. Both A & B 153. Attachment order is applicable, where the relationship between the bank and the customer is that of: a. lessor and lessee b. trustee and beneficiary c. debtor and creditor d. creditor and debtor 154. Debtor in attachment order is called__ a. Assessee in default b. Creditor defaulter c. Debtor defaulter d. Govt defaulter e. Legal defaulter 155. In case a banker fails to comply with the attachment order under section 226(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961: a. The branch manager will be arrested forthwith. b. The branch manager will be liable to be prosecuted entailing a fine up to Rs. 5,000 or imprisonment which may extend up to one year or both. c. The bank shall be deemed to be an Assessee in default and amount can be recovered from it as arrears of income-tax due from the bank. d. The branch manager cannot be held responsible to pay the amount however, he will be given caution for the same e. None of the above
151 D 152 e 153 c 154 a 155 c
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156. An attachment order has been received from the Income-tax Officer against Mr.G.S.Saxena for a sum of Rs. 10,000. Mr.Saxena does not maintain any account with the branch in his single name. However there is a saving account in the joint names of 'Mr.G.S.Saxena and Mr.K.R.Puri' which shows a credit balance of Rs. 20,000. Under these circumstances: a. The attachment order will not apply to the joint account. b. The position may be clarified to the Income-tax Officer by a letter and the operations in the account should be stopped pending final order of the Income-tax Officer. c. A sum of Rs. 10,000 should be remitted to the Income-tax Officer to the debit of the joint account as the shares of joint holders in such accounts is presumed, until the contrary is proved, to be equal in terms of Section 226(3)(ii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. d. The order of the Income-tax Officer can be compiled with only if it comes through a competent court of law. e. None of the above 157. A garnishee order is an attachment order issued by a ______________at the request of a creditor to attach his debtor’s fund in the hand of a banker. a. Court b. Debtor c. Creditor d. Assignor e. None of the above 158. Will the undrawn portion of a cash credit account be attachable in case of CC accounts a. No b. Yes c. Refer to Court d. Discretion of the bank e. None of the above 159. This section of attachment order authorises________________ “to require, by notice in writing, any person from whom money is due or may become due, to the assessee, or any person holds or may subsequently hold money for or on account of assessee, to pay an amount equal to the amount of arrears of tax”. a. Income Tax Officer b. Court c. RBI d. Police e. None of the above 160. Attachment Order has been received in a single name, the account is in the joint names, will the balance be attached ? a. No b. Pro rata basis
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c. Yes attach all balance d. will not applicable e. None of the above
156 C 157 a 158 a 159 a 160 b 161. Will the Attachment Order attach the accounts held in the name of the deceased. a. No b. Yes c. Not applicable d. deceased amount can not be attached e. None of the above 162. Attachment order has been received at 10:20 am and cash has been deposited in that account at 11 am, will the attachment order also attach this mone a. No b. will not applicable as money has been deposited after receipt of order c. Yes d. Discretion of the bank e. None of the above 163. Will the bank be able to exercise right to set off before acting on Attachment Order. a. Yes b. No c. right to set off is not available d. Discretion of the bank e. None of the above 164. In respect of the Attachment order limitation is available upto________years a. 15 b. 25 c. 10 d. 12 e. 30 165. Garnishee and Attachment Orders have been received simultaneously, the preference will be given to___________. a. Attachment order b. Garnishee order c. to both equally d. both will be invalid e. None of the above
161 B 162 c 163 a 164 e 165 a
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166. Attachment order has been received in the name of Mr. X who is associated with following accounts. Which of these accounts shall be attached ? a. Cash credit account of XYZ, partnership firm, where limit is unavailed and X is partner in the firm b. An overdraft account in the name of X c. An account of a Trust where he is a trustee d. none of the above e. All of the above 167. Manoj Jain enjoys a clean overdraft of Rs 3.00 lacs from your branch having debit balance of Rs 1.80 lac on 16-09-2020. On same day bank receives a garnishee & income tax attachment order simultaneously. What you will do? a. Income tax attachment order will be complied with b. garnishee order will be complied with c. No order is to be complied with as bank owes no money to the customer d. First attachment order then garnishee order will be complied with e. None of the above 168. An attachment order of Rs. 80000 on a partnership firm is received, whose current account shows a balance of Rs. 8000. The individual accounts of the partners A, B and C are showing credit balance of Rs. 40000, Rs. 34000 and Rs. 2500 respectively. To meet the payment stated in the order, how much amount will be payable from A's account? a. Rs. 32500 b. Rs. 35500 c. Rs. 37500 d. Rs. 40000 e. Rs. 39500
166 D 167 c 168 b
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MCQs Priority Sector Lending and Agri Credit 2021 1. Which of the following is not a part of priority sector? a. Agriculture b. MSME c. Housing d. Education e. None of the above 2. What is the full form of ANBC? a. Adjusted Net bank Credit b. Apportioned net Bank Credit c. Adjusted Net Balance in Credit d. Adjusted Notional Bank Credit e. Either B or C 3. Which of the following forms part of ANBC? a. Bills Rediscounted with RBI and other approved Financial Institutions b. Bank Credit in India [As prescribed in item No.VI of Form 'A' under Section 42 (2) of the RBI Act, 1934] c. Investment made by public sector banks in Recapitalization Bonds floated by Government of India d. Eligible advances extended in India against the incremental FCNR (B) / NRE deposits, qualifying for exemption from CRR / SLR requirements. e. All of the above 4. The computation of priority sector targets / sub-targets achievement will be based on the ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures, whichever is __________, as on the corresponding date of the preceding year. a. Higher b. Lower c. No such criteria d. Depends on the credit growth rate of the bank. e. Depends on previous year target achievement. 5. Which of the following do not form part of priority sector target achievement? a. Contingent Liabilities b. Off-balance sheet items c. Either a or b d. None of the above e. Both a & b
1 e 2 a 3 e 4 a 5 e 6. In terms of ANBC, what is the target percentage to be achieved by Domestic scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks , for Total priority sector? a. 40
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b. 38 c. 36 d. 34 e. 32 7. In terms of ANBC, what is the target percentage to be achieved by Domestic scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks with 20 branches and above, for Agriculture category for classification under priority sector? a. 20 b. 22 c. 18 d. 19 e. 21 8. In terms of ANBC, what is the target percentage to be achieved by Domestic scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks with 20 branches and above, for MICRO Enterprises category for classification under priority sector? a. 8 b. 9 c. 7.5 d. 10 e. 12 9. What is the target given to Domestic scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks with 20 branches and above, with regards to advances to weaker section under priority sector category? a. 10 percent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher b. 25 percent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher c. 12 percent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher d. 5 percent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher e. 20 percent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher 10. Which of the following is part of priority sector lending? a. Loans up to ₹ 5 Crore) to co-operative societies of farmers for disposing of the produce of members. b. Loans for setting up of Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centres c. Loans for Food and Agro-processing up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of ₹ 100 Crore per borrower from the banking system. d. Outstanding deposits under RIDF and other eligible funds with NABARD on account of priority sector shortfall. e. All of the above
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6 a 7 c 8 c 9 c 10 e 11. For the purpose of computation of achievement of the sub-target, Small and Marginal Farmers will include the following: a. Farmers with landholding of up to 1 hectare (Marginal Farmers). Farmers with a landholding of more than 1 hectare and up to 2 hectares (Small Farmers). b. Landless agricultural labourers, tenant farmers, oral lessees and share-croppers, whose share of landholding is within the limits prescribed for small and marginal farmers. c. Loans to Self Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability Groups (JLGs), i.e. groups of individual Small and Marginal farmers directly engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities, provided banks maintain disaggregated data of such loans. d. Loans to farmers' producer companies of individual farmers, and co-operatives of farmers directly engaged in Agriculture and Allied Activities, where the membership of Small and Marginal Farmers is not less than 75 per cent by number and whose land-holding share is also not less than 75 per cent of the total land-holding. e. All the Above 12. For Domestic Banks, Incremental export credit over corresponding date of the preceding year, upto 2 per cent of ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of OffBalance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher, effective from April 1, 2015 subject to a sanctioned limit of up to ₹ ______ per borrower. a. 25 crore b. 30 crore c. 40 crore d. 50 crore e. 100 crore 13. Education loan upto Rs. ____ lacs, irrespective of the sanctioned amount, are classified under priority sector advance. a. 20 b. 15 c. 10 d. 25 e. 75 14. Housing Loans to individuals up to Rs. ____ Lacs in metropolitan centres, are classified under priority sector advances. a. 45 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 e. None of the above 15. Which of the following is not a part of priority sector advance? a. Housing loan to bank's own employees b. OD limit to PMJDY account holders up to ₹ 10,000/- with age limit of 18-65 years
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c. Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed ₹ 1 Lac. d. Loans to distressed persons other than farmers not exceeding ₹ 1 Lac per borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders. e. Loans for repairs to damaged dwelling units of families up to ₹ 5 Lacs in metropolitan centres and up to ₹ 2 Lacs in other centres.
