Sub: LONG TERM_QP Date: 27-12-2020 Max.Marks : 720 Duration : 3Hrs =====

##PHYSICS## ===== 1. The centre of mass of a body A) Lies always outside the body B) May lie within, outside or on the surface of the body C) Lies always inside the body D) Lies always on the surface of the body. =====

2. The centre of mass of two masses m & m' moves by distance x5

when mass m is moves by distance x

and m' is kept fixed. The ratio m'm

is

A) 2 B) 4 C) 1/4 D) None of these ===== 3. A uniform rod of length 1 m is bent at its mid – point to make o90 angle. The distance of the centre of

mass from the centre of the rod is

A) 36.1 cm B) 25.2 cm C) 17.7 cm D) Zero ===== 4. In the figure shown a hole of radius 2cm is made in a semicircular disc of radius 6 cm at a distance of

8 cm from its centre. The distance of centre of mass of this system from centre C is

A) 4 cm B) 8 cm C) 6 cm D) 12 cm ===== 5. The centre of mass of mass of two particles lies A) On the line perpendicular to the line joining the particles B) On a point outside the line joining the particles C) On the line joining the particle D) None of the above =====

6. Two particles whose masses are 10 kg and 30 kg and their position vectors are ˆ ˆ ˆi j k and ˆ ˆ ˆi j k respectively would have the centre of mass at

A) ˆ ˆ ˆi j k

2

B)

ˆ ˆ ˆi j k

2

C)

ˆ ˆ ˆi j k

4

D)

ˆ ˆ ˆi j k

4

===== 7. A circular plate of uniform thickness of diameter 56 cm, whose center is at origin. A circular part of

diameter 42 cm is removed from one edge. What is the distance of the centre of mass of the remaining part?

A) 3 cm B) 6 cm C) 9 cm D) 12 cm ===== 8. Three masses of 2 kg, 4 kg and 4 kg are placed at the three points (1, 0, 0) (1, 1, 0) and (0, 1, 0)

respectively. The position vector of its center of mass is

A) 3 4ˆ ˆi j5 5

B) ˆ ˆ3i j C) 2 4ˆ ˆi j5 5

D) 1 4ˆ ˆi j5 5

===== 9. Where will be the centre of mass on combining two masses m and M (M > m). A) towards m B) towards M C) between m and M D) any where ===== 10. A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure

represents trace of its centre of mass

A)

Time B)

Time C)

Time D)

Time ===== 11. A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of mass is shown. Then

A) the two pieces will have the same mass B) the bottom pieces will has larger mass C) the handle piece will has larger mass D) mass of handle piece is double the mass of bottom piece ===== 12. The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides the distance between them A) in inverse ratio of square of masses of particle B) in direct ratio of square of masses of particles C) in inverse ratio of masses of particles D) in direct ratio of masses of particles =====

13. The distance between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in a carbon monoxide molecule is 1.1Å. Given, mass of carbon atom is 12 a.m.u, and mass of oxygen atom is 16 a.m.u., calculate the position of the centre of mass of the carbon monoxide molecule

A) 6.3 Å from the oxygen atom B) 1 Å from the oxygen atom C) 0.63 Å from the carbon atom D) 0.12 Å from the oxygen atom ===== 14. Masses 8, 2, 4, 2 kg are placed at the corners A, B, C and D respectively of a square ABCD of diagonal

80cm. The distance of centre of mass from A will be A) 20 cm B) 30 cm C) 40 cm D) 60 cm ===== 15. The centre of the system of the particles does not depend on A) relative distance between the particles B) position of the particle C) forces on the particle D) masses of the particle ===== 16. Four particles each of mass m are placed at the four corners of a square of side ‘a’ as shown. The (x,

y) coordinates of centre of mass are y

x

450

450

A) a a,2 2

B) a 2,a 2 C) a a,2 2

D) (a, a)

===== 17. Two blocks of mass 10kg and 30kg are placed along vertical line. The first block is raised through a

height of 7cm. By what distance should be second mass be moved to raised the centre of mass by 1cm?

A) 2cm upward B) 1cm upward C) 2cm downward D) 1cm downward ===== 18. A uniform metal disc of radius R is taken and out of it a disc of diameter R is cut off from the end. The

centre of mass of the remaining part will be

A) R4

from the centre B) R3

from the centre C) R5

from the centre D) R6

from the centre

===== 19. Two atoms of the hydrogen are located at 1r

and 2r

position of their centre of mass is at

A) 1 2r r2

B) 1 2r r

2

C) 1 2r r

D) 1 2r r

===== 20. The position of the centre of mass of a cube of uniform density shall be at A) edge of a cube B) the centre of one face

C) the centre of the intersection of diagonals of one face D) the geometric centre of the cube ===== 21. Four identical spheres each of radius 10cm and mass 1kg are placed on a horizontal surface touching

one another on a horizontal surface touching one another on a horizontal surface. Where is their centre of mass located?

