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GS-Paper - II P-PFC-L-CGJB 1 www.TestFunda.com TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - II Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You select the response which you want to mark on the Answer sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You will have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you will have to fill in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73 TO 80, WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENELTY FOR WRONG ANSWER. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. Serial No: 98520 D TEST BOOKLET SERIES DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C.: P - PFC - L - CGJB DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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GS-Paper - II

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TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER - II

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST

BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED

BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN

THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.

DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You select the

response which you want to mark on the Answer sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response,

mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You will have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer

Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you will have to fill

in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you

should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73

TO 80, WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENELTY FOR WRONG ANSWER.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a penalty for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be

deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers

happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Serial No:

98520 D

TEST BOOKLET SERIES

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C.: P - PFC - L - CGJB

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that

follow. Your answer to these items should be based on

the passage only.

Passage

Now India’s children have a right to receive at least

eight years of education, the gnawing question is

whether it will remain on paper or become a reality.

One hardly needs a reminder that this right is

different from the others enshrined in the

Constitution, that the beneficiary –a six year old child

cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle

when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is

the adult society which must act on behalf of the

child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to

education is denied no compensation offered later

can be adequate or relevant. This is so because

childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on

behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little

use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed

at school during childhood cannot serve the same

purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for

girls because our society permits them only a short

childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has

become law at a point in India’s history when the

ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced

in the form of foeticide. This is “symptomatic of a

deeper turmoil” in society which is compounding the

traditional obstacles to the education of girls.

Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential

of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the

system of education has not been able to address it.

1. With reference to the passage, consider the

following statements :

(A) When children are denied education, adult

society does not act on behalf of them.

(B) Right to Education as a law cannot be

enforced in the country.

Which of the statements given above is /are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

2. According to the passage, what could be the

traditional obstacles to the education of girls?

(A) Inability of parents to fight a legal battle

when the Right to Education is denied to

their children.

(B) The traditional way of thinking about girl’s

role in society.

(C) The prejudice against the intellectual

potential of girls.

(D) Improper system of education.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(1) A and B only (2) B, C and D only

(3) A, C and D only (4) A, B, C and D

3. On the basis of the passage, consider the

following statements :

(A) Right to Education is a legal right and not a

fundamental right.

(B) For realising the goal of universal education,

the education system in the country must be

made identical to that of developed

countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

4. Which one of the following statements conveys

the key message of the passage?

(1) India has declared that education is

compulsory for its children.

(2) Adult society is not keen on implementing

the Right to Education.

(3) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl

child, needs to be safeguarded.

(4) The system of education should address the

issue of Right to Education.

5. Which one of the following statements conveys

the inference of the passage?

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(1) The society has a tenacious prejudice against

the intellectual potential of girls.

(2) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on

behalf of children for their Right to

Education.

(3) The legal fight to get education for children is

often protracted and prohibitive.

(4) There is no sufficient substitute for education

received in childhood.

Read the following passage and answer the 3

(three) items that follow:

A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family.

There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three

males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a

lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male,

neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest

person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.

6. How is D related to E?

(1) Husband (2) Son

(3) Father (4) Wife

7. Who are the females in the group?

(1) C and E (2) C and D

(3) E and A (4) D and E

8. Whose wife is the teacher?

(1) C (2) D (3) A (4) B

Read the following passage and answer the 3

(three) items that follow:

In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be

introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652

were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal

of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the

proposal. 196 females were undecided.

9. How many females voted for the proposal?

(1) 430 (2) 600 (3) 624 (4) 640

10. How many males were undecided?

(1) 31 (2) 227 (3) 426 (4) 581

11. How many females were not in favour of the

proposal?

(1) 430 (2) 496 (3) 586 (4) 1226

12. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and

Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is

exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is

ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the

queue, how many persons are there between Mr.

X and Mr. Z?

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read each of the following two passages and answer

the items that follow. Your answers to these items

should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need

to rethink the role of the State. The early debate

among economists about the size of the Government

can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an

enabling Government. India is too large and complex

a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is

needed. Asking the Government to produce all the

essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and

keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a

large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread

corruption.

The aim must be to stay with the objective of

inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding

fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern

view of what the State can realistically deliver.

This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State,

that is, a Government that does not try to directly

deliver to the citizens everything that they need.

Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the

market so that individual enterprise can flourish and

citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs

of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do

not manage to do well for themselves, for there will

always be individuals, no matter what the system,

who need support and help. Hence we need a

Government that, when it comes to the market, sets

effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on

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the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the

same time, plays an important role in directly helping

the poor by ensuring that they get basic education

and health services and receive adequate nutrition

and food.

13. According to the passage:

(A) The objective of inclusive growth was laid

down by the founding fathers of the nation.

(B) Need of the hour is to have an enabling

Government.

(C) The Government should engage in maximum

interference in market processes.

(D) There is a need to change the size of the

Government

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) A and B only (2) B and C only

(3) A and D only (4) A, B, C and D

14. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive

growth can be effected by focusing on

(1) Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the

country.

(2) Increasing the regulations over the

manufacturing sector.

(3) Controlling the distribution of manufactured

goods.

(4) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived

sections of the society.

15. What constitutes an enabling Government?

(A) A large bureaucracy.

(B) Implementation of welfare programmes

through representatives.

