SPT315113 - Sports Science - Assessment Report 2013 Assessment Report 2013.pdfSports Science Course...
Transcript of SPT315113 - Sports Science - Assessment Report 2013 Assessment Report 2013.pdfSports Science Course...
Sports Science Course Code: SPT315113
2013 Assessment Report
Tasmanian Qualifications Authority Page 1 of 26
GENERAL COMMENTS As continues to be the case on an annual basis, the same issues emerge as causes for concern. Primary among these is the challenge faced by many markers in deciphering the borderline illegible handwriting of some candidates, especially in later parts of the paper as fatigue sets in. This issue is exacerbated by the increasing number of candidates writing in pencil, which is much harder to read than blue or black pen, and would not be recommended for use. The change to the rules for Reading Time also seems to have, ironically, resulted in many candidates not fully and comprehensively reading the exam questions as carefully as they should. It would be recommended that candidates still use their Reading Time for the stated purpose. Perhaps this “extra” writing time convinced some candidates to think they could enhance their chances by writing more than was required (or allocated on a time basis of approximately a mark a minute) for some questions, causing them to run out of time on later questions. Indeed, time management, for some candidates across the whole paper remains an issue. Whether this is the cause for many candidates’ inability to ‘outline’, ‘explain’ or ‘justify’ as required in many instances and to simply list instead is unclear -‐ it could be a simple case of lack of knowledge or an inability to apply that knowledge to a wider range of situations. The inability to apply knowledge continues to be of particular concern in the criterion 5 interrelationship questions. A change to the exam format for this year only required two links in each question -‐ reduced from three in recent years. It had been hoped that this reduction would enable more time for candidates, not only to fully answer all questions, but also to produce answers of a higher quality. It still appears that many candidates rely on prepared links that they fail to sufficiently adapt, apply and relate to the specifics of each question. It continues to be strongly recommended that teachers and students alike more fully familiarise themselves not only with the Standards document for this criterion, but the Guidelines for Marking such questions (included in the Comments below) as well as the exemplar answers which have been provided for each question (in the Solutions section of this Report). While these exemplars set the benchmark for each rating at the upper limit, it is hoped that they can provide a framework against which candidates can aspire to match.
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PART 1 -‐ EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY The Examiners generally considered this paper to be a reasonable one that provided candidates sufficient opportunity to demonstrate their understanding. Question 1 Most parts of this question were handled well by the majority of candidates. There were, however, some issues with a couple of questions, including: b) Many candidates confused the molecule ATP with the energy system ATP-‐PC, while others failed
to outline the structure, as required. c) Many candidates failed to relate their answers to the notion of a ‘sedentary’ adult as required.
Better answers did consider the idea that it would take a longer time to reach an aerobic steady state due to a sedentary individuals’ lower LIP.
d) Some candidates gave answers that seemed to be a combination of acute and chronic responses, without indicating the one to which they were referring, making them incorrect.
f) Many candidates gave answers which would NOT be evident at rest, such as a higher VO2 maximum, or the ability to glycogen spare.
Question 2 Most parts of this question were handled well by the majority of candidates. There were, however, some issues with a couple of questions, including: a) Many candidates mistakenly thought that the concept related to a complete depletion of ALL fuel
stores, causing the athlete to have to stop exercising completely. c) Many candidates incorrectly described the processes involved in LA accumulation, rather than LA
removal, as required. d) Despite the wording of the previous question, many candidates actually described ways to remove
LA, rather than how to prevent depletion, or replenish the muscle glycogen stores. e) Far too many candidates seem to think that DOMS is related to, or caused by the accumulation of
waste products from anaerobic metabolism (La & H+ ions). Better answers recognised that it is the result of microscopic tears in the muscle fibres, often resulting from eccentric activities, or dramatic increases in the intensity or duration of exercise.
f) While most candidates could correctly state relevant training principles, many stated what the athlete was doing wrong, rather than applying the knowledge to how they could ‘improve’ performance, as required. “Overtraining” is NOT a training principle!
Question 3 While still answered reasonably well, this was the question which was handled least well of the three questions for criterion 1. Specific issues related to: a) Many candidates gave a definition of VO2 max and failed to relate it to what it indicates about a
persons’ fitness. d) Many candidates confused the Transition phase with the General Preparatory, or ‘Pre-‐season’
phase; or thought there was a ‘transition’ in-‐between each of the training phases throughout the year.
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e) This question was not very well answered by many candidates. Far too many could only describe the training by giving examples of it; and many who did, related their answers to how it could improve strength, rather than power, as specifically required in this question. In addition, many candidates suggested that isometric training would be appropriate for developing power, when it is not.
f) Many candidates described methods for improving either aerobic or anaerobic energy production, rather than highlighting differences in how the respective energy is produced. Many also only focussed on the use of glycogen as a fuel for aerobic respiration, omitting fats, or; one of the ATP-‐PC or LA systems, rather than both, when talking about anaerobic energy production.
Question 4 This question was answered well by most candidates with few issues of concern. In (e) many candidates only considered one aspect of the claim when there were two to be considered. In (f) many candidates gave rankings from most to least fit when the question specifically asked for the reverse order. Questions 5, 10 and 15 Markers’ Guidelines on allocating marks and dealing with specific issues in Interrelationship Questions 5, 10 and 15 With the change from three to two links this year, there was much discussion at the meeting to ensure consensus among Markers on the standards expected from candidates in these questions and with respect to how marks would be allocated for a range of scenarios where candidates did not give the appropriate answer as required Below is a summary of the Guidelines that Markers used in allocating marks for these questions: The 6 marks would be allocated using the following method.......
! up to 1 mark for a relevant and specific link (which may have been made at any point in the answer; not necessarily at the start)
! up to 2 marks for relevant theory from each of the two core units (up to 1 mark for each core) ! up to 3 marks for providing relevant application of the interrelationship between the two cores to
the specifics of the scenario provided
Maximum marks per link for the following scenarios, if the info provided is still correct: • 0 marks are awarded for an intrarelationship link, although if both links are intrarelationship,
then .5 of a mark is awarded. • 0 marks are awarded for using relevant and appropriate theory but NO linking/interrelating at all
between the two chosen areas; if both links do this, then .5 of a mark is awarded. • A maximum of 1.5 marks be allocated for an Interrelationship between the WRONG CORE areas. • A maximum of 3 marks be allocated for links not answered from the correct PERSPECTIVE ie
should have been answered in a negative sense but has done positively, or vice versa. • A maximum of 4 marks be allocated for a second link where the SAME THEORY was used in the
first link. For example -‐ If use intrinsic motivation to explain training intensity in link 1 and then intrinsic motivation again to explain recovery methods in link 2.
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Note: this does NOT prevent separate links using different thoery from the same aspect eg: Intrinsic Motivation in link 1 and then Extrinsic Motivation in link 2; or Specific and Achievable goals in link1 and Measurable, Reviewable and Time based goals in link 2.
