Serial No. 11 TEST BOOKLET - INSIGHTS ON INDIA

29
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO www.insightsonindia.com www.insightsias.com Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 225 I N S T R U C T I O N S 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 110 items (Questions). Each item is printed in both Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will e treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES Paper---1 INSIGHTS REVISION TESTS FOR PRELIMS 2018 Serial No. 11 Days. 42-47

Transcript of Serial No. 11 TEST BOOKLET - INSIGHTS ON INDIA

Page 1: Serial No. 11 TEST BOOKLET - INSIGHTS ON INDIA

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

www.insightsonindia.com www.insightsias.com

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 225

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR

ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll number

and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at

the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on

the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 110 items (Questions). Each item is printed in both Hindi and

English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for

each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See

direction in the answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your

Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take

away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will e treated as wrong answer even if one of

the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that

question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

Paper---1

INSIGHTS REVISION TESTS FOR PRELIMS 2018

Serial No. 11 Days. 42-47

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SERIES – 11 : QUESTIONS (Days 42-47)

1. Which is the most appropriate description of interest rate corridor?

a) it is the interest range of all base rates of commercial banks

b) it is the benchmark movement of rates of RBI for the whole year

c) it is the weighted average where call money moves

d) it is the difference between repo and reverse repo rates

2. Consider the following about monetary policy:

1. In India, Monetary policy is solely based on Inflation Targeting

2. Inflation Targeting is the primary goal whereas secondary goal remains growth

3. Price stability is the necessary precondition for sustainable growth

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Consider the following with respect to monetary policy:

1. Monetary policy committee is required to meet at least 4 times a year

2. The quorum of the Monetary policy is 4 members

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above

4. Consider the following about banking ombudsman:

1. Banking ombudsman is an alternative dispute redressal mechanism for resolution of disputes

between a bank and its customers

2. Banking ombudsman is there in every state

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

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5. Which of the following is a feature of decentralized PDS:

1. The surplus food grains are handed over to FCI after meeting the requirements of the state

2. The shortage of food grains is met by long term storage by the states

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the Above

6. Which of the following is/are true with respect to The National Policy for Farmers 2007

1. Supports services for women like crèches

2. Stressed on Curriculum reforms in agriculture universities

3. It makes no mention of non-farm employment for rural households

Select your answer using the codes below:

a) 2 Only

b) 1 and 2 ONLY

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3 ONLY

7. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to determinants of MSP in India:

a) Pricing policy is rooted in the “cost plus” approach

b) Terms of trade between agriculture and non-agricultural sector

c) Price parity between different crops

d) Efficient resource management

8. Consider the following about job creation potential India:

1. As per the survey Private Investment and Exports are two sustainable engines of job creation

2. Public investment is constrained by need for fiscal consolidation and will only help in short

run

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the above

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9. Firm can be said to be within formal sector of economy when

1. firms are providing some form of social security to employees

2. firms are part of tax net regardless whether they pay tax or not

3. firms are registered under any central or state law

4. If firms are receiving some subsidy from the government

Which of the above is/are correct:

a) 1 and 2

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. Consider the following statements about gender sensitivity in India:

Assertion (A): In the absence of old age social security schemes, the son is considered to be the

insurance against old age.

Reason (R): The labour force participation rate for females remains low

Select your answer using the codes below where Assertion is (A) and Reason is (R):

a) A is true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) A is true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is true and R is false

d) Both A and R are false

11. What is circle rates that’s is used in real estate?

a) Circle rate is the market rate of the property being sold.

b) Circle rate is the maximum price at which property is registered.

c) Circle rate is the rate at which the property is bought and is equal to transaction value of

property.

d) None of the above

12. Consider the following statements are correct with respect to reasons for high dropout rates

among boys in India:

1. Engagement in economic activities

2. financial constraints

3. not interested in education

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 and 2 b) Only 1

c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3

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13. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): India is one of the country to be blessed with some of the largest river system in

the world but significant portion is rendered unavailable

Reason(R) : The natural circumstances like geography, terrain makes it difficult to use all the

available water.