(C) Creating an ethos that helps individual

enterprise.

(D) Providing resources to those who are

underprivileged.

(E) Offering direct help to the poor regarding

basic services.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below.

(1) A, B and C only (2) D and E only

(3) C, D and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E

16. Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is

needed”?

(A) It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.

(B) It does not promote inclusive growth.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

17. What is the essential message being conveyed by

the author of the passage?

(1) The objective of inclusive growth laid down

by the founding fathers of the nation should

be remembered.

(2) The Government needs to make available

more schools and health services.

(3) The Government needs to establish markets

and industries to meet the needs of the poor

strata of the society.

(4) There is a need to rethink the role of the

State in achieving inclusive growth.

Passage-2

The concept of ‘creative society’ refers to a phase of

development of a society in which a large number of

potential contradictions become articulate and active.

This is most evident when oppressed social groups

get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The

upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements

for regional autonomy and self-determination, the

environmental movements, and the women’s

movements in the developing countries are signs of

emergence of creative society in contemporary times.

The forms of social movements and their intensity

may vary from country to country and place to place

within a country. But the very presence of

movements for social transformation in various

spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a

creative society in a country.

18. What does the author imply by “creative society”?

(A) A society where diverse art forms and

literary writings seek incentive.

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(B) A society where social inequalities are

accepted as the norm.

(C) A society where a large number of

contradictions are recognised.

(D) A society where the exploited and the

oppressed groups grow conscious of their

human rights and upliftment.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(1) A, B and C (2) D only

(3) C and D (4) B and D

19. What according to the passage are the

manifestations of social movements?

(A) Aggressiveness and being incendiary.

(B) Instigation by external forces.

(C) Quest for social equality and individual

freedom.

(D) Urge for granting privileges and self-respect

to disparaged sections of the society.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(1) A and C only (2) B and D only

(3) C and D only (4) A, B, C and D

20. With reference to the passage, consider the

following statements:

(A) To be a creative society, it is essential to have

a variety of social movements.

(B) To be a creative society, it is imperative to

have potential contradictions and conflicts.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) NeitherA nor B

21. Consider the following three statements:

(A) Only students can participate in the race.

(B) Some participants in the race are girls.

(C) All girl participants in the race are invited for

coaching.

Which one of the following conclusions can be

drawn from the above statements?

(1) All participants in the race are invited for

coaching.

(2) All students are invited for coaching

(3) All participants in the race are students.

(4) None of the statements (1), (2) and (3) given

above is correct.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Each of the following two items consists of four

statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both

be true, but both can be false. Study the statements

carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above

condition. Select the correct answer using the codes

given below each set of statements:

22. Examine the following statements:

(A) All animals are carnivorous.

(B) Some animals are not carnivorous.

(C) Animals are not carnivorous.

(D) Some animals are carnivorous.

Codes:

(1) A and C (2) A and B

(3) B and C (4) C and D

23. Examine the following statements:

(A) All trains are run by diesel engine.

(B) Some trains are run by diesel engine.

(C) No train is run by diesel engine.

(D) Some trains are not run by diesel engine.

Codes:

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) A and C (4) A and D

24. Consider the four age pyramids given below

namely A, B, C and D representing four different

countries.

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Which one of them indicates the declining

population?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B,

C and D. Study the figure and answer the item

that follows.

Which curve indicates the exponential growth?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

The following pie charts show the break-up of disease

categories recorded in the patients from two towns,

Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease

categories as percentage of the total number of

patients. Based on these, answer the two items that

follow the charts.

26. Which of the two towns has a higher number of

persons with Diabetes?

(1) Town A

(2) Town B

(3) Same in Town A and Town B

(4) No inference can be drawn

27. What can we say about persons with more than

one disease from these graphs?

(1) There are likely to be persons with more

than one disease in Town A.

(2) There are likely to be persons with more

than one disease in Town B.

(3) There are likely to be persons with more

than one disease in both Towns A and B.

(4) No inference can be drawn.

28. Consider the following Velocity – Time graph. It

shows two trains starting simultaneously on

parallel tracks.

With reference to the above graph, which one of

the following statements is not correct?

Diabetes 18%

High BP 13%

Heart Disease

22%

Obesity 34%

Others 13%

Distribution of diseases in Town - A

Diabetes 24%

High BP 19%

Heart Disease

30%

Obesity 28%

Others 20%

Distribution of diseases in Town - B

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(1) Train B has an initial acceleration greater

than that of train A.

(2) Train B is faster than Train A at all times

(3) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0

(4) Both trains travel the same distance in time

t0 units.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that

follow. Your answers to these items should be based on

the passage only.

Passage

A country under foreign domination seeks escape

from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and

finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is

a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us

indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in

India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great

though we have come down in the world in other

respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be

founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on

starvation and misery. Many western writers have

encouraged that notion that Indians are other-

worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every

country become to some extent other–worldly, unless

they become revolutionaries, for this world is

evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.

As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely

engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective

world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some

psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with

peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow

adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit

these parallel streams of an external life and an

internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each

other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they

diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the

mind and spirit.

29. The passage mentions that “this world is

evidently not meant for them”. It refers to people

who

(A) seek freedom from foreign domination.

(B) live in starvation and misery.

