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Certified Safety Health Manager

COMPREHENSIVE EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Questions and Answer KeysArea I General Business ManagementArea II Management MethodsArea III Safety, Health and Environmental ApplicationsArea IV Risk Management Control

Prepared bySteven J. Geigle, M.A., CSHM, CET

OSHAcademy Safety Training Network

Disclaimer

The information in this study guide has been compiled by the Author from various sources and texts recommended by the Institute for Safety and Health Management (ISHM) www.ishm.org for study. The information contained within this study guide represents the best current information on the four subject areas of focus within the 150-question Certified Safety Health Manager (CSHM) examination administered by ISHM. No guarantee, warranty of other representation is made as to the absolute correctness or sufficiency of any information contained in this study guide. The author assumes no responsibility in connection therewith. The author cannot warrant that the use of this preparation guide will result in certification. While the content is representative of the knowledge required of a safety and health manager, the successful completion of the CSHM examination depends on many factors including the applicant's academic background, safety management experience and individual study for the examination. This information is for educational purposes only and does not replace any regulations promulgated by state of federal government agencies.

CSHM Certified Safety Health Manager Comprehensive Study GuideISBN: Pending

© 2008 Geigle Communications LLC

You may contact the author at: OSHAcademy Safety Training Network515 NW Saltzman Road #767Portland OR 97229-6098503.292.0654 or 866.292.1430www.oshatrain.org

http://www.oshatrain.org/

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Table of Contents

Volume 1: Area I – General and Business Management 1A. Finance 3B. Cost Accounting 9C. Employee Relationships/Human Resources 13D. Ethics and Law 19E. Organization Structure 29F. Training and Development 36

Answer Keys 46

Volume 2: Are II – Management Methods 57A. SMBO/TQM 59B. Systems Safety 69C. Auditing 77D. Data Analysis and Statistics 86E. Safety in Design 90F. Benchmarking 96G. Behavioral Safety Processes 103H. Root Cause Analysis 107I. Safety Management Theory 114

Answer Keys 120

Volume 3: Are III – Safety, Health and Environment Applications 133A. Compliance Management 135B. Environment 150C. Ergonomics 155D. Toxicology 163E. Epidemiology 173F. Industrial Hygiene 175G. Construction 190

Answer Keys 197

Volume 4: Are IV – Risk Management Control 211A. Workers’ Compensation 213B. Risk Management 219C. General Liability/Product Safety 223D. Fleet Safety 228E. Fire and Life Safety 236F. Health and Wellness 247G. Security 254H. Disaster Recovery/Emergency Preparation 260I. Workplace Violence 268

Answer Keys 272

References 284

C S H MCertified Safety Health Manager ExamSTUDY GUIDE

Area I General Business ManagementQuestions and Answer Key

Subject Area I. Topic A. Finance

Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. A $10,000 investment is worth $18,000 after three years. What is the average annual percent interest rate earned on this investment? (Hint: I=PxRxT)

a. 18.3%b. 21.5%c. 26.6%d. 32.2%

2. These insurance companies are owned by the life insurance policyholders:

a. captiveb. stockc. mutuald. paternal

3. Throughout history, the guiding principle of business economics in western countries has been:

a. minimizing costsb. avoiding lossesc. maintaining a safe workplaced. maximizing profits

4. A company may use this method to estimate future costs per unit of time:

a. predictive analysisb. pareto diagrams or chartsc. history of losses or safety costsd. cost-benefit analysis

5. These costs change with the volume of products sold or manufactured:

a. fixed costsb. variable costsc. sunk costsd. total costs

6. These costs do not vary with volume even if no sales are made:

a. fixed costsb. variable costsc. sunk costsd. total costs

7. Variable costs, when added to fixed costs, result in:a. fixed costsb. variable costsc. sunk costsd. total costs

8. This occurs when fixed costs are recovered from the sale of goods, but no profit is made:

a. upper control limitb. money value pointc. break even pointd. drop dead point

9. Increases in the cost of doing business (CODB) due to a higher number of injuries, lower morale and productivity are examples of:

a. system consequencesb. natural consequencesc. expected consequencesd. unexpected consequences

10. Options give the decision-maker greater __________ by allowing him or her to choose from a number of solutions rather than being stuck with a go/no-go decision.

a. leadershipb. abilityc. authorityd. control

2


1. The area of financial management that supervises the acquisition and disposition of a firm's resources is called: (Finkler, 3)

a. cost accountingb. accountingc. financed. acquisitions

2. The formalized system designed to record the financial history of a firm is called: (Finkler, 3)

a. financial accountingb. financial managementc. historical financed. historical accounting

3. This person provides financial information that might be used for making improved decisions regarding the future: (Finkler, 3)

a. accounting managerb. financial managerc. financial accountantd. managerial accountant

4. This person performs the financial analysis using information provided by the managerial accountant: (Finkler, 4)

a. accountantb. financial managerc. finance officerd. safety manager

5. Financial management is concerned with maximizing a firm's profits, or the bottom line. All of the following are measures of the bottom line, except: (Finkler, 4)

a. return on investment (ROI)b. return on equity (ROE)c. return on assets (ROA

d. return on costs (ROC)

6. Which of the following refer to the two over-riding goals of financial management? (Finkler, 4)

a. profitability and viabilityb. profitability and market sharec. market share and viabilityd. market share and assets

7. In reference to profitability, the greater the ______ we incur, the greater the ______ we demand: (Finkler, 4)

a. profit, riskb. risk, profitc. viability, market shared. cost, profit

8. The measure of the amount of resources a firm has that are cash or are convertible to cash in the near-term, is called: (Finkler, 5)

a. viabilityb. profitc. liquidityd. solvency

9. The measure of the amount of resources a firm has that are cash or are convertible to cash in the long-term, is called: (Finkler, 5)

a. viabilityb. profitc. liquidityd. solvency

10. A firm's assets may be: (Finkler, 13)

a. profitable or viableb. tangible or intangiblec. long-term or short-termd. liquid or solvent

3

Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. These assets have physical form and substance and are generally valued and shown on financial statements: (Finkler, 13)

a. profit b. intangible c. long-term d. tangible

2. These assets consist of such items as good credit standing, skilled employees, and patents: (Finkler, 13)

a. profit b. intangible c. long-term d. tangible

3. Which term below describes the obligations a firm has to outside creditors? (Finkler, 13)

a. profits b. equityc. liabilitiesd. tangibles

4. All of the following are common liabilities, except: (Finkler, 13)

a. money owed to equity b. money owed to suppliersc. money owed to employeesd. money owed to the government

5. The value of the firm to its owners is called: (Finkler, 13)

a. asset b. liabilityc. equityd. profit

6. The bottom line for safety, as with any other activity within an organization is: (Various Sources)

a. effectivenessb. efficiencyc. productivityd. cost

7. This is called the fundamental equation of accounting: (Finkler, 14)

a. assets = equity plus stockholders' liabilitiesb. assets = liabilities plus stockholders' equityc. assets = profit minus liabilities plus equityd. assets = profit plus stockholders' liabilities

8. This can be a person, department, project, division, or firm: (Finkler, 11)

a. entity b. liabilityc. organizationd. profit-center

9. The statement of a firm's financial position in commonly referred to as the: (Finkler, 16)

a. entity equity statement b. break-even pointc. balance sheetd. income statement

10. These two reports are the traditional financial statements that have been required in annual reports for many years: (Finkler, 19)

a. income statement b. profit-loss statementc. balance sheetd. a and c above

4


1. A set of rules used as a basis for financial reporting is called: (Finkler, 31)

a. Accepted Rules for Accountancy (ARA) b. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)c. Rules for Financial Accounting (RFA)d. Accepted Principles of Financial Accounting (APFA)

2. All of the following are key components of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, EXCEPT: (Finkler, 31)

a. conservation b. matchingc. eliminatingd. going concern


a. liberalism b. matchingc. materialityd. going concern


a. consistencyb. separatingc. materialityd. objective evidence


a. consistencyb. full disclosurec. costd. subjectiveness

6. This GAAP principle states that financial statements are prepared based upon the assumption that a firm will remain in business for the foreseeable future: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. consistencyb. full disclosurec. going concernd. objective evidence

7. This GAAP principle states that when reporting the financial position of the firm, sufficient consideration should be given to the various risks the firm faces: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. conservatismb. full disclosurec. going concernd. objective evidence

8. This GAAP principle states that expenses should be recorded in the same accounting period as the revenues that they were responsible for generating: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. conservatismb. full disclosurec. going concernd. matching

9. This GAAP term is used to describe the value of what was given up to acquire an item: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. conservatismb. costc. going concernd. matching

10. This GAAP principle states that financial reports should be based on such evidence as reasonable individuals could all agree upon within relatively narrow bounds: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. conservatismb. objectivityc. going concernd. objective evidence

5

Practice Questions - Bank 5 1. This GAAP principle states that errors in financial reports only require correction if they are material in amount: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. objectivityb. material evidencec. materialityd. objective evidence

2. This GAAP principle says that to avoid misleading users of financial reports, firms should generally use the same accounting methods from period to period: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. repeated objectivityb. integrityc. materialityd. consistency

3. This GAAP principle says that financial reports should disclose any information needed to assure that the reports are a fair presentation: (Finkler, 25-26)

a. full discloserb. fairnessc. integrity of reportsd. consistency

4. A value of an asset based on what is paid for the asset at the time it was acquired is called the: (Finkler, 34)

a. net realizable valueb. historical or acquisition costc. price-level adjusted costd. replacement cost

5. This method of valuing an asset measures what you could get for the asset if it were sold: (Finkler, 36)

a. net realizable valueb. historical or acquisition costc. price-level adjusted historical cost (PLAHC)d. replacement cost

6. This method of valuing an asset measures its worth by determining how much profit the asset will contribute to the firm in the future: (Finkler, 36)

a. net future valueb. profit futuresc. future profitsd. replacement cost

7. This method of valuing an asset measures its value based on how much it would cost to replace the asset: (Finkler, 37)

a. net future valueb. profit futuresc. future profitsd. replacement cost

8. Obligations that are to be paid in cash within a year are called: (Finkler, 42)

a. non-monetary obligationsb. monetary obligationsc. short-term obligationsd. long-term obligations

9. Obligations that are to be paid in cash more than a year in the future are called: (Finkler, 42)


10. Obligations that are paid as goods or services are called: (Finkler, 42)


6


1. In this form of business the owners are limited to the extent of their investment: (Silbiger, 197)

a. limited liability corporationb. sole proprietorshipc. limited partnershipd. corporation

2. One of the major financial drawbacks of a corporation is: (Silbiger, 197)

a. unlimited liabilityb. sole ownershipc. limited owner rightsd. double taxation

3. A basic tenet of sound finance is that return on investment should be commensurate with the: (Silbiger, 199)

a. riskb. liabilityc. costd. probability

4. If you know an investment is rather risky, you would expect a ______ rate of return for the investment: (Silbiger, 199)

a. immediateb. higherc. lowerd. predictable

5. Risk that applies to a whole class of assets is called: (Silbiger, 199)

a. programmatic riskb. problematic riskc. systematic riskd. apparent risk

6. Which of the following is not used to express the cost of safety? (OSHA)

a. break-even pointb. cost per $100 in wagesc. workers compensation costsd. indirect costs

7. A firm's assets equal: (Finkler, 14)

a. equity plus stockholders' liabilitiesb. liabilities plus stockholders' equityc. profit minus liabilities plus equityd. profit plus stockholders' liabilities

7

Subject Area I. Topic B. Cost Accounting Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. To identify potential hazards, what process is conducted in addition to hazard analysis?

a. injury reportsb. statistical datac. risk assessmentd. fatalities

2. Which of the following is not one of the methods discussed by Brauer to express the cost of safety?

a. cost in dollars per $100 of payrollb. cost in terms of the number of items producedc. cost in the number of hours a worker must work to cover a cost of lossd. cost in terms of injury-free days

3. Which of the following is considered a direct accident cost?

a. cost to repair equipment damageb. overtime payc. workers' compensation insuranced. litigation expenses

4. All of the following are considered responsibilities of a labor/management safety and health teams, except:

a. make recommendationsb. enforce safety rulesc. estimate financial benefits of safetyd. design cost-effective safety programs

5. Which of the following is considered a direct cost when an accident occurs?

a. lost sales and canceled ordersb. hiring and training new workersc. lowered morale and higher turnoverd. increased workers' compensation premiums

6. Which of the following is one common way to express safety costs?

a. lost-work-day incident rateb. value-added percentagec. dollars per $100 of payd. annual incentive costs

7. According to Grimaldi and Simons, surveys indicate that the majority of people responsible for safety programs believe it is desirable to stress the: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 210)

a. cost of accidentsb. humanitarian imperativec. legal requirementsd. social responsibility

8. According to Grimaldi and Simons, these costs are not readily available and require more thorough analysis:

a. uninsured costsb. insured costsc. legal costsd. future costs

9. According to Grimaldi and Simons, all of the following are categories of uninsured costs, except:

a. lost-day injuriesb. doctor's casesc. restricted duty casesd. first-aid injuries

10. Which of the following is not considered a valid uninsured cost?

a. wages paid for work time lostb. workers compensation pay for lost work time c. extra cost due to overtimed. cost-of-learning period of new worker

8


1. According to Grimaldi and Simons, this is the only basis for assessing an overhead cost for equipment made idle by an injury:

a. wages paid for work time lostb. workers compensation pay for lost work time c. if extra equipment and work space is requiredd. cost for depreciation

2. According to Brauer, which of the following is the 'common denominator' to most effectively ensure safety goals are achieved?

a. costb. leadership c. accountabilityd. resources

3. According to Brauer, which of the following is not a criterion for evaluating costs and benefits?

a. cost-benefit ratiob. gross benefits c. rate of returnd. payback period

4. In this type of analysis, the dollar values of all benefits and costs connected with program alternatives are estimated and then compared:

a. cost-benefit analysisb. cost-per-hour analysis c. rate-of-return analysisd. unit production analysis

5. If a company's profit margin is 5% and the unit selling price of their product is $25. How many units must be sold to cover a $25,000 accident cost?

a. 50,000 unitsb. 25,000 units c. 20,000 unitsd. 10,000 units

6. XYZ has averaged one carpel tunnel injury a year for the past three years. They decide to invest invests $12,000 to improve the design of four workstations to prevent the recurring carpel tunnel injuries. Each injury averages $35,000 in total accident costs. What will be the estimated return on the investment (ROI) over the next five years?

a. 292%b. 1458%c. 3568%d. 8405%

7. ABC Environmental decides to invest $20,000 to eliminate fall hazards that have averaged $50,000 per accident. What is the estimated payback period in years for this investment? (TDMBA, 65)

a. .4b. 1.2c. 3d. 5

8. Expressing the cost to take corrective action and make improvements is better expressed as a/an ______________ to communicate the notion that the employer will realize a financial return.

a. expenseb. investmentc. expenditured. price

9. How much business volume is required if a company's profit margin is 5%, 300 units are required to cover the loss, and the unit selling price is $32.00? (Brauer 522)

a. $9,600b. $96,000c. $192,000d. $1,920,000

10. Which of the following is not one of the ways to express the cost of safety? (Brauer 522)

a. cost of accidents/illnesses per shareb. volume of business necessary to cover loss c. dollars per $100 of payd. number of days to cover loss

9

Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. What is the common yardstick for measuring and evaluating company performance? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)

a. leadershipb. moneyc. productivityd. quality

2. Executives can immediately understand the result of a department's work when it is: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)

a. compared to competitor resultsb. shown in dollarsc. stated as a productivity resultd. related to quality

3. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, the main driving force behind the industrial safety movement is: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)

a. the increase in workplace injuriesb. workplace violence is increasingc. workers' compensation costs are astronomicald. the fact that accidents are expensive

4. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, the main driving force behind the industrial safety movement is: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 209)

a. the increase in workplace injuriesb. workplace violence is increasingc. workers' compensation costs are astronomicald. the fact that accidents are expensive

5. Each of the following may be a reason accident costs are given little attention by experienced safety specialists, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 210)

a. absorbing OSHA penalties is less expensive than safety investmentsb. costs are not a factor in making safety decisionsc. the safety director is afraid to stress safety as profitabled. the company seeks safety regardless of costs

6. According to Grimaldi & Simonds, there are two major classes of costs resulting from injuries and accidents: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 212)

a. near miss and property damage costsb. insurance and uninsured costsc. fixed and variable costsd. injury and illness costs

7. According to Grimaldi & Simonds, direct costs refer to __________ costs and indirect costs refer to __________ costs: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 212)

a. primary, secondaryb. leading, trainingc. insured, uninsuredd. injury, illness

8. According to Grimaldi & Simonds, these cost elements require greater analysis because they are not readily available in company records: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 213)

a. secondaryb. trainingc. uninsuredd. insured

9. The three OSHA categories considered when averaging insured costs include all of the following, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 214)

a. near-miss casesb. first-aid casesc. nonlost workday casesd. lost workday cases

10. Which of the following is true after an accident occurs? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 214)

a. the injured employee returns and production increasesb. co-workers increase production to make up for the injured employeec. workers do not exceed normal production to make up for lost productiond. workers are more willing to work harder to make up for lost production

10

Practice Questions – Bank 4

1. One way to calculate property loss after an accident is to: (G&S, 215)

a. subtract the original cost from the salvage value and depreciationb. subtract the salvage value from the original cost and appreciationc. add the original cost to appreciationd. add the salvage value to depreciation and original cost

2. If an old machine, worth $1,000, is damaged such that its salvage value is $100, and the employer decides to replace it with a new machine costing $5,000, what would you regard as the property damage? (G&S, 215)

a. $900 c. $4,900b. $1,100 d. $5,000

3. What percent of the total uninsured accident cost is required to repair, replace, or straighten up material or equipment that was damaged in an accident? (G&S, 215)

a. 7 c. 18b. 10 d. 35

4. The cost of wages paid for work time lost by injured workers, other than the workers' compensation payments, covers all of the following, except: (G&S, 216) (G&S, 216)

a. when employees visit the doctor's officeb. all days not covered by workers' compensation paymentsc. primarily on the day of injuryd. for the rest of the workshift after the accident

5. Which of the following results in the largest percentage of uninsured lost-workday accident costs? (G&S, 216)

a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workersb. net cost to repair, replace damaged material or equipmentc. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workersd. wages paid supervisors required by the injury

6. Which of the following results in the smallest percentage of uninsured lost-workday accident costs? (G&S , 219)

a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workersb. net cost to repair, replace damaged material or equipmentc. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workersd. miscellaneous unusual costs

7. Which of the following is not considered a valid uninsured accident cost? (G&S, 219)

a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workersb. cost of hiring new employeec. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workersd. cost-of-learning period of new worker


a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workersb. extra cost due to overtime work caused by the accidentc. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workersd. loss of profit on idle machines or workers


a. cost of subsequent injuriesb. extra cost due to overtime work caused by the accidentc. wages paid for work time lost by non-injured workersd. uninsured medical costs borne by the company

10. How important is it for an organization to know precisely, to the dollar, how much accidents cost? (G&S, 220)

a. not important at allb. not of great importancec. very importantd. critical

11

Subject Area I. Topic C. Employee Relations/HR


1. Which of the following describe inconsistencies among attitudes or between attitudes and behavior? (Robbins, Management, 314)

a. dissonanceb. incongruencec. psycho-behaviorald. congruence

2. Attitudes are ________________ statements about objects, people, or events: (Robbins, Management, 312)

a. objectiveb. analyticalc. evaluatived. subjective

3. Employees who work on stressful, dissatisfying tasks will experience a more positive outcome when this type of leadership is displayed:

a. supportiveb. contingencyc. laissez faired. participative

4. The observable actions of people is called: (Robbins, Management, 312)

a. performanceb. intuitionc. attituded. behavior

5. The degree to which an employee identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers performance important to self-worth is called: (Robbins, Management, 314)

a. job satisfactionb. job involvementc. job commitmentd. job support

6. This term describes a combination of traits that classifies a person: (Robbins, Management, 316)

a. positionb. performancec. personalityd. profession

7. This belief states there should be status and power differences among people in organizations: (Robbins, Management, 316)

a. authoritarianismb. machiavellianismc. structuralismd. huerism

8. A person who is willing to take a high risk is said to exhibit: (Robbins, Management, 316)

a. normal behaviorb. poor safety attitudec. a lack of common sensed. risk propensity

9. The process of organizing and interpreting what we perceive is defined as: (Robbins, Management, 317)

a. selectionb. perceptionc. analysisd. intuition

10. Safety _________ management skill is at the center of the safety program: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap 15)

a. behaviorb. systemc. programd. accident

12


1. Judging a person on the basis of personal perception of the group to which he or she belongs is called: (Robbins, Management p. 318)

a. discriminatingb. diversifyingc. stereotypingd. halo effect

2. This law states that behavior is a function of its consequences: (Robbins, Management p. 319)

a. law of effectb. law of consequencesc. law of caused. law of behavior

3. A major responsibility of the safety and health professional is to: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. dissect safety behaviors to understand their effectsb. limit the number of feasible engineering controls c. manipulate variables causing inappropriate behaviord. reduce inappropriate behaviors primarily through discipline

4. This occurs when an impression of an individual is based on a single characteristic: (Robbins, Management p. 318)

a. singlingb. stereotypingc. halo effectd. unifocus

5. The theory, first proposed by David McClelland, states that achievement, power, and affiliation motivate employees is called the: (Robbins, Management p. 346)

a. reinforcement theoryb. goal-setting theoryc. equity theoryd. three-needs theory

6. This can be a great resource and tool to improve safety involvement and motivation: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. OSHA inspectionsb. safety and health committee c. internal policing d. corporate safety mother

7. The willingness to exert high levels of effort describes: (Robbins, Management p. 339)

a. a needb. positive reinforcementc. a motivationd. accountability

8. An internal state that makes certain outcomes appear attractive describes: (Robbins, Management p. 339)

a. a needb. positive reinforcementc. a motivationd. an assumption

9. Douglas McGregor believes managers that assume employees can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility are displaying this leadership approach: (Robbins, Management p. 341)

a. Theory Ab. Theory Bc. Theory Xd. Theory Y

10. Whether an employee works safely depends upon four factors. Which of the following is not one of them? (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. initial trainingb. current needs c. present situationd. past experience

13


1. According to Douglas McGregor, managers that believe employees dislike work, must be coerced, controlled, or threatened with punishment is displaying this leadership approach: (Robbins, Management p. 341)

a. Theory Ab. Theory Bc. Theory Xd. Theory Y

2. What is the theory in which Maslow hypothesized that within every human being there exist lower-order and higher-order needs : (Robbins, Management p. 340)

a. Hierarchy of Needs Theoryb. Theory X and Yc. Motivation-Hygiene Theoryd. Three-Needs Theory

3. Which type of leadership should you display to best assure your employees will gain confidence in their ability to achieve goals?

a. supportiveb. authoritarianc. achievement-orientedd. laissez faire

4. Whether an employee works safely depends upon four factors. Which of the following is not one of them? (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. situational variablesb. current needs c. present situationd. anticipated consequences

5. Psychologist Frederick Herzberg defines hygiene factors as: (Robbins, Management p. 342)

a. factors that improve relationships b. factors that increase job satisfactionc. factors that eliminate dissatisfactiond. factors that reduce task avoidance

6. David McClelland's contemporary Three-Needs Theory proposes each of the following needs, except: (Robbins, Management p. 342)

a. need for safety (nSaf)b. need for achievement (nAch)c. need for power (nPow)d. need for affiliation (nAff)

7. By understanding worker needs, a safety professional may: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. better identify non-complianceb. manipulate feasible engineering controls c. link company values to individual goalsd. manage unique needs

8. Any consequence immediately following a response that increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated is called: (Robbins, Management p. 346)

a. an outcomeb. an incentivec. a reinforcerd. a referent consequence

9. Reinforcers are consequences that _________ the probability desired behaviors will be repeated: (Robbins, Management p. 347)

a. influenceb. decreasec. increased. determine

10. It may be quite difficult to improve worker safety attitudes due to the influence of: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. past experiences and the emotions they provokeb. unreasonable workloads c. unpredictable work schedulesd. disgruntled co-workers and former employees

14


1. J. Stacy Adams proposed in his Equity Theory, that employees perceive what they get from a job situation in relation to what they _____: (Robbins, Management p. 348)

a. put into itb. consider importantc. remove from itd. see as benefits from it

2. Psychologists have found that this learning principle can often facilitate learning when recognition occurs only for safe work methods(NSC, APM-AP, 360)

a. reinforcementb. feedback c. practiced. duration

3. Steps involved in changing safety-related behaviors may include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. provide trainingb. arrange positive consequences c. ignore undesired behaviorsd. removing obstacles to safe behavior

4. Which of the following is not one of Victor Vroom's expectancy theory variables or relationships that motivate employees? (Robbins, Management p. 351)

a. attractivenessb. probability-value linkagec. performance-reward linkaged. effort-performance linkage

5. What leadership approach should you, as a safety manager, want to demonstrate to best maintain a positive relationship with worker performance?

a. supportiveb. authoritarianc. controllingd. laissez faire

6. Steps involved in changing safety-related behaviors may include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. provide practiceb. retraining when rules are violated c. finding a simpler way to do a jobd. removing obstacles to safe behavior

7. Employees are most likely to strive for higher standards of performance when supervisors display what kind of leadership?

a. supportiveb. authoritarianc. achievement-orientedd. laissez faire

8. This occurs when someone is asked to pursue two objectives that work against each other: ? (Hodgetts, Human Relations, p.170)

a. goal conflictb. catch 22c. goal incongruenced. goal mismatch

9. Safety managers must successfully understand and apply all of the following learning principles, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)


10. This strategy may work best in response to employees who are not motivated:

a. reprimandb. install a reward systemc. job transferd. terminate the position

15


1. To best ensure safe, almost automatic behaviors occur, this learning principle should be applied: (NSC, APM-AP, 361)


2. Goals tend to be general and vague, but ______________ must be observable, measurable and specific:

a. management outcomesb. employee goalsc. end statesd. operational objectives

3. Safety managers must successfully understand and apply all of the following learning principles, except: (NSC, APM-AP, Chap15)

a. transfer of trainingb. loss of learning c. customer-supplier relationshipd. frequency

4. A motivated employee is more likely to think of his or her work as:

a. importantb. difficultc. worthlessd. satisfying

5. The application of this important learning principle is important in helping make sure employees make safety a top priority: (NSC, APM-AP, 362)

a. reinforcementb. primacy c. practiced. duration

6. Understanding the value of safety in the workplace describes this very important learning principle: (NSC, APM-AP, 361)

a. reinforcementb. feedback c. practiced. meaningfulness

7. What will happen to the frequency of desired behaviors if they are ignored? (Daniels, 29)

a. frequency will remain the sameb. frequency will increasec. frequency will decreased. frequency will vary randomly

8. Using eye-catching posters, slogans and other publicity are examples in applying this important learning principle: (NSC, APM-AP, 362)

a. reinforcementb. feedback c. intensityd. duration

9. Depending on motivation, some thoughts are retained, while others are not. This idea expresses which learning principle below? (NSC, APM-AP, 361)

a. reinforcementb. selective learning c. practiced. knowledge of results

10. Which of the following is NOT a critical factor in determining a person's motivation and satisfaction on the job?

a. experienced meaningfulnessb. knowledge of resultsc. placement of jobd. experienced responsibility

16


1. Psychologists have found that this learning principle can often facilitate learning when recognition occurs only for safe work methods (NSC, APM-AP, 360)


2. When workers hear the same thing many times, the learning tends to be more effective. This idea expresses which principle below? (NSC, APM-AP, 361)

a. reinforcementb. feedback c. practiced. frequency

3. An employee has achieved this level on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs when he or she has achieved everything that he/she is capable of becoming: (NSC, APM-AP, 351)

a. self-esteemb. self-actualizationc. self-fulfillmentd. self-awareness

4. People like to know how they are doing on the job. Not applying this principle defeats the goal of improved behavior and learning: (NSC, APM-AP, 361)

a. reinforcementb. knowledge of results c. practiced. duration

5. This learning principle states that current learning can be influenced by past learning: (NSC, APM-AP, 362)

a. reinforcementb. feedback c. practiced. transfer of learning

6. Whether or not a worker uses safe procedures and practices depends on: (NSC, APM-AP, 341)

a. present situationb. past experiencesc. workplace methods and designd. all of the above

7. What is learned last is usually most easily remembered. This idea expresses which learning principle below? (NSC, APM-AP, 362)

a. reinforcementb. recall c. practiced. duration

8. According to William Bridges, change is ______ and ________:

a. physiological, psychologicalb. transient, permanentc. external, imposedd. selective, imposed

9. This error occurs when safety managers assume most people are somewhat alike in their characteristics: (NSC, APM-AP, 341)

a. common-special paradoxb. the average worker syndromec. common sense errord. average-person fallacy

10. According to William Bridges, transition is ________:

a. inherentb. transientc. internald. imposed

17

Subject Area I. Topic D. Ethics and Law


1. Morality means all of the following, except:

a. The quality of being in accord with standards of right or good conduct.b. The quality of being in accord with a profession's ethics.c. A system of ideas of right and wrong conduct. d. Standards governing the conduct of members of a profession.

2. Ethics means all of the following, except:

a. Standards governing the conduct of members of a profession.b. A principle of right or good conduct. c. Always right or good moral conduct. d. A system of moral principles or values.

3. According to Rachels, the conscientious moral agent is someone who _______:

a. is concerned with those who occupy positions of powerb. carefully sifts facts and examines their implications c. always accepts principles of conduct d. hesitates to listen to reason

4. The proponents of relativism argue all of the following, except:

a. Ethics are relative to the general conditions b. It's impossible to decide on matters of right and wrong c. Do not search the soul to discover the truth d. Everything is gray...rarely black or white

5. Proponents of _______ argue that no one can make a moral judgment about another person's behavior:

a. cultural relativism b. role relativism c. naive relativism d. social relativism

6. ________ relativism states that the role or position assumed by the individual may require actions that violate personal ethics, but do not violate organizational ethics:

a. cultural relativism b. role relativism c. naive relativism d. social relativism

7. Which one of the following reflects social relativism?

a. when in Rome...do as the Romans b. position description c. individual moral values d. industry best practices

8. Cultural relativism argues all of the following, except:

a. There are universal absolutes in every culture b. There is no universal moral code c. Moral values vary around the world d. Paying bribes may be acceptable practice

9. This ethical perspective holds that an action is justified if it provides the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people:

a. natural law b. universalism c. utilitarianism d. absolutism

10. _________ propounds that any action is condonable if the motive behind the action is good, since the results of a person's actions are so often not in his or her control:

a. natural law b. universalism c. utilitarianism d. absolutism

18


1. When an injury is caused by two or more persons, each of which failed in a legal duty, they are in: (Hammer, 19)

a. tort b. joint tort c. contributory tort d. punitive tort

2. Under this principle, any person who conducts work that involves abnormal risk to others is strictly liable for injury or damage that results, even if the work was conducted with care: (Hammer, 19)

a. hazardous workplace b. unsafe instrumentalityc. dangerous instrumentality d. ultrahazardous operations

3. Under this principle, a person who is aware of a danger and its extent, and knowingly exposes himself, assumes all risks and cannot recover damages even though he is injured through no fault of his own: (Hammer, 19)

a. liability b. contributory negligence c. master-servant relationship d. assumption of risk

4. A wrongful act or failure to exercise due care for which civil legal action may result is called a: (Hammer, 19)

a. tort b. joint tort c. contributory tort d. punitive tort

5. Ethics may be thought of as a set of two basic relationships. The first relationship is between ___________ and ___________. The second relationship exists between ________ and _________:

a. action, belief, antecedents, behaviorb. behavior, belief, antecedents, action c. belief, antecedents, behavior, beliefd. antecedents, belief, belief, behavior

6. Organizational ethics is the application of ethics to organizational ________ and ________:

a. policies, structureb. relationship, activities c. policies, relationshipsd. structure, activities

7. The implied, enforced, or felt obligation of the employer to serve or protect the interests of all internal and external stakeholders describes the ___________ school of ethics:

a. social relativismb. cultural relativismc. organizational responsibilityd. social responsibility

8. The __________ is a set of written and unwritten rules and assumptions about acceptable or expected interrelationships among various segments of society:

a. social contractb. regulatory standardc. moral imperatived. legal writ

9. Which principle states that in the long run, those who do not use power in a manner society considers responsible will tend to lose it?

a. The Law of the Bottom Lineb. The Law of Corporate Responsibilityc. The Iron Law of Responsibilityd. The Rule of Business Law

10. Benefits of assuming social responsibility include all of the following, except:

a. Fulfillment of long term self interestsb. Short term limitation of regulationc. Improved image as an honorable cooperate citizend. Assure stakeholder approval

19


1. Adam Smith argued that an employer is led by an _____________ to promote an end which was not part of his intention, nor is it always the worse for society that it was no part of it:

a. act of Godb. uncommon intuitionc. intentional social pressured. invisible hand

2. Nobel Prize winner, Milton Friedman describes the social responsibility school of business ethics as a fundamentally ________:

a. flawed viewb. subversive doctrinec. pervasive dogmad. outdated perspective

3. Milton Friedman believes corporations play a socially responsible role by __________ that support social action in a relatively free market economy:

a. paying taxesb. complying with regulationsc. promoting groupsd. spearheading laws

4. Civil laws address the private rights of individuals and organizations to _______:

a. obtain compensation for lossb. prevent a loss from occurringc. obtain damages for egregious conductd. a and b above

5. Under tort law, punitive damages are possible if the defendant's conduct is egregious and had any of the following, except:

a. malicious intent b. gross negligence c. malfeasanced. willful disregard for the rights of others

6. ___________ laws deal with harmful acts or crimes against individuals, society or the government:

a. Civil b. Criminal c. Tortd. Statutory

7. The __________ is considered by many the first formal codification of statutory law:

a. Code of Federal Regulations b. Code of Ammanrah c. Code of Social Responsibilityd. Code of Hammurabi

8. All of the following must occur prior to a bill becoming a law:

a. be approved by Congress b. ratified by the states c. signed by the presidentd. a and c above

9. All of the following are types of laws, EXCEPT:

a. common laws b. royalty laws c. statutory lawsd. administrative laws

10. The laws enacted by Congress become codes and grouped into a published body of laws called the _______:

a. Federal Code of Regulations b. United States Code c. United States Administrative Rulesd. Federal Administrative Rules

20


1. Public Law 102—77 was enacted by the ____ Congress:

a. 102nd b. 77th c. could be eitherd. not enough information

2. OSHA Act of 1970 is also called the ________________ Act:

a. Employee Protection b. Reagan-Pope c. Employee Right to Knowd. Williams-Steiger

3. For a law to be formally enacted, what two acts must be passed by congress?

a. regulatory and appropriations b. authorization and appropriations c. appropriations and empowermentd. agency and budgetary

4. What is the purpose of an appropriation act?

a. assigns responsibility to a government agency b. limit appropriations to the governing agency c. provides the money for the regulatory activities d. empowers a government agency

5. An authorization act does all of the following, except:

a. assigns responsibility to a government agency b. limit appropriations to the governing agency c. provides the money for the regulatory activities d. empowers a government agency

6. Federal agencies propose and adopt regulations and standards published as the _______:

a. Code of Federal Regulations b. Federal Register c. United States Code d. Federal Administrative Rules

7. Which of the following is not in the Federal Register?

a. federal agency regulations b. congressional proclamations c. proposed rules and notices d. Executive orders

8. What is the purpose of publishing a proposed rule in the Federal Register?

a. establishes formal history b. creates a permanent record c. notifies state agencies d. notifies the public

9. The OSHA Act applies to all employers ______, except state and local governments:

a. with one or more employees b. in the private sector c. in both private and public sectors d. of two or more workers

10. The OSHA Act authorizes federally-approved state plans so long as they __________:

a. equal or exceed OSHA inspection schedules b. are fully funded c. are as effective as the federal program d. remain under federal oversight

21


1. Each of the below are types of OSHA standards, except:

a. national consensus standards b. permanent standards c. temporary review standards d. emergency temporary standards

2. Which of the following are the most common type of OSHA regulation?

a. consensus b. emergency c. temporary d. permanent

3. Why does OSHA rarely issue Emergency Temporary Standards (ETS)?

a. The need for ETS's has significantly decreased. b. ETS's remain in effect for only six months. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective. d. Funding for ETS's have dried up.

4. Before issuing a permanent standard, OSHA must find that a significant risk exists in the workplace. How does OSHA determine risk?

a. workplace and other studies b. OSHA 300 Log results c. regulatory standard d. legal writ

5. All of the following Acts have placed restraints on OSHA's rulemaking ability, except:

a. Regulatory Flexibility Act b. Business Liability Act c. Paperwork Reduction Act d. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act

6. The general duty clause is breached when a firm's employees are exposed to hazards that meet all of the following requirements, except:

a. The hazard is recognized as harmful by the individual employer. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule.c. The hazard is recognized as harmful by industry. d. The hazards is likely to cause death or serious harm.

7. Which of the following is not considered a successful employer defense against alleged OSHA violations?

a. compliance poses a financial burden b. compliance is infeasiblec. lack of control on a multi-employer worksite d. unpreventable employee conduct

8. An employer may be able to defend against an OSHA violation if it can be demonstrate all of the following, except:

a. employee breached safety rules b. safety rules were effectively conveyedc. safety rules are uniformly enforced d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury

9. All of the following are OSHA penalty classifications, except:

a. willful b. de minimisc. general d. serious

10. Which of the following is not a consideration the Secretary of Labor must consider in proposing penalties?

a. good faith b. prior violation historyc. employer size d. employer ability to pay

22

Practice Questions - Bank 6 1. The Secretary does not have unreviewable prosecutorial discretion to do which of the following?

a. nullify rules b. withdraw citationsc. reach settlements d. eliminate penalties

2. At an administrative hearing, both OSHA and the employer may ___________:

a. cross examine b. call witnessesc. introduce evidence d. all of the above

3. What can OSHA do when it identifies an imminent danger?

a. immediate abatement b. removal of employees from exposurec. close the place of business d. a and b above

4. OSHA can seek criminal penalties in all of the following instances except:

a. someone falsely reports information to OSHA b. willful violations of specific standards c. willful violations of the general duty clause d. someone provides advance notice of an OSHA inspection

5. Which of the following is not considered an employee right by OSHA?

a. challenge the abatement remedy b. file a complaint with OSHA c. accompany inspectors d. review relevant standards

6. What must the Secretary show to prove discrimination against an employee.

a. adverse treatment was a secondary cause b. adverse treatment was the primary cause c. adverse treatment was the substantial cause d. adverse treatment was the sole cause

7. OSHA regulations also grant employees a right to know all of the following, except:

a. trade secret information b. exposure information c. hazardous substances on the job d. medical records

8. You are contacted by an attorney and asked, as a CSHM, to act as an expert witness for a fee. You should:

a. counter with a flat fee b. accept the offer c. thank the attorney but decline the offer d. request more money for services rendered

9. To be enforceable, a contract must meet each of the criteria below, except:

a. An exchange of consideration b. Legality of the subject c. Competency of the parties d. Equality of the consideration

10. A violation of a duty not covered by a statue is called a:

a. tort b. binding act c. crime d. liability

23


1. Which of the following is TRUE about civil and criminal law? (Brauer, 29)

a. Civil law deals with persons and organizations b. Criminal violations deal only with persons c. Criminal law deals with private rights d. Civil law deals with harmful acts

2. Laws enacted by Congress and codified and logically grouped in a body of laws is called the: (Brauer, 29)

a. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) b. National Code of Law (NCL) c. United States Code (USC) d. Uniform Code of Federal Justice (UCFJ)

3. Administrative law that is proposed and adopted by federal agencies is called: (Brauer, 30)

a. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) b. National Code of Law (NCL) c. United States Code (USC) d. Uniform Code of Federal Justice (UCFJ)

4. Civil laws address the private rights of individuals and organizations to: (Brauer, 29)

a. obtain compensation for loss b. prevent a loss from occurring c. obtain damages for egregious conduct d. answers a and b above

5. Under tort law, punitive damages are possible if the defendant's conduct is egregious and had any of the following except? (Hammer, 18)

a. malicious intent b. gross negligence c. malfeasance d. willful disregard for the rights of others

6. This term is in usage for common persons now referred to as employer, employee, or worker, and for visitor, any third part such as a guest, customer, visitor, or member of the general public: (Hammer, 19)

a. master b. servant c. stranger d. all of the above

7. That degree of care exercised by a prudent man in observance of his legal duties toward others is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. reasonable care b. great care c. due care d. slight care

8. The degree of care that a very prudent and cautious person would undertake for the safety of others is called: (Hammer, 19)


9. That degree of care less than that which a prudent man would exercise. is called: (Hammer, 19)


10. Every person has a legal duty to this care for the safety of others and avoid injury to others if possible: (Hammer, 19)


24

Practice Questions - Bank 8 1. Under this principle, an owner, lessor, or other party responsible for premises must anticipate to foresee all possible risks to which the public might be subjected during their use, to maintain them in a safe condition, and to provide warnings of any unsafe or unusual condition: (Hammer, 19)

a. due diligence b. foreseeabilityc. foreseeable anticipation d. foreseeability applied to the workplace

2. Under this principle, any foreseeable act that places a rescuer in the same danger as in an injured person the rescuer is attempting to aid is considered negligence by the person who committed the initial act: (Hammer, 19)

a. due diligence b. foreseeabilityc. foreseeable anticipation d. foreseeability applied to the premises

3. This philosophy, to let natural laws operate by imposing no restrictions, was accepted by industrialists during the industrial revolution: (Hammer, 20)

a. due diligence b. laissez-fairec. scientific management d. darwinian economics

4. Which of the following is the major ethical principle that applies to employee safety education? (NSC, OHS, 238)

a. autonomyb. universalism c. utilitarianism d. relativity

5. Which of the following is an important ethical consideration made by safety managers? (NSC, OHS, 238)

a. autonomyb. confidentiality of records c. privacy d. all of the above

6. This ethical principle relates to the actions taken to improve the welfare of others: (NSC, OHS, 238)

a. autonomyb. privacy c. beneficence d. control

7. Compensation to an injured person for the loss he has suffered and may continue to suffer is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. contributory damages b. compensatory damagesc. punitive damages d. several damages

8. Awards made in some states to compensate an injured party for intentional, malicious, or outrageous misconduct by the defendant, usually made so that the latter will not repeat the offense is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. contributory damages b. compensatory damagesc. punitive damages d. criminal damages

9. The duty of an owner or user of land to keep his workplace in a condition that is reasonably safe for those lawfully there expresses what principle? (Hammer, 19)

a. safe workplace b. safe premisesc. safe and healthful workplace d. safe and healthful premises

10. Under this principle, a person who keeps, maintains, transports, or stores a dangerous creature, devise or substance is liable for injury or damage, regardless of fault, even when he exercises due care: (Hammer, 19)

a. hazardous workplace b. unsafe instrumentalityc. dangerous instrumentality d. ultrahazardous operations

25

Practice Questions - Bank 9 1. A person who owes a legal duty must exercise the same care that a reasonably prudent man would observe under similar circumstances. Which term below describes this duty? (Hammer, 19)

a. due diligence b. standard of reasonable prudence c. great and prudent care d. necessary prudence

2. The relationship between the plaintiff’s injuries and the defendant’s failure to exercise a legal duty, such as reasonable care, is called the: (Hammer, 19)

a. surface cause b. root cause c. proximate cause d. negligent cause

3. If Bob playfully pushes bin a crowded space, so Ralph is hit by the bin, loses his balance, falls and is injured. Bob’s push is considered a _________ of Ralph's accident: (Hammer, 19)

a. surface cause b. root cause c. proximate cause d. negligent cause

4. An obligation to rectify or recompense any injury or damage for which the liable person has been held responsible is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. liability b. common liability c. strict liability d. general liability

5. A growing concept that a manufacturer of a product is liable for injuries due to defects without a necessity for plaintiff to show negligence or fault is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. liability b. common liability c. strict liability d. general liability

6. A failure to exercise a reasonable amount of care or to carry out a legal duty so that injury or property damage occurs to another is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. reckless conduct b. negligence c. negligence perse d. gross negligence

7. This form of negligence requires no proof of negligence, since it involves acts or the omission of acts of which no careful person would have been guilty: (Hammer, 19)


8. Conduct involving failure to use even slight care, a complete lack of regard for the safety of others, or intentional failure to perform a required and apparent duty regardless of the severity of the consequences of his act is considered: (Hammer, 19)


9. Outrageous and reckless disregard for other’s rights or well-being and of possible consequences is called: (Hammer, 19)

a. willful conduct b. contributory negligence c. negligence perse d. gross negligence

10. Outrageous disregard that indicates not only a complete lack of care such as could be considered gross negligence, but an intention to exercise no care at all, is considered: (Hammer, 19)

a. reckless conduct b. contributory negligencec. negligence perse d. gross negligence

26


1. When an injured person’s care for his own safety was less than that reasonable for a prudent man under existing conditions, he thought to demonstrate: (Hammer, 19)

a. reckless conduct b. contributory negligence c. negligence perse d. gross negligence

2. When a employer is held liable for any negligence of his employee acting within the scope of his employment this concept is applies: (Hammer, 19)

a. liability b. contributory negligence c. master-servant relationship d. gross negligence

3. The Due Process clause of this constitutional amendment became an obstacle to states passing laws to eliminate unsafe working conditions: (Hammer, 22)

a. The First Amendment b. The Tenth Amendment c. The Thirteenth Amendment d. The Fourteenth Amendment

4. Which state was first to enact an employers' liability law? (Hammer, 24)

a. Oregon in 1853 b. Alabama in 1885 c. New York in 1906 d. South Dakota in 1916

5. The accepted philosophy during the industrial age was to let natural laws operate by imposing no restrictions. What was this philosophy called? (Hammer, 20)

a. natural economics b. leave-alone-let-live c. laissez-faire d. darwinian economics

6. Which of the following is not one of the four main reasons employees sue their employers? (Hammer, 208)

a. the employer lied to the employee b. the employer intentionally caused physical injury c. the employer lied about the employee d. the employer caused emotional stress

7. Which of the following is not one of the four main reasons employees sue their employers? (McWhirter, 208)

a. the employer lied to the employee b. the employer unintentionally caused physical injury c. the employer lied about the employee d. the employer intentionally caused emotional injury

8. If the employer knew what he was saying to an employee was untrue, it is called? (Hammer, 208)

a. misrepresentation b. slander c. liable d. fraud

9. If the employer did not know what he was saying to an employee was a lie, but didn't try to find out before speaking, it is called? (Hammer, 208)

a. misrepresentation b. slander c. liable d. fraud

10. If the employer has not been careful enough and an accident has resulted, it is called? (Hammer, 208)

a. misrepresentation b. negligence c. unintentional injury d. a violation

27

Subject Area I. Topic E. Organizational Structure


1. According to Brauer, safety begins in an organization with: (Brauer, p. 517)

a. an audit by OSHA consultantsb. strong first-line supervisor accountabilityc. a policy that states the importance of safetyd. a baseline audit of hazards

2. This department has much flexibility in selecting machinery, tools, equipment and materials used in the organization: (NSC, APM-AP, 78)

a. operationsb. human resourcesc. purchasingd. safety

3. Who are the internal customers of the safety function?

a. human resource departmentb. all employees in the organizationc. the employerd. OSHA and workers' compensation insurer

4. Safety policies assign all of the following, except: (Brauer, 517)

a. authorityb. responsibilityc. accountabilityd. leadership

5. For most organizations there are two major components, line and _______: (Brauer, 518)

a. groupb. staffc. supportd. department

6. Which of the following is not considered a primary objective of a safety and health program? (NSC, APM-AP, 74)

a. institute a system of negative reinforcement to secure complianceb. motivate, educate, and train to identify and correct hazardsc. engineer safe design into machines, tools, equipmentd. comply with established safety and health standards

7. Before any safety and health program can perform effectively, it must: (NSC, APM-AP, 74)

a. gain the commitment of top management and administrationb. gain the support of top managementc. gain the support of administrationd. all of the above

8. Which of the following major organizational components generally take care of business matters such as finance and accounting? (Brauer, 518)

a. salesb. staffc. operationsd. line

9. Which of the following is true concerning the staff element? (Brauer, 518)

a. assist and facilitate getting work doneb. have authority over line elementsc. take care of special matters like securityd. may be involved in research and development

10. According to Brauer, safety must: (Brauer, 518)

a. be owned by fist-line supervisors and their employeesb. have authority over line elementsc. be a part of every organizational elementd. report to human resources to be most effective

28


1. According to Pope, the vary nature and process of management is designed to: (Pope, 3)

a. avoid flawed practicesb. control conditions and behaviorsc. engineer safe design into machines, tools, equipmentd. manage exposure to hazards

2. According to Pope, accidents should be considered: (Pope, 3)

a. lapses in common senseb. performance errorsc. due to lack of educationd. the final domino

3. According to Pope, to best get managerial interest, safety specialists must give answers to questions that do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Pope, 3)

a. use technical jargonb. are couched in their language and interestsc. are supported by positive reasoningd. do not reflect pious pontification

4. According to Pope, managing for error-free performance cannot: (Pope, 3)

a. rely on staff functionsb. involve techniciansc. exist on rule and law aloned. work with and through systems

5. According to Pope, each of the following is a safety management universal, EXCEPT: (Pope, 4)

a. Industrial excellence is the product of management qualityb. Management quality get things done without operational mishapsc. Operational mishaps are the results of human errord. Operational mishaps represent windows of opportunity

6. According to Pope, which of the following is NOT one of the six safety management universals? (Pope, 4)

a. Industrial excellence is the product of sound safety engineeringb. Safety management is an integral part of the total organizational effortc. Personal harm and property damage are symptoms of operational mishapsd. Industrial safety is a subject included in degree programs

7. According to Pope, accidents are symptoms of: (Pope, 4)

a. lack of knowledgeb. inadequate enforcementc. corporate illnessd. industrial disinterest

8. According to Pope, operational errors represent an: (Pope, 5)

a. a sign of fear in the workplaceb. indictment of management's ability to direct and controlc. a signal that employees are ill-trainedd. a message that supervisors are not performing

9. James Pope believes OSHA has overlooked a very important management principle first pointed out by James D. Moody. This principle states that organization begins when: (Pope, 4)

a. people combine their efforts for a given purposeb. people come together for mutual benefitc. people have common concernsd. people see themselves as apart from other groups

10. According to Pope, the systems safety manager must learn how to think and act as a manager with skills to get things done as a: (Pope, 4)

a. consultant, not a copb. team member, not a technicianc. advisor, not a inspectord. people person, not a task master

29


1. Which of the following is not considered a primary objective of a safety and health program? (NSC, APM-AP, 74)

a. gain and maintain support at all levelsb. motivate, educate, and train to identify and correct hazardsc. engineer safe design into machines, tools, equipmentd. limit OSHA injuries claims to reduce workers' compensation premiums

2. All of these employees are considered the safety eyes and ears, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)

a. employee representativesb. foremenc. supervisorsd. managers

3. Foremen and employee representatives share responsibility for safety with top management. There responsibilities include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)

a. inspect for hazardsb. detect hazardsc. enforce safety rulesd. correct hazards

4. Supervisor safety responsibilities include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)

a. evaluate performanceb. encourage compliancec. oversee employee performanced. compliance with safety policies and rules

5. 'A messy house can't be a safe house,' describes an idea related to this very important workplace priority: (NSC, APM-AP, 76)

a. corrective interventionb. preventive maintenancec. good housekeepingd. unsafe performance

6. Which of the following is not one of the four main components of effective preventive maintenance? (NSC, APM-AP, 77)

a. scheduling periodic maintenanceb. accurate recordkeepingc. timely work request submissiond. providing spare parts control

7. Preventive maintenance schedules can be set up based on all of the following factors, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 77)

a. total hours usedb. age of the machinec. past experienced. manufacturer's recommendation

8. Employees make the safety and health program work. They are responsible for all of the following behaviors, except: (NSC, APM-AP, 77)

a. reporting injuriesb. compliancec. discipliningd. reporting hazards

9. Employees should be introduced to the safety program on their first day of work. According to the National Safety Council, a three-prong approach is most effective. Which of the following is not one of these three-pronged strategies? (NSC, APM-AP, 78)

a. detail management commitment to safetyb. cover general company policies and rulesc. discuss general safety policies and rulesd. Explain specific safety rules

10. Which group represents the greatest deterrent to damage, injuries, and health problems in an organization? (NSC, APM-AP, 78)

a. managersb. supervisorsc. foremend. employees

30


1. According to Pope, support for the safety function is needed by: (Pope, 11)

a. first-line supervisorsb. top managementc. employeesd. from all line and staff officials

2. According to Pope, which of the following is not one of the three generally accepted operational levels? (Pope, 11)

a. productionb. top managementc. staffd. executive

3. According to Pope, this organizational level is the inspection area where unsafe acts and conditions are policed: (Pope, 11)

a. line productionb. top managementc. staff servicesd. executive

4. According to Pope, managers working at this organizational level have a great deal of indirect control on the line, but do so without authority to command: (Pope, 12)


5. According to Pope, managers working at this organizational level have a number of safety specialists working at various locations: (Pope, 12)


6. This document identifies responsibilities of the safety specialist and are kept in personnel files: (Pope, 14)

a. job analysisb. position descriptionc. functional statementd. performance review

7. This document confers authority to make broad decisions and to engage in safety activities: (Pope, 14)

a. job analysisb. position descriptionc. functional statementd. performance review

8. According to Pope, managers do not admit having _______ as the term is not part of management language: (Pope, 19)

a. common senseb. mishapsc. errorsd. accidents

9. According to Pope, safety management is successful when: (Pope, 20)

a. decision-making is mutually bindingb. decision-making is participatoryc. information is widely disseminatedd. all of the above

10. All of the following reflect the new doctrine promoted by Pope and Creswell, EXCEPT: (Pope, 20)

a. Most mistakes reveal administrative oversightsb. Safety is considered important and meaningful to most managersc. Safety specialists must learn the organization and process of managementd. Causes of operational errors are important when considered management failures

31


1. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for compensation, labor relations, employment, program review, and training: (Pope, 18)

a. Personnelb. Supply and Logisticsc. Engineeringd. Finance

2. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for procurement, contracts, transportation, records, disposal, and administrative services: (Pope, 18)


3. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for design, construction, standards, and repair: (Pope, 18)


4. According to Pope, this function is primarily responsible for internal auditing, accounting, budget, claims and contract appeals: (Pope, 18)


5. Which of the following is not one of the Pope's eight safety business activities for serving management? (Pope, 18)

a. prepare and improve plans to improve managementb. plan, direct, and control an intramanagement communications systemc. report findings to functional heads on an ad-hoc basisd. ensure department heads are held accountable for accident rates


a. administer the technical control programb. monitor excessive costs of repairs and maintenancec. rely on the employee-management safety advisory committeed. provide the company with a quality-assurance management program


a. report findings to functional heads on an ad-hoc basisb. respond and reply to employee complaints in a timely mannerc. train and manage a corps of collateral-duty safety and health specialistsd. identify unreliable production processes and nonconformance problems

8. According to Pope, every manager must know what the business of safety management is in order to: (Pope, 81)

a. improve that manager's own effectivenessb. rely on safety managers to control the safety functionc. give safety some consideration in making decisionsd. know how to report safety problems

9. According to Pope, what is the effect of considering the industrial employee the principal recipient of safety services? (Pope, 81-82)

a. it leaves management out of the safety equationb. it results in error-free performance in a top-down structurec. it places error-free performance at the bottom of the totem poled. it ensure root cause analysis is never considered

10. According to Pope, as a staff officer, a safety specialist should not be dealing directly with employees. This is the prerogative of: (Pope, 82)

a. the safety directorb. other customersc. line managersd. other employees

32


1. According to Pope, a well-planned and smartly-directed safety function will get things done by, with and through: (Pope, 81)

a. solid enforcementb. other managersc. engineeringd. employees

2. According to Pope, a safety specialist's role with management becomes that of a: (Pope, 81)

a. inspectorb. internal auditorc. reviewerd. counselor

3. According to Pope, a safety specialist's job is to: (Pope, 81)

a. treat management as customersb. evaluate the quality of managementc. advise managersd. all of the above

4. According to Pope, all of the following reasons explain why employees and first-line supervisors are NOT the safety specialist's only customers? (Pope, 81)

a. they do not provide budgets for safety activitiesb. they do not control safety specialist salariesc. they do not receive services from safety specialistsd. they do not dictate the quality of amount of safety assistance

5. According to Pope, to best obtain top management support, safety specialists must give answers to questions that: (Pope, 82)

a. do not reflect pious pontificationb. are couched in their language and interestsc. are supported by positive reasoningd. all of the above

6. According to Pope, safety management is successful when: (Pope, 20)

a. decision-making is mutually bindingb. decision-making is participatoryc. information is widely disseminatedd. all of the above

7. Mintzberg (1981) provides an organizational classification that may be useful in application to occupational safety and health. Which of the following is not one of Mintzberg's five classifications? (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. simple structuresb. complex structuresc. machine bureaucraciesd. professional bureaucracies

8. Mintzberg (1981) provides an organizational classification that may be useful in application to occupational safety and health. Which of the following is not one of Mintzberg's five classifications? (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. simple structuresb. divisional formsc. adhocraciesd. matrix structures

9. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, common in small manufacturing operations, uses direct supervisors and a top person who orchestrates the activities of others: (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. simple structureb. divisional formc. adhocracyd. machine bureaucracy

10. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, classically seen in fast food operations, is characterized by work coordinated through rules, procedures and technology: (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. simple structureb. divisional formc. adhocracyd. machine bureaucracy

33


1. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, common in healthcare facilities, relies on the standardized performance of trained employees: (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. simple structureb. professional bureaucracyc. adhocracyd. machine bureaucracy

2. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, used by most Fortune 500 companies, is essentially a series of independent entities loosely integrated by an administrative overlay and common service or product: (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. simple structureb. professional bureaucracyc. divisional formd. machine bureaucracy

3. According to Mintzberg this organizational structure, common in consulting and advertising, offers flexible coordinating mechanisms: (NSC, OSH, 276)

a. adhocracyb. professional bureaucracyc. divisional formd. machine bureaucracy

4. Traditionally, this organizational structure is good at introducing innovation: (NSC, OSH, 276)


5. Studies indicate this organizational structure is better at introducing innovation then a mechanized bureaucracy: (NSC, OSH, 276)


6. Organizational development attempts to evaluate an organization's ability to adjust to all of the following, except: (NSC, APMA&P, 357)

a. rapid growthb. new technologyc. management system problemsd. increasing uniformity

7. Organizational development attempts to evaluate an organization's ability to adjust to all of the following, except: (NSC, APMA&P, 357)

a. rapid growthb. new technologyc. aging workforced. increasing diversity

8. Effective organizational development requires: (NSC, APMA&P, 357)

a. a strong organizational cultureb. ability to change rapidlyc. careful manipulation of attitudesd. honoring a diversity of ideas

9. What is the term used to describe an organizational structure that is preoccupied with people as they work together? (NSC, APMA&P, 357)

a. management systemb. mechanical systemc. organic systemd. dynamic system

10. What is the term used to describe an organizational structure that is preoccupied with the structure of an organization? (NSC, APMA&P, 357)

a. management systemb. mechanical systemc. organic systemd. dynamic system

34

Subject Area I. Topic F. Training and Development


1. According to According to Herzberg, this is the single strongest motivator:

a. payb. statusc. achievementd. fear

2. Which of the following is not required to do a job safely and efficiently?

a. substantial salaryb. thorough orientationc. effective trainingd. adequate resources

3. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures what the learner knows and can do immediately after training.

a. Level I, Reactionb. Level II, Learning c. Level III, Applicationd. Level IV, Business Results

4. Ultimately, the ______________ is accountable to OSHA law to ensure adequate employee safety training:

a. safety managerb. employerc. safety committeed. resource manager

5. Most effective safety training requires all of the following, except:

a. evaluation of knowledgeb. a supportive safety culturec. demonstration to prove skillsd. appropriate humor during presentation

6. Which of the following is a critical requirement to help make sure safety training is effective?

a. Support from supervisors and top executive managementb. A safety manager with a good sense of humorc. A training staff with at least 10 years of experienced. Have only outside trainers for safety and health issues

7. The primary purpose of safety training is:

a. to help ensure safe performanceb. to increase awarenessc. to comply with OSHAd. to improve reputation

8. To be successful, safety training must include all of the following, except:

a. management commitmentb. slides and videosc. adequate fundingd. integration into operations training

9. Which of the following is not an appropriate use for safety training records?

a. to prove complianceb. to defend in a lawsuitc. to prove employee is ill-preparedd. to evaluate the training program

10. Which of the following is least effective use of safety training program?

a. to educate new employees on company safety policiesb. to train employees on safe procedures and practicesc. to retrain employees whenever they violate safety rulesd. to educate employees on the importance of safe behavior

35


1. The first step in training process occurs by asking what question?

a. what are the costs?b. how much time will it take?c. can the problem be solved by training?d. how will the training affect productivity?