11 e 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 a 16. In case of priorty sector loans up to Rs. _____________ No service charges/inspection charges should be levied . a. 50000/ b. 100000/ c. 500000/ d. 75000/ e. 25000/ 17. Bank loans up to a limit of Rs. ___ Crore per borrower for building social infrastructure, are classified under priority sector. a. 15 b. 10 c. 5 d. 50 e. 25 18. What is loan limit for Individual Househols in Renewable Energy to be classified under Priority Sector? a. 10 lakh b. 50 lakh c. 5 lakh d. 5 crore e. 15 crore 19. Loans given to which of the following category would classify as loan to weaker sections? a. Self Help Groups b. Small & Marginal Farmers c. Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders d. Individual women beneficiaries up to ₹ 1 Lac per borrower e. All of the above 20. Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed Rs. ______, are classified under Weaker Section Advances. a. 10 lacs b. 5 lacs c. 2 lacs d. 1 lac e. 15 lacs
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16 e 17 c 18 a 19 e 20 d 21. The achievement of Priority sector targets will be arrived at the end of __________ based on the average of priority sector target / sub-target achievement as at the end of each quarter. a. Half year b. Financial year c. Calendar Year d. 180 days e. None of the above 22. What is the full form of RIDF? a. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund b. Regional Infrastructure Deployment Fund c. Regional Infrastructure Development Fund d. Rural Infrastructure Deployment Fund e. Rural Inclusive Development Fund 23. Which institution maintains RIDF? a. SIDBI b. NITI AAYOG c. RBI d. MoF e. NABARD 24. Scheduled Commercial Banks having any shortfall in lending to priority sector shall be allocated amounts for contribution to the ______ and other Funds with NABARD / NHB / SIDBI / MUDRA Ltd. , as decided by the Reserve Bank from time to time. a. SLBC b. RIDF c. AAYUSH d. SUMITRA e. SSIF 25. The interest rates on banks' contribution to RIDF or any other Funds, tenure of deposits, etc. shall be fixed by ___________ from time to time. a. RBI b. MoF c. NITI AAYOG d. NABARD e. SIDBI
21 b 22 a 23 e 24 b 25 a 26. What is the time limit for disposal of a loan application in Agriculture where the credit limit is upto Rs.2 lac. a. 4 week b. 3 week
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c. 2 week d. 1 week e. No such limit 27. For how much loan limit, copies of revenue extract should not be insisted upon. a. 100000 b. 75000 c. 25000 d. 50000 e. 150000 28. The services of agriculture officers should not be used for processing of routine type of agriculture loan proposals upto Rs._______ lacs. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of the above 29. Rural lending shall be restricted within a radius of ____ Kms. from the branch but within the State boundary to have effective supervision and follow-up. a. 30 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 e. 35 30. In Agriculture Loan,No CR is required to be collected up to a. 100000 b. 75000 c. 25000 d. 50000 e. 150000
26 c 27 d 28 b 29 d 30 d 31. How much loan can be sanctioned without the recommendation of the 2nd Man in Agriculture for KCC/Direct Agriculture & Tractor Loan. a. 2 lac b. 3 lac c. 4 lac d. 1 lac e. NONE OF ABOVE 32. In agriculture Loans Scale of finance for production Credit is decided by a. DLTC b. SLBC
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c. MoRD d. BLBC e. None of the above 33. Long duration crops would be crops with crop season longer than _____ year a. 1 b. 2 c. 0.5 d. 3 e. None of the above 34. The crop season for each crop, which means the period up to harvesting of the crops raised, would be as determined by the _____ in each State. a. BLBC b. DLTC c. SLBC d. NABARD e. State govt 35. To have a comprehensive and structured approach for evaluation of Agriculture loans with sanctioned limits upto Rs. 50 Lakh, ________ scoring model has been designed. a. PNB SME SCORE b. PNB FARM LENDING MODEL c. RULE BASED LENDING MODEL d. PNB FARM SCORE e. PNB RETAIL SCORE
31 b 32 a 33 a 34 c 35 d 36. LAPS(Lending Automation Processing System) (Agri Module) has been designed for processing of Agriculture Loan proposals upto Rs. _____ lakh. a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 50 e. 15 37. For agriculture advances, a loan granted for SHORT duration crops will be treated as NPA, if the installment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for _____ crop seasons. a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4 e. None of the above 38. For agriculture advances, a loan granted for LONG duration crops will be treated as NPA, if the installment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for _____ crop seasons.
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a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 5 e. None of the above 39. Coverage under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha BimaYojana (PMSBY) for KCC holder, The benefit givenunder the scheme is Rs. ______ in case of accidental death or total and irrecoverable loss of both eyes orloss of use of both hands or feet or loss of sight of oneeye and loss of use of hand or foot and Rs. _____ incase of total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one eye or loss of use of one hand or foot a. Rs. 1.00 lakh ,Rs. 2.00 lakh b. Rs. 2.00 lakh ,Rs. 2.00 lakh c. Rs. 1.00 lakh ,Rs. 1.00 lakh d. Rs. 2.00 lakh ,Rs. 1.00 lakh e. Rs. 3.00 lakh ,Rs. 2.00 lakh 40. In KCC, the limit is to be fixed depending upon the crops cultivated as per proposed cropping pattern for the first year plus an additional _________% of the limit towards cost escalation / increase in scale of finance for every successive year (2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th year). a. 0.2 b. 0.1 c. 0.15 d. 0.25 e. 0.12
36 d 37 b 38 c 39 d 40 b 41. As per guidelines, KCC is issued for 05 years and is reviewed _______ a. Annually b. Monthly c. Half-yearly d. Qyarterly e. After 05 years 42. What is the restriction on number of debits & credits in KCC account? a. max 50 per quarter b. max 75 per quarter c. max 100 per half year d. No such restriction e. max 90 per quarter 43. What is the margin requirement for loan for production credit under KCC scheme. a. NIL Margin b. NIL margin upto Rs.1.60 lacs c. Margin is 25% above Rs.5 lacs d. NIL margin upto Rs.5 lacs
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e. None of the above 44. Which of the following can not be financed under Kisan Gold Scheme. a. Rural Housing related activities b. Consumption loan c. Productive purpose related to Agriculture & allied activities. d. Only a & b e. None of the above 45. Under Kisan Gold Scheme, ____% of the overall limit or Rs 5 lakh whichever is lower may be given for non productive purposes a. 30 b. 15 c. 10 d. 25 e. 20
41 a 42 d 43 a 44 e 45 d 46. Under Kisan Gold Scheme, out of non productive purpose limit, a maximum of Rs. ___ lakh for Rural Housing and maximum of Rs. ____ lakh for consumption purpose may be given. a. 3,2 b. 4,1 c. 2,3 d. 1,4 e. None of the Above 47. The total land holding of the borrower after the purchase of the land under Krishi Bhu-swami scheme should not exceed ____ acres of irrigated land or ____ acres of unirrigated land or equivalent. a. 3,5 b. 3,6 c. 2.5,5 d. 2.5,6 e. none of these 48. What is the maximum loan amount available under Krishi Bhu-swami Yojana? a. 45 lacs b. 30 lacs c. 20 lacs d. 50 lacs e. 25 lacs 49. Applicant farmers may be allowed to purchase agriculture land within a radius of ____ kms from the existing land owned by him/her or from the residence or within the command area whichever is higher. a. 20
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b. 25 c. 30 d. 5 e. 15 50. What is the scheme code for Krishi Bhu-swami yojana account in CBS? a. TLAOT b. TLATO c. TLRTO d. TLEOT e. TLKBS
46 a 47 c 48 c 49 e 50 a 51. What is the maximum gestation period available under Krishi Bhu-swami Yojana? a. 24 months b. 12 months c. 36 months d. 06 months e. 09 months 52. What is the maximum extent of loan under Krishak Sathi Scheme? a. 2 lacs b. 3 lacs c. 5 lacs d. 1 lac e. 10 lacs 53. What are the margin requirements under Krishak Sathi Scheme? a. NIL b. 0.1 c. 0.05 d. 0.25 e. 0.15 54. In Krishak Sathi Scheme loan is to be repaid in a. 3-5 years b. 5-7 years c. 5-10 years d. 8-12 years e. None of these 55. What is the maximum moratorium period under KSS Scheme? a. 24 months b. 12 months c. 36 months d. 06 months
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e. 09 months 51 a 52 d 53 a 54 b 55 b
56. It is the area which can be physically irrigated and is fit for cultivation. a. CCA-Culturable Controlled Area b. CCA-Culturable Command Area c. CCA-Cultivable Command Area d. CCA-Cultivable Controlled Area e. None of these. 57. Irrigation projects comes under Minor Irrigation project category which have a CCA less than a. 25000 hectares b. 20000 hectares c. 10000 hectares d. 3000 hectares e. 2000 hectares 58. Financing under minor irrigation activities includes: a. Purchase of pumpsets b. Dugwells c. Deepening /Repair of wells d. Shallow tube wells e. All of the above 59. What is the minimum land holding requirement for financing a minor irrigation project, except for cases sponsored by State Development Agencies? a. 2.5 acres b. 1 acre c. 10 acre d. 5 acres e. 2 acres 60. What is the extent of loan for a minor irrigation project? a. Need based b. 25 lacs c. 10 crores d. 10 lacs e. 1 crore
56 b 57 e 58 e 59 b 60 a 61. Who are eligible for financing for forestry development? a. Farmers b. SHGs c. JLGs d. Companies
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e. All of these 62. While financing projects formulated by Companies/Joint Sector Undertakings under forestry scheme, what is the minimum area to be planted? a. 3000 hectares b. 5000 hectares c. 2000 hectares d. 1000 hectares e. 7000 hectares 63. For financing individual borrowers for raising plantations under forestry scheme, minimum area for which loan may be granted may be kept as __ acre or 150 trees. a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 e. 4 64. Which of the following is not covered under Forestry development program? a. Farm forestry b. Development of tree borne oilseeds c. Jatropha Plantation d. Bamboo plantation e. None of the above 65. Which type of land should NOT be considered while financing under forestry development scheme? a. Marginal b. Degraded c. Wasteland d. Land already under cultivation for raising cereals etc. e. None of these.