(C) become revolutionaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A and B (2) B only

(3) B and C (4) C only

30. Consider the following assumptions :

(A) A country under foreign domination cannot

indulge in spiritual pursuit.

(B) Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual

pursuit.

(C) Subject peoples may become other-worldly.

With the reference to the passage, which of the

above assumptions is/are valid?

(1) A and B (2) B only

(3) B and C (4) C only

31. The passage thematically centres on

(1) the state of mind of oppressed people

(2) starvation and misery

(3) the growth of civilization

(4) body, mind and spirit of people in general

32. According to the passage, the torture of the mind

and spirit is caused

(1) by the impact of foreign domination.

(2) by the desire to escape from foreign

domination and find consolation in visions of

past greatness.

(3) due to lack of equilibrium between an

external life and an internal life.

(4) due to one’s inability to be either

revolutionary or other-worldly.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the passage given below, study the graph

that follows and answer the three items given

below the figure.

During a party, a person was exposed to

contaminated water. A few days later, he

developed fever and loose motions. He suffered

for some days before going to a doctor for

treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon

became better and recovered completely a few

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days later. The following graph shows different

phases of the person’s disease condition as

regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.

33. Which region/regions of the curve

correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of

the infection?

(1) A only (2) B only (3) B and C

(4) No part of the curve indicates the incubation

phase

34. Which region of the curve indicates that the

person began showing the symptoms of

infection?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

35. Which region of the curve indicates that the

treatment yielded effective relief?

(1) C (2) D (3) E

(4) The curve does not indicate the treatment

36. There are four routes to travel from city A to city

B and six routes from city B to city C. How many

routes are possible to travel from the city A to

city C?

(1) 24 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 8

37. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty

for delay in completion of the work beyond a

certain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for the first day,

Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third

day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day

being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day.

How much penalty should the contractor pay if

he delays the work by 10 days?

(1) Rs. 4950 (2) Rs. 4250

(3) Rs. 3600 (4) Rs. 650

38. Consider the figure given below and answer the

item that follows:

In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two

plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S

is the direction of a beam of light falling on the

mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of

light from the mirror OP2 will be

(1) Perpendicular to the direction S.

(2) At 45o to the direction S.

(3) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.

(4) At 60o to the direction S.

39. Consider the following figure and answer the

item that follows :

What is the minimum number of different colours

required to paint the figure given above such that

no two adjacent regions have the same colour?

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

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40. Consider the following figure and answer the

item that follows:

A square is divided into four rectangles as shown

above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are

natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are

indicated in the figure. What is the length of each

side of the square?

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 15

(4) Cannot be determined as the given data are

insufficient

41. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her.

If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and

the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the

number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively

(1) 15 and 35 (2) 35 and 15

(3) 30 and 20 (4) 25 and 25

42. Three persons start walking together and their

steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm

respectively. What is the minimum distance each

should walk so that each can cover the same

distance in complete steps?

(1) 25 m 20 cm (2) 50 m 40 cm

(3) 75 m 60 cm (4) 100 m 80 cm

43. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train

travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then

what is the ratio of the distances travelled by

them in one hour?

(1) 8 : 5 (2) 5 : 8

(3) 4 : 5 (4) 1 : 2

44. There are 100 students in a particular class. 6.0%

students play cricket, 30% student play football

and 10% students play both games. What is the

number of students who play neither cricket not

football?

(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 18 (4) 15

45. A village having a population of 4000 requires

150 liters of water per head per day. It has a tank

measuring 20 m × 15 m × 6 m. The water of this

tank will last for

(1) 2 days (2) 3 days

(3) 4 days (4) 5 days

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that

follow. Your answers to these items should be based on

the passage only.

Passage

A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to

its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone

species. The keystone species may influence both the

species richness of communities and the flow of

energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea

star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal

ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is

also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred

prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus.In the absence

of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other

competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By

consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that

are taken over by a variety of other species

A study at the University of Washington

demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species

richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of

the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five

years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from

which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge

of the mussel bed extended farther down into the

intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to

eliminate mussels completely where they are covered

with water most of the time. Second, and more

dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae

disappeared from the sea star removal zone.

Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor,

occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on

competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster

largely determines which species live in these rocky

intertidal ecosystems.

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46. What is the crux of the passage?

(1) Sea star has a preferred prey.

(2) A preferred prey determines the survical of a

keystone species.

(3) Keystone species ensures species diversity.

(4) Sea star is the only keystone species on the

Pacific coast of North America.

47. With reference of the passage, consider the

following statements :

(A) Mussels are generally the dominant species

in intertidal ecosystems.

(B) The survival of sea stars is generally

determined by the abundance of mussels.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

48. Which of the following is/are implied by the

passage?

(A) Mussels are always hard competitors for sea

stars.

(B) Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the

climax of their evolution.

(C) Sea stars constitute an important component

in the energy flow intertidal ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A and B (2) B only

(3) A and C (4) C only

49. Consider the following assumptions :

(A) The food chains/food web in an ecosystem

are influenced by keystone species.

(B) The presence of keystone species is a specific

characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.

(C) If the keystone species is completely

removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to

the collapse of the ecosystem.

With reference to the passage, which of the above

assumptions is/are valid?

(1) A only (2) B and C only

(3) A and C only (4) A, B and C

50. Consider the following argument :

“In order to be a teacher one must graduate from

college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians

are poets. No college graduate is poor.”