Question 5 It was pleasing to see the vast majority of candidates made efforts to answer this question, although a number did only attempt one link. However, many fell short of the minimum standard expected across both links when marks were combined. It is clear that many candidates entered the exam with “pre-‐prepared” links that they are intent on using. However, many were not suited to the nature of this question and consequently were written from a positive perspective, rather than the negative perspective that was required, costing valuable marks. In addition, there were too many candidates who incorrectly interrelated exercise physiology with skill acquisition concepts, rather than sport psychology. PART 2 -‐ SKILL ACQUISITION Overall, the questions related to criterion 2 were answered reasonably well and the structure of both the questions and marking scheme enabled candidates with a basic level of understanding to demonstrate their knowledge while still providing scope to challenge those aiming to demonstrate higher levels of understanding and application of the required knowledge. There was some evidence of either poor time management, or lack of ability, with some of the higher scoring and/or more application-‐based questions being left incomplete or unattempted. Question 6 a) Generally well answered. b) A lot of candidates simply provided an example of Knowledge of Results rather than the actual
definition as required. c) Generally well answered. Slow down, replay, pause and watch multiple times were the more
popular answers. d) Most candidates answered this well. Some candidates did not provide all the information about
Short Term Memory -‐ many only mentioned capacity or duration, rather than both. e) Not answered as well as other parts of this question. Many candidates did not provide
information on Centre of Gravity, Stability and Base of Support. A lot of answers related to subroutines and things like arm and leg position.
f) A number of candidates simply mentioned the four components of information processing and did not provide adequate detail about what occurred in each component. Some candidates placed too much focus on the feedback component, at the expense of the other components.
Question 7 a) Generally answered well. b) This question was interpreted in two ways. Either, that the effect of noise was detrimental to all
performance, or more commonly, that because autonomous learners were “automatic” and experienced, it had little effect. Either interpretation was accepted depending on the justification provided.
c) Generally answered well.
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d) The majority of responses included only a very basic definition of “Hick’s Law”, focussing just on the number of stimuli involved and failing to mention the number of response alternatives. Application of the theory to the autonomous learner was largely general in nature.
e) Most candidates demonstrated knowledge of the definition and the difference between each stage, but many lacked the ability to explain why the differences existed.
f) Better responses to this question included definitions of the relevant key terms. Overall, the comparisons of the Associative and Autonomous stages of learning were generally well structured.
Question 8 a) Better answers mentioned both the ability to focus on appropriate stimuli AND the ability to
ignore ‘noise’. Some candidates only mentioned one of the two aspects. b) Better answers gave examples that included a clear context for the application of their skills,
rather than simply stating a skill without the relevant context to demonstrate its open nature. c) The nature of the question allowed candidates to justify either option, depending on the
appropriateness of their explanations. d) The requirement to apply knowledge in this question presented a challenge to many candidates.
The question brought two main interpretations -‐ most answers talked about how a player’s decision-‐making abilities will be reduced (ie -‐ take longer) through a range of factors. Others interpreted this question as how to decrease a player’s decision-‐making time/complexity.
e) Better answers provided a clear understanding of the given theory including the correct angle, etc. Some candidates basically re worded the question with no information regarding the factors other than stating that if they were all optimal the greatest distance would be achieved.
f) Most candidates were able to identify the duration and capacity of each memory phase. Better answers were able to include the use of strategies such as selective attention, coding, chunking, and relevance/meaningfulness to assist in the transfer of information between stages.
Question 9 While candidates were required to make reference to the graphs in answering all questions, this task was made more difficult due to the lack of specific data included on the graphs, which would have allowed for more accurate measurements and comparisons. a) Well interpreted and answered. b) Most answers either selected throwing a javelin or High jump. The better answers were able to
justify their selection by making reference to all three categories given in the Skill Continuum. c) Most candidates were able to make a comparison between marathon running and batting in
cricket. Unfortunately, not many were able to show clear evidence from the Skills Continuum in justifying their comparisons.
d) Generally well answered, although some candidates found it difficult to explain their selection with clear reference to the graph.
e) Very well answered although a few candidates listed the skill types in the reverse order which was incorrect.
f) Better answers here were able to make the connection between an ‘unpredictable environment’ and the ‘open’ aspect of the continuum and graph, in order to show the relevant evidence to justify their statements. Lesser answers failed to make this connection, with some simply leaving the space completely blank.
g) The better answers demonstrated clarity in their analysis of both sets of data. Lesser answers did not provide a full enough analysis, with some simply not attempting to provide an answer at all.
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Question 10 As is often the case with such criterion 5 questions, many candidates’ answers were not of a high standard. Most candidates answered only in general terms and were not able to clearly identify the issues with regards to the switch from Motorcycle racing to V8 Supercars; instead focussing on the Skill Acquisition/Physiology involved in V8 Supercar racing in isolation. Unfortunately, some answers discussed the wrong core i.e. Sport Psychology; some included irrelevant pre-‐determined “set” links; others included theory but did not explain how the two areas related to each other; while some answers only included the one link. All of these situations significantly impacted on candidates’ ability to gain satisfactory marks for the question. Some left it completely unanswered. Unfortunately, very few candidates were scored in the upper range of marks for their responses to this question. PART 3 -‐ SPORT PSYCHOLOGY Question 11 a) Many candidates thought they were being asked to choose one of the alternatives offered to
them due to the wording of the question; consequently, many were “tricked”. b) Generally answered well, although some candidates seemed intent on explaining how to perform
visualisation rather than stating the benefits as required. c) Not answered well by many candidates, who simply thought a process goal was a very shallow
stepping stone, rather than one that focussed on the key factors of the skill or performance. d) Well answered, with better answers providing a brief definition of self-‐efficacy. Some candidates,
however, discussed high and low self-‐efficacy, which was not required, while others simply listed, rather than explained.
e) Generally answered well, with a range of responses across the four attentional styles provided. All styles could have been appropriate, depending on the justification and example provided. Better answers discussed the relative strengths and weaknesses of their selected style. A number of candidates failed to attempt this question.
f) Many candidates mistakenly stated that pre-‐competition strategies were important things before arriving at venue and competition strategies were things completed once at the venue. Better answers included definitions with their sporting examples, although some candidates wrote in great detail about the specifics of competition strategies of a given sport but did not mention the general terms, such as task relevant factors, mood/cue words etc.
Question 12 a) Too many candidates misread the question and gave answers from the player’s perspective, rather
than from the coaches, as required; such as using music, which in reality is rarely, if ever, used by a coach for a player or team.
b) Generally answered well. Some candidates confused state and trait anxiety. c) Generally answered well. d) Details relating to generic statements such as “train for the pain” were required for full marks, and
a coach telling a player to “ignore the pain” is not a recommended strategy! e) Candidates were generally able to state what each type of motivation was, but a number failed to
highlight the difference between them, as required; or did not relate it back to how a coach could benefit from understanding the difference.