2. A learning objective states:

a. what the training process will be likeb. what learners will gainc. what trainers will do in the training processd. what learners will be able to do at the end of training

3. Safety education helps us understand the _______ consequences of performance:

a. positive and negativeb. contingent and naturalc. possible, actuald. short-term and long-term

4. In this OJT step the trainee becomes familiar with each step of the job and why it is important:

a. introductionb. trainer show and tellc. learner show and telld. conclusion

5. Documenting training on safe work procedures should include:

a. student and instructor signaturesb. statement of intent to complyc. statement of competencyd. all of the above

6. Education may be thought of as anything that affects our ________, ___________ and _________ (KSA's):

a. skills, karma, associationsb. knowledge, skills, attitudesc. knowledge, skills, abilitiesd. b or c above

7. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures the impact of safety training on profitability:

a. Level II, Learning b. Level III, Application b. Level IV, Business Results d. Level V, Return on Investment

8. According to the text, an effective learning objective contains all of the following, except:

a. It states the target learner attitude toward the subjectb. It states an observable behavior/action c. It states a time limit within which the performance will occur.d. It states a quantifiable level of acceptable performance.

9. According to the text, to most effectively relate or connect with the audience, the instructor should be similar to the audience in every respect, except:

a. languageb. expertise c. dressd. age

10. Which one of the following is not a basic strategy to consider in sequencing the course content in safety training?

a. general to the specificb. simple to complex c. practical to theoreticald. step by step

36


1. If employees are not following the procedures and practices they learned in training, this is the likely root cause:

a. lack of motivationb. poor worker attitude c. non-supportive safety cultured. pressure from supervisor

2. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures what the learner thought about the training received:


3. If employees are not consistently following the procedures and practices they learned in training, this is the likely cause:

a. unfair disciplineb. poor worker attitude c. lack of supervisor supportd. job review

4. Which of the following are appropriate questions to ask if it appears training did not give employees the level of knowledge and skill expected?

a. was content unnecessary?b. was something missing? c. was material confusing?d. all of the above

5. It's important that the training change or test be conducted on a small scale to:

a. limit variablesb. decrease entropy c. increase randomnessd. reduce control

6. Which of the following is the least direct method of evaluating the impact of training on the learner?

a. supervisor observationb. written tests c. student reaction sheetd. workplace improvement

7. According to ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001, this level of evaluation measures what the learner knows and can do on the job:


8. This level of evaluation measures the performance of the training event by gathering data from students and others about the quality of the training event:


9. As a safety trainer, one of the best ways you can help to protect your employer is to ensure:

a. attendance rostersb. adequate accountability c. strong documentationd. OSHA avoidance

10. In most instances, for technical safety training, documentation should be:

a. reviewed for accuracyb. retained for at least three years c. a formal attendance rosterd. a formal certification

37

Practice Questions - Bank 4 1. Maintaining adequate training records can do all of the following, except:

a. ensure training was effectiveb. verify training was conducted c. defend against negligence claimsd. provide evidence of effort

2. To make sure training is presented so that its organization and meaning are clear, you should do all of the following, except:

a. reinforce by summarizingb. relate new information to goals c. present personal opiniond. provide overview of material

3. Relating the training to the interests, skills and experiences of employees will help do all of the following, except:

a. ensure employees pay attentionb. improve skills c. improve knowledged. motivate employees

4. Which of the following is the primary reason to use color in the various forms of training media?

a. improve attitudesb. improve skills c. improve knowledged. increased motivation to pay attention

5. Which of the following will help a trainer make sure he or she comprehends what the student is asking?

a. replay the questionb. rephrase the question c. repeat the questiond. respond to the question

6. Hostility in the training situation is, ultimately, an outward manifestation of inward apprehension or fear. Which strategy might best be used by a trainer to reduce apprehension in a non-judgmental way?

a. determine root causesb. feel felt found response c. take a breakd. hold your ground

7. To ensure employees transfer the adequate knowledge and skills from the learning activity to the job, the learning situation should:

a. actualize the learnerb. compartmentalize the learning c. simulate the jobd. stimulate the learner

8. If the lesson does not unfold in a building, reinforcing way, which of the following training strategies most likely needs improvement?

a. mediab. objectives c. sequencingd. logistics

9. This training strategy is considered the best overall method in demonstrating adequate knowledge and skill to perform procedures and practices:

a. Job Safety Analysis (JSA)b. On the Job Training (OJT) c. Task Analysis (TA)d. Classroom Training

10. Computer-based training (CBT) is growing in popularity because employees can fit short training sessions into their busy schedules at work or at home. To best meet the intent of OSHA law, CBT must:

a. be intuitive in its presentationb. provided in both html and pdf formats c. assure timely feedbackd. opportunity for student-trainer interaction

38


1. These guidelines require goals and objectives be written for safety training:

a. ORS 654.1200b. NFPA 234.003-2 c. ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2001d. OAR 437-001-0760

2. Which of the following statements is considered a good example of a training goal?

a. Increase appreciation for safety in the workplaceb. Present the elements of a safety management system c. Learn how to complete an accident investigation procedured. Students will be able to identify respirator defects

3. Which of the following statements is considered a good example of a learning goal?

a. Show students how to conduct a safety inspectionb. Inform employees about the company's safety policies and rules c. Learn how to complete an accident investigationd. Teach new employees how to insert ear plugs

4. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, when asked by the instructor, the student will know all steps of the oil spill cleanup procedure.

a. conditionb. performer c. actiond. standard

5. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, each employee will be able to select the most appropriate respirator for the task.


6. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, when presented with a requirement to perform a simulated lockout/tagout procedure, each employee will be able to perform the lockout/tagout procedure.


7. Which of the five criteria for learning objectives is missing from the following statement? At the end of training, when presented with a requirement to perform a simulated lockout/tagout procedure, correctly perform all steps of the lockout/tagout procedure.


8. If the problem is one that can be solved, in whole or in part, by training then the next step is to:

a. determine what training is neededb. determine if non-training solutions are needed c. determine who is responsible for trainingd. determine if OSHA requires the training

9. It is important to conduct the needs assessment process to gather information about the learner and the task so that the trainer can:

a. meet specific learner wantsb. design appropriate training c. satisfy employer needsd. best comply with OSHA

10. The first step in the training process is a basic one; to determine ____:

a. employee and task needsb. the subject of training c. if adequate time is availabled. if a problem can be solved by training

39


1. No amount of training is likely to reduce workplace risk unless you make it ____:

a. a higher priority than productionb. interesting to learnersc. the responsibility of the safety committeed. part of a sound safety management system

2. Before determining if a discrepancy is caused by a lack of knowledge, skills or abilities, the trainer needs to: (Mager, p. 32)

a. describe the actual safety performanceb. retest the employeec. interview the employeed. consider non-training options

3. Which of the following actions should be accomplished after a trainer determines a substandard performance is not caused by a lack of knowledge, skills or abilities? (Mager, p. 32)

a. describe the actual safety performanceb. retest the employeec. interview the employeed. consider non-training options

4. If, after interviewing the employee, the trainer determines an employee has not performed the task before, the trainer needs to: (Mager, p. 32)

a. conduct a practice sessionb. conduct formal trainingc. merely provide feedbackd. analyze training resources

5. If an employee demonstrates lack of knowledge or skill in accomplishing a task that is rarely performed, an appropriate response would be to: (Mager, p. 32)

a. analyze resourcesb. provide feedbackc. conduct formal trainingd. conduct practice

6. According the Mager's Performance Analysis Flowchart, if an employee demonstrates lack of knowledge or skill in accomplishing a task that is accomplished often, an appropriate response would be to: (Mager, p. 32)

a. analyze resourcesb. provide feedbackc. conduct formal trainingd. conduct practice

7. According the Mager's Performance Analysis Flowchart, if a an employee does not exhibit a deficiency of knowledge or skill in accomplishing a task, all of the following non-training options may be appropriate solutions to the performance discrepancy, except: (Mager, p. 32)

a. resourcesb. feedbackc. educationd. consequences

8. This management system performance failure may take various forms such as management pressure to work fast, inadequate personal protective equipment, or defective tools:

a. failure to provide resourcesb. failure to provide adequate supervisionc. failure to provide adequate enforcementd. failure to provide adequate leadership

9. An employee performance discrepancy may be caused by a non-training failure. Ignoring safety violations represent this safety management system performance failure:


10. A performance discrepancy may be caused by a non-training failure. Failing to detect and correct hazards when identified is an example of this safety management system performance failure:


40


1. When a hazardous procedure or practice is trained, when is the trainer required to evaluate the employee's knowledge and skills?

a. after exposure to actual hazardsb. before exposure to actual hazardsc. during exposure to actual hazardsd. if OSHA standards mandate

2. To ensure the goals of safety training are met, line managers must be able to do all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)

a. be trained and be able to train using safe and efficient methodsb. ensure others are assigned to conduct effective trainingc. support organizational health and safety policies and proceduresd. be trained in proper methods of leadership and supervision

3. The responsibility for safety and health training typically falls upon: (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)

a. first line supervisorsb. human resource managersc. safety and health professionalsd. consultants

4. It is important that safety managers work with all levels of management for all of the following reasons, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)

a. adequateb. timelyc. accurated. mandatory

5. There are several ways safety professionals can identify training needs. Which of the following is not one of them? (NSC, APM-A&P, 365)

a. stay current on new or revised regulatory standardsb. analyze inspection reportsc. review accident investigation reportsd. review litigation cases

6. All of the following are considered by the NSC as proactive methods for determining training needs, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)

a. conduct surveys and safety auditsb. review safety inspection reportsc. requests by other managersd. employee opinion surveys and interviews

7. Safety training is best used only to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)

a. improve a knowledge or skill deficiencyb. enforce safety rulesc. improve poor worker attitudesd. correct poor engineering

8. Safety training is least effective when used to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)

a. improve a knowledge or skill deficiencyb. enforce safety rulesc. improve poor worker attitudesd. correct poor engineering

9. Safety training policy statements should: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)

a. take priority over other operational training policiesb. written to work together with other company policiesc. be written as independent stand-alone documentsd. focus on employee and supervisor training

10. Effective safety training policies will: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)

a. usually take precedence over production schedulesb. unavoidably compete with other production-related trainingc. define training for all levels of the organizationd. design safety training as the first response to unsafe behaviors

42

Practice Questions - Bank 8 1. Workers will more likely consider safety as a part of operations when the safety training budget: (NSC, APM-A&P, 366)

a. is included as part of the human resource department budgetb. is controlled by safety and health committeesc. is divided into separate accountsd. is combined with other training programs

2. The decision to train workers in safety is made by: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. comparing the cost of training against the cost of no trainingb. determining OSHA training requirementsc. analyzing accident historyd. weighing probability, exposure, and severity risks

3. Adequate safety training budgets will provide all the following elements of a strong safety training program, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. providing adequate recordkeepingb. meeting all regulatory requirementsc. planning training needs after an accident occursd. eliminating or controlling known hazards

4. Safety training records will include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. identify instructorsb. disciplinary historyc. content and methods of instructiond. results of training effectiveness

5. Safety training records are especially valuable for which of the following purposes? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. demonstrate the comprehensive nature of training to lawyersb. identify strengths and weaknesses of the safety programc. to fulfill legal obligationsd. all of the above

6. A safety training program is needed under all of the following conditions, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. when disciplinary is requiredb. for all new or reassigned employeesc. when new equipment or processes d. when employee performance needs improvement

7. A safety training program is needed under all of the following conditions, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. whenever procedures are revised b. when new information is available or requiredc. when employees are introduced to workplace hazards d. whenever employees register an unsubstantiated safety complaint

8. When an employee is transferred within a facility, which of the following training is least likely to be required? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367)

a. applicable material safety data sheets b. location of safety equipmentc. evacuation proceduresd. use of fire extinguishers

9. Which of the following is not necessarily a symptom that safety training is needed? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367-368)

a. high employee turnover b. increasing accident ratesc. increased number of safety suggestionsd. higher accident rates than industry average

10. Which of the following is not necessarily a symptom that safety training may be needed? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367-368)

a. increase in the rate of hazard reportingb. excessive waste or scrap materialsc. changing regulatory requirementsd. lower job satisfaction

43

Practice Questions - Bank 9 1. Which of the following is not necessarily a symptom that safety training may be needed? (NSC, APM-A&P, 367-368)

a. single violation of a safety ruleb. low compliance ratesc. new job proceduresd. changes in work assignment

2. The first step in developing a safety training program is to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 368)

a. identify learner needsb. write curriculumc. determine learning activitiesd. develop operational objectives

3. This is often referred to as a blueprint for training: (NSC, APM-A&P, 368)

a. training policyb. lesson planc. operational objectived. training goal

4. On-the-job training (OJT) is widely used because: (NSC, APM-A&P, 370)

a. no formal lesson plan is requiredb. the cost of training is minimalc. it allows the worker to produce during the trainingd. a material data safety sheet can be used

5. For on-the-job training (OJT) to be successful, which of the following must be present or occur? (NSC, APM-A&P, 370)

a. a detailed written script to ensure consistencyb. the trainer must possess adequate knowledge and skillsc. available classroom and mediad. the trainer must be a lead-person or supervisor

6. A popular variation to on-the-job training is called: (NSC, APM-A&P, 370)

a. just-in-time training (JIT)b. job instruction training (JIT)c. formal classroom trainingd. walkaround tour training

7. These training strategies are used to encourage participation from a selected audience: (NSC, APM-A&P, 371)

a. case studiesb. conference methodsc. group techniquesd. brainstorming

8. This training method is widely used in business and industry because it bring the knowledge of each participant to the group: (NSC, APM-A&P, 371)

a. case studyb. conference methodc. group techniqued. brainstorming

9. This training technique encourages each participant to present many ideas on a specific issue: (NSC, APM-A&P, 372)


10. This training technique involves the use of an actual or fictitious situation to improve problem-solving skills: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)


44

Practice Questions - Bank 10 1. This is a case study method, the group works with a written account of an incident: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)

a. accident investigationb. incident processc. normative case studyd. case study process

2. This training method allows small groups to exchange ideas and concerns among workers: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)

a. discussionb. incident processc. brainstormingd. role play

3. This training method is used when actual materials or machines are not available: (NSC, APM-A&P, 373)

a. discussionb. incident processc. brainstormingd. simulation

4. This training method is normally used to present facts, motivate, or summarize: (NSC, APM-A&P, 374)

a. discussionb. lecturec. brainstormingd. role play

5. This training method can be used so that workers can clarify individual concerns or points of fact: (NSC, APM-A&P, 374)

a. discussionb. lecturec. question and answer d. role play

6. This training method uses practice and repetition to further develop workers skill in job tasks: (NSC, APM-A&P, 374)

a. discussionb. lecturec. question and answer d. drill

7. Advantages of computer assisted training include all of the following, except: (NSC, APM-A&P, 375)

a. work at your own timeb. rich student-instructor interactionc. correct answers are required to proceed d. records are automatically kept

8. Which of the following is a major advantage of the independent home-study or correspondence courses? (NSC, APM-A&P, 375)

a. instructor-student discussionb. worker is able to interact with others c. worker does not lose time at work d. work can drill at own pace

9. During training, workers will most likely reflect the attitude of which of the following? (NSC, APM-A&P, 375)

a. instructorb. supervisorc. spouse d. coworkers

10. Safety training is most effective when it is provided: (NSC, APM-A&P, 376)

a. quarterlyb. annuallyc. as OSHA mandates d. continually

45

ANSWER KEYS: AREA I.

Area I. A. Finance

Bank 1

1. c. 26.6%2. c. mutual3. d. maximizing profits4. c. history of losses or safety costs5. b. variable costs6. a. fixed costs7. d. total costs8. c. break even point9. b. natural consequences10. b. ability

Bank 2

1. c. finance2. b. financial management3. d. managerial accountant4. c. finance officer5. d. return on costs (ROC)6. a. profitability and viability7. b. risk, profit8. b. profit9. d. solvency10. b. tangible or intangible

Bank 3

1. d. tangible 2. b. intangible 3. c. liabilities4. a. money owed to equity 5. c. equity6. b. efficiency7. b. assets = liabilities plus stockholders' equity8. b. liability9. c. balance sheet10. d. a and c above

Bank 4

1. b. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)2. c. eliminating3. a. liberalism 4. b. separating5. d. subjectiveness6. c. going concern7. a. conservatism8. d. matching9. b. cost10. b. objectivity

Bank 5

1. c. materiality2. d. consistency3. a. full discloser4. b. historical or acquisition cost5. a. net realizable value6. c. future profits7. d. replacement cost8. c. short-term obligations9. d. long-term obligations10. a. non-monetary obligations

Bank 6

1. c. materiality2. d. consistency3. a. full discloser4. b. historical or acquisition cost5. a. net realizable value6. c. future profits7. d. replacement cost8. c. short-term obligations9. d. long-term obligations10. a. non-monetary obligations

46

Bank 7

1. c. limited partnership2. d. double taxation3. a. risk4. b. higher5. c. systematic risk6. a. break-even point7. b. liabilities plus stockholders' equity

47

Area I. B. Cost Accounting

Bank 1

1. c. risk assessment2. d. cost in terms of injury-free days3. d. litigation expenses4. b. enforce safety rules5. d. increased workers' compensation premiums6. c. dollars per $100 of pay7. a. cost of accidents8. a. uninsured costs9. c. restricted duty cases10. b. workers compensation pay for lost work time

Bank 2

1. c. if extra equipment and work space is required2. a. cost3. b. gross benefits 4. a. cost-benefit analysis5. c. 20,000 units6. b. 1458%7. a. .48. b. investment9. c. $192,00010. d. number of days to cover loss

Bank 3

1. b. money2. b. shown in dollars3. b. workplace violence is increasing4. d. the fact that accidents are expensive5. a. absorbing OSHA penalties is less expensive than safety investments6. b. insurance and uninsured costs7. b. leading, training8. c. uninsured9. a. near-miss cases10. c. workers do not exceed normal production to make up for lost production

Bank 4

1. a. subtract the original cost from the salvage value and depreciation2. c. $4,9003. a. 74. b. all days not covered by workers' compensation payments5. a. wages paid for work time lost by injured workers6. d. miscellaneous unusual costs 7. b. cost of hiring new employee8. d. loss of profit on idle machines or workers 9. a. cost of subsequent injuries10. b. not of great importance

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Area 1.C. Employee Relations/HR

Bank 1

1. a. dissonance2. c. evaluative3. a. supportive4. d. behavior5. b. job involvement6. c. personality7. a. authoritarianism8. d. risk propensity9. b. perception10. a. behavior

Bank 2

1. c. stereotyping2. a. law of effect3. c. manipulate variables causing inappropriate behavior4. c. halo effect5. d. three-needs theory6. b. safety and health committee 7. c. a motivation8. a. a need9. d. Theory Y10. a. initial training

Bank 3

1. c. Theory X2. a. Hierarchy of Needs Theory3. c. achievement-oriented4. d. anticipated consequences5. c. factors that eliminate dissatisfaction6. a. need for safety (nSaf)7. d. manage unique needs8. c. a reinforcer9. c. increase10. a. past experiences and the emotions they provoke

Bank 4

1. a. put into it2. a. reinforcement3. c. ignore undesired behaviors4. b. probability-value linkage5. a. supportive6. c. finding a simpler way to do a job7. c. achievement-oriented8. a. goal conflict9. d. duration10. b. install a reward system

Bank 5

1. c. practice2. d. operational objectives3. c. customer-supplier relationship4. a. important5. b. primacy 6. d. meaningfulness7. c. frequency will decrease8. c. intensity9. b. selective learning 10. d. experienced responsibility

Bank 6

1. a. reinforcement2. d. frequency3. b. self-actualization4. b. knowledge of results 5. d. transfer of learning6. d. all of the above7. b. recall 8. c. external, imposed9. d. average-person fallacy10. c. internal

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Area 1.D. Ethics and Law

Bank 1

1. b. The quality of being in accord with a profession's ethics.2. c. Always right or good moral conduct. 3. b. carefully sifts facts and examines their implications 4. a. Ethics are relative to the general conditions 5. c. naive relativism 6. b. role relativism 7. d. industry best practices 8. a. There are universal absolutes in every culture 9. c. utilitarianism 10. c. utilitarianism

Bank 2

1. b. joint tort 2. d. ultrahazardous operations3. d. assumption of risk4. a. tort 5. d. antecedents, belief, belief, behavior 6. b. relationship, activities 7. d. social responsibility 8. a. social contract9. c. The Iron Law of Responsibility10. b. Short term limitation of regulation

Bank 3

1. d. invisible hand 2. b. subversive doctrine3. a. paying taxes4. d. a and b above5. c. malfeasance6. b. Criminal 7. d. Code of Hammurabi8. d. a and c above9. b. royalty laws 10. b. United States Code

Bank 4

1. a. 102nd 2. d. Williams-Steiger3. b. authorization and appropriations 4. c. provides the money for the regulatory activities 5. b. limit appropriations to the governing agency 6. a. Code of Federal Regulations 7. b. congressional proclamations 8. d. notifies the public 9. a. with one or more employees 10. c. are as effective as the federal program

Bank 5

1. c. temporary review standards 2. a. consensus 3. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective. 4. a. workplace and other studies 5. b. Business Liability Act 6. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule.7. a. compliance poses a financial burden 8. d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury 9. c. general 10. d. employer ability to pay

Bank 6

1. a. nullify rules 2. d. all of the above 3. d. a and b above 4. c. willful violations of the general duty clause 5. a. challenge the abatement remedy 6. c. adverse treatment was the substantial cause 7. a. trade secret information 8. c. thank the attorney but decline the offer 9. d. Equality of the consideration 10. a. tort

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Bank 7

1. a. Civil law deals with persons and organizations 2. c. United States Code (USC) 3. a. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 4. d. answers a and b above5. c. malfeasance 6. d. all of the above7. a. reasonable care 8. b. great care 9. d. slight care10. c. due care

Bank 8

1. b. foreseeability2. d. foreseeability applied to the premises3. b. laissez-faire4. a. autonomy5. d. all of the above 6. c. beneficence 7. b. compensatory damages8. c. punitive damages 9. b. safe premises10. c. dangerous instrumentality

Bank 9

1. b. standard of reasonable prudence 2. c. proximate cause 3. c. proximate cause 4. a. liability 5. c. strict liability 6. b. negligence 7. c. negligence perse 8. d. gross negligence9. a. willful conduct 10. a. reckless conduct

Bank 10

1. b. contributory negligence 2. c. master-servant relationship 3. d. The Fourteenth Amendment4. b. Alabama in 1885 5. c. laissez-faire 6. d. the employer caused emotional stress7. b. the employer unintentionally caused physical injury 8. d. fraud9. a. misrepresentation 10. b. negligence

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Area 1.E. Organization Structure

Bank 1

1. c. a policy that states the importance of safety2. c. purchasing3. b. all employees in the organization4. d. leadership5. b. staff6. a. institute a system of negative reinforcement to secure compliance7. a. gain the commitment of top management and administration8. b. staff9. b. have authority over line elements10. c. be a part of every organizational element

Bank 2

1. a. avoid flawed practices2. b. performance errors3. a. use technical jargon4. c. exist on rule and law alone5. c. Operational mishaps are the results of human error6. a. Industrial excellence is the product of sound safety engineering7. c. corporate illness8. b. indictment of management's ability to direct and control9. a. people combine their efforts for a given purpose10. b. team member, not a technician

Bank 3

1. d. limit OSHA injuries claims to reduce workers' compensation premiums2. d. managers3. c. enforce safety rules4. b. encourage compliance5. c. good housekeeping6. c. timely work request submission7. a. total hours used8. c. disciplining9. a. detail management commitment to safety10. d. employees

Bank 4

1. d. from all line and staff officials2. b. top management3. a. line production4. c. staff services5. c. staff services6. b. position description7. c. functional statement8. d. accidents9. d. all of the above10. b. Safety is considered important and meaningful to most managers

Bank 5

1. a. Personnel2. b. Supply and Logistics3. c. Engineering4. d. Finance5. d. ensure department heads are held accountable for accident rates6. c. rely on the employee-management safety advisory committee7. b. respond and reply to employee complaints in a timely manner8. a. improve that manager's own effectiveness9. c. it places error-free performance at the bottom of the totem pole10. c. line managers

Bank 6

1. b. other managers2. d. counselor3. d. all of the above4. c. they do not receive services from safety specialists5. d. all of the above6. d. all of the above7. b. complex structures8. d. matrix structures9. a. simple structure10. d. machine bureaucracy

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Bank 7

1. b. professional bureaucracy2. c. divisional form3. c. divisional form4. d. machine bureaucracy5. a. adhocracy6. d. increasing uniformity7. c. aging workforce8. a. a strong organizational culture9. c. organic system10. b. mechanical system

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Area 1.F. Training and Development

Bank 1

1. c. achievement2. a. substantial salary3. b. Level II, Learning 4. b. employer5. d. appropriate humor during presentation6. a. Support from supervisors and top executive management7. a. to help ensure safe performance8. b. slides and videos9. c. to prove employee is ill-prepared10. c. to retrain employees whenever they violate safety rules

Bank 2

1. c. can the problem be solved by training?2. d. what learners will be able to do at the end of training3. a. positive and negative4. b. trainer show and tell5. d. all of the above6. d. b or c above7. d. Level V, Return on Investment 8. a. It states the target learner attitude toward the subject9. b. expertise 10. c. practical to theoretical

Bank 3

1. c. non-supportive safety culture2. a. Level I, Reaction3. c. lack of supervisor support4. d. all of the above 5. a. limit variables6. d. workplace improvement 7. c. Level III, Application8. a. Level I, Reaction9. c. strong documentation10. d. a formal certification

Bank 4

1. a. ensure training was effective2. c. present personal opinion3. a. ensure employees pay attention4. d. increased motivation to pay attention5. b. rephrase the question 6. b. feel felt found response 7. c. simulate the job8. c. sequencing9. b. On the Job Training (OJT) 10. d. opportunity for student-trainer interaction

Bank 5

1. c. ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-20012. b. Present the elements of a safety management system 3. c. Learn how to complete an accident investigation4. c. action5. a. condition6. d. standard7. b. performer 8. a. determine what training is needed9. b. design appropriate training 10. d. if a problem can be solved by training

Bank 6

1. d. part of a sound safety management system 2. c. interview the employee3. d. consider non-training options 4. b. conduct formal training5. d. conduct practice 6. b. provide feedback7. c. education8. d. failure to provide adequate leadership9. c. failure to provide adequate enforcement10. b. failure to provide adequate supervision

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Bank 7

1. b. before exposure to actual hazards2. b. ensure others are assigned to conduct effective training3. c. safety and health professionals4. d. mandatory5. d. review litigation cases 6. c. requests by other managers7. a. improve a knowledge or skill deficiency8. b. enforce safety rules9. b. written to work together with other company policies10. c. define training for all levels of the organization

Bank 8

1. d. is combined with other training programs2. a. comparing the cost of training against the cost of no training3. c. planning training needs after an accident occurs4. b. disciplinary history5. d. all of the above6. a. when disciplinary is required7. d. whenever employees register an unsubstantiated safety complaint8. d. use of fire extinguishers 9. c. increased number of safety suggestions10. a. increase in the rate of hazard reporting

Bank 9

1. a. single violation of a safety rule2. a. identify learner needs3. b. lesson plan4. c. it allows the worker to produce during the training5. b. the trainer must possess adequate knowledge and skills6. b. job instruction training (JIT)7. c. group techniques8. b. conference method9. d. brainstorming 10. a. case study

Bank 10

1. b. incident process2. a. discussion3. d. simulation 4. b. lecture5. c. question and answer 6. d. drill 7. b. rich student-instructor interaction8. c. worker does not lose time at work 9. b. supervisor10. d. continually

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Area II Management Theory and MethodsQuestions and Answer Key

Subject Area II. Topic A. SMBO/TQM Principles

Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. This management principle is defined by Odiorne as 'a process whereby superior and subordinate managers jointly identify common goals, define responsibilities in terms of expected results, and use measures to assess the contribution of its members': (Petersen, SM, 274)

a. Behavioral-Based Management (BBM)b. Total Quality Management (TQM)c. Management by Wandering Around (MBWA)d. Management by Objectives (MBO)

2. Which of the statements below is not one of the key activities used in the MBO process? (Petersen, SM, 274)

a. define responsibilities in terms of expected resultsb. jointly identify common goalsc. measure results using process indicatorsd. assess the contribution of each member

3. It is important to understand the difference in the meaning of 'injury' and 'accident' to assure: (Grimaldi & Simons, 13)

a. the terms are not used interchangeablyb. the proper orienting safety management objectivesc. statistical accuracyd. all of the above

4. Webster defines this term as, 'an event or condition occurring by chance or arising from an unknown or remote cause:' (Grimaldi & Simons, 15)

a. incidentb. injuryc. accidentd. mishap

5. Which of the following is not listed by Dan Petersen as a step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)

a. obtain management-supervision agreementb. give each supervisor and opportunity to performc. give supervisors an opportunity to practiced. help, guide, and train


a. obtain management-supervision agreementb. give selected supervisors and opportunity to performc. give supervisors feedbackd. reward according to progress


a. give each supervisor and opportunity to performb. give supervisors feedbackc. withhold help until requestedd. reward according to progress


a. give each supervisor and opportunity to performb. give supervisors feedbackc. help, guide, and traind. reward once objectives are achieved

9. Which of the following is not discussed by Dan Petersen as a critical step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)

a. get agreement on results objectives onlyb. provide regular, current, and pertinent feedbackc. provide technical and managerial assistanced. a reward system that is geared to the progress made

10. Which of the following is not discussed by Dan Petersen as a necessary step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)

a. get agreement on results and activity objectivesb. provide feedback at least quarterlyc. provide technical and managerial assistanced. a reward system that is geared to the progress made

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1. According to Dan Petersen, during this decade, safety professionals started seriously thinking, for the first time, in management terms: (Petersen, SM, 4)

a. 1930'sb. 1940'sc. 1950'sd. 1960's

2. According to Dan Petersen, this decade saw the onset of the OSHA Era: (Petersen, SM, 5)

a. 1950'sb. 1960'sc. 1970'sd. 1980's

3. Which of the following is not discussed by Dan Petersen as an important step in the SBO system? (Petersen, SM, 276)

a. get agreement on results and activity objectivesb. provide regular, current, and pertinent feedbackc. provide technical and managerial assistanced. a reward system emphasizes recognition of achieved objectives

4. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO? (Petersen, SM, 280)

a. brings goal-directed behaviorb. assures viable accountability for achievementc. fosters participation in the safety programd. incorporates response tools

5. Each of the following is considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 280)

a. brings process-directed behaviorb. provides current, immediate, relevant reinforcementc. fosters participation in the safety programd. incorporates response tools

6. Each of the following is considered by Petersen as an advantage of SBO, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 280)

a. facilitates planning in safetyb. provides current, immediate, relevant reinforcementc. fosters participation in the safety programd. does not rely on supervisor creativity


a. brings goal-directed behaviorb. uses established traditional techniquesc. fosters participation in the safety programd. incorporates response tools


a. brings goal-directed behaviorb. facilitates planning in safetyc. doesn't rely on creativityd. incorporates response tools

9. According to Dan Petersen, the Human Era was ushered in at some time after this era: (Petersen, SM, 7)

a. Noise Era b. Industrial Hygiene Erac. OSHA Erad. Accountability Era

10. What is a safety process?

a. It assures continuous improvement and employee participationb. It converts system inputs into system outputsc. Anything that satisfies customersd. Anything that causes change

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a. fosters compliant goal-settingb. taps human resourcesc. brings goal-directed behaviord. it incorporates response tools

2. This technique, popularized by Dan Petersen, is a systematic method of measuring accident prevention effort: (Petersen, TSM, 95)

a. SMBOb. SCRAPEc. SQTMd. TSM

3. According to W. Edwards Deming, this cause category is responsible for 94 percent of total variation: (Mears, QIT&T, 68)

a. special variationsb. common variationsc. surface variationsd. root variations

4. The 'SCRAPE' rate indicates the amount of work done by a supervisor and by the company to: (Petersen, TSM, 95)

a. assure compliance within a given periodb. inspect and correct hazards within a given periodc. observe critical behaviors within a given periodd. prevent accidents within a given period

5. The first step in the 'SCRAPE' process is to: (Petersen, TSM, 95)

a. determine specifically what line managers are to dob. develop goals and objectives to measurec. meet to seek agreement on objectives to be measuredd. write an effective plan prior to action

6. According to Dan Petersen, the Accountability Era was in full swing during which decade? (Petersen, SM, 7)

a. 1950'sb. 1960'sc. 1970'sd. 1980's

7. Under the 'SCRAPE' process, managers are interested in prioritizing what supervisors will do in each of the following activity categories, except: (Petersen, TSM, 95)

a. orienting new employeesb. enforcing regulatory standardsc. training or coaching peopled. writing safety policy

8. Under the 'SCRAPE' process, managers are interested in prioritizing what supervisors will do in each of the following activity categories, except: (Petersen, TSM, 95)

a. conducting physical inspections of the departmentb. enforcing regulatory standardsc. training or coaching peopled. investigating accidents

9. The value of Petersen's 'SCRAPE' process rests in its ability to: (Petersen, TSM, 97)

a. measures the lack of safety after an accident occursb. pressures supervisors to achieve measures objectivesc. measure safety activity before an accident occursd. relies on management measurement rather than employee compliance

10. The most important result of Petersen's 'SCRAPE' process is that it: (Petersen, TSM, 97)

a. measures safety activity, not the lack of safetyb. forces supervisors to achieve high levels of performancec. makes management define what it wants from supervisorsd. measures effort after an accident occurs

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1. According to Deming, why does productivity increase as quality improves? (Deming, OC, 1)

a. less workb. more process efficiencyc. less reworkd. more system efficiency

2. What is the relationship between variation and productivity? (Deming, OC, 3)

a. increased variation improves productivityb. decreased variation improves productivityc. variation has no affect on productivityd. variation and productivity are inversely proportional

3. Deming's cause-effect chain reaction was the centerpiece of his training. According to the chain reaction, all of the following are direct effects of improved quality, except: (Deming, OC, 3)

a. decreased costsb. stay in businessc. less reworkd. fewer delays

4. According to Deming's cause-effect chain reaction, all of the following are direct effects of improved quality, except: (Deming, OC, 3)

a. better use of machine-timeb. better use of materialsc. productivity improvesd. fewer snags

5. According to Deming's cause-effect chain reaction, what is the direct effect of improved productivity? (Deming, OC, 3)

a. provide more jobsb. stay in businessc. quality improvesd. increased marketshare

6. According to Deming's cause-effect chain reaction, what is the direct effect of staying in business? (Deming, OC, 3)

a. provide more jobsb. stay in businessc. quality improvesd. increased marketshare

7. According to Deming quality begins with intent, which is fixed by: (Deming, OC, 3)

a. the consumerb. the workerc. managementd. the individual

8. According to Deming, the most important part of the production line is: (Deming, OC, 3)

a. the consumerb. the workerc. the machined. the system

9. According to Deming, why are statistics on accidents like figures on productivity? (Deming, OC, 15)

a. they are leading indicatorsb. they tell you how and why accident rates varyc. they do not hell you how to reduce the number of accidentsd. they are the preferred method of measurement

10. According to Deming, experience without __________ teaches management nothing about what to do to improve quality and competitive position: (Deming, OC, 19)

a. theoryb. applicationc. statisticsd. controls

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1. Deming developed 14 points for total quality management. The idea that the next quarterly dividend is not as important as the existence of the company 10 years from now reflects which element? (Deming, OC, 25)

a. Element 1. Create constancy of purposeb. Element 2. Adopt the new philosophyc. Element 3. Cease dependence on mass inspectiond. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price alone

2. The idea that price has no meaning without a measure of the quality being purchased reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 32)


3. According to Deming, this element describes a practice that is equivalent to planning for defects, and is an acknowledgment that the process has not the capability required for the specification: (Deming, OC, 28)


4. The idea that people on the job do not know what the job is and are afraid to ask describes a problem that must be eliminated according which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 26)


5. The idea that the job of management is to support, not control the workforce reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 54)

a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price aloneb. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever c. Element 6. Institute trainingd. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership

6. Relying on a single supplier for quality personal protective equipment would be consistent with which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 54)

a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price aloneb. Element 5. Improve constantly and foreverc. Element 6. Institute trainingd. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership

7. This element is critical to ensure management and employees understand the importance of variation in the production process: (Deming, OC, 52)


8. The idea that quality must be built into the design of a safety management system reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 49)


9. Deming considered the greatest waste in America the failure to use the abilities of people. This idea reflects the importance for which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 52)


10. The idea that real improvements in a safety management system cannot be achieved by merely addressing surface causes reflects which of Deming's 14 elements? (Deming, OC, 54)


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1. Removing the barriers that make it impossible for employees to work safely is a goal stated in which Deming element? (Deming, OC, 54)

a. Element 4. End awarding business on the basis of price aloneb. Element 5. Improve constantly and forever the system of production and servicec. Element 6. Institute trainingd. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadership

2. According to Deming, if this element is not successfully addressed first, total quality management cannot be achieved: (Deming, OC, 59)

a. Element 7. Adopt and institute leadershipb. Element 8. Drive out fearc. Element 9. Break down barriers between staff areasd. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets

3. When management does not walk the talk, listen to employees, supply resources and leadership, posted safety signs mean nothing. Which Deming point reflects this idea? (Deming, OC, 65)


4. Failure to meet the objectives of this element might result in an employee withholding an injury report: (Deming, OC, 59)


5. For the safety management system to be most effective, policies should promote cooperation rather than competition. Which of Deming's 14 elements addresses this idea? (Deming, OC, 62)


6. Which of Deming's 14 elements would not encourage a posted Zero Accidents sign? (Deming, OC, 65)


7. While discussing this element, Deming stated that a quota is a fortress against improvement of quality and productivity: (Deming, OC, 65)


8. Piece work is counter-productive to safe work. This principle is supported in which of the following Deming points? (Deming, OC, 65)

a. Element 10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targetsb. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotasc. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanshipd. Element 13. Encourage education and self-improvement

9. Advances in a company's competitive position has its roots in knowledge reflects which Deming element? (Deming, OC, 86)


10. The thought by an employee that he or she is merely a commodity is of a concern discussed within this Deming element: (Deming, OC, 77)


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1. Deming encouraged use of the Shewhart Cycle to accomplish this element: (Deming, OC, 88)

a. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotasb. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanshipc. Element 13. Encourage education d. Element 14. Take action to accomplish the transformation

2. According to Deming, unless this element is taken seriously by management, quality teams will probably disintegrate within a few months from frustration: (Deming, OC, 88)

a. Element 11. Eliminate numerical quotasb. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanshipc. Element 13. Encourage education d. Element 14. Take action to accomplish the transformation

3. Which of the following is not one of the questions a safety manager should ask as part of his or her effort to transform the safety management system? (Deming, OC, 90)

a. Where does the safety function fit in the organization?b. What product or services does the safety function provide?c. How can the safety function control accident rates?d. What would happen if the safety stopped producing?

4. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the Shewhart Cycle? (Walton, DMM, 87)

a. Plan - Carefully plan the change or testb. Deploy - Carry out the change on a large scalec. Study - Observe and study the effectsd. Act - Adopt, revise, or abandon the change

5. Each of the following describes one of Deming's seven deadly diseases, except: (Walton, DMM, 93)

a. lack of constancy of purposeb. mobility of top managementc. running the company on invisible statisticsd. excessive medical costs

6. Which of the following is not one of Deming's seven deadly diseases? (Walton, DMM, 93)

a. lack of variation of purposeb. excessive cost of warrantyc. evaluation of performance, merit rating, annual reviewd. excessive medical costs

7. Our need for prima donnas who can produce quick results describes a cause for which Deming deadly disease? (Walton, DMM, 92)

a. lack of variation of purposeb. excessive cost of warrantyc. mobility of top managementd. excessive medical costs

8. Grouping employees into categories based on their performance describes an action in which Deming deadly disease? (Walton, DMM, 92)

a. lack of variation of purposeb. excessive cost of warrantyc. mobility of top managementd. evaluation of performance, merit rating, annual review

9. Each of the following is one of Deming's obstacles to total quality management, except: (Walton, DMM, 93)

a. neglect of long-range planningb. thinking automation, gadgets will transform industryc. searching for examplesd. thinking our problems are the same

10. Which of the following is one of Deming's obstacles to total quality management? (Walton, DMM, 94)

a. quality by inspectionb. reliance on human resource departmentsc. blaming the workforce for problemsd. thinking our problems are different

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1. Each of the following is one of Deming's obstacles to total quality management, except: (Walton, DMM, 95)

a. reliance on quality control departmentsb. false startsc. anyone who helps knows nothing about our businessd. meeting specifications

2. Doing nothing with large quantities of safety information may be a result of which Deming obstacle? (Walton, DMM, 95)

a. reliance on quality control departmentsb. false startsc. the unmanned computerd. meeting specifications

3. Failing to carefully carry out and study a safety program change small scale in the actual work environment describes which of the following Deming obstacle? (Walton, DMM, 95)

a. reliance on quality control departmentsb. inadequate testing of prototypesc. quality by inspectiond. meeting specifications

4. What does a point beyond upper and lower control limits on a control chart indicate? (Walton, DMM, 97)

a. a common causeb. a special causec. a surface caused. a root cause

5. The total quality management school of thought considers inadequate lighting, vibration, and the absence of a quality safety program as examples of which type of cause? (Walton, DMM, 97)

a. common causesb. special causec. surface caused. root cause

6. The total quality management school of thought would consider which of the following as the most likely cause for a sudden rise in a company's accident rate? (Walton, DMM, 97)

a. common causesb. special causec. surface caused. root cause

7. According to Deming, what is a desirable or undesirable situation, condition, or event produced by a system of causes? (Walton, DMM, 99)

a. outputb. outcomec. effectd. result

8. All of the following are basic cause categories in the Ishikawa Fishbone cause-effect diagram, except: (Walton, DMM, 99)

a. manpowerb. methodsc. managementd. materials

9. One effective way to delineate what is going on in a safety process is to draw a: (Walton, DMM, 102)

a. flowchartb. fishbonec. FMEA diagramd. SCRAPE

10. To sort out the vital few from the trivial many when prioritizing problems, a safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 105)

a. flowchartb. fishbonec. pareto chartd. control chart

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Area II.A. Practice Questions - Bank 9 1. To conduct a trend analysis of accidents in the workplace, a safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 107)

a. run chartb. fishbone diagramc. pareto chartd. control chart

2. To measure how frequently unsafe behaviors are occurring in the workplace, a safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 109)

a. run chartb. fishbone diagramc. histogramd. control chart

3. To measure the relationship between formal observations and the frequency of critical safety behaviors, the safety manager would construct a: (Walton, DMM, 112)

a. run chartb. scatter diagramc. histogramd. control chart

4. This statistical tool is nothing more than a run chart with statistically determined upper and lower control limits drawn on either side of the process average: (Walton, DMM, 114)


5. This is the primary tool used in the practice of Statistical Process Control: (Walton, DMM, 114)


6. What will be the result, according to Deming, if a safety manager introduces competition among the various components of a safety management system? (Deming, NE, 66)

a. the system will improveb. the system will become unstablec. the system will be destroyedd. the system will remain stable

7. Deming considers all of the following as important elements of a safety management system except: (Deming, NE, 96)

a. obligationb. competitionc. interdependenced. cooperation

8. According to Deming, what is the primary obligation of each safety management system component? (Deming, NE, 97)

a. to ensure its own primacyb. to compete with every other componentc. to maximize its own productiond. to contribute its best to the system

9. According to Deming, the greater the interdependence between safety management system components, the greater will be the need for communication and: (Deming, NE, 96)

a. cooperationb. creativityc. competitiond. common goals

10. According to Deming, in a stable safety management system, costs, performance, quantity and quality are: (Deming, NE, 99)

a. preventableb. predictablec. proactived. programmed

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1. One common management error is to consistently blame an employee when an accident occurs. According to Deming, this is a good example of reacting to an outcome as if it came from a ________ cause, when actually it came from a ___________ cause of variation: (Deming, NE, 99)

a. surface, rootb. unpredictable, predictablec. common, speciald. special, common

2. According to Deming, a system cannot understand itself: It must go outside itself to gain profound knowledge to improve the system. To gain profound knowledge about a safety training program, which of the following activities would be least effective? (Deming, NE, 101)

a. survey employeesb. meet with trainersc. observe post-training performanced. interview supervisors

3. According to Deming, all of the following describe characteristics of the new role of a safety manager, except: (Deming, NE, 125)

a. understands people are differentb. understands the systemc. helps people see themselves are part of a systemd. helps people successfully compete


a. judges people fairlyb. understands a stable systemc. unceasing learnerd. a coach and counsel


a. helps those outside control limitsb. is tough to control employeesc. studies results to improve performanced. has appropriate authority, knowledge, personality


a. helps those outside control limitsb. is tough to control employeesc. studies results to improve performanced. has appropriate authority, knowledge, personality

7. According to Deming, once statistical control is achieved, the next step is improvement of the process. Which of the following defines improvement in total quality management terms? (Deming, NE, 177)

a. less stabilityb. greater stabilityc. narrower variationd. wider variation

8. Which of the following is not one of the basic principles of variation within the context of total quality management? (Adams, TQSM, 23-24)

a. variation is normal in every systemb. the causes of variation may lie inside or outside the systemc. under statistical control, variation is due to special causesd. common causes can only be corrected by management

9. All of the following are basic principles of variation within the context of total quality management, except: (Adams, TQSM, 23-24)

a. variation is normal in every systemb. the causes of variation may lie inside or outside of the systemc. under statistical control, variation is due to common causesd. special causes can only be corrected by management

10. All of the following are basic principles of variation within the context of total quality management, except: (Adams, TQSM, 23-24)

a. variation is normal in every systemb. the causes of variation lie only inside the systemc. under statistical control, variation is due to common causesd. At least 85 percent or variation is due to common causes

69

Subject Area II. Topic B. System Safety

Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 1 1. According to Brauer, system safety is an approach to accident prevention that involves detection of system components that: (Brauer, p.544)

a. may contribute to product failureb. breakdown in process qualityc. cause implementation failuresd. have accident potential

2. System safety applies proactive identification and control of hazards throughout the life cycle of: (Brauer, p.544)

a. systemsb. projectsc. programsd. all of the above

3. The cost for changes is greatest in which stage of development? (Brauer, p.545)

a. Planningb. Designc. Occupancyd. Construction

4. According to Brauer, the key element in system safety is: (Brauer, p.544)

a. system improvementb. hazard analysisc. accident investigationd. program development

5. In the system safety approach, hazard analysis: (Brauer, p.544)

a. is continued over the life cycle of a systemb. is systematic yet randomc. is specific to each programd. is constructed to ensure integration

6. Which of the following is not considered a control that extends from system safety hazard analysis? (Brauer, p.544)

a. engineering controlsb. work practice controlsc. behavioral controlsd. interim measures

7. The concepts of system safety evolved with: (Brauer, p.544)

a. ship building projects during WWIIb. Abrams tank development projectsc. aircraft and missile projects d. area 51 back engineering projects

8. Today, system safety concepts are incorporated into all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, p.546)

a. product designb. building and facility designc. accident prevention management d. toxicological study design

9. According to Brauer, this document represents the common thread in the many variations in system safety procedures: (Brauer, p.545)

a. HAZOP-STD 437b. OSHAct 1970c. MIL-STD-882B d. CSP-23 Plan

10. Which of the following is not one of the typical phases in the life cycle of a system? (Brauer, p.545)

a. concept designb. productionc. deployment d. review

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Area II.B. Practice Questions - Bank 2

1. Which of the following is not one of the system safety program objectives defined by MIL-STD-882B? (Brauer, p.546)

a. identify maximum acceptable system riskb. design safety consistent with missionc. identify, evaluate and eliminate system hazards d. use historical data from other systems

2. Which of the following is not one of the system safety program objectives defined by MIL-STD-882B? (Brauer, p.546)

a. seek minimum level of riskb. include safety features to minimize retrofit actionsc. protect critical components d. document significant safety data

3. System safety design approaches to minimize risk from hazards that cannot be eliminated include all of the following, except: (Brauer, p.546)

a. interlocksb. fail-safe designc. compatible materials d. protective clothing

4. Which of the following is the top priority for satisfying system safety requirements and resolving identified hazards? (Brauer, p.547)

a. Incorporate safety devicesb. Develop procedures and trainingc. Design for minimum risk d. Provide warning devices

5. Which of the following is the lowest priority for satisfying system safety requirements and resolving identified hazards? (Brauer, p.547)


6. According to the order of precedence for satisfying system safety requirements guidance within MIL-STD-882B, which method would be employed if safety design or warning devices cannot adequately reduce risk? (Brauer, p.547)


7. According to the order of precedence for satisfying system safety requirements guidance within MIL-STD-882B, this method should be employed if all other methods fail to adequately reduce risk: (Brauer, p.547)


8. This category is the only risk criterion allowed by MIL-STD-882B during the early design phases: (Brauer, p.547)

a. risk exposureb. hazard probabilityc. hazard severity d. risk assessment

9. When hazards are not eliminated by design during early design phases, MIL-STD-882B requires these criteria to set priorities for corrective action and resolution of identified hazards: (Brauer, p.547)

a. risk and severityb. severity and probabilityc. probability and exposure d. exposure and risk

10. MIL-STD-882B requires alternative strategies be employed when methods to eliminate or reduce these hazards are impossible or impractical: (Brauer, p.547)

a. CRITICAL AND SERIOUSb. CATASTROPHIC AND CRITICALc. POTENTIAL AND SERIOUS d. FREQUENT AND CRITICAL

72


1. This analysis technique employs boolean logic concepts to evaluate events and is often used in system safety programs for complex systems: (Brauer, p.551)

a. Root cause analysisb. Fault tree analysisc. HAZOP analysis d. System analysis

2. This analysis technique displays the principal or top undesired event, which is broken down into factors that are further subdivided into event causes: (Brauer, p.551)

a. Root cause analysisb. Fault tree analysisc. HAZOP analysis d. System analysis

3. Which of the following is a possible failure which represents a major weakness inherent in fault tree analysis? (Brauer, p.551)

a. failure to determine root causes for the top eventb. failure to evaluate the relationship among eventsc. failure to assign valid probability to an event d. failure to identify all events that may lead to the top event

4. A significant difficulty in fault tree analysis is: (Brauer, p.551)

a. determining root causes for the top eventb. evaluating the relationship among eventsc. assigning valid probability to an event d. identifying all events that may lead to the basic event

5. Which of the following is the top or intermediate event that must be described further in the tree? (Brauer, p.551)

a. normal eventb. fault eventc. undeveloped event d. basic event

6. Which of the following fault tree analysis events requires no further analysis? (Brauer, p.551)


7. Which of the following fault tree analysis events has two states: it occurs or does not occur? (Brauer, p.552)


8. Which of the following fault tree analysis events is chosen by the analyst not to be analyzed? (Brauer, p.552)


9. Which of the following fault tree analysis events may not be critical to the problem at hand? (Brauer, p.552)


10. Symbols that describe the relationship among elements are called: (Brauer, p.552)

a. relationship doorsb. logic gatesc. rational elements d. notation symbols

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1. Which of the following describes fault tree analysis logic gates? (Brauer, p.552)

a. OR and AND gatesb. GO and NOGO gatesc. IF and THEREFORE gates d. WHEN and THEN gates

2. This fault tree analysis gate indicates that all of the input events must occur to cause the output event: (Brauer, p.552)

a. OR gateb. GO gatec. AND gate d. NOGO gate

3. Two fault tree analysis input events for this gate may be mutually exclusive: (Brauer, p.552)

a. OR gateb. GO gatec. AND gate d. NOGO gate

4. This term describes any element of a fault tree analysis that represents an occurrence: (Brauer, p.553)

a. faultb. gatec. eventd. state

5. This fault tree analysis event results when the function of a component is interrupted: (Brauer, p.553)

a. normalb. faultc. failured. intermittent

6. This 1911 disaster in New York triggered public demand for improved factory safety laws and an increase of factory safety inspection system:

a. The New York Tunnel disasterb. The Triangle Shirtwaste Company firec. The Stock Market crash d. The New York riots

7. This fault tree analysis event describes a condition that contributes in some way to the occurrence of an undesired event: (Brauer, p.553)


8. In fault tree analysis, failing to respond to an emergency chemical spill would be described as a: (Brauer, p.553)


9. In fault tree analysis, inability to detect an emergency chemical spill would be described as a: (Brauer, p.553)


10. In fault tree analysis, this failure is an internal problem with components that make them inoperative: (Brauer, p.553)

a. directb. contributingc. primaryd. secondary

74


1. In fault tree analysis, this failure is an external problem with components that make those components inoperative: (Brauer, p.553)


2. In fault tree analysis, this failure is an internal problem with components that make them inoperative: (Brauer, p.553)


3. In fault tree analysis, this fault is an external event that causes abnormal operation: (Brauer, p.553)


4. Which of the following describe the two types of basic fault tree analysis? (Brauer, p.554)

a. qualitative and quantitativeb. surface and rootc. personal and systemd. primary and secondary

5. This strategy is an inductive procedure that moves from the specific to the general: (Brauer, p.555)

a. Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)

6. This strategy is emphasizes the analysis of the relationship of component conditions to system conditions: (Brauer, p.555)


7. This strategy analyzes events from a time or sequence perspective to determine actors and actions that contribute to an accident: (Brauer, p.558)


8. This safety system analysis process attempts to identify and assess risks associated with an operation and refer them to the proper management level for action: (Brauer, p.559)


9. The MORT analysis method arranges safety program elements into each of the following levels, except: (Brauer, p.559)

a. specific surface causesb. generic problems or undesirable eventsc. basic eventsd. less than adequate (LTA) criteria

10. This safety system analysis process assumes that in a perfect safety system all components function in a manner that contributes to or compliments the achievement of tasks: (Brauer, p.559)


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1. The Labor-Federal Security Appropriations Act in July of 1941 authorized science and management courses as part of the:

a. Safety Engineering Education (SEE)b. Engineering, Science and Management Defense Training (ESMDT)c. Wartime Industrial Safety Engineering (WISE)d. National Occupational Safety Defense Engineering (NOSDE)

2. Which of the following is not one of the recognized interactive components analyzed in the system safety approach?

a. Federal Lawsb. Environmentc. Workerd. Equipment and Materials

3. Thorough analysis of most accidents indicates the causes can be attributed, directly or indirectly to:

a. employee ignoranceb. unsafe behaviorsc. management system weaknessesd. hazardous conditions

4. When designing equipment or a production process, the safety of an operation should be:

a. the least important feature to be consideredb. designed after first considering productivityc. considered as most important featured. regarded as a normal and integral feature

5. This company originated the fault tree analysis process: (Brauer, p. 551)

a. United Airlinesb. The Rand Corporationc. Bell Telephone Laboratoriesd. Rutan Manufacturing

6. According to Pope, this term should be used instead of 'accident' to eliminate any vagueness: (Pope, p. 107)

a. Operational errorb. Operational occurrencec. Operational incidentd. Operational oversight