A) on the horizontal surface B) at the point of contact of any two spheres C) at the centre of one ball D) none of these ===== 22. The position of centre of mass of a system consisting of two particles of masses m1 and m2 separated

by a distance L apart from m1 will be

A) 1

1 2

m Lm m

B) 2

1 2

m Lm m

C) 2

1

m Lm

D) L2

===== 23. A circular ring of mass 6kg and radius a is placed such that its centre lies at the origin. Two particles of

masses 2kg each are placed at the intersecting points of the circle with the x-axis and +ve y – axis. Then the angle made by the position vector of centre of mass of entire system with x-axis is

A) 450 B) 600 C) 1 4tan5

D) 300

===== 24. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1kg are placed touching each other with their centres on a

straight line. Their centre are marked P, Q and R respectively. The distance of centre of mass of the system from P is

A) PQ PR QR3

B) PQ PR3 C) PQ QR

3 D) PR QR

3

===== 25. Three particles of masses 1kg, 2kg and 3kg are situated at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side

b. The co-ordinates of the centre of mass are

A) 7b 3 3b0, ,12 12

B) 3 3b 7b, ,012 12

C) 7b 3 3b, ,012 12

D) 7b 3 3b, 0,12 12

===== 26. A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally 230 m in south-west direction.

The displacement of the person from the origin will be A) 10 m along north B) 10 m long south C) 10 m along west D) Zero ===== 27. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where aAB . The boy at B starts running in a

direction perpendicular to AB with velocity .1v The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is

A) 21

2/ vva B) )/( 21

22 vva C) )/( 1vva D) )/( 1vva

===== 28. The relation between time and distance is xxt 2 , where and are constants. The retardation

is

A) 32 v B) 32 v C) 32 v D) 322 v ===== 29. A police jeep is chasing with, velocity of 45 km/h a thief in another jeep moving with velocity 153 km/h.

Police fires a bullet with muzzle velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity it will strike the car of the thief is A) 150 m/s B) 27 m/s C) 450 m/s D) 250 m/s ===== 30. A body is thrown vertically upwards. If air resistance is to be taken into account, then the time during

which the body rises is A) Equal to the time of fall B) Less than the time of fall C) Greater than the time of fall D) Twice the time of fall ===== 31. A particle P is moving in a circle of radius '' a with a uniform speed v . C is the centre of the circle and

AB is a diameter. When passing through B the angular velocity of P about A and C are in the ratio A) 1: 1 B) 1: 2 C) 2: 1 D) 4: 1 ===== 32. A body of mass 1 kg is moving in a vertical circular path of radius 1m. The difference between the

kinetic energies at its highest and lowest position is

A) 20J B) 10J C) J54 D) J1510

===== 33. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally at constant speed. When air resistance is

taken into consideration, the bomb A) Falls to earth exactly below the aeroplane B) Fall to earth behind the aeroplane

C) Falls to earth ahead of the aeroplane D) Flies with the aeroplane ===== 34. If the initial velocity of a projectile be doubled, keeping the angle of projection same, the maximum

height reached by it will A) Remain the same B) Be doubled C) Be quadrupled D) Be halved. ===== 35. A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time 1t to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time 2t

when lift is moving up with constant acceleration. Then A) 21 tt B) 12 tt C) 21 tt D) 21 tt

===== 36. If the tension in the cable of 1000 kg elevator is 1000 kg weight, the elevator A) Is accelerating upwards B) Is accelerating downwards C) May be at rest or accelerating D) May be at rest or in uniform motion ===== 37. If a person with a spring balance and a body hanging from it goes up and up in an aeroplane, then the

reading of the weight of the body as indicated by the spring balance will A) Go on increasing B) Go on decreasing

C) First increase and then decrease D) Remain the same ===== 38. Swimming is possible on account of A) First law of motion B) Second law of motion C) Third law of motion D) Newton's law of gravitation ===== 39. A man is standing at a spring platform. Reading of spring balance is 60 kg wt. If man jumps outside

platform, then reading of spring balance A) First increases then decreases to zero B) Decreases C) Increases D) Remains same ===== 40. A body of mass 5kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure. The spring

balance measure

A) 50 N B) 25 N C) 500 N D) 10 N ===== 41. Two blocks are connected by a string as shown in the diagram. The upper block is hung by another

string. A force F applied on the upper string produces an acceleration of 2/2 sm in the upward direction in both the blocks. If T and T be the tensions in the two parts of the string, then

A) NT 8.70 and NT 2.47 B) NT 8.58 and NT 2.47 C) NT 8.70 and NT 8.58 D) NT 8.70 and 0T ===== 42. Three blocks A, B and C weighing 1, 8 and 27 kg respectively are connected as shown in the figure with

an inextensible string and are moving on a smooth surface. 3T is equal to 36 N. Then 2T is