61 e 62 b 63 d 64 e 65 d 66. What is the maximum repayment period for financing a Biogas plant with capacity upto 5 cubic meters? a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 3 years e. none of the above 67. Loans given to the farmers for setting up biogas plant shall be classified under Priority Sector - a. Social Infrastructure b. Agriculture
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c. Renewable Energy d. Weaker section e. None of the above 68. Under KISAN TATKAL YOJANA, limit upto Rs.50000 may be repaid in maximum a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 2 years d. 3 years e. None of the above 69. What is the nature of facility provided under scheme for financing agriculture activities on unregistered leased/rented land? a. Working Capital b. Term Loan c. Both TL as well as CC d. CC on reducing DP e. Any of the above 70. Under Kisan Tatkal Yojana, what is the maximum extent of loan? a. 15% of the existing limit with maximum Rs.10000/ b. 25% of the existing limit with maximum Rs.50000/ c. 5% of the existing limit with maximum Rs.20000/ d. 10% of the existing limit with maximum Rs.50000/ e. 25% of the existing limit with maximum Rs.60000/
66 b 67 c 68 a 69 a 70 b 71. What is the margin requirement under Kisan Tatkal Yojana? a. 0.1 b. 0.15 c. 0.25 d. NIL e. 0.2 72. Under Kisan Tatkal Yojana, what type of loan is provided? a. CC LIMIT ONLY b. Overdraft Reducing Limit ONLY c. TL ONLY d. Overdraft Reducing Limit OR TL e. FITL 73. Under PNB Saur Urja Yojana, what is the maximum quantum of loan? a. 25000 b. 75000 c. 50000 d. 100000
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e. 500000 74. Under PNB Saur Urja Yojana, what is the margin requirement? a. 0.1 b. 0.25 c. NIL d. 0.15 e. 0.2 75. Under PNB Saur Urja Yojana, what is the repayment period ? a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 3 years d. 4 years e. 7 years
71 d 72 d 73 c 74 d 75 a 76. What is the Scheme code for Produce (Marketing) Loan in CBS? a. DLWHR b. TLWHR c. CCOTH d. TLPER e. PLPEB 77. What is the maximum extent of loan under Produce (Marketing) Loan? a. 50 lacs b. 25 lacs c. 30 lacs d. 15 lacs e. 10 crores 78. Which of the following is eligible to avail Produce(Marketing) Loan? a. All the farmers irrespective of whether they were given crop loans for raising the produce or not. b. Farmers having availed KCC facility for crop production, should not be overdue. c. Loan against hypothecation of produce stored at the Farmers’ own premises will be allowed only to the farmers who have availed crop loan from our Bank. d. Other farmers will be financed only against pledge of warehouse/cold storage receipts e. All of the above 79. The benefit of concessional rate of interest and additional subvention (for loan upto Rs. 3 lakh) given under produce marketing scheme shall be restricted to loans repaid within ………….. months only. a. 12 b. 6 c. 18
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d. 9 e. 24 80. Who amongst the following is eligible for loan under the scheme Construction/Expansion/Modernization of cold storage and storage for horticultural produce? a. A natural person b. a group of individuals c. Cooperatives d. Agricultural Produce Marketing Committees e. All of these
76 a 77 a 78 e 79 b 80 e 81. What is the nature of loan facility under the scheme Construction of cold storage and storage for horticulture produce? a. Term loan b. Cash credit c. TERM LOAN and CASH CREDIT both d. FITL e. None of these 82. Which agency provides susbsidy for loan facility under the scheme Construction of cold storage and storage for horticulture produce? a. NABARD b. National Horticulture Board c. SIDBI d. KVIC e. MoRD 83. What is the maximum repayment period for loan facility under the scheme Construction of cold storage and storage for horticulture produce? a. 09 years b. 7 years c. 5 years d. 3 years e. 12 years 84. while financing to the Cold Storage units for facilitating the farmers against stock of their agriculture produce and also to meet the running expenses of cold storages, the nature of credit facility is a. Cash Credit b. Term Loan c. Both TL as well as CC d. NFB e. None of these
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85. Application of interest while financing to the Cold Storage units for facilitating the farmers against stock of their agriculture produce and also to meet the running expenses of cold storages on _______ basis. a. Yearly basis b. Monthly c. half yearly d. Quarterly e. Daily
81 a 82 b 83 a 84 a 85 c 86. while financing to the Cold Storage units for facilitating the farmers against stock of their agriculture produce and also to meet the running expenses of cold storages, the required value of collateral security is minimum ____% (realizable value)of the limit sanctioned. a. 100 b. 125 c. 130 d. 150 e. 75 87. Minimum ____ % margin is required while financing to the Cold Storage units for facilitating the farmers against stock of their agriculture produce and also to meet the running expenses of cold storages. a. 15 b. 10 c. 25 d. 30 e. 20 88. Which of the following is eligible for being financed under food and agro processing units? a. Fruit and vegetable processing b. Meat/ Poultry/ Fish Processing c. Fruit/ honey based wines d. Grains/ pulses, oil seed milling and processing e. All of the above 89. While financing a food and agro processing unit, what is the quantum of loan available? a. TL-Need based, WC-150 crores b. TL & WC- Both Need Based c. TL-25 crores,WC-50 crores d. TL-150 crores, WC-Need based e. None of these 90. Under food and agro processing unit, for evaluating loan proposals (limits> Rs. 2.00 Lakhs and up to Rs. 20.00 lakhs for both new and existing accounts, which scoring model will be used? a. PNB SCORE SME
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b. PNB TRAC c. PNB SCORE d. PNB FARM SCORE e. No Scoring is required
86 d 87 c 88 e 89 b 90 a 91. Scheme codes in CBS for a T/L and W/C limit to food and agro processing unit are _________. a. TLAFP and CCAFP b. TLAOT and WCAGR c. TLIOT & CCOTH d. TLAFP & CCOTH e. None of these 92. Which of the following may be financed to farmers as per our Agriculture Schemes? a. New trucks made by standard manufacturing concerns like Ashok Leyland, Tata, Mahindra, etc. b. Other new motorized light/medium vehicles like tempo, matador, jeeps, pick-up vans, mini-trucks and other light commercial vehicles made by standard manufacturing concerns. c. New two wheelers d. All of the above e. Only a and b 93. Loan for purchase of trucks shall be given to farmers whose land holding is _____ or more. a. 2 acres b. 3 acres c. 1.5 acres d. 5 acres e. 10 acres 94. Loans for purchase of light/medium vehicles like jeeps, pick-up vans, mini-trucks, etc., to be used for transport of agricultural inputs and farm products shall be made to farmers whose land holding is _______. a. 3 acres or more b. 5 acres or more c. 2 acres or more. d. 1.5 acres or more e. No such requirement 95. For two wheelers, farmer should have a land holding of ______ or more. a. 1 acre b. 2 acre c. 3 acre d. 1.5 acres e. No such requirement
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91 a 92 d 93 b 94 c 95 a 96. Repayment period for two wheelers is a. upto 6 years in 12 half yearly instalments. b. Maximum 5 years c. upto 3 years in 6 half yearly instalments. d. upto 5 years in 5 yearly instalments. e. upto 5 years in 10 half yearly instalments. 97. What is the loaning power of branch in agricultural sector . a. upto 5 lacs b. upto 3 lacs c. upto10 lacs d. upto 1 lacs only e. upto 2 lacs 98. PNB Kisan Card can be issued to the Staff Members After obtaining prior permission of a. Circle Head b. Branch Head c. Dy.Zonal Head- Credit d. RAM HEAD e. CANT BE ISSUED 99. For Tractor/Combine/Power Tiller models approval, proposal is sent to a. HO through Zonal Office by PLP/ CO. b. GM Agriculture Division for approval based on CH recommendation c. RAM Agriculture Division based on BH recommendation d. ZO on recommendation of PLP Head e. CO on recommendation of BH 100. PLP (RAM) Heads are empowered to sanction KCC loans _____________ a. ALL KCC LOANS b. Above Rs. 1 lac and up to Rs. 100 lacs c. Above Rs. 10 lac and up to Rs. 50 lacs d. Above Rs. 3 lac and up to Rs. 50 lacs e. Above Rs. 20 lac and up to Rs. 100 lacs
96 b 97 b 98 c 99 a 100 d 101. SCORE RANGE OF 40<50 in farm score model depicts a. Applications can be considered for sanction by next higher authority with proper justification b. Applications can be considered for sanction c. Applications cannot be considered for sanction. d. Applications can be considered for sanction by the competent authority e. Applications can't be considered for sanction by the next authority also.
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102. The scheme for financing setting up of Agri Clinics/Agri Business Centres is open to the age group: a. 18-60 years b. 21-35 years c. 25-60 years d. 30-40 years e. 21-60 years 103. Which of the following agency is responsible for providing training to eligible candidates for setting up agri clinic/business centre? a. MANAGE b. NABARD c. RSETI d. NTI e. None of the above 104. What is the maximum project cost eligible for subsidy available to an individual Project & Group Project for setting up an agri clinic/business centre? a. 20 lakhs & 100 Lakhs b. 10 lakhs & 100 Lakhs c. 10 lakhs & 50 Lakhs d. 20 lakhs & 50 Lakhs e. None of the above 105. Upto a loan amount of Rs.___ lakhs, the loan may be secured against hypothecation of assets created and no further security would be needed while Setting up an Agri Clinics/Agri Business Centres a. 10 b. 2 c. 15 d. 20 e. 5
101 a 102 a 103 a 104 a 105 e 106. Agri clinic/business centre ventures which score minimum ___ marks while being approved by Empowered Steering Committee, will be eligible for extended project cost of Rs.5 lakhs for consideration for subsidy. a. 80 b. 90 c. 75 d. 60 e. 55 107. Which of the following is a purpose of farm mechanization scheme? a. Purchase of new tractors and matching implements/equipments such as cultivators, harrows, disc ploughs, trolleys, etc.