7. What is the acronym for the safety management reporting system that is a cornerstone of Theory S? (Pope, Chap. 5)

a. HRISb. SMISc. SMRSd. SISM

8. Which of the following is not one of Pope and Creswell's Theory S components? (Pope, Chap. 5)

a. Creation of a computerized information systemb. Industrial mishaps are symptoms of management incompetencec. Systems operate in a condition of probable failured. Systems interact differently with each other

9. Using System Safety Management or Theory S in an industrial enterprise requires the acceptance of which of the following ideas? (Pope, p. 135)

a. All enterprises function in a similar mannerb. Business enterprises are social systemsc. Industrial mishaps are symptoms of incompetenced. Avoidance of correctable loss is the focus

10. TAFS is an acronym for: (Pope, p. 322)

a. Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systemsb. Testing Approach of Functional Systemsc. Testing Analysis for Fundamental Safetyd. Triadic Approach to Fundamental Safety

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1. TAFS take this approach to the diagnosis of causal factors associated with industrial mishaps: (Pope, p. 322)

a. toxicologicalb. epidemiologicalc. logicald. triadic

2. What component does Pope's Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems (TAFS) approach add to traditional safety management? (Pope, Chap. 6)

a. Correction of observable phenomenon of unsafe acts and conditionsb. Define methods of determining unsafe acts and conditionsc. Objective thinking about the direction and control of management d. Use of inspections to gather objective evidence

3. Pope states that the actions taken in response to an accident are determined by its impact on four factors. Which of the following is not one of the factors? (Pope, p. 162)

a. employee(s) involvedb. expense to the corporationc. regulatory compliance d. disruption of the work process

4. Pope's Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems (TAFS) studies the impact of human error and flawed management practices on what three systems? (Pope, p. 165)

a. social, physical, biologicalb. organizational, environmental, socialc. social, mechanical, organizationald. physical, biological, organizational

5. There are four principles to the theory of error-free performance (EPS). Which of the following statements does not reflect these principles? (Pope, p. 192)

a. equipment design should consider capabilities and limitations b. greatest gains come from improving man, machine and management systemsc. management defines safety performance in light of personal flawsd. errors are evidence of ineffective operations and management incompetence

6. According to Pope, McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y is considered within which management school? (Pope, p. 281)

a. Contingency management b. Participative managementc. Human relations theoryd. Scientific management

7. Which of the following is not a recognized system safety measure to protect power sources? (Brauer, p. 546)

a. warning signs b. redundant subsystemsc. physical separationd. physical separation

8. This person is considered the father of the scientific approach to safety? (Pope, p. 36)

a. Dan Petersen b. H.W. Heinrichc. Nestor Roosd. W. Edwards Deming

9. This safety approach identifies and controls hazards throughout the life cycle of a system, project, program or activity:

a. Reliable b. Primaryc. Proactived. Reactive

10. This organization recognized that a building's fire safety could benefit from a systems analysis: (Brauer, p. 563)

a. OSHA b. ASSEc. AFAd. NFPA

77


1. What is meant by the term 'negative event' in Fault Tree Analysis? (Texas WCC)

a. A political rally for a negative candidateb. A near miss or accident that results in personal injury or property damagec. An automobile race where all the vehicles drive in reverse d. A series of events that actually make a positive event

2. What is a benefit of the fault tree analysis? (Texas WCC)

a. It offers shade on a sunny dayb. You can determine the amount of money it will cost to implement a procedurec. You will get meaningful data about the overall reliability of the system d. It takes little time and expense to create

3. What does the circle symbol used in the formation of the tree represent? (Texas WCC)

a. The negative event that will be studiedb. The transfer of a branch to another location on the treec. A terminal event that doesn’t need to be developed further d. A base event with no events below it

4. A fault tree analysis should be: (Texas WCC)

a. complicated to discourage safety managersb. used to show a condition or actorc. used to show a procedure or event d. hard to visualize for the novice

5. What was the fault tree analysis created to do? (Texas WCC)

a. To evaluate the production of baked goodsb. To increase the safety level of the space programc. To improve the safety of missile systems d. To illustrate how to safely set up a Christmas tree

6. MIL-STD-882 is divided into which two groups? (Brauer, p. 548)

a. program management and control tasks b. management and leadership tasksc. design and evaluation tasksd. both a and c above

7. Which of the following is true regarding MIL-STD-82 Task 204 System Hazard Analysis (SHL)? (Brauer, p. 549)

a. Contractors will conduct an initial survey VPP application b. The goal of this task is to analyze the entire system.c. A contractor is to develop a list of possible hazards in system designd. Contractors will participate in hazard analysis review groups

8. How many management and control tasks are listed in standard MIL-STD-882? (Brauer, p. 548)

a. 3 b. 5c. 7d. 9

9. Which of the following is true regarding MIL-STD-82 Task 100 System Safety Program? (Brauer, p. 548)

a. Contractors will provide a periodic system safety progress report b. A system program is to be run and the program will include several other tasksc. Makes sure requirements for test and evaluation are developedd. Contractors will participate in compliance review groups

10. Which of the following is true regarding MIL-STD-82 Task 201 Preliminary Hazard List (PHL)? (Brauer, p. 549)

a. Contractors will conduct an initial survey VPP application b. The goal of this task is to analyze the entire system.c. A contractor is to develop a list of possible hazards in system designd. Contractors will participate in hazard analysis review groups

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Subject Area II. Topic C. Auditing

Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. This hazard control system step is required to ensure changes are effective long term:

a. Developing solutionsb. Writing recommendationsc. Taking actiond. Evaluating the results

2. This procedure is conducted by the supervisor and employees at the beginning of a work shift and throughout the workday: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)

a. accident investigation b. general audit c. informal inspectiond. formal review

3. This procedure measures the results of supervisor action before an accident occurs: (Petersen, TSM, 129)

a. before-the-fact measure b. results measurec. performance measured. behavioral measure

4. The most frequently performed inspections are the: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)

a. general audit b. formal inspection c. informal inspectiond. accident investigation

5. These measures tend to be generated from injury records: (Petersen, TSM, 129)

a. outcomes evaluations b. results measuresc. performance measuresd. failure measures

6. Which of the following must be present before an accident can occur?

a. unsafe behavior, lack of common senseb. hazard, exposurec. hazard, lack of common sensed. unsafe behavior, exposure

7. This procedure is conducted periodically and often covers all areas of operations: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)


8. Which of the following could result in the employee being a 'hazardous condition'?

a. inadequate trainingb. mental deficiency c. physical deficiencyd. any of the above

9. An inspection following a proper sequence is generally more effective because: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)

a. it always looks at the same items b. it takes less timec. it is more efficientd. it's easier to do

10. An analysis process examines:

a. where hazards can be found and how to find it b. each part, step or event to determine its impact on the whole c. performance to judge its effectivenessd. culture to evaluate how well it supports safety

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1. Employing a numbering system in an inspection or audit is important for the following reason: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)

a. simplifies the evaluation process b. allows for averaging several components to get a ratingc. easy to scored. simple to train inspectors or auditors

2. Most accidents in the workplace are caused by:

a. carelessness b. unsafe behaviors c. hazardous conditionsd. lack of common sense

3. According to the National Safety Council, all of the following are examples of inspections and audits, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)

a. general audit b. accident investigation c. employee surveyd. informal and formal inspection

4. These measures may be used before or after an accident occurs: (Petersen, TSM, 127)

a. outcomes evaluations b. results measuresc. performance measuresd. behavioral measures

5. The frequency of formal inspections and general audits depend on all of the following factors, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)

a. location of procedures b. loss severity potential c. regulatory requirementsd. the budget

6. Some results measures can be quite useful for all of the following reasons, except: (Petersen, TSM, 129)

a. they can attract attention b. they are not sensitive to changec. they can provide recognition for good performanced. they can be constructed to provide swift feedback

7. Correctly classifying hazards during the inspection or audit helps management: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)

a. understand and evaluate problems b. assign priorities c. reach decisions quicklyd. all of the above

8. This procedure is considered a most effective proactive method to collect useful data about the causes of most accidents in a workplace:

a. Inspection b. Employee interview c. Surveyd. Observation

9. The core of a management action plan after an audit should be to: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)

a. determine responsibilities b. establish accountability for program failuresc. upgrade program components to standardd. predict possible OSHA penalties

10. This procedure is a measure of performance (and results) that enters the scene at middle- and upper- management levels: (Petersen, TSM, 123)

a. appraisal b. survey c. inspectiond. audit

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Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. This audit occurs reactively, after a loss has occurred: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)


2. This procedure is considered a most effective proactive method to collect useful data about employee opinions and attitudes workplace.

a. Inspection b. Surveillance c. Surveyd. Observation

3. All of the following properly describe hazards in an inspection or audit, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)

a. pallets are not properly stacked in the yard b. upper guard missing on grinderc. slippery oil spots on the floor in the maintenance shopd. poor housekeeping in administrative offices

4. An audit is considered to be a: (Petersen, TSM, 123)

a. outcomes evaluation b. results measurec. performance measured. behavioral measure

5. This planned process is conducted by a team composed of management, labor, safety and maintenance staff: (LaDou, OH&S, 131)


6. This formal procedure is usually not very effective in uncovering the causes of most accidents in the workplace:

a. Inspection b. Surveillance c. Surveyd. Observation

7. This procedure is simply a measure of what middle managers do - of whether they perform their assigned tasks: (Petersen, TSM, 123)

a. appraisal b. survey c. inspectiond. audit

8. What is a major weakness in the walk-around safety inspection process?

a. Takes too much time b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors c. Does not adequately identify hazardous conditionsd. Requires both employee and management participation

9. If a hazard is immediately corrected during an inspection or audit, all of the following are acceptable recordkeeping practices, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)

a. make a note that the item was corrected b. line out the hazardc. cross the item out with an 'x' d. erase the item

10. The findings of an audit should: (Brauer, 520)

a. measure a limited number of performance variables b. address policy and procedural problemsc. disclose findings to employeesd. pinpoint specific behaviors

81


1. At the middle- and upper- management level we usually concentrate on: (Petersen, TSM, 130)

a. outcomes evaluations b. results measuresc. performance measuresd. behavioral measures

2. The purpose of an audit is to: (Brauer, 520)

a. detect and correct hazards in the workplace b. determine the values of a corporate culturec. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practicesd. evaluate first-line supervisor performance

3. What is a major weakness in the walk-around safety inspection process?

a. Takes too much time b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors c. Does not adequately identify hazardous conditionsd. Requires both employee and management participation

4. This procedure, developed by Thiokol Chemical Corporation, effectively measures results as well as performance: (Petersen, TSM, 125)

a. Lost Work Day Case Indicator (LWDCI) b. Safety Audit Factor Evaluation Report (SAFER) c. Safety Performance Indicator (SPI)d. Safety Performance Report Card (SPRC)

5. According to Brauer, the purpose of an audit is to: (Brauer, 520)

a. look at leadership and how well it achieves results b. challenge underlying concepts and principlesc. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practicesd. all of the above

6. Conduct this type of analysis any time you bring something new into your worksite, whether it be a piece of equipment, different materials, a new process, or an entirely new building:

a. Phase Analysis b. Process Hazard Analysis c. Job Hazard Analysisd. Change Analysis

7. The findings of a safety audit should include: (Brauer, 520)

a. names of those responsible and recommended disciplinary action b. what things need improvement and ways to improve themc. identified hazards and maintenance requestsd. an evaluation of performance results

8. Traditionally, there have been two figures or variables used to measure company-wide safety performance. Which of the following describe these two measures? (Petersen, TSM, 123)

a. duration, frequency b. probability, durationc. frequency, severityd. frequency, duration

9. If a hazard has been temporarily corrected during an inspection or audit, yet requires further action, all of the following are acceptable recordkeeping practices, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 133)

a. make a note that the item was corrected b. line out the hazardc. cross the item out with an 'x' d. erase the item

10. Brauer warns that management audits must be handled cautiously so that they: (Brauer, 520)

a. measure a limited number of performance variables b. do not become a tool for blame or ridiculec. do not disclose findings to employeesd. are designed to pinpoint specific behaviors

82


1. Every inspection program must define all of the following, except: (LaDou, OH&S, 140)

a. how results will be handled b. how records will be filed and classifiedc. how results will be followed upd. how discipline will be administered

2. What-if, checklists, hazard and operability study (HAZOP), failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), or fault-tree analysis, may be used in this type of analysis to determine possible process breakdowns:

a. Phase Analysis b. Process Hazard Analysis c. Job Hazard Analysisd. Change Analysis

3. Who should review the results of an audit or inspection? (LaDou, OH&S, 140)

a. the safety and health committee b. the responsible supervisor c. the responsible employeesd. all of the above

4. A manager's department may be audited by: (Brauer, 520)

a. the manager of that departmentb. another department's safety staffc. one of the manager's supervisorsd. another employee within the department

5. The SAFER audit report, developed by Robert Mills for Grumman Aerospace, is a guide for reviewing and checking key factors on a broad category range. What are the categories? (Petersen, TSM, 123)

a. not present, needs work, adequate b. does not exist, presentc. none, minimal, adequated. less than adequate, adequate

6. According to Brauer, an audit is: (Brauer, 520)

a. the same process as an inspection b. a process of having outsiders evaluate managementc. conducted by an internal consultantd. conducted by employees to evaluate supervisors

7. According to Dan Petersen, audits have some severe setbacks. Which of the following is not one he lists? (Petersen, TSM, 238)

a. they stifle autonomy b. they stifle creativityc. they force uniformityd. they force compliance

8. According to the results of a nine year Association of Americans Railroads study, the effectiveness of safety efforts can NOT be measured: (Petersen, TSM, 238)

a. with traditional procedural-engineering criteria b. with surveys of employee perceptionsc. with management auditsd. with inspections by first-line supervisors

9. According to Dan Petersen, audits have some advantages. Which of the following is one of them? (Petersen, TSM, 238)

a. they get attention b. they force performancec. they encourage involvementd. both a and b above

10. According to the results of a nine year Association of Americans Railroads study, the effectiveness of safety efforts can be measured: (Petersen, TSM, 238)

a. with traditional procedural-engineering criteria b. with surveys of employee perceptionsc. with management auditsd. with inspections by first-line supervisors

83


1. Which of the following is not an approach discussed by Petersen to analyzing and improving the safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 211)

a. simple checklists b. simple yes-no auditsc. complicated quantified auditsd. system compliance approaches

2. Which of the following is not an approach discussed by Petersen to analyzing and improving the safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 211)

a. accident investigations b. perception surveysc. TOR analysesd. system safety approaches

3. According to Petersen, as with any measure, the audit can be a: (Petersen, TSM, 228)

a. excellent tool forcing supervising compliance b. superb motivational toolc. demotivating if tied to complianced. a waste of time if corrective actions are not taken

4. According to Petersen, there seems to be little question that the way an employee sees the company safety program: (Petersen, TSM, 230)

a. strongly influences behavior on the job b. influences the ability to learnc. influences ability to respond d. all of the above

5. An Employers Insurance of Warsaw study found three types of companies exist. Which of the following activities would be seen as 'overzealous' in the study? (Petersen, TSM, 230)

a. companies requiring a great amount of safety equipment be wornb. offering prizes for safety records or for writing slogansc. stimulating competition, offering plaques for zero accidentsd. gets busy doing safety only after an accident occurs

6. The purpose of this voluntary consensus standard is to provide an effective tool for continual improvement of an organization's OHS:

a. 29 CFR 1910.1200b. ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005c. NIOSH eToolsd. OSHA Z20 OHS Plan

7. The principles and approaches within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 are derived from all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, iii)

a. ILO guidelinesb. ISO 9000c. ISO 14000d. 29 CFR 1910.120

8. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, the reduction of hazards and risks in a systematic manner has traditionally been pursued through: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, v)

a. independent programsb. aggressive regulationc. workplace inspectiond. program evaluation

9. The standards in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 define: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 1)

a. how OHS management must be accomplishedb. how OHS management should be accomplishedc. what is to be done in generic termsd. what is to be done in specific terms

10. The scope of ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 is: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. applicable to public organizationsb. applicable to private-sector companiesc. applicable to most private- and public-sector organizationsd. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types

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1. The OHSMS continuous improvement model within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 is based on which of the following quality control concepts? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, iv)

a. Secure, Gather, Analyze, Reportb. Identify, Analyze, Evaluate, Recommendc. Analyze, Visualize, Scrutinize, Actualized. Plan, Do, Check, Act

2. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, the reduction of hazards and risks in a systematic manner has traditionally been pursued through: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, v)

a. independent programsb. aggressive regulationc. workplace inspectiond. program evaluation

3. The standards in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 define: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 1)

a. how OHS management must be accomplishedb. how OHS management should be accomplishedc. what is to be done in generic termsd. what is to be done in specific terms

4. The scope of ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 is: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. applicable to public organizationsb. applicable to private-sector companiesc. applicable to most private- and public-sector organizationsd. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types

5. When conducting an initial review, ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 recommends assessing all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)

a. loss control and workers' compensation case informationb. lost-time accidents only c. contractor activitiesd. injury/illness metrics

6. When conducting an initial review, ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 recommends assessing all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)

a. workplace inspection if not previously conductedb. findings of incident/accident investigations c. contractor activitiesd. audits

7. The intent of an ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 initial review is review management systems outside the OHSMS, but have an affect on the OHSMS. Which of the following is not an example of one of these systems? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)

a. compliance systemsb. procurement systemsc. engineering systemsd. performance systems

8. The intent of an ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 initial review is review management systems outside the OHSMS, but have an affect on the OHSMS. Which of the following is not an example of one of these systems? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)

a. recognition systemsb. quality systems c. environmental systemsd. emergency systems

9. In many organizations, an ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 initial review is also called a/an: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)

a. system or program assessmentb. program or process audit c. baseline survey or gap analysisd. incident/accident investigation

10. An organization with an well-established, comprehensive OHSMS need not do which of the following? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 8)

a. assume the OHSMS does not existb. review the ongoing OHSMS planning process c. assure all OHSMS elements are presentd. assure all OHSMS elements are integrated

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1. This term is used to identify requirements within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. mayb. shouldc. willd. shall

2. This term is used to identify recommendations and explanatory notes within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. mayb. shouldc. willd. shall

3. Which of the following terms is defined within ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 as a systematic approach for obtaining and evaluating information and data to determine the extent to which defined criteria are fulfilled? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. inspectionb. surveyc. auditd. investigation

4. Which of the following terms is defined in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 as meeting the requirements of local, state, or federal statutes, standards, or regulation? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. complianceb. adherencec. conformanced. improvement

5. Which of the following terms is defined in ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 as meeting the requirements of an organization's OHSMS? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 2)

a. complianceb. adherencec. conformanced. improvement

6. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, which of the following is considered the foundation of an OHSMS? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 4)

a. policyb. programc. reviewd. involvement

7. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, OHSMS policies must include a statement of commitment to all of the following essential elements, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 4)

a. effective employee participationb. protection and continuous improvementc. efficient employee controlsd. compliance with applicable laws

8. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, OHSMS policies must include a statement of commitment to all of the following essential elements, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 4-5)

a. conformance with applicable lawsb. protection and continuous improvementc. conformance with the organization's requirementsd. compliance with applicable laws

9. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, top management must provide leadership and assume responsibility for all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)

a. implementing, maintaining & monitoring OHSMS performanceb. providing OSHA and state plan data when requiredc. establishing accountability and delegating authorityd. integrating the OHSMS into business systems

10. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, top management must provide leadership and assume responsibility for all of the following, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)

a. implementing, maintaining & monitoring OHSMS performanceb. providing financial, human, and organizational resourcesc. establishing accountability and delegating authorityd. networking OHSMS policies for continuing improvement

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Area II.C. Practice Questions - Bank 9 1. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, top management should not simple do: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)

a. maintain & monitor OHSMS performanceb. delegate implementation of the OHSMS to other managersc. establish accountabilityd. provide appropriate financial, human, and organizational resources

2. Which of the following is true, according to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, regarding the implementation of processes to ensure employee participation? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 5)

a. processes are designed to recognize employees at least annuallyb. processes are designed to reward for low accident recordsc. processes are designed to affect employees at all levelsd. processes are designed to affect employees and supervisors

3. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, which of the following is not one of the strategies to ensure effective employee participation? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)

a. provide mechanisms, time, and resourcesb. recognition and rewards for working accident-freec. provide timely access to OHSMS informationd. identify and remove obstacles to participation

4. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, all employees should participate, at a minimum, in all of the following processes, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)

a. disciplining poor performanceb. planning OHSMS elementsc. implementing programs and processesd. evaluating, correcting, and preventing

5. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, one common mechanism for employee participation is: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)

a. structured wellness programsb. early-return-to-work programsc. job safety analysesd. health and safety committees

6. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, all of the following represent obstacles to effective employee participation, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 6)

a. union participationb. forms of employee discriminationc. lack of response to employee inputd. reprisals by supervisors or peers

7. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, all of the following are goals of the OHSMS planning process, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)

a. identify OHSMS issuesb. prioritize OHSMS issuesc. ensure collaboration with regulatory agenciesd. establish objectives for improvement

8. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, each of the following is one of the four required activities within the OHSMS planning process, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)

a. benchmark best practicesb. review relevant information to identify OHSMS issuesc. prioritize OHSMS identified issuesd. develop OHSMS objectives for risk control

9. According to ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, each of the following is one of the four required activities within the OHSMS planning process, except: (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)

a. formulate implementation plans to accomplish goalsb. review relevant information to identify OHSMS issuesc. planning proactive contingency actionsd. develop OHSMS objectives for risk control

10. Which of the following information items is not required by ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005 to be included in the initial review process? (ANSI/AIHA Z10-2005, 7)

a. relevant business management systemsb. competitor OHSMS benchmarksc. hazards, risks, and controlsd. resources

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Subject Area II. Topic D. Data Analysis and Applied Statistic s

Area II.D. Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. Points above this line on a Control chart indicate the process is out of control: (Mears, QIT&T, 69)

a. Loss Control Line (LCL)b. Upper Control Limit (UCL)c. Maximum Control Limit (MCL)d. Lower Control Limit (LCL)

2. The fishbone diagram is used to: (Adams, TQSM, 142)

a. identify root causesb. establish a sequence of eventsc. determine flow over timed. establish the vital few

3. This SPC tool is a bar graph of identified causes in descending order of magnitude or frequency: (Petersen, TSM, 271)

a. Pareto diagramb. Run chartc. Histogramd. Fishbone diagram

4. The fishbone diagram is also called a: (Adams, TQSM, 143)

a. cause and effect diagramb. run chartc. branch-root treed. job flow diagram

5. Data points on a Control chart located outside control limits represent abnormal variation resulting from: (Mears, QIT&T, 68)

a. special causesb. common causesc. surface causesd. root causes

6. When all data points on a Control chart are located inside control limits, the process is said to be: (Mears, QIT&T, 71)

a. predictableb. staticc. stabled. out of control

7. This SPC tool is a cause and effect diagram for analyzing problems and the factors that contribute to them: (Petersen, TSM, 272)


8. This tool, also called an Ishikawa diagram, show relationships between events: (Mears, QIT&T, 52)


9. This tool, employs a series of dots at various points on a table to show the relationship between two variables events: (Mears, QIT&T, 57)

a. Pareto diagramb. Scatter diagramc. Histogramd. Fishbone diagram

10. This statistical tool shows a plot of data over time: (Adams, TQSM, 151)

a. Pareto diagramb. Scatter diagramc. Run chartd. Fishbone diagram

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1. This tool is often called a line graph or trend chart and is used to display out of a process over time: (Mears, QIT&T, 61)

a. Pareto diagramb. Scatter diagramc. Run chartd. Fishbone diagram

2. This SPC tool is a bar graph displaying a frequency distribution: (Petersen, TSM, 271)


3. The vertical axis, which represents the quantity or frequency of what's being displayed on a run chart is called the: (Mears, QIT&T, 61)

a. x axisb. y axisc. key axisd. z axis

4. Points below this line on a Control chart indicate the process is in control: (Mears, QIT&T, 69)


5. How do you know if a process is in statistical control when viewing a SPC control chart?

a. Performance exceeds standardsb. Performance measures are within upper and lower control limitsc. Customers are satisfiedd. Performance measures display variation consistent with a normal curve

6. This SPC tool is a graph displaying the correlation of two characteristics: (Petersen, TSM, 273)

a. Pareto diagramb. Scatter diagramc. Histogramd. Fishbone diagram

7. What tool is used to identify statistically significant changes that may occur in a process? (Mears, QIT&T, 67)

a. Run chartb. Scatter diagramc. Control chartd. Flow chart

8. A Histogram is used to:

a. Provide a picture using discrete datab. Track continuous data over time.c. Separate the vital few from the triviald. Identify the most important cause of a problem.

9. This SPC tool is a method of monitoring the output of a process or system, through sample measurement of a selected characteristic and analysis of its performance over time: (Petersen, TSM, 273)

a. Pareto diagramb. Run chartc. Histogramd. Control chart

10. Dan Petersen calls this the working tool of statistical control. It is particularly useful for plotting accident rates against time, with the overall accident rate or mean for the entire period: (Petersen, TSM, 273)

a. Pareto diagramb. Run chartc. Histogramd. Control chart

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1. A Pareto Chart is used to:

a. Document the steps and material used in a processb. Identify averages of performance measurec. Separate the vital few from the triviald. Track performance over time

2. Points below this line on a Control chart indicate the process is out of control: (Mears, QIT&T, 69)


3. According to Dan Petersen, if data is outside the UCL or LCL on a control chart, it is: (Petersen, TSM, 274)

a. caused by a common causeb. a chance occurrence - a warning to be watchfulc. not strictly by chance - something is wrongd. a random occurrence - something may be wrong

4. Which of the control limits below have proved satisfactory for industrial accident studies? (Petersen, TSM, 274)

a. 1 percentb. 2 percentc. 5 percentd. 10 percent

5. If a number of data points fall below the LCL on an accident rate control chart, it indicates: (Petersen, TSM, 275)

a. a significant change for the betterb. a significant change for the worsec. a negative change for which there is an assignable caused. a positive change due to system improvements

6. Data points on a Control chart located inside control limits represent normal variation resulting from: (Mears, QIT&T, 68)

a. special causesb. common causesc. surface causesd. root causes

7. Which of the following is not considered by Petersen as one of the three SPC tools that gets most results in safety? (Petersen, TSM, 278)

a. pareto chartb. fishbone diagramc. process flow diagramd. control chart

8. When some data points on a Control chart are located outside control limits, the process should be: (Mears, QIT&T, 71)

a. stopped and correctedb. not be changedc. considered unpredictabled. monitored more closely

9. According to Petersen, one percent control limits are satisfactory for industrial accident studies. However, should all data points fall within control limits what percent control limit does Petersen think might be more satisfactory? (Petersen, TSM, 276)


10. According to Petersen, there are easier methods to analyze data than the control chart. About 80 percent of all safety problems can be handled with each of the following, except: (Petersen, TSM, 277)

a. Pareto chartb. fishbone diagramc. process flow diagramd. scatter diagram

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1. The _____________ is used for coding the case characteristics of injuries and illnesses in the OSH program and the Census of Fatal Occupational Injuries (CFOI) program: (BLS)

a. Occupational Statistical Analysis Worksheet (OSAW)b. Occupational Injury and Illness Classification Manual (OI&ICM)c. Bureau of Labor Statistics Injury Classification System (BLSICS)d. Bureau of Labor Injury and Illness Classification Manual (BLIICM)

2. Which term below is defined as a set of procedures for collecting and organizing nonstructured information into a standardized format that allows one to make inferences about the characteristics and meaning of written and otherwise recorded material? (Glossary)

a. segmental analysisb. content analysisc. program reviewd. process control

3. Which term below is defined as a sampling technique that makes no attempt to achieve representativeness, but chooses subjects based on convenience and accessibility? (Glossary)

a. non-programmed sampleb. content samplec. random sampled. accidental sample

4. Which term is defined as the systematic examination of records and the investigation of other evidence to determine the propriety, compliance, and adequacy of programs, systems, and operations? (Glossary)

a. inspectionb. auditc. sampled. assessment

5. This type of data is often gathered through intake interviews and observations and are used later for comparing measures that determine changes in a program: (Glossary)

a. inspectionb. human-factorsc. baseline

d. behavior-based

6. If a greater amount of caffeine ingested results in a longer time taken to fall asleep, which relationship exists? (Glossary)

a. inverseb. causalc. independentd. disproportionate

7. Groups of a safety program under study are randomly assigned to either which two groups below? (Glossary)

a. control, experimentalb. pre-test, post-testc. independent, dependentd. stable, variable

8. Which term below describes a group of individuals whose characteristics are similar to those of program participants but who do not receive the program services, products, or activities being evaluated? (Glossary)

a. non-participantsb. controlsc. experimental groupd. control group

9. Which group in a study is used to assess the effect of program activities on participants who are receiving the services, products, or activities being evaluated. (Glossary)

a. pre-test groupb. experimental groupc. control groupd. dependent group

10. What is the term used to describe a numerical value that identifies the strength of a relationship between variables. (Glossary)

a. linkageb. proportionalityc. coefficient of dependencyd. correlation coefficient

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Subject Area II. Topic E. Safety in Design

Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 2 1. Which of the following is the least effective method to control hazards in the workplace? (Hammer, 186)

a. design to eliminate the hazardb. use protective safety devicesc. automatic warning devicesd. safe work procedures

2. Generally, hazards may be controlled most effectively in the workplace through: (Hammer, 186)

a. personal protective equipmentb. engineering controlsc. administrative controlsd. education

3. Which of the following is the most effective method to control hazards in the workplace? (Hammer, 186)


4. If it is infeasible to eliminate the hazard through design, which strategy should be considered next? (Hammer, 186)


5. If it is infeasible to eliminate the hazard through design or protective safety devices, which strategy should be considered next? (Hammer, 186)


6. According to Willie Hammer, the most effective method of avoiding accidents is with designs that are: (Hammer, 188)

a. extrinsically safeb. intrinsically safec. automatically safed. intuitively safe

7. According to Willie Hammer, intrinsic safety can be achieved by which of the following methods? (Hammer, 188)

a. use fail-safe designsb. use personal protective equipmentc. minimize failure through proceduresd. limit the hazard below which it can do no harm

8. According to Willie Hammer, intrinsic safety can be achieved by which of the following methods? (Hammer, 188)

a. eliminate the hazard entirelyb. use personal protective equipmentc. minimize failure through proceduresd. limit exposure to the hazard

9. Which of the following is true concerning intrinsic safety? (Hammer, 188)

a. any accident will be minorb. there is minimum possibility of an accidentc. there is no possibility of an accidentd. any accident will not be due to design

10. Which is true concerning safety by design through the use of engineering controls? (OSHA)

a. They manage exposure through safe procedures b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itselfc. They depend on hazard identification and correctiond. They always require a higher up-front expense

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Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 2 1. Which is true concerning safety by design through the use of engineering controls? (OSHA)

a. They manage exposure through safe procedures b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itselfc. They depend on hazard identification and correctiond. They always require a higher up-front expense

2. All of the following are examples of sound engineering controls, EXCEPT (OSHA)

a. Replacing a toxic chemical with a non-toxic chemicalb. Conducting OJT prior to the start of workc. Enclosing a noise sourced. Redesigning a conveyor built to eliminate reaching

3. Safety by design, or design-in safety, can be valuable because: (NSC, APME&T, 704)

a. safety planning relies on administrative controlsb. safety planning focuses on back-end safeguarding approachesc. safety planning is geared toward specific work proceduresd. safety planning is geared toward a one-fits-all approach

4. All of the following are important safety by design approaches, EXCEPT: (NSC, APME&T, 705)

a. safeguards are designed to suit intended workb. recognize that zero risk does not existc. depend on employees to take corrective actiond. determine feasible controls before awarding a contract


a. guard pinch pointsb. periodic safety meetings for engineersc. eliminate pinch pointsd. analyze injury statistics to determine specific problems


a. design controls to isolate drive powerb. power is either on or offc. use control circuits for isolating energyd. where feasible, use automatic, passive controls


a. guard to facilitate maintenanceb. use light screens and mats on many machinesc. design service points so safeguarding need not be interruptedd. guard and interlocks that make maintenance difficult


a. install multiple levels of safeguardingb. provide for observation of operations where requiredc. use perimeter guards and large guarded areasd. guard close to the hazard

9. Isolation, lockouts, lockpins, and interlocks are predicated on all of the following principles, EXCEPT? (Hammer, 189)

a. preventing incompatible eventsb. isolating a recognized hazardc. controlling exposured. providing a release

10. Which of the following is considered an effective design measure to prevent accidents? (Hammer, 190)

a. signageb. isolationc. enforcementd. education

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Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 3

1. Which control measure is used to separate incompatible conditions or materials that together would constitute a hazard? (Hammer, 190)

a. lockpinsb. lockoutsc. interlocksd. isolation

2. Which control measure is used to limit the effects of controlled energy release? (Hammer, 190)

a. isolationb. replacementc. substitutiond. location

3. All of the following are common means for separating personnel, equipment, and operations, EXCEPT: (Hammer, 191)

a. lockpinsb. lockoutsc. interlocksd. signage

4. Which of the following prevents an event from occurring or prevents a person, object, force, or other factor from entering an undesired zone? (Hammer, 191)

a. lockpinsb. lockoutsc. interlocksd. isolation

5. Fail-safe designs ensure all of the following EXCEPT: (Hammer, 194)

a. failures will leave the system unaffectedb. failures result in no equipment damagec. failures are anticipated and preventedd. failures result in no employee injury

6. Which of the following is not one of the three fail-safe designs strategies? (Hammer, 194)

a. fail-remote designb. fail-passive designc. fail-active designd. fail-operational design

7. This failure design strategy reduces the system to its lowest energy level: (Hammer, 194)


8. This failure design strategy allows system functions to continue safely until corrective action is possible: (Hammer, 194)


9. This failure design strategy maintains an energized condition that keeps the system in a safe operating mode until corrective action occurs: (Hammer, 194)

a. fail-startup designb. fail-passive designc. fail-active designd. fail-operational design

10. This failure design strategy shuts down the system until corrective action can be taken: (Hammer, 194)

a. fail-down designb. fail-passive designc. fail-active designd. fail-operational design

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Area II.E. Practice Questions - Bank 4 1. This failure design strategy typically uses circuit breakers and fuses as fail-safe devices: (Hammer, 194)


2. This failure design strategy operates an alternate system until corrective action can be taken: (Hammer, 194)


3. This failure design strategy is most preferable since there is no loss of function: (Hammer, 195)


4. Which of the following is not one of the three principal design methods discussed by Willie Hammer to minimize system failure? (Hammer, 196)

a. Safety factors and marginsb. Criteria measurementc. Failure rate reductiond. Parameter monitoring

5. This design method to minimize failure, components and structures are designed with strengths far greater than those normally required: (Hammer, 196)


6. This design method to minimize failure, components and design arrangements are used to produce expected lifetimes far beyond the proposed periods of use: (Hammer, 196)


7. This design method to minimize failure, temperature, noise, gas concentration, vibration and other specific parameters are under surveillance to ensure they remain within specified limits: (Hammer, 196)


8. An item designed with a safety factor of 4 would be expected to fail _______ as an item with a safety factor of 2: (Hammer, 196)

a. twice as oftenb. half as oftenc. just as oftend. more often

9. Which of the following concepts is a refinement of the more inaccurate safety factor? (Hammer, 196)

a. margin of safetyb. safety elementc. safety markerd. margin of error

10. This term expresses the ratio of strength to stress: (Hammer, 196)

a. margin of safetyb. safety factorc. stress factord. strength-stress margin

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1. The margin of safety may be expressed as the ratio of: (Hammer, 197)

a. maximum strength/minimum stressb. maximum stress/minimum strengthc. minimum strength/maximum stressd. minimum stress/maximum strength

2. Which of the following is not a method of failure rate reduction? (Hammer, 197)

a. Parallel movementsb. increased life expectancyc. Timed replacementsd. Redundant arrangements

3. In this design strategy, conditions exist so that components work longer than expected: (Hammer, 197)

a. Screeningb. Deratingc. Timed replacementsd. Redundant arrangements

4. In this design strategy, closely monitors component quality: (Hammer, 198)


5. In this design strategy, components are replaced before they are expected to wear out: (Hammer, 198)


6. In this design strategy, components are placed in series or parallel to minimize the probability of operational failure: (Hammer, 199)


7. As a design strategy to minimize failure, this system is of no value unless it leads to suitable corrective action when necessary: (Hammer, 200)

a. Screeningb. Deratingc. Monitoring d. Arranging

8. Which of the following is not one of a monitoring system process? (Hammer, 200)

a. Detectionb. Measurementc. Interpretation d. Reporting

9. Which of the following is not one of a monitoring system process? (Hammer, 200)

a. Screeningb. Measurementc. Interpretation d. Response

10. Designing and constructing tools, equipment, machines and workstations so that employees will be less likely to make errors resulting in accidents is called: (Petersen, HERSM, 81)

a. Safety engineeringb. Human factors engineeringc. Fail-safe design d. Man-work-environment design

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1. What are the two general classes of displays designed to gather and translate information to help workers use various senses in the work environment? (Petersen, HERSM, 86)

a. Pictorial and symbolicb. Internal and externalc. Visual and tactile d. Kinetic and auditory

2. What are the two common types of symbolic informational displays: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)

a. Pictorial and symbolicb. Internal and externalc. Visual and auditory d. Kinetic and static

3. All of the following are general principles for effective symbolic information displays, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)

a. Principle of simplicityb. Principle of compatibilityc. Principle of arrangementd. Principle of interpretation

4. Which of the following is not one of the general principles for effective symbolic information displays? (Petersen, HERSM, 86)

a. Principle of complexityb. Principle of compatibilityc. Principle of arrangementd. Principle of coding

5. According this symbolic display design principle, it's important to keep the design of the display so that it may be easily read: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)

a. Principle of simplicityb. Principle of compatibilityc. Principle of arrangementd. Principle of coding

6. According this symbolic display design principle, the location dials on a control panel is important to reduce check-reading time: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)


7. According this symbolic display design principle, the display should be labeled so that the operator can tell immediately to what mechanism the display refers, what units are measured, and what the critical range is: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)


8. The principle of coding states a display should clearly indicate all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 86)

a. What mechanism the display refersb. What steps to take if the reading is above UCLc. What units are measuredd. What the critical range is

9. All of the following are described by Frank Vilardo as important principles in the design of effective auditory displays, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 88-89)

a. Situationality - what is the environment like?b. Compatibility - do signals explain and exploit learned associations?c. Approximation - is a two-stage signal system used to convey complex information?d. Associability - are signals associated with concrete responses?

10. All of the following are described by Frank Vilardo as important principles in the design of effective auditory displays, EXCEPT: (Petersen, HERSM, 88-89)

a. Parsimony - is the signal sending more information than is required?b. Forced entry - does the signal prevent focus on only one aspect of the total signal?c. Arrangement - is the signal arranged in a logical sequence?d. Dissociability - are signals easily discernible from other sounds?

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Subject Area II. Topic F. Benchmarking

Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 1 1. What is the process of looking at other organizations to see what they are doing in safety called? (Petersen, ASSE, 29)

a. industry analysisb. benchmarkingc. external analysisd. competitor assessment

2. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 29-30)

a. Accountability must reflect requisite level of authorityb. Identify a top management corporate safety championc. Discipline must occur quickly and be significantd. Visible senior management ownership of safety

3. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30)

a. Hold senior management accountable through operating budgetsb. Identify corporate 'islands of excellence' among worksitesc. Use leading indicators to help predict changes in performanced. Establish incentive program based on accident records


a. Reset expectations based on accident ratesb. Use metrics that drive continuous improvementc. Monitor safety performance versus program implementationd. Safety performance expectations should harmonize with business objectives


a. Performance targets are well defined and clearly communicatedb. Bonuses and merit pay are tied to accident records and ratesc. Safety performance is rewarded and tied to compensation and budgetsd. Root cause analysis is performed in formulating disciplinary actions


a. Leading companies focus on a narrow range of media to communicate safetyb. Senior managers conduct employee surveys and communicate one-on-onec. Safety programs and expectations are discussed with prospective employeesd. Safety successes are communicated with the same emphasis as accidents


a. Training requirements are tracked to determine the status of trainingb. Feedback is solicited from employees and training sponsorsc. Inspections are used to determine retention of learningd. Observations are used to modify training if needed

8. All of the following are important safety and health benchmarks, EXCEPT: (Petersen, ASSE, 30-31)

a. Training requirements are tracked to determine the status of trainingb. Computer-based, self-paced training and other innovative training techniques are usedc. Observations of behavior are used to assess retention of learningd. Traditional training techniques are used to maximize learning

9. Benchmarking is a strategy for: (Mears, 155)

a. determining useful criteria for short-term improvementb. assessing engineering controls within a facilityc. evaluating competitor performance and tacticsd. copying best practices of companies that excel

10. Which of the following is not true concerning benchmarking? (Mears, 155)

a. look at internal and external business functionsb. limit evaluation to companies within the industryc. wide, broad-based comparisons should be usedd. copy the best practice in a given business function

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Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 2

1. Which of the following is not one of the five types of benchmarking? (Mears, 155)

a. Internala. Externalc. Competitived. World-class


a. Internalb. Shadowc. Departmentd. World-class


a. Annualb. Shadowc. Industriald. World-class

4. This type of benchmarking occurs when a company looks at its own divisions and compares operational functions: (Mears, 155)

a. Internalb. Shadowc. Industriald. World-class

5. This type of benchmarking identifies and compares key competitive characteristics of a product or service: (Mears, 155)

a. Internalb. Shadowc. Industriald. Competitive

6. This type of benchmarking monitoring key product and service attributes of a successful competitor and meeting changes they occur: (Mears, 155)


7. This type of benchmarking is also called functional benchmarking: (Mears, 156)


8. This type of benchmarking may be conducted through the use of shared information among industrial associations: (Mears, 156)


9. This type of benchmarking, also called general-process benchmarking, compares processes across diverse industrial groups: (Mears, 156)

a. World-classb. Cross-functionalc. Industriald. Competitive

10. The beginner in the benchmarking process should concentrate on: (Mears, 156)

a. investment resultsb. cycle time reductionc. product innovationd. resource utilization

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Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. According to Mears, what two teams are required to conduct the benchmarking process? (Mears, 157)

a. problem identification team, problem resolution teamb. needs assessment team, benchmarking teamc. external assessment team, internal solution teamd. development team, solution team

2. The purpose of this team is to identify internal and external needs: (Mears, 157)

a. problem identification teamb. needs and wants teamc. needs development teamd. needs assessment team

3. This team is to concentrates on the firm's critical success factors: (Mears, 157)

a. problem solving teamb. needs and wants teamc. benchmarking teamd. needs assessment team

4. Which of the following is not one of the steps the benchmarking team's process? (Mears, 157-158)

a. Write operational definitions of critical success factorsb. Develop a baseline as an internal reference pointc. Determine team roles and responsibilitiesd. Brainstorm ideas to identify best in class

5. It's important for the needs assessment team to identify the needs of all of the following groups, EXCEPT: (Mears, 157)

a. internal customerb. key customerc. external customerd. primary customer

6. This benchmarking team must first write a clear definition of each identified critical success factor: (Mears, 157)



a. Write operational objectivesb. Baseline your own processc. Gather data on best practicesd. Analyze and communicate findings

8. This benchmarking team must first write a clear operational definition of each critical success factor: (Mears, 157)



a. Write operational definitions of critical success factorsb. Evaluate the benchmarking process, itselfc. Develop implementation strategiesd. Identify best in class


a. Write operational definitions of critical success factorsb. Develop a baseline as an internal reference pointc. Determine team roles and responsibilitiesd. Identify best in class

100


1. Benchmarking may actually be quite complicated due to: (Mears, 157-158)

a. the potential for unexpected, unwanted resultsb. the vast number of different potential outcomesc. the lack of time to conduct a thorough assessmentd. the lack of cooperation among competitors

2. According to Mears, benchmarking may actually be quite complicated due to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Mears, 158-159)

a. the potential for unexpected, unwanted resultsb. the vast number of different potential outcomesc. the lack of time to conduct a thorough assessmentd. the lack of cooperation among competitors

3. Which term means striving to be the 'best of the best,' the essence of benchmarking? (Camp, 3)

a. haiokub. dantotsuc. kaisend. komotsu

4. Which of the following is not one of Camp's philosophical steps of benchmarking? (Camp, 4)

a. know your operationb. know the industry leadersc. out-compete the competitord. gain superiority

5. Which of the following is not one of Camp's philosophical steps of benchmarking? (Camp, 4)

a. know your operationb. know the industry leadersc. incorporate the bestd. gain cooperation

6. Assessing the strengths and weaknesses of your company's internal operations occurs within which of Camp's philosophical steps of benchmarking? (Camp, 4)


7. Which philosophical step of benchmarking encourages copying, modifying, and incorporating a competitor's methods? (Camp, 4)


8. Benchmarking may be divided into which two basic parts? (Camp, 4)

a. conditions, practicesb. profound knowledge, excellent skillsc. practices, metricsd. investigation, solution

9. In the benchmarking process, the quantified effect or target of installing best practices is called a: (Camp, 4)

a. outputb. metricc. resultd. outcome

10. In the benchmarking process, the methods used are called: (Camp, 4)

a. behaviorsb. activitiesc. practicesd. actions

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1. Which of the following should be investigated first in the benchmarking process? (Camp, 4)

a. corporate cultureb. quantified metricsc. best practicesd. valid results

2. What is the major problem with investigating metrics without first investigating best practices? (Camp, 5)

a. cannot determine why the gap existsb. no ability to validate datac. takes too much timed. requires extensive knowledge base

3. According to Camp, once a metric is determined, it begs the question: (Camp, 5)

a. whob. whatc. whered. why

4. All of the following are benefits of benchmarking, except: (Camp, 9)

a. enables incorporation of best practicesb. stimulates and motivates creativityc. increases acceptance of internal changesd. identification of technological breakthroughs

5. All of the following are benefits of benchmarking, except: (Camp, 9)

a. enables incorporation of best practicesb. stimulates and motivates creativityc. increases acceptance of changes originating externallyd. guards against trademark and technological theft

6. The formal definition of benchmarking states that it is a continuous process of measuring all of the following, except: (Camp, 10)

a. productsb. promotionsc. servicesd. practices

7. The formal definition of benchmarking states that it is a continuous process of measuring products, services and practices against: (Camp, 10)

a. competing departmentsb. the toughest of the toughest competitorsc. all industry standardsd. OSHA minimum requirements

8. The formal definition of benchmarking states that it is a continuous process of measuring products, services and practices against: (Camp, 10)

a. companies recognized as industry leadersb. major business unitsc. competing profit centersd. regulatory requirements

9. According to camp, to be successful, benchmarking must be: (Camp, 10)

a. company wideb. cooperativec. competitived. continuous

10. Which two basic measurement forms are used in the benchmarking process? (Camp, 11)

a. investigation, expert panelb. publications, auditc. word statement, quantified gap analysisd. opinion survey, quality comparison analysis

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1. The employer can apply benchmarking to all of the following, except: (Camp, 11)

a. products, services, practicesb. all facets of a businessc. processes, practices, methodsd. competitor reaction to best practices

2. According to Camp, it is a mistake to aim benchmarking at which of the following? (Camp, 11)

a. competitor products, services, practicesb. firms recognized as industry leadersc. solely at direct product competitorsd. competitors in the same industry

3. Camp's working definition of benchmarking states that it is the search for industry best practices that lead to which of the following? (Camp, 12)

a. superior outcomesb. superior performancec. superior imaged. superior marketshare

4. According to Camp, on what should the focus of benchmarking be placed to make sure overall effectiveness is achieved? (Camp, 13)

a. practicesb. metricsc. performanced. results

5. According to Camp, to be most effective, benchmarking should be approached as a/an: (Camp, 13)

a. seek and destroy missionb. competition between both partiesc. partnership between both partiesd. isolated information gathering process

6. Which of the following should not be considered the primarily objective of benchmarking? (Camp, 14)

a. resource reductionsb. improved performancec. reduced production wasted. increased marketshare

7. According to Camp, benchmarking should not be considered any of the following, except: (Camp, 14)

a. a cookbook processb. a mechanism to reduce resourcesc. a panacea or programd. a continuous improvement process

8. When best practices are translated into operational units of measure, benchmarks are: (Camp, 15)

a. signs of past mistakesb. indicators of needs analysisc. projections of a future stated. a continuous improvement process

9. Which of the following does not occur in the planning phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)

a. benchmarks are identifiedb. functional goals are establishedc. comparative companies are identifiedd. data collection method is determined

10. In the planning phase of the benchmarking process, all of the following occur, except: (Camp, 17)

a. benchmarks are identifiedb. functional goals are establishedc. comparative companies are identifiedd. data collection method is determined

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Area II.F. Practice Questions - Bank 7 1. Which of the following occurs during the analysis phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)

a. current performance gap is determinedb. functional goals are establishedc. comparative companies are identifiedd. data collection method is determined

2. Which of the following occurs during the analysis phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)

a. past performance gap measuredb. functional goals are establishedc. future performance levels are projectedd. data collection method is determined

3. All of the following occur during the integration phase of the benchmarking process, except: (Camp, 17)

a. communicate benchmark findingsb. gain acceptance of findingsc. establish functional goalsd. data collection method is refined

4. All of the following occur during the action phase of the benchmarking process, except: (Camp, 17)

a. actions plans are developedb. gain acceptance of findingsc. specific actions are implementedd. benchmarks are recalibrated

5. All of the following occur during the action phase of the benchmarking process, except: (Camp, 17)

a. actions plans are developedb. future performance levels are projectedc. specific actions are monitoredd. benchmarks are recalibrated

6. Which of the following occurs during the maturity phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)

a. leadership position is attainedb. future performance levels are projectedc. specific actions are monitoredd. benchmarks are recalibrated

7. Which of the following occurs during the maturity phase of the benchmarking process? (Camp, 17)

a. a look-back is revisitedb. future performance levels are projectedc. practices are fully integrated into processesd. benchmarks are recalibrated

8. During the planning phase of the benchmarking process, all of the following basic questions are asked, except: (Camp, 16)

a. when will we benchmark?b. what is to be benchmarked?c. to whom or what will we compare?d. how will the data be collected?

9. The benchmarking process is fundamentally one of: (Camp, 18)

a. system analysisb. comparative analysisc. product analysisd. process analysis

10. Which of the following is not one the results of gap analysis in the benchmarking process? (Camp, 18)

a. negativeb. neutralc. positived. parity

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Subject Area II. Topic G. Behavior Safety Processes

Area II.G. Practice Questions - Bank 1 1. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, all of the following are symptoms indicating something wrong in the safety management system, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 15)

a. unsafe conditionb. unsafe actc. an accidentd. low morale

2. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, the key to effective line safety performance is management procedures that: (Petersen, SM, 15)

a. fix accountabilityb. encourage safe behaviorsc. are formald. apply to everyone

3. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, in most cases, unsafe behavior is: (Petersen, SM, 15)

a. normal behaviorb. normal reaction to the environmentc. can be classifiedd. all of the above

4. According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, what should management do to change unsafe behavior? (Petersen, SM, 15)

a. fix accountabilityb. encourage safe behaviorsc. change the environmentd. rely on positive reinforcement

5. Which of the following subsystems, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is not key in building an effective safety management system? (Petersen, SM, 15)

a. the physicalb. the psychosocialc. the manageriald. the behavioral

6. Which of the following, According to Petersen's New Principles of Safety Management, is one of the six criteria that must be met for a safety management system to be effective? (Petersen, SM, 15)

a. be inflexible in enforcementb. involve external expertsc. force supervisor performanced. balance punishment and reward


a. be inflexible in enforcementb. involve middle managementc. encourage supervisor performanced. balance punishment and reward


a. be flexibleb. involve the unionc. encourage supervisor performanced. balance punishment and reward


a. don't ignoreb. involve the unionc. encourage supervisor performanced. be perceived as positive


a. don't ignoreb. involve employeesc. encourage top management commitment

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d. be perceived as positive

106

Area II.G. Practice Questions - Bank 2

1. It's generally understood that employees will comply with safety rules only if they are:

a. formalb. postedc. enforcedd. supervised

2. According to Petersen, manuals do not driver performance, it is driven by: (Petersen, TSM, 91)

a. manpowerb. measurementc. motivationd. meaning

3. According to the National Safety Management Society, a prime method of accomplishing safety objectives is to: (Petersen, SM, 19)

a. manage human behaviorb. comply with OSHA mandatesc. correct workplace conditions and practicesd. establish and operate systems

4. According to McGregor and Petersen, safety programs that rely primarily on rules and regulations reflect this management theory: (Petersen, SM, 20)

a. Theory Wb. Theory Xc. Theory Yd. Theory Z

5. More recently, participative safety management programs that reflect this management style have appeared: (Petersen, SM, 20)

a. Theory Wb. Theory Xc. Theory Yd. Theory Z

6. Blake and Mouton devised the Managerial Grid which categorized management styles along two axes. Which two management orientations are described on the Managerial Grid? (Petersen, SM, 20)

a. Theory X and Theory Yb. Relationship and taskc. Superior and subordinated. Caring and controlling

7. According to Petersen, when this manager faces a safety problem, it is seen as a threat to production: (Petersen, SM, 20)

a. Theory Xb. Theory Yc. Task orientedd. Relationship oriented

8. According to Petersen, when this manager faces a safety problem, it is seen as a threat to employee welfare: (Petersen, SM, 20)


9. According to Petersen, when this manager is more likely to trust employees because they view work as natural: (Petersen, SM, 20)


10. According to Petersen, when this manager is more likely not to trust employees because they dislike work: (Petersen, SM, 20)


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1. This management principle states that the number of subordinates should be small: (Petersen, SM, 21)

a. unity of commandb. span of controlc. unity of commandd. specialization

2. This theory describes why management tends to use more control, specialization, and pressure to overcome a lack of motivation, high turnover, and apathy: (Petersen, SM, 21)

a. Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory b. Chris Argyris' Incongruency Theoryc. Douglas McGregor's Theory X Theory Yd. Blake and Mouton's Managerial Grid

3. This management principle states that there should be only one boss: (Petersen, SM, 21)

a. chain of commandb. span of controlc. unity of commandd. specialization

4. This management principle states that work should be broken down into small simple tasks: (Petersen, SM, 21)


5. This management principle creates a superior-subordinate relationship: (Petersen, SM, 21)


6. Chris Argyris' Incongruency Theory states there is a basic incongruency between the characteristics of the organization and: (Petersen, SM, 21)

a. immature workerb. the motivated employeec. the mature workerd. the unmotivated employee

7. Chris Argyris believes incongruency causes all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 21)

a. fewer accidents due to poor work attitudesb. higher turnover ratec. unmotivated workforced. workers cling to the group, not organizational norms

8. According to Chris Argyris, management reacts to incongruency in all of the following ways, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 21)

a. more controlb. more specializationc. more pressured. more pay

9. According to Herzberg's theory, an employee's attitude about work is influenced by which two paradigms or factors? (Petersen, SM, 22)

a. relationship, taskb. supervision, motivationc. motivation, hygiened. hygiene, task

10. Herzberg's hygiene factors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 22)

a. working conditionsb. supervisionc. policiesd. responsibility

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1. Herzberg's motivation factors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 22)

a. the work itselfb. supervisionc. achievementd. recognition

2. Herzberg considers this strategy as the answer to motivating employees: (Petersen, SM, 22)

a. the work itselfb. salaryc. job enrichmentd. recognition

3. McGregor, Argyris, and Herzberg all agree that this management strategy does not get the results wanted and poses major problems in attitudes or relationships: (Petersen, SM, 22)

a. involvementb. customer-supplierc. job enrichmentd. close control

4. Petersen considers the model developed by these two researchers as perhaps the best in explaining manager and supervisor motivation: (Petersen, SM, 23)

a. Herzberg and Heinrichb. Argyris and Petersenc. Porter and Lawlerd. Blake and Mouton

5. Rensis Likert's study on the relationship between organizational climate and bottom line indicators of success discovered all of the following as important to highly successful organizations, EXCEPT: (Petersen, SM, 26)

a. High levels of two-way trust between employees and managersb. Teaching employees how to solve their own problemsc. A high degree of 'us vs. them' competition among departmentsd. Employee soliciting ideas is extremely important

6. What is the phrase that refers to the use of applied behavior analysis methods to achieve continuous improvement in safety performance? (Krause, BBSP, 3)

a. strategic behavioral analysis (SBA)b. behavior-based safety (BBS)c. formal observation program (FOP)d. employee surveillance systems (ESS)

7. The behavior-based safety process, as developed by Thomas Krause, includes all of the following methods, except: (Krause, BBSP, 3)

a. defining critical safety-related behaviorsb. developing discipline-observation linkagec. observing to gather data on behaviorsd. providing feedback

8. The behavior-based safety process, as developed by Thomas Krause, includes all of the following methods, except: (Krause, BBSP, 3)

a. significant employee involvementb. identifying safety-related behaviorsc. using data for continuous improvementd. strong management involvement

9. What is the term Kruse uses to describe the use of observation data for action planning to make system improvements? (Krause, BBSP, 5)

a. the front end of BBSb. the back end BBSc. reactive BBSd. proactive BBS

10. What is the term Krause uses to describe the identification of critical behaviors and their system observation with feedback? (Krause, BBSP, 5)

a. the front end of BBSb. the back end BBSc. reactive BBSd. proactive BBS

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Subject Area II. Topic H. Root Cause Analysis

Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 1 1. If a workplace fatality occurs, the affected employer must notify OSHA within _____: (29 CFR Part 1904)

a. 48 hours b. 24 hoursc. 16 hours d. 8 hours

2. OSHA defines a catastrophe as ______or more fatalities or _____ or more serious injuries: (29 CFR Part 1904)

a. 1,2 b. 2,3c. 3,4 d. 4,5

3. When documenting the scene, one of the biggest challenges facing the investigator is to:

a. determine who is to blame b. determine what is relevantc. determine who is in charge d. determine who is liable

4. Safety managers should do which of the following when it becomes clear that an accident investigation is necessary?

a. make sure the investigator submits an investigation report b. try to get the investigation finished quicklyc. bring together a cross-functional team to investigate d. use the OSHA Form 301 as the primary investigation report

5. The most effective documentation strategy is to:

a. document material evidence b. document obviously relevant materialc. document it, even if relevancy is in question d. document evidence to establish relevancy

6. When making personal observations, the accident investigator should consider which of the following:

a. What is not present b. Condition of objectsc. What is present d. All of the above

7. Photos are better at documenting the accident scene for all the reasons below except:

a. Photos more effectively show motion through time b. Photos are better at displaying detailsc. Photos best show size relationships d. Photos are easier to produce

8. All of the following are ineffective interview techniques except:

a. Ask why-you questions b. Ask open-ended questionsc. Try to intimidate the person being interviewed d. Encourage fault-finding

9. What is the primary purpose of an accident investigation?

a. determine who is to blame b. comply with insurer requirementsc. prevent future accidentsd. comply with OSHA requirements

10. Which of the following locations might be best for conducting the interview?

a. The scene of the accident b. Your officec. The lunch room d. At a restaurant

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Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 2 1. The purpose of effective root cause analysis is to:

a. fix the system b. fix the blame c. fix the problem d. At a restaurant

2. Which of the following is false regarding accident investigation? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 140-141)

a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven. b. Asking 'why' may appear to reflect a lack of knowledge. c. Someone's head has always got to role. d. Delving into the causes may be considered a personal affront.