A) 18 N B) 9 N C) 3.375 N D) 1.25 N

=====

43. A block of mass 1m rests on a horizontal table. A string tied to the block is passed on a frictionless pulley

fixed at the end of the table and to the other end of string is hung another block of mass 2m . The

acceleration of the system is

A) )( 21

2

mmgm

B)

)( 21

1

mmgm

C) g D)

1

2

mgm

===== 44. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C

while the other end is free. Maximum tension that the rope can bear is 360 N. with what value of minimum safe acceleration (in )2ms can a monkey of kg60 move down on the rope

A) 16 B) 6 C) 4 D) 8

===== 45. A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through two light spring balances A and B. Then A and B will read

respectively

A) 4 kg and zero kg B) Zero kg and 4 kg C) 4 kg and 4 kg D) 2 kg and 2 kg =====

##CHEMISTRY## ===== 46. A 0.1 M solution of HF is 1% ionized. What is the aK :-

A) 510 B) 410 C) 53 10 D) 43 10 =====

47. Total number of diprotic acid among the following is/are

3 2 2 4 3 3 2 3H PO , H SO , H PO , H CO , 2 2 7 3 3H S O , H BO

A) 1 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 =====

48. When a salt of weak acid and weak base is dissolved in water at 25 C, the pH of the

resulting solution will always

A) Be 7 B) Be greater than 7

C) Be less than 7 D) Depend upon a bK and K values =====

49. The pH of a buffer nsol prepared by mixing 50 mL of 0.2 M 3CH COOH & 250 MI OF

3CH COONa is 4.8

A) 4M B) 0.04M C) 4M D) 0.2M

=====

50. The pH of a buffer solution prepared by mixing 350 mL of 0.2 M CH COOH 250 mL of

3CH COONa is 4.8. What is the concentration of 3CH COONa ? p a 3K of CH COOHis 4.8.

A) 4 M B) 0.04 M C) 2 M D) 0.2 M =====

51. Equal volumes of two solutions of pH 3 and pH 5 are mixed. The resultant pH is

A) 8.0 B) 2.0 C) 3.3 D) 4.0

=====

52. pH of an aqueous solution 2 3H CO is 3.3. If 3 13a1 a2 3K 10 and K 10 then HCO

is

A) 45 10 M B) 56 10 M C) 73 10 M D) 32 10 M

=====

53. pH of an aqueous solution of 3 4CH COONH is found to be 6.7 at 25 C. Concentration

of 3 4CH COONH solution may be 5a 3 p b 4K forCH COOH 1.0 10 and K forNH OH 4.4

A) 0.1 M B) 0.25 M C) 0.3 M D) any one the above

=====

54. Which of the following mixture will make a buffer solution?

A) 0.2 mol NaOH + 0.1 mol HCN B) 0.1 mol HCl + 0.1 mol 4NH OH

C) 0.4 mol 3CH COOH 0.4 mol HCOONa D) 3 40.2 mol HNO 0.3 mol NH OH

=====

55. Find pH of 32 35 10 M H CO solution having 10% dissociation

A) 3 B) 2.7 C) 4.3 D) 11.3

=====

56. Which salt represent the highest degree of hydrolysis

A) NaCl B) 3 4CH COOHN C) 4NH Cl D) 3CH COONa =====

57. The degree of dissociation is a weak electrolyte increases

A) on increasing pressure B) on decreasing dilution

C) on increasing dilution D) on increasing concentration

=====

58. Which of the following is the weakest base?

A) NaOH B) 2Ca OH C) 4NH OH D) KOH

=====

59. According to Bronsted-Lowry concept an acid is a substance which

A) accepts proton B) gives an electron pair

C) Gives proton D) combines with 3H O ions

=====

60. The ionization constant of acetic acid is 51.8 10 . The concentration at which it will

be dissociated to 2 %, is

A) 1 M B) 0.045 M C) 0.018 M D) .45 M

=====

61. The dissociation constants of two acids 1 2HA and HA are 4 53.0 10 and1.8 10

respectively. The relative strengths of the acids will be

A) 1:4 B) 4:1 C) 1:16 D) 16:1

=====

62. 0.1 M acetic acid solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH solution. What would be

the difference in pH between 1/4 and 3/4 stages of neutralization of acid?