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f) Better answers did not just state what each style did and justify the appropriate one, but also explained how the athlete would need to be able to shift their attentional focus -‐ from NarExt to listen to the coach then to BrInt to think, analyse and plan responses based on the coach’s instructions. Selective attention is not an attentional style. Many candidates did not attempt to answer this question.
Question 13 a) Many candidates did not provide a definition of an internal stressor, instead giving a description of
what is involved in a stressful situation. c) The primary focus of this question was on the process of visualisation more so than how it could
assist. Many candidates still focussed more on why it was important rather than the process involved.
d) Some candidates simply listed relevant aspects, such as “motivation” or “self-‐confidence” without qualifying the impact that setting goals can have on the aspect.
e) The question required an assessment of the optimal arousal needed for both fine and gross motor skills. Some candidates only mentioned one or the other, while others got the answers around the wrong way.
f) Not generally answered well. Many candidates were only able to give a basic description, and some only provided a diagram. Others overlooked the role that cognitive anxiety has in the process, or the concept of recovery from such a situation.
Question 14 While candidates were required to make reference to the graphs in answering all questions, many candidates found this challenging due to the lack of specific data included on the graphs, which would have allowed for more accurate measurements and comparisons. d) A number of candidates thought Athlete A’s performance would decrease with an increase in
anxiety, which would not have been the case. e) Better answers cited Athlete B, as the best example and compared B to the other 2 athletes to
highlight their answer. f) A number of candidates only considered the correct graph, with little justification of theory
related to the Inverted U Hypothesis. Question 15 The main issues evident were consistent with those in the two other criterion 5 questions, which have consistently been highlighted in previous years as well. Many candidates obviously failed to fully and carefully read the detailed pre-‐amble. Consequently, they did things such as answer from the wrong perspective, as well as refer to Shannon as a female! In addition, there was further evidence of candidates using prepared links which they were unable to, or incapable of, adapting to the specific details of the question: eg suggesting SE needed good concentration to focus on his recovery. Some candidates are also devoting too much time and space to explaining the sport science theory component of the link and not enough detail to the application of the theory to the given scenario, which is where the majority of marks are allocated.
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Others did not have a recognisable format or structure for explaining their inter-‐relationship link, which made it difficult to assess, and; many candidates either did not attempt the question, or only completed one of the two links. Better answers were able to blend/combine the relevant theory from both core units into their discussion and examples, rather than present the theory as two separate or isolated topics. SPORT SCIENCE -‐ SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS PART 1 -‐ EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY Question 1 a) Duration is the length of the training session or training program, in this case it is the thirty
minutes of exercise. (1 mark) b) ATP is the molecule that is the used as the immediate source for energy; it contains one adenosine
molecule and three phosphate molecules. (1 mark) c) They will utilise the ATP-‐PC (Phosphagen) System to provide the energy during the first several
seconds, after which the Lactic Acid (Anaerobic) System would contribute the greatest amount until there was sufficient time for the Aerobic (Oxygen) system to provide the oxygen necessary for the exercise. As the adults are sedentary, this would take longer than it would for a more active individual, but as the exercise is moderate, the Aerobic system would be the predominate energy system for the majority of the 30 minutes. (3 marks)
d) Heart Rate increases as there are a greater demand for fuels and oxygen to be provided to the
working muscles and also the need to remove waste products, including carbon dioxide, hydrogen ions and lactate. Stroke Volume increases as the left ventricle expands more and then contracts more forcefully to supply more oxygen to working muscles. Cardiac Output increases as a result of the increased Heart Rate and Stroke Volume as the requirements for oxygen are increased.
(3 marks) e) Any two appropriate reasons, including such answers as:
• They will accumulate less lactic acid and therefore recover more quickly between efforts or after a training session.
• It will allow adults to work at a lower intensity but for a longer duration, etc. (2 marks)
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f) Any two of the following:
• A decreased resting Heart Rate due to the increase in the efficiency of the heart muscle. • Cardiac Hypertrophy, particularly the left ventricle becomes larger, as a result more blood
can be pumped out of the heart each beat. • Increased Stroke Volume due to the increase is size of the heart cavity. • Unchanged or decreased Cardiac Output due to the decreased heart rate. • Increased Blood Volume and Haemoglobin means that more oxygen can be taken from the
lungs and delivered to the working muscles. • Decreased Blood Pressure due to improved vascular elasticity and vascularisation. • Increased Capillarisation of the heart muscle to deliver oxygen. • Increased Capillarisation of skeletal muscle to deliver oxygen to the working muscles. • Increased a-‐vO2 difference.
(2 marks) Question 2 a) EITHER...Hitting the wall is when as athlete experiences a relatively sudden fatigue, decrease in
power output and an inability to improve their output, OR This is a result of muscle and liver glycogen stores being depleted and fats become the primary fuel source. (1 mark)
b) Athletes should consume protein as a part of their normal diet as they contain amino acids which
are essential building blocks of the body and are needed for muscle growth and repair. They can be used as a source of energy for ATP production in the aerobic system. They can help to increase the speed of glycogen resynthesis. They can be used to help produce hormones. (1 mark)
c) Lactic Acid removal needs to occur when lactic acid accumulates during exercise. Some Lactic Acid
is used by the heart and other skeletal muscles and converted back into pyruvic acid and then metabolised back into ATP so it can be a further source of energy. Immediately after exercise lactic acid can be converted back into glycogen by the liver. The mitochondrion converts some lactic acid to carbon dioxide and water if there is sufficient oxygen, some to protein and some into glucose. Other answers about the physiological processes involved in removing lactic acid as part of the recovery process were considered. (2 marks)
d) Two of the ways that athletes can prevent or recover from depletion of their muscle glycogen
stores include:
• Consumption of carbohydrate before exercise (“Carbohydrate Loading”). This is to ensure that there are adequate stores of carbohydrate to use as the main source of fuel during the exercise.
• Consumption of high glycaemic carbohydrate sports drinks (4-‐8% carbohydrate); gels or snacks during the activity. This ensures that liver glycogen stores are not utilised until the later stages of the activity.
• Consumption of high glycaemic snack (1 g per kg body weight) post-‐exercise in the first 30-‐60 minutes; followed by a more substantial low glycaemic meal within 2-‐3 hours.
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• Ensuring there is adequate rest days. Rest days will enhance the replenishment of glycogen and prevent overtraining.
• Consume small amounts of protein with your CHO’s as this will increase the absorption rate of the CHO’s.