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b. Purchase of new power tillers c. Purchase of tractors/ power tillers for the second time with matching implements d. Purchase of second hand tractors with matching implements e. All of the above 108. In case of financing a tractor, farmer or a group of farmers holding land jointly should have a land holding either owned by them or held by them on perpetual leasehold rights of minimum ____ acres of perennially irrigated land. a. 5 b. 2.5 c. 3 d. 4 e. 1.5 109. In case of financing a power tiller, farmer or a group of farmers holding land jointly should have a land holding either owned by them or held by them on perpetual leasehold rights of minimum ____ acres of perennially irrigated land. a. 5 b. 2.5 c. 3 d. 4 e. 1.5 110. Branches (having tractor portfolio of Rs 1.00 crore and above or 50 and more tractor loan accounts with less than ______% of recovery in tractor advances) will not sanction any such advance at their level and send proposals to the respective Circle Heads for sanction. a. 80 b. 90 c. 75 d. 60 e. 85
106 c 107 e 108 b 109 e 110 c 111. For financing Tractor without mortgage of land, what is the margin requirement? a. 0.25 b. 0.3 c. 0.4 d. 0.5 e. 0.1 112. For financing Tractor without mortgage of land, what is the extent of loan? a. 2 lacs b. 7 lacs c. 10 lacs d. Need based e. 5 lacs
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113. For financing Tractor without mortgage of land, what is the maximum repayment period? a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 3 years e. 12 years 114. While financing for milk production activity, minimum economic size of unit shall comprise of _____ milch animals, with the second animal being purchased after a lapse of 6-8 months. a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 115. While financing for milk production activity, bank finances for purchase of good quality high milk cows/buffaloes with minimum average daily milk yield of _____ liters or exotic cross bred cow. a. 7 b. 10 c. 15 d. 6.5 e. 6
111 c 112 d 113 b 114 b 115 d 116. While financing for milk production activity, animals at the time of advance should not preferably be in more than ______ lactation. a. 3rd b. 2nd c. 4th d. No such condition e. 5th 117. Which of the Following is the implementing agency for Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme? a. MoRD b. SLBC c. NABARD d. SIDBI e. CCEA 118. What is the quantum of subsidy available under DEDS scheme for General category? a. 25% of the project cost b. 15% of the project cost c. 5% of the project cost
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d. 75% of the project cost e. 30% of the project cost 119. What is the quantum of subsidy available under DEDS scheme for SC/ST category farmers? a. 33.33% of the project cost b. 15% of the project cost c. 5% of the project cost d. 75% of the project cost e. 30% of the project cost 120. What is the validity of PNB Dairy Vikas Card? a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 7 years e. 1 year
116 b 117 c 118 a 119 a 120 c 121. What is the maximum extent of loan under Dairy Vikas Card? a. 1 lac b. 10 lac c. 5 lacs d. 2 lacs e. 15 lacs 122. What is the maximum extent of loan while financing for development of horticulture and plantation crop? a. Need based b. 10 lac c. 5 lacs d. 2 lacs e. 15 lacs 123. Which one is an advantage of Green House? a. Certain crops could be grown year round to meet the market demands. b. High value and high quality crops could be grown for export market. c. Income from small land holding can be increased many fold. d. Helps to control pest and diseases. e. All of the above 124. Which of the following items are covered while financing for a green house? a. Construction of green house/ poly house b. Purchase of equipments/machinery c. Purchase of inputs and other expenses d. Requirement of post harvest operations and marketing
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e. All of the above 125. What is the maximum extent of loan while financing a green house? a. Need based b. 10 lac c. 50 lacs d. 25 lacs e. 75 lacs
121 a 122 a 123 e 124 e 125 a 126. Investment Loan upto Rs._____may be released in cash in case of a green house. a. 15000 b. 25000 c. 50000 d. 49000 e. 10000 127. What is maximum gestation period in case of mushroom cultivation? a. 3 months b. 12 months c. 6 months d. 7 months e. 18 months 128. What is the maximum repayment tenure, as decided by NABARD, in case of Pond Fish culture? a. 5-8 years b. 5-7 years c. 3-5 years d. 7-10 years e. 5-6 years 129. In case of purchase of sheep/goat, what is the optimum unit size adopted by the farmers? a. 1:15 (male : female) in case of sheep and 1:4 (male : female) in goats b. 1:20 (male : female) in case of sheep and 1:5 (male : female) in goats c. 1:20 (male : female) in case of sheep and 1:6 (male : female) in goats d. 1:10 (male : female) in case of sheep and 1:4 (male : female) in goats e. 1:20 (male : female) in case of sheep and 1:4 (male : female) in goats 130. What is the gestation period in case of sheep / goat breeding / rearing? a. 12 months b. 3 months c. 9 months d. 6 months e. 15 months
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126 c 127 c 128 a 129 e 130 a 131. What is the minimum and maximum repayment period in case of sheep breeding/goat rearing? a. 5-8 years b. 5-7 years c. 3-5 years d. 7-10 years e. 5-6 years 132. Which agency is the refinancing agency in case of sheep and goat financing? a. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying b. NABARD c. AAYUSH d. SIDBI e. KVIC 133. What is the margin requirement in case of piggery finance for an amount of Rs. 3 lacs? a. 0.1 b. 0.15 c. 0.2 d. 0.25 e. 0.3 134. Working capital finance for piggery development may be repaid in ______ years from the date of advance. a. 1.5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 e. 1 135. What is the maximum repayment period in case of Investment Credit for Piggery development? a. 5-6 years b. 7 years c. 8-10 years d. 3-5 years e. None of the above
131 e 132 b 133 a 134 a 135 a 136. In apiculture financing, following activities are covered for financing: a. Construction of honey houses; b. Purchase of colonies c. Purchase of equipments such as bee-boxes, honey extractors, smokers and bee veil, bee knife, sting proof rubber gloves, etc.
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d. Purchase of foundation sheets, sugar, medicines, gloves, etc. e. All of the above. 137. What is the gestation period in case of apiculture? a. 12 months b. 3 months c. 9 months d. 6 months e. 15 months 138. What is the maximum repayment period in case of Apiculture? a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 8-10 years d. 2 years e. None of the above 139. In sericulture financing, following activities are covered for financing: a. Cultivation of mulberry b. Rearing of silkworm c. Non-farm activities related to Sericulture d. Only a and c e. All of the first three. 140. What is the gestation period in case of sericulture? a. 12 months b. 3 months c. 9 months d. 6 months e. 15 months
136 e 137 a 138 a 139 e 140 a 141. What is the minimum and maximum repayment period in case of sericulture, depending on the activity financed? a. 5 years b. 4-9 years c. 8-10 years d. 2 years e. None of the above 142. What is the scheme code in CBS for opening loan account when financing for purchase of animal drawn vehicles? a. TLAOT b. TLPLB c. TLAGR d. TLDRW
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e. TLAAC 143. What is the stipulated margin in case of financing for purchase of animal drawn vehicles, for a loan amount of Rs.2 lakh? a. 0.05 b. 0.1 c. 0.15 d. 0.25 e. 0.3 144. Minimum size of the poultry unit to be financed as subsidiary activity should be ____ birds for providing in-built viability owing to economics of scale of operations. a. 1200 b. 1000 c. 600 d. 500 e. 400 145. In case of poultry finance, ____% of cost of shed may be disbursed in cash to enable borrower(s) to undertake construction work. a. 25 b. 15 c. 30 d. 50 e. 60
141 b 142 e 143 a 144 d 145 d 146. Insurance of poultry birds may be waived in the following condition: a. Collateral Security (realisable value) of minimum of 80 per cent of the loan amount to be obtained. b. Collateral Security (realisable value) of minimum of 110 per cent of the loan amount to be obtained. c. Collateral Security (realisable value) of minimum of 100 per cent of the loan amount to be obtained. d. Collateral Security (realisable value) of minimum of 75 per cent of the loan amount to be obtained. e. Can Not be waived 147. In case of organic farming, what is the maximum extent of loan? a. CC/TL-Need based,max upto 50 lacs. b. Only TL-25 lacs c. Only CC upto 30 lacs d. Both TL and CC - Need based e. None of these.
