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1-QUESTION BANK (POWER)

1. A.C. is converted into D.C. by(a) Dynamo (b) Motor(c) Transformer (d) Rectifier

2. Farad is unit of(a) Flux (b) Capacitance(c) Mutual inductance (d) Resistance of a conductor

3. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of(a) Energy (b) Electrical potential(c) Power (d) Electric current

4. An electric lamp is marked 100 watt. It is working on 200 Volts. The current through the lamp is given as

(a) 0.5 Amp (b) 0.2 Amp(c) 5.0 Amp (d) 1.0 Amp

5. Before carrying out O/H maintenance following is due(a) Transformer is switched off(b) DG set is switched off(c) HT panel is switched off(d) Respective O/H feeder is switched off or earthed

6. In house wiring the red wire indicates the(a) Phase (b) Neutral(c) Earth wire (c) Dead wire

7. In house wiring the black wire indicates the(a) Phase (b) Neutral(c) Earth wire (c) Dead wire

8. In house wiring the green wire indicates the(a) Phase (b) Neutral(c) Earth wire (c) Dead wire

9. In 4 wire electric circuit, the black conductor is used for(a) Phase (b) Neutral(c) Earth wire (d) Armour

10. For the protection of single-phase 1.5 kW motor, a MCB of rating should be provided (a) 10 A (b) 16 A (c) 32 A (d) 63 A

Model Question Bank Elect(G) for JE Exam./SER/CKP

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11. The low power factor result in (a)Increased losses (b) Decreased losses (c) No effect on losses (d) Better generating efficiency

12. Low power factor(a) Aids the voltage regulation(b) Increase the voltage regulation(c) Decrease the voltage regulation(d) None of the above

13. The power factor of the AC supply can be improved by using(a) Synchronous generator (b) Universal motor(c) Synchronous condenser (d) SCR

14. A distribution line of 440 V is classified as(a) LV (b) MV(c) HV (d) EHV

15. Which of the following is not used as a overhead conductor(a) ACRC (b) Weasel(c) PILCA (d) Zebra

16. Which of the following reduces the power factor(a) Motor on no load (b) Tube lights(c) Fans (d) All of the above

17. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand an AC voltage of(a) 1.5 kV (b) 3 kV(c) 5.2 kV (d) 7.2 Kv

18. Under high voltage test cable shall withstand a DC voltage of(a) 1.5 kV (b) 3 kV(c) 5.2 kV (d) 7.2 kV

19. Under water immersion test cable is immersed in a water bath at(a) 40 deg C (b) 50 deg C(c) 60 deg C (d) 70 deg C

20. For water immersion test, cable is immersed in hot water at specified temperature, after 24 hrs the voltage applied between conductor and water for five minutes is

(a) 3 kV (b) 4 kV(c) 5 kV (d) 6 kV

21. Unit of energy is(a) Kilo volt (b) Kilo watt hours (c) Kilo watt (d) kilo volt amp


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22. As per Ohm’s law(a) V = IR (b) V = I/R (c) R = VxI (d) I=V2XR2

23. Unit of resistance is (a) Ampere (b) Volts (c) Ohm (d) Farad

24. In three phase , 50 Hz supply, the phase to phase voltage is(a) 220 Volts (b) 415 Volts (c) 440 volts (d) 250 volts

25. In three phase 415 volts 50 Hz supply, the phase to natural voltage is(a) 220 Volts (b) 230 volts (c) 440 volts (d) 250 volts

26. In 4 sq. Mm PVC wire, 4 sq. mm stand for(a) Thickness of wire(b) Length of wire(c) The area of thickness of wire

27. The instrument to measure the light is called(a) Tong tester (b) Lux meter (c) Micro meter

28. 10 hours use of 500 watt lamp will consume the energy(a) 10 units (b) 20 units (c) 5 units

29. No. of poles in MCB/TPN i(a) 2 pole (b) 4 poles (c) 3 poles

30. In cabling system the earth is connected with conductor having colour(a) Red (b) blue(c) yellow (d) Armour

31. Unit of current is(a) Watt (b) Ampere(c) Volt (c) ohm

32. Heater element is made up of(a) Tin (b) Nichrome(c) Silver (d) Any above

33. Filament of incandescent lamp is made of(a) Tin (b) Nichrome(c) Tungusten (d) Silver

34. An insulator should have(a) High resistance (b) High conductance(c) High conductivity (d) All of the above


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35. Which of the following is used to make electric connections(a) Solder (b) PG clamp(c) Thimbles (d) All above

36. Instrument used for measuring the speed of rotating machines/ appliances is(a) Lux meter (b)Tachometer(c) Micrometer (d) None above

37. Instrument used for measuring the thickness of wire/strip is(a) Lux meter (b)Tachometer(c) Micrometer (d) None above

38. Instrument used for measuring the voltage across a circuit is (a) Ammeter (b) voltmeter(c) Thermometer (d) None above

39. Instrument used for measuring the current is (a) Ammeter (b) voltmeter(c) Thermometer (d) None above

40. Instrument used for measuring the temperature is(a) Ammeter (b) voltmeter(c) Thermometer (d) None above

41. Illumination level is measured in terms is (a) Lux (b) Volt(c) Ampere (d) Ohm

42. Insulating resistance is measured by using(a) Multimeter (b) Megger(c) Voltmeter (d) Hydrometer

43. Which of the following is used for rectification of AC supply(a) Diodes (b) Tran(c) Capacitor (d) Resistors

44. Which preparation should be done starting a new wiring(a) Prepare a wiring diagram(b) Prepare for shock treatment(c) Both a & b(d) None of above

45. In wiring circuit the fuse will be placed on(a) Phase (b) Neutral(c) Earth (d) Any of the above


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46. Which of the following test should be done before connecting a wiring to the main line(a) IR test (b) Continuity test(c) Polarity test (d) Any above

47. Which of the following is a common wiring fault(a) Short circuit (b) Open circuit(c) Fuse blown (d) All above

48. Wattage rating range of electric kettle is (a) 50-500 W (b) 350-1000W(c) 1000-1500 W (d) 1200-1600

49. Device used for auto off an electric iron is (a) Thermostat switch (b) Overload relay

(c) Time delay switch (d) Any of the above

50. Can you repair an immersion rod(a) No (b) Yes(c) It depend on condition (d) None above

51. A wire gauge is used to measure diameter of(a) Wire (b) cable(c) OH conductor (d) Any above

52. To improve the power factor, capacitors are connected in the circuit as(a) Parallel path (b) Series path(c) Any a & b (d) None of the above

53. To switch ON or switch OFF the supply in accordance with day light, following is used(a) Light dependent (b) Light emitting diode(c) Any of a& b (d) None of the above

54. In order to draw more current form the electric source(a) Resistors are connected in parallel(b) Resistors are connected in series(c) Resistors are connected in series and parallel(d) None of the above

55. If a 60 W and 100 W lamps in series and are connected to a source of supply, which lamp will give more light

(a) 100 W (b) 60 W(c) Both will give same light (d) None of the bulb will glow

56. Power is defined as(a) Capacity of doing work (b) Rate of doing work(c) Product of force and distance (d) Energy dissipated by load


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57. Unit of electric power is(a) Kilowatt (b) watt(c) Kilowatt hour (d) watt hour

58. The internal resistance of battery is increased by(a) Increase in no. of cells (b) Decrease in no. of cells(c) None of the above

59. A generators converts(a) Mechanical energy into light (b) Electrical energy to mechanical energy(c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy (d) None of the above

60. Power factor of AC circuit is equal to(a) Tan of phase angle (b) Sine of phase angle(c) Cosine of phase angle (d) None of the above

61. Resistance of open circuit is equal to(a) Zero (b) Infinity(c) Less than 1 ohm (d) None above

62. Laminated core is used to reduce(a) Hysteresis loss (b) Eddy current loss(c) Copper loss (d) iron loss

63. Which of the following is not a non conventional energy source(a) Solar (b) Bio gas(c) Wind (d) Electricity

64. Solar energy is used for(a) Lighting (b) Cooking(c) Battery charging (d) All above

65. Solar and wind hybrid system is(a) Becoming popular (b) Not possible(c) Conventional energy source (d) None of the above

66. Bio gas depend on(a) Electrical energy (b) Waste products(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above

67. Which of the following is not a constituent of a solar lighting system(a) Photo voltaic cell (b) Back up batteries(c) Charger (d) Earth wire


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68. Which of the following is not a type of fuse(a) HRC (b) Rewirable(c) Ceramic (c) None above

69. Which of the following is not a type of generating station?(a) Thermal (b) Nuclear(c) Hydro (d) Atmospheric

70. Which of the following is not a part of overhead distribution line(a) Conductor (b) Insulator(c) Cross arms (c) Thimbles

71. Type of insulator not used in a 3 phase, 440 V overhead distr ibution line

(a) Pin (b) Shackle(c) Disc (d) None above

72. Instrument connected in the circuit with the ammeter (in panel) to facilitate the measurement of current is

(a) Current transformer (b) Potential transformer(c) Excitation transformer (d) None of the above

73. Capacitor opposes(a) Instantaneous change of voltage (b) Instantaneous change of current(c) Instantaneous change in resistance (d) None of the above

74. Inductor opposes(a) Instantaneous change of voltage(b) Instantaneous change of current(c) Instantaneous change in resistance(d) None of the above

75. Current is (a) Rate of flow of charge (b) Gradual change in resistance(c) Linear change in capacitance (d) None of the above

76. When resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance(a) Decreases (b) Increases(c) No change (d) May increase of decrease

77. When resistance are connected in series, the equivalent resistance(a) Decreases (b) Increases(c) No change (d) May increase of decrease


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78. Diode allows the flow of the current(a) In one direction (b) In both the direction(c) Flow of current not allowed (d) None of the above

79. When capacitances are connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance(a) Decreases (b) Increases(c) No change (d) May increase of decrease

80. When capacitances are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance(a) Decreases (b) Increases(c) No change (d) May increase of decrease

81. Two lamp of 60 W and one of 100 W are connected in series to a supply 220 V , the current flowing in the circuit will be

(a) 1 A (b) 2 A(c) 3 A (d) 4 A

82. A 2 x 40 W box type fitting glow for 10 hrs in a day, units consumed per day will be(a) 0.72 (b) 0.04(c) 0.8 (d) 1

83. A 2 x 40 W box type fitting glow for 10 hrs in a day, electric charges for the month of June @ Rs. 3/- per unit will be Rs.

(a) 18 (b) 3.60(c) 72 (d) 90

84. One ordinary ceiling fan works for 12 hrs in a day, units consumed per day will be (a) 0.72 (b) 0.04(c) 0.8 (d) 1

85. One ordinary ceiling fan works for 12 hrs in a day, electric charges per day @ Rs. 2/- per unit will be

(a) 0.72 (b) 1.44(c) 0.8 (d) 1

86. One 20 inch desert cooler (150 W) works for 8 hrs per day, units consumed per day will be

(a) 1.2 (b) 1.8(c)2.1 (d) 2.4

87. One 20 inch desert cooler (150 W) works for 8 hrs per day, electric charges gor the month of July @ Rs. 3/- per unit will be

(a) 111.6 (b) 110.2(c) 90 (d) 115.3


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88. A geyser of 25 ltrs., 1500 W remains ON for 2 hrs per day, units consumed for 6 months will be

(a) 540 (b) 480(c) 620 (d) 700

89. One 60 W lamp and 2 fans work for 10 hrs per day, units consumed per day will be(a) 1.8 (b) 2.1(c) 1.7 (d) 3

90. A 10 hp pump works for 10 hrs per day, monthly consumption will be(a) 223.8 (b) 2.23(c) 22.38 (d) 2238

91. A grinders in a factory, equipped with 1.5 hp motor, works for 6 hrs per day, the units consumed per day will be

(a) 5.490 (b) 6.714(c) 2388 (d) 1940

92. Internal resistance of a cell is 0.1 ohm and 10 cells are connected in series to from a battery supplying a current of 1 A, the power lost in the battery is

(a) 0.5 w (b) 1 w(c) 5 w (d) 50 w

93. The resistance of human body lies between(a) 100-200 ohm (b) 5 K ohm-50 K 0hm(c) 1 M ohm-10 M ohm (d) 100 k ohm-500 k ohm

94. Instrument used to measure electric energy consumption is (a) Galvanometer (b) Potentiometer(c) Energy meter (d) None of the above

95. Which of the following keeps the poles straight(a) Stay rod (b) Cross arm(c) Conductor (d) Insulator

96. Inside the geyser there is a (a) Filament (b) Immersion rod(c) Any of a & b (c) None of the above

97. Which of the following is used for concealed wiring in a house(a) PVC conduit (b) GI pipe(c) Spun concrete (d) Any of the above

98. The size of copper wire used for point wiring in sq mm is(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5(c) 4 (d) 10


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99. The size of copper wire used for sub main in sq mm is(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5(c) 4 (d) 10

100. The size of Aluminium wire used for point wiring in sq mm is(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5(c) 4 (d) 10

101. The combined Earth resistance of 33kV/11Kv receiving station should not exceed(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohms(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms

102. The combined Earth resistance of 11Kv/415 V Sub-station should not exceed(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 2 ohms(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms

103. The integration time employed by supply authorities of recording M.D. for a 33(a) 5 minutes (b) 15 minutes(c) 45 minutes (d) 60 minutes

104. While designing a sub-station anticipated future loads in the next ... years are taken(a) 1 years (b) 2 years(c) 20 years (d) 5-7 years

105. As per present Tariff the minimum power factor of sub-station should be(a) 0.8 (b) 0.85(c) 0.90 (d) 0.95

106. The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kv lines, across the load.

(a) 3 M (b) 4 M(C) 6.1 m (d) 14 M

107. The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kv lines, along a street.

(a) 5.8 M (b) 3.0 M(c) 4.0 M (d) 14 M

108. The minimum vertical clearance from 11 kv line to any part of building.(a) 2.0 M (b) 10. M(c) 3.7 M (d) 6.0 M

109. The minimum Horizontal clearance of 11 kv lines from any buildings.(a) 1.2 M (b) 3.7 M(c) 6.1 M (d) 10 M


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110. The Visible, Audible, Partial discharge at the surface of conductor at high voltage is called –

(a) Skin affect (b) Corona(c) Creep (d) None of these

111. For maintaining power supply quantity the frequency variation of power supply are restricted to

(a) ± 1 % (b) ± 3 %(c) ± 0.5% (d) ± 10 %

112. The 3 phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed(a) 2.5.% to 5% (b) 20%(c) 25% (d) 10%

113. For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not exceed.

(a) 5 Hz/Sec (b) 10 Hz/Sec(c) 1 Hz/Sec (d) 3 Hz/Sec

114. In Thermal Power plants the generator used are(a) AC 3 Phase Induction Generators(b) AC 3 Phase Synchronous Generators(c) DC Shunt Generators(d) AC 1 Phase Synchronous Generators

115. The highest system voltage of normal 33 kv System for the purpose of design of equipments is

(a) 30 kV (b) 36 kV (c) 33 kV (d) 66 kV

116. The Rod gap on the L.V. SIDE OF 11 kv /415, 250 kvA Transformer is (a) 300 mm (b) 100 mm(c) 50 mm (d) Rod gap L.A. is not provided for LV side of

Transformer

117. The rated voltage of L.A. for 11 kv/415v Transformer Protection is(a) 11 Kv (b) 12 kv(c) 9 kv (d) 24 kv

118. For medium sized 11 kv/415 v, 500 kvA Transfromer sub-station, the type of L.A. used are

(a) Station type (b) Line type(c) Distribution type (d) None of these


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119. The line type L.A. used for our 11kv and 33kv Sub-station are having a standard normal discharege current (Peak)

(a) 5 KA (b) 10 KA(C) 1.5 KA (D) 2.5 KA

120. The span of supports for 11kv over head lines should not exceed(a) 100 m (b) 65 m(c) 30 m (d) 27 m

121. The testing of relays should be performed at a interval of(a) 6 months (b) 12 months(c) 18 months (d) 24 months

122. If any live conductor in the circuit is entangled with tree branch __________ operates.(a) EFR (b) OVR(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay

123. ___________ relay operates if there is a heavy increase in load current.(a) EFR (b) OVR(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay

124. ___________ relay indicates the temperature rise of a transformer.(a) EFR (b) OVR(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay

125. If the relay setting of 60/6 CT is at 3.75, then the tripping will be at(a) 60 Amp (b) 45 Amp(c) 30 Amp

126. The normal SPG of electrolyte of lead acid battery should be(a) 1.160 (b) 1.180 (c) 1.220 (d) 1.24

127. The terminal voltage of a fully charged lead acid cell is (a) 1.8 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.2 V (d) 2.4 V

128. The terminal voltage of a lead acid cell should not fall below(a) 1.6 V (b) 1.8 V (c) 2.0 V (d) 2.2 V

129. The normal charging rate of 120 AH lead acid battery set is (a) 4 A (b) 8 A (c) 12 A (d) 16 A

130. The ratio distil water and acid used to prepare new electrolyte for lead(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1


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131. Following law is applicable in the working of lead acid cell(a) Faradays law of self induction(b) Faradays law of mutual induction(c) Faradays law of electrolysis(d) Newton’s law of motion

132. The capacity of storage battery is expressed as(a) No. of recharges it can take(b) Time for which it can be used(c) No. of cells it contain(d) Ampere hour it can deliver

133. Sedimentation in lead acid cell occurs due to(a) Overcharging at high rate (b) Slow charging at low rate

(c) Over discharge at low rate (d) Non-utilization for long periods

134. Even when not in use, a lead acid battery should be recharged once in(a) Six week (b) Six days(c) Three months (d) Six months

135. First step to be carried out before starting work starting work on faulty portion of overhead line is to

(a) Earth the line on both the ends of the portion(b) Obtain the permit to work(c) Bring ladder or crane(d) Climb on the pole immediately

136. Before starting the work on faulty circuit it should be ensured that(a) The faulty portion has been isolated from the power supply(b) The worker is strong enough to climb the pole(c) The cable is not deep enough to dig(d) None of the above

137. The electric overhead line on which work is to be carried out should be necessarily earthed on both the ends to

(a) Dispense the charge stored between the conductors to capacitive effect(b) To bring the line at zero potential(c) Both a & b(c) None of the above

138. One can protect himself from electric shock while working on live circuit by wearing hand gloves.

(a) Conducting material(b) Insulating material(c) Semiconductor material(d) Any of the above


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139. Which of the following are principal safety precautions(a) Don’t touch live wire or equipment with bare hands(b)Before switching on supply, see no one is working in the line(c) Use rubber gloves and meeting(d) All of the above

140. Which of the following is most effective method of artificial respiration(a) Mouth to mouth air pumping method (b) To use bicycle air pump

(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above

141. Which material is recommended as fire extinguisher in electrical cases(a) Carbon tetra chloride (b) Carbon dioxide(c) Sulphur hexafluoride (d) Any of the above

142. Which of the following is to be necessarialy kept in a electric substation(a) First aid box(b) Stretcher(c) Earthing rod(d) All of the above

143. The warning board to be provide, on the switch of the line on which work is going on(a) Man working(b) Danger(c) Keep away(d) None of the above

144. Staff competent to work on overhead line of MV should be(a) Unskilled(b) Semi skilled(c) Highly skilled(d) Any of the above

145. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?(a) coal (b) oil (c) Natural gas (d) Solar

146. The law of conservation of energy states that energy(a) can be created and destroyed(b) is destroyed in the process of burning(c) cannot be converted from one(d) is neither destroyed nor created form to another

147. Absolute pressure is(a) Gauge Pressure (b) Atmospheric Pressure(c) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure(d) Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure


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148. 100 kCals expressed as kilojoules would be(a) 418.7 kj (b) 4.187 Joules(c) 4.187 kj (d) 41.87 kj

149. When heat flows from one place to another by means of liquid or gas, it is being transferred by

(a) radiation (b) conduction(c) sublimation (d) convection

150. How many watts are in a hp?(a) 700 (b) 725 (c) 740 (d) 746

151. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that forces current to flow is(a) watts (b) amps (c) ohms (d) volts

152. Voltage and resistance in an electrical circuit are related by OHM’s law and determine(a) resistance (b) voltage (c) the type of circuit (d) current

153. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that opposes current flow is(a) resistance (b) voltage (c) friction (d) power

154. The instrument used to measure RPM is(a) Fyrite (b) Pyrometer(c) Ultrasonic flow meter (d) Stroboscope

155. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption(a) Kwh/ton (b) kcl/kl (c) kj/kg (d) kg

156. Which of the following will not motivate the employees for energy conservation?(a) Incentive (b) Recognition (c) Reward (d) Threatening

157. The heat input requrid for generating ‘one’ kilo watt-hour of electrical output is called as _________.

(a) Efficiency (b) Heat Rate (c) Calorific Value (d) Heat value

158. Which of the voltage is not available for Indian distribution system?(a) 33 kv (b) 11 kv (c) 280 v (d) 433 v

159. The power loss in transmission/distribution line depend on __________.(a) Current in the line (b) Resistance of the line(c) Length of the line (d) All

160. If distribution of power is raised from 11 kv to 66 kv, the voltage drop would lower by(a) 6 times (b) 1/6 times (c) 36 times (d) 1/36 times


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161. If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kv to 33 kv, the line loss would be:(a) Less by 1/9 (b) More by 9 times (c) No change (d) None of the above

162. The maximum demand of an industry, if trivector motor records 3600 KVA for 15 minutes and 3000KVA for next 15 minutes over a recording cycle of 30 minutes is _________. (a) 3600 KVA (b) 3000 KVA (c) 3300 KVA (d) 600 KVA

163. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as __________.

