STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION A) similar to that of the prime minister B) identical to that of the...

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www.eenadupratibha.net www.eenadupratibha.net STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION Constables & Rifleman Recruitment Model Paper – III ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Total Questions: 100 Max. Marks: 100 ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SECTION – I (GENERAL INTELLIGENCE) 1. 2. www.eenadupratibha.net

Transcript of STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION A) similar to that of the prime minister B) identical to that of the...

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STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

Constables & Rifleman Recruitment

Model Paper – III

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Total Questions: 100 Max. Marks: 100 ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION – I (GENERAL INTELLIGENCE)

1.

2.

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3.

4. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight. D is heavier than A and E and B is light than C. Who among them is the heaviest?

A) D B) B C) C D) Data Inadequate

5. ABCD & E are 5 friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is a little shorter than B and a little taller than A. Who will be in the middle?

A) A B) B C) D D) C

6. Pointing to a lady, a girl said, ‘She is the daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father’s only son.’ How is the lady related to the girl?

A) Sister-in-law B) Mother C) Aunt D) Mother-in-law

7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TMEU using each letter only once in each word?

A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

8. P is coded as 2, Q is 4, R as 6, B as 7, Z as 9, W as 5 and F as 3 then which of the following will be the coded form of BFRPZ?

A) 74629 B) 92637 C) 76329 D) 73629

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9. Find the add man out?

A) Tulip B) Marigold C) Rose D) Lotus

10. Fan : Air :: Bulb :?

A) Light B) Darkness C) Brightness D) Electricity

11. ABEF : GHKL : : OPQR : _________

A) VWXY B) UVXY C) UVWX D) RSTX

12. D, H, P, F, L, _______

A) T B) V C) X D) B

13. Find the add man out?

A) 4779 B) 4329 C) 5319 D) 6219

14. 324 : 400 : : 576 : ________

A) 625 B) 729 C) 784 D) 900

15. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

16. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

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17. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

[18 - 21] Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F & G are members of a sports club and have liking for different games viz. Carrom, Table Tennis, Badminton, Bridge, Hockey, Football and Lawn Tennis but not necessary in the same order. Each one of them has a liking for different musical instrument viz. Sitar, Guitar, Harmonium, Flute, Tabla, Banjo and Santoor not necessarily in the same order. B likes Carrom and Banjo. E likes to play Bridge but not Harmonium or Tabla. The one who plays Hockey plays Sitar. F plays Guitar but not Table Tennis or Lawn Tennis. A plays Badminton and Flute. The one who plays Lawn Tennis does not play Tabla. C plays Harmonium and G plays Hockey.

18. D plays which game?

A) Table Tennis B) Lawn Tennis C) Foot Ball D) Cannot be determined

19. Which of the following combinations of game-person-musical instrument is definitely correct?

A) Badminton - B – Flute B) Table Tennis - E - Santoor

C) Lawn Tennis - D - Tabla D) None of these

20. Who plays football?

A) C B) D C) G D) F

21. Who plays Table Tennis?

A) C B) F C) D D) cannot be determined

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22. How many E’s are there in the following sequence, which are not preceded by A. but followed by I?

A E I O E I O A I E U E I E I A E I A

A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4

23. How many 3’s are there in the following number series which are neither followed by 6 nor preceded by 8?

366833683883638638338939

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

24. If + means ÷, ÷ means -, - means x and x means +, What will be the value of the following expression: 8 + 4 ÷ 3 x 5 - 9.

A) 44 B) 325 C) 316 D) 46

25. If P denotes multiplied by, R denotes added to T denotes subtracted from and W denotes divided by them _______ 64 W 4 P 8 T 6 R 4 =?

A) 96 B) 223 C) 130 D) 126

SECTION – II

GENERAL AWARENESS

26. Vikramaditya, a king of Ujjain, started the Vikrama samvat in 58 BC in commemoration of his victory over

A) Indo-Greeks B) Sakas C) Parthinas D) Kushanas

27. To which king belongs the Lion capitol at Sarnath?

A) Chandragupta B) Ashoka C) Kanishka D) Harsha

28. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by?