• Avoid alcohol, caffeine and fats as these all inhibit CHO’s absorption post-‐exercise. (2 marks) e) Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness which is the muscle soreness that occurs 1-‐3 days post exercise
can be avoided or treated by (two of following with explanation):
• Warming up before exercise • Performing an active recovery after exercise • Stretching or Yoga • Massage • Same activity that causes the muscle stiffness but at a lower intensity • Non-‐land bearing activities such as swimming or cycling • Avoiding rapid increases in the duration/intensity of exercise • Avoiding exercises which involve large amounts of eccentric contractions • Use of Contrast Water Therapy • Application of the RICE formula, etc. (2 marks)
f) Any two of the following training principles:
• Specificity is described as ‘You get what you train for’. It is used to ensure that the correct
energy systems, fitness components and muscles are trained that meet the requirements of the sport or activity. If this was applied then the athlete would get the most out of their training sessions.
• Progressive Overload suggests that you must exercise at an intensity greater than your existing capacity so that the body adapts physiologically to a higher work load. If this was applied the athlete should benefit from fitness or skill level OR if too much applied, the athlete may be fatigued which is causing their poor performance.
• Frequency refers to the number of training sessions per week or how often you train. The more frequent the training sessions the greater the benefit to the athlete, but it must also include rest days. If an athlete was performing poorly they may need to increase the frequency to get some benefits OR decrease the frequency if they are overtraining.
• Intensity refers to how hard a training session is. In order to gain fitness increase the intensity of a training program must increase. If an athlete is performing poorly they may need to adjust their intensity (increase or decrease as needed) so that are getting the most out of each training session.
• Duration refers to the length of a training program or session. Some adjustments may need to be may to the length of a training session so that the athlete is making improvements or decreasing the time of training if the athlete is overtraining.
• Variety refers to varying the training program so that an athlete maintains their motivation. By varying the place where an athlete trains, how hard they train, who the athlete trains with or what the athlete does to train it can increase their motivation and have a positive effect on performance.
• Other principles were considered on an individual basis and may have been accepted, depending on the justifications provided. (4 marks)
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Question 3 a) It provides information about the athlete’s ability to consume and utilise oxygen and therefore as
an athlete gets fitter their VO2 max increases. (1 mark) b) FITT stand for Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type and is most frequently used to describe the
requirements that need to be addressed when participating in continuous training. However, it can equally be applied to other methods such as Interval, Circuit, Resistance. (1 mark)
c) One of the following:
• Cool Down/Active Recovery is the tapering off after activity and is the continuation of the activity at a lower intensity followed by static or PNF stretching, which increases the removal of lactic acid and prevents venous pooling.
• Stretching -‐ the most effective is static stretching performed for at least 5-‐10 minutes, holding each stretch for at least 10 seconds which helps muscles relax realign the muscle fibres and re-‐establish their normal range of movement.
• Passive Recovery – sitting down and not moving is only beneficial for athletes who have participated in high intensity activities which have utilised the ATP-‐PC System.
• Rehydration – involves the consumption of water/fluid post exercise and must replace the body weight that is lost during exercise, this is especially important after participating in endurance events or hot/humid environments.
• Nutrition – consuming the correct amount of fuels pre-‐exercise or post-‐exercise. • etc…. (1 mark)
d) Transition Phase is the time when an athlete has a psychological and physical break from training
and competition for approximately 6-‐12 weeks. There is usually a decreased volume and intensity of training, however, the athlete needs to stay active so that fitness does not decrease. This phase can include resistance programs to bulk up, or remedial programs to correct technical deficiencies.
(2 marks) e) Any three of the folowing:
• Isotonic Weight Training is when joints are moved under load or weight which is constant through the range of movement; performing the movements rapidly will increase muscular power.
• Body Weight Resistance Training (callisthenics) where the resistance is generated from gravity acting on the body, when the exercises are done in an explosive manner, muscular power increases.
• Plyometrics improves muscular power by performing explosive movements that involve an eccentric lengthening, rapidly followed by a shortening, concentric contraction.
• Sport specific training aides, such as rugby tackle block, or running parachutes, resistance bands, etc help develop power by focussing specifically on the movement undertaken in the particular sport, enabling the athlete to perform it explosively against a greater resistance.
• Isokinetic Weight Training, where specialised machines are used to vary the resistance throughout the range of movement, so that that speed of the movement remains constant throughout. When done with maximal effort, power will be developed. (3 marks)
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f) At rest ATP is produced aerobically (utilising oxygen) in the mitochondria; two thirds from the
breakdown of fats and one third from the breakdown of glycogen and glucose. This is due to the fact that demand for energy is low; heart and breathing rates are low and stable. When training to improve anaerobic fitness the ATP-‐PC System is responsible for the first 0 – 10 seconds of ATP production through the breakdown of stored ATP and then through the breakdown Phospho-‐Creatine, and then the Lactic Acid System is the major contributor after this time, through the incomplete breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid and then to lactic acid and hydrogen ions. Both anaerobic systems produce ATP without oxygen. (4 marks)
Question 4 a) The Low Repetitions Group, with a 40kg increase (compared to the squat which only had a 20kg
increase). (1 mark) b) High repetitions as they had the biggest decrease of 0.6% (compared to 0.2% for the control and
0.3% for the low repetitions group). (1 mark) c) The high repetitions group with a decrease of 1.3 kg (compared to a decrease of 0.6 kg for the
control group and an increase of 2.3kg for the low repetitions group). (1 mark) d) The lowest gains were from the control group with 0.1 ml/kg/min. The highest gains came from
the high repetitions group with 1.5 ml/kg/min. (2 marks) e) The results do not support the first part of the claim that low repetitions with heavier weights
increase strength and power, due to the fact that the high repetitions groups gained the greatest increase in both the squat (80kg compared to 20kg) and the leg press (45 compared to 40). However, the results support the second part of the claim, that lighter weights increase endurance, as the high repetitions recorded a difference of 1.5 ml/kg/min compared to 0.9 ml/kg/min. (2 marks)
f) Control group were least fit with a VO2 max of 48.7 ml/kg/min, then high repetitions with a VO2
max of 50.1 ml/kg/min, and the most fit was the low repetitions group who recorded a score or 50.3 ml/kg/min.
As fitness could be determined through a number of categories, other answers were considered, if
given with appropriate explanations/data. (1 mark) g) The results suggest that both the leg press and the squat are effective ways of gaining power in a
training program. For all three groups; control, low repetitions and high repetitions the results increased. Therefore only one test would be necessary if you wanted to see if the leg power had increased.