3. No matter who conducts the investigation, the key person is:

a. the department head b. the supervisor c. the OSHA compliance officer d. the safety engineer

4. When documenting the scene, one of the biggest challenges facing the investigator is to:

a. determine who is to blame b. determine what is relevantc. determine who is in charge d. determine who is liable

5. According to the National Safety Council's Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations, the principal purposes of an accident investigation are to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, TSM, 169-170)

a. determine facts hearing on legal liability. b. learn accident causes so that similar accidents may be prevented. c. publicize the particular hazard among employees and their supervisors. d. determine the scope and nature of discipline

6. This process breaks down the whole into parts, steps, or events to see how they each relate to the whole:

a. Evaluation b. Synthesis c. Identification d. Analysis

7. Failing to effectively enforce safety policies and rules is an example of a:

a. seminal root cause b. personal root cause c. system design root cause d. system performance root cause

8. This process makes a judgment about the quality of something:

a. Evaluation b. Synthesis c. Identification d. Analysis

9. Which theory below states that an accident is the result of a series related events: If you eliminate any one event, you prevent a future accident?

a. Single event theory b. Domino theory c. Multiple cause theory d. System weakness theory

10. In event analysis, given the statement, 'Robert pounds a nail with a wrench,' ________ is the actor and ________ is the action: (Hendrick, Benner, 69)

a. wrench, pounds a nail b. nail, with a wrench c. Robert, pounds a nail d. Robert, with a wrench

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Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. All of the following are examples of possible surface causes of accidents, EXCEPT:

a. a tool b. a process c. a machine d. a person

2. Which of the following is an example of possible root causes of an accident?

a. a tool b. a process c. a machine d. a person

3. Surface causes describe hazardous _________ and unsafe _________. Root causes describe inadequate ________:

a. Systems, behaviors, conditions b. Behaviors, activities, policies c. Conditions, behaviors, systems d. Conditions, systems, accountability

4. To be thorough in getting the facts, Grimaldi and Simonds believe the investigator should do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 141)

a. Begin as far back in history as you can. b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist. c. Secure as many pertinent facts as possible. d. Examine the physical environment closely.

5. If similar accidents occur repeatedly after accident investigations, what weaknesses in the analysis process is most likely the cause?

a. It focuses on placing blame b. It focuses on root causes c. It identifies only surface causes d. It identifies both surface and root causes

6. If discipline occurs immediately after an accident occurs, what basic process flaw exists?

a. Blame is based on fact, not feeling b. The process places blame before considering safety program weaknesses c. The process determines system flaws before considering personal liability d. The process neglects to place initial blame.

7. If an employer does not have a lockout/tagout program when required, what type of root cause best describes the condition?

a. lateral root cause b. personal root cause c. system design root cause d. system performance root cause

8. Engineering controls include all of the following except:

a. Substitution b. Enclosure c. Rescheduling d. Redesign

9. Solving safety problems usually involves finding solutions to all of the following except:

a. Hazardous conditions b. Who was to blame c. Unsafe work practices d. Weaknesses in the safety program

10. Examples of root cause problems include all of the following except:

a. Machine not properly guarded. b. Safety rules are not written. c. The process used to investigate accidents is flawed. d. Lockout/tagout procedures are inadequate.

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Area II.H. Practice Questions - Bank 4

1. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of analysis? (Petersen, TSM, 159)

a. behavioral b. system or managerial c. psychosocial d. physical

2. Before 1931 which process was virtually the only analysis tool available to safety professionals? (Petersen, TSM, 159)

a. inspection b. job hazard analysis c. hazard identification d. physical assessment

3. According to the National Safety Council's Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations, the principal purposes of an accident investigation are to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Petersen, TSM, 169-170)

a. gather data supporting supervisor and employee accountability b. learn accident causes so that similar accidents may be prevented. c. publicize the particular hazard among employees and their supervisors. d. determine the change or deviation that produced an error.

4. Which of the following LEAST expresses the effect of root cause analysis? (Petersen, TSM, 25)

a. may prevent future operational problems b. determine appropriate personal weaknesses c. effects permanent results d. might prevent other types of accidents

5. Failing to carry out effective safety training is an example of which type of root cause?

a. system performance root cause b. personal root cause c. system design root cause d. management root cause

6. A poorly written safety training plan is a good example of this type of root cause:


7. If an employer does not have a lockout/tagout program when required, what type of root cause best describes the condition?


8. A systematic processes to investigate an accident should to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Handrick & Brenner, 7)

a. provide a rigorously tested description of what happened b. disclose and define specific problems c. define and permit assessment of proposed corrective actions d. relate findings to determine liability

9. Which of the following is the most appropriate accident investigation strategy? (NSC, APM-AP, 283)

a. investigate all injury accidentsb. investigate property damage events as well as injury accidentsc. investigate loss-time injuriesd. investigate each domino in order

10. This theory states that an accident might result in production tie-ups, excessive costs and customer complaints: (Petersen, ASSE, 9)

a. domino theoryb. active causation theoryc. theory of multiple causationd. theory of cause and effect

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1. Which of the following is a fundamental rule regarding accident investigation? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 140)

a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven b. If you remove one of the dominoes, the rest will fall c. Someone's head has always got to role d. It's all about fault-finding, not fact-finding

2. Which of the following is false regarding accident investigation? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 140-141)

a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven. b. Asking 'why' may appear to reflect a lack of knowledge. c. Someone's head has always got to role. d. Delving into the causes may be considered a personal affront.

3. According to Grimaldi and Simonds, inspections by the unit safety specialist should be conducted: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 145)

a. in a random manner to ensure the element of surprise. b. when a team inspection program is not established. c. whether or not a team inspection program is established. d. using a different route for each inspection.

4. To be thorough in getting the facts, Grimaldi and Simonds believe the investigator should do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 141)

a. Begin as far back in history as you can. b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist. c. Secure as many pertinent facts as possible. d. Examine the physical environment closely.

5. According to Petersen, this theory states we can trace all contributing factors to their underlying causes: (Petersen, ASSE, 9)


6. Which of the following is not considered by the NSC as a fundamental activity in accident prevention? (NSC, APM-AP, 283)

a. study all work areas to detect and correct hazardsb. study all methods, practices and controlsc. strict adherence with regulatory standardsd. thorough investigation of at least lost-workday injuries

7. This theory states that production tie-ups, excessive costs and customer complaints have the same basic causes as accidents: (Petersen, ASSE, 9)


8. Which of the following is the most appropriate accident investigation strategy? (NSC, APM-AP, 283)

a. the investigation board should determine disciplineb. be concerned only with the factsc. investigate to uncover those responsibled. investigate to establish accountability as well as the facts

9. This standard was used for years to help categorize injuries and accidents? (NSC, APM-AP, 284)

a. ANSI Z16.2b. ANSI Z490.1c. ISO 9001d. ISO 14001

10. Which of the following identify the two main types of accident investigations? (Brauer, 569)

a. preventable, non-preventableb. Type I, Type IIc. Disciplinary, non-disciplinaryd. general, specific

114


1. What is the first step in the accident investigation process?

a. call 911b. document the accident scene c. secure the accident scene d. get witness statements

2. In an accident investigation, which of the following steps follows the development of the sequence of events?

a. Analyze each event to identify surface causesb. Analyze each event to determine rule violations c. Analyze each event to determine root causes d. Analyze each event to determine solutions

3. A worker has slipped on a wet floor in the processing plant. What might be a surface cause?

a. the safety committee is not inspectingb. housekeeping policy not usually enforced c. leak in a pipe d. hazards are not being reporting

4. A worker has slipped on a wet floor in the processing plant. What might be a system performance root cause for the accident?

a. the safety committee has no inspection planb. a housekeeping policy does not exist c. leak in a pipe d. hazards are not being reporting

5. This is the most frequency type of accident investigation in most workplaces: (Brauer, 570)

a. Specificb. Generalc. Auditd. Technical

6. A worker has slipped on a wet floor in the processing plant. What might be a system design root cause for the accident?

a. the mop used to clean spills is brokenb. housekeeping policy is not being enforced c. leak in a pipe d. there is no daily safety inspection plan

7. Which of the following is not one of the requirements of an effective safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 37)

a. force supervisory performanceb. flexibilityc. employee conformanced. positive perceptions

8. According to Petersen, in most cases, unsafe behavior is a normal behavior; it is the result of normal people reacting to:(Petersen, TSM, 35)

a. internal beliefsb. perceived necessary risksc. management pressuresd. their environment

9. Which of the following is not listed by Petersen as one of the management activities required after setting safety goals? (Petersen, TSM, 29)

a. controllingb. planningc. encouragingd. organizing

10. According to Petersen, this theory states we can trace all contributing factors to their underlying causes (Petersen, ASSE, 9)


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1. According to Petersen, all of the following methods have statistical validity in measuring safety management system effectiveness, except: (Petersen, ASSE, 33)

a. perception surveysb. accident statisticsc. interviewsd. behavior sampling

2. According to Petersen, which of the following methods will be statistical valid in measuring safety management system effectiveness? (Petersen, ASSE, 33)

a. perception surveysb. accident statisticsc. experience modification ratesd. compliance audits

3. Which of the following methods is likely to result in a valid measurement of an organization's safety culture? (Petersen, ASSE, 33)

a. incident/accident analysisb. accident statisticsc. experience modification ratesd. perception survey

4. Which of the following methods is a good alternative to the perception survey in obtaining valid data about an organization's safety culture? (Petersen, ASSE, 36)

a. incident/accident analysisb. accident statisticsc. employee interviewsd. perception survey

5. According to Petersen, all of the following must be present to ensure accident investigation procedures, except: (Petersen, ASSE, 50)

a. a real look at symptomsb. properly trained investigatorsc. communication of results to the proper peopled. follow-up on causes

6. A facility fire would require which type of investigation? (Brauer, 570)

a. Specificb. Generalc. Auditd. Technical

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Subject Area II. Topic I. Safety Management Theory

Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 1 1. According to Grimaldi and Simons, what is a primary difference between the role of safety administrators and safety managers? (Grimaldi and Simons, p 86)

a. controllingb. persuadingc. organizingd. coordinating

2. According to Grimaldi and Simons, who is responsible no matter who is at fault when serious injuries occur? (Grimaldi and Simons, p.88)

a. the principlesb. safety managersc. first-line supervisorsd. line employees

3. A manager who has inadequate knowledge, skills and abilities, is consequently not performing well in his position. This situation is an example of:

a. the glass-windowb. Pascal's Lawc. Peter Principled. Heinrich's Principle

4. All of the following concepts are generally accepted by today's safety management community, except:

a. accident pronenessb. domino theoryc. behavior reinforcementd. multiple causation

5. There is evidence that occupational safety and health actually began with:

a. OSHA Act of 1970b. the ancient Egyptiansc. initiation of agricultured. the industrial revolution

6. The original 'Three E's', developed early in the last century stood for:

a. Enlightenment, Enforcement, and Engineeringb. Engineering, Enlightenment, and Enforcementc. Engineering, Education and Enforcementd. Engineering, Enlightenment, and Education

7. It is generally understood that for each dollar an employer invests in safety, the ROI will be:

a. Five times investmentb. Four times investmentc. Three times investmentd. Two times investment

8. Traditionally, the safety function was considered separate from other functions. Now, however, it is generally thought that safety management should involve:

a. a labor-management safety committeeb. left to top management c. an integrated, cross-functional teamd. outside consultants

9. Safety managers will first attempt to use this control measure to eliminate or reduce a workplace hazard:

a. engineeringb. management-work practice c. personal protective equipmentd. interim measures

10. Safety managers will use this control measure to eliminate or reduce exposure to a hazard:

a. engineeringb. management-work practice c. personal protective equipmentd. interim measures

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Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 2

1. Safety managers will use this control measure in conjunction with work practice controls to eliminate or reduce exposure to a hazard:

a. engineeringb. managementc. personal protective equipmentd. interim measures

2. If the safety manager is unable to adequately eliminate or reduce a hazard, this control measure will be necessary in addition to engineering controls to reduce exposure:

a. education controlsb. management - work practice controlsc. personal protective equipmentd. interim measures

3. The three standard control measure strategies include all of the following, except:

a. engineering controlsb. management - work practice controlsc. educational controlsd. personal protective equipment

4. The safety manager best functions as:

a. the primary safety controllerb. the corporate safety copc. the safety motherd. an internal safety consultant

5. Which of the following is not an appropriate function of the safety manager?

a. enforcer of safety rulesb. adviser to managersc. consultant to the employerd. consultant to the safety committee

6. All of the following are important activities of a safety manager, except:

a. enforce safety policies and rulesb. conduct safety audits and inspectionsc. conduct safety management system evaluationd. propose improvements to safety programs

7. Which of the following is an effective response by a supervisor when an employee violates a safety rule?

a. encourage the employee to obey the rulesb. tell the employee not to do that againc. discipline the employee if justifiedd. ignore the behavior one time only

8. When a supervisor ignores a safety rule violation, what does the employee think?

a. hey, I can get away with itb. the supervisor doesn't carec. looks like I've got permission to do it my wayd. all of the above

9. An effective safety culture balances positive and negative reinforcement. The safety manager can help ensure positive reinforcement by designing and implementing a/an:

a. install safety bingo and other gamesb. incentive and recognition planc. effective accountability pland. ask for money to award for compliance

10. An effective safety culture balances positive and negative reinforcement. The safety manager can help ensure negative reinforcement by designing and implementing a/an:

a. install safety bingo and other gamesb. incentive and recognition planc. effective accountability pland. ask for money to award for compliance

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1. Every safety manager must understand that most accidents are the result of:

a. a lack of common senseb. poor safety attitudesc. hazardous conditionsd. unsafe behaviors

2. Which of the following is not considered a safety monitoring function?

a. analysisb. observationc. inspectiond. investigation

3. Which of the following is least likely to affect the probability of an accident?

a. gender of workerb. duration of exposurec. frequency of exposured. work at elevation

4. All of the following are important factors to consider when prioritizing job hazard analyses:

a. number of pieces of equipment or machineryb. new or altered machinery or equipmentc. number of steps in the jobd. number of accidents associated with equipment, tools, equipment

5. Grimaldi and Simonds list each of the following as basic safety management propositions, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 178)

a. Keep line and staff responsibilities integratedb. Conform effectiveness measures for safety with those of managementc. Align safety objectives with management needsd. Hold safety staff accountable for quality of safety information

6. This person first promoted the domino theory of accident causation and is considered the father of safety management:

a. W. Edwards Demingb. Bradley Henshawc. Henry W. Heinrichd. William Pope

7. Which of the following are what W. H. Heinrich believed were factors that resulted in an accident?

a. environment, worker, unsafe act, accident, injury b. design, performance, contributing surface, direct surfacec. management, root, surface, personal, conditiond. man, machine, accident, condition, injury

8. To combat hazardous conditions and unsafe behaviors, a hierarchy of controls as been developed. Each of the following is a control strategy, except:

a. engineering control b. leadership controlc. work practice controld. personal protective equipment

9. Why do OSHA standards require the employer to first consider engineering controls to correct workplace hazards?

a. Because safety is all about conditions, not behavior b. They may completely eliminate the hazardc. They may completely eliminate exposured. They cost more in the long run than enforcing safe work practices

10. Grimaldi and Simonds list each of the following as basic safety management propositions, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 178)

a. Keep line and staff responsibilities separateb. Hold safety staff accountable for operation's safety effectivenessc. Align safety objectives with management needsd. Hold safety staff accountable for quality of safety information

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1. Which of the following strategies is not considered an engineering control?

a. design or redesign b. removal or substitutec. barriers or ventilationd. personal protective equipment

2. Which of the engineering controls listed below is most likely to eliminate a toxic chemical hazard?

a. placing a barrier between the employee and chemicalb. placing the chemical in a containerc. replacing a toxic with a less/non toxic chemicald. wearing appropriate personal protective equipment

3. Work practice controls are only as effective as:

a. the safety management system that supports themb. the policies that implement them c. the people that use themd. as the engineering controls they control

4. Engineering controls are important because any system that relies on human behavior is inherently:

a. unreliableb. unpredictable c. usefuld. uncontrollable

5. Management controls should be used ______ engineering controls:

a. beforeb. along with c. instead ofd. in the absence of

6. This program help ensure equipment and machinery continues to operate safely and smoothly as designed:

a. corrective maintenanceb. emergency maintenance c. programmed maintenance d. preventive maintenance

7. Tracking hazards is important for all of the following reasons, except:

a. It keeps staff aware of the status b. It provides timely and accurate information c. It provides evidence for discipline d. It provides a record of what occurred

8. Which of the following does not describe the possible scope of the problem in an organization?

a. Regulatory. Problem affects relations with OSHAb. Corporate. Problem affects the entire company c. Interpersonal. Problem affects another, or between two persons d. Personal. Problem affects yourself, or yourself and another

9. Which of the following is achieved when everyone can agree with the problem, or can at least live with it?

a. unanimityb. consensus c. groupthink d. cohesiveness

10. This problem solving technique can be used by individuals or groups quite successfully to quickly develop a large list of possible solutions to problems:

a. 5-W analysisb. mind mapping c. brainstorming d. fishbone diagram

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1. The primary communications goal of a safety recommendation is to:

a. informb. persuade c. request d. demand

2. Conditions and behaviors observed in the workplace are considered:

a. two components of safety management system structureb. two examples of internal safety management system processes c. examples of inputs to the safety management systemd. examples of outputs of the safety management system

3. What is the test for evaluating the effectiveness of a given consequence?

a. If the employee quitsb. The employee's behavior changes in the desired direction c. The employee is happy about the consequenced. The employee is sure the consequence was appropriate

4. Supervisors should be held accountable only for what they can control. They have the ability control all of the following, except:

a. The number of safety meetings conductedb. The number of accidents that occur c. The number of inspections conductedd. The number of training sessions conducted

5. Employee involvement in developing safe procedures and practices increases:

a. unusual behaviorb. management headaches c. employee ownershipd. cost of doing business

6. Which cause category is ultimately most responsible for accidents in the workplace?

a. Surface causesb. Personal causes c. Uncontrollable causesd. Root causes

7. What is a major weakness inherent in the walkaround safety inspection process?

a. Only uncovers hidden behaviorsb. Does not take enough time c. Does not uncover hazardous conditionsd. Only looks at observable, measurable behaviors

8. Which root causes below might indicate inadequate supervision in a work area?

a. Workers violating company safety rulesb. Workers using unsafe procedures c. Hazards existing in the work area. d. All of the above

9. What approach does an investigator take to most effectively analyze an accident?

a. First determine if system weaknesses existb. First determine if personal weaknesses exist c. First determine if the employee violated safety rules d. First determine if the employee ignored instructions

10. What approach does an investigator take to most effectively analyze an accident?

a. Analyze the accident event, then evaluate the safety management systemb. Analyze the accident event, then evaluate the victim's behavior c. Analyze the victim's performance, then evaluate the surface causes d. Analyze the victim's performance, then evaluate the safety management system

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Area II.I Practice Questions - Bank 6 1. Which of the following is not one of the requirements of an effective safety management system? (Petersen, TSM, 37)

a. force supervisory performanceb. fixed plansc. employee participationd. visible top management commitment

2. Which one of the following is not considered by Petersen as one of the causes of unsafe behavior? (Petersen, TSM, 33)

a. poor attitudeb. worker decision to errorc. overloadd. traps

3. Safety should be managed like any other company function, it should be directed by: (Petersen, TSM, 29)

a. managementb. the safety committeec. supervisorsd. employees

4. According to Petersen, there are three major subsystems that must be dealt with in building an effective safety system. Which of the below is not one of these three major subsystems? (Petersen, TSM, 35)

a. the physicalb. the managerialc. the behaviorald. the psychological

5. According to Petersen, the key to effective line safety performance is: (Petersen, TSM, 30)

a. tough-controlling safety supervisionb. effective safety trainingc. management procedures that fix accountabilityd. management by objectives

6. According to Petersen, the safety system should fit the: (Petersen, TSM, 36)

a. the individualb. the culturec. the communityd. the society

7. An unsafe act, condition or accident are all symptoms of something wrong in: (Petersen, TSM, 27)

a. regulatory complianceb. supervisionc. the management systemd. negative reinforcement


a. encourage supervisory performanceb. visible top management commitmentc. flexibilityd. middle management involvement

9. According to Petersen, the function of safety is to locate and define the operational errors that allow accidents to occur. This function can be carried out by: (Petersen, TSM, 30)

a. determining management flawsb. searching for root causesc. evaluating surface causesd. close scrutiny of personal flaws


a. force supervisory performanceb. delegated management supportc. flexibilityd. middle management involvement

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ANSWER BANKS: AREA II.

Area II. A. SMBO/TQM Principles

Bank 1

1. d. Management by Objectives (MBO)2. c. measure results using process indicators3. d. all of the above4. c. accident5. c. give supervisors an opportunity to practice6. b. give selected supervisors and opportunity to perform7. c. withhold help until requested8. d. reward once objectives are achieved9. a. get agreement on results objectives only10. b. provide feedback at least quarterly

Bank 2

1. c. 1950's2. c. 1970's3. d. a reward system emphasizes recognition of achieved objectives4. b. assures viable accountability for achievement5. a. brings process-directed behavior6. d. does not rely on supervisor creativity7. b. uses established traditional techniques8. c. doesn't rely on creativity9. d. Accountability Era10. b. It converts system inputs into system outputs

Bank 3

1. a. fosters compliant goal-setting2. b. SCRAPE3. a. special variations4. d. prevent accidents within a given period5. a. determine specifically what line managers are to do6. c. 1970's7. d. writing safety policy8. b. enforcing regulatory standards9. c. measure safety activity before an accident occurs10. c. makes management define what it wants from supervisors

Bank 4

1. c. less rework2. b. decreased variation improves productivity3. b. stay in business4. c. productivity improves5. d. increased marketshare6. a. provide more jobs7. c. management8. a. the consumer9. c. they do not hell you how to reduce the number of accidents10. a. theory

Bank 5

1. a. Element 1 2. d. Element 4 3. c. Element 34. b. Element 2 5. d. Element 7 6. a. Element 47. c. Element 6 8. b. Element 5 9. c. Element 6. 10. b. Element 5

Bank 6

1. d. Element 7 2. b. Element 8 3. d. Element 104. b. Element 8 5. c. Element 96. d. Element 107. d. Element 108. b. Element 119. d. Element 1310. c. Element 12

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Bank 7

1. d. Element 14. Take action to accomplish the transformation2. b. Element 12. Remove barriers to pride of workmanship3. c. How can the safety function control accident rates?4. b. Deploy - Carry out the change on a large scale5. c. running the company on invisible statistics6. a. lack of variation of purpose7. c. mobility of top management8. c. mobility of top management9. d. thinking our problems are the same10. b. reliance on human resource departments

Bank 8

1. c. anyone who helps knows nothing about our business2. c. the unmanned computer3. b. inadequate testing of prototypes4. b. a special cause5. a. common causes6. b. special cause7. c. effect8. c. management9. a. flowchart10. b. fishbone

Bank 9

1. a. run chart2. c. histogram3. b. scatter diagram4. d. control chart5. d. control chart6. c. the system will be destroyed7. b. competition8. d. to contribute its best to the system9. a. cooperation10. b. predictable

Bank 10

1. d. special, common2. b. meet with trainers3. d. helps people successfully compete4. a. judges people fairly5. b. is tough to control employees6. b. is tough to control employees7. c. narrower variation8. c. under statistical control, variation is due to special causes9. d. special causes can only be corrected by management10. b. the causes of variation lie only inside the system

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Area II. B. Systems Safety

Bank 1

1. d. have accident potential2. d. all of the above3. c. Occupancy4. b. hazard analysis5. a. is continued over the life cycle of a system6. c. behavioral controls7. c. aircraft and missile projects 8. d. toxicological study design9. c. MIL-STD-882B 10. d. review

Bank 2

1. a. identify maximum acceptable system risk2. c. protect critical components 3. c. compatible materials 4. c. Design for minimum risk 5. b. Develop procedures and training6. a. Incorporate safety devices7. b. Develop procedures and training8. c. hazard severity 9. b. severity and probability10. b. CATASTROPHIC AND CRITICAL

Bank 3

1. b. Fault tree analysis2. b. Fault tree analysis3. d. failure to identify all events that may lead to the top event4. c. assigning valid probability to an event 5. b. fault event6. d. basic event7. a. normal event8. c. undeveloped event 9. c. undeveloped event 10. b. logic gates

Bank 4

1. a. OR and AND gates2. c. AND gate 3. a. OR gate4. c. event5. c. failure6. b. The Triangle Shirtwaste Company fire7. b. fault8. b. fault9. c. failure10. c. primary

Bank 5

1. d. secondary2. c. primary3. d. secondary4. a. qualitative and quantitative5. b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)6. b. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)7. d. Simultaneous Timed Events Plotting Analysis (STEP)8. c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)9. a. specific surface causes10. c. Management Oversight and Risk Tree (MORT)

Bank 6

1. b. Engineering, Science and Management Defense Training (ESMDT)2. a. Federal Laws3. c. management system weaknesses 4. d. regarded as a normal and integral feature 5. c. Bell Telephone Laboratories 6. a. Operational error7. b. SMIS 8. a. Creation of a computerized information system 9. b. Business enterprises are social systems10. a. Triadic Analysis of Flawed Systems

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Bank 7

1. b. epidemiological2. c. Objective thinking about the direction and control of management 3. c. regulatory compliance 4. a. social, physical, biological5. c. management defines safety performance in light of personal flaws6. b. Participative management7. a. warning signs 8. b. H.W. Heinrich9. c. Proactive10. d. NFPA

Bank 8

1. b. A near miss, or accident that results in personal injury or property damage2. c. You will get meaningful data about the overall reliability of the system 3. d. A base event with no events below it4. c. used to show a procedure or event 5. c. To improve the safety of missile systems 6. d. both a and c above7. b. The goal of this task is to analyze the entire system.8. c. 79. b. A system program is to be run and the program will include several other tasks10. c. A contractor is to develop a list of possible hazards in system design

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Area II. C. Auditing

Bank 1

1. d. Evaluating the results2. c. informal inspection3. a. before-the-fact measure 4. c. informal inspection5. d. failure measures6. b. hazard, exposure7. b. general audit 8. d. any of the above9. a. it always looks at the same items 10. b. each part, step or event to determine its impact on the whole

Bank 2

1. b. allows for averaging several components to get a rating2. b. unsafe behaviors 3. c. employee survey4. b. results measures5. a. location of procedures 6. b. they are not sensitive to change7. d. all of the above8. d. Observation9. c. upgrade program components to standard10. d. audit

Bank 3

1. a. accident investigation 2. c. Survey3. d. poor housekeeping in administrative offices4. c. performance measure5. d. formal review6. a. Inspection 7. d. audit8. b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors 9. d. erase the item10. b. address policy and procedural problems

Bank 4

1. b. results measures2. c. challenge existing policies, procedures, and practices3. b. Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors 4. c. Safety Performance Indicator (SPI)5. d. all of the above6. d. Change Analysis7. b. what things need improvement and ways to improve them8. c. frequency, severity9. d. erase the item10. b. do not become a tool for blame or ridicule

Bank 5

1. d. how discipline will be administered2. b. Process Hazard Analysis 3. d. all of the above4. b. another department's safety staff5. c. none, minimal, adequate6. b. a process of having outsiders evaluate management7. d. they force compliance8. a. with traditional procedural-engineering criteria 9. d. both a and b above10. b. with surveys of employee perceptions

Bank 6

1. d. system compliance approaches2. a. accident investigations 3. b. superb motivational tool4. d. all of the above5. a. companies requiring a great amount of safety equipment be worn6. b. ANSI/AIHA Z10-20057. d. 29 CFR 1910.1208. a. independent programs9. c. what is to be done in generic terms10. d. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types

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Bank 7

1. d. Plan, Do, Check, Act2. a. independent programs3. c. what is to be done in generic terms4. d. applicable to organizations of all sizes and types5. b. lost-time accidents only 6. c. contractor activities7. a. compliance systems8. d. emergency systems9. c. baseline survey or gap analysis10. a. assume the OHSMS does not exist

Bank 8

1. d. shall2. b. should3. c. audit4. a. compliance5. c. conformance6. a. policy7. c. efficient employee controls

8. a. conformance with applicable laws9. b. providing OSHA and state plan data when required10. d. networking OHSMS policies for continuing improvement

Bank 9

1. b. delegate implementation of the OHSMS to other managers2. c. processes are designed to affect employees at all levels3. b. recognition and rewards for working accident-free4. a. disciplining poor performance5. d. health and safety committees6. a. union participation7. c. ensure collaboration with regulatory agencies8. a. benchmark best practices9. c. planning proactive contingency actions10. c. hazards, risks, and controls

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Area II. D. Data Analysis and Statistics

Bank 1

1. c. Maximum Control Limit (MCL)2. a. identify root causes3. a. Pareto diagram4. a. cause and effect diagram5. a. special causes6. c. stable7. d. Fishbone diagram8. d. Fishbone diagram9. b. Scatter diagram10. c. Run chart

Bank 2

1. c. Run chart2. c. Histogram3. b. y axis4. a. Loss Control Line (LCL)5. b. Performance measures are within upper and lower control limits6. b. Scatter diagram7. c. Control chart8. b. Track continuous data over time.9. d. Control chart10. d. Control chart

Bank 3

1. c. Separate the vital few from the trivial2. d. Lower Control Limit (LCL)3. c. not strictly by chance - something is wrong4. a. 1 percent5. a. a significant change for the better6. b. common causes7. d. control chart8. a. stopped and corrected9. b. 5 percent10. d. scatter diagram

Bank 4

1. b. Occupational Injury and Illness Classification Manual (OI&ICM)2. b. content analysis3. d. accidental sample4. b. audit5. c. baseline6. b. causal7. a. control, experimental8. d. control group9. c. control group10. d. correlation coefficient

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Area II. E. Safety In Design

Bank 1

1. d. safe work procedures2. b. engineering controls3. a. design to eliminate the hazard4. b. use protective safety devices5. c. automatic warning devices6. b. intrinsically safe7. d. limit the hazard below which it can do no harm8. a. eliminate the hazard entirely9. c. there is no possibility of an accident10. b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itself

Bank 2

1. b. They eliminate or reduce the hazard, itself2. b. Conducting OJT prior to the start of work3. c. safety planning is geared toward specific work procedures4. c. depend on employees to take corrective action5. a. guard pinch points6. b. power is either on or off7. d. guard and interlocks that make maintenance difficult8. c. use perimeter guards and large guarded areas9. c. controlling exposure10. b. isolation

Bank 3

1. d. isolation2. a. isolation3. d. signage4. b. lockouts5. c. failures are anticipated and prevented6. a. fail-remote design7. b. fail-passive design8. d. fail-operational design9. c. fail-active design10. b. fail-passive design

Bank 4

1. b. fail-passive design2. c. fail-active design3. d. fail-operational design4. b. Criteria measurement5. a. Safety factors and margins6. c. Failure rate reduction7. d. Parameter monitoring8. b. half as often9. a. margin of safety10. b. safety factor

Bank 5

1. c. minimum strength/maximum stress2. a. Parallel movements3. b. Derating4. a. Screening5. c. Timed replacements6. d. Redundant arrangements7. c. Monitoring 8. d. Reporting9. a. Screening10. b. Human factors engineering

Bank 6

1. a. Pictorial and symbolic2. c. Visual and auditory 3. d. Principle of interpretation4. a. Principle of complexity5. a. Principle of simplicity6. c. Principle of arrangement7. d. Principle of coding8. b. What steps to take if the reading is above UCL9. d. Associability - are signals associated with concrete responses?10. c. Arrangement - is the signal arranged in a logical sequence?

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Area II. F. Benchmarking

Bank 1

1. b. benchmarking2. c. Discipline must occur quickly and be significant3. d. Establish incentive program based on accident records4. a. Reset expectations based on accident rates5. b. Bonuses and merit pay are tied to accident records and rates6. a. Leading companies focus on a narrow range of media to communicate safety7. c. Inspections are used to determine retention of learning8. d. Traditional training techniques are used to maximize learning9. d. copying best practices of companies that excel10. b. limit evaluation to companies within the industry

Bank 2

1. a. External2. c. Department3. a. Annual4. a. Internal5. d. Competitive6. b. Shadow7. c. Industrial8. c. Industrial9. a. World-class10. b. cycle time reduction

Bank 3

1. b. needs assessment team, benchmarking team2. d. needs assessment team3. d. needs assessment team4. c. Determine team roles and responsibilities5. d. primary customer6. c. benchmarking team7. a. Write operational objectives8. c. benchmarking team9. b. Evaluate the benchmarking process, itself10. c. responsibilities

Bank 4

1. b. the vast number of different potential outcomes2. a. the potential for unexpected, unwanted results3. b. dantotsu4. c. out-compete the competitor5. d. gain cooperation6. a. know your operation7. c. incorporate the best8. c. practices, metrics9. b. metric10. c. practices

Bank 5

1. c. best practices2. a. cannot determine why the gap exists3. d. why4. c. increases acceptance of internal changes5. d. guards against trademark and technological theft6. b. promotions7. b. the toughest of the toughest competitors8. a. companies recognized as industry leaders9. d. continuous10. c. word statement, quantified gap analysis

Bank 6

1. d. competitor reaction to best practices2. c. solely at direct product competitors3. b. superior performance4. a. practices5. a. seek and destroy mission6. a. resource reductions7. d. a continuous improvement process8. c. projections of a future state9. c. comparative companies are identified10. c. comparative companies are identified

Bank 7

1. a. current performance gap is determined2. c. future performance levels are projected3. d. data collection method is refined4. b. gain acceptance of findings5. b. future performance levels are projected6. a. leadership position is attained7. c. practices are fully integrated into processes8. a. when will we benchmark?

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9. b. comparative analysis 10. b. neutral

Area II. G. Behavioral Safety Processes

Bank 1

1. d. low morale2. a. fix accountability3. d. all of the above4. c. change the environment5. b. the psychosocial6. c. force supervisor performance7. b. involve middle management8. a. be flexible9. d. be perceived as positive10. b. involve employees

Bank 2

1. c. enforced2. b. measurement3. d. establish and operate systems4. b. Theory X5. c. Theory Y6. b. Relationship and task7. c. Task oriented8. d. Relationship oriented9. b. Theory Y10. a. Theory X

Bank 3

1. b. span of control2. b. Chris Argyris' Incongruency Theory3. c. unity of command4. d. specialization5. a. chain of command6. c. the mature worker7. a. fewer accidents due to poor work attitudes8. d. more pay9. c. motivation, hygiene10. d. responsibility

Bank 4

1. b. supervision2. c. job enrichment3. d. close control4. c. Porter and Lawler5. c. A high degree of 'us vs. them' competition among departments6. b. behavior-based safety (BBS)7. b. developing discipline-observation linkage8. d. strong management involvement9. b. the back end BBS10. a. the front end of BBS

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Area II. H. Roost Cause Analysis

Bank 1

1. d. 8 hours2. b. 2,33. b. determine what is relevant4. c. bring together a cross-functional team to investigate 5. c. document it, even if relevancy is in question 6. d. All of the above7. a. Photos more effectively show motion through time 8. b. Ask open-ended questions9. c. prevent future accidents10. a. The scene of the accident

Bank 2

1. a. fix the system 2. c. Someone's head has always got to role. 3. b. the supervisor 4. b. determine what is relevant5. d. determine the scope and nature of discipline6. d. Analysis7. d. system performance root cause8. a. Evaluation 9. b. Domino theory 10. c. Robert, pounds a nail

Bank 3

1. b. a process 2. b. a process 3. c. Conditions, behaviors, systems 4. b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist. 5. c. It identifies only surface causes 6. b. The process places blame before considering safety program weaknesses 7. c. system design root cause 8. c. Rescheduling 9. b. Who was to blame 10. a. Machine not properly guarded.

Bank 4

1. c. psychosocial 2. a. inspection 3. a. gather data supporting supervisor and employee accountability 4. b. determine appropriate personal weaknesses 5. a. system performance root cause 6. c. system design root cause 7. c. system design root cause 8. d. relate findings to determine liability9. b. investigate property damage events as well as injury accidents10. c. theory of multiple causation

Bank 5

1. a. Never accept anything as fact until it has been proven 2. c. Someone's head has always got to role. 3. c. whether or not a team inspection program is established. 4. b. Don't get tunnel vision by using a checklist. 5. c. theory of multiple causation6. c. strict adherence with regulatory standards7. c. theory of multiple causation8. b. be concerned only with the facts9. a. ANSI Z16.210. d. general, specific

Bank 6

1. c. secure the accident scene 2. a. Analyze each event to identify surface causes3. c. leak in a pipe 4. d. hazards are not being reporting 5. b. General6. d. there is no daily safety inspection plan 7. c. employee conformance8. d. their environment9. c. encouraging10. c. theory of multiple causation

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Bank 7

1. b. accident statistics2. a. perception surveys3. d. perception survey4. c. employee interviews

5. a. a real look at symptoms6. a. Specific

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Area II. H. Safety Management Theory

Bank 1

1. b. persuading2. a. the principles3. c. Peter Principle4. a. accident proneness5. b. the ancient Egyptians6. c. Engineering, Education and Enforcement7. b. Four times investment8. c. an integrated, cross-functional team9. a. engineering10. b. management-work practice

Bank 2

1. c. personal protective equipment2. b. management - work practice controls3. c. educational controls4. d. an internal safety consultant5. a. enforcer of safety rules6. a. enforce safety policies and rules7. c. discipline the employee if justified8. d. all of the above9. b. incentive and recognition plan10. c. effective accountability plan

Bank 3

1. d. unsafe behaviors2. d. investigation3. a. gender of worker4. c. number of steps in the job5. a. Keep line and staff responsibilities integrated6. c. Henry W. Heinrich7. a. environment, worker, unsafe act, accident, injury 8. b. leadership control9. b. They may completely eliminate the hazard10. b. Hold safety staff accountable for operation's safety effectiveness

Bank 4

1. d. personal protective equipment 2. c. replacing a toxic with a less/non toxic chemical3. a. the safety management system that supports them4. a. unreliable5. b. along with 6. d. preventive maintenance 7. c. It provides evidence for discipline 8. a. Regulatory. Problem affects relations with OSHA9. b. consensus 10. c. brainstorming

Bank 5

1. b. persuade 2. d. examples of outputs of the safety management system 3. b. The employee's behavior changes in the desired direction 4. b. The number of accidents that occur 5. c. employee ownership6. d. Root causes 7. b. Does not take enough time 8. d. All of the above 9. a. First determine if system weaknesses exist10. a. Analyze the accident event, then evaluate the safety management system

Bank 6

1. b. fixed plans2. a. poor attitude3. a. management4. d. the psychological5. c. management procedures that fix accountability6. b. the culture7. d. negative reinforcement8. a. encourage supervisory performance9. b. searching for root causes10. b. delegated management support

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Area III Safety, Health and Environmental ApplicationsQuestions and Answer Key

136

Subject Area III. Topic A. Compliance Management

Area III.A. Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. Which of the following criteria is not used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is or should have been recognized by the employer? ?

a. industry recognition b. employer recognition c. employee recognitiond. common sense recognition

2. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for marine terminals:

a. 1904 b. 1917c. 1926 d. 1928

3. Which category of OSHA standards apply to a particular industry or to particular operations, practices, conditions, processes, means, methods, equipment or installations: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. horizontal standards (specific) b. vertical standards (general) c. universal standards (horizontal)d. specific industry standards (vertical)

4. The Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed in what year?

a. 1907b. 1970 c. 1977 d. 1997

5. Whether exposed persons are employees of an employer depends on several factors, the most important of which is: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. relationship between the employee and employerb. employee workloads and schedules c. who controls the manner in which the employees perform assigned workd. the manner in which the employer delegates work to the employee

6. Which category of OSHA standards below apply when a condition is not covered by a specific industry standard: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. horizontal standards (specific) b. vertical standards (general) c. universal standards (horizontal)d. specific industry standards (vertical)

7. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for general industry:

a. 1904 b. 1910c. 1926 d. 1938

8. The employer's requirement to comply with an OSHA standard may be modified through granting of a: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. extension b. variance c. modification d. special exception

9. An employer will not be subject to an OSHA citation if the observed condition is in compliance with either the standard or a: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. extension b. variance c. modification d. special exception

10. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for shipyard employment:

a. 1904 b. 1915c. 1926 d. 1938


1. Where an OSHA standard requires engineering or administrative controls (including work practice controls), employee exposure shall be cited: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. if PPE is not appropriate for the use b. unless suitable PPE can be immediately provided c. if personal protective equipment is not being used d. regardless of the use of PPE

2. Where employee exposure to a hazardous condition is not observed, witnessed, or monitored by the OSHA compliance officer during an inspection, unobserved employee exposure may be established if: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. exposure is determined through witness statements b. exposure is determined through other evidence c. exposure is determined through predictiond. answer a and b above

3. An OSHA citation may be issued when the possibility exists that potential employee exposure to a hazard exists. Potential exposure may be established using any of the following criteria, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. witnesses and other evidence b. past circumstances or anticipated work requirementsc. exposure can be reasonably predicted by the compliance officerd. employee work patterns

4. Under OSHA law employers must protect employees from all of the following, except:

a. near missb. injury c. illness d. death

5. The purpose of the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is to: (NIOSH)

a. conduct research and educate employers on best practices in safety and health b. conduct research and make recommendations that improve OSHA standardsc. conduct research and make recommendations that prevent work-related injury and illness d. conduct research and publish warnings regarding unsafe work practices

6. This inspection focuses on certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the establishment, but may be expanded based on information gathered by the OSHA compliance officer during the inspection process.

a. routine inspection b. comprehensive inspection c. programmed inspection d. partial inspection

7. This type of violation shall be cited in situations where the most serious injury or illness that would be likely to result from a hazardous condition cannot reasonably be predicted to cause death or serious physical harm to exposed employees but does have a direct and immediate relationship to their safety and health: (OSHA FIRM Sec 7)

a. De Minimis b. Other-than-seriousc. Seriousd. Statutory

8. The first states occupational safety and health laws in this country were enacted during what time period? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 36)

a. early 1800'sb. late 1800's c. early 1900's d. mid 1900's

9. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) requires employers to record and report work-related fatalities, injuries and illnesses:

a. 1904 b. 1910c. 1926 d. 1938

10. The OSHA Act established all of the following agencies, EXCEPT:

a. OSHA b. OSHRCc. NSC d. NIOSH

Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. This type of violation exists if there is a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could result from a condition which exists, or from one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes which have been adopted or are in use: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. De Minimis b. Other-than-seriousc. Seriousd. Statutory

2. A serious violation is issued by OSHA unless: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. the employer corrects the violation prior to the conclusion of the inspection b. the employer exercising reasonable diligence, did or could not know about the violationc. the employer is able to establish the intent to comply with the violated ruled. the employer is exercises reasonable diligence in correcting the hazard

3. Which of the following criteria is not considered by an OSHA compliance officer to determine if a serious violation exists? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. the type of accident or health hazard exposure b. the most serious injury or illness expectedc. whether the injury or illness could include death or serious physical harmd. whether the employee was under undue pressure to accomplish a task

4. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for construction:

a. 1904 b. 1910c. 1926 d. 1938

5. Under OSHA standards, employers are required to maintain all of the following, except: (OSHA Fact Sheet)

a. exposure records b. hazard assessment recordsc. training recordsd. equipment certification records

6. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for longshoring:

a. 1904 b. 1918c. 1926 d. 1928

7. The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has a primary research facility which includes research/field study Divisions: Division of Safety Research (DSR), Division of Respiratory Disease Studies (DRDS), and Health Effects Laboratory Division (HELD). What is the location of this facility? (NIOSH)

a. Washington DC b. Cleveland OHc. Pittsburgh PA d. Morgantown WV

8. This OSHA standard requires each employer furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. Section 7(a)(1) - Universal Employer Duty Clause b. Section 5(a)(1) - General Duty Clausec. Section 1(a)(1) - Universal Employer Requirementd. Section 1(a)(1) - General Employer Duty

9. In general, Review Commission and court precedent has established that the following elements are necessary to prove a violation of the general duty clause, EXCEPT: (OSHA FIRM CPL Sec 7)

a. the hazard was recognized and corrected prior to the conclusion of the inspection b. the hazard was causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harmc. the employer failed to keep the workplace free of a hazard to which employees were exposedd. there was a feasible and useful method to correct the hazard

10. An OSHA general duty citation must involve which of the following? (OSHA FIRM Sec 7)

a. an employee and employer relationship b. a workplace hazard and employee exposure

c. employee exposured. workplace hazard

Practice Questions - Bank 41. For the purpose of citing employers, which of the following is false concerning OSHA's definition of a workplace hazard? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. it must affect the employer's employee b. it is not a failure to abatec. it is not an accidentd. it need not be necessarily be recognized

2. The maximum OSHA penalty for a serious violation is:

a. $3,000 b. $4,000 c. $5,000 d. $7,000

3. Employer recognition of a hazard is established if any of the following criteria is met, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. industry recognition b. employer recognitionc. common sensed. employee recognition

4. OSHA considers industry recognition may be established when the following criteria is met: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. recognition by employer's industry b. general recognition by any industryc. general recognition by companies three-digit SIC d. general recognition by companies in four-digit SIC

5. OSHA considers employer recognition has been established when any of the following exists, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. written statements by employer b. oral statements by supervisorc. oral statements by employee to compliance officer d. employee clearly calls hazard to employer's attention

6. In which of the following cases will OSHA use common-sense recognition to establish a violation? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. serious b. flagrantc. high-death d. unusual

7. If an employer has been cited previously and the citation has become a final order, which of the following might result in repeat violation? (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. similar situation b. identical conditionc. substantially similar condition d. general condition

8. Even though, as a result of the exercise of professional judgment, not all potentially hazardous conditions, operations and practices within those areas are inspected during this inspection, this type of OSHA inspection is defined as a substantially complete inspection of the potentially high hazard areas of an establishment:

a. routine inspection b. comprehensive inspection c. programmed inspection d. focused inspection

9. The common-sense criteria to argue that a hazard should have been recognized by an employer will be used by OSHA: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. whenever other criteria is insufficient b. only in flagrant casesc. when employees identify the hazards d. as directed by the Review Commission

10. Exposure is generally defined as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. event or occurrence b. condition, relative positionc. behavior, condition d. activity, predetermined event


1. These violation OSHA standards have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health and are not included in citations: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. De Minimis b. General c. Serious d. Willful

2. This violation will be issued by OSHA if the employer has been cited previously for a substantially similar condition and the citation has become a final order:(OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. Repeat b. General c. Serious d. Willful

3. This department is authorized to enforce the OSHAct of 1970.

a. Department of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH) b. Department of Labor (DOL)c. Department of Justice (DOJ) d. Environmental Protection Administration (EPA)

4. Section 5(b) of the Act states: 'Each employee shall comply with occupational safety and health standards and all rules, regulations, and orders issued pursuant to the Act which are applicable to his own actions and conduct.' All of the following are true concerning this Act, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. The Act does not propose penalties against employees b. The Act does not provide for the issuance of citations against employees, c. Employers are not responsible for employee compliance d. Employers are responsible for employee compliance

5. In cases where the OSHA compliance officer determines that employees are systematically refusing to comply with a standard applicable to their own actions and conduct, the OSHA compliance officer will: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. propose penalties against the employee b. issue a citation against the employee,

c. consult with the Area Director d. review compliance with the employer

6. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for inspections, citations, and proposed penalties:

a. 1903 b. 1917c. 1926 d. 1928

7. If the employer is able to establish this defense, OSHA will excuse the violation which was otherwise proved by the OSHA compliance officer (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. Due diligence b. De Minimis, c. Affirmative d. Absolute

8. Common examples of employer affirmative defense include all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 7)

a. unpreventable employee misconduct b. compliance would create greater hazard, c. alternative methods exist d. compliance is functionally impossible

9. Inspections, either programmed or unprogrammed, fall into one of two categories depending on the scope of the inspection. Which of the following describe these two categories?(OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. comprehensive and partial b. complete and focused, c. area and department d. safety and health

10. The minimum and maximum OSHA penalties for a willful violation is:

a. $2,000 to $30,000b. $3,000 to $40,000 c. $4,000 to $50,000 d. $5,000 to $70,000


1. When OSHA conducts a substantially complete inspection of the potentially high hazard areas of the establishment, it is called a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. area inspection b. focused inspection, c. partial inspection d. comprehensive inspection

2. Developed in cooperation with Canada and Mexico, this system represents one of the most profound changes for statistical programs focusing on emerging economic activities:

a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)b. National Industrial Classification (NIC) c. Primary Industrial Survey (PIS) d. Standard Industrial Classification (SIC)

3. When OSHA conducts an inspection whose focus is limited to certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the establishment, it is called a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. area inspection b. focused inspection, c. partial inspection d. comprehensive inspection

4. As a general rule, OSHA inspections:

a. target specific high hazard industries, workplaces or occupationsb. always result in follow up inspections c. include of injury and illness records reviews d. focus on scope of the comprehensive safety program

5. A partial OSHA inspection may be expanded based on information gathered by the compliance officer during the inspection process. The compliance officer must use professional judgment to determine the necessity for expansion of the inspection scope and will base this judgment on all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. walk-around inspection b. program review information, c. records review informationd. subjective impression

6. This Part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) describes occupational safety and health requirements for agriculture:

a. 1904 b. 1915c. 1926 d. 1928

7. Section 8 of the Act provides that OSHA compliance officers may enter without delay and at reasonable times any establishment covered under the Act for the purpose of conducting an inspection. The employer may not refuse to allow the compliance officer entry when any of the following recognized exceptions exist: ( (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. consent b. open field, c. plain viewd. time restraint

8. Under OSHA standards, employers are required to maintain all of the following, except: (OSHA Fact Sheet)

a. exposure records b. hazard assessment recordsc. training recordsd. equipment certification records

9. Complaints about discrimination must be filed to OSHA as soon as possible within _____ days of the alleged reprisal for most complaints:

a. 30 daysb. 60 days c. two weeks d. three weeks

10. Unless the circumstances constitute a recognized exception the employer may: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer to conduct of the inspection b. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without a warrant c. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer with police escortd. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without legal council


1. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (William-Steigers Act) was enacted in what year?

a. 1907b. 1970 c. 1977 d. 1997

2. Examples of employer interference with OSHA compliance inspections includes all of the following examples, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. refusal to permit the walk-around inspection b. not allowing examination of records essential to the inspection, c. refusing OSHA compliance officer entry without a warrantd. refusing to allow the taking of essential photos

3. Which of the following is TRUE concerning employee workplace rights?

a. negotiate the corrective actions b. appeal the citation penalty c. require a warrant d. contest the abatement date

4. When an apparent refusal to permit entry or inspection is encountered upon presenting the warrant, the CSHO shall specifically inquire whether the employer is refusing to comply with the warrant. If the employer refuses to comply or if consent is not clearly given, the CSHO will do all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. enter with a U.S. Federal Marshall b. leave the premises, c. not attempt to conduct the inspectiond. notify the Assistant Area Director

5. This system has served for decades as the structure for the collection, aggregation, presentation, and analysis of the US economy:

a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)b. National Industrial Classification (NIC) c. Primary Industrial Survey (PIS) d. Standard Industrial Classification (SIC)

6. Employers who participate in these programs may be exempted from programmed OSHA inspections: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. preferred worker programs b. voluntary compliance programs, c. voluntary nondisclosure programsd. OSHA 300 Survey Program

7. To protect the health and safety of persons working in the coal mining industry, the Federal Coal Mine Health and Safety Act passed. In what year was the Act enacted? (MSHA)

a. 1909 b. 1919 c. 1969 d. 1996

8. The Lost Workday Case Incident Rate (LWDI) may, in the OSHA compliance officer's discretion, be used in determining trends in injuries and illnesses. The LWDI rate is calculated according to the following formula: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. (# LWDI's x 1 million)/# employee hours worked b. (# LWDI's x 200,000)/# employee hours worked c. (# employee hours worked x 1 million)/200,000 d. (# employee hours worked x 200,000)/# LWDI's

9. Apparent OSHA violations will be brought to the attention of employer and employee representatives at the time they are documented during an inspection. Compliance officers are required to record at a minimum all of the following, except: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. employee's knowledge of the hazard b. the employer's knowledge of the condition c. the identity of the exposed employee d. the hazard to which the employee was exposed

10. OSHA defines the hospitalization for treatment of three or more employees resulting from a work-related incident, accident or illness as a/an: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. serious accident b. catastrophe c. multiple injury accident d. eight-hour reportable event


1. This Act was most recently enacted in 1977:

a. Toxic Substances Control Actb. Occupational Safety and Health Act c. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act d. Walsh Healy Act

2. Section 17(e) of the Act provides criminal penalties for an employer who is convicted of having willfully violated an OSHA standard, rule or order when that violation: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. occurred in the employer's workplace b. caused the death of an employee c. resulted in multiple injuries d. was a repeat

3. Occupational Safety and Health Act was passed under this president's administration?

a. Roosevelt b. Kennedyc. Nixon d. Reagan

4. Any conditions or practices in any place of employment which are such that a danger exists which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the imminence of such danger can be eliminated through enforcement procedures is referred to as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. immediately dangerous to life or limb (IDLL) b. a high risk environment c. imminent danger d. a hazardous workplace

5. The OSHA 300 Log must be prepared for OSHA each year, but the most effective use of the summary is to:

a. Provide statistical analysis datab. Ensure compliance with OSHA c. Provide justification to fund safety d. Prove due diligence

6. Days Away Restricted & Transferred (DART) incidence rate is expressed as: (OSHA FIRM CPL 2.103 Sec 6)

a. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 1 million)/# actual employee workhours) b. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 200,000)/# actual employee workhours c.(# actual employee workhours x 200,000)/# Days away from work, restricted work or transferd. # Days away from work, restricted work or transfer/(# actual employee workhours x 200,000)

7. Under the OSHA Guidelines, states may administer their own safety and health rules as long as:

a. state rules are at least as effectiveb. states remit a portion of the penalties c. state plans mirror the federal plan d. state rules are adopted after 180 days

8. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (William-Steigers Act) was enacted in what year?

a. 1907b. 1970 c. 1977 d. 1997

9. The maximum OSHA penalty a repeat violation is:

a. $3,000 b. $5,000 c. $7,000 d. $9,000

10. Warning signs, hazardous material labels and other forms of warnings must be in:

a. English and Spanishb. English c. Primary language of employee d. English and French


1. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is located within what federal agency?

a. Department of Laborb. Health and Human Services/CDC c. Secretary of Labor d. Secretary of Health and Human Services

2. Which of the following relationships is MOST correct?

a. NIOSH is an agency of OSHAb. OSHA reports to NIOSH c. NIOSH is an agency within CDC d. CDC reports to NIOSH

3. OSHA encourages companies to develop and maintain a comprehensive safety and health program, and has established this program that recognizes this effort:

a. QSHP, Quality Safety and Health Programb. VPP, Voluntary Protection Program c. ESHM, Excellent Safety and Health Management Program d. VOIP, Voluntary OSHA Inspection Program

4. OSHA encourages States to develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. OSHA approves and monitors State plans. For the states to assume, develop and operate their own OSHA laws, they must:

a. develop and forward a plan to OSHAb. must meet 100% staffing levels c. show worker protection is as effective as OSHA's d. all of the above

5. This 1970 act is considered by most safety professionals to be the most significant safety legislation of the last century:

a. Taft-Hartley Actb. Williams-Steiger Act c. Gramm-Rudman Act d. Steiger-Mannington Act

6. This Federal agency responsible for conducting research and making recommendations for the prevention of work-related disease and injury:

a. Department of Labor (DOL)b. National Institutes of Safety and Health (NIOSH) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)

7. When any workplace fatality or accident that results in the hospitalization of three or more employees, employers are required to report to the nearest OSHA office within:

a. 8 hoursb. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours

8. Which of the following must be posted at a prominent location within the workplace informing employees of their rights and responsibilities?

a. Form 301b. OSHA summary c. OSHA poster d. Form 300A

9. The maximum OSHA penalty per day for failure to correct a prior violation is:

a. $3,000 b. $5,000 c. $7,000 d. $9,000

10. The employer must provide employees, former employees and their representatives access to the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, also called the:

a. OSHA Form 301b. OSHA Form 300 c. OSHA poster d. Form summary


1. Name an independent agency that tests, certifies and provides other safety technical services. : (Brauer, 41)

a. OSHAb. Industry Mutual System c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL) d. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

2. Which of the following is NOT an example of a voluntary consensus standard? (Brauer, 40)

a. OSHA 1910.1200 b. ANSI Z490.1 c. ASTM A34/A34M-01 d. NFPA 70

3. Which of the following is voluntary consensus standards establishes guidelines for health and safety management systems? (AIHA)

a. OSHA 1910.1200 b. ANSI Z490.1 c. ANSI Z10-2005 d. NFPA 70

4. Identify the agency that does not certify or approve health or safety related products: (OSHA)

a. OSHA b. UL c. NIOSH d. FM

5. Which of the following acts was enacted most recently? (OSHA)

a. The Occupational Safety and Health Act b. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act c. Homeland Security Act d. The Toxic Substances Control Act

6. Where would one usually not look to determine what agencies in a state are responsible for safety function and codes? (Brauer, 39)

a. OSHA directories b. U.S. Code c. Internet d. State directories

7. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is headed by _____________. (Dept. of Labor)

a. Vice President b. Assistant Secretary of Labor c. Secretary of Labor d. Secretary of Health and Human Services

8. What is the primary responsibility of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission? (Dept. of Labor)

a. Conduct research, experiments, and demonstrations b. Conduct educational programs c. Adjudicate disputes d. Promulgate standards

9. Congress provides grants to the States to assist in all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. Improving administration and enforcement b. Evaluating labor-management relations c. Identifying their needs and responsibilities d. Developing plans in accordance with the OSHAct

10. OSHA has a right to Promulgate, modify and revoke standard, conduct inspection, require employers to keep records and to approve or reject state plans for programs under the act. They may also: (OSHA)

a. Dictate requirements for US plants in foreign countries. b. Shut down a plant on evidence received in a complaint. c. Provide training to employers and employees. d. All of the above.