A) the people B) Lok Sabha

C) elected members of the legislative assembly

D) elected members of the legislative council

29. The minimum age to qualify for election to the Lok Sabha is?

A) 25 years B) 21 years

C) 18 years D) 35 years

30. The position of a chief minister is

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A) similar to that of the prime minister

B) identical to that of the president

C) a combination of the position of the prime minister and president

D) not constitutional

31. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called

A) the Palghat gap B) the Bhorghat pass

C) the Thalgat pass D) the Bolan pass

32. The India's highest annual rainfall is reported at

A) Namchi, Sikkim B) Churu, Rajasthan

C) Mawsynram, Meghalaya D) Chamba, Himachal Pradesh

33. The element common to all acids is

A) hydrogen B) carbon C) sulphur D) oxygen

34. Non stick cooking utensils are coated with

A) Teflon B) PVC C) black paint D) polystyrene

35. Who is the surface Transport Minister of Government of India?

A) Arvind Goswami B) Anil Mannan

C) Nitin Gadkari D) Devendra Fadnavis

36. Which among the following is not the one among the newly elected UN Security Council Non-Permanent members?

A) Angola B) Malaysia C) Australia D) New Zealand

37. What is the term of the Non-Permanent member countries in UN Security Council?

A) 3yrs B) 2yrs C) 5yrs D) 4yrs

38. What is the full form of GST?

A) Goods Service Taxation B) Goods and Services Tax

C) Goods and Supply Tax D) Goods and Standard Tax

39. Who is director general of DRDO?

A) Avinash Chander B)V. K. Saraswat

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C) S S Sundaram D) Dr. K Tamilmani

40. Monazite is an ore of

A) titanium B) zirconium C) iron D) thorium

41. Carbon, diamond and graphite are together called

A) allotropes B) isomers C) isomorphs D) isotopes

42. Plants receive their nutrients mainly from

A) chlorophyll B) atmosphere C) light D) soil

43. Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400m run?

A) M.L.Valsamma B) P.T.Usha

C) Kamaljit Sandhu D) K.Malleshwari

44. Who was the 1st ODI captain for India?

A) Ajit Wadekar B) Bishen Singh Bedi

C) Nawab Pataudi D) Vinoo Mankad

45. The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is situated at?

A) Patna B) Jaipur

C) Hyderabad D) New Delhi

46. The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is?

A) 3:5 B) 2:3 C) 2:4 D) 3:4

47. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from

A) Rigveda B) Satpath Brahmana

C) Mundak Upanishad D) Ramayana

48. Visakhadatta sketches the event after the death of Samudragupta in his work

A) Mudrarakasam B) Devi Chand Guptam

C) Mrichekakatika D) Malavikagnimitra

49. The Vedas contain all the truth was interpreted by?

A) Swami Vivekananda B) Swami Dayananda

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C) Raja Rammohan Roy D) None of the above

50. January 15 is celebrated as the?

A) Republic Day B) Ugadhi

C) Teachers' Day D) Army Day

SECTION – III

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

51. When the price of a bicycle is reduce by 30% the sales are increased by 20%. What is the total percentage change in turnover?

A) 16% increase B) 16% decrease

C) 15% increase D) 25% decrease

52. By selling a watch for Rs. 620 a man loses 7%. Find the profit or loss percent. When he sells the same for Rs. 700?

A) 8% profit B) 20% profit C) 8% loss D) 5% profit

53. Two alloys contain zinc and copper in the ratio of 2 : 1 and 4 : 1. In what ratio the two alloys should be added together to get as new alloy having zinc and copper in the ratio of 3 : 1.

A) 7 : 5 B) 5 : 7 C) 3 : 5 D) 5 : 3

54. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst P, Q and R in the respective ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 and another sum of money is to be divided between S and T equally. If S got Rs. 2,100 less than P, how much amount did Q receive?

A) Rs. 2,500 B) Rs. 2,000

C) Rs. 1,500 D) cannot be determined

55. 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?

A) 52 B) 56 C) 96 D) 128

56. The average age of a man and his two twin’s sons born on the same day is 30 years. The ratio of the ages of father and one of his sons is 5 : 2 respectively. What is the Father's age?

A) 50 years B) 30 years C) 45 years D) 20 years

57. 34.95 + 240.016 + 23.98 =?