(a) Time Curve (b) Load curve (c) Demand curve (d) Energy curve

164. The vector sum of active power and reactive power required is _________.(a) Apparent Power (b) Power Factor (c) Load Factor (d) Maximum Demand

165. Power factor is the ratio of ___________ and apparent power.(a) Active power (b) Reactive power (c) Load factor (d) Maximum demand

166. The KV Ar rating required for improving the power factor of a load operating at 500 KW and 0.85 power factor to 0.95 is _________.

(a) 145 KV Ar (b) 500 KV Ar (c) 50 KV Ar (d) 100 KV

167. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be greater then _________.(a) magnetizing KV Ar of the motor at full load(b) magnetizing KV Ar of the motor at no load(c) magnetizing KV Ar of the motor at half load(d) magnetizing KV Ar of the motor at 75% load

168. The percentage reduction in distribution loses when tail end power factor raised from 0.8 to 0.95 is ________.

(a) 29% (b) 15.8% (c) 71% (d) 84%

169. If voltage applied to a 415 V rated capacitors drops by 10%, its VAR output drops by _________ . (a) 23% (b) 87% (c) 19% (d) 10% 170. The ratio between the number of turns on the primary to the turn on the secondary of a transformer is known as:

(a) turns ratio (b) efficiency(c) winding factor (d) power factor

171. The ratio of overall maximum demand of the plant to the sum of individual maximum demand of various equipments is __________.

(a) load factor (b) diversity factor(c) demand factor (d) maximum demand

172. Core losses in transformer are caused by ________.


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(a) Hysteresis loss (b) Eddy current loss (c) both a & b (d) None

173. The load losses in transformer vary according to __________.(a) Loading of transformer (b) Square of loading of transformer(c) Cube of loading of transformer (d) None

174. The total losses in a transformer operating at 50% load with designed no load and load loss at 2 KW and 20 KW respectively are __________.

(a) 7 KW (b) 12 KW (c) 4.5 KW (d) 22 KW

175. The total amount of harmonics present in the system is expressed using __________.(a) Total Harmonic Factor (b) Total Harmonic Ratio(c) Total Harmonic Distortion (d) Crest Factor

176. The 5th and 7th harmonic in a 50 Hz power environment will have:(a) Voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz(b) Voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz(c) Voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz(d) no voltage and current distortion at all

177. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is (a) Kinetic energy (b) Electrostatic (c) Potential (d) Magnatic

178. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called(a) Kinetic energy (b) Chemical energy(c) Potential energy (d) Magnetic energy

179. Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using one of the following relations.

(a)√3 x V x I (b) √3 X V2 X I x Cosφ(c) √3 x V x I2 X Cosφ (d) √3 x V x I x Cosφ

180. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of electrical energy it would fall under ________ category. (EM/EA)

(a) low grade (b) extra ordinary grade(c) high grade (d) none of the above

181. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as(a) Apparent power (b) Active power(c) Reactive power (d) None of the above

182. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)(a) Apparent power & Active power (b) Active power & Reactive power(c) Active power & Apparent power (d) Apparent power & Reactive power


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183. KVA is also called as(a) Reactive power (b) Apparent power (c) Active power (d) Captive power

184. The energy consumed by a 50 KW motor loaded at 40 KW over a period of 4 hours is (a) 50 KWH (b) 160 KWH (c) 40 KWH (d) 2000 KWH

185. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as(a) Load factor (b) Demand factor(c) Contract demand (d) None of the above

186. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating power factor of the motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is

(a) 2.3 KW (b) 3.58 KW (c) 2.07 KW (d) 2.70 KW

187. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 0c is termed as

(a) Specific heat (b) Heat capacity (c) One Calorie (d) Sensible heat

188. Name plate KW or HP rating of a motor indicates(a) Input KW to the motor (b) Output KW of the motor(c) Minimum input KW to the motor (d) Maximum input KW to the motor

189. The quantity of heat required to change 1 Kg of the substance from liquid to vapour state without change of temperature is termed as

(a) Latent heat of fusion (b) Latent heat of vaporization(c) Heat capacity (d) Sensible heat

190. The latent heat of condensation of 1 Kg of steam at 100 0C to from water at 100 0C, it gives out the heat of

(a) 580 kCal (b) 540 kCal (c) 620 kCal (d) 2260 kCal

191. The specific heat of __________ is very high compared to other common substances listed below.

(a) Lead (b) Mercury (c) Water (d) Alcohol

192. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:(a) Decreases with decreasing temperature(b) Increases with increasing temperature(c) Decreases with increasing temperature(d) Increases with decreasing temperature

193. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon the following.

(a) Sensible heat added (b) Latent heat of fusion(c) Specific heat of the substance (d) Heat capacity


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194. Unit of specific heat in SI system is ____________.(a) joule /kg 0C (b) kg/cm2 (c) kcal/m3 (d) kcal/m2

195. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is termed as --------

(a) Condensation (b) Evaporation (c) Fusion (d) Phase change

196. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is termed as ----------

(a) Extraction (b) Cogeneration (c) Both a & b (d) Neither a nor b197. The BDV of transformer oil should be

(a) 20 Kv (b) 30 Kv(c) 40 kv (d) 50 Kv

198. The colour of moisten silica gel is(a) Pink (b) Blue(c) Yellow (d) Green

199. The material filled in breather of transformer is(a) Silica gel (b) Sulphuric acid(c) SF6 (d) Mineral oil

200. The protective device to indicate the internal fault in a transformer is(a) Thermal relay (b) Buchholz relay(c) OVR (d) EFR

201. The minimum allowable BDV for transformer oil should stand for(a) 15 sec (b) 30 sec(c) 45 sec (d) 60 sec

202. While testing transformer oil the gap between electrodes is kept at a distance of (a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 4 mm

203. Core of a transformer is made up of(a) Aluminium (b) Carbon(c) Lead (d) Silicon steel

204. Which of the following is not the function of a transformer oil(a) Cooling of primary coils(b) Cooling of secondary coils(c) Providing additional insulation(d) Providing inductive coupling

205. For a transformer, the condition for maximum efficiency is


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(a) Hysteresis loss = eddy current loss(b) Core loss = hysteresis loss(c) Copper loss = Iron loss(d) Total loss = 2/3 copper loss

206. Transformer oil shall be free from(a) Odour (b) Gases(b) Temperature (d) Moisture

207. The power factor in a transformer (a) Is always unity(b) Is always leading(c) Is always lagging(d) Depends on power factor of load

208. The short circuit test of a transformer gives(a) Copper loss at full load(b) Copper loss at half load(c) Iron loss at half load(d) Sum of iron loss and copper load

209. The open circuit test of transformer determines(a) Iron loss(b) Copper loss at full load(c) Copper loss at half load(d) Total losses

210. The type of oil, which is suitable as transformer oil is(a) Crude oil (b) Organic oil(c) Mineral oil (d) Animal oil

211. A set up transformer increase(a) Power (b) Current(c) Voltage (d) Frequency

212. Which test is conducted on all transformers in a manufacturing concern (a) Routine test (b) Type test(c) Special test (d) All above

213. The colour of fresh dielectric oil for a transformer (a) Pale yellow (b) Dark brown(c) White to grey (d) Colourless

214. The ratio of KW to KVA is known as


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(a) Voltage regulation (b) Power factor(c) Transformer ratio (d) None above

215. Core lifting of a transformer is done after a period of(a) 3 yrs (b) 4 yrs(c) 5 yrs (d) 6 yrs

216. The purpose of conservator tank in a transformer is to(a) Monitor the oil level (b) Top up the oil level(c) Both a & b above (d) None of the above

217. Transformer placed in a room enclosed from all the four sides, the minimum spacing between the walls and the transformer should be

(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.75 m(c) 1 m (d) 1.25 m

218. For indoor installation the minimum clearance between the highest point of the conservator tank to the ceiling of the transformer room should be

(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.5 m(c) 0.75 m (d) 1 m

219. At an atmospheric temperature of 45 deg C and keeping in view the working condition, the winding temperature of the transformer should not exceed

(a) 80 deg C (b) 95 deg C(c) 110 deg C (d) 130 deg C

220. Which of the following does not change in a transformer?(a) Current (b) Voltage(c) Frequency (d) All of the above

221. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary(a)Through cooling coil (b) Through air(c) By the flux (d) None of the above

222. A transformer core is laminated to(a) Reduce hysteresis loss (b) Reduce eddy current losses(c) Reduce copper losses (d) Reduce all above losses

223. The path a magnetic flux in a transformer should have(a) High resistance (b) High reluctance(c) Low resistance (d) Low reluctance

224. No-load test on a transformer is carried out to determine(a) Copper loss (b) Magnetizing current(c) Magnetizing current and loss (d) Efficiency of the transformer

225. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be


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(a) 1 KV (b) 33 KV(c) 100 KV (d) 330 KV

226. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when (a) Copper losses = hysteresis losses (b) Hysteresis losses = eddy current losses

(c) Eddy current losses = copper losses (d) Copper losses = iron losses

227. No-load current in a transformer (a) Lags behind the voltage by about 750 (b) Leads the voltage by about 750

(c) Lags behind the voltage by about 150 (d) Leads the voltage by about 150

228. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to(a) Provide support to winding (b) Reduce hysteresis loss(c) Decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path (d) Reduce eddy current losses

229. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?(a) Conservator (b) Breather(c) Buchholz (d) Exciter

230. While conducting short – circuit test on a transformer the following side is short- circuited

(a) High voltage side (b) Low voltage side(c) Primary side (d) Secondary side

231. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-section area(a) Low voltage winding (b) High voltage winding(c) Primary winding (d) Secondary winding

232. A transformer transforms(a) Voltage (b) Current(c) Power (d) Frequency

233. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of D.C. supply because(a) There is no need to change the D.C. voltage (b) A D.C. circuit has more losses(c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic (d) None of the above Induction are not valid since the rate

Of change of flux is zero

234. Primary winding of a transformer(a) Is always a low voltage winding (b) Is always a high voltage winding(c) Could either be a low or high voltage winding (d) None of the above

235. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns?(a) Low voltage winding (b) High voltage winding(c) Primary winding (d) Secondary winding

236. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of


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(a) 100 percent (b) 98 percent(c) 50 percent (d) 25 percent

237. A common method of cooling a power transformer is(a) Natural air cooling (b) Air blast cooling(c) Oil cooling (d) Any of the above

238. In a transformer routing efficiency depends upon (a) Supply frequency (b) Load current(c) Power factor of load (d) Both (b) and (c)

239. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is(a) At no load (b) At 50% full load (c) At 80% full load (d) At full load

240. Transformer breaths in when(a) Load on it increases (b) Load on it decreases(c) Load remains constant (d) None of the above

241. No-load current of a transformer has(a) Has high magnitude and low power factor

(b) Has high magnitude and high power factor(c) Has small magnitude and high power factor

(d) Has small magnitude and low power factor

242. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils(a) To provide free passage to the cooling oil(b) To insulate the coils from each other(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of the above

243. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on(a) Primary side (b) Secondary side(c) Low voltage side (d) High voltage side

244. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of (a) Ionizing air (b) Absorbing moisture(c) Cleaning the transformer oil (d) Cooling the transformer oil

245. The chemical used in breather is(a) Asbestos fibre (b) Silica sand

(c) Sodium chloride (d) Silica gel

246. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of(a) Volts (b) Amperes(c) Kw (d) Kva


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247. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually(a) Wood (b) Copper(c) Aluminium (d) Silicon steel

248. The thickness of lamination used in a transformer is usually(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm (b) 4 mm to 5 mm(c) 14 mm to 15 mm (d) 25 mm to 40 mm

249. The function of conservator in a transformer is(a) To protect against internal fault(b) To reduce copper as well as core losses(d) To cool the transformer oil(d) To take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation

of Temperature of surroundings

250. A Buchholz relay can be installed on (a) Auto-transformers (b) Air-cooled transformers(c) Welding transformers (d) Oil cooled transformers

251. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against(a) Electrical fault inside the transformer itself(b) Electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder(c) For both outside and inside faults(d) None of the above

252. The transformer lamination are insulated from each other by(a) Mica strip (b) Thin coat of varnish(c) Paper (d) Any of the above

253. During open circuit test of a transformer(a) Primary is supplied rated voltage (b) Primary is supplied full-load current(c) Primary is supplied current at reduced voltage (d) Primary is supplied rated Kva

254. Open circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine(a) Hysteresis losses (b) Copper losses(c) Core losses (d) Eddy current losses

255. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine(a) Hysteresis losses (b) Copper losses(c) Core losses (d) Eddy current losse

256. The function of breather in a transformer is(a) To provide oxygen inside reduced load

(b) To cool the coils during reduced load(c) To cool the transformer oil outside air

(d) To arrest flow of moisture when enters the transformer


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257. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed?(a) Step-up transformer (b) Step-down transformer(c) Potential transformer (d) Current transformer

258. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at(a) 0.8 leading power factor (b) 0.8 lagging power factor(c) Zero power factor (d) Unit power factor

259. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution transformer?

(a) Over-fluxing protection (b) Buchholz relay(c) Over-current protection (d) All of the above

260. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and switching?

(a) Horn gaps (b) Thermal overload relays(c) Breather (d) Conservator

261. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from outside?(a) Bushings (b) Core(c) Primary winding (d) Secondary winding

262. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as(a) zoom (b) hum(c) Ringing (d) buzz

263. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load?(a) core loss (b) friction loss(c) eddy current loss (d) hysteresis loss

264. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in (a) core (b) windings(c) Tank (d) any of the above

265. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure(a) Insulation Resistance (b) Copper loss(c) Core loss (d) Total loss

266. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine(a) Core loss (b) Copper loss(c)Efficiency (d) Magnetising current and loss

267. The code of practice for earthing is governed by(a) IS:3043 (b) IS: 4340 (c) IS: 4340 (d) IS: 4430

268. The length of pipe electrode used for earthing should not be les then


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(a) 3.5 m (b) 4m (c) 4.5 m (d) 5 m

269. As per IS, the earthing electrode shall not be within a distance of ____________ mtrs from any building being earthed.