Which one of the following is not a valid

conclusion regarding the above argument?

(1) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.

(2) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.

(3) Teachers are not poor.

(4) Poets are not teachers.

51. A student on her first 3 tests received an average

score of N points. If student exceeds her previous

average score by 20 points on her fourth test,

then what is the average score for the first 4

tests?

(1) N + 20 (2) N + 10

(3) N + 4 (4) N + 5

52. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are

male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-

sevenths of the males are married, what fraction

of the females is single?

(1) 2⁄7 (2) 1⁄3

(3) 3⁄7 (4) 2⁄3

53. The houses of A and B face each other on a road

going north-south, A’s being on the western side.

A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km,

turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D ‘s house.

B does exactly the same and reaches the front of

C’s house. In this context, which one of the

following statements is correct?

(1) C and D live on the same street.

(2) C’s house faces south.

(3) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km

apart.

(4) None of the above

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Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read each of the following two passages and answer

the items that follow. Your answers to these items

should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods

and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood

control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate

regulation, spiritual fulfillment and aesthetic

enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits

either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary

to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For

example, potable fresh water cab be provided by

desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost.

The rapidly expanding human population has greatly

modified the Earth's ecosystem to meet their

increased requirements of some of the goods and

services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre

and fuel. These modifications have contributed

substantially to human well being and economic

development. The benefits have not been equally

distributed. Some people have actually been harmed

by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in

some ecosystem goods and services have come at the

cost of the long-term degradation of others. For

example, efforts to increase the production of food

and fibre have decreased the ability of some

ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding

and support biodiversity.

54. with reference to the passage, consider the

following statements.

Expanding human population has an adverse

effect on:

(A) Spiritual fulfilment

(B) Aesthetic enjoyment

(C) Potable fresh water

(D) Production of food and fibre

(E) Bio diversity

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) A, B and C only (2) B, D and E only

(3) C and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E

55. The passage mentions that "some people have

actually been harmed by these changes". What

does it imply?

(A) The rapid expansion of population has

adversely affected some people.

(B) Sufficient efforts have not been made to

increase the production of food and fibre.

(C) In the short term some people may be

harmed, but in the long term everyone will

benefit from modifications in the Earth's

ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B (3) A and C

(4) None of the statements given above

56. With reference to the passage, consider the

following statements:

(A) It is imperative to modify the Earth's

ecosystems for the well being of mankind.

(B) Technology can never replace all the goods

and services provided by ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Passage-2

A moral act must be our own act; must spring from

our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral

content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we

think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in

doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear

in mind the distinction between acting mechanically

and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to

pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the

order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the

king’s moral act. But if the messenger were to carry

out the king’s order considering it to be his duty, his

action be a moral one. How can a man understand

morality who does not use his own intelligence and

power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like

a log of wood by a current? Sometimes a man defies

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convention and acts on his own with a view to

absolute good.

57. Which of the following statements best

describe/describes the thought of the writer?

(A) A moral act calls for using our discretion.

(B) Man should react to a situation immediately.

(C) Man must do his duty.

(D) Man should be able to defy convention in

order to be moral.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(1) A only (2) A and C

(3) B and C (4) A and D

58. Which of the following statements is the nearest

definition of moral action, according to the

writer?

(1) It is a mechanical action based on official

orders from superiors.

(2) It is an action based on our sense of

discretion.

(3) It is a clever action based on the clarity of

purpose.

(4) It religious action based on understanding.

59. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be

swept along like a log of wood by a current."

Among the following statements, which is/are

nearest in meaning to this?

(A) A person does not use his own reason.

(B) He is susceptible to influence/pressure.

(C) He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges.

(D) He is like a log of wood.

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(1) A only (2) A and B

(3) B and C (4) A and D

60. Consider the following distance -time graph. The

graph shows three athletes A, B and C running

side by side for a 30 km race.

With reference to the above graph, consider the

following statements:

(A) The race was won by A.

(B) B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.

(C) C ran very slowly from the beginning.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) A and B only

(3) B and C only (4) A, B and C

61. Consider the following figures:

What is the missing number?

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10

62. Study the following figure :

A person goes from A to B always moving to the

right or downwards along the lines. How many

different routes can he adopt?

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

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63. Consider the following figure and answer the

item that follows:

What is the total number of triangles in the above

grid?

(1) 27 (2) 26 (3) 23 (4) 22

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:

The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based

on three passages in English to test the

comprehension of English language. Read each passage

and answer the items that follow.

Passage-I

He walked several miles that day but could not get

anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and

some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers.

As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a

meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew

awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry,

and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt

before He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired

with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was

feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of

bread with a few coins that he had.

64. When the night fell, he slept

(1) in the open field

(2) under a pile of dry grass

(3) in a farmer's cottage

(4) under a tree

65. He soon fell asleep because

(1) he was exhausted

(2) he was all alone

(3) he had not slept for days

(4) he was very frightened

66. With reference to the passage, consider the

following statements:

(A) He was walking through the countryside.

(B) The cottagers and farmers gave him enough

food so that he could sleep at night without

feeling hungry.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Passage-II

I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then,

just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred

to me. Had I packed my toothbrush? I don’t know how

it is, but I never do know whether I’ ve packed my

toothbrush.