Consider the following statements:

a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A

c) A is correct and R is incorrect

d) A and R are incorrect

14. Which of the following is/are included in National Small Savings:

1. Postal deposits

2. Saving certificates

3. Public provident funds

4. Employee provident fund

Select your answer using the codes below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. Consider the following about National Biopharma Mission:

1. This is the first ever Industry-Academia mission to accelerate biopharmaceutical development

in India

2. As a flagship program of the Government of India in collaboration with World Health

Organisation, it promises to boost the growth curve for domestic biopharma in India

Select the correct statements based on the codes below:

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) 1 and 2 d) None of the Above

16. Consider the following about NIVARAN-Grievance Portal:

1. It is the platform for resolution of service related grievances of railway commuters

2. ‘NIVARAN-Grievance Portal’ is the first IT application to be launched on the RailCloud

Select the correct statements based on the codes below:

a) Only 1 b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2 d) None of the above

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17. Consider the following about sovereign gold bond scheme:

1. Investments in such bonds by banks will be counted in calculation in SLR

2. Bonds cannot be used as collateral for loans.

3. It is issued by the RBI on behalf of the Government of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 and 3

c) Only 3

d) 1, 2 and 3

18. Which of the following describes Agri-Udaan appropriately:

a) Steps taken to effectively double farmers income by 2022

b) To support diversification of agriculture

c) To support innovation and entrepreneurship in agriculture

d) To develop agricultural exports to their optimum potential

19. Consider the following statements about Millets:

1. Government has approved 2018 as the ‘National Year of Millets’ to boost production of the

nutrient-rich millets and the sunrise agro-industry involved in it

2. India is the largest producer of millets followed by the African countries of Nigeria and Niger

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) 1 and 2

d) None of the Above

20. Which of the following provides for recognition of trade unions at the central level?

a) Industrial Disputes Act

b) Trade Unions Act

c) Code of Discipline in Industry

d) Inter-Union Code of Conduct

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21. Consider the following about MPLADS:

1. MPLADS is a Central Plan Scheme fully funded by the Government of India under which

funds are released in the form of grants-in-aid directly to the district authorities

2. Under MPLADS, the role of the Members of Parliament is to recommend works and award the

contracts while overseeing their execution.

3. The elected Lok Sabha Members can recommend works in their respective constituencies.

The elected members of the Rajya Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the state from

which they are elected. Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can

recommend works for implementation, anywhere in the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only

22. Consider the following about Indian Navy:

1. As part of its ‘Constabulary Role’, the Indian Navy is involved in operations like anti-poaching,

anti-smuggling, coastal surveillance and anti-piracy.

2. The Indian Navy is the nodal agency to handle oil spills in India

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

23. Which of the following are correctly matched:

List – I List – II

1. Varuna India-UK

2. INDRA India-Russia

3. SIMBEX India-Singapore

Select you answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2 Only

24. Which of the following Intellectual property rights is protected without any prior registration:

a) Copyright b) Patent

c) Industrial Design d) Trademark

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25. Consider the following statements about Deendayal Antodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood

Mission:

1. It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Rural Development

2. The mission includes the Mahila Kisan Shashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP)

3. it implements Start up village Entreprenuership programme

4. Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana (AGEY) is also one of the components

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. What do you understand by the term nuclear triad:

a) The possession of nuclear technology on land, sea and air

b) The ability to strike from land, sea or air

c) The ability to defend oneself on land, sea and air

d) None of the above

27. In context of globalization, what do you mean by hyperglobalisation:

a) exponential increase in the international trade

b) Trade and currency wars

c) culture shock

d) dominance by few countries in world affairs

28. Consider the following about climate change and India:

1. various reports put India at the high risk barometer when it comes to effects of climate change

2. Union government launched the National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture in

2010, to enhance the resilience of Indian agriculture covering crops, livestock and fisheries

to climatic variability and climate change

3. NICRA would significantly address gaps in water availability and poly-houses by providing

subsidy to farmers

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 , 2 and 3 only

d) None of the above

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29. Consider the following statements about KUSUM scheme:

1. It will help in utilization of barren land

2. It will offer generation based incentives to farmers

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) none

30. Consider the following about total fertility rates in India:

1. since not many women use methods of reversible contraception, they have little control over

when they start having children, but only seem to have control over when they stop having

children

2. the average number of children born to a women over her lifetime has dropped below

replacement levels for all religious communities barring Hindus and Muslims

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) None of the above

31. Which of the following is correct with respect to LIGO – Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave

Observatory Experiment:

a) INDIGO is a consortium of Indian gravitational-wave physicists.

b) EINSTEIN TELESCOPE is American third generation gravitational wave detector

c) LIGO is related to the HIGS BOSON

d) All of the above

32. Consider the following about scientific research in India:

1. Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), is a statutory body of DST

2. There is no formal mechanism to encourage individual scientists in India

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) None of the above

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33. Consider the following about National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG)