A) 2 log 3/4 B) 2 log 1/4 C) log 1/3 D) 2 log 3

=====

63. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing the solution of

A) sodium acetate and acetic acid

B) ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide

C) sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide D) sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide =====

64. Which mixture forms a buffer when dissolved in 1 lit. of water

A) 0.2 mol NaOH and 0.2 mol HBr B) 0.2 mol NaCl and 0.3 mol HCl

C) 0.4 mol 2NHO and 0.2 mol NaOH D) 0.5 mol 3NH and 0.5 mol HCl

=====

65. An acid HA ionizes as

HA H A

The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation constant would be

A) 101 10 B) 5 C) 85 10 D) 51 10 =====

66. Which of the following is an example of buffer solution?

A) 2 4PhNH NH OH B) 2 4 2HNO NH NO C) 2 4 4H SO NaHSO D) 2 2 3H NH PhNH Cl

=====

67. At25 C, OH conc.

In 0.1 M NaA (aq) solution will be 13aGiven : K HA 10 M

A) 0.1 M B) 26.2 10 M C) 22.7 10 M D) 1310 M =====

68. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution of pH 5.4 will be

A) 63.88 10 B) 83.98 10 C) 63.98 10 D) 63.68 10 =====

69. The conjugate base of 2 4H PO is:

A) 3 4H PO B) 2 4H PO C) 24HPO D) 3

4PO

=====

70. A beer has a pH of 4.30. What is the 3H O ?

A) 43.0 10 B) 42.0 10 C) 52.0 10 D) 55.0 10 =====

71. The pH of two equimolar weak acids are 3.0 and 5.0 respectively. Their relative

strength is

A) 3:5 B) 5:3 C) 100:1 D) 1:100 ===== 72. The solubility of 6 5 3

C H NH Cl would be highest among the following solvents in : A) acidic buffer of pH = 3 B) basic buffer of pH=10 C) neutral buffer of pH = 7 D) pure water ===== 73. What is the percentage hydrolysis of NaCN in N/80 solution when the dissociation constant for HCN is

1.3 x 10-9 and Kw = 1.0 x 10-14 A) 2.48 B) 5.26 C) 8.2 D) 9.6 ===== 74. A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at pH=3.58 that efficiently resists a change in pH yet

contains only small conc. of the buffering agents. Which one of the following weak acid together with its sodium salt, would be best to use

A) m - chloro benzoic acid (pKa = 3.98) B) p - chloro cinnamic acid (pKa = 4.41)

C) 2, 5 - dihydroxy benzoic acid (pKa = 2.97) D) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58) ===== 75. Calculate the pH of a solution containing 0.1M 3

HCO and 0.2M 23CO [K1(H2CO3) = 4.2 x 10-7 x 10

and K2 (HCO3-) = 4.8x 10-11] A) 3.18 B) 10.62 C) 6.62 D) 9.31 ===== 76. The dissociation constant of monobasic acids A, B and C are 10-4, 10-6 and 10-10 respectively. The

concentration of each is 0.1 M. Which of the following has been arranged in order of increasing pH ? A) A < B < C B) C < A < B C) B < C < A D) B < A C ===== 77. If pKb for fluoride at 250C is 10.83, the ionisation constant of hydrofluoric acid in water at this

temperature is A) 3.52 x 10-3 B) 6.75 x 10-4 C) 5.38 x 10-2 D) 1.74 x 10-5 ===== 78. The dissociation constants of a weak acid HA and weak base BOH are 2 X 10-5 and 5 X 10-6

respectively. The equilibrium constant for the neutralisation reaction of the two is A) 1.0 X 104 B) 1.0 X 10-4 C) 1.0 X 10-10 D) 2.5 X 10-1 ===== 79. The pH at the equivalence point in the titration of 25 ml of 0.10 formic acid with a 0.1 M NaOH solution

(given that pka of formic acid = 3.74) A) 8.74 B) 8.37 C) 4.74 D) 6.06 ===== 80. The pH of a weak mono acid base at 80% neutralisation with a strong acid in a dilute solution is 7.40.

The ionisation constant of the base is A) 1.6 X 10-7 B) 1.0 X 10-5 C) 1.0 X 10-6 D) 2.0 X 10-7 ===== 81. At a certain temperature the dissociation constants of formic acid and acetic acid are 1.8 x 10-4 and 1.8 x 10-6 respectively. The concentration of acetic acid solution in which the hydrogen

ion has the same concentration as in 0.001 M formic acid solution is equal to A) 0.001M B) 0.01M C) 0.1M D) 0.0001M ===== 82. A compound having the formula 2 2NH CH COOH may hebave A) Only as an acid B) Only as a base C) Both as an acid and base D) Neither acid nor base ===== 83. To suppress the dissociation of acetic acid, the compound to be added to it is A) sodium oxalate B) sodium acetate C) sodium carbonate D) sodium nitrate ===== 84. 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is A) not a buffer solution with pH < 7 B) not a buffer solution with pH > 7 C) a buffer solution with pH < 7 D) a buffer solution with pH > 7 ===== 85. H3BO3 is A) Monobasic and weak Lewis acid B) Monobasic and weak Bronsted acid C) Monobasic and strong Lewis acid