My toothbrush is thing that haunts me when I'm

travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I

haven't packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration,

and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the

morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is

always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I

repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at

the last moment and carry it to the railway station,

wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.

67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that

occurred to him was

(1) unpleasant (2) sad

(3) fantastic (4) amusing

68. What makes his life miserable whenever he

undertakes travelling?

(1) Going to railway station

(2) Forgetting the toothbrush

(3) Packing his bag

(4) Bad dreams

69. His toothbrush is finally

(1) in his bag

(2) in his bed

(3) in his handkerchief

(4) lost

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Passage-III

In spring polar bear mothers emerge from dens with

three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for

as long as eight months but that does not stop the

young from demanding full access to her remaining

reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent

stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal

at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter

forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are

protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family

rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar

bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets

survive till autumn.

70. Female polar bears give birth during

(1) spring (2) summer

(3) autumn (4) winter

71. Mother bear

(1) takes sides over cubs

(2) lets the cubs fend for themselves

(3) feeds only their favourites

(4) sees that all cubs get an equal share

72. With reference to the passage, the following

assumptions have been made:

(A) Polar bears fast as long as eight months due

to non-availability of prey.

(B) Polar bears always give birth to triplets.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are

valid?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Given below are eight items. Each item describes a

situation and is followed by four possible responses.

Indicate the response you find most appropriate.

Choose only one response for each item. The responses

will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness

for the given situation.

Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for

wrong answers for these eight items.

73. You have been asked to give an explanation for

not attending an important official meeting. Your

immediate boss who has not informed you about

the meeting is now putting pressure on you not

to place an allegation against him/her. You would

(1) send a written reply explaining the fact.

(2) seek an appointment with the top boss to

explain the situation.

(3) admit your fault to save the situation.

(4) put the responsibility on the coordinator of

the meeting for not informing.

74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal

construction on your vacant plot. He has refused

your request to vacate and threatened you of dire

consequences in case you do not sell the property

at a cheap price to him. You would

(1) sell the property at a cheap price to him.

(2) go to the police for necessary action.

(3) ask for help from your neighbours

(4) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.

75. You have to accomplish a very important task for

your Headquaters within the next two days.

Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office

insists that you complete the task. You would

(1) ask for an extension of deadline.

(2) inform Headquarters of your inability to

finish on time.

(3) suggest alternate person to Headquarters

who may do the needful.

(4) stay away till you recover.

76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic

medical facilities to the survivors of an

earthquake affected area. Despite your best

possible effort, people put allegations against you

for making money out of the funds given for

relief. You would

(1) let an enquiry be set up to look into the

matter.

(2) ask your senior to appoint some other person

in your place.

(3) not pay attention to allegations.

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(4) stop undertaking any initiative till the matter

is resolved.

77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at

a short notice to be used for an area under flood.

On seeing the price mentioned by the boat

owners you found that the lowest price was

approximately three times more than the

approved rate of the Government. You would

(1) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.

(2) accept the lowest price.

(3) refer the matter to the Government and wait.

(4) threaten the boat owners about a possible

cancellation of the licence.

78. You are the officer-in-charge of a village

administering distribution of vaccine in an

isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with

only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that

vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor

villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram

Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would

(1) initiate the procedure to expedite the next

supply without issuing the vaccine to either.

(2) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the

distributor of another area.

(3) ask both to approach a doctor and get an

input about the urgency.

(4) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from

the distributor of another area.

79. You have taken up a project to create night-

shelters for homeless people during the winter

season. Within a week of establishing the

shelters, you have received complaints from the

residents of the area about the increase in theft

cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You

would

(1) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the

police station.

(2) assure residents of an enquiry into the

matter.

(3) ask residents to consider the humanitarian

effort made.

(4) continue with the project and ignore their

complaint.

80. You, as an administrative authority have been

approached, by the daughter-in-law of an

influential person regarding harassment by her

in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her

parents are not able to approach you because of

social pressures. You would

(1) call the in-laws for an explanation.

(2) counsel the lady to adjust, given such a

circumstance.

(3) take action after her parents approach you

(4) ask her to lodge a complaint with the police.

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Use this Page for Rough Work

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GS Paper II

Answer Key

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

Q. Ans.

1 4

21 3

41 4

61 3

2 2

22 1

42 1

62 3

3 4

23 3

43 2

63 3

4 3

24 3

44 2

64 2

5 4

25 3

45 2

65 1

6 1

26 4

46 3

66 1

7 3

27 2

47 4

67 1

8 4

28 4

48 4

68 2

9 2

29 2

49 1

69 3

10 1

30 2

50 2

70 4

11 1

31 1

51 4

71 2

12 3

32 3

52 4

72 4

13 1

33 1

53 3

73 1

14 4

34 2

54 3

74 2

15 3

35 3

55 1

75 3

16 4

36 1

56 2

76 1

17 4

37 2

57 4

77 2

18 3

38 3

58 2

78 3

19 3

39 1

59 2

79 2

20 4

40 2

60 2

80 1

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1. A is incorrect as it is not that the adult society does not

act on behalf of children if they are denied any

education. It is merely that since a child cannot

demand the rights or his/her own, therefore adult

society “must” act on behalf of the child.