1. It is part of the e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project

2. It provides information on district-wise pending cases and help in promoting the transparency

in the justice delivery system

Which of the above statements is/are true:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) None of the above

34. Appreciation of the rupee (in real effective exchange rate (REER) terms) indicates

a) Increased relative profitability of domestic firms

b) Decreased demand for the imports in India.

c) India’s exports may have become slightly less competitive

d) None

35. Consider the following aspects abut planning in India:

1. In 1938, the National planning committee was appointed to chart the development strategy

post-independence under Pundit Nehru

2. 15 year perspective plan was given by Pitambar Pant for 1961-76

Which of the above statements is/are true:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) None of the above

36. Which of the following directly increases money supply:

a) Public withdraws money from banks

b) Public deposits money in the banks

c) Banks sell securities to RBI

d) None of the above

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37. Which of the following describes the term “letter of credit”:

a) An order from a bank to another bank abroad authorizing of a particular amount to a

person

b) Statement showing outstanding dues of a borrower

c) Letter from the bank promising credit to a certain approved period and purpose

d) It is the acknowledgement for a sanction of loan

38. Consider the following about NABH NIRMAN:

a) To expand the airport capacity more than five times to handle a billion trips a year under

a new initiative – NABH Nirman

b) is for overall development of health and wellness

c) It is a targeted programme for welfare of children

d) It is a comprehensive nutrition strategy launched by the government of India

39. Which of the following would cause the demand curve for automobiles to shift to the left:

a) An increase in the price of the automobiles

b) an increase in the interest rate paid to borrow money to pay for the automobile

c) an increase in buyers’ incomes

d) an increase in the cost of production of automobiles

40. A large increase in oil prices, such as the ones occurring in 1973 and 1979, will cause

a) inflation and expansion

b) inflation and recession

c) recession and disinflation

d) expansion and deflation

41. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by

1. An increase in the money supply.

2. A decrease in the aggregate level of output

3. An increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

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42. Which of the following also acts as a mechanism for government borrowing;

1. CRR

2. Repo Rate

3. Reverse Repo Rate

4. SLR

Select the correct answer using the codes below

a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 4 only d) 1 and 4 only

43. Which of the following is true ?

a) The initial public issues are made in primary market whereas all subsequent issues are

made in the secondary markets.

b) Primary markets have been dematerialised whereas secondary markets are in the process

of doing so

c) Primary markets deal in shares whereas secondary markets are meant for debentures.

d) Corporates raise resources directly from the investors through the Primary Market,

whereas in the Secondary Markets, investors buy and sell securities from one another.

44. What is labour augmenting economic growth?

a) Growth with capital deepening

b) Growth without capital formation

c) Growth with substitution of labour with capital

d) Growth of productivity of workers with more capital or technology

45. “Amrut Mahotsav”, part of budget speech of FM, refers to:

a) Celebration for success of white revolution, since India is the world’s largest Milk producer

b) Celebration on the eve of 75th year of Independence in 2022

c) Successful cleaning of Himalayan Rivers

d) Launch of Rainbow revolution

46. Which of the following is a new sub-scheme under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana ?

a) Bringing green revolution to eastern region

b) Special programme on oil palm area expansion

c) Accelerated fodder development programme

d) All the above

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47. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana will amalgamate –

1. Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme

2. Integrated Watershed Management Programme

3. Jal Sinchay Yojana

4. Farm Water Management

Select your answer using the codes below:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

48. What is true with respect to bids in the Swiss challenge method?

a) The original bid is public and others can challenge it

b) The bids are put out for open auction

c) The challenge is for legality of the bid

d) The challenge was pioneered by Swiss engineers while building a tunnel through the Alps

49. Logistics sector was lately given infrastructure status. What does it mean?

a) It will be eligible to to borrow from India Infrastructure Financing Company Limited

(IIFCL).

b) It will be eligible for priority sector lending by banks in India

c) It will benefit from government schemes and policies favoring infrastructure

d) all of the above

50. Project insight is related to:

a) Using funds for renovating medical infrastructure

b) Addressing gaps in Fender participation in the workforce

c) use of bigdata to analyse mismatches in income declarations and spending patterns to

trace tax evasions and black money

d) Finding a fool proof mechanism to double farmers income in India

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51. Hong Kong issues of WTO concerns with

1. Public Procurement

2. Government Stock holdings

3. Market Access

4. Agricultural subsidies

Select your answers using the codes below

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

52. Demand-pull inflation is said to exist when:

a) Costs are increasing faster than output

b) The level of aggregate demand is growing faster than the underlying level of supply

c) The prices of imports are rising faster than domestic goods

d) An external event has caused prices to rise e.g. an increase in oil prices

53. Which of the following are the components of “Integrated Power Development Scheme”

1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution network in urban areas