(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m

270. Maximum permissible earth resistance at large power station is(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 0hms

271. Maximum permissible earth resistance at major power station is(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 0hms

272. Maximum permissible earth resistance at small power station is(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 0hms

273. Maximum permissible earth resistance for building is(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 0hms

274. Earth continuity inside an installation i.e. from plate earth to any point in installation should be

(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 1 ohm (c) 2 ohms (d) 8 0hms

275. The plate electrode of copper used for earthing should be with minimum size of (a) 50cm x 50cm x 3.15mm (b) 50cm x 50cm x 6.3mm(c) 60cm x 60cm x 3.15mm (d) 60cm x 60cm x 6.3mm

276. The plate electrode of GI or steel used for earthing should be with minimum size of(a) 50cm x 50cm x 3.15mm (b) 50cm x 50cm x 6.3mm(c) 60cm x 60cm x 3.15mm (d) 60cm x 60cm x 6.3mm

277. In pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for GI pipe should be(a) 30 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 50 mm (d) 60 mm

278. In pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for cast iron pipe should be (a) 80 mm (b) 90 mm (c) 100 mm (d) 60 mm

279. Copper strip electrodes used for earthing should not be less then(a) 22.5 mm x 1.60 mm (b) 20 mm x 2.5 mm(c) 25 x 1.60 mm (d) 25 x 2.5 mm

280. GI or Steel strip electrodes used for earthing should not be less then(a) 25 mm x 4 mm (b) 20 mm x 3 mm(c) 25 mm x 3 mm (d) 20 mm x 4 mm

281. Earthing arrangement for HT installations, substations and generating station should be inspected at an interval of

(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months


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282. Earthing arrangement for low voltage installations such as service buildings, public buildings should be inspected at an interval of


283. Earthing arrangement for residential building should be inspected at an interval of (a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months

284. Earthing arrangement for medium voltage installation should be inspected at an interval of


285. The illumination level at A class station should be(a) 20 lux (b) 30 lux (c) 40 lux (d) 50 lux

286. The illumination level at B class station should be(a) 20 lux (b) 30 lux (c) 40 lux (d) 50 lux

287. The illumination level at C class station should be(a) 20 lux (b) 30 lux (c) 40 lux (d) 50 lux

288. Recommended no. of light points in type I (DR) quarter is(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

289. Recommended no. of light points in type II quarter is(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

290. Recommended no. of light points in type III quarter is(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

291. Recommended no. of light points in type IV quarter is(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11

292. Recommended no. of light points in type IV spl. Quarter is(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14

293. Recommended no. of fan points in type I quarter is(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

294. Recommended no. of fan points in type II quarter is(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

295. Recommended no. of fan points in type III quarter is(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

296. Recommended no. of fan points in type IV quarter is


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(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

297. Recommended no. of fan points in type IV spl. quarter is(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

298. Recommended connected load for type I (DR) quarter is(a) 1.36 Kw (b) 3.48 kw (c) 4.17 kw (d) 6.85 kw

299. Recommended connected load for type II quarter is(a) 1.36 Kw (b) 3.48 kw (c) 4.17 kw (d) 6.85 kw

300. Recommended connected load for type III quarter is(a) 1.36 Kw (b) 3.48 kw (c) 4.17 kw (d) 6.85 kw

301. Recommended connected load for type IV quarter is(a) 1.36 Kw (b) 3.48 kw (c) 4.17 kw (d) 6.85 kw

302. Recommended connected load for type IV spl. quarter is(a) 4.17 kW (b) 6. 85Kw (c) 8.6 Kw (d) 11.85 Kw

303. Recommended connected load for type V quarter is(a) 4.17 kW (b) 6. 85Kw (c) 8.6 Kw (d) 11.85 Kw

304. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is(a) 10 lumens/ watt (b) 20 lumens/ watt(c) 40 lumens/ watt (d) 60 lumens/ watt

305. Candela is the unit of which of the following?(a) wavelength (b) luminous intensity(c) luminous flux (d) frequency

306. Colour of light depends upon(a) frequency (b) wave length(c) both a & b (d) speed of light

307. Illumination of once lumen per sq. meter is called .........(a) lumen meter (b) lux(c) foot candle (d) candela

308. The unit of luminous flux is ........(a) watt/ m2 (b)lumen(c) lumen/ m2 (d) watt

309. Filament lamps operate normally at a power factor of(a) 0.5 lagging (b) 0.8 lagging(c) unity (c) 0.8 lagging

310. What percentage of the input energy is radiated by filament lamps?


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(a) 2 to 5 percent (b) 10 to 15 percent(c) 25 30 percent (d) 40 to 50 percent

311. The filament of a GLS lamp is made of(a) tungsten (b) copper(c) carbon (d) aluminium

312. Which of the following lamps is the cheapest for the same wattage?(a) Fluorescent tube (b) mercury vapour lamps

(c) GLS lamp (d) sodium vapour lamp

313. Which of the following is not the standard rating of GLS lamps?(a) 100 W (b) 75 W(c) 40 W (d) 15 W

314. The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamp is(a) red (b) pink(c) yellow (d) bluish green

315. A reflector is provided to(a) protect the lamp (b) provide better illumination(c) avoid glare (d) do all of the above

316. The purpose of coating the fluorescent tube from inside with white power is(a) to improve its life

(b) to improve the appearance(c) to change the colour of light emitted to white

(d) to increase the light radiation due Secondary emission.

317. In the fluorescent tube circuit the function of choke is primarily to(a) reduce the flicker (b) minimize the starting surge(c) initiate the arc and stabilize it (d) reduce the starting current

318. The function of capacitor across the supply to the fluorescent tube is primary to(a) stabilize the arc (b) reduce the starting current(c) improve the supply power factor (d) reduce the noise

319. Most affected parameter of a filament lamp due to voltage change is(a) wattage (b) life(c) luminous efficiency (d) light output

320. In electric discharge lamps for stabilizing the arc (a) a reactive choke is connected in in series

(b) a condenser is connected in Series with the supply(c) A condenser is connected in parallel to the supply(d) a variable resistor is connected in series to the supply

321. For precision work the illumination level required is of the order of


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(a) 500 – 1000 lumens/m2 (b) 200 – 400 lumens/m2

(c) 50 – 100 lumens/ m2 (d) 10 – 25 lumens/m2

322. For normal reading the illumination level required is around(a) 20 – 40 lumens/ m2 (b) 60 – 100 lumens/ m2

(c) 200 – 300 lumens/ m2 (d) 400 – 500 lumens/ m2

323. In electric discharge lamps light is produced by(a) cathode ray emission (b) ionization in a gas or vapour(c) heating effect of current (d) magnetic effect of current

324. A substance which change its electrical resistance when illuminated by light is called.....(a) photoelectric (b) photovoltaic(c) photoconductive (d) none of the above

325. In case of .... power factor is the highest.(a) GLS lamps (b) mercury arc lamps(c) tube lights (d) sodium vapour lamps

326. A mercury vapour lamp gives .... light.(a) white (b) pink(c) yellow (d) greenish blue

327. Sometimes the wheels of rotating machinery, under the influence of fluorescent lamps appear to be stationary. This is due to the

(a) low power factor (b) stroboscopic effect(c) fluctuations (d) luminescence effect

328. The flicker effect of fluorescent lamps is more pronounced at(a) lower frequencies (b) higher frequencies(c) lower voltages (d) higher voltages

329. Which gas can be filled in GLS lamp?(a) oxygen (b) carbon di-oxide(c) xenon (d) any inert gas

330. The gas filled in vacuum filament lamps is(a) nitrogen (b) argon(c) air (d) none

331. The vapour discharge tube use for domestic lighting has(a) no filament (b) one filament (c) two filament (d) three filament


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332. Stroboscopic effect due to use of discharge lamps in workshop results in moving machinery appearing

(a) stationary (b) stationary running slow(c) stationary running in reverse direction (d) all of the above

333. Glare is reduced by(a) using diffusers (b) increasing the height of the lamp(c) using reflectors to cut-off the light at certain angle (d) all of the above

334. Which of the following is present inside the fluorescent tube?(a) argon and neon (b) argon and CO2

(c) mercury vapour (d) helium and oxygen

335. When an electric bulb is broken it produces bang; this is due to(a) vacuum inside the bulb (b) pressure of air in the bulb(c) pressure inside is equal to that outside (d) none of the above

336. The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 11 Kv to 66 Kv overhead lines crossing (including guard wire) the railway track should be

(a) 14.1 m (b) 14.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m

337. The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 66 Kv to 132 Kv overhead lines crossing the railway track should be

(a) 14.1 m (b) 14.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m

338. The minimum dept of underground cable track crossing (through) pipe should be(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m

339. The Electrical Inspector at zonal railway is(a) CEE (b) Dy. CEE (c) DRM (Elect.) (d) CESE.

340. The regulations for electrical line crossing on railway track is not applicable to(a) Crossing of railway track laid underground/ inside tube and tunnels(b) 1500 V DC traction system(c) 25 Kv, 50Hz traction systems(d) All of the above

341. In special cases the reduction in specified clearance of electrical crossing on railway track can be permitted by

(a) Electrical Inspector (b) Astt. Electrical Inspector(c) DRM (d) ADRM

342. In view of electrical lines crossing on railway track the materials used should comply with Indian Standards specifications but where these are not available, which of the following should be followed

(a) British standard specifications(b) US standard specifications


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(C) Russian standard specifications(d) France standard specifications

343. Electrical crossing on railway track should be inspected by owner at a interval not exceeding


344. If at instance of railways any electrical crossing on railway track is to be shifted or modified the cost will be borne by ___________ ( shifting not foreseen at the time of agreement)

(a) Owner (b) Railways (c) Both (d) Either a or b

345. In case of defects and failures in electrical crossing on railway tracks, owner has ro sent a Detailed report to all the authorities mentioned in the regulations, with in ___________ hrs of the first report

(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 48(b)

346. Angle of overhead electrical line crossing to railway track shall be(a) Right angle (b) Acute angle

(c) Obtuse angle (d) Angle does not matter

347. In special cases the maximum permitted deviation in angle of OH electrical line crossing to railway track shall be

(a) 10 deg (b) 20 deg (c) 30 deg (d) 45 deg

348. The minimum distance of structures (for electrical line crossing) from the centre of Nearest railway track shall equal to the height of the structure in meters plus

(a) 3 m (b) 6 m (c) 9 m (d) 12 m

349. The span of the OH electrical line crossing the railway track is restricted to(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 300 m (d) 400 m

350. The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 132kV to 220kV overhead lines crossing (including guard wire) the railway track should be

(a) 14.1 m (b) 14.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m

351. The minimum height above rail level of the lowest portion of any conductor of 220kV to 400kV overhead lines crossing (including guard wire) the railway track should be

(a) 14.1 m (b) 4.6 m (c) 15.4 m (d) 17.9 m

352. In special circumstances if the railway crane has to work under the under the overhead electrical line crossing, the minimum clearance between the highest point of the jib and the Lowest conductor of the 33Kv lines should be (a)1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m


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353. In special circumstances if the railway crane has to work under the under the overhead electrical line crossing, the minimum clearance between the highest point of the jib and the Lowest conductor of the 66Kv lines should be

(a)1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m


(a)1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m


(a)1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.25 m (d) 2.5 m


(a) 2.25 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 3.5 m (d) 6.0 m

357. In special circumstances if the railway crane has to work under the under the overhead electrical line crossing, the minimum clearance between the highest point of the jib

and the Lowest conductor of the 400Kv lines should be

(a) 2.25 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 3.5 m (d) 6.0 m

358. In section where tracks are not to be electrified in future, lines upto 11kV overhead crossing are permitted with clearance between lowest conductor of the line and railway track

(a) 9 m (b) 10.95 m (c) 11.05 m (d) 12.1 m

359. The factor of safety of each string of insulator used for overhead electrical crossing on railway track should not be less then

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

360. The minimum height between any guard wire and a live conductor of electrical crossing on railway track shall not be less then

(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m

361. Each structure on either side of the railway track, supporting the span of overhead electrical line crossing should be provided with ______ no. of independent earths

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

362. The maximum permissible earth resistance on either side of the electrical overhead line


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crossing (on railway track) is(a) 5 ohm (b) 8 ohm (c) 10 ohm (d) 12 ohm

363. The owner of the overhead electric line crossing on railway tracks, is required to inspect and test the earth on hot dry day at an interval of


364. Which of the following should be display on the marker at each end of the underground cable crossing on railway track

(a) No. of cables (b) Size of cable(c) Make of cables (d) All of the above

365. Which of the following data is to be provided by the owner, while proposing for ovedhead electrical line crossing on railway track

(a) Temperature data provided(b) Name of supervisor from owner’s side(c) Life of crossing(d) None of the above

366. The final authority to grant the approval for proposed electrical line crossing on railway track

(a) Electrical Inspector (b) DRM (c) DRM (Elect.) (d) ADRM

367. The maximum variation allowed in voltage of LV & MV AC supply is(a)± 2% (b) ± 3% (c) ± 4% (d) ± 5%

368. The maximum variation allowed in voltage of HV & EHV AC supply is(a) ± 8.5% (b) ± 10.5% (c) ± 12.5% (d) ± 14.5%

369. The maximum variation allowed in frequency of AC supply is(a)± 2% (b) ± 3% (c) ± 4% (d) ± 5%

370. Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the street) from the ground for LT and MT lines should be

(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.

371. Clearance of the lowest conductor (across the street) from the ground for HT lines should be

(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.

372. Clearance of the lowest conductor (along the street) from the ground for LT and MT lines

(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.

373. Clearance of the lowest conductor (along the street) from the ground for HT lines


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should be(a) 17 ft. (b) 18 ft. (c) 19 ft. (d) 20 ft.

374. Clearance of the lowest conductor vertical above the building for LT and MT lines should be

(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.

375. Clearance of the lowest conductor vertical above the building for HT lines should be(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.

376. Clearance of the conductor Horizontal from the building for LT and MT lines should be(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.

377. Clearance of the conductor Horizontal from the building for HT lines should be(a) 4 ft. (b) 6 ft. (c) 8 ft. (d) 12 ft.

378. The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150 ft. Span lines should be

(a) 1’3’’ (b) 1’6’’ (c) 2’ (d) 2’6’’

379. The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft. Span lines should be

(a) 1’3’’ (b) 1’6’’ (c) 2’ (d) 2’6’’

380. The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 11Kv lines should be(a) 1’3’’ (b) 1’6’’ (c) 2’ (d) 2’6’’

381. The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150 ft. Span lines should Be

(a) 1’3’’ (b) 1’6’’ (c) 2’ (d) 2’6’’

382. The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft. Span lines should be

(a) 1’3’’ (b) 1’6’’ (c) 2’ (d) 2’6’’

383. The on line horizontal spacing between the conductors for 11Kv lines should be(a) 1’3’’ (b) 1’6’’ (c) 2’6’’ (d) 3’9’’

384. The clearance between the conductor and pole for 400/230 V, 150 ft span lines, should be

(a) 6’’ (b) 9’’ (c) 12’’ (d) 1’3’’

385. The clearance between the conductor and pole for 400/230 V, 150-250 ft span lines, should be


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(a) 6’’ (b) 9’’ (c) 12’’ (d) 1’3’’

386. The clearance between the conductor and pole for 11Kv lines, should be(a) 6’’ (b) 9’’ (c) 12’’ (d) 1’3’’

387. Provision of rebate by state electricity authority is applicable if the power factor is kept above

(a) 0.9 (b) 0.92 (c) 0.95 (d) 0.98

388. Penalty is imposed by state electricity authority if the power factor is below(a) 0.9 (b) 0.92 (c) 0.95 (d) 0.98

389. Electric energy charges from the railway employees residing in railway colonies are at(a) Flat rate (c) Average consumption (b) Fixed rate (d) The rate that of local supply authority

390. Electric energy charges from the staff/ teachers of Kendriya Vidhyalaya residing in railway colonies is at

(a) Flat rate (c) Average consumption(b) Fixed rate (d) The rate applicable to railway employees

391. Electric energy charges from the social welfare organizations such as railway institute, community halls, clubs, etc. Is at

(a) Flat rate(b) Fixed rate(c) Average consumption(d) The rate applicable to railway employee subject to maximum limit of consumption.

392. Electric energy charges from the religious buildings (electric supply fed by railway) such as temples. Mosque etc is at

(a) Flat rate(b) Fixed rate(c) Average consumption(d) The rate that of local supply authority

393. Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation of air conditioned accommodation on railway rest house is Rs.

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

394. Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation of air conditioned accommodation on railway rest house is prescribed room rent plus Rs.

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

395. Per day charges from officers on duty (entitled to 1st class AC travel) for occupation of air conditioned accommodation on railway rest house during winter season in Rs.


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(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) No charges

396. The firms dealing with coin operated person weighing machines has to deposit security money equivalent to

(a) One month electric charges(b) Two month electric charges(c) Three month electric charges(d) No charges

397. The private parties applying for electric connection from railways has to deposit security money equivalent to

(a) One month electric charges(b) Two month electric charges(c) Three month electric charges(d) No charges

398. A per Railway Board recommendations, following are to be connected with DG set supply

(a) Vacuum testing plants(b) Water coolers on platforms(c) Hospital with operation theatre(d) All of the above

399. As per Railway Board recommendations, the stations/ halts should be electrified, where the electric supply is available within

(a) 1 km (b) 1.5 km (c) 2 km (d) 2.5 km

400. The porters rest centres are treated as(a) Service building (b) Private building(c) Passenger amenity (d) None of the above

401. As per Indian Electricity Act, penalty against unauthorised electricity connection is (a) Imprisonment up to 3 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1000/-(b) Imprisonment up to 2 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1000/-(c) Imprisonment up to 3 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1500/-(d) Imprisonment up to 2 yrs and fine up to Rs. 1500/-

402. Number of geysers that can be provided in officer’s flat (on special request)(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

403. Number of geysers that can be provided in the GM’s bungalow is(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

404. The railway stations at zonal headquarters and state capitals are classified as of category

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D


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405. The railway stations at divisional headquarters and district headquarters are classified as of category

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

406. As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category A and B station are

(a) 1 x 36 W FL tube (b) 2 x 36 W HPSV(c) 1 x 70 W HPSV (d) 2 x 36 W HPSV

407. As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category C station are

(a) 1 x 36 W FL tube (b) 2 x 36 W HPSV(c) 1 x 70 W HPSV (d) 2 x 36 W HPSV

408. As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings for ASM office, SM office, enquiry and PRS on category A and B station are

(a) 2 x 36 W mirror optic FL tube (b) 4 x 36 W mirror optic FL tube(c) 2 x 36 W box type FL tube (d) 4 x 36 W box type FL tube

409. As per Railway Board recommendations, the light fittings in station approach and car parks are

(a) 1x 70 W HPSV (b) 2 x 70 W HPSV(c) 1x 40 W Box type (d) 2 x 40 W Box type

410. As per Railway Board recommendations, on platform having width of 9-6 m, fannage should be provide in

(a) 1 rows (b) 2 rows (c) 3 rows (d) 4 rows

411. As per Railway Board recommendations, on platform having width more then 9 m, fannage should be provide in

(a) 1 rows (b) 2 rows (c) 3 rows (d) 4 rows

412. As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fan provided on platforms should be

(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm

413. As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fan provided in offices, waiting hall etc. Should be

(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm

414. As per Railway Board recommendations, the sweep of fan provided in retiring rooms on each bed should be

(a) 800 mm (b) 1200 mm (c) 1500 mm (d) 1800 mm


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415. At stations where neither electrical supervisor nor engineering supervisor is headquartered, the upkeep of pumps in water supply system in under

(a) S & T supervisor (b) Station Master (c) Gangma (d) Pointsman

416. State Electricity Board charges Electricity Duty against selling electricity to railways amounting Rs.

(a) 10,000/- (b) 50,000/- (c) 75,000/- (d) No charges

417. Railway Board has recommended that locations where HPSV lamps affect the colour light signalling should be replaced by

(a) Mercury Vapour Lamps(b) FL tube fittings(c) Any of A & B(d) No such recommendation has been made

418. The maintenance of water coolers donated by private parties is to be done by (a) The donating party(b) Railways(c) On contract(d) Any of the above

419. The electrical energy consumption on water coolers donated by private parties are to be borne by

(a) The donating party(b) Railways(c) SEB(d) Through collection from public

420. The Railway Board has recommended to provide water coolers at station with Passengers (inward & outward) per day

(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500 (d) 2000

421. One HP =(A) 756 watts (b) 746 watts (c) 860 watts (d) 856 watts

422. Torque in ft. Lbs. =(a) HP x 33000 / (RPM x 2) (b) HP x 2 / (RPM x 33000)(c) HP x RPM / (2 x 33000) (d) RPM x 2 / (HP x 33000)

423. Current =(a) Watts/Volts (b) Volts/ Watts(c) Kilowatt/Volts (d) Kilovolt/watt

424. Motor output in HP =(A) KW input x efficiency/0.746 (b) KW input x 0.746/ efficiency(c) Efficiency x 0.746/KW input (d) 0.746/(KW input x efficiency)


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425. Kva equal to(a) 1000 x Amps/ volts (b) volts x Amps x 1000(c) Volts x 1000/Amps (d) Amps x volt/1000

426. Power factor =(a) True Power/Apparent power (b) Apparent power/ True Power(c) Average power/ True Power (d) Apparent power/ Average power

427. True power in three-phase circuit in Kilowatt is(a) 1.414 x volts x amperes x pf/1000 (b) 1.73 x volts x amperes x pf/1000(c) Volts x Amperes x pf/1000 (d) Volts x Amperes x 1000/pf