D) Tribasic and weak Bronsted acid ===== 86. Which one of the following compounds is not a protonic acid A) PO(OH)3 B) SO(OH)3 C) SO2(OH)3 D) B(OH)3 ===== 87. In the titration of a weak diprotic acid (H2A) with a strong base (NaOH), [H+] is given by

A) 1a aK c B)

1a aK c C) 1a aK c D)

1aK ===== 88. The pH of a solution prepared by mixing 2.0 ml of a strong acid (HCl) solution of pH 3.0 and 3.0ml of

a strong base (NaOH) of pH 10.0 A) 4.5 B) 3.4 C) 2.5 D) 6.5 ===== 89. Which of the following is correct? A) Ka (weak acid).Kb(conjugate weak base)= Kw B) Ka (strong acid). Kb(conjugate weak base) =Kw C) Ka (weak acid). Kb ( weak base) = Kw D) Ka (weak acid). Kb(conjugate strong base) = Kw ===== 90. Fear of excitement generally causes one to breathe rapidly and results in the decrease of CO2

concentration in one’s blood. In what way does this change the pH of blood? A) It increases B) It decreases C) There is no change in the pH D) The pH level is adjusted at 7 =====

##BOTANY## ===== 91. Ulothrix is an example for A) Unicellular algae B) Colonical algae C) Filamentous algae D) Prokaryotic algae ===== 92. Non-flagellated isogametes are formed during sexual reproduction in A) Chlamydomonas B) Fucus C) Spirogyra D) Volvox ===== 93. Pear shaped zoospores with two unequal laterally attached flagella are found in A) Volvax B) Laminaria C) Porphyra D) Polysiphonia ===== 94. Simple branched filamentous form of phaeophyceae is A) Laminaria B) Fucus C) Dictyota D) Ectocarpus ===== 95. Sexual reproduction is accompanied by complex post fertilization developments in A) Dictyota B) Polysiphonia C) Spirogyra D) Ulothrix ===== 96. The thallus consists of leaf like photosynthetic organ called frond in a. Laminaria b. Fucus c. Dictyota d. Porphyra E. Polysiphonia A) a & b only B) c & d only C) a, b, c & d only D) All the above =====

97. Identify the incorrect match from the following A) Algin-green algae B) Carrageen – Red algae C) Agar – Red algae D) Iodine – Brown algae ===== 98. Motile gametes are found in a. Ulothrix b. Spirogyra c. Ectocarpus d. Polysiphonia A) a and b only B) c and d only C) a and c only D) a, b, c and d only ===== 99. The artificial system of classification is based on A) One or few anatomical feature B) One or few morphological feature C) Many morphological features D) Many internal features ===== 100. Classification of organisms on the basis of fossils record that play important role in elucidation of

evolutionary relationships is A) Earliest systems B) Phylogenetic system C) Morphotaxonomy D) Artificial system ===== 101. Cell wall of Spirogyra is composed of A) Peptidoglycan B) pectin C) Cellulose D) Both 2 & 3 ===== 102. The thallus organization of Volvox is A) Multicellular and coccoid B) Colonial and nonflagellate C) Unicellular D) Colonial and motile ===== 103. Algae with floridean starch as reserve food material is also characterized by A) Presence of chlorophyll b B) Stacked thylakoids C) Nonsulphatedphycocolloids D) Nonflagellate nature ===== 104. Which one of the following statements is wrong? A) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae B) Algin and carrageen are products of algae. C) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria D) Chlorella are used as space food ===== 105. Male gametes are flagellated in: A) Spirogyra B) Polysiphonia C) Porphyra D) Ectocarpus ===== 106. This picture is associated with an organism that belongs to a class. Which of the following features is not

correct about that class?

A) Three types of sexual reproduction

B) A variety of chloroplast in different species C) Inner pectose and outer cellulose in cell wall D) Pigments- chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’. ===== 107. Which of the following is an example of anisogamous reproduction in Algae? A) Udorina B) Volvox C) Fucus D) Spirogyra. ===== 108. An ascomycetes fungus is A) Agaricus B) Pleurotes C) Phytophthora D) Yeast ===== 109. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct? A) Viruses possess their own metabolic system B) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA. C) Viruses are obligate parasites D) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid. ===== 110. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus? A) Rabies, mumps B) Cholera, tuberculosis C) Typhoid, tetanus D) AIDS, syphilis ===== 111. T.O. Diener discovered a A) Free infectious DNA B) Infectious protein C) Bacteriophage D) Free infectious RNA ===== 112. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes because A) They require both RNA and DNA B) They both need food molecules C) They both require oxygen for respiration D) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate. ===== 113. Animal virus contain mostly A) RNA or DNA B) RNA C) Both RNA and DNA D) DNA. ===== 114. Ulothrix filaments produce A) Heterogametes B) Basidiospores C) Isogametes D) Anisogametes ===== 115. In oogamy, fertilization involves A) A large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete B) A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete C) A small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete D) A large non-motile egg and a small motile (or) non motile male gamete ===== 116. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, mainly which of the following

characters you should choose?