2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in urban areas

3. IT enablement of distribution sector and strengthening of distribution network

Select you answer using the codes below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Government of India launched a new scheme namely “Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana”

(DDUGJY) with which of the following objective:

a) To separate agriculture and non-agriculture feeders for judicious rostering of supply to

agricultural and non-agricultural consumers in rural areas

b) Strengthening of electricity production in rural areas

c) Metering in Urban areas (Feeders, Distribution Transformers and Consumers)

d) To enable transmission of electricity from urban to rural areas

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55. Which of the following are the components of a solar city:

a) A city which is running its public services such as street lighting on solar energy

b) A city which is able to convert at least 10% of its conventional power needs to other

sources including solar, wind, biomass etc

c) A city with a high potential for development of solar rooftop projects

d) A city which is declared as a city of importance on India’s solar atlas

56. Consider the following statements as per the Essential commodities Act, 1955:

1. The act enables the government to to regulate the production, supply and distribution of

acommodities declared as ‘essential’

2. The excess stocks are auctioned or sold through fair price shops.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above

57. Consider the following about International solar alliance:

a) It is the first International Intergovernmental Treaty Based organsation headquarterd in

India

b) It is a collaboration of governments of tropical and temperate countries

c) ISA member states can launch various programmes independently

d) The ISA framework agreement was open to signatures at the Paris summit

58. Consider the following about employee state insurance scheme:

1. The family members of the insured are also eligible for medical benefit

2. The workers are not entitled to sickness benefits/lost wages

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above

59. The World Investment Report is published by:

a) International Finance Corporation

b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

c) World Bank

d) International Monetary Fund

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60. The tax to GDP ratio in India has been low compared to other major economies in the world. The

reasons that can be attributed for this are

1. Service tax is imposed late and on few sectors

2. Low tax payers base because of exemptions and also under reporting of tax

Select the correct option

a) only 1

b) only 2

c) both 1 and 2

d) None

61. Which of the following statements is/are correct about National Green Tribunal ?

1. The Tribunal is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.

2. The tribunal is guided by principles of natural justice.

3. The Tribunal is mandated to dispose of applications or appeals finally within 1 year of filing.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

62. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)

in India ?

1. It was first used in India as early as second five year plan with Hydro-electric Power Projects.

2. It is an assessment tool to enquire into environmental concerns of developmental process

at the last stage of the project.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Which of the following is/are the objectives of Project Elephant (PE) ?

1. To protect elephants, their habitat and corridors.

2. To address issues of man-animal conflict.

3. Welfare of domesticated elephants.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

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64. Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI) monitors the pollution in which of the

following areas ?

1. Industrial areas

2. Residential areas

3. Cultivated lands

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 ad 3

65. Which of the following is/are the goal/s under National Mission for a Green India (GIM) ?

1. To increase forest based livelihood income.

2. To improve eco-system services.

3. To increase forest/tree cover and improve quality of forest/tree cover.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

66. Real Time Water Quality Monitoring System (RTWQMS) has been established for which of the

following rivers ?

1. Ganga

2. Yamuna

3. Brahmaputra

4. Godavari

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

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67. Which of the following statements is/are correct about different types of vegetation?

1. Tropical deciduous forests are called monsoon forests.

2. Thorny bushes are found in Western Ghats.

3. Tundra Vegetation grows during the very short summer.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

68. Which of the following statements is/are correct about biosphere?

1. Natural vegetation and wildlife exist only in the biosphere.

2. Living beings in the biosphere are not necessarily inter-related and interdependent on each

other for survival.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Which of the following statements is/are correct about biodiversity?

1. It is rich in wildlife species but not cultivated species.

2. It is diverse in form and function.

3. It is closely integrated through multiple network of interdependencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Globally endangered dugong, species of dolphins and whales and species of endangered sea

turtles are found in which of the following biosphere reserves ?

a) Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve

b) Manas Biosphre Reserve

c) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

d) Dihang – Dibang Biosphere Reserve

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71. Which of the following are the key components of Namami Gange Prrogramme?

1. Creating Sewerage Treatment Capacity

2. Creating River-Front Development

3. River Surface Cleaning

4. Bio-Diversity Conservation

5. Afforestation

6. Industrial Effluent Monitoring

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only

c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

72. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Important Bird Areas (IBAs)?