428. Amperes drawn by single-phase motor are equal to(a) Efficiency x Volt x pf / (HP X 746) (b) Efficiency x pf/(volt x HP x 746)(c) HP x 746 / (Efficiency x volts x pf) (d) HP x 746 x volts/(Efficiency x pf)

429. Amperes drawn by three phase motor are equal to (a) Efficiency x Volt x pf / (HP X 746) (b) Efficiency x pf/(volt x HP x 746)(c) HP x 746 / (Efficiency x volts x pf x 1.73) (d) HP x 746 x volts/(Efficiency x pf)

430. One Kilowatt =(a) 1.314 HP (b) 13. 41 HP (c) 134.1 HP (d) 1341 HP

431. One Kilowatt =(a) 1360 Metric HP (b) 136 Metric HP (c) 13.60 Metric HP (d) 1.360 Metric HP

432. One Kwh =(a) 34.13 BTU (b) 44.13 BTU(c) 3.413 BTU (d) 4.413 BTU

433. One Kwh =

(a) 1000 calories (b) 860 calories (c) 740 calories (d) 970 calories

434. One BTU =(a) 0.2520 calories (b) 2.520 calories (c) 25.20 calories (d) 252.0 calories

435. One Calorie =(a) 39.68 BTU (b) 4.968 BTU (c) 49.68 BTU (d) 3.968 BTU

436. One foot pound =(a) 0.1383 M Kg (b) 1.383 M Kg (c) 13.83 M Kg (d) 138.3 M Kg

437. One BTU =(a) 0.1076 M Kg (b) 1.076 M Kg (c) 10.76 M Kg (d) 107.6 M Kg

438. One Kilowatt =


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(a) 202 M Kg/sec (b) 102 M Kg/sec (c) 20.2 M Kg/sec (d) 10.2 M Kg/sec

439. One Electrical Unit =(a) 1 KWH (b) 1 KW (c) 1 Kva (d) Watt

440. Power factor =(a) R/Z (b) Z/R (c) V/I (d) I/V

441. The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core, armoured aluminium cable of size 120 sq mm (laid direct in ground) is approximately

(a) 80 amps (b) 185 amps (d) 290 amps (d) 320 amps

442. The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core, armoured aluminium cable of size 70 sq mm (laid in duct) is approximately

(a) 115 amps (b) 210 amps (c) 290 amps (d) 350 amps

443. The current rating of PVC insulated and PVC sheathed four core, armoured aluminium cable of size 50 sq mm (laid in air) is approximately





(a) 55 amps (b) 76 amps (c) 90 amps (d) amps

446. If a DG set fails to start, the probable cause may be(a) Dirty clogged air cleaner (b) Fuel tank empty(c) Nozzle niddle jammed (d) All of the above

447. If a DG set start but stop after some time, the probable cause may be(a) Air in fuel (b) Fuel line choke(c) Fuel filter choked (d) All of the above

448. If a DG set is not gaining full speed, the probable cause may be(a) Fuel tank empty (b) Governor spring broken(c) Fuel filter dirty (d) All of the above

449. If a DG set misses during operation, the probable cause may be(a) Air line fuel line (b) Nozzle damaged(c) Water mixed with fuel (d) All of the above


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450. If a DG set lacks power, the probable cause may be(a) Pump may inject insufficient quantity of fuel (b) Choked fuel injection hole(c) Faulty fuel pump (d) All of the above

451. If a DG set excessive smoke at no load, the probable cause may be(a) Dirty clogged air cleaner (b) Choked fuel injection hole(c) Faulty fuel pump (d)All of the above

452. If a DG set excessive smoke at full load, the probable cause may be(a) One or ; more cylinder not working (b) Poor quality of oil(c) Nozzle jammed (d) All of the above

453. If a DG set gives out blue smoke, the probable cause may be(a) Worn out liner on piston (b) Wrong graded lubricating oil(c) Engine used after a long time (d) All of the above

454. If a DG set gives white smoke, the probable cause may be(a) Water mixed with fuel (b) Engine used after a long time(c) Worn out liner piston (d) All of the above

455. If a DG set overheats, the probable cause may be(a) High exhaust back pressure (b) Engine overloaded(c) Damaged main or connecting bearing (d) All of the above

456. If a DG set consumes excessive fuel, the probable cause may be(a) Injector adjustment disturbed (b) External / internal fuel leakage(c) Incorrect value of fuel timing (d) All of the above

457. If the alternator of DG set is overheats, the probable cause may be(a) Improper ventilation (b) Misalignment(c) Overloading of machine (d) All of the above

458. If the armature of DG set overheats, the probable cause may be(a) Over loading (b) Internal short circuit (c) Both a & b (d) None of the above

459. The maximum rated speed for 125kVA Cummins make DG set is(a) 1500 rpm (b) 1800 rpm (c) 2100 rpm (d) 2500 rpm

460. The oil temperature gauge of DG set should normally read between(a) 82-11 deg. C (b) 90-125 deg. C (c) 100-149 deg. C (d) 122-148 deg. C

461. During warming up, the load should be applied gradually on a DG set until the oil(a) 40 deg C (b) 60 deg C (c) 80 deg C (d) 100 deg C

462. The water temperature of DG set in operation should normally range between


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(a) 60-80 deg. C (b) 74-91 deg. C (c) 88-98 deg. C (d) 95-110 deg. C

463. The pH value of the coolant in the radiator of a DG set should be maintained between(a) 6.5 to 8.5 (b) 8.5 to 10.5 (c) 10.5 to 12.5 (d) 12.5 to 14.544

464. The diesel engine should not be operated if the pH value in the radiator is less then(a) 6.5 (b) 8.5 (c) 10.5 (d) 12.5

465. Primary filters in the fuel system of the DG set should be cleaned at every(a) 150 hrs (b) 200 hrs (c) 250 hrs (d) 300 hrs

466. Primary filters in the fuel system of the DG set should be replaced at every(a) 500 hrs (b) 800 hrs (c) 1000 hrs (d) 1500 hrs

467. The secondary fuel filter of a DG set should be replaced when the fuel pressure gauge is below

(a) 10 .psi (b) psi (c) 15 psi (d) 20 psi468. The exciter in a DG set is

(a) Shunt motor (b) Compound generator (c) Either of a & b (d) None of the above

469. If pump delivers no liquid, then probable cause is(a) Lack of prime (b) Gas or air in liquid(c) Bent shaft (d) Moisture in lubricating oil

470. If pump discharge pressure is low, then probable cause is(a) Lack of prime (b) Gas or air in liquid(c) Bent shaft (d) Moisture in lubricating oil

471. If there is excessive vibration in pump, then probable cause is(a) Lack of prime (b) Gas or air in liquid(c) Bent shaft (d) Moisture in lubricating oil

472. If the bearing of pump overheats, then probable cause is(a) Lack of prime (b) Gas or air in liquid(c) Bent shaft (d) Moisture in lubricating oil

473. If pump overloads the driver, then probable cause is(a) Packing too tight (b) Suction line not filled with liquid(c) Gas or liquid in air (d) None of the above

474. Which of the following is not a criteria of pump selection(a) Type of duty required (b) Details of head(c) Duration of availability (d) The look of pump


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475. HS Pump works with suction head.(a) 15-20 feet head (b) 21-40 feet head(c) 41-80 feet head (d) None of the above

476. VS Pump works with total head(a) Upto 46 mtrs. Head (b) 46-70 mtrs. Head(c) 70-100 mtrs. Head (d) None of the above

477. Motor of the VS pump is located(a) Above the ground level (b) Below the ground level(c) Deep in bore (d) None of the above

478. Line shaft of the VS pump is lubricated(a) Spindle oil (b) Diesel oil (c) Lub oil SAE-40/30 (d) none of the above

479. Priming is required for(a) HS Pump (b) VS Pump (c) Submersible pump

480. RPM of submersible pump set is(a) 440 (b) 1440 (c) 380 (d) 2800

481. Which pump is most suitable for deep & titled bore(a) HS Pump (b) VS Pump (c) Submersible(d) Jet Pump (e) All of above

482. Redevelopment of bore is done(a) For smooth operation of pump (b) For taking good yield for bore(c) To maintain long life of bore (d) To avoid the frequent failure of the pump

483. Cap. Of pump set is selected on the ground of(a) Yield, Static-water-level, Working – Water – level (b) Location of bore(c) Type of starter provided (d) Quantity of water to be used

484. Pump fails mostly due to(a) Less working (b) Excessive working (c) Incorrect operation(d) Failure of pump

485. Pump set motor burns due to(a)Single phasing (b) Reverse phasing(c) Overloading for a shorter period (d) Non of above

486. For a 10 HP pump set which type of starter is suitable(a) DOL (b) Start Delta (c) Auto Transformer (d) None of the above

487. A 5 HP pump set draws current on full load


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(a) 5 A (b) 10 A (c) 7.5 A (d) 6 A

488. Ammeter is provided in control panel of pump set to measure the(a) Voltage (b) Frequency (c) Power factor (d) Current

489. No. of contractors provided in star – delta starter(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

490. Pump Guard functions to protect the submersible pump set against(a) Single phase (b) Reverse Phasing (c) Over loading (d) Dry running

491. Automation of pump set done to(a) To limit the working of pumps (b) To avoid the working of water(c) To save the electrical energy (d) To reduce the man power

492. Centralized control of pumps means(a) Operation of pump from individual pump houses(b) Operation of pump from a single location(c) None of the above

(d) All of the above

493. The insulating material for a cable should have(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above

494. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury(a) bedding (b) sheath(c) armouring (d) none of the above

495. Which of the following insulation is used in cables?(a) Varnished cambric (b) rubber(c) paper (d) any of the above

496. Empire tape is(a) varnished cambric (b) vulcanized rubber(c) impregnated paper (d) none of the above

497. The thickness of the layer on insulation on the conductor, in cables, depend upon(a) bedding (b) sheath(c) armouring (d) none of the above

498. The bedding on a cable consists of(a) Hessian cloth (b) jute(c) any of the above (d) none of the above


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499. The insulating material for cables should(a) be acid proof (b) be non-inflammable(c) be non-hygroscopic (d) have all above properties

500. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath.......... is provided(a) earthing connection (b) bedding(c) armouring (d) none of the above

501. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is(a) blue (b) black(c) brown (d) none of the above

502. Low tension cables are generally used upto(a) 200 V (b) 500 V(c) 700 V (d) 1000 V

503. PVC stands for(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor(c) pressed and varnished cloth (d) positive voltage conductor

504. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing(a) the resistance of the conductor (b) the inductance of conductors(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors (d) all above parameters

505. The material for armouring on cable is usually(a) steel tape (b) galvanized steel wire(c) any of the above (d) none of the above

506. In the cables, sheaths are used to(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable (b) provide enough strength(c) provide proper insulation (d) none of the above

507. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

(a) to minimize temperature stresses

(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil

(c)to minimize the effect of shocks and reasons vibration due to passing vehicles, etc

(d) None of the above

508. The advantage of cable over overhead transmission lines is(a) easy maintenance (b) low cost(c) can be used in congested area (d) can be used in high voltage circuit


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509. The insulating material should have(a) low permittivity (b) high resistivity(c) high dielectric strength (d) all of the above

510. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is(a) it is hygroscopic (B) it has high capacitance(c) it is an organic material (d) none of the above

511. First step to be carried out before starting work starting work on portion of overhead line is to

(a) Earthing the line on both the ends of the position(b) Obtain the permit to work(c)Bring ladder or crane(d) Climb on the pole immediately

512. Before starting the work on faulty circuit it should be ensured that(a) The faulty portion has been isolated from the power supply(b) The worker is strong enough to climb the pole(c) The cable is not deep enough to dig(d) None of the above

513. The electric overhead line on which work is to be carried out should be necessarily earthed on both the ends to

(a) Dispense the charge stored between the conductors due to capacitive effect(b) To bring the line at zero potential(c) Both a & b(d) None of the above

514. One can protect himself from electric shock while working on live circuit by wearing gloves of good

(a) Conduction material (b) Insulating material(c) Semiconductor material (d) Any of the above

515. Which of the following are principal safety precautions?(a) Don’t touch live wire or equipment with bare hands(b) Before switching on supply, see no one is working in line(c) Use rubber gloves and metting(d) All of the above

516. Which of the following is most effective method of artificial respiration?(a) Mouth to mouth air pumping method (b) To use bicycle air pump(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above


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517. Which material is recommended as fire extinguisher in electrical cases?

(a) Carbon tetra chloride (b) Carbondioxide(c) Sulphur hexafluoride (d) Any of the above

518. Which of the following is to be necessarily kept in an electric substation?(a) First aid box (b) Stretcher(c) Earthing rod (d) All of the above

519. The warning board to be provided, on the switch of the line on which work is going on (a) Man working (b) Danger(c) Keep away (d) None of the above

520. Staff competent to work on overhead line of MV should be(a) Unskilled (b) Semi skilled

(c) High skilled (d) Any of the above

521. The testing of relays should be performed at a interval of


522. If any live conductor in the circuit is entangled with tree branch ------- operates.

(a) EFR (b) OVR (c) OLR (d) Thermal relay

523. ----------- relay operates if there is a heavy increase in load current


524. ----------- relay indicates the temperature rise of a transformer


525. If the relay setting of 60/5 CT is at 3.75, then the tripping will be at

(a) 60 Amp (b) 45 Amp (c) 30 Amp

(POWER)

526. The Protective device to indicate the internal fault in a transformer is ____________.


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527. The minimum allowable BDV for transformer oil should stand for ________________.

528. Core of a transformer is made up of ______________.

529. A step up transformers increases ______________.

530. The colour of fresh dielectric oil for a transformer _______________.

531. The ratio of KW to KVA is known as ______________.

532. Which of the following does not change in a transformer ______________.

533. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary ____________.

534. A transformer transformers _____________.

535. Transformer breaths in when ______________.

536. Maximum permissible earth resistance of small sub-station is ______________.

537. Code of Practice for earthing is governed by _____________.

538. In Pipe earthing, the minimum internal diameter for cast iron should be __________.

539. Earthing arrangement for HT installations, Substations and generating stations should be inspected at the an interval of ____________.540. Earthing arrangement for residential buildings should be inspected at an interval of ___________.541. Recommended no, of light, points is type II quarter is __________.

542. The illumination level at C class station should be _____________.

543. Recommended no. of fan point in type III quarter is ____________.

544. Recommended no. of fan point in type IV quarter is ____________.

545. Recommended connected load for type III quarter is ___________.

546. The filament of a GLS lamp in made of _____________.

547. For normal reading the illumination level required is around ____________.

548. In case of GLS lamps power factor is the ____________.

549. The colour of sodium vapour discharge lamp is ____________.

550 Most effected parameter of a filament lamp due to voltage change is _____________.

551. The clearance between the conduction and pole for 400/230V, 150-250FT span lines should be _____.


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552. The on line vertical spacing between the conductors for 11KV line should be_________.

553. The clearance between the conduction and pole for 11KV lines should be _____________.

554. The clearance between the conduction and pole 150FT span lines should be __________.

555. Clearance of the lowest conduction (along the street) from the ground for H.T lines should be ______.

556. One foot pounds = __________.

557. One calorie = ____________.

558. One electrical unit = __________.

559. One Kilowatt = ___________.

560. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of _____________.

561. Slip rings are usually made of __________.

562. Star delta starting of motor is not possible in case of _________.

563. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have __________.

564. An induction motor is __________.

565. DOL starting of induction motor is usually restricted to ____________.

566. Lubnicant used for ball bearing is usually ___________.

567. If the no for circuit of a squirrel cage induction motor is open, the no for will _____________.

568. If the single, phasing occurs on the running position in an induction motor, the motor will _______.

569. If there is an open circuit in the rotor of a squirrel cage induction motor, motor will _______.

570. Which of the following type of bearing is generally used to support the when of an induction motor, _____.

571. Low tension cables are generally used up to __________.

572. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is ________.

573. Empire tape is __________.


P a g e | 51

574. PVC stands for ___________.

575. The thickness of the layer an insulation on the conductor, in cables, depend up on __________.

576. Electric energy charges from the railway employees residing in railway colonies in of _________.

577. Per day electric energy charges from officer on duty for occupation of air conditioned accromodation an railway rest house in Rs. _______.

578. The private parties applying for electric connection from railways has to deposit security mony equivalent to _________.

579. The parts rest centres are treated as ____________.

580. As per Rly. Board recommendations, the light fittings for platform on category A & B stations are _____.

581. As per Rly. Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided in office waiting rooms on each bed should be ___________.

582. As per Rly. Board recommendations, the sweep of fans provided in retiring rooms on each bed should be ________.

583. At station where neither electrical supervision for engineering supervisor is headquatered, the up keep of pumps in water supply system is under __________.

584. Rly, board has recormmended that location where HPSV lamps after the colour light signalling should be replace __________.

585. The maintenance of water coolers donated by private parties is to be done by _________.

586. First step to be carried out before starting work on faulty portion of overhead line is to ________.

587. One can protect him see from electric shook while working on line circuit by wearing gloves of good _______.

588. Which of the following is to be necessarily kept in an electric substation _________.

589. The warning board to be provided on the switch of the line on which work is going on __________.

590. Which of the following are principal safety precaution __________.

591. The normal SPG of electricity of lead acid battery should be ___________.


P a g e | 52

592. The terminal voltage of a fully charged lead acid cell is ___________.

593. The terminal voltage of a lead acid cell should not tall below ___________.

594. The normal charging rali of 120AH load acid battery set is ___________.

595. The ratio of distil water and acid used to prepare new electricity for lead acid cell is __________.

596. The testing of relays should be perturmed at a interval of __________.

597. If any live conductot in the circuit is entangled with tree branch ____________ operates.

598. __________ relay operates if there is a heavy increases in load current.

599. __________ relay indicates the temperature fire of a transformer.

600. If the relay setting of 6015CT is at 3.75, then the tripping will be at ________.

601. Motor of V.S pump is located __________.

602. Priming is required for ____________.

603. Pump failed mostly due to __________.

604. For a 10H.P pump set which type starter is required _________.

605. No. of contractor provided in star delta shall be __________.

606. Pump set motor burn due to ________.

607. Pump guard functions to protect the submessible pump set a first _________.

608. Theoretically the maximum suction head for ordinary centrifugal pumps should not exceed _________.

609. For high flow required, pump are generally operated in __________.

610. For V.S. pump and submersible pumps the suction head is always ________.

611. Which pump is for most suitable for deep bore _______.

612. H.S. pump works with total head ___________.

613. RPM of submersible set is __________.

614. A 5HP pump set draw current on full load is ___________.

615. Installing large diameter pipe in pumping system result in reduction in ________.


P a g e | 53

616. The capacity of a cell is measured in

(a) Amperes (b) ampere-hours(c) Watts (d) watt-hours

617. Active materials of a lead acid cell are

(a) Spongy lead (b) lead peroxide

(c) dilute H2SO4 (d) all of the above

618. .Sulphation in a lead-acid battery occurs due to

(a) Heavy charging (b) fast charging

(c) trickle charging (d)incomplete charging

619. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

(a) its voltage increases

(b) it gives out energy

(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour

(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases

620. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

(a) temperature (b) rate of charge

(c) rate of discharge (d) quantity of active material

621. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains the same (d) becomes zero


P a g e | 54

622. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery are

(a) lead and lead peroxide (b) lead sulphate and lead

(c) lead peroxide and lead (d) non of the above

623. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of it positive plate is

(a) dark grey (b) brown(c) darks brown (d) non of above

624. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by

(a) output voltage (b) temperature of electrolyte (c) specific gravity of electrolyte (d) none of the above.

625. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage (b) higher than the battery voltage

(c) the same as the battery voltage (d) none of the above

626. Cells are connected in series in order to

(a) increase the voltage rating (b) increase the current rating

(c) increase the life of the cells (d) none of the above

627. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel . the output voltage is

(a) 1 V (b) 1.5 V

(c) 1.75 V (d) 2 V

628. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

(a) current rating (b) voltage rating

(c) ampere-hour rating (d) none of the above


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629. A lead storage battery can be revived by

(a) adding distilled water (b) adding so-called battery restorer

(c) a dose of H2SO4 (d) none of the above

630. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level (b) increase its reserve capacity

(c) prevent sulphation (d) keep it fresh and fully charged

631. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following

(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4 (b) tow parts H2O , two parts H2SO4

(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4 (d) all H2SO4

632. It is noticed that during charging

(a) there is a rise in voltage

(b) energy is absorbed by the cell

(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased

(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown

in colour (PbO2) and cathode becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)

(e) all above

633. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen

(a) both anode and cathode become PbSO4

(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases

(c) voltage of the cell decreases


P a g e | 56

(d) the cell absorbs energy

634. The capacity of a lead-acid cell in measured in

(a) amperes (b) ampere-hours

(c) watts (d) watt-hours

635. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on

(a) rate of discharge (b) temperature

(c) density of electrolyte (d) quantity of active materials

(e) all above

636. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is

(a) Na OH (b) only H2SO4

(c) only water (d) dilute H2SO4

637. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

(a) manometer (b) a mechanical gauge

(c) hydrometer (d) psychrometer

638. Over charging .....

(a) produces excessive gassing

(b) loosens the active material

(c) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates

(d) all above.

639. Undercharging ..............

(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte

(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte

(c) produces excessive gassing


P a g e | 57

(d) increases the temperature

640. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance

(a) increases (b) decreases

(c) remains same (d) none of the above

641. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as

(a) positive active material (b) negative active material

(c) passive material (d) none of the above

642. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyong

(a) 1.8 V (b) 1.9 V

(c) 2 V (d) 2.1 V

643. On overcharging a battery

(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials

(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery

(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte

(d) none of the above will occur

644. Each cell has a vent cap

(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge

(b) to add water to the cell if needed

(c) to check the level of electrolyte

(d) to do all above functions

645. In constant-voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged condition

(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) none of the above


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646. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of

(a) 48 amperes of 1 hour (b) 24 amperes for 2 hours

(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours (d) 6 amperes for 8 hours

647. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged condition.

(a) decreases (b) increases

(c) remains constant (d) none of the above

648. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

(a) in well ventilated location

(b) in clean and dry place

(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged

(d) in location having all above features.

649. Batteries are charged by

(a) rectifiers (b) engine generator sets

(c) motor generator sets (d) any one of the above methods

650. Cell short circuit results in

(a) low sp. Gravity electrolyte (b) abnormal high temperature

(c) reduced gassing on charge (d) all above

651. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge

(b) increasing the plate area

(c) putting plates very close together


P a g e | 59

(d) all above methods

652. Capacity of dry cells is

(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods

(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods

(c) unaffected by the type of discharges

(d) none of the above.

653. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of

(a) glass (b) plastic

(c) wood (d) all above

654. Sulphated cells are indicated by

(a) the loss of capacity of the cell

(b) the decrease of the specific gravity

(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge

(d) all above conditions

655. Internal resistance of a cell is due to

(a) resistance of electrolyte

(b) electrode resistance

(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte

(d) all above.

656. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high

(b) current drawing will be nil

(c) current drawing will be very small


P a g e | 60

(d) current drawing will be very high

657. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen .

(a) Capacity of cell will reduce (b) Sulphation of plates will occur

(c) Internal resistance will increase (d) All above will occur

658. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear

(a) goggles or other face shield (b) rubber

(c) rubber boots and gloves (d) all above safety devices

659. Excessive charging a battery tends to

(a) produce gassing

(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery

(c) to corrode the positive pates into lead peroxide

thereby weakening them physically

(d) bring about all above changes

660. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of

(a) ions (b) holes

(c) electrons (d) none of the above.

661. Proper charging rate of a battery in ampere is about ..... of its ampere-hour capacity.

(a) 1/8 (b) 1/6 (c) ¼ (d) ½

662. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge

(a) colour of electrode (b) gassing

(c) specific gravity (d) all above


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663. Capacity of a battery is expressed in

(a) Ah (b) Vh

(c)Wh (d) kWh

664. Battery charging room is to be kept well ventilated so as to reduce the hydrogen concentration below ...... parcent.

(a) one (b) two(c) three (d) four

665. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon

(a) amount of moisture (b) type of metals

(c) type of soil chemical (d) all above factors

666. While preparing electrolyte for a lead acid battery

(a) water is poured into acid

(b) acid is poured into water

(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical

667. Which of the following has lower sp. Gravity.

(a) Dilute H2SO4 (b) Concentrated H2SO4

(c) Water (d)Any of the above

668. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be

(a) 10% of capacity (b) 20% of capacity

(c) 30 % of capacity (d) 40% of capacity

669. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery to

(a) prevent local heating (b) prevent short-circuiting

(c) reduce path resistance (d) prevent corrosion


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670. In a lead-acid battery, separators are provided to

(a) reduce internal resistance (b) facilitate flow of current

(c) reduce tendency for polarisation (d) avoid internal short circuits

671. In a lead-acid battery during charging

(a) specific gravity of acid increases (b) voltage drops

(c) anode becomes whitish in colour (d) the cell gives out energy

672. A floating battery is one

(a) which gets charged and discharged simultaneously

(b) which supplies current intermittently and also during off cycle gets charged

(c) in which battery voltage is equal to charger voltage

(d)in which the current in the circuit is fully supplied by the battery.

673. It is normally specified by the manufactures that a lead-acid battery should not remain discharged for more than

(a) one hour (b) 24 hours (c) one week (d) one month

674. The life of a lead-acid battery is expected to be

(a) two months (b) one year

(c) two to five years (d) ten to fifteen years

675. Tickle charge is required for

(a) primary cells (b) lead-acid batteries

(c) nickel-iron cells (d) all of the above.

676, In case of a lead-acid battery a wet battery cover indicates

(a) Over filling of the battery

(b) excessive gassing during charging

(c) leaky seals at covers


P a g e | 63

(d) any of the above

677. A lead-acid battery, even when not in use, should be recharged once in

(a) ten days (b) three weeks

(c) six weeks (d) six months

678. Sedimentation in lead-acid batteries occurs due to

(a) slow charging at low rate (b) overcharging at high rate

(c) non-utilization for longer periods (d) over discharging at slow rate

FILL IN THE BLANKS

679. The minimum voltage required to decompose an electrolyte is called the ..... voltage for that electrolyte.

680. Lead peroxide is .............. in colour.

681. In a lead-acid cell spongy lead forms the ... ...........active material.

682. The .......... of a cell is given by the product of current in amperes and the time in hours during which the cell can supply current until its e.m.f falls to 1.8 V.

683. The . ........... of plates not only decreases the internal resistance but additionally increases the capacity of the cell also.

684. There is always .................. more negative plate than the positive plates.

685. When the cell is fully charged, it freely gives off hydrogen at cathode and oxygen at the anode, the process being known as........................

686. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged the .................... ceases to rise.


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687. The voltage of a fully charged cell is a variable quantity being affected by the rate of ..........................

688. The lead-acid battery should not be left in .... ........ condition for long.

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER

689. The period of a wave is

(a) the same as frequency

(b) time required to complete one cycle

(c) expressed in amperes

(d) none of the above

690. The form factor is the ratio of

(a) peak value to r.m.s value (b) r.m.s. value to average value

(c) average value to r.m.s value (d) none of the above

691. The r.m.s value and mean value is the same in the case of

(a) triangular wave (b) sine wave

(c) square wave (d) half wave rectified sine wave

692. For the same peak value which of the following wave will have the highest r.m.s. value?

(a) square wave (b) half wave rectified sine wave(c) triangular wave (d) sine wave

693. Form Factor is the ratio of

(a) average value/r.m.s. value (b) average value/peak value

(c) r.m.s. value/average value (d) r.m.s. value/peak value


P a g e | 65

694. Form factor for a sine wave is

(a) 1.414 (b) 0.707

(c) 1.11 (d) 0.637

695. The r.m.s. value of sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to its value at an angle of

.......... ... degree.

(a) 90 (b) 60

(c) 45 (d) 30

696. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to

(a) R/Z

(b) cosine of phase angle differences between current and voltage

(c) kW/kVA

(d) ratio of useful current to total current Iw/I

(e) all above

697. Poor power factor

(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system

(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system

(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines

(d) results in more voltage drop in the line

(e) results in all above

698. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in

(a) kW (b) kVA

(c) kV (d) kVAR

699. Pure inductive circuit


P a g e | 66

(a) consumes some power on average

(b) does not take power at all from a line

(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during other part of the cycle


700. Inductance affects the direct current flow

(a) only at the time of turning off (b) only at the time of turning on

(c) at the time of turning on and off (d) at all the time of operation

701. Inductance of a coil varies

(a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core

(b) directly as square of number of turns

(c) directly as the permeability of the core

(d) inversely as the length of the iron path

(e) as (a) to (d)

702. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting capacitor to it in

(a) parallel (b) series (c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of the above

703. In a highly capacitive circuit the

a) apparent power is equal to the actual power

b) reactive power is more than the apparent power

(c) reactive power is more than the actual power

(d) actual power is more than its reactive power

704. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero

(a) resistance (b) inductance

(c) capacitance (d) both (b) and (c)


P a g e | 67

705. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity

(a) inductance (b) capacitance

(c) resistance (d) both (a) and (b)

706. Power factor of the system is kept high

(a) to reduce line losses

(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators,

lines and transformers

(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line

(d) due to all above reasons

707. In an A.C. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates

(a) low efficiency (b) high power factor

(c) unity power factor (d) maximum load current

708. In A.C. circuits, laminated iron is invariable used in order to

(a) reduce eddy current loss (b) increase heat radiation

(c) make assembly cheap and easier (d) reduce circuit permeability

709. The ration of active power to apparent power is known as .... factor.

(a) demand (b) load

(c) power (d) form

710. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at ..... frequencies.

(a) vary low (b)low

(c) medium (d) high


P a g e | 68

711. The power is measure in terms of decibles in case of

(a) electronic equipment (b) transformers

(c) current transformers (d) auto-transformers

712. The inductance of a coil can be increased by

(a) increasing core length

(b) decreasing the number of turns

(c) decreasing the diameter of the former

(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability

713. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and current is

(a) true power (b) reactive power (c) volt-amperes (d) instantaneous power

714. The unit of frequency of an A.C. signal is

(a) cycle (b) cycle-sec

(c) hertz/sec (d) hertz

715. Which of the following values of alternating voltage should an insulatin absolutely withstand?

(a) The average value (b) The r.m.s. value (c) The peak value (d) Half the effective value

716. Laminations of core are generally made of

(a) case iron (b) carbon

(c) silicon steel (d) stainless steel

717. The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) length of conductor


P a g e | 69

(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor

(c) number of conductors

(d) all of the above

718. The field coils of D.C generator are usually made of

(a) mica (b) copper

(c) case iron (d) carbon

719. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of

(a) copper lugs (b) resistance wires (c) insulation pads (d) brazing

720. In a commutator

(a) mica and copper are equally hard (b) mica is harder than copper

(c) copper is harder than mica (d) none of the above

721. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of

(a) motion of conductor (b) lines of force (c) either of the above (d) none of the above

722. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking (b) rough commutator surface

(c) imperfect contact (d) any of the above

723. In a four-pole D.C. machine


P a g e | 70

(a) all the four pole are north poles

(b) alternate poles are north and south

(c) all the four poles are south poles

(d) two north poles follow two south poles

724. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved

(b) where high voltage and small currents are involved

(c) in both of the above cases

(d) in none of the above cases

725. A separately excited generator are compared to a self-excited generator

(a) is amenable to better voltage control

(b) is more stable

(c) has exciting current independent of load current

(d) has all above features

726. Brushes of D.C machines are made of

(a) carbon (b) soft copper

(c) hard copper (d) all of above

727. The material for commutator brushes is generally.

(a) mica (b) copper

(c) cast iron (d) carbon

728. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally

(a) graphite (b) paper

(c) mica (d) insulating varnish


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729. In a D.C. generator, if p be the number of poles and N be the r.p.m. of rotor, then the frequency of magnetic reversals will be

(a) Np/2 (b) Np/60(c) Np/120 (d)Np/3000

730. Which of the following components of a D.C. generator plays vital role for providing direct current of a D.C. generator?

(a) dummy coils (b) Commutator

(c) Eye bolt (d) Equilizer rings

731. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel (b) copper

(c) non-ferrous material (d) cast-iron

732. D.C. generator generates

(a) a.c. voltage in the armature (b) d.c. voltage in the armature

(c) a.c. superimposed over d.c (d) none of the above

733. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires

(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size

(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders

(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut


734. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is

(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment

to which open circuited coil is connected

(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator

(c) both (a) and (b)



P a g e | 72

735. The e.m.f generated in a D.C generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole (b) speed of armature

(c) number of poles (d) all of the above

736. A.D.C. generator can be considered as

(a) rectifier (b) prime mover

(c) rotating amplifier (d) power pump

737. In any rotating machine that part which house the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is called

(a) rotor (b) stator

(c) field (d) armature

738. In D.C generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output voltage will

(a) increase (b) decrease

(c) remain unaffected (d) fluctuate heavily

739. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism in the poles?

(a) Series generator (b) Shunt generator

(c) Compound generator (d) None of the above

740. A series generator can self-excite

(a) only if the load current is zero

(b) only if the load current is not zero

(c) irrespective of the value of load current



P a g e | 73

741. A shunt generator can self-excite

(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value

(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value

(c) irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field circuit

742. Which one of the following generators is used for charging the batteries ?

(a) Shunt (b) Series

(c) Compound (d) Any of the above

743. An external resistance added in the field of a D.C shunt generator will

(a) decrease the voltage of the generator

(b) increase the voltage of the generator

(c) increase the power delivered

(d) increase the speed of the generator

(e) decrease the speed of the generator

744. In D.C. generator the change in voltage when the load is reduced from rated value to zero, expressed as a percentage of rated load voltage, is known as

(a) efficiency (b) regulation

(c) armature reactance (d) loss factor

745. Which generator cannot start if there is no residual magnetism?

(a) Series generator (b) Shunt generator

(c) Separately excited generator (d) All of the above

746. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?

(a) Shunt motor (b) Series motor


P a g e | 74

(c) Cumulative compound motor (d) Differentiate compound motor

747. The direction of rotation of a D.C series motor can be changed by

(a) interchanging supply terminals (b) interchanging field terminals

(c) either of (a) and (b) above (d) None of the above

748. Which of the following applications requires high starting torque?

(a) Lathe machine (b) Centrifugal pump

(c) Locomotive (d) Air blower

749. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which motor would be preferred?

(a) Series motor (b) Shunt motor (c) Differentially compound motor (d) Cumulative compound

750. Which D.C motor will be preferred for machine tools ?

(a) Series motor (b) Shunt motor

(c) Cumulative compound motor (d) Differential compound motor

751. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for constant speed line shafting?

(a) Cumulative compound motor (b) Differentially compound motor

(c) Shunt motor (d) Series motor

752. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring

(a) high starting torque (b) low starting torque

(c) variable speed (d) frequent on-off cycles

753. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators?


(c) Differential compound motor (d) Cumulative compound motor


P a g e | 75

754. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of

(a) current in the conductor (b) movement of conductor(c) resultant force on conductor (d) none of the above

755. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque

(b) these motors are not self-starting

(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially

(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting

756. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced

(a) the speed will increase abruptly

(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load

(c) the speed will remain almost constant

(d) the speed will reduce

757. A.D.C. series motor is that which

(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns

(b) has a poor torque

(c) can be started easily without load

(d) has almost constant speed

758. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because

(a) it limits the speed of the motor

(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value

(c) it starts the motor


759. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is


P a g e | 76

(a) shunt motor

(b) series motor

(c) differential compound D.C. motor

(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor

760. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will

(a) run at normal speed

(b) not run

(c) run at lower speed

(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy current

761. To get the speed of D.C. motor below the normal without wastage of electrical

energy ................. is used.

(a) Ward Leonard control (b) rheostatic control

(c) any of the above method (d) none of the above method

762. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is

(a) more than the normal speed (b) less than the normal speed

(c) normal speed (d) zero

763. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained

by .................

(a) decreasing the field current (b) increasing the field current

(c) decreasing the armature current (d) increasing the armature current

764. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current

(b) directly proportional to the armature current


P a g e | 77

(c) proportional to the square of the current

(d) inversely proportional to the armature current

765. A direct on line starter is used for starting motors

(a) up to 5 H.P. (b) up to 10 H.P.

(c) up to 15 H.P. (d) up to 20 H.P.

766. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased the back e.m.f. of the motor will

(a) decrease (b) increase

(c) remain same (d) become zero

767. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only Because

(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop(b) armature drop is negligible

(c) flux is proportional to armature current

(d) flux is practically constant in D.C. shunt motors.

768. These days D.C. motors are widely used in

(a) pumping sets (b) air compressors

(c) electric traction (d) machine shops

769. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is D.C. motor?

(a) Frame (b) Shaft(c) Commutator (d) Stator

770. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to improve cooling (b) to reduce copper losses

(c) to increase the generated e.m.f. (d) to reduce the sparking


P a g e | 78

771. A three point starter is considered suitable for

(a) shunt motors

(b) shunt as well as compound motors

(c) shunt, compound and series motors

(d) all D.C. motors

772. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?

(a) Slip rings (b) Commutator (c) Field winding (d) Armature winding

773. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C. motor?

(a) Lenz’s law (b) Faraday’s law (c) Coloumb’s law (d) Fleming’s left-hand rule

774. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to

(a) the torque required (b) the speed of the motor

(c) the voltage across the terminals (d) none of the above

775. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates

(a) the power drawn in kW

(b) the power drawn in kVA

(c) the gross power

(d) the output power available at the shaft.

776. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?

(a) Series motor (b) Shunt motor


P a g e | 79

(c) Cumulatively compounded motor (d) Differentially compounded motor

777. D.C. series motors are used

(a) where load is constant

(b) where load changes frequently

(c) where constant operating speed is needed

(d) in none of the above situations.

778. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque

(a) shunt (b) series(c) differentially compounded (d) cumulatively compounded

779. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in

(a) damage to commutator segments

(b) damage to commutator insulation

(c) increased power consumption


780. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?

(a) Series motor (b) Shunt motor(c) Air motor (d) Battery operated motor

781. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased which of the following will decrease?

(a) Starting torque (b) Operating speed(c) Full-load current (d) All of the above

782. Field winding of a D.C. series motor is usually provided with thick wire

(a) to provide large flux

(b) to reduce the use of insulating materials


P a g e | 80

(c) as it carries large load current

(d) in order to reduce eddy current

783. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor?

(a) Low speed operation (b) High speed operation(c) Variable speed operation (d) Fixed speed operation

784. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists?

(a) Series motor (b) shunt motor

(c) Cumulatively compounded motor (d) Differentially compounded motor

785. Three point starter can be used for

(a) series motor only (b) shunt motor only

(c) compounded motor only (d) both shunt and compound motor

786. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and there for

make use of

(a) D.C. series motor (b) D.C. shunt motor

(c) induction motor (d) all of above motors

787. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to

(a) filed flux only (b) armature current only

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

788. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of

(a) centrifugal pumps (b) elevators

(c) steel rolling mills (d) colliery winders


P a g e | 81

789. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will

(a) increase (b) decrease

(c) remain same (d) become zero

790. Four point starter in the D.C. motor is used

(a) to decrease the field current

(b) to increase the field current

(c) not to effect the current passing through ‘Hold on’ coil even

if any change in the field current takes place


(e) none of the above

791. Which of the following motor is used in the locomotives motor drives?

(a) D.C. series motor (b) A.C. series motor

(c) Synchronous motor (d) Induction motor

792. A series motor is started without load. The effect is that

(a) the back e.m.f. decreases (b) the torque increase rapidly

(c) the speed increases rapidly (d) the current drawn increases rapidly

793. When the electric train is moving down a hill the D.C. motor act as

(a) D.C. series generator (b) D.C. shunt generator

(c) D.C. shunt motor (d) D.C. series motor

794. In a D.C. motor, unidirectional torque is produced with the help of

(a) end plates (b) bushes

(c) commutator (d) both (b) and (c)

795. In a D.C. motor constant torque is produced due to


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(a) rotor laminations (b) end-plates

(c) pole shoes (d) commutator

796. All motors, basically, operate on the principle of either repulsion or

(a) induction (b) semi-conduction

(c) capacitance (d) electro-magnetism

797. A face plate starter is employed for starting

(a) induction motor (b) universal motor

(c) synchronous motor (d) d.c. series motor

798. Which of the following motors, on removal of load, will run at the highest speed?


(c) Cummulative compound (d) Differential compound

799. In an overloaded motor main danger arises due to

(a) winding getting overheated (b) busbars getting heated

(c) starter getting damaged (d) bearings getting overheated

800. For which application a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor?

(a) High speed operation (b) Low speed operation

(c) Fixed speed operation (d) Variable speed operation

801. A.D.C. motor can be easily identified by

(a) winding (b) commutator

(c) size of conductor (d) yoke


P a g e | 83

802. The function of a filed regulator for compound motors is to

(a) control the flux (b) limit the armature current

(c)demagnetise the field (d) none of the above

803. The generated e.m.f. and the current are in the opposite direction in case of

(a) d.c. generators (b) d.c. motors


804. Speed control of a cumulatively compounded D.C. motor can be effected though change of

(a) field resistance (b) armature resistance (c) armature voltage (d) any of the above

805. Which of the following, in a D.C. motor, can sustain the maximum temperature rise?

(a) Commutator (b) Armature windings(c) Slip rings (d) Field windings

Yes or No

806. The electric motor is a machine which converts mechanical energy in to electrical energy

(Yes / No)

807. The body of D.C. mill motors is made in two halves bolted together for easy access to the field windings and inte1’r- poles.

(Yes / No)

808. A.D.C motor works on the principle that which a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force whose direction is given by Fleming’s right-hand rule.

(Yes / No)

809. In a D.C. motor the back or counter e.m.f. acts in opposition to the current in the


P a g e | 84

machine.

(Yes / No)

810. A shunt motor may be regarded as an approximately constant-speed motor.

(Yes / No)

811. In a cumulative compound motor the speed increases appreciably as the load torque increases.

(Yes / No)

812. A shunt motor is used for traction drivers generally.

(Yes / No)

813. A series motor is preferred for line shaft drives.

(Yes / No)

814. Commulative compound motors are used in rolling mills.

(Yes / No)

815. Differential compound motors are used for experimental and research work and battery boosters.

(Yes / No)

816. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?

(a) Bearings (b) Shaft

(c) Stator core (d) None of the above

817. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of

(a) silicon steel (b) cast iron

(c) aluminium (d) bronze


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818. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) stiff (b) flexible

(c) hollow (d) any of the above

819. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) high speed steel (b) stainless steel

(c) carbon steel (d) cast iron

820. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally

(a) less than 1% (b) 1.5%

(c) 2% (d) 4%

821. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around

(a) 0.04% (b) 0.4%

(c) 4% (d) 14%

822. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order to

(a) reduce windage losses (b) reduce eddy currents(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust (d) reduce magnetic hum

823. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased

(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease

(b) the power factor will decrease

(c) speed of motor will increase

(d) the windage losses will increase

824. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) copper (b) carbon

(c) phosphor bronze (d) aluminium


P a g e | 86

825. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

(a) low (b) negligible

(c) same as full-load torque (d) slightly more than full-load torque

826. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

(a) single phase motors (b) variable speed motors

(c) low horse power motors (d) high speed motors

827. the term ‘cogging’ is associated with

(a) three phase transformers (b) compound generators

(c) D.C. series motors (d) induction motors

828. In case of the induction motors the torque is

(a) inversely proportional to(√Slip) (b) Directly Propotional to (Slip)2

(c)Inversly Propotional slip (d)Directly Prootional to slip

829. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have

(a) 8 poles (b) 6 poles

(c) 4 poles (d) 2 poles

830. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux density in the air gap is

(a) absent (b) small(c) large (d) infinity

831. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have

(a) zero frequency


P a g e | 87

(b) the same frequency as the slip frequency

(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.

(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control

832. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the squirrel-cage induction motor?

(a) By changing the number of stator poles

(b) Rotor rheostat control

(c) By operating two motors in cascade

(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit

833. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

(a) low voltage supply

(b) high loads

(c) harmonics developed in the motor

(d) improper design of the machine

(e) none of these

834. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage induction motor of the following type

(a) star connected only (b) delta connected only

(c) (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

835. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use started because

(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current

(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step

(c) it will run in reverse direction

(d) starting torque is very high


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836. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for

(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only

(b) slip ring induction motors only



837. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents

(a) slip (b) rotor current

(c) running torque (d) line voltage

838. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side?

(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor (b) Slip-ring induction motor

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

839.If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged

(a) the motor will run in reverse direction

(b) the motor will run at reduced speed

(c) the motor will not run

(d) the motor will burn

840. An induction motor is

(a) self-starting with zero torque

(b) self-starting with high torque

(c) self-starting with low torque


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(d) non-self starting

841. The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on

(a) frequency (b) rotor inductive reactance

(c) square of supply voltage (d) all of the above

842. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors

(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings

(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings

(c) rotor conductors are kept open

(d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation

843. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors (b) variable speed motors

(c) high horsepower motors (d) high speed motors

844. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to ..........

(a) 0.2 lagging (b) 0.2 leading

(c) 0.5 leading (d) unity

845. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor

(a) will continue running burning its one phase

(b) will continue running burning its two phase

(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding


P a g e | 90

(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding

846. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to

(a) inadequate motor wiring (b) poorely regulated power supply

(c) any one of the above (d) none of the above

847. Slip ring motor is recommended were

(a) speed control is required

(b) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is requied

(c) high starting torque is needed

(d) all above features are required

848. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft ?

(a) Ball bearings (b) Cast iron beasings(c) Bush bearings (d) None of the above

849. A 3-phase slip ring motor has

(a) double cage rotor (b) wound rotor

(c) short-circuited rotor (d) any of the above

850. Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to determine

(a) windage losses (b) copper losses

(c) transformation ratio (d) power scale of circle diagram

851. In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means

(a) pulling the motor directly on line without a starter

(b) locking of rotor due to harmonics

(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load

(d) interchanging two supply phases


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852. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) power factor at starting is high as compared to that while running

(b) power factor at starting is low as compared to that while running

(c) power factor at staring in the same as that while running

853. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding

(a) external inductance to the rotor

(b) external resistance to the rotor

(c) external capacitance to the rotor

(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor

854. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually

(a) graphite (b) grease

(c) mineral oil (d) molasses

855. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when

(a) it is run on load

(b) It is run in reverse direction

(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage

(d) e.m.f.is injected in the rotor circuit

856. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased

(a) the power factor will be low

(b) windage losses will be more

(c) bearing friction will reduce


P a g e | 92

(d) copper loss will reduce

857. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner case has

(a) high inductance and low resistance

(b) low inductance and high resistance

(c) low inductance and low resistance

(d) high inductance and high resistance

858. The low power factor of induction motor is due to

(a) rotor leakage reactance

(b) stator reactance

(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the magnetic flux

(d) all of the above859. Reduced voltage starter can be used with

(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor

(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor

(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor


860. In a star-delta starter of an induction motor

(a) resistance is inserted in the stator

(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator

(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor circuit

(d) applied voltage per stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage

861. The torque of an induction motor is

(a) directly proportional to slip

(b) inversely proportional to slip


P a g e | 93

(c) proportional to the square of the slip


862. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by

(a) increasing slip (b) increasing current


863. A 3-phase slip-ring induction motor is always started with

(a) a starting winding

(b) squirrel cage winding

(c) no external resistance in rotor circuit’

(d) full external resistance in rotor circuit

864. The fractional slip of an induction motor is the ratio

(a) rotor copper loss/rotor output

(b) rotor copper loss/rotor input

(c) rotor copper loss/stator copper loss

(d) stator copper loss/stator input

865. The A.C. motor which would be best suited to drive a centrifugal pump for discharging a variable quantity of water against a fixed head is the

(a) repulsion motor (b) synchronous motor(c) squirrel cage (d) slip ring induction motor

866. When a stationary 3-phase induction motor is switched on with one phase disconnected

(a) it will start but run very slowly (b) it will make jerky start will loud growling noise

(c) remaining intact fuses will be blown out due to heavy rush of current

(d) it is likely to burn out quickly unless immediately disconnected


P a g e | 94

867. Which of the following A.C. motors is user for industrial application?

(a) Commutator motor (b) 3-phase induction motor

(c) D.C. series motor (d) Synchronous motor

868. Which of the following type of bearing is generally used to support the rotor of an induction motor?

(a) Ball bearing (b) Needle bearing(c) Plummer block (d) Bush bearing

869. Under which method of starting an induction motor is expected to take largest starting current ?

(a) Star-delta starting (b) Auto-transformer starting(c) Direct on line starting (d) Stator-rotor starting

870. The stator of 5 H.P. induction motor is provided with

(a) open slots with tapered teeth

(b) closed slots with parallel teeth

(c) semiclosed slots with parallel teeth

(d) open slots with parallel teeth

871. The direction of rotation of a 3-phase induction motor can be reversed by

(a) interchanging any two phases (b) supplying low voltage

(c) reducing load (d) reducing frequency

872. A wound rotor induction motor is usually not selected when

(a) variable speed operation is desired

(b) cost the main consideration

(c) high starting torque is the main consideration

(d) external voltage is to be fed into rotor


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873. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is

(a) four (b) three

(c) tow (d) none

874. The starting torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by

(a) adding resistance to the stator

(b) adding resistance

(c) adding resistance to stator al well as the rotor


875. What is the disadvantage of starting an induction motor with a star-delta starter?

(a) The starting torque is one third of the torque in case of the delta connection

(b) During starting high losses are produced

(c) The starting torque increases and the motor runs with jerks


876. The overheating of an induction motor may be due to

(a) overloading (b) loss of ventilation

(c) low supply voltage (d) any of the above

Yes or No

877. Three –phase induction motor has a low efficiency

Yes or No

878. Frames or electrical machines house the stator core.


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Yes or No

879. For large and heavy rotors … bearing are used

Yes or No

880. The slip rings are made of aluminium

Yes or No

881. The frames of medium and large sized machines are fabricated from rolled steel plates.

Yes or No

882. When the rotor is stationary an induction motor is equivalent to a 3-phase transformer with secondary short-circuited.

Yes or No

883. Maximum torque of an induction motor is independent of rotor circuit resistance.

Yes or No

884. The slip at which the maximum torque occurs does not depend upon the resistance of the rotor.

Yes or No

885. Squirrel cage motors are not suitable for applications where these have to be started against heavy loads

Yes or No

886. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have

(a) high resistance and low inductance


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(b) low resistance and high inductance

(c) high resistance as well as high inductance

(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance

887. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited

(a) the motor will not start

(b) the motor will run

(c) the motor will run in reverse direction

(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.

888. In capacitor start single-phase motors

(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage

(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage

(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running winding


889. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding is to

(a) improve power factor (b) increase overload capacity

(c) reduce fluctuations in torque

(d) to improve torque

890. In a split phase motor

(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch

(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch

(c) both starting and running windings are connected through


P a g e | 98

a centrifugal switch

(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage

891. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is

(a) more than the rated torque (b) rated torque

(c) less than the rated torque (d) zero

892. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque?

(a) Capacitor start motor (b) Capacitor run motor

(c) Split phase motor (d) Shaded pole motor

893. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist of

(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running winding

(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and

carries only induced current

(c) a multilayer fine guage copper wire in parallel with running winding


894. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of ...........

(a) inductor (b) capacitor(c) resistor (d) shading coils

895. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then which of the following motor will be preferred?

(a) Universal motor (b) Shaded pole type motor(c) Capacitor start motor (d) capacitor start and run motor

896. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?


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(a) Repulsion motor (b) Reluctance motor

(c) Hysteresis motor (d) Universal motor

897. Which of the following motors is in herently self starting?

(a) Split motor (b) Shaded-pole motor

(c) Reluctance motor (d) None of these

898. Burning out of windings is due to

(a) short circuited capacitor

(b) capacitor value having changed

(c) open circuiting of capacitor


899. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the connection of

(a) running winding only(b) starting windig only

(c) either (a) or (b)

(d) both (a) and (d)

900. Short-circuiter is used in

(a) repulsion induction motor (b) repulsion motor

(c) repulsion start induction run motor (d) none of the above

901. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually

(a) lagging (b) always leading

(c) unity (d) unity to 0.8 leading

902. A shaded pole motor can be used for

(a) toys (b) hair dryers

(c) circulators (d) any of the above


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903. For which of the application s reluctance motor is preferred?

(a) electric shavers (b) Refrigerators

(c) Signalling and timing devices (d) Lifts and hoists

904. Single phase induction motor usually operates on

(a) 0.6 power factor lagging

(b) 0.8 power factor lagging

(c) 0.8 power factor leading

(d) 0.8 power factor

905. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor?

(a) Shaped pole motor (b) Split phase motor

(c) Capacitor start motor (d) Capacitor run motor

906. Which of the following motors can be run on A.C. as well as D.C. supply ?

(a) Universal motor (b) Repulsion motor

(c) Synchronous motor (d) Reluctance motor

907. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?

(a) Universal motor

(b) Repulsion motor

(c) Capacitor motor

(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque

908. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists?


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(a) Gradually varying load (b) Non-reversing, no-load start

(c) Reversing, light start (d) Reversing, heavy start

909. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using

(a) gear trains (b) V-belt

(c) brakes (d) chains

910. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?

(a) Capacitor run motor (b) Shaded pole motor

(c) Hysteresis motor (d) Schrage motor

911. The electric motor used in portable drills is

(a) capacitor run motor (b) hysteresis motor

(c) universal motor (d) repulsion motor

912. In a ceiling fan employing capacitor run motor.

(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding

(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding

(c) both are usual arrangements


913. The motor used for the compressors is

(a) d.c. series motor

(b) shaded pole motor

(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor

(d) reluctance motor


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914. For a system involving sound recording and reproduction wich motor would you select ?

(a) Shaded-pole motor (b) Universal motor(c) Reluctance motor (d) Hysteresis motor

915. For the same rating which of the following motors has the highest starting torque ?

(a) Synchronous motor (b) Universal motor(c) Split-phase motor (d) All have identical starting torque

916. In a repulsion motor, brushes are connected

(a) to starting winding (b) to the external supply

(c) to stator winding (d) together by jumper wire

Yes or No

917. In a split-phase resistance-start induction motor the starting winding has a low resistance and high reactance

Yes or No

918. The capacitor-start split-phase motors have higher starting torque

Yes or No

919. The permanent-split capacitor motor is used in exhaust and intake fans and blowers, nit heaters and office machine.

Yes or No

920. In a two-value capacitor induction motor one capacitor is employed during the starting period

Yes or No


P a g e | 103

921. Since the shaded-pole motor does not create a true revolving field, the torque is not uniform but varies from instant to instant.

Yes or No

922. Shaded-polse motors are cheaper in cost.

Yes or No

923. The characteristics of a reluctance-start induction motor are similar to that of shaded-pole motor

Yes or No

924. A reluctance-start induction motor cannot be reversed at all.

Yes or No

925. The commutator motors are so called because the wound rotor of this kind of motor is equipped with a commutator and brushes.

Yes or No

926. A repulsion-induction motor has a fairly good speed regulation.

Yes or No

927. The speed of a universal motor can be controlled by reactance method only.

Yes or No

928. Can a single-phase split-motor be reversed when at rest by changing the supply loads. Yes or No

929. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited the motor will

(a) not start (b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed(c) run which excessive vibrations (d) take less than the rated load


P a g e | 104

930. A synchronous motor can be started by

(a) pony motor (b) D.C. compound motor

(c) providing damper winding (d) any of the above

931. Synchronous motor always runs at

(a) the synchronous speed (b) less than synchronous speed

(c) more than synchronous speed (d) none of the above

932. An over-excited synchronous motor take

(a) leading current (b) lagging current

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none f the above

933. The work of a synchronous motor is similar to

(a) gear train arrangement

(b) transmission of mechanical power by shaft

(c) distribution transformer


934. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by

(a) changing the load (b) changing the supply voltage(c) changing frequency (d) using breaks

935. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be used as

(a) voltage booster (b) phase advancer

(c) noise generator (d) mechanical synchronizer

936. If the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will be


P a g e | 105

(a) zero (b) unity

(c) lagging (d) leading

937. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing its synchronism, is known as

(a) slip torque (b) pull-out torque(c) breaking torque (d) synchronising torque

938. For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at

(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields

(b) no-load and under-excited fields

(c) normal load with minimum excitation

(d) normal load with zero excitation

939. The angle between the rotor poles and stator poses, in a synchronous motor, is known as

(a) power factor angle (b) torque angle(c) synchronizing angle (d) angle of retardation

940. In a synchronous machine in case the axis of field flux is in line with the armature flux, then

(a) the machine is working as synchronous generator

(b) the machine is working as synchronous motor

(c) the machine will vibrate violently


Yes or No

941.Synchronous motor may be used to improve the power factor of 3-phase A.C. industrial circuits.