1. OSHA encourages management to manage their safety and health program. One OSHA program for this purpose is called the __________. (OSHA)

a. VPP Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) b. EESP, Employer, Employee Safety Program (EESP) c. ESHP, Employer Safety and Health Policy (ESHP) d. VSIP, Voluntary Safety Inspection Program (VSIP)

2. There are many organizations that promulgate standards besides OSHA. In fact OSHA refers to some of them in the OSHA standards. Good Safety Management includes and understanding and use of these standards. Which of the following apply to safety and health? (OSHA)

a. API, American Petroleum Institute b. The Fertilizer Institutec. ANSI, American National Standards Institute d. All of the above

3. OSHA encourages the states to assume the fullest responsibility for administering and enforcing their own OSHA laws. However, in order to assume this responsibility, such states must: (OSHA)

a. Develop and submit a plan to OSHA. b. Have standards pertinent to their own state.c. Develop a program and tell OSHA. d. Develop, submit and receive plan approval from OSHA.

4. The responsibility for research to determine criteria requirements and to provide more advanced occupational safety and health implementation methods in general, is assigned to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), which is under the ______: (OSHA)

a. Department of Labor b. Department of Health and Human Services c. National Institutes of Health d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

5. Which of the following is NOT a stated strategy to achieve the goals outlined in OSHA's strategic plan? (OSHA)

a. Assist employers to promote a safe culture b. Directly intervene to reduce occupational hazards c. Introduce common sense regulatory reform d. Strengthen capabilities and infrastructure

6. OSHA believes it ___________________________: (OSHA)

a. is caught between worker and employer organizations b. cannot achieve goals through enforcement alone c. has a mandate to enforce only d. can achieve its mission through enforcement alone

7. OSHA has developed a variety of intervention tools and strategies for achieving its strategic goals. This multifaceted approach includes all of the following, except? (OSHA)

a. Initiating focused inspections b. Legislating standard safety values c. Penalty adjustments tied to the quality d. Strengthening partnership efforts

8. OSHA makes use of research studies and data to proactively assess changes in the workplace environment and the workforce to _____________: (OSHA)

a. identify trends in injuries, illnesses, and deaths b. determine the underlying reasons why injuries occur c. determine employer liability d. a and b above

9. OSHA will write new standards and guidance materials __________, in order to make safety and health requirements more understandable to those affected: (OSHA)

a. in plain language b. using a revised indexing protocol c. regularly d. in standardized volumes

10. OSHA provides a strong enforcement presence to _______________________: (OSHA)

a. assure a culture of accountability b. act as an effective deterrent c. prevent private sector noncompliance d. comply with DOL policy


1. OSHA will increase the number of high-impact cases (e.g., significant, egregious, and corporate-wide settlement agreements) through ______________: (OSHA)

a. enhanced targeting b. revised reporting procedures c. improved case preparation d. all of the above

2. Which one of the following would NOT be considered a benefit of partnering with OSHA? (OSHA)

a. technical assistance b. focused inspections c. penalty reductionsd. reduced publicity

3. OSHA's compliance assistance programs include all of the following, except: (OSHA)

a. Informal training classes b. Consultation Program c. Voluntary Protection Programs d. Outreach initiatives

4. This program recognizes worksites with excellent safety and health programs: (OSHA)

a. Employer Excellence Program (EEP) b. Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) c. Safety and Health Recognition Program (SHRP) d. Employer Safety Excellence Program (ESEP)

5. OSHA has developed a broad-based training and educational effort for external outreach including all of the following, except: (OSHA)

a. Employer Ride-a-long Program b. Training grant program c. Training aids and lesson plans d. Technology-based delivery systems

6. NIOSH performs all of the following activities, except: (OSHA)

a. Investigate potentially hazardous working conditions b. Make recommendations on preventing injury and illness c. Provide training to safety and health professionals d. Promulgate pending OSHA legislation

7. Section 18 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 ________ States to develop and operate their own job safety and health programs. (OSHA)

a. mandates b. encourages c. requires d. forces

8. The organization of officials in the 26 States that operate OSHA-approved State Plans is called: (OSHA)

a. State Plan OSHA Association (SPOSHA) b. State Occupational Safety and Health Association (SOSHA) c. Occupational Safety and Health State Plan Association (OSHSPA)d. Occupational State Safety Plan Association (OSPPA)

9. States must set job safety and health standards that are __________ federal standards: (OSHA)

a. at least as effective as b. identical to c. not in addition to d. not otherwise addressed in

10. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission (OSHRC) __________: (OSHA)

a. reviews pending legislation for legal sufficiency b. is an independent agency of the U.S. Government c. is a consortium of private and public sector associations d. monitors and approves employer disputes


1. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission's only function is to _________: (OSHRC)

a. ensure OSHA adheres to STD-1 b. conduct hearings c. review OSHA law d. resolve disputes

2. The Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission employs _______________ to hear cases: (OSHRC)

a. former enforcement officers b. Administrative Law Judges c. trial attorneys d. hearings officers

3. This organization is composed of officials operating OSHA-approved State Plans: (OSHRC)

a. OSHAHC b. OSHSPA c. IRSPA d. SPAM

4. Which of the following criteria is NOT used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is or should have been recognized by the employer? (OSHA)

a. industry recognition b. employer recognition c. employee recognition d. common sense recognition

5. The common sense criteria to argue that a hazard should have been recognized by an employer will be used ______: (OSHA)

a. whenever other criteria is insufficient b. only in flagrant cases c. when employees identify the hazards d. as directed by the Oregon DOJ

6. Each of the below are types of OSHA standards except? (OSHA)

a. national consensus standards b. permanent standards c. temporary review standards d. emergency temporary standards

7. These rules represent the most common type of OSHA regulation: (OSHA)

a. Consensus b. Emergency c. Temporary d. Permanent

8. Why does OSHA rarely issue Emergency Temporary Standards (ETS)? (OSHA)

a. The need for ETS's has significantly decreased. b. ETS's remain in effect for only six months. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective. d. Funding for ETS's has been cut off by Congress.

9. Before issuing a permanent standard, OSHA must find that a significant risk exists in the workplace. How does OSHA determine risk? (OSHA)

a. legal writ b. regulatory standard c. OSHA 200 Log results d. workplace and other studies

10. All of the following Acts have placed restraints on OSHA's rulemaking ability, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. Regulatory Flexibility Act b. Business Liability Act c. Paperwork Reduction Act d. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act


1. The general duty clause is breached when a firm's employees are exposed to hazards that meet all of the following requirements, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. The hazard is recognized as harmful by the individual employer. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule. c. The hazard is recognized as harmful by industry.d. The hazards is likely to cause death or serious harm.

2. Which of the following is not considered a successful employer defense against alleged OSHA violations? (OSHA)

a. Compliance poses a financial burden b. Compliance is infeasible c. Lack of control on a multi-employer worksite.d. Unpreventable employee conduct

3. An employer may be able to defend against an OSHA violation by demonstrating all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. employee breached safety rules b. safety rules were effectively conveyed c. safety rules are uniformly enforcedd. the unsafe practice did not cause injury

4. All of the following are OSHA penalty classifications except? (OSHA)

a. willful b. de minimis c. generald. serious

5. Which of the following is not a consideration the Secretary of Labor must consider in proposing penalties? (OSHA)

a. good faith b. prior violation history c. employer sized. employer ability to pay

6. The Secretary has unreviewable prosecutorial discretion to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. nullify rules b. withdraw citations c. reach settlementsd. characterize violations

7. At an administrative hearing, both OSHA and the employer may _________: (OSHA)

a. cross examine b. call witnessesc. introduce evidenced. all of the above

8. OSHA can seek criminal penalties in all of the following instances, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. someone falsely reports information to OSHA b. willful violations of specific standards c. willful violations of the general duty claused. someone provides advance notice of an OSHA inspection

9. Employees enjoy a right to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (OSHA)

a. challenge the abatement remedy b. file a complaint with OSHA c. accompany inspectors d. review relevant standards

10. To prove discrimination has occurred against an employee, the Secretary must show that exercise of protected rights was a ______________ cause for an employee's adverse treatment: (OSHA)

a. sole b. substantialc. primary d. secondary


1. OSHA regulations also grant employees a right to know all of the following, EXCEPT? (OSHA)

a. trade secret information b. exposure information c. hazardous substances on the job d. medical records

2. 29 U.S.C. 666(e) of the OSH Act provides for criminal penalties when all of the following criteria are met, EXCEPT: (29 U.S.C. Section 666(e))

a. There is a violation of a specific regulation b. The violation is willfulc. The employer refused consultative servicesd. An employee was killed

3. Which of the following criteria is not included in consideration of criminal penalties as specified in 29 U.S.C. 666(e) of the OSH Act? (29 U.S.C. Section 666(e))

a. The violation was a repeat b. There is a causal relationship between the violation and the deathc. There is a violation of a specific regulationd. An employee was killed

4. An employer may be assessed a civil penalty for willfully or repeatedly committing any of the following OSH Act violations, EXCEPT: (29 U.S.C. Section 666(a))

a. violates requirements of section 5b. violates a standard, rule, or order promulgated in section 6c. willfully or repeatedly violates any section of the OSHactd. willfully or repeatedly violates prescribed OSH regulations

5. Any employer who willfully or repeatedly violates the requirements of section 5 of the OSH Act, any standard, rule, or order promulgated pursuant to section 6 of the OSHAct, or regulations prescribed pursuant to the OSH Act, may be assessed a civil penalty of not more than _____ for each violation, but not less than _____ for each willful violation. (29 U.S.C. Section 666(a))

a. $7,000, $500 b. $17,000, $1500c. $70,000, $5,000d. $170,000, $50,000

6. Since 1970, workplace fatalities have been reduced by: (OSHA)

a. 10% b. 25%c. 50%d. 75%

7. Occupational injury and illness rates have been declining for the past six years, dropping in ____ to the lowest level on record: (OSHA)

a. 1978 b. 1983c. 1998d. 2003

8. Nationally, nearly ______ American workers are injured every minute: (OSHA)

a. 4 b. 17c. 35d. 50

9. Nationally, almost ____ workers die each day. : (OSHA)

a. 4 b. 17c. 35d. 50

10. How many OSHA standards specifically address training requirements? (OSHA)

a. more than 20 b. more than 50c. more than 75d. more than 100

Subject Area III. Topic B. Environment


1. This Act gave the EPA authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. The Atmospheric Quality Act (AQA) of 1978b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970c. Air Quality Act (AQA) of 1956d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967

2. The Clean Air Act of 1967 gave this agency authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. The EPAb. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)c. National Geologic Survey (NGS)d. Department of Environmental Protection (DEP)

3. The Clean Air Act of 1967 gave the EPA authority to do which of the following? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. regulate the discharge of pollutants from motor vehiclesb. establish air quality standardsc. regulate the discharge of pollutants from industryd. all of the above

4. The Clean Air Act of 1970 gave the EPA additional authority to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. regulate the discharge of pollutants from motor vehiclesb. set and review National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)c. regulate the discharge of pollutants from industryd. regulate the discharge of pollutants into outdoor ambient air

5. Which of the following define maximum concentrations of certain air pollutants allowable in ambient air to protect public health and welfare? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)c. American National Ambient Air Standards (ANAAS)d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)

6. Under the Clean Air Act the EPA identified primary air quality standards for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. ozoneb. siliconc. carbon monoxided. particulate matter

7. Under the Clean Air Act the EPA identified primary air quality standards for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. sulfur dioxideb. silver monoxidec. nitrogen dioxided. lead

8. Which of the following define allowable emissions limits for various stationary sources set by the EPA? (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)


9. These standards are set by the EPA for pollutants for which no ambient air quality standards exist: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)


10. Under the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) the EPA identified standards for all of the following pollutants, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. arsenicb. benzenec. asbestosd. lead


1. Under the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) the EPA identified standards for all of the following pollutants, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. anthraxb. mercuryc. radionuclidesd. vinyl chlorides

2. This Act modified some of the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) due compensate for shifts energy sources caused by the Middle East oil embargo: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. The NESHAPs Revision Act (NRA) of 1978b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970c. Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act (ESECA) of 1974d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967

3. In 1977, Congress enacted amendments to the Clean Air Act (CAA) that resulted in all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. restrictions on new pollution sources where ambient air quality standards have not been metb. restrictions on industrial expansion to prevent deterioration in ambient air qualityc. restrictions on motor vehicle biodiesel fuel emissionsd. a and b above

4. State governments measure air quality standards and define ways to meet National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) via this plan: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. State Emergency Management Plan (EMP)b. State NAAQS Plan (SNP)c. State Implementation Plan (SIP)d. State Emergency Implementation Plan (SEIP)

5. All of the following is true concerning State Implementation Plans (SIP), EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)

a. the SIP must be developed by the EPA and state governments b. the SIP must be approved by the EPA, municipal and state governmentsc. the SIP becomes part of both state and federal law

d. the SIP can be enforced by the EPA and state regulatory agencies

6. The Clean Air Amendments of 1990 contained the largest and most complex changes to air pollutant regulations since 1970. These amendments affected all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)

a. nonattainment areas b. mobile sourcesc. air toxic chemicalsd. chemtrail pollutants


a. emissions from watercraft b. permitsc. cholorofluorocarbonsd. acid rain


a. underwater volcano emissions b. permitsc. enforcementd. acid rain

9. Which of the following is true concerning the Clean Air Amendments of 1990? (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)

a. identifies 189 air toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) b. regulates based on the maximum exposed individualc. removes the grandfather exemption limiting the need for emissions permitsd. all of the above

10. Which of the following is true concerning the Clean Air Amendments of 1990? (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)

a. identifies 189 air toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) b. regulates based on the maximum exposed individualc. removes the grandfather exemption limiting the need for emissions permitsd. all of the above


1. All of the following are true concerning the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)

a. identifies toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) b. Developing criteria is assigned to the EPAc. Its purpose is to restore and maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the Nation's watersd. States are responsible to develop water quality management programs

2. Under the Clean Water Act (CWA) of 1972, the EPA is responsible for develop criteria for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 108)

a. water quality standards b. technology-based effluent limitation guidelinesc. allowed additives control standards d. pretreatment standards

3. This system incorporates and applies effluent limitations in individual permits for municipal and industrial dischargers: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. Waterway Effluent Discharge Permit System (WEDPS) b. American Effluent Permit System (AEPS)c. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) d. North American Waterway Permit System (NAWPS)

4. In 1990, the EPA published these rules to regulate industrial facilities discharging stormwater into the waters of the United States: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. Stormwater Discharge Regulations b. American Effluent Discharge Regulationsc. National Discharge Elimination Standards d. North American Waterway Discharge Standards

5. This Act, passed in 1976, was the first statutory framework designed to provide comprehensive federal and state hazardous-waste management: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. Clean Air Act (CAA)b. Clean Water Act (CWA)c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

d. Hazardous Waste Recovery and Conservation Act (HWRCA)

6. This Act requires industry to identify and list all hazardous wastes and to note the toxicity, persistence, degradability in nature, and the potential for accumulation in tissue: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. Clean Air Act (CAA)b. Clean Water Act (CWA)c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) d. Hazardous Waste Recovery and Conservation Act (HWRCA)

7. Which of the following must be listed by industry under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. hazardous waste toxicityb. hazardous waste persistencec. hazardous waste degradability in nature d. all of the above

8. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be listed by industry, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. potential for accumulation of hazardous wastes in tissuesb. resistance of hazardous waste to controlsc. degradability of hazardous wastes in nature d. toxicity of hazardous wastes

9. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be accomplished by hazardous waste generators, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. maintain recordkeepingb. accomplish container labelingc. train hazardous waste workers d. comply with component disclosure

10. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), all of the following must be accomplished by hazardous waste generators, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. use of a manifest system to track hazardous waste movementb. report to OSHA

c. accomplish container labelingd. comply with component disclosure


1. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) regulates: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. hazardous waste generatorsb. hazardous waste treatment facilities c. hazardous waste storage facilitiesd. all of the above

2. Which of the following is not regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)? (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. hazardous waste manufacturersb. hazardous waste treatment facilities c. hazardous waste disposal facilitiesd. hazardous waste generators

3. Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), hazardous waste generators and treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities must operate under the conditions in a/an: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. hazardous waste planb. controlled environment c. RCRA Permitd. hazard communication and control plan

4. Under the Hazardous Waste and Solid Waste Amendments (HSWA), treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) facilities must: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. take corrective action for releases of hazardous wastesb. take corrective action for releases of constituents from any solid waste management unit (SMWU) c. take corrective action regardless of when the waste was placed in the SWMUd. all of the above

5. The Hazardous Waste and Solid Waste Amendments (HSWA), authorizes EPA and authorized states to issue orders requiring a firm to take corrective action when: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. a hazardous waste release occurs at a permitted facility b. a hazardous waste release occurs at a TSD facility pending permit approvalc. a hazardous waste release occurs at an interim status facility

d. all of the above

6. This law outlines how to develop and implement a program to regulate underground storage tanks (USTs) that store petroleum and other substances defined as hazardous: (NSC, APM-A&P, 109)

a. Underground Petroleum Storage Tank Amendment (UPSTA) b. National Underground Storage Tank Act (NUST)c. Subtitle I, Regulation of Underground Story Tanks (USTs)d. Underground Storage Tank Control Act (USTC)

7. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment employs all of the following strategies to protect groundwater, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110)

a. technological standards for land disposal facilities b. volunteer compliance and cooperationc. requirements for managing and treating small quantities of hazardous wasted. regulations for controlling USTs

8. The Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment employs all of the following strategies to protect groundwater, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110)

a. technological standards for land disposal facilities b. upgraded performance and design criteria for disposing solid waste in landfillsc. requirements for disposal of hazardous waste at remote locationsd. restrictions on land disposal of many untreated hazardous wastes

9. Several incidents of uncontrolled, dangerous disposal of toxic chemicals resulted in Congress passing this Act: (NSC, APM-A&P, 110)

a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)b. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA)c. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA)

d. National Hazardous Waste Recovery and Liability Act of 1988 (NHWRLA)

10. This event inspired the 1990 Clean Air Act requirement that factories and other businesses develop plans to prevent accidental releases of highly toxic chemicals: (EPA)

a. Bhopal Tragedy

b. New York Trade Center Tragedyc. Great Chicago Fired. Three Mile Island


1. This Act gave the EPA authority to establish standards related to the discharge of pollutants from motor vehicles and industry: (NSC, APM-A&P, 107)

a. The Atmospheric Quality Act (AQA) of 1978b. The Environmental Quality Control Act (EQCA) of 1970c. Air Quality Act (AQA) of 1956d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967

Subject Area III. Topic C. Ergonomics


1. Which of the following best describes carpal tunnel syndrome?

a. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammationb. Inflammation of the channel in the wristc. Raynaud's syndrome of the hand and wristd. White finger

2. Carpal tunnel syndrome include all of the following symptoms, except:

a. Numbness in the little fingerb. Pain in the wrist upon exertionc. Pain in the second and third fingerd. Inflammation and swelling of the wrist

3. Lateral epicondylitis is also called:

a. Trigger finderb. Roffer's wristc. Carpenter's elbowd. Rotator cuff

4. This agency publishes the Work Practices Guide for Manual Lifting:

a. OSHAb. ANSIc. NIOSHd. ASSE

5. An injury of the median nerve inside the wrist is known as:

a. Carpal Tunnel Syndromeb. Osteoarthritisc. DeQuarvain's Diseased. Reynold's Syndrome

6. This field of study is interested in the physical and behavioral interaction between humans and their environment on and off the job: (Brauer, p. 483)

a. Ergonomicsb. Anthropometricsc. Biomechanicsd. Biobehavioral Systems

7. The most common of the work related musculoskeletal disorders, and in economic terms, the most costly is:

a. Back painb. Carpal Tunnel Syndromec. Trigger fingerd. Tennis elbow

8. Grasping a pencil or pen between the thumb and distal joints of the fingers is referred to as:

a. Power gripb. Hook gripc. Precision gripd. Relaxed grip

9. Which grip produces the maximum force that can be developed by the hand?

a. Power gripb. Hook gripc. Precision gripd. Relaxed grip

10. What is the normal line of sight at rest?

a. 10 degrees upwardb. 10 degrees downwardc. 15 degrees upwardd. 15 degrees downward


1. The application of mechanical principles to biological problems is known as:

a. Kinesiologyb. Physiologyc. Biomechanicsd. Ergonomics

2. Ergonomics, as a field of study, is best described as: (Brauer, p. 483)

a. The science that deals with causal factorsb. The measure of negative entropy in a systemc. The study of mechanics of biological systemsd. The man-machine relationship

3. An MSD is an ergonomics acronym for:

a. Material Safety Datab. Musculoskeletal Disordersc. Machine System Designd. Muskulo-Safe Determination

4. Which of the following is most likely produced by a cumulative trauma disorder?

a. Hearing lossb. Vision lossc. Tennis elbowd. Loss of memory

5. This category of vibration is a commonly experienced by truck drivers:

a. back vibrationb. segmental vibrationc. whole-body vibrationd. neck vibration

6. Ergonomics is derived from two Greek words meaning: (Brauer, p. 483)

a. Work and Lawb. Cumulative and Traumac. Work and Diseased. Trauma and Law

7. The science of measuring the body is called:

a. physiometryb. anthropometryc. ergonomicsd. Socionoics

8. Force can be defined by all of the following, except:

a. an external loadb. expressed in newtons or poundsc. capacity to do work or cause physical changed. a vector quantity that tends to produce a deceleration

9. All of the following are considered ergonomics risk factors associated with a task, except: (NSC, APM-BIET, p.107)

a. Fitnessb. Repetitive motionc. Weightd. Point of operation

10. Which of the following is not considered in study of ergonomics?

a. Physiological demandsb. Psychological demandsc. Physical demandsd. Emotional demands


1. Work-related MSDs of the neck, shoulder, and upper limb are referred to as:

a. Cumulative trauma injuries (CTI)b. Carpal Tunnel Syndromec. Repetitive Strain Injuries (RSI)d. Upper limb syndrome

2. Which of the following is not an important ergonomics consideration?

a. Safe lift techniquesb. Repetitive motion risk factorsc. Exposure to blood-borne pathogensd. Exposure to excessive vibration or extreme temperatures

3. Which of the following is the least strategy to increase employee involvement in ergonomics?

a. Effective reportingb. Prompt responses to concernsc. Using employee ideas on program developmentd. Ignore employee concerns and ideas

4. Which of the following is not an effective manual material handling principle?

a. Lift loads between knees and shouldersb. Keep the travel distance less than 10 feetc. Twist as you lift from the floord. Keep the load close to the body

5. A proactive approach to ergonomics would emphasize:

a. reduction in injury costsb. early return to work programsc. workstation designd. aggressive accident investigation

6. Which of the following is not an effective ergonomics program policy?

a. give ergonomics efforts high priorityb. further strategic goalsc. allow full discussion and cooperationd. discourage union involvement

7. Each of the following is a way management can demonstrate commitment to an ergonomics program, except:

a. conduct awareness trainingb. encourage compliancec. bring in outside expertsd. carry out ergonomic improvements

8. Which of the strategies below are counter-productive to effective ergonomics?

a. Ignoring employees registering complaintsb. Training in ergonomic risk factor awarenessc. Sharing information and resultsd. Incentives for involvement

9. Which of the following is the least effective technique in developing concrete ergonomics solutions?

a. reviewing OSHA logsb. brainstormingc. periodic medical examsd. screening jobs for risk factors

10. If you uncover signs and symptoms of possible MSDs in your workplace, the most effective strategy would be to:

a. implement a training programb. assess for signs and symptomsc. request a confidential evaluationd. Purchase safety belts


1. Once a decision has been made to initiate an ergonomics program, what is your next step?

a. identify playersb. determine risk factorsc. determine scope of the problemd. identify costs

2. The purpose of the walk-through ergonomics observational survey is to:

a. interview safety committee membersb. detect obvious risk factorsc. score unsafe behaviors d. conduct in-depth analysis

3. The quality of checklist data collected during an ergonomics inspection is generally better when:

a. interviews cover supervisors as well as workersb. data is expressed as percentagesc. employees providing data do not feel intimidated d. persons are familiar with the job, task, or process

4. Activities requiring frequent or prolonged work can be particularly stressful in all of the following situations, except:

a. work requiring sustained bending or twistingb. work requiring sustained or repeated work above the shouldersc. work requiring sustained or repeated work at chest level d. work requiring sustained or repeated work below the knees

5. Force requirements may increase with:

a. increasing speed of movementsb. pinch grip c. decreased slipperiness d. vibration

6. To determine possible negative effects on the musculoskeletal system, research is conducted all of the following areas, except:

a. group dynamicsb. performance monitoring c. production demands d. incentive pay systems

7. An effective ergonomics job hazard analysis would never do which of the following?

a. identify conditions contributing to risk factorsb. measure and quantify ergonomic risk factors c. break down task into individual steps d. exclude employee involvement in the analysis

8. Which of the following procedures is least likely to be used for collecting information on the ergonomic components of a job?

a. videotapingb. observation c. investigation d. measurements

9. Which of the following procedures is least effective proactive strategy for collecting information on the ergonomic components of a job?

a. biomechanical calculationsb. physiological measures c. investigation d. interviews

10. Jobs in which current cases have been identified should receive ____________ attention, followed by those in which past records have noted a high incidence or ________ of MSDs despite the lack of current cases.

a. planned, probability b. some, number c. immediate, severity d. primary, type


1. Priority for ergonomics job analysis and intervention should be given to those jobs:

a. employees complain of discomfort b. in which most people are affected c. significant risk factors exist d. all of the above

2. Which of the three ergonomics control strategies is most effective in eliminating risk factors?

a. Technical Controls b. Engineering Controls c. Work Practice Controls d. Interim Measures

3. Which ergonomics control strategy below has as its primary purpose to limit exposure to the hazard?

a. Technical Controls b. Engineering Controls c. Work Practice Controls d. Interim Measures

4. Which of the following is not considered a component of proper computer workstation design to maintain proper posture?

a. the printer b. the work surface c. the keyboard d. the chair

5. Effective procedures should incorporate each of the following ergonomics goals, except:

a. decrease recovery time b. maintain neutral postures c. reduce duration of exposure d. reduce frequency of exposure

6. What is the purpose of the testing and evaluation phase of an ergonomics program implementation?

a. verifies duties and responsibilities b. verifies proposed solutions c. identifies additional enhancements d. identifies additional modifications

7. What of the following is not considered a purpose of the follow-up ergonomics evaluation?

a. new risk factors do not exist b. controls reduce risk factors c. controls eliminate risk factors d. controls are identified

8. Long-term indicators of the effectiveness of an ergonomics program can include:

a. reduced severity rates b. reduced incidence rates c. increased product quality d. reduced productivity

9. In general, the medical management process in an ergonomics program emphasizes the prevention of impairment and disability through all of the following, except:

a. Early return to work b. Prompt treatment c. Early detection d. Timely recovery

10. It is not appropriate for employers to provide ergonomics training to employees regarding which of the following?

a. signs and symptoms of MSDs b. methods of self-treating MSDs c. procedures for reporting MSDs d. importance of reporting MSDs


1. It is not appropriate for employees or supervisors to:

a. be aware of signs and symptoms of MSDs b. diagnose signs and symptoms c. report signs and symptoms of MSDs d. thank employees for reporting possible MSDs

2. One of the best ways for a health care provider to become familiar with jobs and job tasks is by:

a. formal communication b. periodic plant tours c. medical exams d. accident record reviews

3. The least effective goal of ergonomics training is to enable managers, supervisors, and employees to do all of the following except:

a. Comply with mandatory OSHA rules b. Identify job tasks that may increase risk of MSDs c. Recognize signs and symptoms of MSDs d. Develop control and prevention strategies

4. One of the primary objectives for ergonomics awareness training is to recognize workplace risk factors for _________ and understand general methods for controlling them:

a. environmental injuries b. musculoskeletal disorders c. psychosocial factors d. ergonomic awareness

5. Musculoskeletal disorders can result when there is a mismatch between the physical _______ of the job and the physical ________ of the worker:

a. demands, requirements b. requirements, capacity c. requirements, requirements d. demands, demands

6. Workers are likely to develop MSDs when they:

a. work in an awkward position b. use a great deal of force c. repeatedly lift heavy objects d. Any of the above

7. Which of the following is not considered one the three areas within which ergonomics risk factors exist?

a. the worker b. the procedure c. the task d. the environment

8. Musculoskeletal disorders are among the most prevalent medical problems in the U.S., affecting _____ of the entire population:

a. 3 percent b. 7 percent c. 40 percent d. 72 percent

9. MSDs include a group of conditions that involve all of the following, except:

a. nerves b. tendons c. muscles d. skin

10. All of these factors may contribute to MSDs, except:

a. vibration b. unique motions c. awkward postures d. forceful exertions


1. Which of the following is not considered a critical risk factor leading to cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs) as well as other musculoskeletal disorders?

a. force b. duration c. capacity d. frequency

2. By the age _____, most people have had their first episode of back pain:

a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 55

3. The amount of effort in performing a task depends on a number of factors. Which of the factors below is not one of those factors?

a. Type of grip b. Object weight c. Object dimensions d. Fatigue

4. The amount of effort in performing a task depends on a number of factors. Which of the factors below is not one of those factors?

a. repetition b. duration c. environment d. slipperiness

5. All of the following are common locations of injury due to exerting excessive force, except:

a. neck/shoulder b. foot/ankle c. upper back d. wrist/hand

6. What condition exists when any part of your body presses against an external object and the resulting sustained force has caused too much mechanical stress on tissues?

a. Mechanical trauma b. Recovery trauma c. Force trauma d. Contact trauma

7. This grip strategy to manipulate objects requires much greater muscle strength so it is more likely going to cause an injury:

a. pinch grip b. power grip c. sustained grip d. intermittent grip

8. This form of exertion combines force, posture, and duration to create a condition that quickly fatigues our muscles which increases the chances of acquiring a cumulative trauma disorder (CTD):

a. intermittent exertion b. repetitive exertion c. static exertion d. forceful exertion

9. This term describes a measure of the rest (or low stress activity) period available to the muscle group between similar exertions:

a. rest period b. recovery time c. degree of recovery d. muscle group rest time

10. Awkward postures typically include all of the following, except:

a. squatting b. working overhead c. bending d. standing


1. ____ is the speed at which the body part moves and ____ is the rate of change of the speed at which the body part moves:

a. angular velocity, acceleration b. acceleration, angular velocity c. angular acceleration, velocity d. velocity, angular acceleration

2. Heat stress can result in:

a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat cramps c. Dehydration d. All of the above

3. Heat stress is made even more dangerous in the presence of ______ due to the reduced ability of the body to cool itself:

a. low humidity b. high humidity c. greater exertion d. higher force

4. This condition may result if the worker is exposed to an environment so cold that the body cannot maintain adequate deep core temperature:

a. hyperthermia b. hypothermia c. hyperthermitis d. hypothermitis

5. Which of the following is not one of the symptoms brought on by cold stress?

a. pulmonary pain b. dilated pupils c. ventricular fibrillation d. shivering

6. The body's response to vertical vibration will be greatest between ____ Hz:

a. 2 and 4 b. 4 and 8 c. 8 and 10 d. 10 and 12

7. Factors influencing the adequacy and effectiveness of illumination include the following, except:

a. freedom from diffusion b. freedom from glare c. freedom from concentration d. freedom from glare

8. To create a healthy work environment that reduces the risk of ergonomics injuries, management should do all of the following, except:

a. understand roles b. allow participation c. threaten for noncompliance d. conduct adequate training

9. Which of the following are least likely to result in work-related MSDs?

a. intensified workload b. limited job control c. monotonous work d. poor labor-management relations

10. For proper work surface design, all of these factors should be considered, except:

a. deep enough b. wide enough c. high enough d. flat enough

Subject Area III. Topic D. Toxicology


1. What term refers to the science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances? (Plog, 123)

a. bacteriologyb. epidemiologyc. toxicologyd. virology

2. A toxic effect is: (Plog, 123)

a. any reversible noxious effect on the bodyb. any permanent noxious effect on the bodyc. any irreversible noxious effect on the bodyd. a and c above

3. A toxic effect is the result of: (Plog, 123)

a. contact with a harmful substanceb. exposure to harmful substancesc. interaction with a harmful substanced. influence of a harmful substance

4. According to Plog, toxic effects may be the result of all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 123)

a. contact with a harmful substanceb. side effects of medicationc. side effects of vaccinationsd. contact with biological mutagens

5. The capacity of a chemical to harm or injure a living organism by other than mechanical means is called: (Plog, 123)

a. doseb. lethalityc. toxicityd. carcinogenicity

6. The toxicity of a chemical depends on: (Plog, 123)

a. the doseb. degree of exposurec. its lethalityd. acute threshold

7. An important responsibility of the industrial toxicologist is to: (Plog, 124)

a. define how substance much is too muchb. consider types of exposurec. consider effects of substances on workersd. all of the above

8. What term is used by toxicologists to describe the ability of a substance to produce an unwanted effect when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body? (Plog, 124)

a. exposureb. toxicityc. hazardd. dose

9. What term is used by toxicologists to describe the probability that a chemical will reach a sufficient concentration in the body at a certain site to cause an unwanted effect? (Plog, 124)


10. Factors that contribute to determining the degree of hazard include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)

a. route of entryb. dosagec. environmental variablesd. exposure


1. This term is commonly used by toxicologists in comparing one chemical agent with another: (Plog, 124)


2. A chemical stimulus can be considered to have produced a toxic effect when it satisfies all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)

a. an observable physiological deviation produced in any organb. the stimulus has changed chemical markersc. the observed change can be repeatedd. the stimulus has impaired a protective mechanism


a. the effect is unique and specificb. the effect is reversible or attenuated when stimulus is removedc. the effect does not occur or is infrequent without a stimulusd. the observation is noted and reproducible by others


a. physiological change reduces the efficiency of an organ or functionb. the effect is reversible or attenuated when stimulus is removedc. the effect does not occur or is infrequent without a stimulusd. the observation is unique to the observer

5. Which of the following statements is true regarding the toxicity of a chemical? (Plog, 124)

a. Toxic effects are predictable and constantb. Toxicity does not vary under normal conditionsc. Toxicity is not a physical constantd. Toxicity is a physical constant, similar to vapor pressure

6. In addition to determining toxicity, evaluation of a chemical hazard involves all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)

a. duration of exposureb. amount of exposurec. physiological characteristics of the chemicald. conditions under which exposure occurs

7. In addition to determining toxicity, evaluation of a chemical hazard involves all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)

a. duration of exposureb. amount of the hazardc. physical characteristics of the substanced. conditions under which exposure occurs

8. All of the following may have a significant influence the toxic potency of a substance, EXCEPT: (Plog, 124)

a. toxic content of the substanceb. effects of other substances in combined exposurec. physical characteristics of the substanced. conditions under which exposure occurs

9. This physical characteristic of a chemical substance may indicate its potential as an inhalation hazard: (Plog, 124)

a. melting pointb. vapor pressurec. boiling pointd. temperature

10. This is a primary source of information on the hazardous properties of chemical products: (Plog, 146)

a. primary container label from the manufacturerb. OSHA's Chemical Hazards Information System (OCHIS)c. NIOSH Chemical Hazards Databased. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)


1. What is the term used to describe an injury that results from direct tissue contact with an irritant? (Plog, 124)

a. local injuryb. system injuryc. direct injuryd. primary injury

2. Injury to the lining of the trachea and lungs from inhaling toxic vapors is an example of this kind of injury: (Plog, 124)

a. local injuryb. system injuryc. direct injuryd. primary injury

3. For industrial exposures, this route of entry is considered most important because they are the most common: (Plog, 125)

a. ingestionb. absorptionc. injectiond. inhalation

4. Only particles smaller than this are likely to enter an alveolar sac: (Plog, 125)

a. .5µmb. 1µmc. 5µmd. 10µm

5. Contact of a substance with skin results in all of the following possible actions, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)

a. The skin can act as an effective barrierb. The substance can cause tissue irritation and/or destructionc. The substance can result in unusual behavioral actionsd. The substance can cause skin sensitization

6. Contact of a substance with skin results in all of the following possible actions, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)

a. The skin will prevent exposureb. The substance can cause tissue irritation and/or destructionc. The substance can penetrate the skin and enter the bloodstreamd. The substance can cause skin sensitization

7. The rate of cutaneous absorption of some organic compounds will vary with: (Plog, 125)

a. activity and locationb. skin type and activityc. temperature and perspirationd. temperature and duration

8. What properties of a material mainly determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin? (Plog, 125)

a. physiologicalb. physiochemicalc. physicald. physiosystemic

9. Important properties of a material that determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)

a. pHb. extent of ionizationc. solubilityd. location

10. Important properties of a material that determine whether a material is absorbed through the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 125)

a. humidityb. extent of ionizationc. solubilityd. molecular size


1. Relative to inhalation toxicity, oral toxicity is generally: (Plog, 125)

a. higherb. about the samec. the samed. lower

2. For a given substance, oral toxicity is generally _____ then inhalation toxicity: (Plog, 125)

a. higherb. about the samec. the samed. lower

3. This is an important systemic defense process to reduce the toxic effects of a chemical: (Plog, 126)

a. lymphatic systemb. remunerationc. detoxificationd. deterioration

4. All of the following occur as part of the body's detoxification process, EXCEPT: (Plog, 126)

a. the liver degrades the toxinb. the toxin is converted to a non-toxic water-soluble compound c. attack by macrophagesd. transportation to kidneys and excreted

5. Which of the following is not an area into which a toxic substance may be injected? (Plog, 126)

a. the bloodstreamb. the duodenal sac c. the peritoneal cavityd. the pleural cavity

6. There is increased attention to prevention of skin puncture and injection injuries due to all of the following bloodborne pathogens, EXCEPT: (Plog, 126)

a. pneumococcus b. HIV c. hepatitis Cd. hepatitis B

7. All toxicological considerations are based on the: (Plog, 126)

a. dosage-toxic constant b. dose-response relationship c. toxic-absorption constantd. toxicological relationship

8. What is the point on a dose-response curve in which a lethal response occurs to half of the animals administered a chemical agent? (Plog, 126)

a. LD0 b. LD5.0 c. LD50d. LD100

9. Which of the following are the two variables used to determine the dose-response relationship? (Plog, 126)

a. concentration (C) and frequency (F) of exposure b. temperature (T) and duration (D) of exposure c. duration (D) and frequency (F) of exposured. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure

10. Regulatory exposure limits are set such that these two variables are theoretically below levels that produce injury: (Plog, 126)

a. concentration (C) and frequency (F) of exposure b. temperature (T) and duration (D) of exposure c. duration (D) and frequency (F) of exposured. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure


1. What is the term used to describe the relationship between the dose of a chemical and the response produced in a biological system? (Plog, 126)

a. dose-response relationship b. toxic potency c. threshold relationshipd. dosage threshold

2. The harmfulness of a material depends on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 127)

a. chemical composition b. type and degree of exposurec. route of entryd. fate of the material in the body

3. Which of the following can be calculated when death is the only variable being measured in response to exposure to a toxic chemical? (Plog, 127)

a. lethal dose (LD) b. fatality rate (FR)c. exposure-dose relationship (EDR)d. dose-response relationship (DRR)

4. This designation is defined as the lowest concentration of toxic chemical that will kill all exposed animals: (Plog, 127)

a. LD0 b. LD5.0 c. LD50d. LD100

5. If the slope of a dose-response curve is steep, the margin of safety is: (Plog, 127)

a. great b. slight c. not determinedd. constant

6. The relationship between slope and margin of safety on a dose-response curve is: (Plog, 127)

a. directly proportional b. inversely proportional c. not proportionald. unpredictable

7. The designation used for airborne materials to indicate the dose-response relationship is: (Plog, 127)

a. dose-duration level (DL) b. exposure-dose concentration (EDC)c. lethal dose (LD)d. lethal concentration (LC)

8. The duration of exposure to a toxic chemical through inhalation has what kind of effect on lethal concentration (LC)? (Plog, 127)

a. no effect b. usually little effectc. some effectd. possible significant effect

9. When evaluating the response of exposure to a toxic substance, it's important to examine the organs removed from exposed animals for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 128)

a. reveals the site of action b. reveals the route of entryc. reveals the mode of actiond. reveals the cause of death

10. The toxic action of substances can be divided into which two categories? (Plog, 128)

a. predictable, unpredictable b. variable, constantc. expected, unexpectedd. acute, chronic


1. Which of the following terms describes short-term high concentrations and immediate results such as illness, irritation or death? (Plog, 129)

a. acute effectsb. chronic effectsc. stat effectsd. prolonged effects

2. These exposures are typically sudden and severe and involve rapid absorption of the offending material: (Plog, 129)

a. acute b. chronic c. physical d. environmental

3. Which of the following terms describes long-term symptoms of disease or their frequent recurrence? (Plog, 129)

a. acute effectsb. chronic effectsc. stat effectsd. prolonged effects

4. These exposures result in symptoms that usually last for years: (Plog, 129)

a. acute b. chronic c. physical d. environmental

5. Which of the following is not one of the three general classes of air contaminants? (Plog, 129)

a. irritants b. asphyxiants c. CNS depressants d. avoidants

6. These toxic substances interfere with oxygenation of the tissues and affected individual may suffocate: (Plog, 131)


7. These toxic substances can produce unconsciousness by preventing the brain and spinal cord from doing their normal job: (Plog, 132)


8. This term describes any agent that can produce or accelerate the development of malignant or potentially malignant tumors or malignant neoplastic proliferation of cells: (Plog, 134)

a. mutagen b. carcinogen c. teratogen d. osteogen

9. This term describes any agent that affects the genetic material of the exposed organism, and can cause cancer, birth defects, or undesirable effects in later generations: (Plog, 135)

a. mutagen b. carcinogen c. teratogen d. paragen

10. This term describes any agent that interferes with normal embryonic development, and may produce malformations of the fetus without inducing damage to the mother: (Plog, 136)

a. mutagen b. carcinogen c. teratogen d. paragen


1. Which agency administers the Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976? (Plog, 139)

a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. EPA c. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) d. Department of Labor (DOL)

2. NIOSH develops this and it represents a time-weighted average (TWA) concentration for up to a 10-hour workday during a 40-hour workweek: (Plog, 140)

a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL)c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)

3. OSHA sets this regulatory limit which is based on an 8-hour time weighted average (TWA) exposure: (OSHA)


4. This regulatory limit on the amount or concentration of a substance in the air. They may also contain a skin designation and they are enforceable: (OSHA)


5. These values are issued by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists and are the most widely accepted: (Plog, 140)

a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV) b. Recommended Exposure Limits (REL)c. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI) d. Permissible Exposure Limits (PEL)

6. Where are the measurements to determine Threshold Limit Values (TLV)? (Plog, 140)

a. within eight feet of the workzone b. generally where work is being conductedc. within the breathing zone of a worker d. anywhere in the workplace

7. Although this measurement does not necessarily predict the amount of a substance that will be absorbed, it does measure the amount that can be inhaled during a workday: (Plog, 141)

a. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) b. Time Weighted Average (TWA)c. Ceiling Value (CV) d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)

8. What is the usual span of time over which TWA measurements are taken? (Plog, 141)

a. 2 hours b. 6 hoursc. 8 hours d. 10 hours

9. What is the designation given by the TLV committee that indicates it is not advisable to permit concentrations substantially above the recommended TWA? (Plog, 141)

a. A b. Bc. C d. D

10. This designation indicates the level at which a slightly higher will cause irritation by the most sensitive individuals: (Plog, 141)

a. upper control limit (UCL) b. self-rescue emergency exposure limit (SREC)c. ceiling value (C) d. lower control limit (LCL)

Practice Questions - Bank 8 1. TLV values for suspended particulates are expressed as: (Plog, 141)

a. parts per million (PPM) b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)c. milligrams per cubic liter (mg/L3) d. parts per million per cubic meter (ppm/m3)

2. TLV values for gases and vapors are expressed as: (Plog, 141)

a. parts per million (PPM) b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)c. milligrams per cubic liter (mg/L3) d. parts per million per cubic meter (ppm/m3)

3. When two or more hazardous substances that act on the same body organ system are present, what primary measure should be considered? (Plog, 142)

a. their combined effect b. their additive effectc. their separate effects d. their multiplied effects

4. When using the formula in determining combined effects of hazardous substances, if the sum of the fractions (observed concentration each substance divided by its TLV) is greater than one, then the TLV for the combined substances has: (Plog, 142)

a. not been reached b. been reachedc. been exceeded d. been multiplied

5. TLV values are based on all of the following data, EXCEPT: (Plog, 143)

a. labor-management negotiation b. animal toxicological studiesc. morbidity and mortality data d. environmental data

6. This sampling method is used to test for levels of metabolites of toxic agents: (Plog, 145)

a. Blood analysisb. Urine testsc. Breath analysisd. Stomach content analysis

7. This sampling method is considered the best method to test for exposure to lead: (Plog, 145)

a. Blood analysisb. Urine testsc. Breath analysisd. Stomach content analysis

8. Biological sampling data may be used: (Plog, 144-146)

a. as a substitute for air samplingb. in addition to air samplingc. only if air sampling data isn't available d. instead of air sampling

9. This is a primary source of information on the hazardous properties of chemical products: (Plog, 146)

a. primary container label from the manufacturerb. OSHA's Chemical Hazards Information System (OCHIS)c. NIOSH Chemical Hazards Databased. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

10. The ACGIH has adopted a set of advisory biological limit values called the: (Plog, 146)

a. Biological Limit Values (BLV)b. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI)c. ACGIH Chemical Hazards Databased. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)


1. This designation is used to indicate the lowest published lethal concentration: (Brauer, 365)

a. LDb. LCc. TLDd. TLC

2. This designation is used to indicate the lethal concentration for inhalation of toxic substances: (Brauer, 365)


3. This designation is used to indicate the lethal dose by ingestion, injection, or other means of contact with toxic substances: (Brauer, 365)


4. This designation is used to indicate the lowest published lethal dose: (Brauer, 365)


5. If 50% of the test animal population died as a result of contact with a toxic substance through inhalation, the designation used to indicate this data would be: (Brauer, 365)

a. LD50b. LC50c. TLD50d. TLC50

6. If 50% of the test animal population died as a result of contact with a toxic substance through ingestion or injection, the designation used to indicate this data would be: (Brauer, 365)

a. LD50b. LC50c. TLD50d. TLC50

7. The period of time between exposure with a toxic substance and the first signs of the effects of that exposure is called the: (Brauer, 365)

a. dormant periodb. toxic delayc. latency periodd. response delay

8. When a pharmaceutical substance appears to have high benefit and relatively little risk, this agency may approve testing on human subjects: (Brauer, 365)

a. CDCb. OSHAc. NIHd. FDA

9. When a pharmaceutical substance appears to have high benefit and relatively little risk, this agency may approve testing on human subjects: (Brauer, 365)

a. CDCb. OSHAc. NIHd. FDA

10. Toxicity studies on animal species include all of the following factors, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 365)

a. the physiology of species variesb. meaningfulness is the same regardless of speciesc. standard tests and methods help estimate effectsd. controlled breeding improves reliability of results


1. Air samples are inherently problematic for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 141)

a. it is difficult to obtain a representative sample b. they are difficult to schedule into the normal workdayc. the extent of absorption is difficult to determine d. samples may be accidentally contaminated

2. Air samples are inherently problematic for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 141)

a. it is difficult to obtain a representative sample b. misleading information due to variation in particlesc. the extent of absorption is difficult to determine d. cooperation by workers may not occur

Subject Area III. Topic E. Epidemiology


1. Which of the following is not one of the three types of epidemiological data? (Plog, 138)

a. Descriptiveb. Retrospectivec. Prospectived. Proactive

2. These epidemiological studies identify a change or difference in the prevalence of a disease in a subgroup of the population: (Plog, 138)

a. Descriptive studiesb. Retrospective studiesc. Prospective studiesd. Proactive studies

3. These epidemiological studies reveal a relationship between a chemical and a certain effect caused by exposure that occurred months or years before the initiation of data collection: (Plog, 138)

a. Descriptive or cross sectional studies b. Retrospective or control group studiesc. Prospective or cohort studiesd. Proactive or reactive studies

4. These epidemiological studies can define more precisely the time relationship and the magnitude of risk: (Plog, 138)


5. These epidemiological studies are present and future continuing studies that measure health effects as the exposures occur in work areas: (Plog, 138)


6. Analysis that reveals the relationship between time of occurrence of an adverse effect and age at the time of first exposure: (Plog, 138)

a. Descriptive analysisb. Retrospective analysisc. Prospective analysisd. Epidemiological analysis

7. What should the removal of a chemical from the environment be followed by: (Plog, 138)

a. documentation that the chemical has been safely removedb. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effectc. assurance that the chemical will not be reintroducedd. public relations campaign

8. What should the removal of a chemical from the environment be followed by: (Plog, 138)

a. documentation that the chemical has been safely removedb. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effectc. assurance that the chemical will not be reintroducedd. public relations campaign

9. Which of the following is not considered one of the three primary reasons for underreporting of work-associated infections? (Plog, 406)

a. employee fear of reportingb. issues of liabilityc. rewards for underreportingd. employer refusal to report

10. Surveys have revealed that the most common routes of exposure to be all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 406)

a. percutaneous inoculationb. inhalation of aerosols generated by work practicesc. ingestion of contaminated foodd. contact between hands and contaminated material


1. Surveys have revealed that the most common routes of exposure to be all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 406)

a. subcutaneous absorptionb. inhalation of aerosols generated by accidentsc. ingestion of contaminated materiald. contact between mucous membranes and contaminated material

2. Studies indicate that people engaged in these activities have acquired the greatest number of infections: (Plog, 406)

a. constructionb. healthcarec. researchd. agriculture

3. Which one of the following is not one of the most frequently reported laboratory-acquired infections, according to the Pike studies? (Plog, 406)

a. brucellosisb. Q feverc. hepatitisd. HIV

4. Which of the following infections is an emerging virus found in the workplace? (Plog, 406)

a. brucellosisb. Q feverc. hepatitisd. HIV

5. This method of evaluating the nature and severity of hazards reviews literature of a population-based research that may provide information about adverse health effects not yet noticed in a small work force: (Plog, 454)

a. Process or operation analysisb. Variability of responsec. Epidemiological and risk assessmentd. Interviews and maintenance activities

6. According to Leon Gordis, each of the following is an important objective of the science of epidemiology, EXCEPT: (Gordis, 4)

a. To provide a foundation for developing regulationsb. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease,c. Determine the extent to which the disease if found in the workplaced. Evaluate the degree to which occupational disease impacts productivity


a. To determine effects of toxins on control populations of animalsb. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease,c. Determine the extent to which the disease if found in the workplaced. Evaluate existing and new therapeudic and preventive measures


a. To study the natural history and prognosis of a diseaseb. To discover the etiology of an occupational disease,c. Determine the extent to which the animals mirror human etiologyd. Evaluate existing and new therapeutic and preventive measures

Subject Area III. Topic F. Industrial Hygiene


1. Industrial hygiene includes the development of corrective measures in order to control health hazards by reducing or eliminating: (Plog, 4)

a. injuriesb. exposuresc. hazardsd. risks

2. Industrial hygiene exposure control measures may include all of the following, except: (Plog, 4)

a. substitution of toxicsb. ventilationc. changing work proceduresd. rule enforcement

3. Industrial hygiene exposure control measures may include all of the following, except: (Plog, 4)

a. trainingb. ventilationc. changing work proceduresd. personal protective equipment

4. An effective industrial hygiene program involves: (Plog, 4)

a. sound claims managementb. anticipation of health hazardsc. evaluation and measurementd. hazard control

5. These hazards arise from excessive airborne concentrations of mists, vapors, gases, or solids in the form of dusts or mists: (Plog, 7)

a. chemical hazardsb. biological hazardsc. ergonomic hazardsd. physical hazards

6. These hazards include excessive levels of non-ionizing and ionizing radiations, noise, vibration and extremes of temperature and pressure: (Plog, 7)


7. These hazards are any living organism or its properties that can cause an adverse response in humans: (Plog, 7)


8. These hazards include improperly designed tools, work areas, or work procedures: (Plog, 7)


9. The effects of noise on humans include all of the following, except: (Plog, 11)

a. psychological effectsb. interference with communicationsc. physiological effectsd. physical effects

10. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11)

a. variation in receptivityb. total energy of the soundc. frequency distribution of the soundd. total duration of exposure


1. Which of the following is not considered a factor that can influence the effect of noise exposure? (Plog, 11)

a. variation in individual susceptibilityb. intermittent energy of the soundc. length of employment in the noise environmentd. total duration of exposure

2. Which of the following is not a nontechnical guideline to determine whether the work area has excessive noise levels? (Plog, 11-12)

a. Is it necessary to speak loudly or shout into the ear?b. Have employees complained of ringing in their ears after work?c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs or muffs?d. Do employees complain that speech or music is muffled?