1. It is a programme of Birdlife International.

2. All Important Bird Areas (IBAs) fall inside the Protected Area network.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Which of the following pairs of schedules of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 and their details are

correctly matched ?

Schedules Details

1. Schedule I Absolute Protection of the species notified

2. Schedule III Includes the animals which may be hunted

3. Schedule V Specified endemic plants are prohibited from

cultivation and planting.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None of the above

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74. Which of the following statements is/are correct about brown carbon?

1. It exists independently in the atmosphere.

2. It is emitted mainly by biomass combustion.

3. The absorptive properties of it can have large impacts on radiation transfer and climate.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Which of the following statements is/are correct about mosses?

1. They are distributed throughout the world except in salt water.

2. They aid in soil erosion control.

3. They release nutrients for the use of complex plants.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bharat Stage (BS) VI emission standards?

1. Bharat Stage (BS) VI emission standards specify 10 ppm sulphur for gasoline and diesel fuels.

2. Bharat Stage (BS) VI emission standards will take effect throughout the country for all light-

duty and heavy-duty vehicles as well as two and three wheelers.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

77. Which of the following statements is/are correct about petcoke?

1. Petcoke itself has a low level of toxicity.

2. There are evidences that Petcoke has carcinogenic substances.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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78. Which of the following organizations publishes Greenhouse Gas Bulletin?

a) World Meteorological Organization

b) International Union for Conservation of Nature

c) International Institution for Sustainable Development

d) Global Environment Facility

79. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Circular Economy?

1. It shifts towards the use of renewable energy.

2. It eliminates the use of toxic chemicals.

3. It aims for the elimination of waste through the superior design of materials.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

80. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Global Wildlife Programme?

1. It is a World-Bank led global partnership programme.

2. It seeks to reduce both the supply and demand that drives the illegal wildlife.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Nuclear Reactors in India?

1. Breeder reactors produce equal amount of fuel that they consume.

2. In the thorium fuel cycle, thorium 232 is transmuted into the fissile isotope uranium 233.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

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82. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Ramjet Engines ?

1. Ramjet Engines carry oxidiser along with the fuel for combustion to produce thrust.

2. Scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at

supersonic speeds.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Traditional Knowledge Digital Library

(TKDL)?

1. It is an initiative of India to prevent misappropriation of country’s traditional medicinal

knowledge at International Patent Offices.

2. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has created it.

3. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is the custodian of it.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

84. A high altitude research station called HIMANSH is situated in:

a) Sea ice Arctic region

b) Sea ice of Antarctic region

c) Himalayas

d) Ice sheets of Greenland

85. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Spot Picker Robot?

1. It is an indigenous robot.

2. It is used in the field of proteomics.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

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86. Which of the following pairs of DRDO systems and their details is/are correctly matched?

DRDO Systems Details

1. SANGRAHA : A compact communication electronic warfare suit.

2. SAMYUKTA : An indigenous EW programme for Navy

3. SUJAV : A software and integration intensive and meant for

indigenous development of an integrated EW system.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None of the above

87. Muon and tau are associated which of the following particles?

1. Neutrinos

2. Boson or God Particles

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. Which of the following statements is/are correct about stem cells?

1. Stem cells are undifferentiated cells.

2. Specialized cells are the differentiated cells.

3. Induced pluripotent cells (iPSCs) are derived from adult somatic cells.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

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89. Consider the following statements.

1. Bioleaching is used essentially for the recovery of copper, uranium and gold.

2. Biosparging can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are

dissolved in groundwater.

3. Bioaugmentation can be involved in bioremediation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

90. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Mission Indradhanush?

1. It ensures full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to two years and

pregnant women.

2. Under Mission Indradhanush, all the vaccines provided under Universal Immunization

Program are not administered.

3. Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) programme aims to reach who have been left

uncovered under the routine immunisation programme.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Which of the following pairs of stains and the flu is/are correctly matched?

Strains Flu

1. H1N1 : Swine Flu

2. H5N1 : Hong Kong Flu

3. H3N2 : Bird Flu

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None of these

92. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Li-Fi (Light Fidelity)?

1. It can transmit data only over visible light spectrum.

2. It operates across lower bandwidth in comparison to Wi-Fi.

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Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. Which of the following statements is/are correct about GSLV Mk III?

1. It is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle.

2. It can carry payloads to both Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) and Low Earth Orbit

(LEO).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Brown dwarfs?