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A) 298.0946 B) 298.111 C) 298.946 D) 299.09

58. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 44 and 264 respectively. If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is 44. The other number is

A) 132 B) 33 C) 66 D) 264

59. The ratio between the present ages of Indu and Lakhvir is 5 : 7 respectively. After eight years Indu’s age will be 28 years. What was Lakhvir’s age 6 years ago?

A) 22 years B) 28 years C) 34 years D) 21 years

60. The Average of 20 numbers is P. The Average of first 5 numbers is q. The Average of last 14 numbers is r. The sixth number is?

A) 20p + 5q – 14r B) 2p – 5q + 14r C) 20p – 5q – 14r D) p + q – r

61. Simple interest accrued on an amount in 8 years @ 12 p.c.p.a. is Rs. 5,520. What is the principal amount?

A) Rs. 5,750 B) Rs. 8,500 C) Rs. 5,650 D) Rs. 8,250

62. Rajeev consistently runs 325 metres every day except on Sundays when he runs 500 metres. How many kilometers will he run in two weeks (In this question week starts from Monday)?

A) 5.7 km B) 2.5 km C) 3.2 km D) 4.9 km

63. 59.287.3 −  = ?

A) 23.1 B) 21.1 C) 26.1 D) 28.1  

64. In a sale, perfumes are available at a discount of 25% on the selling price. If a perfume costs Rs. 5,895 in the sale, what is the selling price of the perfume?

A) Rs. 6,020 B) Rs. 7,860 C) Rs. 7,680 D) cannot be determined

65. The ratio of the volumes of 2 spheres is 8 : 27. Find the ratio of their surface area?

A) 8 : 27 B) 2: 3 C) 7 : 22 D) 4 : 9

66. There are two taps to fill a tank while a third to empty it. When the third tap is closed, they can fill the tank in 10 min. and 12 min. respectively. If all the three taps be opened, the tank is filled in 15min. If the first two taps are closed, in which time can the third tap empty the tank when it is full?

A) 7 min. B) 9 min and 32 sec. C) 8 min and 34 sec. D) 6 min.

67. The average of five positive integers is 557. The average of the first two integers is 577.5. The average of the fourth and fifth integers is 454.5. What is the third integer?

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A) 699 B) 721

C) 520 D) cannot be determined

68. 8, 22, 8, 28, 8, ?

A) 9 B) 29 C) 32 D) 34

69. A truck covers a certain distance in 14 hours at the speed of 62 km/hr. What is the average speed of a car which travels a distance of 280 km more than the truck in the same time?

A) 89 km/hr B) 77 km/hr C) 82 km/hr D) 76 km/hr

70. Two trains start at the same time from Aligarh and Delhi and proceed towards each other at the rate of 16 km. and 21 km. per hour respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 60 km. more than the other. The distance between two stations is?

A) 445 km B) 444 km C) 440 km D) 450 km

71. 6 women alone can complete a piece of work in 12 days, whereas 6 children alone take 48 days to complete the same piece of work. How many days will 6 women and 24 children together take to complete the piece of work?

A) 6 B) 10 C) 8 D) 4

72. Four circular card board pieces each of radius 7 cm. are placed in such a way that each piece touches two other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by 4 pieces is ?

A) 38 sq. cm B) 42 sq. cm C) 45 sq. cm D) 48 sq. cm

73. (18)3 x 64 ÷ 432 =?

A) 5184 B) 5060 C) 5148 D) 5084

74. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 4,450 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. for 2 years ?

A) Rs. 807 B) Rs. 811 C) Rs. 810 D) Rs. 801

75. A business man sold one-third of his merchandise at a loss of 10%. At what percentage of gain he should sell the remaining goods to gain 10% on the whole?

A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%

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SECTION – IV

ENGLISH

Directions (76 - 80): Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

A flock of birds flew into an IndiGo Airbus to take off at Patna this morning and damaged the plane’s engine before the captain slammed the emergency brakes.

The close shave has again forced the glare on the airport already under the scanner for obstacles in its landing approach path. The Airbus A320, carrying 89 passengers and six crew members, had started by the waste pile-up near the airport, crashed into the plane on the left around 8.05 am.