Answers suggesting both tests were valid based on the use of slightly different muscle groups and
the provision of extra data to confirm results were also considered. (2 marks) h) Their original body mass was 71.5kg, after the program it was 70.2kg; this represents a decrease of
1.3kg. (2 marks)
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Question 5 The two core units for this question were Exercise Physiology and Sports Psychology. Links could be made in either direction; that is -‐ from Exercise Physiology to Sports Psychology or; from Sports Psychology to Exercise Physiology. Links must be made from a negative perspective -‐ that is -‐ what did Sam Stosur (SS) fail to do and what negative influence did that have; or what did she do that she should not have done, and how did that negatively impact on her performance? C Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated a “C” standard if considered in isolation is: Reduced aerobic capacity -‐> Poor Attentional Control Your aerobic capacity reflects how long and hard you can work using your aerobic system before needing to work anaerobically and, as a result, build up fatiguing by products. There are four attentional styles which an athlete must be able to change between to ensure they are taking in the right information at the right times. Due to her less than optimal training program following her ankle surgery, SS’s aerobic capacity was reduced and she had a reduced ability to be in the correct attentional style for as long as she needed to be-‐ eg she may have been tiring in the second set and focussing too much on the Nar Int, worried about the pain in her legs, rather than Nar Ext, focussing on her opponent; causing her to play without confidence, resulting in her losing in the second round. B Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated as a “B” standard if considered in isolation is: A reduction in SS’s LIP lead to her inability to shift between attentional styles The LIP reflects the efficiency of your aerobic energy system. The less efficient her aerobic system, the worse SS will be at shifting effectively. The inability to shift between the four attentional styles means SS won’t know when and where to place her explosive shots for as long into her matches. Following her ankle surgery, SS had a reduced training program which contributed towards the lowering of her LIP. This meant that she fatigued earlier in her matches at the 2013 Open and failed to shift as and when required, instead focussing too long on narrow and internal aspects-‐ eg when tiring and feeling fatigued due to her reduced LIP, and wanting to finish her games quickly, SS may have failed to assess in Br Int that it was not a good time to go for a powerful second serve and may have crucially double faulted as a result, causing her to lose in the second round.
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A Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated as an “A” standard if considered in isolation is: A reduction in SS’s LIP lead to her inability to shift between attentional styles The LIP reflects the highest point at which you can work aerobically. For SS, this would normally allow her to recover more quickly between high intensity points, enabling her to use her explosive serves and ground strokes more effectively. The ability to shift between the four attentional styles is critical if SS wants to know when and where to place her explosive shots. Following her ankle surgery, SS had a compromised training program which contributed towards the detraining of her chronic aerobic training effects, such as reducing her LIP. This meant that she fatigued earlier in her matches at the 2013 Open and failed to shift as and when required, instead focussing too long on narrow and internal aspects-‐ eg when tiring and feeling fatigued after an intense rally (due to her reduced LIP), SS may want to finish her game off too quickly and may have failed to assess in BrInt that it was not a good time to go for a powerful second serve (due to incorrect internal FB, received from NarInt about her level of recovery) which may have resulted in a double fault at a crucial time, causing her to lose in the second round. Examples of other links which could have been used include: SS’s inability to fully overcome the effects of detraining following her surgery, caused her self-‐efficacy at the 2013 Australian Open to drop to such a level, she lost in the second round. SS’s failure to set specific and achievable goals following her surgery prevented her from applying specificity to his training program, causing her lack of form at the 2013 Australian Open. SS’s failure to re-‐establish appropriate time based and reviewable goals after her surgery prevented her from appropriately periodising her training schedule, meaning she was unable to peak for the 2013 Australian Open. SPORT SCIENCE SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS PART 2 -‐ SKILL ACQUISITION Question 6 a) Terminal Feedback is that which is provided after a skill has been performed, whereas continuous
feedback is provided during the executions of skills. (1 mark -‐ difference) b) Knowledge of results is the feedback received from external sources and provides information
about the outcome of performance. (1 mark) c) Video analysis can assist with the detection of skill errors by being able to slow down/replay/pause
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the footage and work out the cause of the error and in which sub-‐routine the error initially started. (1 mark -‐ reason)
d) Overloading is where too many stimuli are presented, causing some of the stimuli to be lost or
disregarded. When giving feedback the coach would need to remember to only give players between 5 and 9 pieces, or chunks of information at any one time within a 60 second duration, otherwise some of the message or information that players require to improve their individual or team performance will not be processed by the player. (2 marks)
e) If a coach was to provide feedback about a player’s balance they would discuss centre of gravity,
base of support and stability. Centre of gravity is the centre of balance or centre of weight of an athlete. The base of support is the amount of space their base takes up in connection with the ground; the greater the base of support, the greater the stability. And stability is the body’s ability to remain in a state of balance, either static or dynamic. Some candidates considered the question from the perspective of how best to provide feedback. Such answers were considered on their individual merits. (3 marks)
f) Information processing is broken into four components. The first is ‘sensory input’ where you must
be able to take in information from the environment. You will then try to make sense of it in the processing stage by identifying the stimulus, selecting a response and retrieving the appropriate motor program. Output is where you will perform the motor program you have selected. During some performances some feedback can help to make minor adjustments to the executions. After the output feedback will be provided/received on information about whether the correct motor program was selected and how well it was performed, to be used for future reference. (4 marks)
Question 7 a) Two characteristics of an athlete in the associative stage of learning include:
• Refining accuracy and consistency of their skill • Are reducing the degree of errors • Can recognise errors themselves • Know how to do a skill, not just what to do • Is developing anticipation • Is more likely to execute with the correct timing • Still requires some feedback on the technical aspects of the skill to continue to improve • Can evaluate and critique their performance • Can follow simple strategy (1 mark)
b) ‘Noise’ are irrelevant cues that have been gathered from the environment. You would expect
athletes in the autonomous stage to be less susceptible to the influence of noise. (1 mark) c) Two factors that could affect skill learning (other than noise) include:
• Age and maturity – As age increases, normally till approximately age 30, skill learning increases, after 30 motor performance decreases.
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• Gender – Generally males perform better in resistance (strength and power) activities, women can perform better in long endurance events as they can utilise fat as their main energy source.
• Heredity – Studies have shown that body type, proportion of fast and slow twitch muscle fibres influences success in different sports and activities.
• Motivation – If motivation is low, skill learning will decrease. For optimal learning intrinsic motivation needs to be high.
• Quality of instruction or training – Skill learning increases when the athlete is provided with a higher quality of coaching or teaching.
• Ability to process information – The better an athlete is at processing information and making correct decisions about the output, the easier it will be to learn and refine skills.
• Physical characteristics – Characteristics such as body size and ratio of fat to muscle influences athletes skill acquisition; depending upon the sport or activity is may be better to be leaner or more muscular.
• Previous experience – If an athlete has had previous experience with a sport or activity they are more likely to be able to learn new skills.
• Opportunity – The more an athlete is exposed to a sport or activity the greater the chance of involvement and the higher rate of skill learning.