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148. What is the quantum of subsidy available for Biofertilisers and Biopesticides production Unit? a. 25% of total financial outlay subject to the maximum of Rs 40 lakh per unit, whichever is less. b. 25% of total financial outlay subject to the maximum of Rs 20 lakh per unit, whichever is less. c. 25% of total financial outlay subject to the maximum of Rs 30 lakh per unit, whichever is less. d. 25% of total financial outlay subject to the maximum of Rs 50 lakh per unit, whichever is less. e. 30% of total financial outlay subject to the maximum of Rs 40 lakh per unit, whichever is less. 149. For effective monitoring of progress of financing under organic farming schemes, _________ code are to be entered in Free code 7 in V detail: a. ORGRF b. RFORG c. ORGFR d. ORGKC e. ORGTL 150. Under PNB Ladli scheme, The selection shall be made amongst those girl students who are studying in class ____ to class ____. a. V to X b. VI to X c. IV to XII d. VI to XII e. V to XII
146 c 147 a 148 a 149 c 150 b
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PNB Retail Lending Schemes 2021 1. myPROPERTY Loan shall not be granted for? a. Investment in real estate business b. Speculation in stock c. Speculation in securities d. Prohibitive purposes as restricted by Law e. All of the above 2. Who is eligible for PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. Individual b. Joint owners c. Firms d. Both A & B e. All A,B and C 3. What is the minimum net monthly salary required for salaried individual to become eligible for PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. Rs.25,000/- b. Rs.30,000 c. Rs.35,000 d. Rs.40,000 e. Rs.45,000 4. What is the minimum net annual income required for other than salaried individual to become eligible for PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. Rs.250000/- b. Rs.3,00,000 c. Rs.3,50,000 d. Rs.4,00,000 e. Rs.4,50,000 5. How many co-borrowers (Other Than Co-owner) are permitted in PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. Not permitted
1 e 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 b 6. PNB myPROPERTY Loan is disbursed in the shape of? a. Term Loan b. Overdraft c. Demand Loan d. Cash Credit e. Both A and B 7. Restoration of OD limit in PNB myPROPERTY Loan is permitted after __ years subject to satisfactory conduct of account a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
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d. 4 e. 5 8. What is the Scheme Code to open Term Loan under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. TLPIP b. TLIPR c. TLPHL d. TLMPL e. TLGEN 9. What is the Scheme Code to open Overdraft under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. ODPIP b. ODIPR c. ODPHL d. ODMPL e. ODGEN 10. What is minimum loan amount under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. Rs.1 Lakh b. Rs.2 Lakh c. Rs.3 Lakh d. Rs.4 Lakh e. Rs.5 Lakh
6 E 7 c 8 a 9 b 10 b 11. What is maximum loan amount under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. Rs.100 Lakh b. Rs.200 Lakh c. Rs.300 Lakh d. Rs.400 Lakh e. Rs.500 Lakh 12. Internal Risk Rating in PNB myPROPERTY Loan is to be done through which model? a. PNB TRAC b. PNB Score c. PNB Score SME d. PNB Farm Score e. Rating is exempted 13. How much percentage of realizable value of the property can be sanctioned as loan under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. 60 b. 65 c. 70 d. 75 e. 80 14. What is the maximum limit that can be sanctioned to salaried under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. 65% of realizable value of the property b. 36 times of gross monthly salary on the basis of last/latest salary certificate c. 36 times the average gross monthly income of last three years as reported in the last three ITRs.
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d. Whichever is lower of ‘a’ and ‘b’ e. Whichever is lower of ‘a’ and ‘c’. 15. What is Max. Permissible Deduction of GMS/I if Gross monthly total salary/income up to Rs. 1.00 lakh? a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 0.7
11 e 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 d 16. What is Max. Permissible Deduction of GMS/I if Gross monthly total salary/income above Rs. 1.00 lakh? a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 0.7 17. Repaying capacity/ assessment of loan, is to be calculated on the basis of ________ for salaried borrower(s)? a. Latest salary slips b. Latest ITR c. Average of last two years ITR d. Average of last three years ITR e. Latest Form 16 18. Repaying capacity/ assessment of loan, is to be calculated on the basis of ________ for other than salaried borrower(s)? a. Latest salary slips b. Latest ITR c. Average of last two years ITR d. Average of last three years ITR e. Latest Form 16 19. Who will approve the rural areas having potential for PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. Branch Head b. RAM Head c. CH & Above d. Any Scale-IV Chief Manager e. RAPC Head 20. Overdraft on reducing DP basis to be liquidated under PNB myPROPERTY Loan in a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 15 years d. 20 years e. 25 years
16 e 17 a 18 d 19 c 20 b
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21. Drawing power will be reduced on___ basis to the extent of the principal component of the EMI calculated on full sanctioned limit in Overdraft under PNB myPROPERTY Loan ? a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly e. Half-early 22. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan, Term Loan together with interest to be repaid In maximum___EMI? a. 60 b. 75 c. 90 d. 120 e. 150 23. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan, what is the maximum prescribe age limit? a. 58 years b. 60 years c. 65 years d. 70 years e. 75 years 24. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,AGM incumbent RAM/iRAM and ZOCAC –I and above are empowered to relax the age criteria by ___years on merits of each case. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 25. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,Rate of Interest is based on? a. PNB Score b. CIC Score c. Nature of Loan d. Both A & C e. Both B & C
21 c 22 d 23 c 24 e 25 e 26. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,how much concession in ROI is permitted if Available Realizable Value of IP is Above 200% & upto 250% of loan amount? a. No concession b. 0.0025 c. 0.005 d. 0.0075 e. 0.01 27. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,how much concession in ROI is permitted if Available Realizable Value of IP is Above 250% & upto 300% of loan amount? a. No concession
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b. 0.0025 c. 0.005 d. 0.0075 e. 0.01 28. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,how much concession in ROI is permitted if Available Realizable Value of IP is Above 300% of loan amount? a. No concession b. 0.0025 c. 0.005 d. 0.0075 e. 0.01 29. In case where CIC score of applicant is having values (-1) or (0) i.e. no credit history, then rate in which bracket will be applicable under PNB myPROPERTY Loan? a. CIC Score 750 & above b. CIC Score 700 and up to 749 c. CIC Score less than 700 d. No price discounting permitted on CIC Score e. PNB Score 60 and above will be considered for price discounting 30. What should be the minimum residual life of property taken as security under PNB myPROPERTY Loan ? a. 10 years b. 15 years c. 20 years d. 25 years e. 30 years
1 b 2 c 3 d 4 b 5 d 31. In case of partly rented properties, finance may be allowed against the value of self-occupied portion only. However, power for sanction of such proposals under PNB myPROPERTY Loan vests with___________ a. Branch Head b. RAM Head c. RAPC Head d. Any Scale-IV Chief Manager e. AGM-RAM/iRAM ZOCAC-I & above. 32. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan, Property to be inspected ____ for regular accounts a. Once every year b. Once every half year c. At least once in three months d. Once every month e. Not required 33. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan, Property to be inspected ____ for irregular accounts a. Once every year b. Once every half year c. At least once in three months d. Once every month
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e. Not required 34. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan, Property to be inspected ____ for NPA accounts a. Once every year b. Once every half year c. At least once in three months d. Once every month e. Not required 35. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,What is the period of Inspection for regular accounts? a. Jan-Feb b. Jan-Mar c. Jan-June d. Jan-Sept e. Jan-Dec
31 e 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 e 36. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,What is the period of Inspection for irregular accounts? a. Jan-Dec b. January – June c. July-Dec d. Both B & C e. Periodic Inspection not required 37. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,What is the period of Inspection for NPA accounts? a. Jan-Mar b. Apr-June c. July-Sept d. Oct-Dec e. All of the above 38. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,How much Upfront Fee is to be charged? a. 0.75% of the loan Amount b. Rs.1.00 lakh + GST c. Rs.2.00 lakh + GST d. Both A or B whichever is lower e. Both A or C whichever is lower 39. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,The processing fee for overdraft facility to be recovered upfront one time applicable for___ years at the time of sanction? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 40. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,What are the Documentation Charges For Loan upto Rs. 50 Lakhs ? a. Rs.1000+GST b. Rs.2000+GST c. Rs.2500+GST
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d. Rs.5000+GST e. Rs.10000+GST
36 d 37 e 38 d 39 c 40 c 41. Under PNB myPROPERTY Loan,What are the Documentation Charges For Loan above Rs. 50 Lakhs ? a. Rs.1000+GST b. Rs.2000+GST c. Rs.2500+GST d. Rs.5000+GST e. Rs.10000+GST 42. While financing old car , Car should not be older than________ a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 3 years and unencumbered d. 3.5 years e. None of the above 43. How many Joint borrowers are permitted in Car Loan a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five e. unlimited 44. What should be Minimum net monthly salary / pension/ income in Car Loan a. Rs.10000 b. Rs.15000 c. Rs.20000 d. Rs.25000 e. No Minimum Limit 45. Which one is true regarding Maximum Loan Amount in Car Loan For individuals / Proprietorship concerns? a. 25 times of Gross Monthly Salary/ Pension/ Income b. Maximum Rs.100 lac for one or more vehicles c. 20 times of Gross Monthly Salary / Pension / Income d. A & B e. B & C
41 d 42 c 43 a 44 d 45 d 46. Which one is true regarding Maximum Loan Amount in Car Loan to business concern ( Corporate or Non-Corporate concerns) a. 25 times of Net Monthly Salary / Pension/ Income b. Ceiling of Rs.100 lac(for one or more vehicles) c. No ceiling of loan amount for one or more vehicles. d. A & B e. None of the above 47. What will be the Margin, required for financing a new Car Loan
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a. 15% of on-road price inclusive of one time road tax & insurance in New Vehicle b. 15% of showroom price inclusive of one time road tax & insurance in New Vehicle c. 10% of on-road price inclusive of one time road tax & insurance in New Vehicle d. 10% of showroom price inclusive of one time road tax & insurance in New Vehicle e. None of the above 48. What will be the Margin, required for financing an Old Car a. 10% of the value of the vehicle. b. 15% of the value of the vehicle. c. 20% of the value of the vehicle. d. 25 % of the value of the vehicle. e. None of the above 49. Which will be the Margin, required for financing a Car Loan under tie up arrangement with manufactured/Dealers a. 10% of on-road price b. 100% financing of Exshowroom price c. 100% of on-road price d. A & B e. B & C 50. Valuation of old vehicles to be done at a. Current invoice price b. current invoice price of the new vehicle less depreciation @ 15% p.a. on straight line method. c. current invoice price of the new vehicle less depreciation @ 15% p.a. on written down value method. d. current invoice price of the new vehicle less depreciation @ 20% p.a. on straight line method. e. current invoice price of the new vehicle less depreciation @ 20% p.a. on written down value method.