3. Which of the following is one of the first signs of oxygen deficiency? (Plog, 23)

a. increased heart beatb. dizzinessc. increased breathing rated. decreased focus

4. To produce an index of general contamination the industrial hygienist take: (Plog, 27)

a. area samples at fixed locationsb. samples taken by following the operator c. samples from various non-fixed locationsd. samples located throughout a process

5. What is a finely divided liquid suspended in the atmosphere? (Plog, 22)

a. mistb. smokec. gasd. aerosol

6. What is the 8-hour TWA limit for noise exposure? (CFR 1910.95 Plog, 12)

a. 80 dBAb. 85 dBAc. 90 dBAd. 95 dBA

7. What is the 4-hour TWA limit for noise exposure? (CFR 1910.95, Plog, 12)

a. 80 dBAb. 85 dBAc. 90 dBAd. 95 dBA

8. What instrument is used to measure electric fields at frequencies above 100 kHz: (Plog, 292)

a. magnets resonance meterb. dipole antennac. multi-meterd. radio frequency detector

9. What is the employer required to do first if permissible limits for noise exposure are exceeded? (Plog, 12)

a. initiate a hearing conservation programb. use engineering and administrative controlsc. ensure personal protective equipment is usedd. limit work near the source of exposure

10. Dust particles more than this size usually do not remain airborne: (Plog, 22)

a. 1 µmb. 5 µmc. 10 µmd. 15 µm


1. What is the employer required to do first if engineering and administrative controls fail to adequately reduce exposure to sound? (Plog, 12)

a. initiate a hearing conservation programb. control duration of exposurec. ensure personal protective equipment is providedd. limit work near the source of exposure

2. The capacity of a material to produce injury or harm when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body is defined as: (Plog, 11)

a. toxicityb. severityc. exposured. hazard

3. Controlling exposure to electric fields may be accomplished by: (Plog, 285)

a. placing an ungrounded resistance between the field and personb. placing a grounded resistance between the field and personc. placing a grounded conductor between the field and persond. placing an ungrounded conductor between the field and person

4. This form of unwanted vibration conducted through solids, liquids, or gases is referred to as: (Plog, 11)

a. hertzb. hard rockc. frequencyd. noise

5. Biological effects of optical radiation result from: (Plog, 296)

a. thermal and photochemical mechanismsb. mechanical and kinetic mechanismsc. ionizing and non-ionizing mechanismsd. frequency and duration mechanisms

6. All of the following factors can influence the effect of noise exposure, except: (Plog, 11)

a. total time since exposure occurredb. total daily duration of exposurec. total energy of the soundd. frequency distribution of the sound

7. This condition is caused by exposure to an environment in which the body is unable to cool itself sufficiently? (Plog, 12)

a. heatstrokeb. heat stressc. heat exhaustiond. heat cramps

8. What instrument is used to measure electric fields at frequencies above 100 kHz: (Plog, 292)

a. magnets resonance meterb. dipole antennac. multi-meterd. radio frequency detector

9. All of the following factors can influence the effect of noise exposure, except: (Plog, 11)

a. total time since exposure occurredb. total daily duration of exposurec. total energy of the soundd. frequency distribution of the sound

10. All of the following are factors to consider for radiation safety, except: (Plog, 14)

a. potential for damage to living tissueb. the different kinds of radiationc. ways radiation can present a hazardd. sources of radiation


1. These are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature and pressure: (Plog, 23)

a. vaporsb. smokec. gassesd. aerosols

2. The harmfulness of a material depends on all of the following, except: (Plog, 127)

a. chemical compositionb. type and rate of exposurec. fate of the material in the bodyd. half-life of the chemical

3. Biological effects of optical radiation result from: (Plog, 296)

a. thermal and photochemical mechanismsb. mechanical and kinetic mechanismsc. ionizing and non-ionizing mechanismsd. frequency and duration mechanisms

4. All of the following are factors to consider for radiation safety, except: (Plog, 14)

a. potential for damage to living tissueb. the different kinds of radiationc. ways radiation can present a hazardd. sources of radiation

5. All of the following are one of the five types of radioactivity, except: (Plog, 14)

a. alpha-particlesb. beta-radiationc. charlie-wavesd. gamma-rays

6. The dose rate, or the rate at which energy is transferred to tissue is called the: (Plog, 288)

a. basic absorption rate (BAR)b. average absorption rate (AAR)c. specific absorption rate (SAR)d. technical absorption rate (TAR)

7. Occupational dermatitis can be caused by all of the following, except: (Plog, 28)

a. chemical agentsb. biological agents c. plant poisonsd. psychosocial environment

8. All of the following are one of the five types of radioactivity, except: (Plog, 14)

a. alpha-particlesb. beta-radiationc. delta-wavesd. neutrons

9. Which of the following is not a part of an electromagnetic device? (Plog, 279)

a. receiverb. transmission pathc. sourced. output

10. Radioactive material can get inside the body through all of the following pathways, except: (Plog, 14)

a. inhalationb. ingestionc. absorptiond. penetration


1. This meter is used to measure beta-, gamma-, and x-rays: (Plog, 15)

a. radmetersb. Geiger-Muller c. Geigle-Muellerd. Dosimeters

2. A film badge used to measure accumulated amounts of radiation is called a: (Plog, 15)

a. radmeterb. Geiger-Muller c. Geigle-Muellerd. Dosimeters

3. Which of the following strategies for controlling occupational health hazards serves to reduce or eliminate exposure to the hazard? (Plog, 29)

a. Inspections and auditsb. Engineering controls c. Administrative controlsd. Personal Protective Equipment

4. This radiation is so weak it can not penetrate paper: (Plog, 15)

a. alpha-particlesb. beta-radiationc. gamma-raysd. neutrons

5. The action of a substance can be arbitrarily divided into which two effects? (Plog, 128)

a. acute and chronicb. lethal and nonlethalc. expected and unexpectedd. minor and major

6. The harmful effects of non-ionizing radiation on the body depend largely on: (Plog, 15)

a. frequencyb. durationc. intensityd. variation

7. Substituting or replacing a toxic material with a harmless one is a very practical: (Plog, 30)

a. industrial controlb. engineering control c. administrative controld. technical control

8. This invisible low frequency radiation, found in radar, communications, cooking, and diathermy applications is called: (Plog, 15)

a. ultravioletb. microwavec. laserd. infrared

9. This invisible low frequency radiation cannot penetrate below the superficial layer of the skin: (Plog, 15)


10. This form of radiation can be found around electric arcs and requires opaque shielding: (Plog, 16)



1. This form of coherent radiation is produced by a single frequency: (Plog, 16)


2. This predecessor to the laser emits microwaves instead of coherent light: (Plog, 16)

a. multiplexb. microwavec. maserd. ultrazer

3. This body organ is most vulnerable to injury by laser: (Plog, 16)

a. earb. eyec. prostated. skin

4. These body parts are all vulnerable to hyperbaric pressure, except: (Plog, 17)

a. earb. sinusesc. teethd. skin

5. Unequal distribution of pressure can cause this form of tissue damage: (Plog, 16)

a. barotraumab. hyperbariac. baroitisd. hyperbaroemia

6. When employees are subjected to sound that exceeds permissible limits, what must the employer do in response? (Plog, 12)

a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposureb. ensure employees use proper personal protective equipmentc. schedule employees to reduce exposure to noise levelsd. change work procedures to keep employees away from the source

7. Which of the following conditions may exist due to worker exposure to hyperbaric atmospheres? (Plog, 17)

a. the bendsb. pain and congestion in the earsc. partial hearing lossd. any of the above

8. All of the following are typical entry routes of chemical compounds, except: (Plog, 21)

a. inhalationb. absorptionc. ingestiond. penetration

9. All of the following types of chemical airborne contaminants may enter the body via inhalation, absorption or ingestion, except: (Plog, 21)

a. mistsb. allergensc. gassesd. dusts

10. All of the following types of chemical airborne contaminants may enter the body via inhalation, absorption or ingestion, except: (Plog, 21)

a. vaporsb. microbesc. gassesd. fumes


1. Solid particles generated by handling, crushing, grinding, impact, detonation, and decrepitation are called: (Plog, 21)

a. vaporsb. particulatesc. mistsd. dusts

2. Which of the following describes the diameter of a dust particle? (Plog, 21)

a. 0.1-10 µmb. 0.1-15 µmc. 0.1-20 µmd. 0.1-25 µm

3. These are formed when the material from a volatized solid condenses in cool air: (Plog, 22)

a. vaporsb. mistsc. gassesd. fumes

4. These consist of carbon or soot particles less and result from the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials: (Plog, 22)

a. vaporsb. smokec. gassesd. fumes

5. The strength of a magnetic field and the strength of the electric field are related to each other, and the ratio between the two is set according to: (Plog, 277)

a. Hertz's Lawb. Ohm's Lawc. Faraday's Lawd. Darwin's Law

6. These liquid droplets or solid particles remain dispersed in air for a prolonged period of time: (Plog, 22)

a. vaporsb. smokec. gassesd. aerosols

7. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by the condensation of liquids from a vapor back to the liquid state, or by breaking up of a liquid into a dispersed state: (Plog, 22)

a. mistsb. smokec. gassesd. aerosols

8. What is a formless fluid that expands to occupy the space or enclosure in which they are confined? (Plog, 22)

a. mistb. smokec. gasd. aerosol

9. Respiratory hazards can be broken down into which two main groups? (Plog, 23)

a. Atmospheric pressureb. Oxygen deficiencyc. Air that contains harmful or toxic contaminantsd. b and c above

10. What is the normal oxygen level of normal air at sea level? (Plog, 23)



1. Which of the following is not one of the three general categories of airborne contaminants that may adversely affect the lungs? (Plog, 24)

a. toxic mists affecting upper area of the lungb. toxic vapors and gases that affect lung tissuec. toxic aerosols or gases that pass through the lungs and affect other organsd. particulate aerosols deposited in the lungs

2. This exposure guideline established by the ACGIH for airborne concentrations is referred to as the : (Plog, 25)

a. Threshold Exposure Limit (TEL)b. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)c. Permissible Limit Value (PLV)d. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)

3. The TLV-TWA is the time weighted average concentration for: (Plog, 25)

a. 15-minute exposureb. 8-hour exposurec. averaged 24-hour exposured. averaged 48-hour exposure

4. This is the airborne contaminant concentration that should not be exceeded during any part of the working exposure: (Plog, 25)

a. TLV-TWAb. TLV-STELc. TLV-Cd. TLV-MWD

5. This is the maximum airborne contaminant concentration for a continuous 15-minute exposure: (Plog, 25)

a. TLV-TWAb. TLV-STELc. TLV-Cd. TLV-MWD

6. To recognize hazardous environmental factors or stresses in the workplace the safety and health manager must first know the raw materials used and the nature of the products manufactured. To do this the safety professional would consult: (Plog, 27)

a. MSDSsb. TLV-STELc. OSHA 300 Summaryd. NAIC Codes

7. Which of the following is not considered a factor influencing the degree of hazard from exposure to a harmful environment? (Plog, 27)

a. Nature of the material or energy involvedb. Degree of probability of exposurec. Intensity of the exposured. Duration of the exposure

8. All of the following are extremely important considerations for air sampling, except: (Plog, 27)

a. sampling locationb. proper time to samplec. sequence of samplingd. number of samples taken

9. Which of the following are general types of dermatitis? (Plog, 28)

a. Primary irritation dermatitisb. Localized dermatitis c. Sensitization dermatitisd. a and c above

10. Why are many workplaces today presenting nontraditional occupational health hazards? (Plog, 29)

a. Downsizingb. A shift from manufacturing to service c. Jobs are moving overseasd. Ever-increasing exposure to exotic substances


1. Strategies for controlling occupational health hazards include all of the following, except: (Plog, 29)


2. Which of the following strategies for controlling occupational health hazards serves to reduce or eliminate the hazard? (Plog, 29)


3. Which of the following strategies is considered the first line of defense for controlling occupational health hazards? (Plog, 29)


4. Which strategy may be necessary when it is not feasible to render the working environment completely safe? (Plog, 31)


5. What is the science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances? (Plog, 123)

a. Virologyb. Toxicology c. Epidemiologyd. Pharmacology

6. The calculated dose of a substance that is expected to kill 50 percent of a defined experimental animal population when exposure occurs through any route other than inhalation is called the: (Plog, 127)

a. KR50b. LD50 c. Lethal Dose Limitd. Lethal Dose Ratio

7. TLVs and PELs are published by which of the following agencies? (Plog, 12)

a. NIOSH and OSHAb. ACGIH and MSHAc. ACGIH and OSHAd. OSHA and MSHA

8. The dominant standard for laser safety in the United States is: (Plog, 301)

a. NIOSH Pub. 456b. LIA/ANSI Z136.1c. ACGIH 1910.95d. CFR 1904.1200

9. Symptoms of this condition are fatigue, weakness, blurred vision, dizziness and headache? (Plog, 323)

a. heat stressb. dehydrationc. heat exhaustiond. heat stroke

10. This is the preferred method of air sampling to evaluate worker exposure to airborne chemicals? (Plog, 485)

a. personalb. areac. grabd. integrated

Practice Questions - Bank 10 1. Inert gases that may replace oxygen in confined spaces include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23)

a. propaneb. argonc. nitrogend. carbon dioxide

2. What are the first physiological signs of oxygen deficiency? (Plog, 23)

a. a giddy feeling and forgetfulnessb. dizziness and euphoriac. increased depth and rate of breathing (anoxia)d. confusion and giddiness

3. Which of the following is not one of the three ways inhaled contaminants may adversely affect the lungs? (Plog, 23)

a. Aerosols that damage lung tissueb. Toxic vapors and gases the damage lung tissuec. Aersols or gases that affect oxygen-carrying capacityd. Mists that enter and damage lung tissue

4. When employees are subjected to sound that exceeds permissible limits, what must the employer do in response? (Plog, 12)

a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposureb. ensure employees use proper personal protective equipmentc. schedule employees to reduce exposure to noise levelsd. change work procedures to keep employees away from the source

5. Which of the following is not commonly measured in heat stress studies? (Plog, 13)

a. work energyb. metabolismc. air movementd. caloric intake

6. Which of the following is used to measure air temperature? (Plog, 13)

a. anemometerb. dry bulb thermometerc. wet bulb thermometerd. psychrometer

7. The NIOSH heat stress control program recommends all of the following work practices, EXCEPT (Plog, 13)

a. stretchingb. acclimation periodsc. work and rest regimensd. provision for water intake

8. The NIOSH heat stress control program recommends all of the following work practices, EXCEPT (Plog, 13)

a. regular breaks of at least one hourb. protective clothingc. distribution of work over timed. audiometric testing

9. This heat stress index combines air temperature (dry bulb), humidity (wet bulb), and air movement: (Plog, 13)

a. average temperature indexb. combined temperature indexc. effective temperature indexd. dry-wet temperature index

10. General hypothermia is an acute problem resulting from which two conditions? (Plog, 14)

a. acute exposure to cold and prolonged heat exposureb. prolonged heat loss and exposurec. prolonged cold exposure and heat lossd. acute heat loss and prolonged cold exposure


1. All of the following are examples of ionizing radiation, EXCEPT: (Plog, 14)

a. alpha; particlesb. gamma-raysc. neutronsd. electrons

2. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation is least dangerous? (Plog, 14)

a. alpha-particlesb. beta-radiationc. neutronsd. gamma-rays

3. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation has the greatest penetration ability? (Plog, 14)

a. alpha-particlesb. beta-radiationc. neutronsd. gamma-rays

4. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation is not usually used in manufacturing operations? (Plog, 14)

a. x-raysb. beta-radiationc. alpha-particlesd. neutrons

5. The amount of energy a particular kind of radioactive material possesses is defined in terms of: (Plog, 15)

a. BeA (billion electron amps)b. MeV (million electron volts)c. Kev (thousand electron volts)d. MeO (million electron ohms)

6. Radiation that has various effects on the body, depending largely on wavelength of the radiation involved, is called: (Plog, 15)

a. ionizing radiationb. nonionizing radiationc. beta-radiationd. alpha-emitting radiation

7. All of the following are examples of low frequency non-ionizing radiation that can cause general heating of the body, EXCEPT: (Plog, 15)

a. broadcast radiob. power line transmissionsc. MRI transmissionsd. short-wave radio

8. The degree of body heating from low frequency nonionizing radiation depends on three factors. Which of the following is not one of those factors?: (Plog, 15)

a. orientation of the wave frontb. wavelengthc. power intensityd. duration of exposure

9. This form of radiation can only penetrate below the superficial layer of skin, so it is not considered a significant health hazard: (Plog, 15)

a. ultravioletb. infraredc. visibled. microwave

10. Electric arcs produce this type of harmful radiation: (Plog, 16)

a. ultravioletb. infraredc. visibled. microwave


1. This device emits coherent radiation of a single color or wavelength and frequency: (Plog, 16)

a. maserb. laserc. light swordd. LED

2. This device is the predecessor of the laser and emits microwave radiation of a single color or wavelength and frequency: (Plog, 16)

a. LEDb. quazarc. light swordd. maser

3. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the degree of eye injury from exposure to laser light? (Plog, 16)

a. divergence of the laser lightb. pigmentation of the eyec. distance from the source of energyd. presence of focusing media in the light path

4. This environment is encountered when work is conducted in watertight structures and by divers who work under water: (Plog, 16)

a. hypobaricb. hyperbaricc. hypothermicd. hyperthermic

5. Tissue damage resulting from the unequal distribution of air pressure in the lungs, sinuses, and the middle ear: (Plog, 16)

a. barotraumab. hypertraumac. hypothermiad. hyperthermia

6. This condition results from the release of nitrogen bubbles into the circulation and tissues: (Plog, 17)

a. nitroneuomab. helium highc. decompression sicknessd. compression illness

7. One of the most common troubles encountered by workers under compressed air is: (Plog, 17)

a. pain in lungs b. pain and congestion in the earsc. pain and pressure in the GI trackd. painful area behind the eye

8. the customs, habits, and laws of work literally means: (Plog, 17)

a. ergonomicsb. job analysisc. cultured. best practices

9. the customs, habits, and laws of work literally means: (Plog, 17)

a. ergonomicsb. job analysisc. cultured. best practices

10. Ergonomics considers which of the following? (Plog, 17)

a. physical health requirementsb. psychological health maintenancec. physiological and psychological demandsd. psychosocial support mechanisms


1. A very effective tool to deal with the functioning of the structural elements of the body and the effects of external and internal forces on the various parts of the body is called: (Plog, 18)

a. Anthropometryb. Biomechanicsc. NIOSH Modeld. Ergonomics

2. How many biological agents, such as infectious microorganisms, allergens, and toxins are know to produce infections, allergic, toxic and carcinogenic reactions in workers? (Plog, 20)

a. 200b. 300c. 400d. 500

3. Which of the following occupations has not been identified as most at risk to occupational biohazards? (Plog, 20)

a. agriculturalb. medicalc. nursing homesd. laboratory work

4. This clinically diagnosed disease in one or building occupants: (Plog, 20)

a. building-related illness (BRI)b. sick-building syndrome (SBS)c. Building-related syndromed. sick-building illness

5. This condition exists when building occupants exhibit nonspecific symptoms that cannot be associated with an identifiable cause: (Plog, 20)

a. building-related illness (BRI)b. sick-building syndrome (SBS)c. Building-related syndromed. sick-building illness

6. The three major routes of entry of compounds in the form of liquids, gases, mists, dusts, fumes, and vapors include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 21)

a. inhalationb. ingestionc. absorptiond. abrasion

7. This route of entry is particularly important due to the rapidity in which toxic material can be absorbed: (Plog, 21)

a. inhalationb. ingestionc. absorptiond. abrasion

8. All of the following can cause systemic poisoning by direct contact with the skin, EXCEPT: (Plog, 21)

a. TNTb. lead oxidec. cyanidesd. phenols

9. Solid particles generated by handling, crushing, grinding, rapid impact, detonation, and decrepitation of organic or inorganic materials are called: (Plog, 21)

a. gasesb. smokec. fumesd. dusts

10. Dusts larger than this usually do not remain airborne: (Plog, 22)

a. 5µmb. 10µmc. 15µmd. 20µm


1. Dusts smaller than this can actually reach the alveoli sacs in the lung: (Plog, 22)


2. What is the smallest size dust particle a worker can detect with normal vision? (Plog, 22)


3. These are produced when the material from volatized solid condenses in cool air: (Plog, 22)


4. This oxide, if mechanically dispersed into the air, it can produce a severe lead-poisoning hazard: (Plog, 22)

a. grossb. drossc. fossgild. arcus

5. What is the safety strategy to prevent lead-oxide from being dispersed into the air? (Plog, 22)

a. misting air around the point of operationb. aggressive positive ventilationc. scrupulously clean housekeepingd. blowers and negative pressure ventilators

6. These are formless liquids that expand to occupy the space or enclosure in which they are confined: (Plog, 22)


7. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by condensation of liquids from the vapor back to the liquid state: (Plog, 22)

a. gasesb. mistsc. aerosolsd. dusts

8. These are liquid droplets or solid particles of fine enough particle size to remain dispersed in air for a prolonged period of time: (Plog, 22)


9. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by breaking up a liquid into a dispersed state, such as by splashing, foaming, or atomizing: (Plog, 22)


10. These are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature: (Plog, 23)

a. gasesb. mistsc. aerosolsd. vapors


1. Terms used by industrial hygienists to describe the degree of exposure include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23)

a. ppm - parts per millionb. mppcf - millions of particles of a particulate per cubic foot of airc. mg/l - milligrams per liter of a liquidd. mg/m3 - milligrams of a substance per cubic meter of air

2. Which of the following are main categories of respiratory hazards? (Plog, 23)

a. helium-nitrogen deficiencyb. oxygen deficiencyc. toxic contaminants in the aird. b and c above

3. What is the percentage of oxygen normally found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23)


4. What is the percentage of nitrogen and other inert gases normally found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23)


5. What is the partial pressure of oxygen normally found at sea level when the barometric pressure of 760 mm Hg? found in the atmosphere at sea level? (Plog, 23)

a. 36 mm Hg (760 mm Hg/21)b. 160 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x .21)c. 1596 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x 2.1)d. 3619 mm Hg (760 mm Hg/.21)

6. Oxygen may be deficient in confined spaces for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Plog, 23)

a. consumed by chemical reactionsb. replaced by inert gasesc. relocated to areas of lower pressured. absorbed by porous surfaces

Subject Area III. Topic G. Construction


1. Most contractors divide their bids five ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? (NSC, APM-ET, 32)

a. materialb. laborc. safetyd. overhead

2. Most contractors divide their bids five ways. Which of the following is not one of those ways? (NSC, APM-ET, 32)

a. plantb. laborc. profitd. schedule

3. Who was the source of the following law? If a builder builds a house for a man and does not make his construction firm and the house he has built collapses and causes the death of the householder, the builder shall be put to death. (Hislop, 7)

a. OSHA circa 1970 CEb. Attilla the Hun circa 728 CEc. King Hammurabi, 2200 BCE.d. King Solomon, 1300 BCE

4. If a contractor fails to comply with safety requirements, what effect might that failure have on the host employer? (Hislop, 9)

a. No effect. The host has no responsibilityb. It may affect the ability of the host to continue operationsc. It may have a negative impact on construction costs d. b and c above

5. According the studies conducted by the Business Roundtable, accidents account for an average of ______ of total project costs where effective safety programs are NOT in place: (Hislop, 10)

a. 6.9 %b. 8.5%c. 15% d. 19.5%

6. According the studies conducted by the Business Roundtable, accidents account for an average of ______ of total project costs where effective safety programs are in place: (Hislop, 10)

a. .9 %b. 2.5%c. 4% d. 5.3%

7. Under this theory, the employer has an obligation to exercise reasonable care and prudence in the conduct of their work: (Hislop, 10)

a. non-negligenceb. accountabilityc. due diligence d. reasonable care

8. The amount of insurance placed in a construction bid is a percentage of all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-ET, 32)

a. cost of materialsb. cost of laborc. profitd. plant

9. The amount of insurance placed in a construction bid is a percentage of all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-ET, 32)

a. cost of materialsb. cost of laborc. profitd. plant

10. Under the concept of due diligence, the employer must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 16)

a. develop a documented safety programb. train and educate employeesc. train supervisorsd. provide incentives


1. Under the concept of due diligence, the employer must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 16)

a. investigate and report accidentsb. develop a safety committeec. train supervisorsd. monitor the workplace

2. Which of the following is not a criteria for prioritizing job safety analyses? (Hislop, 23)

a. frequency of accidents and injuriesb. severity of accidents and injuriesc. type of accidents and injuriesd. potential for severe injuries

3. The construction safety manager should consider all of the following criteria for prioritizing job safety analyses, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 23)

a. frequency of accidents and injuriesb. probability for accidentsc. new or modified tasksd. infrequently performed tasks

4. The obligation to carry out assigned duties defines this term: (Hislop, 23)

a. responsibilityb. accountabilityc. due diligenced. leadership

5. A competent person is generally defined as an individual, who as the result of training and/or experience, is capable of: (Hislop, 27)

a. identifying or predicting hazardous situationsb. authority to discipline for noncompliancec. authorizing prompt corrective actionsd. correcting hazardous conditions

6. A competent person at an excavation site should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. structural rampsb. water removal equipmentc. soil conditionsd. machine guarding

7. A competent person at an excavation site should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. biological hazardsb. water removal equipmentc. hazardous atmospheresd. shoring requirements

8. A competent person responsible for work on a scaffold should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. scaffold assemblyb. structural integrityc. soil conditionsd. fall protection


a. tie pointsb. structural integrityc. safe accessd. weather effects


a. tie pointsb. evaluation of trainingc. modifications/alterationsd. selection of assemblers


1. A competent person responsible for work requiring fall protection should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. certifying netsb. personal fall arrest systemsc. monitoring requirementsd. selection of back belts

2. A competent person responsible for work involving derricks and cranes should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. certifying workersb. all machinery prior to usec. annual inspectionsd. equipment following trial lifts

3. A competent person responsible for work involving hazardous chemicals should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. identity of hazardous chemicals on siteb. establishing regulated areasc. annual inspections of chemicalsd. monitoring exposure

4. A competent person responsible for work involving underground construction should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. evaluating haulage and hoisting equipmentb. establishing regulated areasc. drilling equipmentd. ventilation, air monitoring and compressed air

5. A competent person responsible for work involving underground construction should be knowledgeable about, and be able to identify and correct hazards related to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 28)

a. soil and rock conditionsb. personal protective equipmentc. verifying employee trainingd. ventilation, air monitoring and compressed air

6. This person should monitor job-site activities under their control to assess the effectiveness of their safety plan implementation: (Hislop, 30)

a. on-site supervisorb. field engineerc. employeed. contractor

7. This regulation details OSHA standards specifically for the construction industry: (OSHA)

a. 29 CFR 1904b. 29 CFR 1910c. 29 CFR 1926d. 29 CFR 1940

8. Which of the following is not usually included in an worksite orientation? (Hislop, 32)

a. introduction to the jobsiteb. site safety rules and regulationsc. parking zonesd. HAZCOM information

9. On a multi-employer worksite, who is legally responsible for compliance with all safety and health protection requirements for employees? (OSHA)

a. only the contractorb. both contractor and subcontractorc. site safety supervisord. all of the above

10. Each contractor/subcontractor is responsible for compliance with all safety and health protection requirements for their employees. A single safety and health plan for multi-employer worksites may be used by contractors/subcontractors if: (OSHA)

a. if it addresses health hazardsb. it addresses their activityc. if addresses safety hazardsd. all of the above

Practice Questions - Bank 4 1. In general a worksite plan organized as a single document, with component sections/appendices coverall tasks, operations, and contractors/contractors may: (OSHA)

a. promote use efficiencyb. enhance clarity of duties and responsibilitiesc. enhance coordination among all affected partiesd. all of the above

2. Pre-work meetings held at the start of each day should be short and include at least all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 33)

a. review the previous day's workb. new work assignmentsc. safety issuesd. bonus for beating work schedules

3. Which of the following is not considered a reasonable advantage of the weekly toolbox talk? (Hislop, 34-35)

a. can talk about anticipated safety issuesb. can new work assignmentsc. able to review lessons learned from accidentsd. they are short

4. These are the most common cause of accidents on a construction worksite: (Hislop, 35)

a. overexposureb. electricalc. slips, trips, fallsd. bodily reaction

5. According to the Center for the Protection of Workers' Rights, _____ of construction workers report to work under the influence of some behavior modifying substance: (Hislop, 35)

a. 10%b. 20%c. 30%d. 40%

6. Which of the following does not occur during the Engineering and Design Phase (Step 1) of the construction process? (Hislop, 40-42)

a. Conceptualize projectb. identification of coordinating engineerc. develop the bid packaged. initial cost and schedule estimate


a. Conceptualize projectb. Award contractc. conduct a baseline reviewd. 90% Design and Constructability Review


a. specific work-site safety briefingb. Award contractc. conduct a baseline reviewd. pre-work planning

9. In the Engineering and design phase of the construction process, this person identifies the need for a new installation or modification to existing facility: (Hislop, 40)

a. originatorb. plannerc. engineerd. decision-maker

10. Which of the following is not considered a key responsibility of the safety representative during the design and planning stage? (Hislop, 40-43)

a. Give advice on provisions for safety features in the designb. Assist with the conduct of the ESH Baseline reviewc. Coordinate involvement in the 90% design reviewd. Provide guidance on selection of contractors


1. In the Engineering and design phase of the construction process, this person identifies the need for a new installation or modification to existing facility: (Hislop, 40)

a. originatorb. plannerc. coordinating engineerd. designer

2. This position coordinates the development of the project design: (Hislop, 40)


3. The purpose of this process during the engineering and design phase is to identify as many of the safety hazards as possible associated with use of the space in which the project will be built: (Hislop, 41)

a. worksite auditb. site walk-throughc. project hazard analysisd. baseline safety review

4. Each of the following is an objective of the baseline safety review, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 41)

a. identify existing and potential hazardsb. provide guidance in selecting contractorsc. consider occupancy requirementsd. consider maintenance requirements

5. Each of the following is accomplished in the Procurement/Contracting Phase of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 45-46)

a. pre-construction meetingb. pre-work release meetingc. hazard communication briefingd. safety program and job safety analysis review


a. bid review, evaluation, and contractor selectionb. bid packagec. contract awardd. pre-work planning

7. This position defines the configuration and components of the work through the plans and specifications: (Hislop, 40)


8. Which of the following describes why the construction manager (CM) and client should not delegate the decision regarding standards to be met to the general contractor? (Hislop, 61)

a. may cause discord among workers and subcontractorsb. will result in a broad disparity in safety program implementationc. safe work practices may be circumventedd. all of the above

9. This is the final step in the engineering and design phase: (Hislop, 45)

a. specific work-site safety briefingb. award contractc. statement of workd. pre-work planning


a. specific work-site safety briefingb. bid packagec. pre-bid meetingd. invitation to bid

Practice Questions - Bank 6 1. The construction manager (CM) and client should not delegate the decision regarding standards to be met to this position: (Hislop, 61)

a. construction manager (CM)b. subcontractorc. coordinating engineerd. general contractor (GC)

2. During the procurement and contracting phase, the safety representative accomplishes all of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 47)

a. provides guidance for the selection of contractorsb. train contractors during the pre-work release meetingc. assists the field engineer in evaluating risksd. assists coordinating engineer in evaluating hazards

3. Which of the following is most likely the reason designers generally do not address construction worker safety? (Hislop, 57)

a. they are not typically educated and trained in safetyb. they claim they do not have the tools or informationc. they are advised not to address safety to minimize liabilityd. they leave the design of safety into the project to the safety representative

4. Which of the following is not conducted in the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47-52)

a. contractor equipment inspectionb. specific work site safety briefingc. general worksite and hazcom briefingd. safety program and job safety analysis review


a. contract awardb. inspections and auditsc. contractor progress reportsd. job specific training


a. progress and coordination meetingsb. baseline safety reviewc. permitsd. contract closeout

7. This person must clearly define their safety expectations to the project designers and the construction manager: (Hislop, 57)

a. clientb. architectc. coordinating engineerd. host employer

8. Which of the following is not a primary safety responsibility of the host employer during the Procurement/Contracting Phase (Step 2) of a project? (Hislop, 45)

a. conduct progress and coordination meetingsb. develop the safety and health program for the projectc. consider safety and health in the invitation to bid d. verify selected contractors have an appropriate safety and health program

9. Which of the following is not a primary safety responsibility of the contractor during the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project? (Hislop, 47)

a. provide safety information on hazard created during workb. develop and implement a site-specific safety and health programc. give advice, as needed to the coordinating engineerd. call attention to hazards that might affect others

10. A contractor may be required to submit all of the following reports to the host employer during the Work/Construction Phase (Step 3) of a project, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 51)

a. safety committee agendasb. material certificationsc. conformance to code statementd. man-hour and injury reports

Practice Questions - Bank 7 1. This person may be held liable, even if no contractual obligation exists, to bring a hazard to the attention of the exposed party: (Hislop, 59)

a. clientb. architectc. coordinating engineerd. engineer

2. Construction engineers must understand it is their obligation to issue a ______ order if a serious hazard exists: (Hislop, 59)

a. Stop-Workb. reprimandc. red tagd. citation

3. This position is retained to act on the owner's behalf to oversee the development and construction of a project and is responsible for the coordination of the safe execution of all work on the project: (Hislop, 60)

a. construction manager (CM)b. construction engineer (CE)c. safety engineer (SE)d. safety manager (SM)

4. All of the following may complicate the ability of the construction manager (CM) to give attention to project safety: (Hislop, 60)

a. concern over liability issuesb. hiring the CM after the start of the projectc. the absence of a competent safety engineerd. coordinating numerous project issues

5. The client may make the mistake of assigning responsibility to the construction manager (CM) but not giving him or her authority to do any of the following, EXCEPT: (Hislop, 61)

a. stop workb. hiring a safety manager to enforce safety policiesc. withhold paymentd. enforce safety policies and rules

6. This position is expected to supply the labor and tools to complete the work as scheduled and within defined specifications: (Hislop, 61)


7. This position is responsible for defining safety practices of the means and methods to be implemented, and to make sure subcontractors implement those practices: (Hislop, 61)


AREA III. ANSWER KEYS

Area III. A. Compliance Management

Bank 1

1. c. employee recognition2. b. 19173. d. specific industry standards (vertical)4. b. 1970 5. c. who controls the manner in which the employees perform assigned work6. c. universal standards (horizontal)7. b. 19108. b. variance 9. b. variance 10. b. 1915

Bank 2

1. d. regardless of the use of PPE2. d. answer a and b above3. a. witnesses and other evidence 4. a. near miss5. c. conduct research and make recommendations that prevent work-related injury and illness 6. d. partial inspection 7. b. Other-than-serious8. b. late 1800's 9. a. 1904 10. c. NSC

Bank 3

1. c. Serious2. b. the employer exercising reasonable diligence, did or could not know about the violation3. d. whether the employee was under undue pressure to accomplish a task 4. c. 1926 5. d. equipment certification records 6. b. 19187. d. Morgantown WV 8. b. Section 5(a)(1) - General Duty Clause9. a. the hazard was recognized and corrected prior to the conclusion of the inspection 10. b. a workplace hazard and employee exposure

Bank 4

1. d. it need not be necessarily be recognized 2. d. $7,000 3. d. employee recognition 4. a. recognition by employer's industry 5. c. oral statements by employee to compliance officer 6. b. flagrant7. c. substantially similar condition 8. b. comprehensive inspection 9. b. only in flagrant cases10. b. condition, relative position

Bank 5

1. a. De Minimis 2. a. Repeat 3. b. Department of Labor (DOL)4. c. Employers are not responsible for employee compliance 5. c. consult with the Area Director 6. a. 1903 7. c. Affirmative 8. c. alternative methods exist 9. a. comprehensive and partial 10. d. $5,000 to $70,000

Bank 6

1. d. comprehensive inspection 2. a. North American Industry Classification System (NAICS)3. c. partial inspection 4. c. include of injury and illness records reviews 5. d. subjective impression 6. d. 1928 7. d. time restraint 8. d. equipment certification records 9. a. 30 days10. b. refuse entry by an OSHA compliance officer without a war

Bank 7

1. b. 1970 2. c. refusing OSHA compliance officer entry without a warrant3. d. contest the abatement date 4. a. enter with a U.S. Federal Marshall 5. b. National Industrial Classification (NIC) 6. b. voluntary compliance programs, 7. c. 1969 8. b. (# LWDI's x 200,000)/# employee hours worked 9. a. employee's knowledge of the hazard 10. b. catastrophe

Bank 8

1. c. Federal Mine Safety and Health Act 2. b. caused the death of an employee 3. c. Nixon 4. c. imminent danger 5. a. Provide statistical analysis data6. b. (# Days away from work, restricted work or transfer x 200,000)/# actual employee workhours 7. a. state rules are at least as effective8. b. 1970 9. c. $7,000 10. b. English

Bank 9

1. b. Health and Human Services/CDC 2. c. NIOSH is an agency within CDC 3. c. ESHM, Excellent Safety and Health Management Program 4. d. all of the above 5. b. Williams-Steiger Act 6. b. National Institutes of Safety and Health (NIOSH) 7. a. 8 hours8. c. OSHA poster 9. c. $7,000 10. b. OSHA Form 300

Bank 10

1. c. Underwriters Laboratory (UL) 2. a. OSHA 1910.1200 3. c. ANSI Z10-2005 4. a. OSHA 5. c. Homeland Security Act 6. b. U.S. Code 7. b. Assistant Secretary of Labor 8. c. Adjudicate disputes

9. b. Evaluating labor-management relations 10. c. Provide training to employers and employees.

Bank 11

1. a. VPP Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) 2. d. All of the above 3. d. Develop, submit and receive plan approval from OSHA. 4. b. Department of Health and Human Services 5. c. Introduce common sense regulatory reform 6. b. cannot achieve goals through enforcement alone 7. b. Legislating standard safety values 8. d. a and b above 9. a. in plain language 10. b. act as an effective deterrent

Bank 12

1. d. all of the above 2. d. reduced publicity 3. a. Informal training classes 4. b. Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) 5. a. Employer Ride-a-long Program 6. d. Promulgate pending OSHA legislation 7. b. encourages 8. c. Occupational Safety and Health State Plan Association (OSHSPA)9. a. at least as effective as 10. b. is an independent agency of the U.S. Government

Bank 13

1. d. resolve disputes 2. b. Administrative Law Judges 3. b. OSHSPA 4. c. employee recognition 5. b. only in flagrant cases 6. c. temporary review standards 7. a. Consensus 8. c. Courts do not allow most ETS's to become effective. 9. d. workplace and other studies 10. b. Business Liability Act

Bank 14

1. b. The hazard is also covered by an adequate specific rule. 2. a. Compliance poses a financial burden 3. d. the unsafe practice did not cause injury 4. c. general5. d. employer ability to pay 6. a. nullify rules

7. d. all of the above 8. c. willful violations of the general duty clause9. a. challenge the abatement remedy 10. b. substantial

Bank 15

1. a. trade secret information 2. c. The employer refused consultative services3. a. The violation was a repeat 4. c. willfully or repeatedly violates any section of the OSHact 5. c. $70,000, $5,0006. c. 50%7. c. 19988. d. 509. b. 1710. d. more than 100

Area III. B. Environment

Bank 1

1. d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 19672. a. The EPA3. d. all of the above4. d. regulate the discharge of pollutants into outdoor ambient air5. a. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)6. b. silicon7. b. silver monoxide8. d. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS)9. b. National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs)10. d. lead

Bank 2

1. a. anthrax2. c. Energy Supply and Environmental Coordination Act (ESECA) of 19743. d. a and b above4. c. State Implementation Plan (SIP)5. a. the SIP must be developed by the EPA and state governments 6. d. chemtrail pollutants7. a. emissions from watercraft 8. a. underwater volcano emissions 9. d. all of the above10. d. all of the above

Bank 3

1. a. identifies toxic chemicals controlled with Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) 2. c. allowed additives control standards 3. c. National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) 4. a. Stormwater Discharge Regulations 5. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 6. c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 7. d. all of the above8. b. resistance of hazardous waste to controls9. c. train hazardous waste workers 10. b. report to OSHA

Bank 4

1. d. all of the above2. a. hazardous waste manufacturers3. c. RCRA Permit4. d. all of the above5. d. all of the above6. c. Subtitle I, Regulation of Underground Story Tanks (USTs)7. b. volunteer compliance and cooperation8. c. requirements for disposal of hazardous waste at remote locations9. a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)10. a. Bhopal Tragedy

Bank 5

1. d. Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1967

Area III. C. Ergonomics

Bank 1

1. a. Elbow and shoulder swelling and inflammation2. b. Pain in the wrist upon exertion3. c. Carpenter's elbow4. c. NIOSH5. a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome6. a. Ergonomics7. a. Back pain8. c. Precision grip9. a. Power grip10. b. 10 degrees downward

Bank 2

1. c. Biomechanics2. d. The man-machine relationship3. b. Musculoskeletal Disorders4. c. Tennis elbow5. c. whole-body vibration6. a. Work and Law7. b. anthropometry8. d. a vector quantity that tends to produce a deceleration9. a. Fitness10. d. Emotional demands

Bank 3

1. c. Repetitive Strain Injuries (RSI)2. c. Exposure to blood-borne pathogens3. d. Ignore employee concerns and ideas4. c. Twist as you lift from the floor5. c. workstation design6. d. discourage union involvement7. b. encourage compliance8. a. Ignoring employees registering complaints9. b. brainstorming10. c. request a confidential evaluation

Bank 4

1. c. determine scope of the problem2. b. detect obvious risk factors3. d. persons are familiar with the job, task, or process4. c. work requiring sustained or repeated work at chest level 5. c. decreased slipperiness 6. a. group dynamics7. d. exclude employee involvement in the analysis8. c. investigation 9. c. investigation 10. c. immediate, severity

Bank 5

1. d. all of the above2. b. Engineering Controls 3. c. Work Practice Controls 4. a. the printer 5. a. decrease recovery time 6. b. verifies proposed solutions 7. d. controls are identified8. d. reduced productivity9. a. Early return to work 10. b. methods of self-treating MSDs

Bank 6

1. b. diagnose signs and symptoms 2. b. periodic plant tours 3. a. Comply with mandatory OSHA rules 4. b. musculoskeletal disorders 5. c. requirements, requirements 6. d. Any of the above7. b. the procedure 8. b. 7 percent 9. d. skin10. b. unique motions

Bank 7

1. c. capacity 2. b. 35 3. d. Fatigue 4. c. environment 5. c. upper back 6. d. Contact trauma 7. a. pinch grip 8. c. static exertion 9. b. recovery time 10. d. standing

Bank 8

1. a. angular velocity, acceleration 2. d. All of the above 3. b. high humidity 4. b. hypothermia 5. a. pulmonary pain 6. b. 4 and 8 7. c. freedom from concentration 8. c. threaten for noncompliance 9. d. poor labor-management relations 10. d. flat enough

Area III. B. Environment

Bank 1

1. c. toxicology2. d. a and c above3. a. contact with a harmful substance4. d. contact with biological mutagens5. c. toxicity6. b. degree of exposure7. d. all of the above8. b. toxicity9. c. hazard10. d. exposure

Bank 2

1. b. toxicity2. b. the stimulus has changed chemical markers3. a. the effect is unique and specific4. d. the observation is unique to the observer 5. c. Toxicity is not a physical constant6. c. physiological characteristics of the chemical7. b. amount of the hazard8. a. toxic content of the substance9. b. vapor pressure10. d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS

Bank 3

1. a. local injury2. a. local injury3. d. inhalation 4. c. 5µm5. c. The substance can result in unusual behavioral actions6. a. The skin will prevent exposure7. c. temperature and perspiration8. b. physiochemical9. d. location10. a. humidity

Bank 4

1. d. lower2. d. lower3. c. detoxification4. c. attack by macrophages5. b. the duodenal sac 6. a. pneumococcus 7. b. dose-response relationship 8. c. LD509. d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure10. d. concentration (C) and duration (T) of exposure

Bank 5

1. b. toxic potency 2. c. route of entry3. a. lethal dose (LD) 4. d. LD1005. b. slight 6. b. inversely proportional 7. d. lethal concentration (LC)8. d. possible significant effect9. b. reveals the route of entry10. d. acute, chronic

Bank 6

1. a. acute effects2. a. acute 3. b. chronic effects4. b. chronic 5. d. avoidants6. b. asphyxiants 7. c. CNS depressants 8. b. carcinogen 9. a. mutagen 10. c. teratogen

Bank 7

1. b. EPA 2. b. Recommended Exposure Limit (REL)3. d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)4. d. Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)5. a. Threshold Limit Values (TLV) 6. c. within the breathing zone of a worker 7. b. Time Weighted Average (TWA)8. c. 8 hours 9. c. C 10. c. ceiling value (C)

Bank 8

1. b. milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3)2. a. parts per million (PPM) 3. a. their combined effect 4. c. been exceeded 5. a. labor-management negotiation 6. b. Urine tests7. a. Blood analysis8. b. in addition to air sampling

9. d. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)10. b. Biological Exposure Indices (BEI)

Bank 9

1. d. TLC2. b. LC3. a. LD4. c. TLD5. b. LC506. a. LD507. c. latency period8. d. FDA9. d. FDA10. b. meaningfulness is the same regardless of species

Bank 10

1. b. they are difficult to schedule into the normal workday2. d. cooperation by workers may not occur

Area III. E. Epidemiology

Bank 1

1. d. Proactive2. a. Descriptive studies3. b. Retrospective or control group studies4. c. Prospective studies5. c. Prospective studies6. d. Epidemiological analysis7. b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect8. b. evidence of a decline in the frequency of the effect9. c. rewards for underreporting10. d. contact between hands and contaminated material

Bank 2

1. a. subcutaneous absorption2. c. research3. d. HIV4. d. HIV5. c. Epidemiological and risk assessment6. d. Evaluate the degree to which occupational disease impacts productivity7. a. To determine effects of toxins on control populations of animals8. c. Determine the extent to which the animals mirror human etiology

Area III. F. Industrial Hygiene

Bank 1

1. c. hazards2. d. rule enforcement3. a. training4. a. sound claims management5. a. chemical hazards6. d. physical hazards7. b. biological hazards8. c. ergonomic hazards9. d. physical effects10. a. variation in receptivity

Bank 2

1. b. intermittent energy of the sound2. c. Are employees volunteering to wear earplugs or muffs?3. c. increased breathing rate4. a. area samples at fixed locations5. a. mist6. c. 90 dBA7. d. 95 dBA8. b. dipole antenna9. b. use engineering and administrative controls10. b. 5 µm

Bank 3

1. c. ensure personal protective equipment is provided2. a. toxicity3. c. placing a grounded conductor between the field and person4. d. noise5. a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms6. a. total time since exposure occurred7. a. heatstroke8. b. dipole antenna9. a. total time since exposure occurred10. d. sources of radiation

Bank 4

1. a. vapors2. d. half-life of the chemical3. a. thermal and photochemical mechanisms4. d. sources of radiation5. c. charlie-waves6. c. specific absorption rate (SAR)7. d. psychosocial environment8. c. delta-waves9. d. output10. d. penetration

Bank 5

1. b. Geiger-Muller 2. d. Dosimeters3. c. Administrative controls4. a. alpha-particles5. a. acute and chronic6. a. frequency7. b. engineering control 8. b. microwave9. d. infrared10. a. ultraviolet

Bank 6

1. c. laser2. c. maser3. b. eye4. d. skin5. a. barotrauma6. a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure7. d. any of the above8. d. penetration9. b. allergens10. b. microbes

Bank 7

1. d. dusts2. d. 0.1-25 µm3. d. fumes4. b. smoke5. b. Ohm's Law6. d. aerosols7. a. mists8. c. gas9. d. b and c above10. c. 21 percent

Bank 8

1. a. toxic mists affecting upper area of the lung2. d. Threshold Limit Value (TLV)3. b. 8-hour exposure4. c. TLV-C5. b. TLV-STEL6. a. MSDSs7. b. Degree of probability of exposure8. c. sequence of sampling9. d. a and c above10. b. A shift from manufacturing to service

Bank 9

1. a. Inspections and audits2. b. Engineering controls 3. b. Engineering controls 4. d. Personal Protective Equipment5. b. Toxicology 6. b. LD50 7. c. ACGIH and OSHA8. b. LIA/ANSI Z136.19. c. heat exhaustion10. c. grab

Bank 10

1. a. propane2. c. increased depth and rate of breathing (anoxia)3. d. Mists that enter and damage lung tissue4. a. use engineering and administrative controls to reduce exposure5. d. caloric intake6. b. dry bulb thermometer7. a. stretching8. d. audiometric testing9. c. effective temperature index10. c. prolonged cold exposure and heat loss

Bank 11

1. d. electrons2. a. alpha-particles3. c. neutrons4. d. neutrons5. b. MeV (million electron volts)6. b. nonionizing radiation7. c. MRI transmissions8. a. orientation of the wave front9. b. infrared10. a. ultraviolet

Bank 12

1. a. maser2. a. LED3. d. presence of focusing media in the light path4. b. hyperbaric5. a. barotrauma6. c. decompression sickness7. b. pain and congestion in the ears8. a. ergonomics9. a. ergonomics10. c. physiological and psychological demands

Bank 13

1. b. Biomechanics2. a. 2003. c. nursing homes4. a. building-related illness (BRI)5. b. sick-building syndrome (SBS)6. d. abrasion7. a. inhalation8. b. lead oxide9. d. dusts10. a. 5µm

Bank 14

1. a. 5µm2. d. 50µm3. c. fumes4. b. dross5. c. scrupulously clean housekeeping6. a. gases7. b. mists8. c. aerosols9. b. mists10. d. vapors

Bank 15

1. c. mg/l - milligrams per liter of a liquid2. d. b and c above3. a. 21 percent4. d. 79 percent5. b. 160 mm Hg (760 mm Hg x .21)6. c. relocated to areas of lower pressure

Area III. G. Construction

Bank 1

1. c. safety2. d. schedule3. c. King Hammurabi, 2200 BCE.4. d. b and c above5. a. 6.9 %6. a. .9 %7. c. due diligence 8. c. profit9. c. profit10. d. provide incentives

Bank 2

1. b. develop a safety committee2. c. type of accidents and injuries3. b. probability for accidents4. a. responsibility5. b. authority to discipline for noncompliance6. d. machine guarding7. a. biological hazards8. c. soil conditions9. d. weather effects10. b. evaluation of training

Bank 3

1. d. selection of back belts2. a. certifying workers3. c. annual inspections of chemicals4. b. establishing regulated areas5. c. verifying employee training6. b. field engineer7. c. 29 CFR 19268. c. parking zones9. b. both contractor and subcontractor10. d. all of the above

Bank 4

1. d. all of the above2. d. bonus for beating work schedules3. a. can talk about anticipated safety issues4. d. bodily reaction5. c. 30%6. c. develop the bid package7. b. Award contract8. a. specific work-site safety briefing9. a. originator10. d. Provide guidance on selection of contractors

Bank 5

1. a. originator2. c. coordinating engineer3. d. baseline safety review4. b. provide guidance in selecting contractors5. c. hazard communication briefing6. d. pre-work planning7. d. designer8. d. all of the above9. c. statement of work10. a. specific work-site safety briefing

Bank 6

1. d. general contractor (GC)2. b. train contractors during the pre-work release meeting3. c. they are advised not to address safety to minimize liability4. d. safety program and job safety analysis review5. a. contract award6. b. baseline safety review7. a. client8. b. develop the safety and health program for the project9. c. give advice, as needed to the coordinating engineer10. a. safety committee agendas

Bank 7

1. d. engineer 2. a. Stop-Work3. a. construction manager (CM)4. c. the absence of a competent safety engineer5. b. hiring a safety manager to enforce safety policies6. b. subcontractor7. d. general contractor (GC)


Area IV Risk Management ControlQuestions and Answer Key

Subject Area IV. Topic A. Workers' Compensation

Area III.A. Practice Questions - Bank 1

1. Prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, employers could not claim there was no negligence on their part using common law defense: (Brauer p. 43)

a. Assumption of riskb. Comparative negligencec. The fellow servant ruled. Contributory negligence

2. Prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, the employer used this defense by arguing an employee was negligent and caused the injury to the victim: (Brauer p. 43)


3. The employer used this defense, prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, by arguing the victim acted carelessly, and therefore action against the employer was inappropriate: (Brauer p. 43)


4. Prior to the introduction of workers' compensation law, the employer used this defense by arguing the victim assumed the risk, therefore action against the employer was inappropriate: (Brauer p. 43)


5. The first constitutionally acceptable workers' compensation law was passed in: (Brauer p. 44)

a. 1892b. 1911c. 1916d. 1930

6. Workers' compensation laws were not declared constitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court until: (NSC, APM - A&P, p. 194)

a. 1892b. 1911c. 1916d. 1930

7. Workers' compensation was not provided to all states until Mississippi enacted its first law in: (NSC, APM - A&P, p. 194)

a. 1892b. 1911c. 1930d. 1948

8. Under workers' compensation law, employers are: (Brauer p. 44)

a. able to counter sue the employee as a defense b. able to settle out of court if employee is injuredc. allowed to sue the insurer for employee injuryd. no longer liable for negligence resulting in worker injury

9. Which of the following is not a federal government workers' compensation program? (Brauer p. 44)

a. District of Columbia Workmen's Compensation Act (DCWCA) b. Longshoremen's and Harbor Workers Act (LHWA)c. Occupational Workers' Compensation Act (OWCA)d. Federal Employees Compensation Act (FECA)

10. Which kind of workers' compensation law requires each employer to accept its provisions and provide for benefits as specified? (Brauer p. 44)

a. compulsory law b. administrative law c. elective law d. statutory law


1. Which kind of workers' compensation law gives the employer the right to accept or reject participation? (Brauer p. 44)

a. compulsory law b. administrative law c. elective law d. statutory law

2. All of the following are objectives of workers' compensation law, except: (Brauer p. 45)

a. Restore worker earning capacity b. Relieve public and private charities c. Provide multiple remedies without delay d. Encourage employer interest in safety

3. All of the following are objectives of workers' compensation law, except: (Brauer p. 45)

a. Provide a single remedy b. Provide rehabilitation to workers c. Encourage employer interest in safety d. Ensure financial relief to employers

4. Today, workers' compensation laws cover about ________ of all wage and salary employees: (Brauer p. 45)

a. 60 percent b. 70 percent c. 80 percent d. 90 percent

5. The main purpose of workers' compensation law is to: (Brauer p. 45)

a. compensate the worker b. relieve employer burden c. excuse liability d. ensure smooth administration

6. Originally, the term 'injury' referred to: (Brauer p. 46)

a. immediate trauma or illness b. physical damage to the body c. physical or psychological harm d. major physical trauma

7. During the 1980s claims increased significantly for this injury category: (Brauer p. 46)

a. violence b. stress c. cumulative trauma d. falls

8. During the 1990s claims increased significantly for this injury category: (Brauer p. 46)

a. violence b. stress c. cumulative trauma d. falls

9. Which of the following disability classes is not recognized by most states? (Brauer p. 46)

a. Temporary total disability b. Temporary partial disability c. Permanent partial disability d. Permanent total disability

10. This disability applies to a worker who is completely unable to work for a time because of a job-related injury: (Brauer p. 46)


Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. This disability applies to a worker who is unable to perform regular job duties during the recovery period but is able to work at a job requiring lesser capabilities: (Brauer p. 46)


2. This disability applies to a worker who endures a permanent reduction of work capability, but is still able to retain gainful employment: (Brauer p. 46)


3. This disability applies to a worker who is no longer able to work, even after medical and rehabilitative treatment: (Brauer p. 47)


4. Which of the following is not an expense compensated by workers' compensation laws? (Brauer p. 47)

a. Loss of insurance b. Loss of wages c. Burial expenses d. Payments for impairments

5. Which of the below is not one of the three major theories to determine the amount of workers' compensation? (Brauer p. 48)

a. Equivalent wages theory b. Lost wages theory c. Whole-man theory d. Loss of potential earnings theory

6. This workers' compensation theory considers only the functional effect of the loss - its impact on normal functions and abilities: (Brauer p. 48)


7. This workers' compensation theory considers the actual loss in wages relative to a standard that estimates what the individual would have earned: (Brauer p. 48)


8. This workers' compensation theory is the most common approach for paying compensation: (Brauer p. 48)


9. Due to the difficulty in determining compensation for permanent partial disability, this practice has become widespread: (Brauer p. 48)

a. schedules b. standard payouts c. payout formulas d. compensation equations

10. These establish in advance the value of each kind of disability: (Brauer p. 48)

a. schedules b. standard payouts c. payout formulas d. compensation equations


1. Lost wages and payments for impairment are usually based on: (Brauer p. 48)

a. daily wages b. annual salaries c. average weekly earnings d. monthly wages and benefits

2. Which of the following is not one of the standard methods of providing workers' compensation insurance to employers? (Brauer p. 48)

a. self-insured benefits b. private insurance c. state-operated insurance d. federal insurance

3. Large corporations may use this strategy to reduce administrative costs for workers' compensation: (Brauer p. 48)

a. self-insured benefits b. private insurance c. state-operated insurance d. federal insurance

4. In the U.S. most workers' expenditures are for: (Brauer p. 49)

a. administrative fees b. medical care expenses c. compensation payments d. legal services

5. Units of workers' compensation premiums are dollars per: (Brauer p. 49)

a. average weekly payroll b. standard state schedules c. $100 of payroll d. 100 payroll hours worked

6. This agency sets basic workers' compensation premium rates for most states: (Brauer p. 49)

a. National Council of Compensation Insurance (NCCI) b. Federal Workers' Compensation Administration (FWCA) c. American Workers' Compensation Standards Agency (AWCSA) d. Department of Labor: Workers' Compensation Division (DOL-WCD)

7. This workers' compensation premium rate is the same for all insurance companies within a state: (Brauer p. 49)

a. Experience rate b. Manual rate c. Schedule rate d. Computed rate

8. Under this workers' compensation experience rating, an employer's accident record influences future premiums: (Brauer p. 49)

a. Retrospective rating b. Manual rating c. Prospective ratingd. Computed rating

9. This workers' compensation premium rate is no longer used because it was difficult and expensive to monitor compliance: (Brauer p. 49)

a. Experience rate b. Manual rate c. Schedule rate d. Computed rate

10. Under this workers' compensation experience rating, the employer and insurer agree to a set of adjustments in premium within upper and lower limits: (Brauer p. 50)

a. Retrospective rating b. Manual ratingc. Schedule rating d. Computed rating


1. Under this workers' compensation rating method, manual rates apply and premiums are modified annual based on losses of all businesses within the state for that employment classification: (Brauer p. 50)

a. Retrospective rating b. Manual ratingc. Experience rating d. Fixed rate premiums

2. Under this workers' compensation rating method, future premiums may be influenced by the experience of an individual employer: (Brauer p. 49)

a. Retrospective rating b. Manual ratingc. Experience rating d. Fixed rate premiums

3. To avoid excessive fluctuation, how many years is used to compute an employer's workers' compensation experience rating? (Brauer p. 49)

a. two yearsb. three yearsc. four years d. five years

4. Which of these programs is probably least effective in dealing with possible behavioral and psychological aspects of worker post-injury recovery? (Brauer p. 50)

a. Drug Free Workplace Program (DFW)b. Employee Assistance Program (EAP)c. Light Duty - Early Return to Work (ERW) Programd. Post-injury Wellness Program

5. An employer with experience modification rates (MOD) of 1.2, 1.3, and .92 over the last three years. When would the employer's workers' compensation premium reflect the .92 MOD rate: (Brauer p. 50)

a. next yearb. in two yearsc. in three yearsd. in four years

6. Under workers' compensation law, employees are least likely to be able to initiate a third party lawsuit against: (Brauer p. 50)

a. other employer or organizationb. co-workersc. manufacturers d. the worker's employer

7. What is the MOST practical strategy to manage losses due to workplace injuries and illnesses?

a. Good labor contractsb. Aggressive claims handlingc. Proactive safety programs d. Changing state laws

8. Which of the following three goals is LEAST important in a workers' compensation program plan of action? (NSC, APP-AP, p.204)

a. prevent accidentsb. control costsc. discipline often d. respond to accidents promptly

9. If an employer in a common law court argues that the injured employee knew a perceived workplace danger existed and that they were liable for their own injury, what defense is the employer using? (Brauer, p.43)

a. Strict Liabilityb. Assumption of Riskc. Rule of No-Fault d. Contributory Negligence

10. Which of the following does NOT meet eligibility criteria for workers' compensation? (NSC, APP-AP, p.196)

a. Injuryb. Illnessc. Employment d. Mental impairment




2. Which of the following is true concerning the OSHA 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses? (OSHA)

a. does not require record of needlestick injuriesb. exempts small employersc. forbids computerized injury and illness records d. requires domestic employee certification

3. Which of the following is true concerning the OSHA 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses? (OSHA)

a. does not require record of needlestick injuriesb. exempts small employersc. forbids computerized injury and illness records d. requires domestic employee certification

4. Which of the following injuries or illness are probably NOT OSHA recordable? (OSHA)

a. broken leg at company picnic soccer gameb. workplace injury requiring follow-up treatmentc. illness from chemical exposure at work d. loss of consciousness while on the job