1. They are astronomical object that is intermediate between a planet and a star.

2. They do not reach stable luminosities.

3. They are brown in colour.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

95. Israel has launched Venus satellite. It is:

a) A satellite to study the atmosphere of Planet Venus.

b) An earth-observation micro-satellite.

c) A satellite to study the terrestrial planets.

d) A nano-satellite.

96. GOLD and ICON are recently in news. Which of the statements is/are correct about them?

1. They will team up to explore the stratosphere.

2. They will measure how upper atmosphere changes in response to hurricanes and

geomagnetic storms.

3. They will find evidences for a theoretical model about El Nino’s repercussions.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

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97. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Human ears can hear the sounds in the frequency range 20Hz – 20 kHz.

2. Dogs can hear sounds of frequencies higher than 20 kHz.

3. The ultrasound equipment work at frequencies lower than 20 kHz.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

98. Which of the following pairs of animals and their major excretory product is matched correctly?

Animals Major excretory products

1. Fishes Uric acid

2. Snakes Ammonia

3. Humans Urea

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None of the above

99. Which of the following statements is/are correct about cell wall?

1. Plants, fungi and bacteria have cell walls.

2. Cell walls permit the cells to withstand very dilute external media without bursting.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Recently flammable ice was in news. It is:

a) A gas hydrate

b) A comet

c) An explosive

d) A pyroclastic substance

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CSAT (PAPER II)

101. Fifteen boys are standing in a row facing opposite direction alternately from left to right. If the

fourth boy from left is facing towards the east then the fifth boy from the right is facing which

direction?

a) West b) East c) South d) North

102. In a certain code ,’il be pee’ means ‘roses are blue’,’sik hee’ means ‘red flowers’ and ‘pee mit hee’

means ‘flowers are vegetables’, How is ‘red’ written in that code?

a) hee b) sik c) be d) cannot be determined

103. Five persons- A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. Which of the following statements would be

sufficient to identify the one who is sitting in the middle?

Statement 1: B is between E and C.

Statement 2: B is to the right of E.

Statement 3: D is between A and E.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

a) Statements 1 and 2 only

b) Statements 2 and 3 only

c) Statements 1 and 3 only

d) All the statements

104. There are three statements given followed by three conclusions numbered 1, 2 and 3. You have

to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known

facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the

given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

1. Some pens are books.

2. All schools are books.

3. Some colleges are schools.

Conclusions:

1. Some colleges are pens.

2. Some pens are schools.

3. Some colleges are books.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

a) Only 1 and 3 follow. b) Only 1 and 2 follow.

c) Only 3 follow. d) All follow.

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105. There is a cuboid whose dimensions are 4 x 3 x 3 cm. The opposite faces of dimensions 4 x 3

are coloured yellow. The opposite faces of other dimensions 4 x 3 are coloured red. The opposite faces

of dimensions 3 x 3 are coloured green. Now the cuboid is cut into small cubes of side 1 cm. How

many small cubes are there which have only red color on them?

a) 4

b) 8

c) 16

d) 24

106. Eight persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table. S is to the

immediate right of W. V is not next to either R or T. W is to the immediate right of T, who is sitting

opposite to R. U and W are sitting opposite to each other.

Who is to the right of U?

a) R

b) V

c) P

d) Q

107. A – W, B – X, C – Y and D – Z are four married couples. In a restaurant they are sitting around

a rectangular table, with three persons along each of the longer sides of the table and one person

along each of the shorter sides. All the male persons A, B, C and D are sitting along the longer sides

and no male persons are sitting together. X is sitting to the right of C. W and Z are sitting at the

longer sides and neither of them is sitting adjacent to their respective husbands. Y is sitting to the

right of A.

Which pair of people are sitting at the shorter sides of table?

a) Z and X b) Z and Y

c) X and W d) X and Y

108. A family of eight persons has three married couples. A is the grandmother of C and is the

mother-in-law of F. H is the daughter of B, who is the brother of G. D is the only child of G and is

the mother of C. E is the wife of B. How is G related to H?

a) Uncle

b) Father

c) Brother

d) Cousin

109. A watch, which loses time uniformly, was observed to be 5 minutes fast at 8.00 p.m. on

Thursday. It was noticed to be 7 minutes slow at 8.00 a.m. on the subsequent Monday. When did

the watch show the correct time?

a) 7 a.m. Saturday b) 7 a.m. on Friday

c) 10 a.m. on Sunday d) 11 a.m. on Friday

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110. March 1st, 2017 is Wednesday. Which month of the year 2018 has the same calendar?

a) August

b) November

c) December

d) October

*****