A) Nature of stored food materials in the cell B) Structural organization of the cell wall C) Chemical composition of the cell wall D) Types of pigments present in the cell ===== 117. In Ulothrix meiosis takes place in A) Cells of the filament B) Holdfast C) Zygote D) Zoospores. ===== 118. In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of algae? A) Chara, focus, polysiphonia B) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas C) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Chlamydomonas D) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracillaria ===== 119. Flagellated reproductive bodies are not found in A) Chlamydomonos B) Spirogyra C) Ulothrix D) Volvox ===== 120. The pyrenoids are made up of A) Core of protein surrounded by starchy sheath B) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath C) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath D) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein ===== 121. Neurodegenerative diseases such as mad cow and Kuru diseases are caused by infectious particles

known as A) Coronavirus B) Viroids C) Retrovirus D) Prions ===== 122. Extract of Tobacco with Mosaic disease was called contagium vivum fluidum by A) Mayer B) Ivanowski C) Beijerink D) Pasteur. ===== 123. Carrageenin, a jelly-like substance is obtained from A) Polysiphonia B) Fucus C) Sargassum D) Ulothrix ===== 124. Penicillium belongs to class A) Ascomycetes B) Phycomycetes C) Basidiomycetes D) Deuteromycetes ===== 125. The symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called A) Lichen B) Endomycorrhiza C) Mycorrhiza D) Both 2 and 3 ===== 126. Fungus, without any mycelium, is A) Puccinia B) Albugo C) Agaricus D) Saccharomyces ===== 127. A sexual spores produced in fungus are (a) Conidiospores (b) Sporangiospores (c) Zoospores (d) Megaspores A) a, b and c B) b, c and d C) a, c and d D) a, b, c, d ===== 128. Choose the incorrect pair

A) Bread mould - Rhizobium B) White Rust - Albugo C) Bread making - Yeast D) Wheat rust - Puceinia ===== 129. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? A) Lichen - Algae Parasite on fungi B) Mycorrhizae - Mineral uptake from soil C) Yeast - Production of biogas D) Euglenoids- Autotrophs only ===== 130. Kingdom fungi is divided into four classes of the basis of a) Mode of spore formation b) Method of nutrition c) Morphology of the mycelium d) Fruiting bodies E) Nature of habitat A) a, b, e B) a, b, c, d C) b, c, d D) a, c, d ===== 131. Dikaryotisation (n+n) in fungi is brought by A) Conidiospore B) Plasmogamy C) karyogamy D) Basidiospores ===== 132. Which is the incorrect statement regarding fungi? A) Wheat rust causing agent is puccinia B) Penicillium is a source of antibiotic C) The cell wall of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans D) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places ===== 133. S-I: Yeast is a multicellular fungus. S-II: Penicillium is an unicellular fungus. S-III: Albugo is a parasitic

fungus on mustard. A) Only S-I and S-II are correct B) All the above statements are incorrect C) Only S-III is correct D) Both Statement-I, III are correct ===== 134. Mark the odd one w.r.t. kingdom fungi. A) They reproduce asexually and sexually B) They show a great diversity in morphology and habitat C) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their mode of nutrition D) They do not reproduce by zoospores ===== 135. Plasmogamy is immediately following by karyogamy in A) Phycomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Basidiomycetes D) Deuteromycetes =====

##ZOOLOGY## ===== 136. Match the Column-I with Column-II related to humans

Column-I Column-II I Teeth A Frenulum II Tongue B J-shaped III Stomach C Enamel IV Duodenum D C-shaped

I II III IV I II III IV

A) A C B D B) C D B A C) C A D B D) C A B D ===== 137. In stomach, proteins are digested by the action of …..A….. enzyme at …..B…..pH. A) A-Pepsin, B- Acidic B) A- Pepsin, B- Alkaline C) A- Trypsin, B- Acidic D) A- Trypsin, B- Alkaline ===== 138. The given diagram represents the T.S of gut. Identify A, B, C and D.