B is incorrect as the passage does not indicate that the

right cannot be enforced in the country but rather

mentions the shortfalls and difficulties which may

occur in the act of enforcing the law.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

2. A is not in the passage at all.

B, C and D are mentioned as traditional obstacles to the

education of girls, this can be seen by the statements

“This may be painfully……… if at all.”, “Tenacious

prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs

across……..has not been able to address it.”

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

3. A is incorrect as in the passage it is mentioned that

“One hardly needs a reminder…..enshrined in the

Constitution.”, which indicates that it is a constitutional

right.

B is incorrect as it is not indicated in the passage that

adoption of a new system of education similar to that

of developed countries will lead to the realization of

the goal of universal education.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

4. 1 is incorrect since there is no mention of any

declaration making education compulsory.

2 is incorrect as the passage mentions that adults

should act on behalf of children in implementing the

act but there is no mention of the adults not being keen

in implementing the Right to Education.

4 is incorrect as this is not the key message in the

passage and it cannot be implied or inferred from the

passage.

3 is correct as it conveys the key message of the

passage as it mentions the various obstacles a girl child

has to face in her education and mentions the

importance of safeguarding the right.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

5. 1 is mentioned in the passage and hence is not an

inference.

3 has the word 'prohibitive' which cannot be inferred

from the passage.

4 is supported by “If a legal battle.....if at all” which

points out the opportunity cost of a missed childhood,

particularly for girls.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

6. If there are two fathers and two sons among three

males, we can conclude that the family has three

generations.

We can have two possible arrangements as shown

below:

From the first arrangement, D is E’s husband.

Hence, option 1.

7. E and A are the females in the group.

Hence, option 3.

8. B’s wife A, is the teacher .

Hence, option 4.

9. Total number of participants = 2878

Total number of male participants = 1652

∴ Total number of female participants = 2878 – 1652

= 1226

1226 voted against and 1425 persons voted for the

proposal.

Hence, 2878 – 1226 – 1425 = 227 persons were

undecided.

Now, there were 196 undecided females.

Hence, there were 227 – 196 = 31 undecided males.

As, 796 males voted against, hence, 1226 – 796 = 430

females voted against the proposal.

Now, number of males who voted for the proposal is

1652 – 796 – 31 = 825

DETAILED SOLUTION

CSAT 2011

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Hence, 1425 – 825 = 600 females voted for the

proposal.

Hence, we get the following table.

Males Females Voted for 825 600

Voted against 796 430 Undecided 31 196

From the above table, 600 females voted for the

proposal.

Hence, option 2.

10. From the table in the answer to the first question of

this set, 31 males were undecided.

Hence, option 1.

11. From the table in the answer to the first question of

this set, 430 females were not in a favour of the

proposal.

Hence, option 1.

12. Number of people between X and Y = 48 – 14 – 17 = 17

Now, Z is exactly between X and Y.

Hence, number of people between X and Z = (17 – 1)/2

= 8

Hence, option 3.

13. A and B are stated in paras 2 and 3 respectively.

C contradicts the passage which says “remains on the

sidelines with minimal interference”.

The sentence “The early debate ….can be misleading”

shows that size is not something that the author

wishes to focus on. Hence, D is not correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

14. 1, 2 and 3 are an increase in government interference

which is contradictory to the basic idea of the passage,

4 is in line with the passage -“steps… who needs

support and help”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

15. The passage calls a large bureaucracy 'cumbersome'

and is not in favour of it, making A is incorrect.

B has no support in the passage – rather the passage is

against government interference.

C, D and E are mentioned in the third paragraph.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

16. The passage states that the state is unable to deliver all

that is needed as India is too large and complex a

nation for the state to do so, which means that the

structure of the nation is responsible, not the state. A

and B both place the blame on the state.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

17. 1 and 2 convey only part of the message of the

passage.

3 contradicts the passage - talking about more rather

than less interference.

4 is the best option since it best captures the passages's

focus on inclusive growth.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

18. A takes a literal meaning of “creative society”, which is

inappropriate in the context.

B contradicts the passage.

C is mentioned in the first sentence where potential

contradictions become “articulate”.

D is mentioned in “This is evident…..creative society in

temporary times”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

19. Social movements do not need to be aggressive. Hence

A is incorrect.

B contradicts the passage since social groups get

politically mobilised and demand their rights

(internally) and not externally.

The entire passage supports C and D.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

20. A and B invert the argument in the passage, and are

incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

21. The given three statements can be represented in the

diagram below.

Clearly, only option(c) is correct.

Hence, option 3.

22. We will try to understand each of the given statements

A. All animals are carnivorous.

This can be represented using a venn diagram as:

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B. Some animals are not carnivorous.

This means that there is at least one animal, which

is not carnivorous.

C. Animals are not carnivorous.

The venn diagram for this statement is:

D. Some animals are carnivorous.

This means that at least one animal is

carnivorous.

The venn diagram for this statement is:

Let us now consider the options.

(1) A and C: From the explanation above, it can be

easily seen that both these cannot be true at the

same time. However both can be false if only some

animals are carnivorous.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

(2) A and B: We can see that these two statements

contradict each other and hence cannot both be

true. However, both can be false, if statement 2

implies statement 3.

Hence, option 2 is also correct.

(3) B and C: Statement (2) can also mean that all

animals are not carnivorous, in which case it will be

equivalent to statement 3. So these statements can

both be true. Hence, option 3 is not correct.