Subject Area IV. Topic B. Risk Management


1. According to Roger Brauer, to reduce uncertainty in describing factors that contribute to accidents, injuries, illnesses and death is a goal of: (Brauer, 528)

a. risk identificationb. risk analysisc. risk evaluationd. risk containment

2. According to Roger Brauer, which of the following is NOT one of the five general components or activities of risk management? (Brauer, 527-528)

a. financing risksb. identifying risksc. evaluating risksd. eliminating risks

3. Which of the following is not one of the four steps of chemical risk assessment identified by the National Academy of Sciences? (Brauer, 533)

a. Hazard identificationb. Dose-response assessmentc. Risk reductiond. Exposure assessment

4. A flood at a food processing plant damages the three processing lines. One of the lines must shut down as a result of the fire. The MOST serious loss the company will have to endure will most likely be:

a. Personal lossb. Net income lossc. Property lossd. Liability loss

5. The National Academy of Sciences identified four steps in every complete chemical risk assessment. Which of the following is not one of those steps? (Brauer, 533)

a. Hazard evaluation b. Dose - response assessment c. Exposure assessmentd. Risk characterization

6. According to Pope, until the early 1960s, risk, as a management function, was limited to: (Pope, 112)

a. exposure riskb. security riskc. pure riskd. financial risk

7. Controlling conditions that can be responsible for a loss is called: (Brauer, 527)

a. exposure riskb. security riskc. pure riskd. financial risk

8. The idea of risk implies: (Brauer, 527)

a. any kind of risk to a businessb. specific security riskc. financial risks d. risk of injury or illness

9. Which of the following in not a preloss risk management objective? (Brauer, 528)

a. reducing worry over potential lossesb. meeting safety regulations c. meeting the demands of good citizenship d. returning to full operations

10. Keeping earnings stable through continued operations is an example of this risk management objective? (Brauer, 528)

a. postlossb. transloss c. preloss d. nonloss


1. Which of the following is not one of the techniques used to identify risks? (Brauer, 528-529)

a. historical analysisb. cost-benefit analysis c. specialists d. checklists

2. According to Brauer, it is not possible to ____ all risks. (Brauer, 529)

a. summarizeb. categorize c. quantify d. qualify

3. When many risks exist at once, it is most important to do which of the following? (Brauer, 529)

a. tackle one at a timeb. prioritize the risks c. cost-benefit analysis d. list according to date discovered

4. Two important factors to consider when prioritizing risks are: (Brauer, 530)

a. cost to implement and severityb. resulting penalty and severity c. degree of severity and costd. cost to implement and degree of reduction

5. All of the following are examples of effective tools to quantify risk, except: (Brauer, 530-532)

a. Risk assessment matrixb. Risk summary worksheet c. Risk management data sheetd. Nomograms

6. According to Brauer, methods to pay for risks include all of the following, except: (Brauer, 531-532)

a. do nothingb. develop a cash reserve c. enter a risk poold. purchase insurance

7. According to Brauer, the final step in the risk management process is: (Brauer, 533)

a. accepting the processb. adopting the process c. analyzing the processd. administering the process

8. Which of the following is not administering the risk management process? (Brauer, 533)

a. developing risk potentialsb. setting acceptable levels of risk c. assigning resources to the processd. selecting methods to track items

9. According to Brauer, all of the following should be tracked when administering the risk management process, except: (Brauer, 533)

a. items analyzed b. hazards identified c. control measuresd. decisions made

10. According to Brauer, which of the following is not involved in the risk assessment portion of risk management? (Brauer, 533)

a. synthesis b. identification c. analysisd. evaluation

Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. Which of the following is not one of the techniques used to identify risks? (Brauer, 528-529)

a. historical analysisb. payback period c. specialists d. checklists

2. Which of the following is not one of the five components of Risk Management mentioned by Brauer? (Brauer, 528)

a. Eliminating or reducing b. Enforcing at risk behaviorsc. Risk analysisd. Risk identification

3. According to Brauer, risk evaluation includes: (Brauer, 533)

a. risk aversion and risk acceptance b. risk acceptance and risk reduction c. risk aversion and risk reductiond. risk acceptance and risk removal

4. Which of the following is not a step in administering the risk management process? (Brauer, 531-532)

a. developing risk potentials b. setting acceptable levels of risk c. assigning resources to the processd. selecting methods to track items

5. Reducing risk in the workplace usually involves finding solutions to all of the following except:

a. Hazardous conditions b. Who was to blamec. Unsafe work practicesd. Weaknesses in the safety program

6. Conditions and behaviors described in a problem statement represent the _________ of a safety management system that may have somehow failed.

a. structure b. inputs c. processesd. outputs

7. The National Academy of Sciences identified four steps in every complete chemical risk assessment. Which of the following is not one of those steps? (Brauer, 533)

a. Hazard identification b. Dose - response assessment c. Exposure assessmentd. Risk calculation

8. Projecting frequency and severity is considered: (Brauer, 533)

a. risk managementb. risk assessmentc. risk estimation d. risk evaluation

9. Risk assessment techniques that evaluate the probability of events occurring and the probability of their severity describes: (Brauer, 533)

a. Risk Management (RM)b. Probabilistic Risk Assessment (PRA)c. Risk Projection (RP) d. Risk Estimation (RE)

10. The goal of this activity is to reduce uncertainty in describing factors that contribute to accidents, injuries, illnesses and death: (Brauer, 528)

a. Risk managementb. Probabilistic risk assessmentc. Risk projectiond. Risk identification


1. Which of the following equations can be used to compute risk based on the relationship among consequence, exposure, and probability? (Brauer, 535)

a. R = C x E x P b. R = (C x E)/Pc. R = C/(E x P)d. R = (C x P)/E

2. Which of the following is not listed as a factor that will increase risk or the uncertainty of loss imposed by a particular hazard? (Petersen, TSM, 191)

a. probability b. consequences c. exposure d. duration

3. This activity involves describing the quantitative relationship between the amount of exposure and the extent of toxic injury or disease: (Brauer, 534)

a. Exposure assessment b. Dose - Response Assessmentc. Risk analysisd. Risk identification

4. This activity involves the nature and size of populations exposed to an agent and the magnitude and duration of the exposures: (Brauer, 534)

a. Exposure assessment b. Dose - Response Assessmentc. Risk analysisd. Risk identification

5. This activity integrates data and analysis to determine if people will experience effects of exposure: (Brauer, 534)

a. Exposure assessment b. Risk Characterizationc. Risk analysisd. Risk identification

6. All of the following are factors in determining a numerical risk score, EXCEPT: (Petersen, TSM, 192)

a. likelihood b. exposure c. Conditions, behaviors, systems d. consequences

Subject Area IV. Topic C. General Liability/Product Safety


1. A manufacturer or seller of a product being held liable for all injuries resulting from a product is an example of this form of liability: (Brauer, 54)

a. negligenceb. warrantyc. absoluted. strict

2. This theory of liability deals with characteristics of products that are unreasonably dangerous: (Brauer, 54)


3. This theory of liability involves the conduct or behavior of a person or corporate body, something they did or failed to do: (Brauer, 54)


4. This theory of liability addresses performance of a product regarding implied or explicit claims made for it by the manufacturer or seller: (Brauer, 54)


5. Wrongful acts, injuries or damages for which civil action can be brought are called: (Brauer, 54)

a. negligent actsb. statutesc. tortsd. criminal behavior

6. Under this legal concept, complaints about products usually were ignored: (Brauer, 54)

a. negligenceb. caveat emptorc. absolute liabilityd. absolute liability

7. This doctrine further protected the manufacturer of products by limiting the parties involved in the transaction to the buyer and seller: (Brauer, 55)

a. warrantyb. caveat emptorc. tortsd. privity of contract

8. Under this legal theory, which emerged in 1962, a manufacturer is liable when an article he places on the market, knowing it is to be used without inspection for defects, proves to have a defect that causes injury to a person: (Brauer, 55)

a. strict liabilityb. caveat emptorc. tortsd. privity of contract

9. The vast majority of product liability suits are handled under this theory: (Brauer, 55)

a. torts b. caveat emptorc. strict liabilityd. privity of contract

10. Under strict liability, the plaintiff in a products lawsuit must prove all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 55)

a. Defect existed when if it left defendant's handsb. Defect was not identified or obvious c. Defect was proximate and caused injury or harmd. Defendant was negligent in duty toward plaintiff


1. Under the theory of negligence, the plaintiff must provide evidence required by strict liability and additional evidence. Which of the following below describes additional evidence required by the theory of negligence? (Brauer, 55)

a. Defendant failed in his duty toward plaintiffb. Defect existed when if it left defendant's handsc. Defect was proximate and caused injury or harmd. Product was defective

2. Under the theory of warranty, the plaintiff must prove which of the following? (Brauer, 55)

a. Defendant failed in his duty toward plaintiffb. Defect existed when if it left defendant's handsc. Defect was proximate and caused injury or harmd. Product failed to meet implied or expressed claims

3. Which of the following is not a typical defense in products liability lawsuits? (Brauer, 55-56)

a. The danger was obviousb. The product met government standardsc. The danger is not due to product defectd. The plaintiff altered the product

4. Which of the following describe the two types of warranty? (Brauer, 56)

a. implicit and explicitb. implied and expressc. strict and contributoryd. formal and informal

5. Through this code, adopted by nearly all states, the consumer receives some guarantee regarding the quality of a product? (Brauer, 56)

a. National Product Quality Codeb. Federal Product Quality Actc. Uniform Commercial Coded. American National Standards Code

6. This form of warranty occurs when a seller state claims or representations for a product that become the basis for the bargain: (Brauer, 57)

a. formalb. expressc. impliedd. assumed

7. This form of warranty is breached if injury to the buyer results from the intended use of the product: (Brauer, 57)

a. formalb. expressc. impliedd. assumed

8. The plaintiff in a strict liability lawsuit must: (Brauer, 57)

a. prove manufacturer negligenceb. prove the product was defectivec. prove seller negligenced. prove breach of warranty

9. These are conditions that are NOT compensated for by the ultimate consumer and are unreasonably dangerous to the consumer: (Brauer, 57)

a. defectsb. hazardsc. liabilitiesd. warranties

10. This occurs when a seller makes expressed claims or representations for a product that become a basis for the bargain: (Brauer, 57)

a. assumed liabilityb. implied warrantyc. strict liabilityd. express warranty


1. These are unreasonably dangerous characteristics of a product resulting from decisions, calculations, drawings or specifications: (Brauer, 57)

a. planning errorb. product liabilitiesc. design defectsd. product failures

2. Which of the following is a design factor from which dangerous defects may result? (Brauer, 57)

a. selection of materialsb. management of energyc. safety featuresd. reliability features

3. Which of the following is not a purpose of the Uniform Product Safety Act? (US Code TITLE 15, CHAPTER 47 CHAPTER 47 - CONSUMER PRODUCT SAFETY )

a. protect the public against injury from consumer productsb. promote criminal investigation of product-related deathsc. assist consumers to evaluate the safety of productsd. develop uniform safety standards for consumer products

4. This defect can be identified by comparing a good product from the same manufacturer with a defective one: (Brauer, 58)

a. process defectb. manufacturing defectc. product defectd. materials defect

5. This legal doctrine expresses the idea that the thing speaks for itself and is frequently applied to negligence cases involving manufacturing defects: (Brauer, 58)

a. etu bruteab. caveat emptorc. res ipsa loquiturd. productus res ipsa

6. Under the theories of negligence and strict liability, a supplier has a duty to all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 59)

a. warn in the consumer's primary languageb. warn about dangers that remainc. instruct on safe use of the productd. warn about danger during product use

7. Which test do courts use cases involving misuse of products? (Brauer, 59)

a. warrantyb. negligencec. strict liabilityd. foreseeability

8. In order for product liability to exist, the defect must have existed at the time: (Brauer, 58)

a. the plaintiff purchased the productb. the product was initially manufacturedc. the product left the defendantd. the plaintiff used the product

9. Which of the following is not one of the three main steps in a liability law suit? (Brauer, 59)

a. sentenceb. complaintc. discoveryd. trial

10. This person's primary role is to remove unreasonable dangers from products and environments and prevent defects from reaching the marketplace: (Brauer, 62)

a. accountantb. engineerc. attorneyd. safety manager


1. Consumer products, as defined by the Consumer Product Safety Act, are articles or components for sale to consumers for use in all of the following situations, except: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 521)

a. in the workplaceb. in or around a residence or schoolc. in recreation or otherwised. personal use, consumption, enjoyment

2. Which of the following is considered a consumer product by the Consumer Product Safety Commission? (Grimaldi & Simonds, 521)

a. tobaccob. fire armsc. medical devicesd. bicycles

3. Product liability insurance protects the manufacturing, retail, or service business against claims bodily injury or property damage arising from: (Grimaldi & Simonds, 521)

a. characteristics of the productb. use of the productc. design of the productd. unintentional product defect

4. Locating warning where they are likely to be seen o heard and where the danger is refers to which characteristic? (Brauer, 60)

a. Compatibilityb. Noveltyc. Placementd. Practicality

5. Giving people additional or more detailed data about a warning or its importance through training sessions, operating manuals or other means refers to which characteristic of warnings? (Brauer, 60)

a. Reinforcementb. Noveltyc. Placementd. Practicality

6. The ability to heed or comply with a warning in light of behavior that is normally expected or given a normal context for the warning describes which warning characteristic? (Brauer, 60)

a. Reinforcementb. Noveltyc. Placementd. Practicality

7. Which warning characteristics is defined as the ability to resist environmental conditions, such as abrasion, wear, wetness, chemicals, sunlight and so forth? (Brauer, 60)

a. Reinforcementb. Noveltyc. Durabilityd. Practicality

8. Which warning characteristic is particularly applicable to visual and audio warning devices that must act when a danger is present? (Brauer, 60)

a. Reliabilityb. Noveltyc. Durabilityd. Practicality

9. Which warning characteristic is concerned with the use of pictorials or symbolics and Braille to ensure that the message is received? (Brauer, 60)

a. Reliabilityb. Noveltyc. Readabilityd. Practicality

10. Which of the following is not a reason for naming a person or organization as a defendant in a complaint? (Brauer, 61)

a. The potential defendant has a contributory stake in the outcomeb. The potential defendant has a duty toward the plaintiffc. The defendant may have a role in a defect causing injury to the plaintiffd. The defendant has the ability to pay damages


1. In a trial involving product liability, engineers are often called as expert witnesses to testify about all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 61)

a. Product defectsb. design alternativesc. non-compliance with OSHA standardsd. use of the product

2. A product may meet all necessary standards of design and contain no production flaws, yet it may be unreasonably dangerous for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 59)

a. Instructions do not list manufacturer informationb. Instructions did not adequately explain proper use c. Warnings were not clearly state dangers of use d. Warnings do not explain dangers of misuse

3. Which of the following characteristics of a warning is satisfied when it provides certainty of perception, without search and in a short time? (Brauer, 60)

a. Durabilityb. Effectiveness c. Conspicuousd. Integrity

4. These identify dangers inherent to the product or dangers that may result from its use or misuse: (Brauer, 59)

a. Instructionsb. Warnings c. Notes d. Cautions

5. These explain what actions one must take to eliminate or reduce the likelihood of injury from a product's dangers: (Brauer, 59)


6. These explain how to use a product effectively or safely: (Brauer, 59)


7. Under this theory, a supplier has a duty to warn of dangers that remain in a product or could during its use: (Brauer, 59)

a. implied liabilityb. negligence c. strict liability d. both a and c above

8. Which of the following is a common mistake employers make when writing instructions? (Brauer, 59)

a. they are imperative statementsb. they describe what the product does c. describe the steps to follow d. describe a step-by-step order

9. Which of the following would be helpful in reviewing the quality of warnings and labels? (Brauer, 59)

a. legal expertsb. human factors experts c. users d. all of the above

10. All of the following are characteristics of effective instructions and warnings, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 60)

a. Durabilityb. Effectiveness c. Readabilityd. Integrity

Subject Area IV. Topic D. Fleet Safety


1. Which of the following is a standard formula to compute an annual fleet accident frequency rate? (NSC, APP-A&P, p. 224)

a. no. of drivers x 1 mil. miles / 1 mil. milesb. no. of accidents x 1 mil. miles / 1 mil. milesc. no. of drivers x 1 mil. miles / annual miles drivend. no. of accidents x 1 mil. miles / number of drivers

2. To often, this management responsibility is ignored by the safety professional? (Petersen, TSM, 317)

a. accountability systemb. fleet managementc. incentives and recognitiond. occupational health

3. According to the NSC, which of the following two areas should be the primary focus in a effective fleet safety program? (NSC, APP-A&P, p. 221)

a. driver error and maintenanceb. driver error and vehicle failurec. mechanical error and maintenanced. external conditions and vehicle maintenance

4. Statistics demonstrate that, across the board in many states, this is the number one cause of occupational death - the number one industrial killer: (Petersen, TSM, 317)

a. falls from elevationb. forklifts accidentsc. the industrial truckd. the motor vehicle

5. According to the NSC, an effective accident investigation in a fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)

a. follow-up to prevent future accidentsb. investigation to determine liabilityc. effective accident reporting and analysisd. determination of corrective actions

6. According to Petersen, safety specialists may not be able to extend their influence to the fleet because: (Petersen, TSM, 318)

a. they may think fleet safety is different than plant safetyb. usual safety approaches will not workc. they feel uncomfortable in fleet safety workd. all of the above

7. According to the NSC, an effective driver education in a fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)

a. driver selection processb. driver trainingc. safety-controlling activitiesd. Proper supervision and implementation

8. According to Petersen, fleet safety is different from plant safety in two major ways. Which of the following is one of those ways? (Petersen, TSM, 318)

a. lack of adequate supervisionb. lack of effective enforcementc. lack of adequate resourcesd. lack of effective training

9. According to the NSC, an effective fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)

a. accident investigation to determine faultb. driver safety programc. preventive maintenance programd. written policies enforced by management

10. According to the NSC, which of the following is not part of an effective driver safety program? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 222)

a. driver trainingb. require immediate reporting of accidentsc. develop standards for accident preventiond. develop a disciplinary file for each driver


1. According to Petersen, this is the single most important control measure that management has in fleet safety? (Petersen, TSM, 319)

a. forced supervisionb. driver selectionc. trainingd. highway safety

2. Fleet safety program managers should keep these on every driver to furnish a history of all accidents: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)

a. training folderb. fleet safety cardc. driver record cardd. disciplinary file

3. According to the NSC, when a driver becomes an accident repeater, management should make every effort to: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)

a. discipline the driverb. rehabilitate the driverc. discharge the driverd. transfer the driver

4. A useful accident control tool is monthly or quarterly computation of fleet accident rates per: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)

a. 1000 manhours of drivingb. 1,000,000 miles drivenc. 200,000 total work hoursd. 200,000 miles driven

5. According to the NSC, which of the following is not a reason for keeping a monthly record of frequency rates? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)

a. analysis of performance changesb. record noncompliance ratesc. analysis to determine trendsd. compare fleet performance with others

6. According to the NSC, which of the following is not an effective method for checking an individual's safety record? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 224)

a. interview co-workers b. personal interviewc. consult former employersd. check state motor vehicle departments

7. According to the NSC, the requirements of an effective driving test in traffic include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 226)

a. select a random test route b. objective checklist of performance measuresc. test a sample typical driving situationsd. include a test of typical maneuvers

8. According to the NSC, effective safe driver training will include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 227)

a. state and federal driving rules b. offensive driving strategiesc. what to do if an accident occursd. company safe driving rules

9. According to the NSC, to provide driver motivation directly or indirectly, a fleet safety program should include all of the following, except: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 227)

a. brief report of serious accidents b. driver interviews after each accidentc. safe driving performance recognitiond. continuous safety instruction and reminders

10. According to the NSC, which of the following is not one of the objectives of an effective preventive maintenance program? NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 230)

a. stabilize the workload b. minimize vehicles down for repairc. correct defects as they occurd. prevent accidents and delays


1. U.S. DOT requires all drivers perform this activity: NSC, (APP-A&P, p. 230)

a. pretrip route analysisb. pretrip vehicle inspectionc. break inspection every thousand milesd. report of road conditions

2. A chock should be positioned:

a. to stop vehicle from moving downhillb. to stop vehicle from moving forwardc. to stop vehicle from moving backwardd. to stop vehicle from moving uphill

3. What is the safe position of a load on a truck bed?

a. fully forward on the bedb. over the front axlec. over the rear axled. centered on the bed

4. The goal of the this Act is to improve highway safety by ensuring that drivers of large trucks and buses are qualified to operate those vehicles and to remove unsafe and unqualified drivers from the highways:

a. Uniform Commercial Drivers Act of 1973b. Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986c. National Commercial Safety Act of 1970d. American Trucking Standards Act of 1945

5. Drivers have been required to have a CDL in order to drive a commercial motor vehicle since:

a. 1986b. 1945c. 1992d. 1932

6. The Federal standard requires States to issue this class of CDL to drivers who drive any combination of vehicles with a GCWR of 26,001 or more pounds provided the GVWR of the vehicle(s) being towed is in excess of 10,000 pounds:

a. Class Ab. Class Bc. Class Cd. Class D

7. The Federal standard requires States to issue this class of CDL to drivers who drive any single vehicle, or combination of vehicles, that does not meet the definition of Class A or Class B, but is either designed to transport 16 or more passengers, including the driver, or is placarded for hazardous materials:

a. Class Cb. Class Dc. Class Ed. Class F

8. Which of the following is not information required on all CDLs?

a. driver's date of birth, sex, and heightb. name of the issuing federal agencyc. words 'Commercial Driver's License' or 'CDL'd. driver's State license number

9. Formerly a part of the Federal Highway Administration, this agency's primary mission is to prevent commercial motor vehicle-related fatalities and injuries.

a. National Commercial Motor Carrier Administrationb. National Highway Safety Administrationc. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administrationd. Federal Commercial Carrier Administration

10. In fleet safety, accident records are analyzed to compare company performance with its own previous accident rates and with the records of other companies. Which of the following equations describes a vehicle-accident frequency rate? (Petersen, TSM, 323)

a. (total number of accidents x 1 million miles)/actual mileage driven.b. annual gross revenue/annual dollar losses from vehicle accidents.c. total number of accidents/number of drivers.d. (actual mileage driven/1 million miles) x number of drivers.


1. Which of the following is the primary reason commercial death and accident rates have dropped greatly since World War II? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 3)

a. requirement for commercial driver licenseb. driver trainingc. OSHA regulationsd. increased public safety awareness

2. Which agency below has helped ensure the adoption of uniform safe practices and policies by the motor fleet and bus transit industries? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 3)

a. Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC)b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)c. Federal Postal Carrier Administration (FPCA)d. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

3. This agency and the Interstate Commerce Commission have helped ensure the adoption of uniform safe practices and policies by the motor fleet and bus transit industries: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 3)

a. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA)b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)c. Federal Postal Carrier Administration (FPCA)d. Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

4. Which regulation addresses the transport of hazardous materials? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 4)

a. Title 10 CFR 1910.1200b. Title 29 CFR 1926-1940c. Title 49 CFR 100-185d. Title 56 CFR 120-1200

5. A fleet safety program should address all of the following, EXCEPT: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 7)

a. management standards and policiesb. recording incidents and injuriesc. early return to work programd. hiring and training

6. Which of the following is typically not part of a fleet safety program? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 7)

a. medical managementb. reward programsc. trainingd. program results

7. Despite popular perceptions, this industry experiences the fewest motor vehicle accidents: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 19)

a. local servicingb. long haul truckingc. local deliveriesd. mobile sales force

8. __________ percent of the drivers within motor fleet organizations can expect to be involved in an annual vehicle accident: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p.20)

a. Tenb. Twentyc. Thirtyd. Forty

9. One in _______ vehicle accidents experienced by motor vehicle organizations will result in a fatality: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 20)

a. threeb. fivec. sevend. nine

10. Most crashes involving large trucks were caused by: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 20)

a. other truck driversb. the truck driverc. the environmentd. automobile drivers


1. According to the Bureau of Labor Standards (BLS) which of the following injuries resulted in most time away from work? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 20)

a. stressb. multiple injuriesc. fallsd. strains and sprains

2. According to experts, most accidents keeping drivers off the job occur: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 21)

a. away from workb. at nightc. on the highwayd. on local streets

3. The elements of a fleet safety program include all of the following, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 30)

a. setting management standards and policiesb. recording incidents and accidentsc. disciplining for accidentsd. encouraging and rewarding performance

4. Which of the following is not one of the elements of a fleet safety program? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 30)

a. setting management standards and policiesb. policing vehicle abusec. recording fleet safety resultsd. recognizing and rewarding performance

5. According to the Motor Fleet Manual, a good driver must do all of the following, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 31)

a. control road rageb. avoid schedule delaysc. follow traffic regulationsd. avoid accidents

6. Which of the following is not one of the recommendations the Motor Fleet Manual lists for a good driver? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 31)

a. find satisfaction in the jobb. get along with othersc. adapt to meet existing conditionsd. drive in convoys when possible

7. Studies have found that drivers in the 25-65 age range display all of the following attributes, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 32)

a. are saferb. are less efficientc. less prone to hop jobsd. lower rates of tardiness

8. According to 49 CFR 391.21, employee applications for employment must contain all of the following information, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 32)

a. unexpired CDL informationb. date of birthc. genderd. extent of experience operating motor vehicles

9. According to 49 CFR 391.21, which of the following is not required on a driver's employee application? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 33)

a. details of any denial, revocation, suspension of licenseb. past medical historyc. employer addresses for previous three yearsd. applicant's signature and date

10. Which of the following is not necessary prior to hiring a driver? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 33)

a. complete physical examb. psychological examc. behind-the-wheel testd. statement of commitment


1. Which of the following might be the most beneficial strategy if managers of small fleets do not have the unique skills to train employees who drive motor vehicles? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 34)

a. call in OSHA trainersb. conduct the training with videosc. rely on experienced drivers to traind. contract with outside agencies

2. Which type of driver training is most appropriate for drivers who have experienced a number of accidents? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 37)

a. initial trainingb. in-service trainingc. remedial trainingd. ongoing training

3. All of the following are required vehicle inspections, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 38)

a. random inspectionsb. regular inspectionsc. pretrip inspectionsd. posttrip inspections

4. Which of the following may not be identified by reviewing past work history and reference checks? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 42)

a. responsibility for safety of cargo or passengersb. responsibility for scheduling corrective vehicle maintenancec. responsibility for the safety of pedestrians and other motoristsd. responsibility for the safety of the vehicle

5. All of the following are important driver preselection screening elements, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)

a. driving experienceb. past driving recordc. physical fitnessd. education level

6. Which of the following is not a test typically administered to determine behind-the-wheel attitudes and abilities? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)

a. psychological testsb. driving skill testsc. traffic and driving knowledge testsd. attitude tests

7. Which of the following is not one of the IPDE steps described in the Emergency Vehicle Operator's Guide? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)

a. Identify any hazards that may cause an accidentb. Predict where an incident may occurc. Decide what action to take in order to mitigate exposured. Execute your decision on what corrective action you will take

8. Which of the following is not one of the IPDE steps described in the Emergency Vehicle Operator's Guide? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 50)

a. Identify drivers that may cause an accidentb. Predict where an incident may occurc. Decide what action to take in order to avoid the hazardd. Execute your decision on what corrective action you will take

9. Which of the following is one of the two common criteria used by many fleet companies to consider a driver for employment? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 67)

a. maximum number of permissible moving violationsb. number of accidents in previous five yearsc. lowest cost per highway accidentd. highest rate of nonrecordable accidents

10. Many fleet companies rely on two common criteria which considering a driver for employment. Which of the following is one of those two criteria? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 67)

a. minimum number of permissible moving violationsb. number of accidents in previous two yearsc. median rate at which fleet accidents occurd. average rate of recordable mishaps

Practice Questions - Bank 7 1. According to the NSC Motor Fleet Safety Manual, supervisors must be able to identify substandard driver performance by doing all of the following, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 66)

a. personally observe driver performanceb. be alert to changes in driver personalityc. refer other driver complaints to human resources for investigationd. check training reports, arrest records, and employee comments

2. Which of the following is a common flaw in driver screening procedures? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 67)

a. failure to conduct a MVR check annuallyb. failure to conduct a MVR check after hirec. failure to make MVR checks part of the screen processd. failure to make MVR checks a matter of record

3. An accident is most likely to occur in the first 18 months after hire because: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)

a. new hires are busy learning the ropesb. new hires are trying to impress their supervisors c. new hires are unfamiliar with company policyd. new hires have a tendency to overschedule and rush

4. New hires are responsible for 30 to 40% of fleet accidents because: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)

a. new hires are driving vehicles that differ from their personal vehiclesb. new hires are trying to impress their supervisors c. new hires are driving more frequentlyd. new hires have a tendency to lack common sense

5. Commercial vehicles with a gross vehicle weight ratio (GVWR) of _________ or more must be inspected, maintained, and repaired periodically: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)

a. 1,001 lbb. 5,001 lb c. 10,001 lbd. 15,001 lb

6. The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) was established within which department? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)

a. OSHAb. DOL c. DOTd. HHR

7. Which Act established the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) within the Department of Transportation? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)

a. OSHAct of 1970b. Safety Transportation Act of 1986 c. Highway Transportation Safety and Health Act of 1991d. Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999

8. Which of the following is not one of the criteria for effective measurement of fleet performance? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 68)

a. it should be swift and provide constant feedbackb. it should be meaningfulc. it should focus on poor performanced. it should get the supervisor's attention

9. Which of the following is one of the two primary responsibilities of a fleet safety director? (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 92)

a. identifying causes of accidentsb. holding drivers accountable for accident recordc. recommend ways to react to accidentsd. conduct regular vehicle safety inspections

10. All of the following describe fundamental responsibilities of a fleet safety director, except: (Della-Giustina, MFSSM, p. 92)

a. identifying causes of accidentsb. holding drivers accountable for accident recordc. recommend ways to remove causal factorsd. guard against accidents by protecting employees

Practice Questions - Bank 8 1. Which of the following is not one of the required subjects in LCV Driver Training Programs? (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)

a. Basic Operationb. Safe Operating Practicesc. Non-Driving Activitiesd. Defensive Driving

2. Subjects required in the safe operating practices module in LCV Driver Training Programs must include all of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)

a. extreme driving conditionsb. night operationsc. interacting with pedestriansd. speed and space management

3. Subjects required in the basic operation module in LCV Driver Training Programs must include all of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)

a. driver qualificationsb. cargo and weight considerationsc. regulatory factorsd. vehicle configuration factors

4. Subjects required in the advanced operations module in LCV Driver Training Programs must include all of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380, Appendix)

a. routes and trip planningb. hazard perceptionc. hazardous situationsd. maintenance and troubleshooting

5. The training provider must provide a training certificate or diploma to the entry-level driver. If an employer is the training provider, the employer must provide a training certificate or diploma to the entry-level driver. The certificate or diploma must contain all the following items of information, except: (49 CFR part 380.515)

a. date of certificate issuanceb. name of training providerc. mailing address of employerd. name of driver

6. The employer must provide a training certificate or diploma to the entry-level driver containing all the following items of information, except: (49 CFR part 380.515)

a. training locationb. name and signature attesting to training completionc. statement of completiond. name of driver

7. How long must the employer keep the records specified in 49 CFR 380.505? (49 CFR part 380.511)

a. three years after the end of employmentb. five years after the end of employmentc. as long as the employer employs the driver plus five yearsd. as long as the employer employs the driver plus one year

8. According to CFR 49 CFR 380, the employer is responsible for each of the following, except: (49 CFR part 380.509)

a. reporting driver accidents to OSHA/State Plan within 24 hoursb. drivers operating a CMV in interstate commerce receives trainingc. place a copy of the training certificate in driver's personnel filed. make records available to FMCSA

9. According to CFR 49 CFR 380, entry-level driver training must include instruction addressing each of the following four areas, except: (49 CFR part 380.503)

a. driver qualification requirementsb. incident/accident reporting proceduresc. limitations driving hoursd. driver wellness and basic health maintenance

10. According to CFR 49 CFR 380, entry-level driver training must include instruction addressing each of the following four areas, except: (49 CFR part 380.503)

a. driver/pedestrian interactionb. whistleblower protectionc. avoiding excessive use of alcohold. fatigue countermeasures

Subject Area IV. Topic E. Fire and Life Safety


1. Fire death rates are greatest for what age groups? (Brauer, 225)

a. children under 10, adults older than 20b. children under 10, adults older than 40c. children under 5, adults older than 20d. children under 5, adults older than 40

2. How many victims are involved in most fires? (Brauer, 225)

a. 1 or 2b. 2 or 3c. three or mored. five or more

3. This 1911 fire is one of the greatest fire-related events and resulted in many changes in fire safety management: (Brauer, 225)

a. Chicago's Iroquois Theaterb. Triangle Shirtwaste Factoryc. Barnum and Bailey Circusd. Beverly Hills Supper Club

4. What is the leading cause of industrial fires? (Brauer, 226)

a. frictionb. combustion sparksc. electrical wiringd. arson

5. What is the leading cause of civilian fires? (Brauer, 226)

a. matchesb. smokingc. cookingd. arson

6. What organization publishes a wide range of standards related to fire prevention, protection, engineering and building design? (Brauer, 227)

a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)b. National Fire Research Council (NFRC)c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)d. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

7. What is the rapid oxidation of material in which heat and light are emitted? (Brauer, 227)

a. fireb. combustionc. ignitiond. flame

8. What is an exothermic, self-sustaining reaction involving a solid fuel, a gaseous fuel or both? (Brauer, 227)


9. What is the initiation of combustion called? (Brauer, 227)


10. What is the minimum temperature that must be reached for ignition to occur? (Brauer, 227)

a. ignition temperatureb. lower flammability limit (LFL)c. minimum combustion temperatured. lower combustion temperature


1. Which of the following is not a term that describes the ignition process when there is no external source? (Brauer, 227)

a. autoignitionb. spontaneous ignitionc. piloted ignitiond. spontaneous combustion

2. All of the following may occur when heat builds up as a result of oxidation of organic material, except: (Brauer, 227)

a. autoignitionb. spontaneous ignitionc. piloted ignitiond. spontaneous combustion

3. Which of the following is not one of the three necessary components for fire or combustion? (Brauer, 227)

a. humidityb. oxygenc. fueld. heat

4. Which of the following is not one of the three components of the fire triangle? (Brauer, 227)

a. hydroxl radicalsb. oxygenc. fueld. heat

5. A better model to help remember the components involved in combustion is called the: (Brauer, 228)

a. fire triangleb. fire cubec. fire pyramidd. fire ball

6. This fire model also describes the production of hydroxyl (OH) radicals: (Brauer, 228)


7. In addition to listing fuel, oxygen, and heat, this fire model also includes the production of hydroxyl (OH) radicals: (Brauer, 228)


8. Combustion of ordinary hydrocarbons occurs at this temperature: (Brauer, 228)

a. 500 deg F.b. 1000 deg F.c. 2000 deg F.d. 3000 deg F.

9. Combustion of some metals may occur at this temperature or higher: (Brauer, 228)

a. 5000 deg F.b. 3000 deg F.c. 2000 deg F.d. 1000 deg F.

10. Each kind of fuel has an energy or heat value usually called: (Brauer, 228)

a. heat unitb. heat of combustionc. heat thermal unitd. heat of reaction


1. The rate of heat produced during combustion is a function of: (Brauer, 228)

a. rate of combustionb. nature of fuelc. oxygen contentd. humidity

2. What happens to the rate of heat production when high pressure air or gases with an oxygen content are applied to combustion? (Brauer, 228)

a. increasesb. decreasesc. remains the samed. truncates

3. What is the total heat produced during a fire involving 20 lbs of gasoline with a heat of combustion value of 19,000 BTU/lb? (Brauer, 228)

a. 90,500 BTUb. 190,000 BTUc. 380,000 BTUd. 720,000 BTU

4. A fire involving 20 lbs of gasoline with a heat of combustion value of 19,000 BTU/lb would produce the same heat as: (Brauer, 228)

a. 10 lbs of oil with a heat of combustion of 10,000 BTUb. 10 lbs of diesel fuel with a heat of combustion of 26,000 BTUc. 30 lbs of wood with a heat of combustion of 5,5000 BTUd. 50 lbs of paper with a heat of combustion of 7,2000 BTU

5. Which formula below is used to determine the total heat produced in a fire? (Brauer, 228)

a. fuel weight (lbs) x heat of combustion (BTU)b. (fuel weight (lbs) x heat of combustion)/rate of combustion (min.)c. (rate of combustion (sec) x heat of combustion)/weight of fuel (lbs.)d. (rate of combustion (sec) x heat of combustion)/200,000

6. Heat is transferred from the fire to the surrounding area by all of the following, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 228)

a. convectionb. transferencec. conductiond. radiation

7. Heat is transferred from most fires to the surrounding area by: (Brauer, 228)

a. convectionb. transferencec. conductiond. radiation

8. The upward movement of hot gases is driven by what condition? (Brauer, 228)

a. geometryb. air flowc. thermal gradientd. temperature

9. Radiation of heat is highly dependent on which of the following? (Brauer, 228)

a. geometryb. air flowc. thermal gradientd. temperature

10. A nearby building may actually burst into flames if too much heat is absorbed by: (Brauer, 228)

a. radiative transferb. rapid air flowc. intense thermal gradientd. rapid temperature rise


1. The fire triangle states we may extinguish a fire using any one of three approaches. Which of the following is not one of these approaches? (Brauer, 229)

a. cool the fireb. limit the oxygen supplyc. decrease pressured. remove the fuel

2. Which of the following is the most common gas produced by incomplete combustion? (Brauer, 229)

a. hydrogen cyanideb. carbon monoxidec. carbon dioxided. sulfur dioxide

3. What type of fire suppression system works by applying gas-filled bubbles formed from water-based and other materials? (Brauer, 254)

a. carbon dioxide b. halon c. dry chemicals d. foam

4. Which common gas produced by fires is a major cause of death and is lethal even at low levels? (Brauer, 229)


5. Which common gas produced by fires kills by attaching to the hemoglobin of red blood cells? (Brauer, 229)


6. Which common gas produced by fires may be found in fire fighters several days following a fire? (Brauer, 229)

a. acroleinb. carbon monoxidec. carbon dioxided. ammonia

7. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the vertical movement of gases in a fire? (Brauer, 230)

a. looseness of constructionb. external windsc. difference between internal and external temperatured. presence of vertical openings

8. Which common gas produced by fires is not typically harmful at low levels? (Brauer, 229)


9. Which gas produced by fires is a strong respiratory irritant that can cause death in small concentrations? (Brauer, 229)

a. acroleinb. carbon monoxidec. carbon dioxide

d. ammonia

10. Which gas produced by fires is an eye and nose irritant that can cause breathing difficulty? (Brauer, 229)



1. During a fire, why do hot gases and smoke rise above the flame? (Brauer, 229-230)

a. due to their lower densityb. due to their higher temperaturec. due to cooler gases below pushing upd. due to increased vapor density

2. During a fire, why do hot gases expand in volume? (Brauer, 230)

a. due to their lower densityb. due to their higher temperaturec. due to cooler gases below pushing upd. due to increased vapor density

3. What will a hot layer do once it is confined? (Brauer, 230)

a. increase in thicknessb. dissipate due to pressurec. increase back pressured. push into cool levels above

4. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the vertical movement of gases in a fire? (Brauer, 230)

a. tightness of constructionb. external windsc. difference between internal and external temperatured. presence of horizontal openings

5. What is the effect called when pressure differentials cause cool air to rush in at the lowest level of a building and flow out at the top level? (Brauer, 230)

a. in and outb. external pushc. stack effectd. back pressure

6. Studies have shown that the amount of smoke produced is related to: (Brauer, 231)

a. temperature of the fireb. perimeter of the firec. height of the clear zone of aird. b and c above

7. The NFPA classification system for flammable and combustible liquids uses all of the following criteria, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 231)

a. flash pointb. vapor pressurec. heat of combustiond. anticipated ambient temperature conditions

8. The property of a liquid in a closed container is called: (Brauer, 231)

a. flash pointb. vapor pressurec. vapor pointd. ambient pressure

9. The temperature at which the equilibrium vapor pressure of a liquid equals the total pressure on the surface: (Brauer, 231)

a. flash pointb. vapor pressurec. vapor pointd. boiling point

10. What is the result if there is too much or too little fuel in a mixture of fuel and air? (Brauer, 233)

a. combustion will increaseb. combustion will not occurc. combustion will be incompleted. combustion will not be affected


1. Which of the following describes the flash point of a flammable liquid? (Brauer, 233)

a. less than 100 deg F.b. less than 73 deg F.c. more than 100 deg F. d. more than 140 deg F.

2. What is the minimum concentration of vapor-air below which propagation of a flame will not occur? (Brauer, 233)

a. lower flash limit (LFL)b. lower flammable limit (LFL)c. lower ignition limit (LIL) d. lower combustion limit (LCL)

3. What is the maximum concentration of vapor-air above which propagation of a flame will not occur? (Brauer, 233)

a. upper flash limit (UFL)b. upper combustion limit (UCL)c. upper ignition limit (UIL d. upper flammable limit (UFL)

4. Mixtures of fuel and oxygen said to be too rich exist above the: (Brauer, 233)

a. upper flash limit (UFL)b. upper combustion limit (UCL)c. upper ignition limit (UIL d. upper flammable limit (UFL)

5. Mixtures of fuel and oxygen said to be too lean exist below the: (Brauer, 233)

a. lower flash limit (LFL)b. lower flammable limit (LFL)c. lower ignition limit (LIL) d. lower combustion limit (LCL)

6. Mixtures of fuel and oxygen between the LFL and UFL are said to exist within the: (Brauer, 233)

a. flash regionb. flammable rangec. ignition range d. combustion region

7. Those gases that exist at standard temperatures and pressures and will burn in normal concentrations of oxygen in air are called: (Brauer, 235)

a. reactive gasesb. combustible gasesc. flammable gases d. inert gases

8. Those gases that do not burn in any concentration of air or oxygen are called: (Brauer, 235)

a. nonreactive gasesb. noncombustible gasesc. nonflammable gases d. inert gases

9. Those gases that do not support combustion are called: (Brauer, 235)

a. nonreactive gasesb. noncombustible gasesc. nonflammable gases d. inert gases

10. Those gases that react with other materials in processes other than combustion are called: (Brauer, 235)

a. reactive gasesb. combustible gasesc. flammable gases d. inert gases


1. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of fire hazards developed by the NFPA? (Brauer, 236)

a. health hazardb. safety hazardc. flammability d. reactivity

2. Which of the following numbers would designate the existence of no special hazards in the NFPA Diamond symbol system for identification of hazardous materials? (Brauer, 237)

a. 0b. 1c. 3 d. 4

3. Which of the following NFPA Diamond numbers would inform the reader that materials will rapidly or completely vaporize at normal ambient temperatures? (Brauer, 237)

a. 0b. 1c. 3 d. 4

4. Which of the following is not an objective of fire safety in buildings? (Brauer, 238)

a. getting occupants out safelyb. preserving evidence for later analysisc. minimizing property loss d. minimizing interruption of operations

5. The strategy to restrict horizontal and vertical movement of fire, smoke and heat is called: (Brauer, 241)

a. stratificationb. limited movementc. confinement d. compartmentation

6. Which of the following is not one of the three stages of a fire? (Brauer, 241)

a. creationb. growthc. full development d. decay

7. The severity of a fire in terms of intensity and duration is a function of: (Brauer, 241)

a. quantity of combustibles availableb. burning rate of combustiblesc. air available for combustion d. all of the above

8. The maximum heat released if all combustibles in a fire area burn, including heat from combustible contents and combustible interior finish, floor and structural materials is called: (Brauer, 241)

a. British Thermal Load (BTL) b. total combustion loadc. heat load d. fire load

9. Each of the following is described as a method to limit the spread of fire along horizontal construction, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 243-244)

a. curtain boards b. fire wallsc. venting d. alarms

10. Life safety deals with providing people with a reasonable degree of safety and opportunity to exit the facility if a fire occurs. Life safety is explained in detail within: (Brauer, 248)

a. NFPA 100 b. NFPA 101c. NFPA 110 d. NFPA 111


1. Which of the following categories is not listed by life safety codes as a class of hazard? (Brauer, 248)

a. low b. ordinaryc. high d. extreme

2. There are three parts to the means of egress. Which of the following is not one of them? (Brauer, 248)

a. exit location b. exit accessc. exit d. exit discharge

3. This is a path leading to the entrance to an exit: (Brauer, 248)


4. This is a protected zone of a building the leads outdoors at ground level: (Brauer, 248)


5. This is bounded by one or more entrances to it and one or more doors to leave it at ground level: (Brauer, 249)


6. This is located between the protected exit and outside ground where the doors do not open directly to the outside ground: (Brauer, 249)


7. Exits are measured in terms of: (Brauer, 249)

a. exit location b. exit unitsc. exit accessd. exit discharge

8. Exit units are _______ inches wide, the average width of a man at shoulder height. (Brauer, 249)

a. 22 b. 28c. 33d. 38

9. The number of people expected to be present at one time in a building or floor for which exits are provided is called the: (Brauer, 249)

a. occupant capacity b. occupant loadc. exit capacityd. total exist units

10. How may routes of egress should be provided for each exit in effective exit design? (Brauer, 249)

a. 1 b. 2c. 3d. 4


1. Which of the following computations is used to determine occupant load? (Brauer, 250)

a. floor area / allowable capacity per exit unit b. number of exit units x floor areac. floor area / allowable occupant loadd. number of exit units / floor area

2. Which of the following computations is used to determine the number of necessary exit units? (Brauer, 250)

a. occupant load / allowable capacity per exit unit b. number of exit units x floor areac. floor area / allowable occupant loadd. number of exit units / floor area

3. All of the following are kinds of heat detectors, EXCEPT: (Brauer, 251)

a. fixed temperature detectors b. variable humidity detectorsc. rate-of-rise detectorsd. rate compensation detectors

4. These detectors are designed to operate when a preset temperature is reached: (Brauer, 251)

a. fixed temperature detectors b. flame detectorsc. rate-of-rise detectorsd. rate compensation detectors

5. These detectors respond to fires that flame up quickly but do not react to slower changes in ambient temperature that would normally be expected: (Brauer, 251)

a. fixed temperature detectors b. smoke detectorsc. rate-of-rise detectorsd. rate compensation detectors

6. These detectors respond to a preset temperature, but is less sensitive to thermal lag than a fixed temperature device: (Brauer, 251)

a. fixed temperature detectors b. smoke detectorsc. rate-of-rise detectorsd. rate compensation detectors

7. These detectors monitor for certain wavelengths in the field of view of the sensing device: (Brauer, 251)

a. flame detectors b. smoke detectorsc. rate-of-rise detectorsd. rate compensation detectors

8. These detectors sense the presence of certain gases produced by combustion in most fires: (Brauer, 252)

a. flame detectors b. smoke detectorsc. rate-of-rise detectorsd. gas detectors

9. What type of fire involves ordinary combustibles like wood, paper, and cloth? (Brauer, 253)

a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D

10. What type of fire involves electrical equipment fires? (Brauer, 253)



1. What type of fire involves flammable and combustible liquids, flammable gases, greases and oils? (Brauer, 253)


2. What type of fire involves combustible metals? (Brauer, 253)


3. What type of sprinkler system contains water under pressure at all times? (Brauer, 254)

a. wet-pipe system b. dry-pipe system c. deluge system d. combined system

4. What type of sprinkler system contains air or nitrogen under pressure at all times? (Brauer, 254)

a. wet-pipe system b. dry-pipe system c. preaction d. combined system

5. What type of sprinkler system has features of a dry-pipe system and a preaction system? (Brauer, 254)


6. What type of sprinkler system is similar to the preaction system with all sprinklers being on all the time? (Brauer, 254)


7. What type of sprinkler system is a special type of dry-pipe system in which pipes may or may not be under pressure and sensors are located at the sprinkler heads? (Brauer, 254)

a. wet-pipe system b. preaction system c. deluge system d. combined system

8. What type of fire suppression system works by reducing the oxygen content of air and by cooling, and is most suitable for Class B fires? (Brauer, 254)


9. What type of fire suppression system employ a number of chemicals and are most effective in suppressing Class B and C fires? (Brauer, 254)


10. What type of fire suppression system works by interrupting the hydroxl radical of combustion? (Brauer, 254)


Practice Questions - Bank 11 1. What type of fire suppression system works by applying gas-filled bubbles formed from water-based and other materials? (Brauer, 254)


Subject Area IV. Topic F. Health and Wellness


1. Health-promotion programs educate employees on how to maintain health. Which of the following is true concerning health-promotion programs? (NSC, OHS, 275)

a. they may be comprehensiveb. they may focus on a single risk factorc. they may enhance both psychological and physical healthd. all of the above are true

2. Which type of health-promotion program shows greater cost efficacy? (NSC, OHS, 275)

a. a comprehensive programb. a focused (single risk factor) programc. a program assigned to an external contractord. a program conducted by employees

3. This type of health-promotion program identifies organizational risk factors, such as environmental toxins, in addition to individual risk factors: (NSC, OHS, 275)

a. a comprehensive programb. a focused (single risk factor) programc. a program assigned to an external contractord. a program conducted by employees

4. According to the Bureau of National Affairs, what percentage of worker absenteeism is avoidable through appropriate attention to the physical and emotional needs of employees? (NSC, OHS, 277)

a. 10b. 25c. 50d. 75

5. This type of health-promotion program focus on the early detection of and behavioral intervention into one of more detectable risk factors: (NSC, OHS, 275)

a. a comprehensive programb. a focused (single risk factor) programc. a disease prevention programd. a program conducted by employees

6. This health-promotion program addresses problems through policy-level organizational changes, and personal treatments and referrals: (NSC, OHS, 275)

a. a comprehensive programb. a focused (single risk factor) programc. a disease prevention programd. an ergonomics program

7. In an organization with a simple structure (see Are I, Section E), the success or failure of a health-promotion may depend on: (NSC, OHS, 276)

a. policy formulationb. interest of the CEOc. matrix decision-makingd. labor-management collaboration

8. Health-promotion and disease-prevention programs derive their empirical and clinical base from the academic discipline of: (NSC, OHS, 276)

a. behavior-based safetyb. homeopathyc. behavioral medicined. industrial psychology

9. This academic discipline seeks to fuse the best medical and behavioral interventions to create a more health- and cost-effective approach to health-promotion program management: (NSC, OHS, 276)

a. behavior-based safetyb. homeopathyc. behavioral medicined. industrial psychology

10. All of the following are relatively objective risk factors representing the focus of the majority of evaluations of health-promotion programs, EXCEPT: (NSC, OHS, 280)

a. smokingb. stressc. blood pressured. physical fitness

Practice Questions - Bank 2 1. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimate that _____ of all premature deaths in adults in the United States are from lifestyle-related causes: (CDC)

a. 10%b. under 20 percentc. over halfd. virtually all

2. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimate that _____ of premature deaths are from problems that are treatable through traditional medical care: (CDC)

a. 10%b. less than one fifthc. over halfd. virtually all

3. The U.S. Preventive Health Services Task Force recommends 20 to 60 minutes of aerobic exercise: (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)

a. one to two times a dayb. once a weekc. one to three times a weekd. at least five times a week

4. This worksite-based program assists in the identification and resolution of productivity problems associated with employees impaired by personal concerns that may adversely affect employee job performance: (HHS)

a. health awareness programb. drug free workplacec. employee assistance programd. employee healthful workplace

5. Modifiable risk factors medically relevant to wellness programs include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xii)

a. smokingb. lack of physical exercisec. group dynamicsd. diet

6. Which of the following is true according to recent studies on the benefits of exercise? (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)

a. regular exercisers miss less workb. increased productivity c. greater concentrationd. all of the above are true

7. The U.S. Preventive Health Services Task Force recommends _____ of aerobic exercise three to five times a week: (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)

a. 20-60 minutesb. 1 hourc. 90 minutesd. 1-3 hours

8. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of regular exercise? (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)

a. lowered blood pressureb. stable blood fatc. stable body weightd. lower cholesterol

9. All of the following are benefits of regular exercise, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xiii)

a. lower perceived stressb. stable blood sugarc. stable body weightd. higher cholesterol

10. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factors medically relevant to wellness programs? (Grant & Brisbin, xii)

a. ageb. stress reductionc. workstation designd. genetic proclivity


1. Stress in the workplace results in all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xiv)

a. hypotensionb. headachesc. back straind. asthma

2. Stress in the workplace results in all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, xiv)

a. hypertensionb. diabetesc. neck straind. compression

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a healthy workplace? (Grant & Brisbin, 4)

a. clearly defined objectivesb. commitment to production firstc. respect and admiration for contributionsd. support for innovation

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a healthy workplace? (Grant & Brisbin, 4)

a. recognition of employees before peersb. commitment to quality at the time of productionc. promotion of healthy lifestyles and activitiesd. health policy with firm accountability

5. A wellness director needs a strong background in all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 6)

a. business managementb. physical sciencesc. safety engineeringd. counseling

6. Which of the following is a critical wellness director strength? (Grant & Brisbin, 6-7)

a. ability to motivateb. maintain tight controlc. ability to speak and write welld. work cooperatively

7. To perform most effectively, the wellness director needs be a subject matter expert in all of the following areas, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 12-15)

a. nutritionb. smoking cessationc. stress managementd. engineering controls

8. All of the following areas of expertise are important prerequisites for a wellness director, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 12-15)

a. back careb. production processesc. weight managementd. drug and alcohol abuse

9. Which of the following program areas of a wellness program helps to slow the rapidly escalating rate of related workers' compensation claims? (Grant & Brisbin, 6-7)

a. stress management programb. nutritional education and weight managementc. smoking cessation programd. drug and alcohol education and rehabilitation

10. These programs are often initiated through employee assistance programs through the community, state, or federal government: (Grant & Brisbin, 15)

a. back careb. production processesc. weight managementd. drug and alcohol abuse


1. In order for a wellness program to be effective it must be: (Grant & Brisbin, 16)

a. owned by managementb. narrowly definedc. comprehensived. managed by employees

2. The first step to implementing a workplace wellness program is the: (Grant & Brisbin, 17)

a. development of a policy statementb. determine a budgetc. get bids from contractorsd. survey employees

3. To determine if the wellness program is making a difference, the employer should conduct a/an: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)

a. employee surveyb. management evaluationc. program auditd. workplace inspection

4. All of the following would be a goal of the workplace wellness program, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 17)

a. help employees achieve a lifestyle that promotes healthb. ensure injured employees return to work as soon as possiblec. develop a workforce conscious of health and safety practicesd. increase worker productivity

5. Historically, wellness programs have: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)

a. been mandatoryb. relied on negative reinforcementc. been completely voluntaryd. met with little enthusiasm

6. A wellness program with mandatory requirements is thought by some employees to be: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)

a. less than adequate system designb. ineffective in the long termc. infringement of rightsd. appropriate with employee consent

7. To determine if the wellness program is making a difference, the employer should conduct a/an: (Grant & Brisbin, 18)

a. ask employeesb. management evaluationc. attitude checkd. baseline analysis

8. The most effective wellness program will do all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 19)

a. encourage full participationb. require full participationc. recognize full participationd. educate all employees on the program

9. First-year wellness programs can experience as low as 10% participation. What is the most likely cause of a very low turnout? (Grant & Brisbin, 19)

a. the program is too narrowly focusedb. management disinterestc. failure to disciplined. a and b above

10. Each of the following is one of the three phases to a comprehensive workplace wellness program, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 20)

a. needs and interest assessmentb. implementation of specific programsc. monthly review of participationd. conduct ongoing employee evaluation


1. A wellness program needs assessment will gather baseline data on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 20-21)

a. current lifestyleb. employee interest in wellnessc. current employee productivityd. accident history

2. A phase one wellness program needs assessment will gather baseline data on all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 20-21)

a. current workers' compensation costsb. current employee work schedulesc. current employee absenteeismd. current health risk and fitness levels

3. Which of the following questionnaires would be used to acquire answers to phase one baseline data needs assessment: (Grant & Brisbin, 21)

a. force-field analysisb. employee interest surveysc. health and fitness assessmentd. b and c above

4. All of the following are typical components of an onsite fitness field test and health screening, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 21)

a. percent body fatb. blood pressurec. heart rated. liver function


a. aerobic capacityb. muscle strength and endurancec. skin reboundd. flexibility


a. triglyceridesb. posturec. total cholesterold. blood glucose levels

7. Which of the following is not typically thought to be a general long term goal of an employer wellness program? (Grant & Brisbin, 22)

a. decrease program costsb. design and implement a programc. generate full participation in the programd. improve health, fitness, and productivity

8. All of the following are benefits of conducting a wellness program employee interest survey, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 25)

a. inexpensive way to start the programb. uncovers most important program featuresc. identifies volunteers and subject matter expertsd. reveals forces resisting change

9. This step in wellness program development identifies employee interests and desires so that they can be brought into line with their health needs: (Grant & Brisbin, 25)

a. budgetary reviewb. health screeningc. trainingd. evaluation

10. An effective method to ensure long term growth of a wellness program is to: (Grant & Brisbin, 26)

a. review budgetary requirementsb. conduct health screeningc. track program resultsd. administer a survey

Practice Questions - Bank 6 1. Studies indicate that employee participation in workplace wellness programs is severely reduced when: (Grant & Brisbin, 20-21)

a. no program director is assignedb. employees lack time to participatec. program costs are charged to employeesd. employees are not trained on programs

2. The full benefits of a wellness program cannot be realized without: (Grant & Brisbin, 30)

a. full employee participationb. a fully funded exercise programc. lack of varietyd. management controls

3. Recovering alcoholics and substance abuse addicts experience a greater degree of success in the recovery process when ___________ is included in their wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 33)

a. routine workb. frequent feedbackc. regular exercised. close supervision

4. This is a critical characteristic of a long-term successful wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 33)

a. routineb. varietyc. feedbackd. supervision

5. This activity is frequently the most popular component of a wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 37)

a. runningb. dancec. walking d. aerobics

6. This activity is should be considered a more advanced level of activity in a wellness program: (Grant & Brisbin, 37)

a. runningb. dancec. walking d. aerobics

7. This wellness program activity is conducted to increase flexibility and relaxation: (Grant & Brisbin, 40)

a. runningb. dancec. walking d. stretching

8. A stretching program can be quite effective in achieving all of the following, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 41)

a. reduce stressb. reduce repetitive motion injuriesc. varicose veinsd. improved productivity

9. This wellness activity integrates cardiovascular conditioning and resistance training into a class format: (Grant & Brisbin, 42-43)

a. aerobicsb. walking c. circuit trainingd. yoga

10. A disadvantage of an off-site fitness program is: (Grant & Brisbin, 44)

a. difficult to track resultsb. loss of supervisory and management control c. difficult to conduct follow-up assessmentd. all of the above


1. Which of the following is not a goal in a smoking cessation and tobacco education program? (Grant & Brisbin, 48)

a. encourage smokers to quitb. discourage nonsmokers from startingc. educating on secondhand smoked. restrict smoking areas

2. The wellness director should be aware of smoking cessation program challenges. All of the following are reasons a smoking cessation program might fail, EXCEPT: (Grant & Brisbin, 48)

a. most smokers don't want to quitb. smokers feeling intimidated by a smoke-free policyc. smokers feeling discriminated againstd. negative workplace environment

3. It is most effective to begin a weight management program by offering a general nutrition class. Which of the following is a benefit of this approach? (Grant & Brisbin, 55)

a. it avoids the risk generating animosityb. it singles out those who are overweightc. it addresses unobserved diet-related risk factorsd. both a and c above

4. Which of the following is not a focus area in a weight management program? (Grant & Brisbin, 56-57)

a. reduce diet-related health risksb. weight loss through high protein-low carbohydrate dietsc. decrease heart diseased. decrease incidence of cancer

5. This term is defined as any force or influence which causes one to feel anxious about one's ability to continue to perform one's job duties in a satisfactory manner: (Grant & Brisbin, 62)

a. anxietyb. fearc. stressd. worry

6. Stress is always perceived as negative when a worker has no control over the _______ of the stressor or the _______ of its influence: (Grant & Brisbin, 62)

a. level, frequencyb. magnitude, durationc. type, degreed. force, magnitude

7. Which of the following should be interviewed by the wellness director when initially designing the stress management program? (Grant & Brisbin, 64)

a. psychology professionalsb. marriage counselorsc. medical doctorsd. safety managers

8. The only effective means that a prospective employer has to determine the physical limitations of an employee candidate is through the use of a: (Grant & Brisbin, 76)

a. job applicationb. preemployment job interviewc. preemployment physical examd. referral process

9. The goal of this program is to fully rehabilitate the worker to his or her former position of productivity and responsibility: (Grant & Brisbin, 80)

a. job hazard analysisb. preemployment interviewc. early return to workd. medical management

10. Employee recognition for achievement in a wellness program activity should be focused primarily on: (Grant & Brisbin, 107)

a. individual performanceb. team performancec. accident recordd. positive peer pressure

Subject Area IV. Topic G. Security


1. The President's Commission on Law Enforcement and the Administration of Justice reported that, fear of crime led to ______ of the American population radically changing their lifestyles: (NSC, APM-SM, 7)

a. 10%b. 30%c. 50%d. 70%

2. In 1993 NIOSH published an alert regarding workplace homicide that stated homicide accounted for ________ of all such deaths: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. 10%b. 12%c. 20%d. 250%

3. In 1993 NIOSH published an alert regarding workplace homicide that stated homicide was the leading cause of death from occupational injury among __________: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. menb. fast food employeesc. health care professionalsd. women

4. NIOSH published the 1993 Preventing Violence in the Workplace alert for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. Identify high-risk occupations and workplacesb. Inform employers and workers about their riskc. Require employers and workers to evaluate riskd. Encourage researchers to gather detailed information

5. A 1996 National Institute of Justice study found that victims are seeking compensation from owners and managers of properties on which: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. crimes take place with increasing frequencyb. crimes result in deathc. crimes are the result of employer negligenced. crimes occur during hours of operation

6. In premises-liability cases, juries are told that crime was the result of a perpetrator's ability to: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. commit a crime without being detectedb. repeated commit a crime on premisesc. take advantage of a lack of securityd. commit a crime during hours of operation

7. What is the lesson history has taught regarding crime? (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. crime is controlled when security measures are takenb. crime will flourish where property is left to deterioratec. crime can occur anytime, anywhered. crime is inversely proportional to security measures

8. Society demands prompting the need for increased private security include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. Increasing insurance ratesb. Demands for safer work environmentsc. EPA regulatory requirementsd. Grow of private sector holdings

9. Society demands prompting the need for increased private security include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. Increasing media coverageb. Demands for safer work environmentsc. OSHA regulatory requirementsd. Grow of private sector holdings

10. The U.S. Chamber of Commerce statistics indicate nearly 35% of all businesses failed because of: (NSC, APM-SM, 8)

a. poor business managementb. workers' compensation ratesc. internal theft and drug abused. competition from overseas firms


1. The primary questions to answer when creating a security program in an organization includes all of the following except: (NSC, APM-SM, 25)

a. How can security improve profitability?b. What must we do to protect main interests?c. What programs are essential?d. How to we maintain confidentiality?