P a g e | 106

Yes or No

942. A synchronous motor runs at a speed less than the synchronous speed.

Yes or No

943. The speed of a synchronous motor can be changed by changing the ........ only.

Yes or No

944. A synchronous motor is not inherently self staring.

Yes or No

945. A synchronous motor can operate under a wide range of power factors both lagging and leading Yes or No

946. Synchronous motor cannot be used for variable speed jobs as speed adjustment cannot be done.

Yes or No

947. Synchronous motors do not require collector rings and brushes

Yes or No

948. A synchronous motor cannot be started under load

Yes or No

949. Synchronous motors required D.C. excitation which must be supplied from external source

Yes or No

950. In a synchronous motor the number of rotor field poles must equal the number of stator field poles.

Yes or No951. ............. are the conductors, which connect the consumers terminals to the


P a g e | 107

distribution.

(a) Distributors (b) Service mains(c) Feeders (d) None of the above

952. The underground system cannot be operated above

(a) 440 V (b) 11kV

(c) 33 kV (d) 66 kV

953. Overhead system can be designed for operation upto

(a) 11 kV (b) 33 kV

(c) 66 kV (d) 400kV

954. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of electrical power?

(a) Copper (b) Aluminium(c) Steel (d) Tungsten

955. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as

(a) stay wire (b) earth wire

(c) structural components (d) all of the above

956. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to

(a) 1.1 kV (b) 33 kV

(c) 6.6 kV (d) 11 kV

957. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is upto

(a) 1.1 kV (b) 33 kV

(c) 6.6 kV (d) 11 kV

958. The operating voltage of supertension cables is up to

(a) 3.3 kV (b) 6.6 kV

(c) 11 kV (d) 33kV

959. The operating voltage of extra high tension cable is upto


P a g e | 108

(a) 33 kV (b) 6.6 kV

(c) 11 kV (d) 132 kV

960. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?

(a) Direct laying (b) Draw-in-system

(c) Solid system (d) All of the above

961. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables?

(a) Cross or short-circuit fault (b) Open circuit fault

(c) Breakdown of cable insulation (d) All of the above

962. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is

(a) crystallisation of the lead through vibration

(b) chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth

(c) mechanical damage


963. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is

(a) 110 V (b) 210 V

(c) 230 V (d)400 V

964. The distributors for residential areas are

(a) single phase (b) three-phase three wire

(c) three-phase four wire (d) none of the above

965. The conductors of the overhead lines are

(a) solid (b) stranded

(c) both solid and stranded (d)none of the above

966. High voltage transmission lines use


P a g e | 109

(a) suspension insulators (b) pin insulators



967. Multicore cables generally use

(a) square conductors (b) circular conductors

(c) rectangular conductors (d) sector-shaped conductors


968. distribution lines in India generally use

(a) wooden poles (b) R.C.C. poles

(c) steel towers (d) none of the above

969. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is

(a) lead (b) paper

(c) rubber (d) none of the above

970. The loads on distributors systems are generally

(a) balanced (b) unbalanced

(c) either of the above (d) none of the above

971. The power factor of industrial loads is generally

(a) unity (b) lagging

(c) leading (d) zero

972. Overhead line generally use

(a) copper conductors (b) all aluminium conductors


P a g e | 110

(c) A.C.S.R. conductors (d) none of these

973. In transmission line the cross-arms are made of

(a) copper (b) wood

(c) R.C.C. (d) steel

974. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is

(a) aluminium (b) steel

(c) brass (d) copper

975. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about

(a) 4.3 m (b) 5.5 m

(c) 7.0 m (d) 10.5 m

976. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is approximately equal

to

(a) 2 m (b) 3.5 m

(c) 6 m (d) 8.5m

977. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at

(a) 400 V (b) 11 kV

(c) 66 kV (d) 400 kV

978. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on

(a) primary transmission

(b) secondary transmission

(c) primary distribution

(d) secondary distribution


P a g e | 111

979. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators?

(a) Quartz (b) Kaolin

(c) Felspar (d) Silica

980. There is a greater possibility of occurrence of corona during

(a) dry weather (b) winter

(c) summer heat (d) humid weather


981. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually

(a) alloy steel (b) stainless steel

(c) mild steel (d) high speed steel

982. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?

(a) Radial system (b) Three system

(c) Ring main system (d) All are equally reliable

983. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of

(a) semi-circle (b) triangle

(c) ellipse (d) catenary

984. In A.C.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is

(a) insulin (b) bitumen

(c) varnish (d) no insulation is required


P a g e | 112

985. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost?

(a) Ring bus-bar scheme (b) Single bus-bar scheme

(c) Breaker and a half scheme (d) Main and transfer scheme

986. By which of the following methods staring efficiency can be improved ?

(a) Using a guard ring (b) Grading the insulator

(c) Using long cross arm (d) Any of the above

(e) None of the above

987. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to

(a) compensate for skin effect

(b) neutralise proximity effect

(c) reduce line inductance

(d) increase the tensile strength

988. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated?

(a) Current only

(b) Current and voltage

(c) Current, voltage and frequency

(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time current

989. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?

(a) Circuit breakers

(b) Isolators

(c) Load break switch


P a g e | 113

(d) Circuit breakers and load break switchs

990. In a substation the following equipment is not installed

(a) exciters (b) series capacitors

(c) shunt reactors (d) voltage transformers

991. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are

(a) dead ended (b) at intermediate anchor towers

(c) any of the above (d) none of the above

992. Pin type insulators are generally not used used for voltages beyond

(a) 1 kV (b) 11 kV

(c) 22 kV (d) 33 kV

993. Aluminium has a specific gravity of

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.7

(c) 4.2 (d) 7.8

994. For aluminium , as compared to copper, all the following factos have higher

values except

(a) specific volume

(b) electrical conductivity

(c) co-efficient of linear expansion

(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section

995. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution

feeder, will be most economical?


P a g e | 114

(a) Static condenser (b) Synchronous condenser

(c) Tap changing transformer (d) Booster transformer

996. Ina tap changing transformer, the tapping are provided on

(a) primary winding (b) secondary winding

(c) high voltage winding (d) any of the above

997. The following system is not generally used

(a) 1-phase 3 wire (b) 1-phase 4 wire

(c) 3-phase 3 wire (d) 3-phase 4 wire

998. In A.C.S.R. conductor the function of steel is to

(a) provide additional mechanical strength

(b) prevent corona

(c) take care of surges

(d) reduce inductance and subsequently improve power factor.

999. Out of the following which types of poles are bulky

(a) Transmission towers (b) Concrete poles

(c) Tubular steel poles (d) Wooden poles

1000. On which of the following does the size of a feeder depend?

(a) Voltage drop (b) Voltage

(c) Frequency (d) Current carrying capacity

1001. Which of the following are connected by the service mains ?

(a) Transformer and earth (b) Distributor and relay system


P a g e | 115

(c) Distributor and consumer terminals (d) Distributor and transformer

1002. In the design of a distributor which of the following is the major consideration ?

(a) Voltage drop (b) Current carrying capacity

(c) Frequency (d) kVA of system


1003. In a distribution system major cost is that of

(a) earthing system (b) distribution transformer

(c) conductors (d) meters

1004. With which of the following are step-up substations associated ?

(a) Concentrated load (b) Consumer location

(c) Distributors (d) None of the above

1005. Which of the following equipment should be installed by the consumers having low power factor?

(a) Synchronous condensers (b) Capacitor bank

(c) Tap changing transformer (d) Any of the above


1006. Which of the following equipment is used to limit short-circuit current level in a substation?

(a) Isolator (b) Lightning switch

(c) Coupling capacitor (d) Series reactor

1007. A gay wire


P a g e | 116

(a) protects conductors against short circuiting

(b) Provides emergency earth route

(c) provides protection against surges

(d) supports the pole

1008. Induction regulators are used for voltage control in

(a) alternators (b) primary distribution

(c) primary distribution (d) none of the above

1009. A lightning arrester is usually located nearer to

(a) transformer (b) isolator

(c) busbar (d) circuit breakr


1010. The material used for the manufacture of grounding wires is

(a) cast iron (b) aluminium

(c) stainless steel (d) galvanised steel

1011.Which of the following can be used for bus-bars?

(a) Tubes (b) Rods

(c) Bars (d) Any of the above

1012. A.C.S.R. conductor having 7 steel stands surrounded by 25 aluminium conductors will be specified as

(a) 25/7 (b) 50/15

(c) 7/25 (d) 15/50

1013. The colour of the neutral of three-core flexible cable is


P a g e | 117

(a) blue (b) brown

(c) red (d) back

1014. In the cables sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable

(b) provide strength to the cable

(c) provide proper insulation


1015. ground wire is used to

(a) avoid overloading

(b) give the support to the tower

(c) give good regulation

(d) connect a circuit conductor or other device to an earth-plate

1016. Earthing is necessary to give protection against

(a) danger of electric shock

(b) voltage fluctuation

(c) overloading

1017. The size of the earth wire is determined by

(a) the atmospheric conditions

(b) the voltage of the service wires

(c) the ampere capacity of the services wires



P a g e | 118

Yes or No.

1018. Feeders are the conductors which connect the stations to the areas, to be fed by those station

Yes or No

1019. Underground system is less expensive.

Yes or No

1020. Underground system cannot be operated above 66 kV.

Yes or No

1021. Galvanised iron and steel conductors have been used for extremely long spans

Yes or No

1022. The difference in level between the points of supports and the lowest point is known as .............

Yes or No

1023. Egg or stay insulators are used in guy cables.

Yes or No

1024. Live voltage largely affects the corona.

Yes or No

1025. The operating voltage of extra super voltage power cables is beyond 132/kV.

Yes or No


P a g e | 119

1026. The main function of a fuse is to

(a) protect the line (b) open the circuit

(c) protect the appliance (d) prevent excessive currents


1027. On which of the following routine test are conducted ?

(a) Oil circuit breakers (b) Air blast circuit breakers

(c) Minimum oil circuit breakers (d) All of the above

1028. SF6 gas

(a) is yellow in colour (b) is lighter than air

(c) is nontoxic (d) has pungent small


1029. The arching contacts in a circuit breaker are made of

(a) copper tungsten alloy (b) porcelain

(c) electrolytic (d) aluminium alloy

1030. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of are in air circuit breaker?

(a) Water (b) Oil

(c) Air (d) SF6

1031. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation ?

(a) Inverse time trip (b) Time-delay trip

(c) Shunt trip (d) None of the above


P a g e | 120

(e) All of the above

1032. Fault diverters are basically

(a) fuses (b) relays

(c) fast switches (d) circuit breakers

1033. A thermal protection switch can protect

(a) short-circuit (b) temperature

(c) overload (d) over voltage

1034. Relays can be designed to respond to changes in

(a) resistance, reactance or impedance

(b) voltage and current

(c) light intensity

(d) temperature

(e) all above

1035. Overload relays are of ________ type.

(a) induction (b) solid state

(c) thermal (d) electromagnetic

(e) all above

1036. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current due to

(a) short-circuits (b) heavy loads

(c) grounds (d) all of the above

1037. D.C. shunt relays are made of


P a g e | 121

(a) few turns of thin wire (b) instantaneous

(c) both of the above (d) many turns of thick wire

1038. The relay operating speed depends upon

(a) the spring tension (b) the rate of flux built up

(c) armature core air gap (d) all of the above

1039. Circuit breakers usually operate under

(a) transient state of short-circuit current

(b) sub-transient state of short-circuit

(c) steady state of short-circuit current

(d) after D.C. component has ceased

1040. Circuit breakers are essentially

(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes

(b) are extinguishers

(c) circuits to break the system

(d) transformers to isolate the two systems

1041. The current zero interruption, in oil and are blas circuit breakers, is achieved by

(a) lengthening of the gap (b) cooling and blast effect

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) deionizing the oil with forced air



P a g e | 122

1042. Air blast circuit breaker is used for

(a) over currents (b)short duty

(c) intermittent duty (d) repeated duty

1043. Burden of a protective relay is the power

(a) required to operate the circuit breaker

(b) absorbed by the circuit of relay

(c) developed by the relay circuit


1044. Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal conditions in electrical circuits by measuring

(a) current during abnormal condition

(b) voltage during abnormal condition

(c) constantly the electrical quantities which differ during

normal and abnormal condition


1045.The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker is called -------- voltage.

(a) recovery (b) surge

(c) operating (d) arc


1046. Overheating of relay contact or contact born out is due to

(a) slow making and breaking of load circuit contacts

(b) foreign matter on the contact surface

(c) too low contact pressure



P a g e | 123

1047. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against

(a) overload (b) reverse current

(c) open-circuits (d) short-circuits

1048. The delay fuses are used for the protection of

(a) motors (b) power outlet circuit

(c) fluorescent lamps (d) flight circuits

1049. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between

(a) 33 kV to 66 kV (b) 11kV to 33 kV

(c) 3.3 kV and 11kV (d) none of the above

1050. In Railway application ------- circuit breaker is used

(a) SF6 (b) bulk oil

(c) minimum oil (d) air break

1051. The material used for fuse must have

(a) low melting point and high specific resistance

(b) low melting point and low specific resistance

(c) high melting point and low specific resistance

(d) low melting point and any specific resistance

1052. A fuse is connected

(a) in series with circuit


P a g e | 124

(b) in parallel with circuit

(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit


1053. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has

(a) no ageing effect (b) high speed of operation

(c) high rupturing capacity (d) all of the above

1054. The fuse rating is expressed in terms of

(a) current (b) voltage

(c) VAR (d) kVA

1055. The fuse blows off by

(a) burning (b) arcing

(c) melting (d) none of the above

1056. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against

(a) overload

(b) short-circuit and overload

(c) open circuit, short-circuit and over-load


1057. Protection by fuses is generally not used beyond

(a) 20 A (b) 50 A

(c) 100 A (d) 200 A

1058. A fuse is never inserted in


P a g e | 125

(a) neutral wire (b) negative of D.C. circuit

(c) positive of D.C. circuit (d) phase line

1059. A short-circuit is identified by

(a) no current flow (b) heavy current flow

(c) voltage drop (d) voltage rise

1060. A fuse wire possesses

(a) direct time characteristics (b) inverse time characteristics

(c) either of the above (d) none of the above

1061. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection in case of

(a) overload (b) open circuits

(c) short-circuits (d) none of the above

1062. Minimum arcing voltage will be least in case of

(a) silver (b) graphics

(c) carbon (d) tungsten

1063. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is usually expressed in terms of

(a) volts (b)amperes

(c) MVA (d) MW

1064. The total time for high speed breakers in nearly

(a) five cycles (b) few cycles

(c) one cycle (d) half cycle


P a g e | 126

1065. Which of the following is not a part of the circuit breaker?

(a) Operating mechanism (b) Conservator

(c) Explosion pot (d) Fixed and moving contacts

1066. In a circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of the fault to extinction of arc is known as

(a) clearing time (b) operation time

(c) lag time (d) lead time

1067. The rating of a circuit breaker is generally determined on the basis of

(a) line-to-line fault current (b) symmetrical fault current

(c) single line to ground fault current (d) double line to ground fault current

1068. Buchholz’s relay is

(a) installed inside the breaker

(b) located on the top of conservator tank

(c) connected in the pipe connecting main tank of

transformer and conservator

(d) part of circuit breaker installed near the transformer

1069. A circuit breaker will normally operate

(a) whenever fault in the line occurs

(b) when the switch is put on

(c) when the line is to be checked

(d) when the power is to be supplied


P a g e | 127

1070. A lightning arrester provides

(a) a low impedance path between line and ground, during operation

(b) a high impedance path between line and ground, during operation

(c) a low resistance path between line and ground, during operation

(d) a high resistance path between line and ground, during operation

1071. Basically a lightning arrester is a

(a) surge diverter (b) surge alternator

(c) surge reflector (d) surge absorber

1072. Outdoor switchgear is generally used for voltage beyond

(a) 11 kV (b) 33 kV

(c) 66 kV (d) 132 kV

1073. SF6 gas is transported in

(a) air cylinders (b) gas cylinders

(c) liquid from in cylinders (d) none of the above

1074. The advantage of neutral earthing is

(a) freedom from persistent arcing grounds

(b) over voltages due to lightning can be discharged to earth

(c) simplified design earth fault protection

(d) all of the above.

Yes or No

1075. Air blast circuit breaker uses dry compressed air.


P a g e | 128

Yes or No

1076. Air circuit breakers are used for voltage above 10 kV.

Yes or No

1077. In oil circuit breakers transformer oil is used

Yes or No

1078. Arcing contacts of circuit breakers are generally made of copper tungsten alloy.

Yes or No

1079. All A.C. power systems of to-day operate with solid grounding.

Yes or No

1080. The holding ratio of a relay is usually more than one.

Yes or No

1081. Loss of excitation may cause a generator to run as induction generator.

Yes or No

1082. Arcing-time is the time accounted from the instant of are initiation to the instant of arc being extinguished or the are current becomes zero.

Yes or No

1083.Core-balance leakage protection is used to provide protection against earth faults of low voltage winding.

Yes or No


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1084. Isolators operate under no-load conditions.

Yes or No

1085. A sudden short-circuit in an A.C. system causes a fall in current in the short-circuited phase.

Yes or No

1086. Arcing ground is also known as earth

Yes or No

1087. The insulating material for a cable should have

(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength

(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above

1088. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury?

(a) Bedding (b) Sheath

(c) Armouring (d) None of the above

1089. Which of the following insulation is used in cables?

(a) Varnished cambric (b) Rubber

(c) Paper (d) Any of the above

1090. Empire tape is

(a) varnished cambric (b) vulcanised rubber

(c) impregnated paper (d) none of the above


P a g e | 130

1091. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon.

(a) reactive power (b) power factor

(c) voltage (d) current carrying capacity

1092. The bedding on a cable consists of

(a) hessian cloth (b) jute


1093. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof (b) be non-inflammable

(c) be non-hygroscopic (d) have all above properties

1094. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutrals is

(a) blue (b) black

(c) brown (d) none of the above

1095. ___________ cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension (b) Super tension

(c) Extra high tension (d) Extra super voltage

1096. The minimum dielectric stress in cable is at

(a) armour (b) bedding

(c) conductor surface (d) lead sheath

1097. Low tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 200 V (b) 500 V

(c) 700 V (d) 1000 V


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1098. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at

(a) insulation layer (b) sheath

(c) armour (d) conductor surface

1099. High tension cables are generally used upto

(a) 11 kV (b) 33 kV

(c) 66 kV (d) 132 kV

1100. PVC stands for

(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor

(c) pressed and varnished cloth (d) positive voltage conductor

1101. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing

(a) the resistance of the conductor

(b) the inductance of conductors

(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors

(d) all above parameters

1102. The material for armouring on cable is usually

(a) steel tape (b) galvanised steel wire


1103. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one-fourth (b) becomes one-half


P a g e | 132

(c) becomes double (d) remains unchanged

1104. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable

(b) provide enough strength

(c) provide proper insulation


1105. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is

(a) same at the conductor and the sheath

(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath

(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath

(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath

1106. The insulation of the cable decreases with

(a) the increase in length of the insulation

(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation

(c) either (a) or (b)


1107. A cable carrying alternating current has

(a) hysteresis loses only

(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only

(c) hysteresis. Leakage and copper losses only

(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses


P a g e | 133

1108. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

(a) to minimise temperature stresses

(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil

(c) to minimum the effect of shocks and vibration due to passing vehicles, etc

(d) for all of the above reasons

Yes or No

1109. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.