(4) C and D: These statements contradict each other

and hence cannot both be true. However, they

cannot both be false either. Hence, option 4 is not

correct.

Multiple answers are correct. We however mark option

1 as the answer as only one answer can be correct .

Hence, option 1.

23. The statements can be understood as follows:

A. All trains are run by diesel engine.

This statement can be represented using a venn

diagram as:

B. Some trains are run by diesel engine.

The venn diagram for this is:

C. No train is run by diesel engine.

This is represented as:

D. Some trains are not run by diesel engine.

This means that there is at least one train, which is

not run by a diesel engine.

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Now consider options:

(1) A and B: From the explanation above, both these

statements can be true at the same time.

Hence, option 1 is not correct.

(2) B and C: These statements are contradictory and

hence cannot both be true. However, one of these

has to be true and hence they both cannot be false

at the same time.

Hence, option 2 is not correct.

(3) A and C: These statements are contradictory and

hence cannot both be true. However, if statement 2

is true, they can both be false .

Hence, option 3 is correct.

(4) A and D: These statements contradict each other

and hence cannot both be true. However, both can

be false if statement 4 implies statement 3.

Hence, option 4 is also correct.

Multiple answers are correct. We, however, mark

option 3 as the answer as only one answer can be

correct.

Hence, option 3.

24. Population of country will be declining if the

percentage of youngsters is less than the percentage of

old people.

Only pyramid C depicts this.

Hence, option 3.

25. Only graph C represents exponential growth.

Hence, option 3.

26. The given pie charts give disease categories as

percentage of total number of patients. We do not

know the total number of patients in the two towns. So

it is not possible to find the number of diabetes

patients in towns A and B.

Hence, option 4.

27. Since, the numbers in town B add up to more than

100%, we can conclude that Town B definitely has

patients with more than one disease.

In town A, the numbers add up to exactly 100%.

Hence, no one in town A has more than one disease.

Hence, option 2.

As the velocity of train B is higher than train A, we can

say that both the trains do not travel the same distance

in the same time.

Hence, option 4.

29. The pronoun “them” refers to the poor and unfortunate

in every country and only B is consistent with this.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

30. A is contradictory to the passage.

B is an assumption implied from “Spiritual or any other

….. starvation and misery”.

C is a conclusion in the passage and is not an

assumption.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

31. 2, 3 and 4 are just references in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

32. 3 is correct from “every civilization and every

people……that torture the mind and spirit ”. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

33. The person started recovering soon after he started

treatment. This means that after starting treatment,

the number of bacteria decreased. This must be region

E.

The time when he suffered is thus from B to D, where

the bacteria and hence the symptoms increased.

A must be the period immediately after being exposed

to contaminated water, or the incubation period of the

infection, when he did not show any symptoms.

Hence, option 1.

34. Part B of the curve indicates that the person began

showing symptoms of infection.

Hence, option 2.

35. Region E indicated that the treatment yielded effective

relief.

Hence, option 3.

36.

As there are 4 routes from A to B and 6 from B to C,

there are 4 × 6 = 24 routes from A to C.

Hence, option 1.

37. The penalty pattern is an AP.

First term a = Rs.200

Common difference d = Rs.50

n = 10

Hence, option 2.

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38.

The fundamental law of reflection states that the angle

of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

Using this principle, we plot the path of the ray.

We observe that both the incident and reflected rays

make equal angles with the line OP1 and make the

same angle with the normal to the line OP2. Thus, they

are parallel and oppositely directed.

Hence, option 3.

39.

As shown in the figure, we can achieve the required

using 3 colours, R, G and B.

Hence, option 1.

40. The sides of the rectangle with area 15 can be (1, 15)

or (3, 5).

The sides of the rectangle with area 48 can be (48, 1);

(16, 3); (8 , 6); (4, 12) or (2, 24)

Consider option 1:

The side of rectangle with area 15 can be 3 and 5.

Hence, the corresponding sides of rectangle with area

48 have to be 7 and 5, which is not possible.

Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.

Consider option 2:

The sides of the rectangle with area 15 can be 3 and 5.

Then, the side of rectangle with area 48 is 8 and 6.

This is possible.

Hence, option 2.

41. Let x be the number of Rs.1 coins and y be the number

of Rs.2 coins.

Total number of coins = x + y = 50 …(i)

Total amount of money = x +2y = 75 …(ii)

From (i) and (ii),

y = 25

∴ x = 25

Hence, option 4.

42. Let the maximum distance be d cm.

Hence, d is the minimum number such that it is an

integral multiple of 40, 42 and 45.

∴ d = LCM(40, 42, 45) = 2520

∴ d = 2520 cm = 25 m 20 cm

Hence, option 1.

43. Velocity of the first bus v1= 40 km/hr

Velocity of second bus v2 = 320/5 km/hr = 64 km/hr

Hence, option 2.

44. Consider the venn diagram below

Number of students who play both the games = 10

Number of students who play only cricket

= 60 – 10 = 50

Number of students who play only football

= 30 – 20 = 10

∴ Number of students who play neither of the games

= 100 – (50 + 20 + 10) = 20

Hence, option 2.

45. Note that 1000 litres = 1(metre)3

= 600 m3

Total water in the tank = (20 × 15 × 6) m3 = 1800 m3

Number of days water can last = 1800/600 = 3

Hence, option 2.