A B C D A) Serosa Muscularis Submucosa Mucosa B) Muscularis Serosa Submucosa Mucosa C) Serosa Muscularis Mucous cell Submucosa D) Serosa Submucosa Muscularis Mucosa ===== 139. The deciduous teeth in human include A) Incisors, canines and – first two premolars B) Incisors, canines, molars C) Incisors, canines and cheek teeth D) Incisors, canines and 1st and 2nd molar. ===== 140. Identify the type of teeth – A, B and C shown in the diagram below:

A B C A) Incisor Molar Premolar B) Canine Premolar Molar C) Canine Premolar Incisor D) Incisor Canine Premolar ===== 141. Select the correct set related to site of gut for the action of enzymes on specific substrates A) Stomach - Fats – Lipase – Micelles B) Small intestine – Starch - Amylase – disaccharides C) Duodenum - Triglycerides – Trypsin - Monoglycerides D) Small intestine – Proteins – Pepsin - Aminoacids ===== 142. Emulsification of fats, activation of lipase is by

A) HCl B) Enterokinase C) Bile pigments D) Bile salts ===== 143. A person consume 120 gm of carbohydrate, 80 gm of protein and 50 gm of lipid than he obtain: A) 2500 k cal B) 1250 k cal C) 1350 k cal D) 2000 k cal ===== 144. Mucosal layer of stomach has irregular folds known as A) Villi B) Rugae C) Lacteals D) Septa ===== 145. ______ results from the replacement of mother's milk by a high calorie-low protein diet in a child

more than one year in age: A) Jaundice B) Beri-Beri C) Kwashiorkar D) Marasmus ===== 146. Both starch and proteins are digested by the enzymes of A) Saliva B) Pancreatic juice C) Gastric juice D) Bile ===== 147. Hardest substance in human body is A) Bone B) cartilage C) ribs D) enamel ===== 148. Number of teeth which grow twice are A) 8 B) 14 C) 12 D) 20 ===== 149. Identify A,B,C in the reaction steps of digestion in the stomach Pepsinogen (A)Pepsin Proteins (B)Proteoses + C A B C A) 3HCO Pepsin Peptones B) HCl Pepsin Peptones C) HCl Peptones Pepsin D) 3HCO Pepsin Water soluble peptides ===== 150. Select the odd one for the source of secretions: A) Enterokinase B) Chymotrypsinogen C) Procarboxypeptidase D) Nucleases ===== 151. Which of the following is not a major activity of the stomach? A) Mechanical digestion B) Nutrient absorption C) Mucus secretion D) Enzyme and HCl secretion ===== 152. Castle’s intrinsic factor is connected with internal absorption of A) Pyridoxine B) Riboflavin C) Thiamine D) Cobalamine ===== 153. Match the following

Column I (Cells) Column II (Parts) A. Kupffer’s cells I. Mucous B. Paneth cells II. Pepsinogen C. Goblet cells III. Base of Intestine gland D. Oxyntic cells IV. Liver E. chief cells V. HCl A B C D E A B C D E A) IV III II I V B) IV III I II V B) IV III V I III D) IV III I V II ===== 154. The pharyngeal tonsil is A) Adenoid B) Vermiform appendix C) Lingual tonsil D) Payer’s patches ===== 155. The mammalian trachea and oesophagus both are connected to the A) Epiglottis B) Buccal cavity C) Pharynx D) Mouth ===== 156. The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the A) serosa membrane B) mucosa membrane C) subrmucosa membrane D) lumen ===== 157. Crypts of lieberkuhn are present in A) Intestine B) stomach C) oesophagus D) all of these ===== 158. The sphincter of Oddi is present between A) oesophagous and cardiac stomach B) pyloric stomach and duodenum. C) Hepatic duct and cystic duct D) hepatopancreatic duct and duodenum ===== 159. The number of salivary glands present in human beings is A) 5 pairs B) 4 pairs C) 3 pairs D) 2 pairs ===== 160. Oxyntic cells are located in A) Islets of Langerhans B) Gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin C) Kidneys and secrete rennin D) Gastric epithelium and secrete HCl ===== 161. Which of the following statement is correct regarding chilomicrons? A) They are undigested proteins B) They are undigested carbohydrates. C) They are fat droplets coated with phospholipids. D) They are fat droplets coated with proteins. ===== 162. Which of the following statement is incorrect? A) Brunner’s glands are submucosal B) Rugae are the irregular folds of thinner gastric mucosa. C) Glisson’s capsule is the connective tissue sheath of hepatic lobule D) Mesothielium or serosa lies in close proximity of the sub-mucosa. ===== 163. Which one of the following four secretions is correctly matched with its source, target and nature of

action? Secretion Source Target Action A) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall bladder Release of bile juice B) Gastric juice Stomach lining Peptic cells Production of HCL C) Salivary amylase Salivary gland Mouth Breakdown of starch into maltose

D) Rennin Saliva Small intestine Emulsification of fats ===== 164. Match column I (food type) with column 11 their (enzymes) and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II (Food type) (Enzymes) A. Starch I.Nucleases B. Protein II. Lipase C. Fats III. Amylase D. Nucleic acid IV. Trypsin A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III ===== 165. The given figure shows a section of small intestinal mucosa showing villi. What is the function of

structure marked as I in the given figure?