The pilot hit the brakes, bringing the plane to a screeching halt seconds before take-off. Sources said the plane would have been running at a speed of about 40 nautical miles (74kmph) at the time. Flight 6E 385 was scheduled to take off at 8.10 am for Delhi and onward to Hyderabad, Bangalore and Visakhapatnam.

“The left-hand side engine of the aircraft got damaged after it was hit by the birds. There were no casualties fortunately and all passengers were taken out of the aircraft has been grounded and it will operate only after the safety engineers of IndiGo source at Patna airport said.

All passengers were accommodated on other IndiGo flight; the source added.

76. ‘Close Shave’ means

A) Emergency B) Danger

C) A narrow escape D) To shave carefully

77. Why did the birds fly into the plane?

A) As the birds were attracted to the plane.

B) As it was taking off slowly

C) As the captain slammed the brakes

D) As the birds were attracted to the waste pile-up near the airport

78. The passengers were allowed to get off the plane.

A) after the plane was taken to the parking bay B) immediately

C) after many hours D) the next day

79. The Airbus is a

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A) A large bus B) Small plane

C) Large plane D) A small bus

80. What happened to the plane after the passengers were taken off?

A) It was given a fitness certificate B) It was grounded

C) It was discarded D) It was inspected and allowed to fly

Directions (81 - 83): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word.

81. Felicity

A) Prosperity B) honesty C) bliss D) sorrow

82. Rout

A) death B) defeat C) loss D) crash

83. Forego

A) renounce B) donors C) leave D) accumulate

Directions (84 - 85): In the following questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

84. Nadir

A) modernity B) zenith C) liberty D) progress

85. Facilitate

A) finish B) recommend

C) hinder D) request

Directions (86-90): In the following questions some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from errors, then your answer is D) i.e. No error.

86. Even if you are a film star, A)/ I would not care B)/ for you C)/ No error D)

87. I went to my village A)/ along with my wife B)/ to sell our land C)/ No error D)

88. The only one A)/ who can decide B)/ ones destiny is God C)/ No error D)

89. Due to A)/ a misunderstanding B)/ I did not meet him. C)/ No error D)

90. I prefer A)/ dancing B)/ to singing C)/ No error D)

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Directions (91 - 96): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. The suitable word for the blank has been mentioned against the number below the passage. The student is required to fill the blank choosing the appropriate word in the context of the whole passage.

One’s body can be kept healthy by adopting breathing programs that use the respiratory system to its maximum potential, letting in (91) oxygen (92) the body as possible while removing as much (93) carbon dioxide as possible. The most effective is the total Breath Control. Practice it (94) it becomes second nature. (95) that happens, you (96) find that you are less tired.

91. A) as much B) as little as C) into D) as much as

92. A) in B) though C) into D) on

93. A) useful B) necessary C) waste D) remind

94. A) as soon as B) until C) after D) unless

95. A) then B) when C) where D) here

96. A) can B) should C) must D) ought to

Directions (97 - 100): In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

97. It’ll rain soon, _______?

A) won’t it B) ought it

C) isn’t it D) may it

98. My book is the new one; _________ is the torn one.

A) your B) the book of you

C) yours D) the book your

99. They needn’t worry, _______?

A) isn’t it B) doesn’t it

C) don’t it D) need they

100. He is indifferent alike ________ praise and blame

A) in B) to

C) for D) about

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KEY

1 B 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 C

6 B 7 B 8 D 9 D 10 A

11 C 12 C 13 A 14 A 15 D

16 B 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D

21 C 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 D

26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 A

31 A 32 C 33 A 34 A 35 C

36 C 37 B 38 B 39 D 40 D

41 A 42 D 43 C 44 A 45 C

46 B 47 C 48 A 49 B 50 D

51. B. 52. D. 53. C. 54. D. 55. B.

56. A. 57. C. 58. A. 59. A. 60. C.

61. A. 62. D. 63. D. 64. B. 65. D.

66. C. 67. B. 68. D. 69. C. 70. B.

71. A. 72. B. 73. A. 74. D. 75. D.

76 A 77 D 78 A 79 C 80 C

81 A 82 B 83 C 84 B 85 C

86 A 87 D 88 C 89 A 90 D

91 A 92 C 93 C 94 B 95 B

96 A 97 A 98 C 99 D 100 B

 

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