46 c 47 a 48 d 49 d 50 b 51. What is maximum repayment period for new car a. 36 months b. 48 months c. 60 months d. 72 months e. 84 months 52. What is maximum repayment period for Old car a. 36 months b. 48 months c. 60 months d. 72 months e. 84 months 53. What is maximum age upto which borrower can repay Car Loan a. 60 years b. 70 years for salaried persons with pension c. 65 years for others d. ZOCAC-I & above may further relax the criteria by 5 years e. B , C & D
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54. How much Max. Permissible Deductions is allowed in case of Car Loan if GMS/I is upto Rs.50000 a. 40% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 50%) b. 40% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 45%) c. 50% (AGM RAM/iRAM & ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 60%) d. 50% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 55%) e. 60% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 70%) 55. How much Max. Permissible Deductions is allowed in case of Car Loan if GMS/I is more than Rs.50000 a. 40% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 50%) b. 40% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 45%) c. 50% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 60%) d. 60% (ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 70%) e. 60% (AGM RAM/iRAM & ZOCAC I and above may permit upto 70%)
51 e 52 c 53 e 54 c 55 e 56. What should be minimum DSCR in case of Business Concern in Car Loan? a. 1.5:1 b. 1.33:1 c. 1.25:1 d. 1.75:1 e. No condition of Minimum DSCR 57. In case of Joint applicants, CIC score of one applicant is 800 and other applicant is (-1) or (0) i.e. no credit history then floating rate applicable in which bracket will be considered? a. CIC Score 750 & above b. CIC Score 700 and up to 749 c. CIC Score less than 700 d. No price discounting permitted on CIC Score e. PNB Score 60 and above will be considered for price discounting 58. In case of Joint applicants, CIC score of one applicant is 750 and other applicant is 700 then floating rate applicable in which bracket will be considered? a. CIC Score 750 & above b. CIC Score 700 and up to 749 c. CIC Score less than 700 d. No price discounting permitted on CIC Score e. PNB Score 60 and above will be considered for price discounting 59. In case of Joint applicants, CIC score of one applicant is 750 and other applicant is 680 then floating rate applicable in which bracket will be considered? a. CIC Score 750 & above b. CIC Score 700 and up to 749 c. CIC Score less than 700 d. No price discounting permitted on CIC Score e. PNB Score 60 and above will be considered for price discounting 60. The rate of interest under Fixed Rate Option shall be reviewed and re-set by the Bank after each block period of a. 2 years b. 3 years
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c. 4 years d. 5 years e. Fixed Rate of interest will remain same till Repayment Period
56 e 57 a 58 b 59 c 60 b 61. Under Car Loan Scheme, No prepayment charges of 2% is to be levied in which of the following case? a. Floating ROI b. Where the loans are prepaid by the borrowers from their own sources. c. Where the borrower shift to other bank within 30 days from the date of issuance of circular for upward revision in the rate of interest to be charged in his account or change in other terms of sanction d. If closure of loan is on the instance of the Bank on account of size of irregularity,possibility of default in future or any other technical or other specific reasons e. All of the above 62. Third party guarantee / collateral security is waived in which of the following cases under Car Loan Scheme? a. Permanent Employees of Central Govt. /State Govt. /PSUs/ MNCs/ Listed Companies at BSE or NSE (whose Shares are actively traded and quoted above par). b. Gross Monthly salary is More than Rs.50000.00 c. Gross Monthly salary is Less than Rs.50000.00 d. Both A & B e. Both A & C 63. What is true about INSURANCE OF VEHICLE a. Obtain comprehensive insurance policy (covering third party insurance also. b. Insurance policy should be with agreed Bank clause c. Policy to remain deposited with the bank d. All are correct e. None of the above 64. What is true about security in Car Loan a. Vehicle purchased to be hypothecated to the bank b. Name of the Bank/branch must be mentioned on the JRC c. Verified copy of the same to be kept on record d. All are correct e. None of the above 65. What is true about registarion of vehicle a. RC may also be extracted from “VAHAN PORTAL b. vehicle registered with the VAHAN Registry shall be deemed to be registered with the Central Registry c. Vehicle Details extracted from VAHAN Portal must be treated equivalent to the copy of JRC provided by the borrower. d. All are correct e. None of the above
61 e 62 d 63 d 64 d 65 d 66. What is true about inspection of car a. first verification of vehicle is mandatory
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b. For irregular accounts and accounts under NPA category, the inspection be done on quarterly or at such shorter intervals as the situation demands c. Where the loan account is running regular the requirement of periodical Inspection, including obtaining of PNB 551, may be done away with. d. All are correct e. None of the above 67. To check Car Manufacturer Progress Report, it has been decided to capture the name of Car Manufacturer at__________places in CBS? a. Free Text Field 1 in MIS Codes b. Free Text Field 2 in MIS Codes c. Free Text Field 4 in MIS Codes d. Free Text Field 7 in MIS Codes e. Free Text Field 9 in MIS Codes 68. Sales Executives of CAR shall be eligible to be paid service charges @ 0.35% if he gives lead of ______ a. Up to 10 vehicles or Loan amount upto Rs. 40 Lakhs in F. b. 11 to 40 vehicles or Loan amount above Rs. 40.00 Lakh & upto Rs. 1.25 Crore in F c. Above 40 vehicles or Loan amount above Rs. 1.25 Cr. In F d. 1.50% per lead irrespective of amount e. We don't pay any service charges 69. Sales Executives of CAR shall be eligible to be paid service charges @ ______, if he gives lead Up to 10 vehicles or loan amount upto Rs.40 lakh a. 0.0025 b. 0.003 c. 0.015 d. 0.017 e. 0.0195 70. Sales Executives of CAR shall be eligible to be paid service charges @ ______, if he gives lead from 11 to 40 vehicles or loan amount above Rs.40.00 lakh & upto Rs.1.25 crore a. 0.0025 b. 0.003 c. 0.015 d. 0.017 e. 0.0195
66 d 67 e 68 c 69 a 70 b 71. Car Dealers shall be eligible to be paid service charges @ ______, if he gives lead of Up to 10 vehicles or loan amount upto Rs. 40 lakh a. 0.0025 b. 0.0035 c. 0.015 d. 0.017 e. 0.0195 72. Car Dealers shall be eligible to be paid service charges @ ______, if he gives lead for 11 vehicles 40 or loan amount upto Rs. 40 lakh to Rs.1.25 crore a. 0.0025
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b. 0.003 c. 0.015 d. 0.017 e. 0.0195 73. Car Dealers shall be eligible to be paid service charges @ ______, if he gives lead above 40 vehicles or loan amount above Rs.1.25 crore a. 0.0025 b. 0.003 c. 0.015 d. 0.017 e. 0.0195 74. Under tie-up arrangement with PSUs, corporates, institutions or in case of bulk busines Circle Head can give relaxation in…….. a. CHs may reduce Margin upto 10% of on-road price b. CHs and above may relax repayment period further by 12 months c. Maximun repayment period may be upto 96 months d. ALL ARE CORRECT e. none of these 75. Under tie-up arrangement with PSUs, corporates, institutions or in case of bulk busines, what is true? a. No guarantee required if take home pay is more than Rs.30000.00 b. no guarantee required If there is no default in repayment of EMI in home/personal loan for the past three months , if any c. Bulk business would imply a minimum of 5 car borrowers from the same organization at one time (within a calendar quarter) d. ALL ARE CORRECT e. none of these
71 c 72 d 73 e 74 d 75 d 76. IBA has clarified that any vehicle registered with the _______ shall be deemed to be registered with the Central Registry for the purpose of SARFAESI Act, 2002. a. RTO b. CIR c. CERSAI d. VAHAN Registry e. CFR 77. What is menu option to capture the details of JRC? a. HACM b. HACLHM c. HCLM d. HSCLM e. HCLL 78. INSTA - VEHICLE LOAN Scheme is available to whom a. All existing home loan borrower accounts where the loan has run for minimum 3 years (excluding moratorium period)without a single default in EMI b. All existing MSME Borrowers with satisfactory track record of 5 years
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c. All existing AGRICULTURE Borrowers with satisfactory track record of 5 years d. All existing home loan borrower accounts where the loan has run for minimum 5 years (excluding moratorium period)without a single default in EMI e. none of these 79. What is the purpose of INSTA - VEHICLE LOAN Scheme? a. Purchase of car for personal use b. Purchase of two wheeler for personal use c. Purchase of NEW HOUSE d. A & B e. none of these 80. Maximum repayment period in Insta Vehicle Loan scheme a. Four Wheelers : 100 months b. Two Wheelers. : 84 months c. Four Wheelers : 84 months d. Two Wheelers. : 60 months e. A & B
76 d 77 c 78 a 79 d 80 e 81. What is true about PNB Combo Loan Scheme a. to provide Car Loan at concessional Rate of Interest b. to provide attractive /lucrative Terms and conditions to Housing Loan borrowers c. Car Loan will be secured through extension of Mortgage on the Housing Loan Property d. All are true e. none of above 82. What is true about PNB Combo Loan Scheme a. Housing Loan Borrowers with Sanction Limit of Rs. 15Lacs and above are eligible b. Only Brand New 4 Wheelers will be financed c. Purchase of Old Car is not elligible d. All are true e. None of the above 83. Housing Loan can be advanced for which of the following purpose/s ? a. For construction of house/ flat b. For purchase of built house/flat c. For carrying out Additions to the house/flat d. For purchase of land/plot for house building. e. All the above. 84. In Housing Loan whose Income should be taken into account for determining the income for the purpose of borrowers’ repaying capacity. a. Income of Spouse only b. Income of Married & Earning Children only c. Income of Unmarried & Earning Children only d. Income of Joint owners of the property only e. All the above. 85. What is the maximum number of co-borrowers that can be given housing loan jointly ? a. No such Limit