2. The primary questions to answer when creating a security program in an organization includes all of the following except: (NSC, APM-SM, 25)

a. How can security improve profitability?b. What must we do to prevent disclosure?c. How much money is needed to fund programs?d. How much staff is needed to carry out tasks?

3. Which of the below reflect the hierarchy upon which security programs are based? (NSC, APM-SM, 25-26)

a. environment, personnel, facility, corporateb. personnel, environment, corporate facilityc. corporate, facility, personnel, environmentd. facility, personnel, corporate environment

4. Which of the following describes the basic strategy employed by security managers? (NSC, APM-SM, 26)

a. protect through levels of hierarchyb. protect by setting up a series of barriersc. protect by employing warnings, cautions, signd. protect through esoteric language

5. One of the critical problems in developing effective security programs is: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)

a. economic resourcesb. program performancec. goal ambiguityd. policy consensus

6. The security manager must ensure all of the following are properly addressed, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 26)

a. Determine security needs of the companyb. Determine availability of company resourcesc. Develop an acceptable strategic responsed. Ensure appropriate reactive planning


a. Obtain necessary budgetary approvalb. Organize approved resourcesc. Focus on short-term responsesd. Establish company acceptance of plans


a. Ensure adequate trainingb. Reduce forces resisting changec. Develop and implement adequate control systemsd. Implement required reporting and data management systems


a. Ensure separation of management and laborb. Select key areas of corporate staff responsibilityc. Ensure there is adequate backup supportd. Develop plans for active involvement by all management levels


a. Ensure program results are evaluated regularlyb. Ensure an improvement process is coordinatedc. Develop active involvement in asset-protection activitiesd. Select key external threats and weaknesses


1. This process is only as useful as the development of countermeasures used to insure the protection of company assets: (NSC, APM-SM, 27)

a. vulnerability analysisb. job safety analysisc. strategic pland. terrorism modeling

2. The major reasons losses occur include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 27)

a. failure to recognize vulnerabilitiesb. not properly reacting after the lossc. not responding to a changing environmentd. failure to use proper software, hardware or people

3. Which of the below informs and defines responsibilities for the security function within a company? (NSC, APM-SM, 28)

a. security strategyb. security planc. security policyd. security process

4. All of the following describe motivations for effective security programs, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)

a. desire for reduced costsb. create employee awarenessc. inform employees of their responsibilitiesd. dissuade those who would commit crime

5. All of the following describe motivations for effective security programs, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)

a. involve employees in loss preventions activitiesb. gain market-share through reduced lossesc. modify values, behavior, or attitudesd. desire to provide job enhancement

6. In the estimation of those participating in a security program, a secure company environment must be: (NSC, APM-SM, 28)

a. foolproofb. free from mistrustc. undeniably secured. worth securing

7. What is considered the most important aspect of the security management process? (NSC, APM-SM, 30)

a. cost/benefit of security activitiesb. response to threats, risks, and vulnerabilitiesc. anticipation of threats, risks, and vulnerabilitiesd. post-response evaluation and improvement

8. Which of the following is management technique to increasingly used to develop best practices within the security function: (NSC, APM-SM, 30)

a. gap analysisb. force-field analysisc. cost/benefit analysisd. benchmarking

9. The internal security consultant is becoming more common in corporations for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 47)

a. enables minimum staffingb. can ensure proper accountabilityc. can serve as an emergency response sourced. can coordinate outside services

10. Which of the following defines 'risk' within the context of security? (NSC, APM-SM, 69-70)

a. the uncertainty of financial lossb. variations between actual and expected resultsc. possible occurrence of an undesirable eventd. probability that a loss has occurred or will occur


1. To prevent a crime or loss from occurring, an organization must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. react quickly when a loss does occurb. anticipate that an event can occurc. estimate or appraise the degree of risk associated with the eventd. initiate steps to lessen the chances of the event occurring

2. To prevent a crime or loss from occurring, an organization must do all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. anticipate that an event can occurb. recognize and acknowledge that the even can occurc. hope and pray the event does not occurd. initiate steps to lessen the chances of the event occurring

3. Which of the below are the two distinct types of risk? (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. dynamic risk and pure riskb. implied and assumed riskc. actual and estimated riskd. high and low

4. Which of the following defines dynamic risk? (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. risks that change with the business environment b. risks that may result in a number of outcomesc. risks associated with the cost of doing businessd. risks that carry no possibility of return on investment

5. Which of the following defines pure risk? (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. risks that change with the business environment b. risks that may result in a number of outcomesc. risks associated with the cost of doing businessd. risks that carry no possibility of return on investment

6. Crime and loss prevention concentrates on the assessment and control _____ factors: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. pure risks b. dynamic risksc. static risksd. assumed risks

7. For a crime or loss to occur, all of the following must exist at the same time, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. a target or victim b. desire to commit the crimec. lack of consequencesd. opportunity to commit the crime

8. Crimes can be grouped loosely into which two categories: (NSC, APM-SM, 70)

a. crimes against person or state b. crimes against persons or propertyc. crimes against persons or organizationsd. crimes against private or public persons

9. The more ways a particular criminal event can occur in given circumstances, the greater is the: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. severity b. riskc. probabilityd. certainty

10. Loss probability can be loosely grouped into all of the following categories, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. virtually certain b. highly probablec. improbabled. uncertain


1. Loss probability can be loosely grouped into all of the following categories, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. probably certain b. highly probablec. moderately probabled. probability unknown

2. Which of the following terms describes the negative impact a loss might have on an organization's assets? (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. risk b. probabilityc. criticalityd. severity

3. Criticality is defined as: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. a sudden positive or negative change b. a turning pointc. an unstable conditiond. all of the above

4. Which of the following does not describe a criticality category? (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. fatal b. moderately seriousc. relatively unimportantd. non-injury


a. fatal b. relatively fatalc. moderately seriousd. serious unknown


a. fatal b. relatively unknownc. very seriousd. serious unknown

7. This loss would have involve loss of key personnel and the loss of a facility or equipment necessary to the manufacture of a produce: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. fatal b. relatively fatalc. moderately seriousd. serious unknown

8. This loss would require a major change in investment policy and have major impact on the balance sheet: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. very serious b. relatively fatalc. moderately seriousd. serious unknown

9. This loss would include petty larcenies or small-scale fire in nonessential areas: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. very serious b. relatively unimportantc. moderately seriousd. serious unknown

10. Within security risk analysis there is a close relationship between these two variables: (NSC, APM-SM, 71)

a. condition and exposure b. probability and severityc. probability and criticalityd. condition and severity

Practice Questions - Bank 6 1. Which of the following is not one of the five ways the Small Business Administration recommends to manage pure risks? (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. avoidance b. reductionc. spreadingd. restricting

2. Which of the following is not one of the five ways the Small Business Administration recommends to manage pure risks? (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. confrontation b. reductionc. transferenced. acceptance

3. Purchasing insurance is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. confrontation b. reductionc. transferenced. acceptance

4. Installing security hardware is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. spreading b. reductionc. transferenced. acceptance

5. Considering and including losses due to crime as just apart of doing business is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. spreading b. reductionc. transferenced. acceptance

6. Removing a threatened object from a vulnerable location is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. spreading b. avoidancec. transferenced. acceptance

7. Keeping the drawer of a cash register open while the store is closed is one way to manage pure risk using this strategy: (NSC, APM-SM, 72)

a. spreading b. avoidancec. transferenced. reduction

8. An on-site security survey is an analysis and documentation of a location to do all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-SM, 75)

a. determine foreseeability of crime b. determine adequacy of existing physical securityc. assess response procedures and methodsd. reduce or remove physical opportunity for crime

9. Which of the following is not one of the three ways to manipulate opportunities for crime so that it can be reduced to an acceptable level? (NSC, APM-SM, 77)

a. deny accessb. discourage accessc. delay accessd. detect access

10. This activity is an exhaustive examination of general characteristics and minutiae for deficiencies in security and management: (NSC, APM-SM, 78)

a. on-site surveyb. on-site auditc. on-site inspectiond. on-site investigation

Subject Area IV. Topic H. Disaster Recovery/Emergency Response


1. The President's Commission on Law Enforcement and the Administration of Justice reported that, fear of crime led to ______ of the American population radically changing their lifestyles: (NSC, APM-SM, 7)

a. 10%b. 30%c. 50%d. 70%

2. This plan is intended to provide preplanned response to whose unexpected or disastrous events that can strike any organization: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)

a. Emergency Management Planb. Fire Safety Planc. Hazard Communication Pland. Emergency Response Plan

3. The best long-term strategy for protecting employees against unforeseen emergencies in the workplace is to develop: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)

a. an Emergency Management Planb. a Fire Safety Planc. a Hazard Communication Pland. an Emergency Response Plan

4. It is most acceptable to assign emergency planning duties and responsibilities to: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)

a. safety committeeb. senior line managementc. safety managerd. local fire department

5. All of the following are steps in the emergency pre-planning process, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)

a. identifying potential emergency eventsb. short-term and long-term needs of workersc. methods of protecting property, operations, peopled. initiating follow-up response to crime

6. Which of the following is not a step in the emergency pre-planning process? (NSC, APM-A&P, 147)

a. conducting job hazard analysesb. short-term and long-term needs of workersc. methods of protecting property, operations, peopled. restoring business operations to normal

7. Which of the following is a common element in emergency operations? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. command functionsb. communicationsc. emergency staff personneld. all of the above

8. Which of the following types of emergencies should be addressed by the emergency management plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. naturalb. technologicalc. nucleard. all of the above

9. All of the following are natural disasters that may require an emergency response with no outside help, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. tornadob. floodc. terrorist attackd. hurricane

10. Once potential emergencies are identified, the next step in the emergency planning process is to prioritize each emergency for harm to each of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. peopleb. profitsc. environmentd. property


1. Which of the following is not usually considered in development of the emergency management plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. probably warning times for potential emergenciesb. changes in company operations to meet potential emergenciesc. impact of company operations on the environmentd. estimation of potential damage to property

2. A basic emergency preparedness plan will address all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. chain of commandb. alarm systemc. medical treatmentd. property inventory


a. shutdown proceduresb. committee organizationc. evacuation proceduresd. communications system


a. disciplinary policyb. auxiliary power systemsc. evacuation proceduresd. communications system

5. The ultimate determinant of the complexity of an emergency management plan is: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. size of the business and locationb. number of employeesc. type of facility and associated hazardsd. work process and number of employees

6. Choosing the correct type plan for a facility is important. Which of the following is not a common type of plan to address emergencies? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. action guides/checklistsb. response plansc. emergency management pland. job analysis plan

7. Choosing the correct type plan for a facility is important. Which of the following is not a common type of plan to address emergencies? (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. action guides/checklistb. inspection planc. emergency management pland. mutual aid plan

8. This plan is generally a short and simple means to describe basic procedures that must be followed: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)

a. action guides/checklistb. response planc. emergency management pland. mutual aid plan

9. This plan is usually very detailed and tells all responsible individuals actions that must be taken: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)


10. Sometimes this plan is written for each type of possible hazard at the site: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)


Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. This plan is intended to be a reminder and, therefore, should not be used by an untrained individual: (NSC, APM-A&P, 148)


2. This plan is the most comprehensive plan used by business to respond to emergencies: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)


3. This plan addresses procedures before, during, and after a disaster: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)


4. This plan is developed with other nearby firms: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)


5. This plan calls for firms to share resources and help one another during an emergency: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)


6. All of the following are important sources of hazard information, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)

a. National Weather Serviceb. Food and Drug Administrationc. U.S. Geological Survey studiesd. U.S. Hazard Vulnerability Community Analyses

7. Which of the following are potential environmental problems that may be produced by both small and large fires? (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)

a. production of toxic gas and dust from combustion and decompositionb. thermal plumes that carry contamination great distances c. disposal of contaminated water used to fight fired. all of the above

8. When a facility is located in a floodplain, it may most effectively use which of the following strategies to protect against a flood emergency, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 149)

a. sandbagsb. dikes of earth, concrete or brick c. emergency evacuation proceduresd. any of the above

9. Which of the following is not considered an important precaution to consider in preparation for a flood? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. proper grounding to prevent from electrocution hazardsb. bracing or storing important equipment, materials, chemicals off the ground c. employing pumps and emergency power sourcesd. an emergency alarm system

10. Which of the following is not considered an important precaution to consider in preparation for a flood? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. flotation devices for critical equipmentb. protection against soil erosion that might cause structural damage c. employing pumps and emergency power sourcesd. protection of potable water supplies


1. Companies regularly exposed to hurricanes should develop a plan that includes all of the following strategies, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. facility constructed to withstand destructive windsb. planned shutdown of operations based on hurricane location c. employing pumps and emergency power sourcesd. a and b above

2. Tornado and hurricane experience indicates that emergency plans should include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. procedures for alerting and relocating personnelb. assigned personnel to take care of electrical hazards c. procedures for rapid recovery responsed. assigned personnel to remove wreckage to prevent injury

3. Experience indicates that emergency plans for tornado and hurricane disasters should include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. procedures for study and analysis of the phenomenonb. assigned personnel to take care of electrical hazards c. scheduling regular meals and rest for repair crewsd. assigned personnel to remove wreckage to prevent injury

4. Which of the following is a strategies to protect against earthquakes? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. earthquake-resistant constructionb. flexible utility lines and water mains c. seismic bracing of equipment and machineryd. all of the above

5. Principle earthquake dangers include all of the following, EXCEPT? (NSC, APM-A&P, 150)

a. failure of bridges and buildingsb. relocation of population centers c. water shortages and contaminationd. damage to roads and highways

6. Which of the following actions should be taken by the employer prior to civil strife? (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. statement of legal responsibility for the safety of employeesb. disclaimer of liability for injury or property damage c. obtain a statement of employer rights to protect propertyd. both a and c above

7. This act served to mobilize and organize our nation to secure the homeland from terrorist attacks.? (DHS)

a. U.S. Threat Assessment of 1999b. OSHAct of 1970 c. Homeland Security Act of 2002d. William-Steiger Security Act of 2001

8. In the event of a terrorist attack, natural disaster or other large-scale emergency, which agency will assume primary responsibility for ensuring that emergency response professionals are prepared for any situation? (DHS)

a. Department of Defenseb. Federal and State OSHA agenciesc. Department of Homeland Securityd. National Fire Protection Association

9. The purpose of this act is to encourage the development and deployment of anti-terrorism technologies that will substantially enhance the protection of the nation? (See Note 1) (DHS)

a. SAFETY Act of 2002 b. OSHAct of 1970 c. Homeland Security Act of 2002d. William-Steiger Security Act of 2001

10. Plans to manage panic in the workplace include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. auxiliary medical treatment areasb. methods for notifying employees c. rapid dispersement of employeesd. methods for accounting for employees

Practice Questions - Bank 5 1. Plans to manage panic in the workplace include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. auxiliary medical treatment areasb. methods for notifying employees c. rapid dispersement of employeesd. methods for accounting for employees

2. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for the increase in emergencies due to workplace accidents? (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. complexity of processesb. proliferation of hazardous chemicals c. close proximity of facilities to residential areasd. deteriorating condition of facilities

3. Risk assessment techniques are required by various regulations. Which of the following is not a requirement in the risk assessment process? (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. labor and management analysis teamb. identify hazards c. calculate probability of occurrenced. develop means to respond

4. Which of the following regulations require analysis to identify hazards, calculate their probability of occurrence, and development of means of response? (see Notes 1,2, and 4) (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. 40 CFR Parts 330 and 335, Extremely Hazardous Substance List and Emergency Planning and Release Notification Requirementsb. 29 CFR 1910.120, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER)c. 29 CFR 1910.1200 append. E, Hazard Communication Guidelines for Employer Complianced. all of the above

5. Which of the following regulations require analysis to identify hazards, calculate their probability of occurrence, and development of means of response? (see Note 3) (NSC, APM-A&P, 151)

a. 40 CFR 1926, Emergency Planning in the Construction Industryb. 29 CFR 1910.146, Permit Required Confined Spaces c. 29 CFR 1910.666, Homeland Security and Emergency Preparednessd. Public Law No. 99-499, Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act

6. During an emergency shutdown of machinery, it is important that all of the following should be accomplished, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 154)

a. brief effective counter-measures for firesb. continually inspect maintenance and special operations c. prepare a emergency shutdown checklistd. supervise any gas welding and cutting

7. Which of the following is not true concerning radioactive material? (NSC, APM-A&P, 154)

a. it cannot cause firesb. it cannot be destroyed by fire c. it's state can be changed by fired. fire renders radioactive material less dangerous

8. Which of the following is not true concerning a radioactive substance? (NSC, APM-A&P, 154-155)

a. being radio active does not affect its physical propertiesb. the substance will be easier to control when its state is changed c. being radio active does not affect is behavior when heatedd. the substance will change state (solid, liquid, gas) normally

9. If radioactive material is spilled or splashed, which of the following emergency procedures should be immediately accomplished? (NSC, APM-A&P, 155)

a. use absorbent materials such as powder, earth, or sandb. dampen the material with a neutralizing spray c. vacuum the material into a safe containerd. if possible, apply heat the material

10. If solid radioactive material is spread, which of the following emergency procedures should be immediately accomplished? (NSC, APM-A&P, 155)

a. use absorbent materials such as powder, earth, or sandb. dampen the material with a water spray c. vacuum the material into a safe containerd. if possible, apply heat the material


1. Which of the following describes the most dangerous and likely route of entry for radioactive dust, aerosols, fumes or gases? (NSC, APM-A&P, 155)

a. ingestionb. absorption c. inhalationd. injection

2. Once the risk assessment of potential emergencies has been completed, what is the next step in the planning process? (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)

a. preparing a plan of actionb. coordination with local authorities c. prioritizing potential emergenciesd. networking with similar organizations

3. Which of the following should be involved in preparing an emergency program plan of action? (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)

a. local police and fire departmentsb. production or maintenance representative c. legal staffd. all of the above

4. All of the following are important criteria for an effective emergency action plan, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)

a. must be a written set of plans for action b. must be written in advancec. developed locally within the companyd. developed in isolation from neighboring businesses

5. All of the following are important elements within a written emergency action plan, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)

a. policies, purposes, authority b. organizational chartc. related government regulationsd. description of potential or expected disasters

6. All of the following are important elements within a written emergency action plan, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 156)

a. map of the facilityb. material safety data sheetsc. list of cooperating agenciesd. central communications center

7. Which of the following is not considered an important element within a written emergency action plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 156-157)

a. phone numbers of key employeesb. plant warning systemc. shutdown proceduresd. meeting minutes

8. Which of the following is not considered an important element within a written emergency action plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)

a. locally related and necessary itemsb. list of available equipment and resourcesc. prepared news releasesd. procedures for handling visitors and media

9. Under which conditions should management exercise the emergency action plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)

a. surpriseb. plannedc. realisticd. simulated

10. The director or coordinator of an emergency planning program should be appointed based on:? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)

a. ability to respond under stressb. position in the organizationc. rank of the directord. ability to work well with authorities


1. What has experience demonstrated regarding the chain of command within the disaster plan? (NSC, APM-A&P, 157)

a. wide chain of command works best under stressb. parallel chain is most effectivec. shared responsibility ensure quick decisionsd. a small chain of commend is most effective in crisis

2. All of the following is true concerning the emergency director, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 157-158)

a. the director be testedb. the director should be a member of top managementc. the director should be the ranking managerd. the director must be able to speak for the organization

3. The director of emergency management is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)

a. emergency operation center managementb. inspection planc. firefighting pland. rescue operations

4. The director of emergency management is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)

a. transportationb. rescue operationsc. security and law enforcementd. job analysis

5. Which of the following is not one of the usual responsibilities of the director of emergency management? (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)

a. damage assessmentb. mitigation and investigationc. software and hardware selectiond. public information and media briefings


a. damage assessmentb. rumor controlc. on-scene safety functionsd. internal surveillance


a. Notifying DOL authoritiesb. utilities and engineering functionsc. sheltering, feeding and counseling functionsd. morgue establishment and notification of survivors

8. This emergency director responsibility is one of the most important to ensure proper application of policies, plans, and procedures? (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)

a. accountabilityb. trainingc. supervisiond. resources

9. Team captain duties in a disaster plan include all of the following, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)

a. supervision of training personnelb. providing equipmentc. selecting personneld. all of the above

10. This OSHA regulation addresses many aspects of safety and health at hazardous waste sites: (NSC, APM-A&P, 158)

a. 29 CFR 1910.330b. 29 CFR 1910.120c. 29 CFR 1926.147d. 29 CFR 1940.1200


1. 29 CFR 1910.120, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response, requires employers to addresses many aspects of safety and health at all of the following locations, EXCEPT: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)

a. hazardous waste sitesb. treatment, storage, and disposal facilitiesc. manufacturing facilitiesd. hazardous materials emergency locations

2. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of employees requiring training by 29 CFR 1910.120, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response? (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)

a. hazardous waste site workersb. safety committee representativesc. treatment, storage, and disposal workersd. emergency responders to hazardous releases

3. This team consists of an organized group of employees, designated by the employer, who are expected to perform work to handle and control actual of potential leaks of spills of hazardous substances? (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)

a. HAZCOM Teamb. Emergency Response Teamc. HAZMAT Teamd. Emergency Waste Rescue Team

4. This employee may be an inspector, engineer, or technician that is not likely to be exposed over permissible exposure limits (PEL) and requires 24 hours of off-site instruction: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)

a. Hazardous waste site workersb. Occasional hazardous waste site workersc. Treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) workersd. Hazardous materials emergency responders

5. This employee work on site full time and probably have been exposed to a hazardous chemical or situation (PEL) and requires 40 hours of hands-on classroom instruction followed by three days of actual field experience under a trained supervisor: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)

a. Hazardous waste site workersb. Occasional hazardous waste site workersc. Treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) workersd. Hazardous materials emergency responders

6. After completing the 40-hour HAZMAT team training course, this employee must have eight hours of specialized training covering site safety plans, personal protective equipment selection, and health monitoring: (NSC, APM-A&P, 159)

a. Hazardous waste site workersb. Occasional hazardous waste site workersc. Treatment, storage, and disposal (TSD) workersd. Hazardous waste site supervisor

7. HAZMAT team workers who only attempt to identify the involved hazardous material and then notified more qualified personnel require this training: (NSC, APM-A&P, 160)

a. 4- to 8-hour first responder operations trainingb. 8-hour first responder awareness trainingc. 24-hour hazardous materials technician trainingd. hazard materials specialist training

8. HAZMAT team workers who need to be competent in the chemical, toxicological, and radiological behavior of particular materials must complete this training: (NSC, APM-A&P, 160)

a. 24-hour first responder operations trainingb. 4- to 8-hour first responder awareness trainingc. 24-hour hazardous materials technician trainingd. hazard materials specialist training

9. HAZMAT team workers who perform the actual plugging, patching or sealing of a container leaking a hazardous substance must complete this training after completing the 24-hour First Responder Operations course: (NSC, APM-A&P, 160)

a. 24-hour incident commander trainingb. 4- 8-hour first responder awareness trainingc. 24-hour hazardous materials technician trainingd. hazard materials specialist training

10. The HAZMAT team member required to complete a recommended 24-hour course and be a graduate of the 24-hour First Responder Operations course is called the: (NSC, APM-A&P, 161)

a. first responderb. incident commanderc. hazardous materials techniciand. hazardous materials specialist

Subject Area IV. Topic I. Workplace Violence


1. Successful company violence prevention programs usually start by forming a ____________:

a. Security detailb. Safety committeec. Emergency response teamd. Planning group

2. This type of violence involves verbal threats, threatening behavior or physical assaults by an assailant who has no legitimate business relationship to the workplace:

a. Type Ib. Type IIc. Type IIId. Type IV

3. In this type of violence, the individual may be seeking revenge for what is perceived as unfair treatment by management:

a. Type Ib. Type IIc. Type IIId. Type IV

4. In Type II violence, the person causing violence may be all of the following, except:

a. clientb. passengerc. customerd. employee

5. A ______________ is a condition or circumstance that may increase the likelihood of violence occurring in a particular setting:

a. HAZOP Situation Ib. risk factorc. problematic referenced. dangerous event

6. Studies indicate that all of the below increase the probability of violence in the workplace, except:

a. exchange of moneyb. delivery of goodsc. work in a union shopd. contact with the public

7. Which of the following is not listed as an acceptable policy regarding visitor access within facilities?

a. Require visitors to sign in and out b. Limit accessc. Wear an identification badged. Conduct body searches

8. Companies have an inherent right to take action against employees who engage in disruptive or threatening behavior whether or not they have issued a written policy statement:

a. True b. Falsec. Not unless the Director approvesd. True, but only when the policy statement is communicated

9. Which of the following is not considered an advantage of formal policies?

a. informs everyone on policy b. tells everyone who to callc. encourages incident reportingd. demonstrates employee commitment

10. A workplace violence policy statement should convey all of the following, except:

a. the policy covers only acts of physical violence upon employeesb. the policy covers not only acts of physical violence, but harassment, intimidation, and other disruptive behaviorc. employees are responsible for maintaining a safe and healthful work environmentd. the policy covers incidents involving all interactions between employees at all levels


1. Definitions of workplace violence are:

a. restrictive and may create legal problemsb. inclusive and may create legal problemsc. too vague to be of any real used. too simplistic to be an use in a legal forum

2. To best clarify the scope of your organization's terms in the workplace violence prevention policy, you could:

a. define termsb. use examplesc. limit definitionsd. use legal jargon

3. All of the following are considered negative consequences from using the term zero tolerance, except:

a. could create legal problemsb. perceived as an unreasonable goalc. limit definitionsd. discourages intervention

4. It is _______ advisable to rely on profiles or early warning signs to predict violent behavior:

a. alwaysb. usuallyc. seldomd. never

5. The FBI Profiling and Behavioral Assessment Unit has identified all of the following as indicators of increased risk of violent behavior, except:

a. Direct or veiled threats of harmb. Intimidating, belligerent, harassing, bullyingc. Subtle changes in behaviors d. Statements indicating desperation

6. Installing surveillance cameras, silent alarms, metal detectors, or bullet-proof glass are examples of :

a. engineering controlsb. work practice controlsc. personal protective equipment d. interim measures

7. Work practice or management controls include all of the following except:

a. Improved lighting around parking lots.b. Establishing sign-in procedures for visitors.c. Developing employee assistance programs d. Arranging escorts for employees

8. It would be effective to consider using any one of the following prevention measures for Type I (Criminal Violence), except:

a. Obtain restraining ordersb. Leave a clear, unobstructed view of cash register from streetc. Training (include de-escalation techniques) d. Post signs stating cash register only contains minimal cash

9. According to the text, it would be effective to consider using any one of the following prevention measures for potential Type III (Employee Relationship) violence, except:

a. effective policy for disciplinary actionsb. Provide security personnelc. Restraining orders d. Post signs stating cash register only contains minimal cash

10. The primary type of violence in the workplace training that may be beneficial to all employees is that which concentrates on which of the following?

a. conflict anticipationb. conflict resolution c. conflict determination d. conflict reaction

Practice Questions - Bank 3 1. In workplace violence prevention training, as a minimum all employees should be trained in how to ________:

a. manage angerb. report incidents c. spot likely violent employees d. react to a hostile employee

2. Which of the following should be included in incident response team training to minimize confusion during an actual incident?

a. group discussionb. videos c. written tests d. practice exercises

3. All of the following strategies would be useful to de-escalate potentially violent situations in interactions with people, except:

a. encourage the person to talk and listen patientlyb. maintain a relaxed yet attentive posture c. attempt to bargain with a threatening individuald. acknowledge the person's feelings

4. Within the workplace violence prevention program, this report is used to assess the safety of the workplace, and to decide upon a plan of action:

a. OSHA Form 300b. Threat Incident Report c. Accident Investigation Reportd. OSHA 301 Form

5. Investigation categories in the violence prevention program include all of the following, except:

a. Threat assessment investigationb. Incident/Accident investigation c. Administrative investigationd. Criminal investigation

6. Which of the following is the most critical requirement for administrative investigations?

a. management should ensure human resources administers disciplineb. actions should be accomplished by a line supervisor c. actions taken should be timelyd. actions should not compromise a potential criminal prosecution

7. Immediately after an assault occurs in the workplace, an employer should focus first on providing for the __________ and __________ needs of all affected employees:

a. physical, psychologicalb. emotional, physical c. medical, psychologicald. financial, medical

8. Which of the following is not a primary reason to include all employees during a incidence of violence in the workplace?

a. discuss the cause of the violent actb. address a plan of action c. coordinate with law enforcement agenciesd. identify those needing further help

9. To show their support of the victims of violence in the workplace, employers should support prosecution of offenders in all of the following ways, except:

a. help the victim make court appearancesb. help the victim work with prosecutors c. cooperate with law enforcement authorities d. allow the victim to join a protected witness program

10. Since management bears the brunt of responsibility after a violent incident, and can find itself dealing with unfamiliar challenges under high stress, this program can be very helpful in facilitating an optimal response:

a. early return to work programb. employee assistance program c. police cadet program d. formal observation program

Practice Questions - Bank 4 1. Which of the following workplace violence prevention elements is least important to evaluate after an incident occurs? (OPM)

a. ability to provide increased worksite protectionb. quality of disciplinary procedures c. consideration of costs and benefits d. counseling potential victims

2. Which of the following acts of violence would be most likely to subject the employer to a citation for a violation of the General Duty Clause of the OSH Act? (OSHA)

a. acts which might occur anywhereb. acts which are predictable c. not recognized as characteristicd. random antisocial acts

3. Failure of an employer to implement feasible means of abatement of acts of violence hazards could result in which of the following violations? the finding of an OSH Act violation? (OSHA)

a. state and federal lawb. OSHA Guidelines c. OSH Act d. Better Business Bureau Guidelines

4. Which of the following is not considered by OSHA as a minimum requirement of an effective violence prevention program? (OSHA)

a. clear policy of zero accidentsb. adequate understanding of policies c. no reprisals for reportingd. liaison with law enforcement

5. All of the following are considered by OSHA as a minimum requirement of an effective violence prevention program, except: (OSHA)

a. clear policy of zero toleranceb. reporting only physical violence c. assign responsibilities and authorityd. encourage prompt reporting

6. Which of the following is not considered by OSHA as a minimum requirement of an effective violence prevention program? (OSHA)

a. affirm management commitmentb. company briefings on the program c. limit records to assure privacyd. encourage prompt reporting

7. The main components of any effective workplace violence prevention program include all of the following, except: (OSHA)

a. management commitmentb. employee control c. worksite analysisd. hazard prevention and control

8. Which of the following is not one of the main components of any effective workplace violence prevention program? (OSHA)

a. safety and health trainingb. recordkeeping c. program evaluationd. tough-controlling leadership

9. According to OSHA, a violence prevention program worksite analysis effort includes all of the following activities, except: (OSHA)

a. job hazard analysisb. screening surveys c. analyzing workplace securityd. analyzing the tracking records

10. All of the following represent possible engineering control strategies for consideration in a violence prevention program, except: (OSHA)

a. incident reporting proceduresb. provide curved mirrors in hallways c. ensure adequate exit routesd. arrange furniture to prevent entrapment

AREA IV. ANSWER KEYS

Area IV. A. Workers’ Compensation

Bank 1

1. b. Comparative negligence2. c. The fellow servant rule3. d. Contributory negligence4. a. Assumption of risk5. b. 19116. c. 19167. d. 19488. d. no longer liable for negligence resulting in worker injury9. c. Occupational Workers' Compensation Act (OWCA)10. a. compulsory law

Bank 2

1. c. elective law 2. c. Provide multiple remedies without delay 3. d. Ensure financial relief to employers 4. d. 90 percent 5. a. compensate the worker 6. b. physical damage to the body 7. d. falls 8. c. cumulative trauma 9. b. Temporary partial disability 10. a. Temporary total disability

Bank 3

1. b. Temporary partial disability 2. c. Permanent partial disability 3. d. Permanent total disability4. a. Loss of insurance 5. a. Equivalent wages theory 6. c. Whole-man theory 7. b. Lost wages theory 8. d. Loss of potential earnings theory 9. a. schedules 10. a. schedules

Bank 4

1. c. average weekly earnings 2. d. federal insurance 3. a. self-insured benefits 4. c. compensation payments 5. c. $100 of payroll 6. a. National Council of Compensation Insurance (NCCI) 7. a. Experience rate 8. c. Prospective rating9. c. Schedule rate 10. a. Retrospective rating

Bank 5

1. d. Fixed rate premiums 2. c. Experience rating 3. c. four years 4. a. Drug Free Workplace Program (DFW)5. c. in three years6. d. the worker's employer7. c. Proactive safety programs 8. c. discipline often 9. b. Assumption of Risk10. d. Mental impairment

Bank 6

1. d. Mental impairment2. b. exempts small employers3. b. exempts small employers4. a. broken leg at company picnic soccer game5. d. Mental impairment

Area IV. B. Risk Management

Bank 1

1. a. risk identification2. c. evaluating risks3. c. Risk reduction4. d. Liability loss5. a. Hazard evaluation 6. c. pure risk7. c. pure risk8. a. any kind of risk to a business9. d. returning to full operations10. a. postloss

Bank 2

1. b. cost-benefit analysis 2. c. quantify 3. b. prioritize the risks 4. d. cost to implement and degree of reduction5. b. Risk summary worksheet 6. c. enter a risk pool7. d. administering the process8. a. developing risk potentials9. c. control measures10. a. synthesis

Bank 3

1. b. payback period 2. b. Enforcing at risk behaviors3. a. risk aversion and risk acceptance 4. a. developing risk potentials 5. b. Who was to blame6. d. outputs7. d. Risk calculation8. c. risk estimation 9. b. Probalistic Risk Assessment (PRA)10. d. Risk identification

Bank 4

1. a. R = C x E x P 2. d. duration3. c. Risk analysis4. a. Exposure assessment 5. b. Risk Characterization6. c. Conditions, behaviors, systems

Area IV. C. General Liability/Product Safety

Bank 1

1. c. absolute2. d. strict3. a. negligence4. b. warranty5. c. torts6. b. caveat emptor7. d. privity of contract8. a. strict liability9. c. strict liability10. b. Defect was not identified or obvious

Bank 2

1. a. Defendant failed in his duty toward plaintiff2. d. Product failed to meet implied or expressed claims3. a. The danger was obvious4. b. implied and express5. c. Uniform Commercial Code6. b. express7. c. implied8. b. prove the product was defective9. a. defects10. d. express warranty

Bank 3

1. c. design defects2. d. reliability features3. b. promote criminal investigation of product-related deaths4. b. manufacturing defect5. c. res ipsa loquitur6. a. warn in the consumer's primary language7. d. foreseeability8. c. the product left the defendant9. a. sentence10. b. engineer

Bank 4

1. a. in the workplace2. d. bicycles3. b. use of the product4. c. Placement5. a. Reinforcement6. d. Practicality7. c. Durability8. a. Reliability9. c. Readability10. a. The potential defendant has a contributory stake in the outcome

Bank 5

1. c. non-compliance with OSHA standards2. a. Instructions do not list manufacturer information3. c. Conspicuous4. b. Warnings 5. a. Instructions6. a. Instructions7. d. both a and c above8. b. they describe what the product does 9. d. all of the above10. d. Integrity

Area IV. D. Fleet Safety

Bank 1

1. b. no. of accidents x 1 mil. miles / 1 mil. miles2. b. fleet management3. b. driver error and vehicle failure4. d. the motor vehicle5. b. investigation to determine liability6. d. all of the above7. c. safety-controlling activities8. a. lack of adequate supervision9. a. accident investigation to determine fault10. d. develop a disciplinary file for each driver

Bank 2

1. b. driver selection2. c. driver record card3. b. rehabilitate the driver4. b. 1,000,000 miles driven5. b. record noncompliance rates6. a. interview co-workers 7. a. select a random test route 8. b. offensive driving strategies9. a. brief report of serious accidents 10. c. correct defects as they occur

Bank 3

1. b. pretrip vehicle inspection2. a. to stop vehicle from moving downhill3. d. centered on the bed 4. b. Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 19865. c. 19926. a. Class A7. a. Class C8. b. name of the issuing federal agency9. c. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration10. a. (total number of accidents x 1 million miles)/actual mileage driven.

Bank 4

1. b. driver training2. a. Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC)3. a. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA)4. c. Title 49 CFR 100-1855. c. early return to work program6. a. medical management7. b. long haul trucking8. b. Twenty9. a. three10. d. automobile drivers

Bank 5

1. d. strains and sprains2. a. away from work3. c. disciplining for accidents4. b. policing vehicle abuse5. a. control road rage6. d. drive in convoys when possible7. b. are less efficient8. c. gender9. b. past medical history10. d. statement of commitment

Bank 6

1. d. contract with outside agencies2. c. remedial training3. a. random inspections4. b. responsibility for scheduling corrective vehicle maintenance5. d. education level6. a. psychological tests7. c. Decide what action to take in order to mitigate exposure8. a. Identify drivers that may cause an accident9. a. maximum number of permissible moving violations10. a. minimum number of permissible moving violations

Bank 7

1. c. refer other driver complaints to human resources for investigation2. b. failure to conduct a MVR check after hire3. d. new hires have a tendency to overschedule and rush4. a. new hires are driving vehicles that differ from their personal vehicles5. c. 10,001 lb6. b. DOL 7. d. Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 19998. c. it should focus on poor performance9. a. identifying causes of accidents10. b. holding drivers accountable for accident record

Bank 8

1. d. Defensive Driving2. c. interacting with pedestrians3. b. cargo and weight considerations4. a. routes and trip planning5. c. mailing address of employer6. a. training location7. d. as long as the employer employs the driver plus one year8. a. reporting driver accidents to OSHA/State Plan within 24 hours9. b. incident/accident reporting procedures10. a. driver/pedestrian interaction

ANSWER KEYS AREA IV.

Area IV. E. Fire and Life Safety

Bank 1

1. d. children under 5, adults older than 402. a. 1 or 23. b. Triangle Shirtwaste Factory4. c. electrical wiring5. b. smoking6. c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)7. a. fire8. b. combustion9. c. ignition10. a. ignition temperature

Bank 2

1. c. piloted ignition2. d. spontaneous combustion3. a. humidity4. a. hydroxl radicals5. c. fire pyramid6. c. fire pyramid7. c. fire pyramid8. d. 3000 deg F.9. a. 5000 deg F.10. b. heat of combustion

Bank 3

1. a. rate of combustion2. a. increases3. c. 380,000 BTU4. d. 50 lbs of paper with a heat of combustion of 7,2000 BTU5. a. fuel weight (lbs) x heat of combustion (BTU)6. b. transference7. a. convection8. c. thermal gradient9. a. geometry10. a. radiative transfer

Bank 4

1. c. decrease pressure2. b. carbon monoxide3. d. foam 4. b. carbon monoxide5. b. carbon monoxide6. b. carbon monoxide7. a. looseness of construction8. c. carbon dioxide9. a. acrolein10. d. ammonia

Bank 5

1. a. due to their lower density2. b. due to their higher temperature3. a. increase in thickness4. d. presence of horizontal openings5. c. stack effect6. d. b and c above7. c. heat of combustion8. b. vapor pressure9. d. boiling point10. b. combustion will not occur

Bank 6

1. a. less than 100 deg F.2. b. lower flammable limit (LFL)3. d. upper flammable limit (UFL)4. d. upper flammable limit (UFL)5. b. lower flammable limit (LFL)6. b. flammable range7. c. flammable gases 8. c. nonflammable gases 9. d. inert gases10. a. reactive gases

Bank 7

1. b. safety hazard2. a. 03. d. 44. b. preserving evidence for later analysis5. d. compartmentation6. a. creation7. d. all of the above8. d. fire load9. d. alarms10. b. NFPA 101

Bank 8

1. d. extreme2. a. exit location 3. b. exit access4. c. exit 5. c. exit 6. d. exit discharge7. b. exit units8. a. 22 9. b. occupant load10. a. 1

Bank 9

1. c. floor area / allowable occupant load2. a. occupant load / allowable capacity per exit unit 3. b. variable humidity detectors4. a. fixed temperature detectors 5. c. rate-of-rise detectors6. d. rate compensation detectors 7. a. flame detectors 8. d. gas detectors9. a. Class A 10. c. Class C

Bank 10

1. b. Class B 2. d. Class D 3. a. wet-pipe system 4. b. dry-pipe system 5. d. combined system 6. c. deluge system 7. b. preaction system 8. a. carbon dioxide 9. c. dry chemicals 10. b. halon

Bank 11

1. d. foam

Area IV. F. Health and Wellness

Bank 1

1. d. all of the above are true2. a. a comprehensive program3. a. a comprehensive program4. c. 505. c. a disease prevention program6. a. a comprehensive program7. b. interest of the CEO8. c. behavioral medicine9. c. behavioral medicine10. b. stress

Bank 2

1. c. over half2. b. less than one fifth3. a. one to two times a day4. c. employee assistance program5. c. group dynamics6. d. all of the above are true7. a. 20-60 minutes8. b. stable blood fat9. d. higher cholesterol10. b. stress reduction

Bank 3

1. a. hypotension2. d. compression3. b. commitment to production first4. d. health policy with firm accountability5. c. safety engineering6. b. maintain tight control7. d. engineering controls8. b. production processes9. a. stress management program10. d. drug and alcohol abuse

Bank 4

1. c. comprehensive2. a. development of a policy statement3. a. employee survey4. b. ensure injured employees return to work as soon as possible5. c. been completely voluntary6. c. infringement of rights

7. d. baseline analysis8. b. require full participation9. d. a and b above10. c. monthly review of participation

Bank 5

1. d. accident history2. b. current employee work schedules3. b. employee interest surveys4. d. liver function5. c. skin rebound6. b. posture7. a. decrease program costs8. d. reveals forces resisting change9. b. health screening10. c. track program results

Bank 6

1. c. program costs are charged to employees2. a. full employee participation3. c. regular exercise4. b. variety5. c. walking 6. a. running7. d. stretching8. c. varicose veins9. c. circuit training10. c. difficult to conduct follow-up assessment

Bank 7

1. d. restrict smoking areas2. a. most smokers don't want to quit3. d. both a and c above 4. b. weight loss through high protein-low carbohydrate diets5. c. stress6. b. magnitude, duration7. a. psychology professionals8. c. preemployment physical exam9. c. early return to work10. a. individual performance

Area IV. G. Security

Bank 1

1. c. 50%2. b. 12%3. d. women4. c. Require employers and workers to evaluate risk5. a. crimes take place with increasing frequency6. c. take advantage of a lack of security7. b. crime will flourish where property is left to deteriorate8. c. EPA regulatory requirements9. a. Increasing media coverage10. c. internal theft and drug abuse

Bank 2

1. d. How to we maintain confidentiality?2. b. What must we do to prevent disclosure?3. c. corporate, facility, personnel, environment4. b. protect by setting up a series of barriers5. c. goal ambiguity6. d. Ensure appropriate reactive planning7. c. Focus on short-term responses8. b. Reduce forces resisting change9. a. Ensure separation of management and labor10. d. Select key external threats and weaknesses

Bank 3

1. a. vulnerability analysis2. b. not properly reacting after the loss3. b. security plan4. d. dissuade those who would commit crime5. b. gain market-share through reduced losses6. d. worth securing7. b. response to threats, risks, and vulnerabilities8. d. benchmarking9. b. can ensure proper accountability10. c. possible occurrence of an undesirable event

Bank 4

1. a. react quickly when a loss does occur2. c. hope and pray the event does not occur3. a. dynamic risk and pure risk4. c. risks associated with the cost of doing business5. d. risks that carry no possibility of return on investment6. a. pure risks 7. c. lack of consequences8. b. crimes against persons or property9. c. probability10. d. uncertain

Bank 5

1. a. probably certain 2. c. criticality3. d. all of the above4. d. non-injury5. d. serious unknown6. b. relatively unknown7. c. moderately serious8. a. very serious 9. b. relatively unimportant10. c. probability and criticality

Bank 6

1. d. restricting2. a. confrontation 3. c. transference4. a. spreading 5. d. acceptance6. b. avoidance7. d. reduction8. c. assess response procedures and methods9. b. discourage access10. d. on-site investigation

Area IV. H. Disaster Recovery/Emergency Preparation

Bank 1

1. c. 50%2. a. Emergency Management Plan3. a. an Emergency Management Plan4. b. senior line management5. d. initiating follow-up response to crime6. a. conducting job hazard analyses7. d. all of the above8. d. all of the above9. c. terrorist attack10. b. profits

Bank 2

1. c. impact of company operations on the environment2. d. property inventory3. c. evacuation procedures4. a. disciplinary policy5. c. type of facility and associated hazards6. d. job analysis plan7. b. inspection plan8. a. action guides/checklist9. b. response plan10. b. response plan

Bank 3

1. a. action guides/checklist2. c. emergency management plan3. c. emergency management plan4. d. mutual aid plan5. d. mutual aid plan6. b. Food and Drug Administration7. d. all of the above8. b. dikes of earth, concrete or brick 9. d. an emergency alarm system10. a. flotation devices for critical equipment

Bank 4

1. d. a and b above2. c. procedures for rapid recovery response3. a. procedures for study and analysis of the phenomenon4. d. all of the above5. b. relocation of population centers 6. d. both a and c above7. c. Homeland Security Act of 20028. c. Department of Homeland Security9. a. SAFETY Act of 2002 10. c. rapid dispersement of employees

Bank 5

1. c. rapid dispersement of employees2. d. deteriorating condition of facilities3. a. labor and management analysis team4. d. all of the above5. d. Public Law No. 99-499, Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act6. c. prepare a emergency shutdown checklist7. d. fire renders radioactive material less dangerous8. b. the substance will be easier to control when its state is changed 9. a. use absorbent materials such as powder, earth, or sand10. b. dampen the material with a water spray

Bank 6

1. c. inhalation2. a. preparing a plan of action3. d. all of the above4. d. developed in isolation from neighboring businesses5. c. related government regulations6. b. material safety data sheets7. d. meeting minutes8. c. prepared news releases9. c. realistic10. a. ability to respond under stress

Bank 7

1. d. a small chain of commend is most effective in crisis2. c. the director should be the ranking manager3. b. inspection plan4. d. job analysis5. c. software and hardware selection6. d. internal surveillance7. a. Notifying DOL authorities8. b. training

9. d. all of the above10. b. 29 CFR 1910.120

Bank 8

1. c. manufacturing facilities2. b. safety committee representatives3. c. HAZMAT Team4. b. Occasional hazardous waste site workers5. a. Hazardous waste site workers6. a. Hazardous waste site workers7. a. 4- to 8-hour first responder operations training8. d. hazard materials specialist training9. c. 24-hour hazardous materials technician training10. b. incident commander

Area IV. I. Workplace Violence

Bank 1

1. d. Planning group2. a. Type I3. c. Type III4. c. customer5. b. risk factor6. c. work in a union shop7. d. Conduct body searches8. a. True 9. d. demonstrates employee commitment10. a. the policy covers only acts of physical violence upon employees

Bank 2

1. a. restrictive and may create legal problems2. b. use examples3. b. perceived as an unreasonable goal4. c. seldom5. c. Subtle changes in behaviors 6. a. engineering controls7. a. Improved lighting around parking lots.8. a. Obtain restraining orders9. d. Post signs stating cash register only contains minimal cash 10. b. conflict resolution

Bank 3

1. b. report incidents 2. d. practice exercises 3. c. attempt to bargain with a threatening individual4. b. Threat Incident Report 5. b. Incident/Accident investigation 6. d. actions should not compromise a potential criminal prosecution 7. c. medical, psychological8. c. coordinate with law enforcement agencies9. d. allow the victim to join a protected witness program 10. b. employee assistance program

Bank 4

1. b. quality of disciplinary procedures 2. b. acts which are predictable 3. c. OSH Act 4. a. clear policy of zero accidents5. b. reporting only physical violence 6. c. limit records to assure privacy7. b. employee control 8. d. tough-controlling leadership9. a. job hazard analysis10. a. incident reporting procedures

References:

Questions in this study guide were derived from among the following texts:

1. Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry: Administration and Programs NSC, NSC Pub. 2. Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry: Engineering and Technology NSC, NSC Pub. 3. Analyzing Performance Problems Robert F. Mager and Peter Pipe, CEP Press.4. Analyzing Safety System Effectiveness Dan Petersen, ASSE Pub.5. Behavior-Based Safety Process, The Thomas R. Krause.6. Benchmarking: The Search for Industry Best Practices that Lead to Superior Performance Robert C. Camp, Quality

Resources Pub.7. Bringing Out the Best in People Aubrey C. Daniels, McGraw Hill Pub.8. Construction Safety Management Raymond Elliot Leavitt, Nancy Morse Sam Elson, Wiley Pub.9. Construction Site Safety Richard Hislop, CRC Press10. The Deming Management Method Mary Walton, Perigee Pub. 11. Epidemiology Leon Gores, W.B. Saunders Pub.12. Ergonomics, Work and Health Stephen Pheasant, Aspen Pub. 13. Finance and Accounting for Nonfinancial Managers Weaver and Weston, McGraw-Hill14. Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene Barbara A. Plog, Patricia J. Quinlan, NSC Pub.15. Human Error Reduction and Safety Management Dan Petersen, Van Nostrand Pub.16. Introduction to Environmental Technology Ann Boyce, Wiley Pub. 17. Investigating Accidents with STEP Kingsley Hendrick & Ludwig Benner, Jr., Decker Pub. 18. Making Instruction Work Robert F. Mager, CEP Press Pub.19. Managing for Performance Perfection William C. Pope, Bonnie Brae Pub. 20. Motor Fleet Safety Manual John E. Brodbeck, NSC Pub. 21. Muskuloskeletal Disorders and Workplace Factors NIOSH, 2nd Ed. (PDF File) 22. The New Economics W. Edwards Deming, MIT/CAES Pub.23. Occupational Health & Safety Joseph LaDou, NSC Pub.24. Occupational Safety Management & Engineering y Willie Hammer, Prentice Hall Pub.25. Practical Loss Control Leadership Frank E. Bird, George L. Germain, ILCI Pub. 26. Primer on Occupational Safety and Health y Frederick Blosser, BNS Books 27. Psychology of Safety, The E. Scott Geller, Lewis Pub.28. Quality Improvement Tools & Techniques Peter Mears, McGraw-Hill Trade 29. Safety By Objectives Dan Petersen, Van Nostrand Pub.30. Safety and Health for Engineers Roger L. Brauer, Van Nostrand Pub.31. Safety and Health Management Planning y Ted S. Ferry, Van Nostrand Pub.32. Safety Management y John V. Grimaldi, Rollin H. Simonds, ASSE Pub. 33. Safety Management : A Human Approach Dan Petersen, ASSE Pub. 34. Safety Through Design Wayne C. Christiansen, Fred A. Manuele, NSC Pub.35. Techniques of Safety Management : A Systems Approach Dan Petersen, ASSE Pub. 36. Total Quality Safety Management Edward E. Adams, ASSE Pub. 37. Total Quality Safety Management and Auditing Michael B. Weinstein, Lewis Pub. 38. Violence in the Workplace Anthony Baron Ph.D., Pathfinder Pub. 39. Wellness in the Workplace: How to Plan, Implement and Evaluate a Wellness Program (Fifty Minute Ser.) Merlene

T. Serman, Crisp Pub.40. Workplace Wellness: The Key to Higher Productivity and Lower Health Costs Carol B. Grant, Robert Brisbin, Van

Nostrand Pub.41. Your Rights at Work Darien McWhirter, Wiley Pub.

Additional Study Texts

* Basic Concepts of Industrial Hygiene Ronald M. Scott. * BLR's Safety Committee Handbook Stephen D. Bruce * Building a Better Safety and Health Committee John P. Spath * Construction Safety Jimmie W. Hinze. * Effective Security Management Charles A. Sennewald. * Environmental and Quality Systems Integration William C. Culley. * Environmental, Health, and Safety Auditing Handbook Lee Harrison (Editor). * Essential Health and Safety for Managers: A Guide to Good Practice in the European Union Ron Akass. * Ergonomic Problems in the Workplace: A Guide to Effective Management James E. Roughton. * Evolution of Management Thought, The Daniel A. Wren. * First Aid & Safety For Dummies® Charles B. Inlander, Janet Worsley Norwood, People's Medical society. * Fleet Safety Made Easy Jonathon D. Kujat, ABS Pub. * Fundamentals of Occupational Safety and Health James P. Kohn, Mark A. Friend, Celeste A. Winterberger. * Fundamentals of Risk Assessment Edited by Vlasta Molak. * Illustrated Dictionary of Environmental Health & Occupational Safety Herman Koren. * Implementing Total Safety Management David L. Goetsch * Injury and Litigation Prevention: Theory and Practice Stanley H. Freeman. * Leadership in Safety Management James R. Thomen. * Managing Worker Safety and Health for Excellence Margaret R. Richardson. * OSHA Inspections: Preparation and Response Richard Kaletsky. * Psychology of Safety, The. E. Scott Geller. * Risk Assessment and Management Handbook Rao V. Kolluru. * Safety, Systems and People Sue and Tom Cox. * Values-Based Safety Process, The. Terry E. McSween. * Working Safe, E. Scott Geller.

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