• And other relevant factors (2 marks) d) Hick’s Law states that as the number of stimuli or response alternatives increases so does the
reaction time. There is a linear relationship between reaction time and the amount of information to be processed. An athlete who has reached the autonomous stage of learning would be able to chunk information together and make decisions quicker thus reducing the amount of time taken to process information and therefore reduce their reaction time. Other acceptable answers may also consider the relevant applications of theory related to such areas as the use of schema, selective attention, anticipation, etc. (2 marks)
e) Anticipation is the ability to predict future events based on early signals or past experience and
relies on information from the senses. This provides the athlete with a strong advantage as they can respond quicker to opponents or object movements. In the associative stage of learning an athlete is still developing their anticipation and the subsequent correct timing of responses/ or perhaps anticipate incorrectly resulting in an incorrect response. Whereas an athlete in the autonomous stage of learning is able to perform the skill without conscious thought and attend to the early cues of their opponents and thus it will take them less time to respond and produce their output. (3 marks)
f) Subroutines are the parts or components of a skill that when performed in the correct sequence,
with the correct timing produce skilled movement. A motor program is when the skill can be dealt with as a whole plan sequenced together, like a set of instructions, no longer components stuck together. An athlete in the associative stage of learning is still refining their motor programs by practicing subroutines in the correct order and consistently performing the skill with correct timing. Whereas an athlete in the autonomous stage of learning thinks little about the subroutines once they have chosen the most appropriate motor program. (3 marks)
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Question 8 a) Selective attention is the ability to filter out irrelevant cues and respond only to relevant cues. (1 mark) b)
Any team sport and two examples may include (suggestions only): • Football – defensive tackling and dodging an opposition when in possession of the ball. • Soccer – dribbling around an opponent and moving the ball through the midfield trying to
pick the best pass to another team mate. • Candidates needed to clearly show that the stated examples were being applied in match
type condition with opposing players, etc. (1 mark) c) Drill practice is learning through repetition, whereas problem solving practice is learning through
discovery and investigation. When learning new sports skills it would be most appropriate to use drill practice. However, if learning how to use these skills in game situation or how the game flows then
problem solving practice may be more appropriate. Candidates could justify either position, depending on the suitability of their explanations. (2 marks) d) Two ways that decision making abilities can be reduced include:
• An increase in the number of stimulus response alternatives – As stated by Hick’s Law if the number of alternatives, therefore information that needs to be processed increases then reaction time and subsequently decision making time or abilities will decrease and thus be reduced.
• Intensity of stimulus – If the intensity of a stimulus is decreased then there will be an increase in reaction time and thus a reduction in decision making ability
• Probability of stimulus occurring – If a player cannot anticipate or predict that a stimulus will occur then they cannot react as quickly and thus will make a poor decision about their resulting movement.
• Presence or absence of warning signals – By recognising the signals that initiate movement players can reduce their reaction and decision making time.
• Signal detection – If a player is not able to detect a stimulus then decision making will be impaired and the correct response may not be chosen.
• Lack of Previous experience – This will render a player unable to see the relevant cues as quickly and easily, therefore making it harder to make the correct decision about the consequent movement.
• Selective attention – This ability to filter out irrelevant cues and attend to only the relevant stimuli, means if the number of incoming stimuli is increased this subsequently will increase the decision making time.
• Psychological Refractory Period – If two stimuli are presented in quick succession then the response to the second signal is delayed until the first stimulus has been processed. As a
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result it will take the player longer to make the correct decision about the appropriate movement to make.
• Stimulus-‐Response compatibility – If there is a lower compatibility between the stimulus and the response then decision making time will be increased and the player will respond less quickly than if there is more compatibility.
A range of other answers relating to overloading of information, poor stimulus identification or response selection or response programming, inability to chunk, poor schema etc were also considered on their merits. (2 marks)
e) To achieve the greatest distance a player must project an object or their body through the air. For
the angle of release, which is the angle to the ground at the release point, approximately 45 degrees is the optimal angle for providing the greatest distance. The height of release suggests that the higher the point of release relative to the ground the further the projectile will travel. A projectile will also travel further if it is hit or thrown with greater force, thus with a higher velocity of release. (3 marks)
f) The short term sensory store is able to receive a lot of information but it can only be retained for
approximately 1 second, and where the information that is selectively attended to is relayed to the short term memory. The short term memory also has a limited capacity and can only process 5 to 9 pieces or chunks of information for up to 60 seconds. When a player is learning a new sport this memory assists with practice of the skills -‐ the information that is needed to perform the skills of the new sport correctly will be sent to the long term memory as they are rehearsed and given meaning. Due to the fact the long term memory is the permanent storage area, players will utilise this information so that it can be repeated and rehearsed and used when practicing the new sport. (3 marks)
Question 9 a) Running a marathon. (1 mark) b) Skill X would most likely be throwing a javelin as it has a discrete beginning and end point, it is a
closed skill where it is performed in highly predictable environments and the skill is internally paced and it is halfway along the gross/fine continuum as it requires some fine but mostly movements of the whole body. Candidates could also argue for high jump if similar justifications provided. (1 mark)
c) The fine/gross continuum suggests that running a marathon uses the majority of gross motor
movements, whereas batting a cricket ball uses more fine motor movements than gross. The continuous/discrete continuum indicates that running a marathon is a completely continuous skill compared to batting in cricket which is closer to the discrete end of the continuum meaning it has a distinct start and end point. (2 marks)
d) Open skills as they scored the highest on the improvement scale. (1 mark)
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e) Least to most benefit = discrete, closed, open and continuous. (1 mark) f) If a sporting environment was unpredictable then you would consider that most of the skills would
be open. According to the graph the best practice for open skills is variable practice and whole practice. For continuous skills the graph indicates that whole practice is most beneficial and then fixed or variable practice. Therefore, this indicates that whole is the best practice method, with a proportion of variable practice. The least beneficial practice type is part practice followed by fixed.
(3 marks) g) The diagram indicates that running a marathon is a gross, relatively closed and continuous motor
skill. Considering this, the graph would suggest that continuous skills require mostly whole practice, some fixed and variable and little part practice; whereas closed skills require fixed practice, then whole practice, then part practice and variable practice. Overall practicing the whole skill would be the most beneficial, followed by fixed practice, and then part practice and variable practice would have the least effect on improving performance. (3 marks)
Question 10 The two core units for this question are Exercise Physiology and Skill Acquisition. Links can be made in both directions, that is -‐ from Exercise Physiology to Skill Acquisition or; from Skill Acquisition to Exercise Physiology. Links must be made from a positive perspective -‐ that is -‐ what things must Casey Stoner (CS) do to ensure that he successfully makes the switch and drives to his full potential in the V8’s? C Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated a “C” standard if considered in isolation is: Speed -‐> lower Response Time Speed is a fitness component that describes how fast you can move. Response Time is a combination of Reaction Time and Movement Time, and lasts from the presentation of stimuli to the completion of the movement in response to it. If CS is to be competitive in V8’s, he will need to ensure he trains for Speed so that he can complete any movement he needs to as fast as possible, ensuring he is able to swerve to avoid an accident. Such split second responses may mean the difference between success and disaster. B Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated as a “B” standard if considered in isolation is: An effectively trained ATP-‐PC system will produce a decreased Response Time The ATP-‐PC energy system is used to generate Speed, which describes how fast you can move. Response Time is a combination of Reaction Time and Movement Time, and lasts from the presentation of stimuli to the completion of the movement in response to it.