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46. 1 and 4 represent an example of the theme. 3 is

correct since the passage focuses on the role of key

stone species.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

47. A is incorrect since mussels are the dominant species

only in the absence of Sea stars.

B has no support in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

48. A is incorrect since mussels are prey – rather than

competitors for sea stars. B has no support in the

passage. C is mentioned in the first few lines of the

passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

49. A is correct since the removal of a key stone species

threatens the survival of other species in the eco

system.

B has no support in the passage – it merely takes the

example of an acquatic ecosystem to explain keystone

species.

C is too strong. While a few species will be wiped out if

the key stone species are removed, collapse cannot be

concluded.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

50. The given argument can have one representation as

follows:

Now, consider options

1. Those mathematicians who are poor cannot be

teachers. So option 1 is a valid conclusion.

2. Teachers are college graduates and college

graduates are not poor. So teachers are not poor is

valid.

3. From the diagram above, option 2 is not a valid

argument.

4. Poets are poor and no collge graduates are poor. So

option 4 is valid.

Hence, option 2.

51. Average for the first three tests = N

∴ The sum of scores in the first three tests = 3N

Score in the fourth test = N +20

= N + 5

Hence, option 4.

52. Fraction of males = 70%

∴ Fraction of females = 30%

Fraction of married = 30%

Fraction of unmarried = 70%

Let the fraction of females who are single be x.

Hence, option 4.

53.

The distance along the path given is 20 km. So the

straight line distance between the houses C and D is

less than 20 km.

Hence, option 3.

54. The last sentence indicates an adverse effect on clean

water and on biodiversity.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

55. Only A is implied. C is irrelevant, and C has no support.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

56. A is incorrect since the passage points out both the

negatives and positives of modifications.

B is mentioned in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

57. B and D are irrelevant to the passage.

A is correct since a moral act should spring from our

own free will.

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C is correct from “But if the messenger....moral one”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

58. 1 contradicts the passage. 3 and 4 have not been

mentioned.

Option 2 is correct. A moral action should be based on

our free will or discretion.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

59. The statement refers to not having one’s own opinion

or thought process, following what orders are given

without actually understanding them, and also refers

to being easily influenced and pressurised. C is not

consistent with the above meaning, while D has a

literal meaning.

A and B are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

60. Time require to complete 30 km was lowest for A.

Hence, A won the race.

Hence, statement A is correct.

Till 25 km, B was faster than A. Hence, statement B is

also correct.

In the initial part of the race, C covered greater

distance than A and B. So C had the highest speed.

Hence, statement C is false.

Hence, option 2.

61. Every element of first figure is multiplied by 1.5 to get

it’s corresponding element in figure 2.

2 × 1.5 = 3

80 × 1.5 = 120

24 × 1.5 = 36

Hence, missing term = 6 × 1.5 = 9

Hence, option 3.

62. Note from the figure that the person needs to take four

steps of which two steps are south and two steps are

east.

He can select the two steps that go southward in 4C2 = 6 ways.

The choice of eastward steps follows from the choice of

southward steps.

Hence there are 6 different paths.

Hence, option 3.

63. Let the area of larger triangle be 16.

Hence, number of triangles with area 1 = 12

Number of triangles with area 4 = 7

Number of triangles with area 9 = 3

Number of triangles with area 16 = 1

Hence, total number of triangles = 12 + 7 + 3 + 1 = 23

Hence, option 3.

64. A haystack refers to a pile of hay or dried grass.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

65. “He fell asleep being much tired with his long walk”

hence he was exhausted.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

66. He slept under a haystack lying in the meadow. A

meadow refers to a tract of grass land or a field. Which

means that he was walking through the countryside.

Hence A is correct.

B is incorrect since it contradicts the passage - he was

'hungry'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

67. Horrible means something very bad or unpleasant,

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

68. “My toothbrush is a thing ….. a misery” indicates the

correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

69. At the last moment he carries it to the railway station

wrapped up in his handkerchief.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

70. “In spring….. cubs” indicates that they give birth to the

cubs three months before spring which indicates the

season of “winter”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

71. “If there are….. expense of others” which means that

the mother bear lets her cubs fight for the meal and in

a sense makes them fend for themselves without

interfering.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

72. A and B have no support in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

73. 1 will aggravate the situation. 3 is unfair to you. 4 is an

untrue statement, and hence not appropriate.

1 is most appropriate in the given content, since it

preserves your stand for the record.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

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74. 1 and 4 are either bending to an anti-social element or

dealing with the same. .

2 is better than 3 since the police is the appropriate

authority to deal with such elements.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

75. It is important to accomplish the task. Hence 3 is better

than the others.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

76. It is important to continue to work while maintaining

transparency. 3 lacks transparency. 2 and 4 stop work.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

77. In a crisis, the priority is the welfare of the people.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

78. Without being unfair to either, you need to provide

them both with the vaccine.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

79. It is important to continue to work while maintaining

transparency. 1 lack transparency. 3 and 4 sidestep the

issue.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

80. Keep the context in mind: social pressure. 3 is clearly

inappropriate. Since the girl has approached you for

help, 2 is inappropriate as it will not solve the problem

of harassment. 4 is not a valid decision, since she has

approached you “as an administrative authority” and it

is clear that she does not want to go to the police. 1 is

the most proactive decision.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.