A) To absorb amino acids. B) To carry blood. C) To transport fatts D) To transport glucose ===== 166. Following are given parts of small and large intestine i) Caecum ii) Colon iii) Jejunum iv) Rectum v) Duodenum vi) Ileum Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order food passes through them from the small

intestine to the anus. A) i – ii – iii – iv – v - vi B) v – iii – vi – i – ii - iv C) iv – v – ii – iii – i - vi D) iii – v – vi – ii – i – iv ===== 167. If the large intestine becomes irritated and peristalsis increases then which of the following will result? A) Indigestion B) Diarrhoea C) Constipation D) Vomiting ===== 168. Brunner’s glands are found in A) Submucosa of stomach B) Wall of rectum C) Submucosa of duodenum D) Mucosa of ileum ===== 169. The common bile duct in human is formed by the joining of A) Pancreatic duct and bile duct. B) Cystic duct and hepatic duct C) Cystic duct and pancreatic duct. D) Hepatic duct and pancreatic duct. ===== 170. Digestive enzymes responsible for breaking down disaccharides includes A) Pepsin, trypsin and trypsinogen B) Amylase, pepsin and lipase C) Sucrase, lactase and maltase D) Pepsin, trypsin and chymotrypsin ===== 171. pH of saliva is A) 6.8 B) 8 C) 7 D) 9.5

===== 172. Maltase converts A) Maltose to glucose at pH greater than 7 B) Maltose to glucose at pH lesser than 7.0 C) Maltose to alcohol D) Starch to maltose at pH higher than 7.0 ===== 173. Which of the following monomers are produced, when lipids are broken down by lipase? A. Nucleotides B. Aminoacids C. Glycerol D. Fatty acids A) A and C only B) C and D only C) C only D) D only ===== 174. The given flowchart shows the fate of carbohydrate during digestion in the human alimentary canal.

Identify the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D.

A) A=amylase, B=maltase, C=lactase, D=invertase B) A=amylase, B=maltase, C= invertase, D= lactase C) A=amylase, B= invertase, C= maltase, D= lactase D) A=amylase, B= lactase, C= maltase, D=invertase ===== 175. Most of the chemical digestion of food in humans is completed in the ----- A) Small intestine B) Appendix C) Ascending colon D) Stomuch ===== 176. Which of the following enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice? A) Chymotrypsinogen B) Steapsin C) Nuclease D) Enterokinase ===== 177. A good source of lipase is A) Saliva B) Gastric juice C) Bile D) Pancreatic juice ===== 178. Enterokinase takes part in conversion of A) Pepsinogen to pepsin B) Trypsinogen to trypsin C) Protein into polypeptides D) Caseinogen into casein ===== 179. Which process transported the bolus into the pharynx then into the oesophagus? A) Deglutition B) Peristalsis C) Vomiting D) All of these ===== 180. During prolonged fasting A) First fats are used up, followed by carbohydrates from liver and muscles and proteins in the end. B) First carbohydrates are used up, followed by fat and proteins towards end. C) First lipids, followed by proteins and carbohydrates towards end. D) None of the above =====

PHYSICS

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.A

11.B 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.A 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.D

21.D 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.C 26.C 27.B 28.A 29.A 30.B

31.B 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.A 36.D 37.C 38.C 39.A 40.D

41.A 42.B 43.A 44.C 45.C CHEMISTRY

46.B 47.A 48.A 49.A 50.C 51.A 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.B

56.C 57.C 58.B 59.B 60.C 61.C 62.B 63.B 64.B 65.A

66.D 67.D 68.A 69.C 70.D 71.C 72.B 73.B 74.D 75.B

76.A 77.B 78.A 79.B 80.C 81.C 82.C 83.B 84.A 85.A

86.D 87.A 88.B 89.A 90.C BOTANY

91.C 92.C 93.B 94.D 95.B 96.C 97.A 98.C 99.B 100.B

101.D 102.D 103.D 104.A 105.D 106.C 107.A 108.D 109.C 110.A

111.D 112.D 113.D 114.C 115.A 116.D 117.C 118.B 119.B 120.A

121.D 122.C 123.D 124.A 125.A 126.D 127.A 128.A 129.B 130.D

131.B 132.C 133.C 134.D 135.A ZOOLOGY

136.D 137.A 138.A 139.D 140.B 141.B 142.D 143.B 144.B 145.C

146.B 147.D 148.D 149.B 150.A 151.B 152.D 153.D 154.A 155.C

156.B 157.A 158.D 159.C 160.D 161.D 162.D 163.C 164.A 165.C

166.B 167.B 168.C 169.B 170.C 171.A 172.A 173.B 174.D 175.A

176.D 177.D 178.B 179.A 180.B