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If CS wants to make a successful transition to, and be competitive in V8’s, he can do some fast paced short interval sprints so that he can complete any movement he needs to as fast as possible, like accelerating to overtake, or braking to swerve and avoid an accident. These split second responses will help ensure a successful transition for CS into the V8’s. A Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated as an “A” standard if considered in isolation is: An effectively trained ATP-‐PC system will produce a decreased Movement and Response Time The anaerobic ATP-‐PC energy system, using the white or FT muscle fibres is used to produce Speed of movement in CS’s legs. By developing speed in his legs, through short interval sprint reps of 2 sec sprints at a W:R of 1:5, CS will ensure messages to and from his brain are transmitted rapidly and his fibres contract with maximum speed, thus reducing his Movement Time as well as his overall Response Time in any given situation. Thus, when the stimulus of brake lights on the car in front of him appear; especially when travelling so closely and at such high speeds; CS will need to detect the cue, then initiate and complete his response by applying his own brakes ASAP, or he may end up crashing into the rear end of the car in front. The ability to perform such split second responses, because of his speed training, will mean a successful transition from MotoGP into the V8’s for CS, as he learns the differences in the braking distances and reaction times between bikes and cars. Examples of other links which could have been used include: Due to the transition from the motorcycle, Casey would need to modify the specificity (Exercise Physiology) of his training program to develop the correct motor programs and sub-‐routines (Skill Acquisition) required for the new sport of supercar racing. Car racing requires racing for long periods of time, by incorporating continuous training (Exercise Physiology) into his training program, CS would be able to devote the required time to develop the schema (Skill Acquisition) required for car racing. CS probably made the change from motorcycle racing to supercar racing during the transition phase of the training year (Exercise Physiology), he would have then used the pre-‐season phase to gain the required KOP feedback (Skill Acquisition) extrinsically from his coach. During the skill/conditioning phase of the training session (Exercise Physiology), CS would have been specifically spending time trying to improve his reaction time (Skill Acquisition) to ensure he got a good start for his races. This would be important as it will be different to motorcycling racing. The required level of aerobic fitness will be similar for supercar racing compared to motorcycle racing. Thus, CS’s ability to maintain his level of aerobic fitness (Exercise Physiology) will enhance his ability to stay focused on the relevant cues ie selective attention (Skill Acquisition) in transitioning to supercars.
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SPORT SCIENCE -‐ SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS PART 3 -‐ SPORT PSYCHOLOGY Question 11 a) The Inverted U Hypothesis states that as arousal increases performance increases until arousal
passes beyond an optimal level. When athletes are under-‐aroused or over-‐aroused performance decreases. Therefore, it is not better to be under-‐aroused or over-‐aroused as they both have negative effects on performance. (1 mark)
b) Two benefits of visualisation include:
• Improves athlete’s confidence • Increases the speed of learning new skills • Can produce more consistent performances • Helps an athlete to shift into a performance mind-‐set • Prepares the nervous system to co-‐ordinate the movements required in the sport/activity • Can help athlete to review aspects of their performance • Helps athletes to solidify skills to their memory • Can assist to prepare for the next performance by evaluating previous performances, • Aid in concentration • Improves problem solving ability • Reduces anxiety (1 mark)
c) A process goal is one that focuses on the actions that athletes must perform during a competition
to reach peak performance. (1 mark) d) Two things other than key words that can influence an athlete’s self-‐efficacy include:
• Performance accomplishments – if an athlete has succeeded in an activity previously then they will be more confident that they can succeed again when they need to.
• Vicarious experiences – is when athlete sees someone else succeed at a particular skill, sport or activity and it provides them with the confidence that they are just as capable of achieving the same level of success as the other person.
• Verbal persuasion – when a coach or significant other convinces the athlete that they will succeed and therefore the athlete attempts the skill, sport or activity.
• Physiological states – is the way an athlete feels physiologically that impacts on their confidence. (2 marks)
e) Any of the four attentional styles could potentially be justified -‐ the following is an example for
broad external: If an athlete was to lose concentration and focus, their attention style would most likely be getting broader and more external (Broad External). Thus the athlete would suffer from information overload, and they may react without thinking, may fall for ‘fakes’ more easily, attend to too many cues in the environment and not think clearly. In a team game players may be distracted by the crowd which would draw their attention away from the game and result in a loss of concentration, etc. (3 marks)
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f) Pre-‐competition strategies are those applied to all events leading up to the competition. They
ensure that athletes are at peak physical and mental condition and ready to perform optimally. They are divided into those prior to arriving at the competition venue, for example: rest, diet,
equipment check, spare time, travel and mental preparation, or; those at the competition venue, for example: arrival time, who to report to, physical preparation, mental preparation, dressing for the contest, team meetings or discussions with coach, who to spend time with and final personal preparation. Competition strategies provide information and direction for competition so that athletes maintain concentration and can deal with challenges. These can include: the athletes or team’s game plan, performance reference points, task relevant factors or mood/cue woods.
(4 marks) Question 12 a) Two techniques that a coach can use to help reduce players’ arousal levels include:
• Downplay the importance of the contest and the result • Provide time for relaxation • Direct athletes’ attention to the process required to perform well • Present a calm presence themselves • Remind the athletes of their thorough and appropriate preparation • Provide a pre-‐competition strategy which promotes the necessary control and direction to
limit anxiety • Keep sport in perspective, etc (1 mark)
b) Trait anxiety is the anxiety of our personality or an underlying disposition to certain levels of
anxiety. (1 mark) c) Coping strategies are a secondary plan or behaviour should the primary behaviour fail or be
inappropriate in the given situation. (1 mark) d) Two ways a coach can ensure a player ‘copes with pain’ include:
• Getting them to expect the pain – through experience and education players know that they may be pushed to their physical limits during the game.
• Accept the pain – players need to accept they might be pushed to their limits but continue to push themselves.
• Train for the pain – by training for the standard of the competition players know what level they will need to reach physically.