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b. Maximum 2 c. Maximum 3 d. Maximum 4 e. Maximum 5
81 d 82 d 83 e 84 e 85 a 86. Housing Loan for Construction/ Addition/ Purchase of House/ Flat can be financed maximum up to Rs._______? a. Need Based b. 50 Lakh c. 100 Lakh d. 300 Lakh e. 500 Lakh 87. Housing Loan for Purchase of Land/ Plot for house building can be financed maximum up to Rs. ___ ? a. Need Based b. 50 Lakh c. 100 Lakh d. 300 Lakh e. 500 Lakh 88. AGM RAM/iRAM & ZOCAC-I may sanction housing Loan for Purchase of Plot/ land at Metro/ State Capitals up to maximum Rs______? a. Need Based b. 50 Lakh c. 100 Lakh d. 300 Lakh e. 500 Lakh 89. ZOCAC II may sanction housing Loan for Purchase of Plot/ land where plots are allotted by State Developments Authority / State Housing Board at Metro/ State Capitals up to maximum Rs______? a. Need Based b. 50 Lakh c. 100 Lakh d. 300 Lakh e. 500 Lakh 90. ZOCAC-II may sanction housing Loan for Purchase of Plot/ land at all centers up to maximum Rs______? a. Need Based b. 50 Lakh c. 100 Lakh d. 300 Lakh e. 500 Lakh
86 a 87 b 88 c 89 e 90 d 91. Loan amount for purchase of Land/Plot under any circumstance is not more than ________ of the eligible loan amount as per the repayment capacity. a. 0.4 b. 0.5
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c. 0.6 d. 0.7 e. None of the above 92. The extent of Loan for Repairs/ Renovation of house under Housing Loan Scheme can be maximum up to Rs____ Lakh a. 15 Lakh b. 20 Lakh c. 25 Lakh d. 30 Lakh e. 35 Lakh 93. In Housing Loan the Repayment Period can be allowed up to the Age of ______ without any relaxation. a. 60 ears b. 62 ears c. 65 ears d. 70 ears e. No Age Limit 94. The Maximum Repayment Period for Construction / Addition / Purchase of House / Plot / Flat / under Housing Loan Scheme including Moratourium Period can be ? a. 15 ears b. 25 ears c. 30 ears d. 35 ears e. None of the above 95. The Maximum Repayment Period for Repairs / Renovation under Housing Loan Scheme Including Moratourium period can be ? a. 15 ears b. 25 ears c. 30 ears d. 35 ears e. None of the above
91 c 92 c 93 d 94 c 95 a 96. The Maximum Moratorium Period can be ____ Months in case of purchase of ready built House / flat OR land / plot under Housing Loan Scheme. a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 18 months e. 36 months 97. The Maximum Moratorium Period can be ____ Months in case of Construction/ Addition/ Flat under Housing Loan Scheme. a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 36 months
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e. 60 months 98. The Maximum Moratorium Period can be _________ Months in case of Repairs / Renovation under Housing Loan Scheme. a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. 36 months e. 60 months 99. The Maximum Moratorium Period can be _________ for under-construction flats/houses built by approved private builders a. Till possession is handed over to the purchaser (borrower) b. Maximum 48 months c. As declared in RERA by the Builder/Developer d. All of the above e. None of the above 100. Housing Loan for under construction flat of approved private builder, how much loaning powers vested with Incumbent in Scale III ? a. No Loaning Power b. Vested Term Loan Powers c. 110 % Vested Term Loan Powers d. 125 % Vested Term Loan Powers e. None of the above
96 a 97 c 98 a 99 d 100 a 101. What percent of margin is required, if the Loan amount sanctioned under Housing Loan Scheme is above Rs.30 lakh and up to Rs.75/- Lakh. a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.25 d. 0.15 e. 0.3 102. What percent of margin is required, if the Loan amount sanctioned under Housing Loan Scheme is for purchase of Plot/ Land. a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.25 d. 0.15 e. 0.3 103. What percent of margin is required, if the Loan amount sanctioned under Housing Loan Scheme is above Rs.75/- Lakh. a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.25 d. 0.15 e. 0.3
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104. What is the extra ROI that Borrower will have to pay if he wants to contribute margin of 15% for Housing Loan up to Rs.30 lakh? a. 0.0005 b. 0.001 c. 0.0015 d. 0.002 e. 0.0025 105. The Maximum Permissible Deduction can be _____ %, if the Gross Annual Salary/Income is upto Rs.5.00 lakh under PNB Housing loan Scheme. a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 0.7
101 b 102 c 103 c 104 b 105 c 106. The Maximum Permissible Deduction can be _____ %, if the Gross Annual Salary/Income is above Rs.5.00 lakh upto Rs.10 lakh under PNB Housing loan Scheme. a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 0.7 107. The Maximum Permissible Deduction can be _____ %, if the Gross Annual Salary/Income is above Rs.10 lakh under PNB Housing loan Scheme. a. 0.3 b. 0.4 c. 0.5 d. 0.6 e. 0.7 108. AGM RAM/iRAM, ZOCAC-I & above, shall permit higher %age deduction of GAS/I subject to Maximum _______ over & above the prescribed ceiling under each bracket of NMS/I under PNB Housing loan Scheme. a. 0.05 b. 0.1 c. 0.15 d. 0.2 e. None of the above 109. For all class of borrower(s) the regularity of income of the borrower(s) over the entire span of loan should be clearly established before sanction of loan. ITR for the last _________ be taken & perused under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. One ear b. Two ears c. Three ears d. Four ears e. None of the above
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110. Where 2 years ITRs/Form 16 is not available on account of lesser service period, the sanctioning authority may consider sanction of loan provided last _______ salary under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 24 months e. None of the above
106 d 107 e 108 b 109 b 110 c 111. For other than Salaried class, deviation regarding availability of ITRs/ABSs may be permitted by AGM RAM/iRAM, ZOCAC-I & above subject to taking of minimum ______ latest ITRs/ABSs under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. One ear b. Two ears c. Three ears d. Four ears e. None of the above 112. If the Loan is advanced for Purchase of Plot under Housing Loan Scheme and the Plot is Sold or account closed without Construction within ____ ears from date of first disbursement. Rate of Interest applicable to Commercial Real Estate as per PNB Score will be charged from the date of first disbursement. a. 3 ears b. 4 ears c. 5 ears d. 6 ears e. None of the above 113. Under PNB Housing Loan Scheme, AGM RAM/iRAM, ZOCAC-I and above are empowered to consider requests for an amount of loan maximum upto Rs. ________ under LOAN ON PARI PASSU OR SECOND CHARGE BASIS a. 10 Lakh b. 20 Lakh c. 30 Lakh d. 40 Lakh e. None of the above 114. Non- CRE where ______ of the monthly installment of the loan is to be repaid from the borrower’s own income and not from rental income of the house/flat/unit being financed under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. more than 15 % b. more than 25 % c. more than 35 % d. more than 50% e. None of the above 115. CRE where ______ of the monthly installment of the loan is to be repaid from the rental income of the house/flat/unit being financed under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. more than 15 % b. more than 25 %
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c. more than 35 % d. more than 50% e. None of the above
111 a 112 c 113 b 114 d 115 d 116. Incumbents may allow existing H/L borrowers to change the option from Fixed to Floating rate of interest and vice versa. Such change of option shall not, however, be permitted for a minimum period of _____, under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. 1 years b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years e. 5 years 117. Change the option from Fixed to Floating rate of interest and vice versa shall, however, be subject to payment of _____ flat fee on the balance outstanding in the account under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. 0.01 b. 0.02 c. 0.03 d. 0.04 e. 0.05 118. Security Verification to be carried out __________ for regular accounts after initial end use verification under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. Quarterly basis b. Half yearly basis c. once in a year d. once in two years e. None of the above 119. Security Verification to be carried out __________ for NPA accounts under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. Quarterly basis b. Half yearly basis c. once in a year d. once in two years e. None of the above 120. In case of ______defaults in repayment, inspection should be carried out immediately under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. One b. Two Continuous c. Three Continuous d. Four Continuous e. None of the above
116 c 117 b 118 d 119 b 120 b 121. Reimbursement in Housing Loan may be allowed to prospective borrowers, who have purchased property out of their own sources, provided request for such reimbursements are made within a
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maximum period of ______ from the date of purchase of said property under PNB Housing Loan Scheme. a. One Month b. Five Months c. Three Months d. Six Months e. None of the above 122. Reimbursement in Housing Loan may be permitted by _______________after duly verifying the source of funds for purchase of said property. a. Branch Heads Scale IV & above b. COCAC only c. AGM-RAM/iRAM/ZOCAC-I & above d. Zonal Head & above e. ZOCAC only 123. What is the Service Charges to be recovered while taking over the housing loan. a. Rs. 1500/- Exclusive of GST b. Rs. 1500/- Inclusive of GST c. Rs. 2500/- Exclusive of GST d. Rs. 2500/- Inclusive of GST e. None of the above 124. If a house loan sanctioned under FIXED RATE OF INTEREST than which among the following is true regarding PREPAMENT charges. a. No prepayment charges, Where the loans are prepaid by the borrowers from their own sources. b. No Prepayment Charges, where the borrower shifts to other bank within 30 days from the date of issuance of circular for upward revision in the rate of interest c. No Prepayment Charges, where the borrower shifts to other bank within 15 days from the date of issuance of circular for upward revision in the rate of interest d. A & C e. A & B 125. The Processing Fee for providing In-Principle Sanction Letter will be collected upfront. In the event of rejection of Housing Loan proposal by Bank, irrespective of the reasons, full Processing Fee will be refunded to the customer if claimed within _____ of getting the In-principle Sanction. a. 7 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 45 days e. 60 days