• Pain as a mental signal – use the physical pain to provide more focus on the task or game. (2 marks)
e) Intrinsic motivation comes from the satisfaction of doing something well, feeling proud of what
has been achieved or enjoying an activity, whereas, external motivation comes from a reward or recognition, for example: money, a trophy, medal or TV interview. These examples highlight the difference in that external motivation does not always exist and it is the internal motivation that is
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the driver for most people to participate in sport or activities. (3 marks) f) Broad Internal is the attentional style that is used to organise information and ideas, plan
strategies and prepare opposition moves. Broad External is the attentional style that is used to analyse complex situations by seeing everything that is happening in the environment. Narrow External is focussing on one or a few cues. Narrow Internal is generally use when the environment is consistent and it allows the players to concentrate on performance only. During the team meeting players should be using the Narrow External attentional style so they can focus on what it is the coach is telling them. They would then need to shift their attentional style to Broad Internal to plan and analyse the impact of the coach’s plan on them individually. (4 marks)
Question 13 a) A feeling from within that the task requirements are more demanding than those which the
athlete possesses. (1 mark) b) Anxiety associated with losing when in a winnable position, making errors on tasks which would
normally be completed automatically. (1 mark) c) Visualisation is a learned skill that involves the ability to watch yourself in your mind; consciously
creating clear and vivid images, using all of your senses, of yourself completing a desired task or outcome in a successful manner. It can help an athlete who feels anxious by aiding concentration so they can maintain focus and disregard distractions; reduce anxiety and physical tension so that the athlete has optimal arousal and performance; using it to solve the problem so that they feel less tension. (3 marks)
d) Two benefits of goal setting include:
• Enhance focus and concentration by…. • Boost self-‐confidence by…. • Create a positive mental attitude by … • Increase intrinsic motivation by … • Enhance playing skill, technique and strategies by … • Improve overall performance by …, etc, etc. (2 marks)
e) Sports which use fine motor skills rely on controlled, precise movements, using small muscle
groups; consequently, they require lower levels of arousal than gross motor skills, which are those which rely on large muscle groups. (2 marks)
f) The Catastrophe Theory suggests that arousal will benefit performance as long as cognitive anxiety
is low. Therefore, an athlete overcome with anxiety has a negative influence on their arousal and resulting performance. When the accumulation of the cognitive anxiety and the physiological arousal are high they reach the threshold which creates the catastrophic effect. After an extreme decline in their performance, they can then continue with the extreme over-‐arousal which can cause further decreases in performance, or they can calm down and focus and then arousal levels can return to optimal levels. (3 marks)
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Question 14 a) Athlete C is the only athlete that performs best at a high level of anxiety due to Athlete B being in
the optimal zone at a middle range of anxiety and Athlete A performs optimally for a large anxiety range. (1 mark)
b) Athlete B would need to be continually aware of their state anxiety level as they are only in the
optimal zone in the middle range and their optimal zone is smaller than both Athlete A and Athlete C. (1 mark)
c) Athlete A would be the most likely to perform optimally regardless of their state anxiety level as
they have the largest ‘in zone’ and therefore would be able to handle changes in their state anxiety unless it was low. (1 mark)
d) If Athlete A had high anxiety and then this increases further you would expect that they would still
be in their optimal performance zone and this would not have a negative influence on their performance. (2 marks)
e) The only Athlete on Graph 1 whose results also support the Inverted U Hypothesis is Athlete B.
This is due to the fact that this athlete has an ‘In Optimal Zone’ at a middle range of state anxiety level, and at low or high anxiety they would be ‘Out of Optimal Zone’. Athlete A’s and Athlete C’s results do not follow this pattern. (2 marks)
f) The middle curve would be the curve that represents Athlete B. The middle curve means the
Athlete would perform optimally at a medium arousal level, linked to the ‘In Optimal’ zone of State Anxiety level on Graph 1. (2 marks)
g) The left curve best fits an athlete who is less anxious and has a lower arousal level and can
perform optimally when the environment is controlled and predictable. The other two curves would not fit as both of their optimal zones are at a higher level of arousal and you would expect a higher anxiety level. (2 marks)
Question 15 The two core units for this question are Sports Psychology and Exercise Physiology. Links can be made in both directions, that is -‐ from Sports Psychology to Exercise Physiology or; from Exercise Physiology to Sports Psychology. Links must be made from a positive perspective -‐ that is -‐ what must/will Shannon (SE) do to ensure he maintains the ability to compete in Surf Lifesaving Ironman at the highest level. C Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated a “C” standard if considered in isolation is: Motivation -‐> LIP Motivation is a drive to pursue a goal or target. It can be done for internal reasons, or for external reasons.
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The LIP is the point where blood lactate begins to rapidly accumulate at a level faster than the body can clear it. After much success over many years, SE’s desire to continue participating and being the best he can be suggests he has intrinsic motivation. This motivation will drive him to do the training necessary, such as lactate threshold training, to maintain a high LIP so he can participate at the highest intensity for the longest time while using his aerobic energy system. It is only through this motivation to train so hard that he will continue to remain at the elite level in his sport. B Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated as a “B” standard if considered in isolation is: A Motivation SE will train for a high LIP Motivation is a drive to pursue a goal or target. It can be done for internal reasons, or for external reasons. The LIP is the point where blood lactate begins to rapidly accumulate at a level faster than the body can clear it. It is the point beyond which your body can no longer work aerobically. Due to his past success, SE probably has some level of extrinsic motivation; but his desire to continue participating and being the best he can be also suggests intrinsic motivation. Whatever the source, this motivation will drive SE to do the painful training necessary, such as interval training, at a W:R ratio of 1:3 over times and distances similar to competition, to maintain a high LIP, avoiding the build-‐up of fatiguing by-‐products from working anaerobically for as long into events as possible. It is only through this motivation to tolerate such painful training regimes that he will continue to remain at the elite level in his sport. A Standard An example of a link that could be made that would have been rated as an “A” standard if considered in isolation is: A Motivation SE will train for a high LIP Motivation is a drive to pursue a goal or target. It can be done for internal/intrinsic reasons, or for external/extrinsic reasons, or to satisfy the innate drives expressed by the Self-‐Determination Theory. The LIP is the point where blood lactate begins to rapidly accumulate at a level faster than the body can clear it. It is the point beyond which your body can no longer work aerobically. Because of his past success, SE probably has extrinsic motivation; but his desire to continue participating and being the best he can be also after such extrinsic success suggests intrinsic motivation; or that it may be the only aspect in his life where he experiences Competence. Whatever the source, this motivation will drive SE to do the painful training necessary, such as interval training, similar to the demands of his competitions, at a W:R of 1:3, which floods his muscles with lactate and improves his body’s buffering capacity and helps to maintain a high LIP so he can participate at the highest intensity
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for the longest time while using his aerobic energy system, avoiding the build-‐up of fatiguing by-‐products of lactic acid and H+ ions from working anaerobically. Also, when he starts to feel fatigue, this motivation will enable him to push through the pain barrier and continue to compete at the elite level in his sport. Examples of other links which could have been used include: Maintaining a high LIP enables SE to shift into the appropriate attentional style as and when required. SE’s high level of motivation will enable him to overcome diminishing returns and continue to improve from his already elite levels of fitness. Setting specific, measurable and reviewable goals allows SE to apply specificity to his training program.
TASMANIAN QUALIFICATIONS AUTHORITY
ASSESSMENT PANEL REPORT
SPT315113 Sport Science
13% (62) 23% (113) 35% (172) 29% (142) 489
11% (52) 20% (92) 42% (190) 27% (122) 456
11 % 19 % 39 % 31 %
10 % 20 % 44 % 26 %
11 % 19 % 39 % 30 %
49% (240) 51% (249) 36% (176) 64% (313)
50% (228) 50% (228) 38% (171) 63% (285)
53% 47% 40% 60%
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