121 c 122 c 123 c 124 e 125 d 126. What will be the validity of Provisional Sanction Letter under housing loan. a. One month from the date of issue. b. Two months from the date of issue. c. Three months from the date of issue. d. Six months from the date of issue. e. None of the above
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127. System generated Provisional Interest Certificate for the complete financial year be provided to all Housing Loan borrowers, which is available under __________ by providing 16 digit account number of Housing Loan A/c. a. PNBRPT 3/56 b. PNBRPT 3/56a c. PNBRPT 3/56b d. PNBRPT 3/56c e. None of the above 128. Statement of Account of all the Housing Loan Accounts are generated in the first week of April and issued/ dispatched by 30th April every year in the Housing Loan account without waiting for any specific request from the borrowers. The annual statement of account containing all the relevant details can be generated in MIS server under ________. a. PNBRPT 3/56 b. PNBRPT 3/56a c. PNBRPT 3/56b d. PNBRPT 3/56c e. None of the above 129. The Interest Certificate be issued to all housing loan account holders without any specific request from them and dispatched at the registered address of the Housing Loan Borrowers within _______ from the close of respective Financial ear. a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 60 days e. None of the above 130. The property must be re-visited by a bank official different from the one who made pre-sanction visit within a maximum of _____ after disbursement of loan. a. 7 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 30 days e. 45 days
126 c 127 b 128 a 129 b 130 b 131. What percentage of current realizable value of housing property can be extented if the loan amount is upto Rs.30 lac. a. 0.7 b. 0.75 c. 0.8 d. 0.85 e. 1 132. What percentage of current realizable value of housing property can be extented if the loan amount is above Rs.75 lac. a. 0.7 b. 0.75 c. 0.8 d. 0.85
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e. 1 133. In case of Housing loan under Commercial Real Estate (CRE) the applicable rate of interest will be ___ higher than the normal rate of interest across all slabs. a. 0.001 b. 0.0025 c. 0.005 d. 0.0075 e. 0.01 134. Who is eligible under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan Scheme? a. Prospective borrower - As per our existing “Housing Finance Scheme for Public”. b. Existing borrower - Where complete disbursement has been made c. Existing borrower - Housing Loan account is running regular d. Existing borrower - no outstanding inspection irregularity e. All of the above 135. Who is not eligible under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan Scheme? a. Salaried Class b. Businessman c. Agricultarist d. Women e. Borrowers which are falling under Commercial Real Estate (CRE)
131 d 132 b 133 e 134 e 135 e 136. What will be the charges for conversion in case the customer has paid Upfront Fees & Documentation Charges at the time of availing Housing Loan under Max Saver HL ? a. One time charges of Rs 1000/- + GST b. One time charges of Rs 1500/- + GST c. One time charges of Rs 2000/- + GST d. One time charges of Rs 2500/- + GST e. Charges as per extant guidelines applicable to “Housing Finance Scheme for Public”. 137. What will be the charges for conversion in case the customer has not paid Upfront Fees & Documentation Charges at the time of availing Housing Loan i.e. loan is sanctioned under Bonanza Offers or charges have been waived by the competent authority under Max Saver HL ? a. One time charges of Rs 1000/- + GST b. One time charges of Rs 1500/- + GST c. One time charges of Rs 2000/- + GST d. One time charges of Rs 2500/- + GST e. Charges as per extant guidelines applicable to “Housing Finance Scheme for Public”. 138. Loan under Max Saver HL isn't allowed for which purpose? a. For construction of house/ flat b. For purchase of built house/flat c. For carrying out Additions to the house/flat d. For purchase of only land/plot e. None of the above
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139. The Minimum Loan Amount that can be advanced under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan Scheme is Rs. ____ Lakh a. Rs. 0.50 Lakhs b. Rs. 1.00 lakh c. Rs. 5.00 lakh d. Rs. 10.00 lakh e. None of the above 140. The Maximum Loan Amount that can be advanced under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan Scheme is Rs____ Lakh a. Need Based b. 100 lakh c. 200 lakh d. 300 Lakh e. None of the above
136 d 137 e 138 d 139 d 140 a 141. What would be Nature of Facilty in which loan can be sanctioned under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan? a. Cash Credit b. Term Loan c. Demand Loan d. Overdraft e. Overdraft on monthly reducing Drawing Power (DP) basis 142. What would be Scheme Code for Overdraft opened under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan? a. ODPVL b. ODGEN c. ODMAX d. ODSTF e. MAXOD 143. Which borrower is offered best ROI on the basis of CIC Score under Max Saver HL? a. CIC Score 750 & above b. CIC Score 700 and up to 749 c. CIC Score less than 700 d. CIC Score less than 650 e. CIC Score (-1) or (0) 144. Under PNB MAX Saver Housing Loan, concession under PNB PRIDE is given to? a. Permanent employees of Central Govt b. Permanent employees of State Govt c. Para Military personnel d. Pensioners of Central & State Govt e. All of the above 145. How much more ROI is charged for Loan up to Rs. 30 Lakh having LTV more than 80% up to 85% than Loan up to Rs. 30.00 lakh having LTV of up to 80%? a. 0.0005 b. 0.001 c. 0.0015
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d. 0.002 e. 0.0025
141 e 142 c 143 a 144 e 145 b 146. In case of housing loan under “Max Saver Scheme” (OD variant of Housing Loan), the additional Rate of Interest of ___under each slab will be applicable based on the Credit Score of the borrower/s. a. 0.0005 b. 0.0015 c. 0.0025 d. 0.005 e. 0.0075 147. Concession of ___ is available to the women borrower on the applicable rate of interest under all slabs of Housing Finance Scheme for Public and Floating under Max Saver? a. 0.0005 b. 0.0015 c. 0.0025 d. 0.005 e. 0.0075 148. PNB Score Model is applicable to................. a. only house loan b. only car loan c. only personal loan d. only education loan e. applicable to all of the above 149. Scoring is NOT required under PNBScore, when financeing to ---------------. a. PNB House Loan b. gold loan c. advance against FDR & govt.securities d. PNB Baghban e. B,C & D 150. PNB score Model is applicable to unlimited loan amount, i.e., even beyond Rs.50.00 lac in -----------------. a. Vehicle Loan (loans to individuals b. Housing Loan c. Education Loan Schemes d. Loan Against Mortgage of Immovable Property to Individuals e. ALL OF THE ABOVE
146 b 147 a 148 e 149 e 150 e 151. Vehicle Loans sanctioned to Business concerns, i.e., Companies, Partnership firms, etc., shall be scored/rated in which model a. Pnb score Model b. CLAPS c. eVEDA d. Credit Risk Rating Model e. none of the above
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152. Car loans to business concerns for personal use of their executives,i.e., other than for use in the business, will be rated on …………model a. Pnb score Model b. CLAPS c. eVEDA d. Credit Risk Rating Model e. none of the above 153. In PNB Score Model, if pnb score is up to 40 while financing to other than education loans , who is the competent authority to sanction loan a. Branch Power b. RAM c. PLP d. MCC e. NO ONE CAN SANCTION 154. In PNB Score Model, if pnb score is 50 , who is the competent authority to sanction loan a. Branch Power b. RAM c. RAD d. MCC e. Next Higher Authority 155. In PNB Score Model, if pnb score is 51 , who is the competent authority to sanction loan a. Branch can sanction under vested loaning powers b. only RAM c. only circle office d. only MCC e. Next Higher Authority
151 d 152 a 153 e 154 e 155 a 156. In PNB Score Model, score upto 40 is shown in which colour ? a. Green zone b. Red zone c. Blue zone d. White e. Orange 157. In PNB Score Model, score Above 40 – up to 50, is shown in which colour a. Green zone b. Red zone c. Blue zone d. White e. ELLOW 158. In PNB Score Model, score Above 50 – up to 75, is shown in which colour a. Green zone b. Red zone c. Blue zone d. White e. ELLOW
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159. In PNB Score Model, score above 75 is shown in which colour ? a. Green zone b. Red zone c. Blue zone d. White e. ELLOW 160. PNB Score Model block the Appraising Officer (Maker User) FROM creating fresh Score Card a. WHEN the number of unauthorized Score Card exceeds 7 b. WHEN the number of unauthorized Score Card exceeds 8 c. WHEN the number of unauthorized Score Card exceeds 9 d. WHEN the number of unauthorized Score Card exceeds 10 e. WHEN the number of unauthorized Score Card exceeds 15
156 b 157 e 158 a 159 c 160 a 161. PNB Score Model block the Appraising Officer (Maker User) FROM creating fresh Score Card a. Eeven if one score card is pending for authorization for more than one month . b. IF even one score card is pending for authorization for more than 15 days. c. IF even one score card is pending for authorization for more than 10 days. d. IF even one score card is pending for authorization for more than two month . e. none of the above
161 a