Yes or No

1110. Insulation resistance can be measured by _____________.

1111. The operating voltage for low tension cables is upto ______________.

1112. The multi core cables for use upto 11 kV are of ___________ type.

1113. H-type cables are used up to _________________.

1114. Rubber is most commonly used insulation in cables.

Yes or No

1115. Normal life of a cable is expected to be 15 years.

Yes or No

1116. In a three core cables the colour of the neutral is red.

Yes or No


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1117. Minimum distance of cable from the foundation of the building should be 10 m.

Yes or No

1118. When a cable is to cross a road, it should be laid in pipes or conduits.

Yes or No

1119. The size of the conductor of power cable depends on the type of insulation

Yes or No

1120. Insulation resistance of cables is usually measured in terms of _________ ohms.

Yes or No

Write full forms of the following :

1. ECC - Earth Continuity Conductor2. KVAR - Kilo Volt Ampere Reactive3. BDV - Break down voltage4. XLPE - Cross linked poly ethylene,5. PVC - Poly Vinyl Chloride6. ACSR - Aluminium Conductor Steel Reinforced7. HRC - High rupturing Capacity8. SFU - Switch fuse unit9. OCB - Oil circuit breaker10. ACB - Air circuit breaker11. VCB - Vacuum circuit breaker12. APFC - Automatic power factor corrector13. OVR - Over volt relay14. FOB - Foot over bridge15. ROB - Road over bridge16. SWG - Standard wire gauge


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17. ELCB - Earth leakage circuit breaker18. RCCB - Reduced current circuit breaker19. MCB - Miniature circuit breaker20. MCCB - Molded case circuit breaker21. CT - Current transformer22. PT - Potential transformer23. LT - Low voltage24. HT - High voltage25. EHT - Extra high voltage26. IVRS - Interactive voice response system27. DGS & D - Director general of supply and disposal28. RDSO - Research, design and standard organization29. VRAL - Valve regulated lead acid30. HSD - High speed diesel

31. PCB - Printed circuit breaker32. IC - Integrated circuit33. CPU - Central processing unit34. SCR - Silicon controlled rectifier35. MPCB - Motor protection circuit breaker36. ET - Excitation transformer37. MA - Magnetic amplifier38. RRU - Regulator rectifier unit39. CLF - Compact fluorescent lamp40. CLW - Chittranjan locomotive works41. ICF - Integral coach factory42. RCF - Rail coach factory43. HVDC - High voltage direct current44. LV - Low voltage45. MV - Medium voltage46. HV - High voltage47. EHV - Extra high voltage


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48. RMPU - Roof mounted package unit49. SPTM - Self printing ticket machine50. FOIS - Freight operating information system51. PRS - Public reservation system52. SMF - Sealed maintenance free53. EFT - End feed terminal54. RSW - Rotary switch55. UTS - Unreserved ticket system56. RC - Rate contract57. C & W - Carriage and wagon58. SLR - Second class and luggage room59. GSCN - Self generating three tier sleepers60. GS - Self generating general second class

61. WGACCN - Vestibule generating air conditioned three tier62. WGACCW - Vestibule generating air conditioned two tier63. GSCNY - Self generating second class three tier with ladies

compartment64. FAC - First class air conditioned65. ACCZ - Air conditioned chair car66. LED - Light emitting diode67. ICTP - Ican clad triple pole68. TPN - Three pole neutral69. SPN - Single pole neutral70. GI - Galvanized iron71. BIS - Bureau of Indian standards72. IER - Indian electricity rule73. CDD - Compact disc drive74. HDD - Hard disk drive75. FDD - Floppy disk drive


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76. RCC - Reinforced cement contract77. SPG - Specific gravity78. AH - Ampere hour79. ART - Auxiliary relief train80. ARME - Accident relief and medical equipment81. BTU - British thermal units82. OP - Oil pressure83. LP - Low pressure84. HP - High pressure85. WRA - Water raising apparatus86. ACC - Air conditioned coach87. WLC - Water level controller88. DB - Distribution board89. KWH - Kilo watt hour90. HPSV - High pressure sodium vapour91. TDR - Time delay relay92. LVR - Low volt relay93. SPP - Single phase preventer94. PPCP - Poly propylene com95. PTCC - Power and telecommunication co-ordination committee96. PIV - Peak inverse voltage97. SMI - Special maintenance instructions

2. TRAIN LIGHTING & AIR CONDITION


1. An electrolyte use in train lighting cell is the mixture of

a) Sulphuric acid and tap water

b) Sulphuric acid and mineral water

c) Sulphuric acid and demineralised /distilled water

d) None of the above

2. When cell l is fully charged the positive plates becomes

a) Lead peroxide b) Lead Sulphate


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c) Spongy lead d) none

3. When the lead acid cell is fully charged the negative plate becomes

a) Lead peroxide b) lead sulphate

c) Spongy lead d) none

4. The capacity of cell is measured in

a) Ampere hour b) amperes

c) Watt hour d) watts

5. Internal resistance of lead cell is mainly due to

a) Size of plates b) nature of electrolyte

c) Distance between the plates d) all the above

6. Trickle charging of storage battery help to

a) Compensate for internal losses b) lead sulphate

c) Maintains proper electrolyte d) none

7. The capacity of battery used in 110v tl. System

a) 120ah b) 320ah

c) 210ah d) 90ah

8. SPGR of fully charged cell

a) 1.220 b) 1.140

c) 1.180 d) 1.100

9. SPGR of half charged cell

a) 1.175 b) 1.140

c) 1.210 d) 1.100

10. SPGR of fully discharged cell is

a) 1.210 b) 1.140

c) 1.175 d) 1.200


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11. Total no of cell available in TL flooded battery of 110V system

a) 54 b) 24

c) 56 d) 18

12. Sulphation occurs due to

a) Cell keeps under discharge conditions

b) Cells keeps under not fully charged conditions

c) Cells over charged

d) All the above

13. The codal life of lead acid TL/AC cell is

a) 4 b) 2

c) 3 d) none

14. The capacity of batteries used foe RMPU AC coaches is

a) 525AH b) 800AH

c) 400AH d) 1100AH

15. VRLA Batteries works on

a) Oxygen recombination principle

b) Hydrogen recombination principle

c) Hydrogen –Oxygen recombination principle


16. The VRLA cells can be mounted in a position

a) Horizontal b) Slating

c) Vertical d) Both a & b


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17. Conductivity is the ability of a solution to conduct electrical current commonly expressed in

a) Amperes b) Micro mhos/cm

c) Watt d) none

18. Conductivity of DM water is measured by

a) Conductivity meter b) pH meter

c) Universal solution d) all the above

19. Acceptable quality of treated water conductivity is in micro mhos/cm

a) <10 b) 40

c) <30 d) none

20. Acceptable quality of treated PH value will be

a) 6.8 to 7.2 b) 8.5 to 10

c) 7.5 to 8.5 d) none

21. VLRA Batteries means

a) Valve regulated acid batteries b) Both a& b

c) Voltage regulated acid batteries d) none

22. SMF batteries stand for

a) Sealed maintenance free batteries b) a & b

c) Self maintenance batteries d) none

23. Frequent topping up of distilled water in VRLA cells

a) Required b) sometimes required

c) Not required d) none

24. Self discharged batteries VRLA batteries _____________percentage of capacity for week

a) 0.5% to 1% b) 3%


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c) 2% d) 4%

25. VRLA battery separates can be

a) The gelled electrolyte type b) the absolved electrolyte type

c) a & b d) none

26. For VRLA battery, every 1 degree c in temperature, the charge /float voltage is tpo be reduced by

__________per cell.

a) 3mv b) 5mv

c) 1mv d) 6mv

27. Codal life of VRLA battery is

a) 4 years b) 5years

c) 3 years d) 7 years

28. Charging voltage /current ripple factor for VRLA batteries should be less than

a) Less than 5% b) less than 2%

c) Less than 15% d) none

29. The containers and covers of VRLA batteries are made up of

a) PPCP b) Hard rubber

c) PVC d) none

30. Train light mono block 120AH battery belongs to

a) Lead acid batteries b) nickel iron batteries

c) Nickel cadmium battery d) all the above

31. The specific gravity of the concentrated sulphuric acid is

a) 1.840 b) 1.220

c) 1.200 d) 1.180

32. The specific gravity of the electrolyte used in TL cellsis

a) 1.800 b) 1.200


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c) 1.100 d) 1.180

33. The secondary cell

a) Once discharged it can be charged

b) Once discharged it cannot be charged

c) Once discharged it had to throw away

d) None

34. The positive plate of lead acid

a) Lead peroxide b) spongy lead

c) Lead sulphate d) none

35. When fully charged lead cell is discharged, the positive and negative plates become

a) Lead peroxide b) spongy lead

c) Lead sulphate d) None

36. When the lead acid cell is recharged the specific gravity of the electrolyte

a) Increase b) As it is

c) Decrease d) None

37. Battery capacity depends upon

a) Size and no. Of plates b) Quantity of electrolyte

c) Quantity of active material d) All the above

38. The capacity of battery is expressed in terms of

a) Current rating b) voltage rating

c) AH rating d) VH rating

39. The number of positive plates in a secondary cell is always less than the negative plates by


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a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) None

40. Normal charge of battery is

a) 1/10th of the rated capacity of the battery

b) 1/20th of the rated capacity of the battery

c) 1/5th of the rated capacity of the battery

d) 1/30th of the rated capacity of the battery

41. Initial charge of the battery is

a) 1/10th of the rated capacity of the battery

b) 1/20th of the rated capacity of the battery

c) 1/30th of the rated capacity of the battery

d) 1/5th of the rated capacity of the battery

42. Batteries are provided in Train coach to provide

a) Amenities to public such as lights and fans

b) Separate excitation of alternator field

c) Self excitation of alternator field


43. The capacity of battery used in 110 TL systems

a) 120 AH b) 12 AH

c) 320 AH d) 90 AH

44. Number of mono block batteries used in 110V TL. System

a) 18 b) 12

c) 24 d) 9

45. over charge results in

a) Higher temperature of electrolyte


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b) Corrosion of plates

c) Oxidation of the separators and loss of water

d) All the above

46. Undercharging results in

a) Irreversible sulphation b) reversal of cells

c) Loss of the capacity d) all the above

47. Reverse polarity is mainly due to

a) Deep discharge b) RR Unit setting is high

c) Loss of the capacity d) all the above

48. Excessive gassing and high SPgr.

a) alternator/regulators setting high b) alternator/regulator setting low

c) Lack of electrolyte d) none

49. Hydrometer used in TL system is

a) Syringes type hydro meter b) suction hydrometer

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

50. If water consumption in particular cell is more due to

a) Hermetically sealed joint b) higher charging current

c) Leakage of electrolyte due to cracks in container d) All the above

51. Initial charging rate of lead acid battery is

a) 0.1 × C10 capacity b) 0.2 × C10 capacity

c) 0.05×C10 capacity d) all the above

52. TL 110 V TL coaches are provided with following batteries

a) Mono block batteries b) Individual cells


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c) Both a & b d) None

53. Conductivity of DM water is measured by

a) Conductivity meter b) Universal solution

c) PH meter d) All the above

54. Best quality of treated water conductivity is in micro mhos/cm

a) <10 b) <35

c) <40 d) None

55. Best quality of treated water PH Value will be

a) 6.8 to 7.2 b) 7.5 to 8.5

c) 8.5 to 10 d) none

56. Inverters convert

a) AC into DC b) Both a & b

c) DC into AC d) None

57. In 25 KVA inverter the 3 phase AC supply is achieved by boosting DC

a) 230V DC b) 415V DC

c) 650V DC d) None

58. Out of PWM voltage of inverter section of 25 KVA inverter of RMPU AC coach is

a) 650V DC b) 24V DC

c) 220V DC d) 3 phase 415 V AC

59. Alternator is a device that converts

a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

c) Chemical energy into electrical energy



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60. Both filed winding and 3 phase winding of AC coach alternator 120V are provided on _________

a) Stator b) Both a & b

c) Rotor d) None

61. TL/AC coach alternator 120V designed to have ________

a) Residual magnetism b) Permanent Magnetism

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

62. Recommended Cut in speed 4.5 KW TL alternator is by RDSO with MA RR unit_______

a) 357 rpm b) 1100 rpm

c) 600 rpm d) 2500 rpm

63. Minimum speed for full output of 4.5 KW 120 VAT TL alternator, recommended by RDSO is

______

a) 357 rpm b) 1100 rpm

c) 600 rpm d) 2500 rpm

64. Maximum speed of TL/AC coach alternator are connected in

a) 400 rpm b) 1500rpm

c) 800 rpm d) 2500 rpm

65. Field coils of 120V TL/QC coach alternator are connected in

a) Series b) parallel

c) Star d) delta

66. Three phase of winding of 120V TL/AC coach alternator are connected in

a) Star b) series

c) Delta d) parallel

67. Size of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5 KW TL alternators


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a) C122 b) C124

c) C118 d) none

68. Size of V belts used for driving 110 V, 18, 22.5 KW AC coach alternator

a) C122 b) C124

c) C118 d) none

69. Number of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5 KW TL alternator is _______

a) 4 b) 12

c) 6 d) none

70. Number of V belts used for driving 110V 18 KW & 25 KW AC alternator is _________

a) 4 b) 12

c) 6 d) None

71. DC output voltage of alternator/regulator of 110V TL/AC coach is

a) 110 -140 DC b) 90-120 DC

c) 70-90 DC d) None

72. Rated DC output current of 4.5KW 110V alternator is ___________

a) 37.5A b) 19A

c) 43A d) none

73. Rated DC output current of 18KW 110V alternator is ____________

a) 193A b) 175 A

c) 135A d) none

74. Rated DC output current of 25KW 110V alternator is __________

a) 193A b) 175 A

c) 135A d) none

75. Pitch circle diameter of Axel pulley of 110V TL system

a) 200mm b) 572.6mm


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c) 140mm d) none

76. Pitch circle diameter of Axel pulley of 110V AC coach system

a) 200mm b) 572.6mm

c) 584mm d) none

77. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for passenger train with

flooded batteries is ____________

a) 127 DC b) 128.5V DC

c) 124 DC d) none

78. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of alternator 18KW 110V for passenger train with

flooded batteries is ______

a) 129 DC b) 128V DC

c) 124 DC d) none

79. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for passenger train with VRLA

batteries is ______

a) 123+/-0.5 V DC b) 121+/-0.5V DC

c)128.5+/-0.5V DC d) none

80. As per the latest SMI _________the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for mail/express

train with VRLA batteries is ______

a) 123+/-0.5 V DC b) 121+/-0.5V DC

c) 128.5+/-0.5V DC d) none

81. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of alternator 4.5KW 110V for superfast train with VRLA

batteries is ______

a) 123+/-0.5 V DC b) 121+/-0.5V DC

c)128.5+/-0.5V DC d) none

82. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110V for passenger train with

VRLA batteries is ______


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a) 128+/-0.5 V DC b) 126+/-0.5V DC

c) 127+/-0.5V DC d) none

83. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110V for mail/express train with


a) 128+/-0.5 V DC b) 126+/-0.5V DC

c) 127+/-0.5V DC d) none

84. As per the latest SMI the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110V for superfast train with


a) 128+/-0.5 V DC b) 126+/-0.5V DC

c) 127+/-0.5V DC d) none

85. The purpose of TL alternator used in railways.

a. charging the coach battery on train run

b. working of light sand fans in the coach during train run

c. sharing tie loads to other coaches in case of emergency

d. all the above

86. The capacity of alternator used for BG coach 110 V train lighting system.

a.3KW b. 12 KW

c. 4.5KW d. none

87. The capacity of alternator used for BG coach 110 V roof mounted AC coach.

a.12KW b. 25 KW

c. 18KW d. none

88. The capacity of alternator used for BG coach 110 V under slung AC coach.

a.25KW b. 18 KW

c. 12KW d. none


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89. The PCD (pitch circle diameter) of 25kW 110V alternator pulleys is

a. 584mm+/-0.5 ohms b.100mm

c.200+/-0.3 mm d. none

90. The field resistance of 4.5KW 110V TL alternator is

a. 4.5+/-0.5 ohms b.10+/-0.5 ohms

c.6.0+/-0.5 ohms d. none

91. The resistance between two phases of 4.5KW 110V TL alternator is

a. 0.4+/-0.5 ohms b.0.8+/-0.5 ohms

c.4.5+/-0.5 ohms d. none

92. The purpose of providing anti rotating clamp near suspension arrangement of alternator is

a. Not to rotate suspension pin of alternator

b. Not to damage the nylon bushes of alternator /suspension brackets

c. not to damage the suspension bracket/boss alternator

d. All the above

93. The insulation material recommended for alternator windings of 4.5KW 110V shall be ____class.

a. A b. F

c. B d. none

94. The voltage setting of Alt/RR unit is to be set in far with current and RPM for 4.5KW is

a. Half rated capacity of the alt as 1500 RPM

b. ¼ treated capacity of the alt as load at 1000 RPM

c. Full rated capacity of alt as load at 2550 RPM

95. While measuring insulation resistance of 110 V alternator / rectifier cum regulator the rating of

megger is to be used is


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a. 100V b. Both a & b

c. 500v DC d. none

96. The resistance between two phases of 25KW KEL alternator is about

a. 0.0530746 ohms b. 44.2 miles ohms

c. 0.034 to 0.038 d. none

97. The field resistance of 25KW KEL alternator is about

a. 9.7568ohms b. 10.72 ohms

c.8+/-0.05ohms d. none

98. The gap between two halves of axle pulley to be maintained is

a. 3.0+/-0.5 mm b.4mm+/-0.5 mm

c. 6mm+/-0.05mm d. None

99. Codal life of 4.5, 18, 22.75 & 25 KW alternator /RR unit

a. 12 years b.15 years

c. 25 years d. None

100. Codal life of 120AH VRLA Battery


c. 4years d. None

101. Codal life of 120AH flooded Battery


c. 4years d. None

102. Codal life battery charger


c. 25 years d. None


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103. Codal life of coach writing


c. 25 years d. None

104. Codal life of carriage fans


c. 25 years d. None

105. The distance to be maintained while fixing axle pulley on wheel, from wheel hub to axle pulley

outer edge for 18KW alternator is

a. 225mm b. 240mm

c.145mm c. None

106. The distance to be maintained while fixing axle pulley on wheel, from wheel hub to axle pulley

outer edge for 4.5KW alternator is

a. 225mm b. 240mm

c.145mm d. None

107. The distance to be maintained while fixing axle pulley on wheel ,from wheel hub to axle pulley

outer edge for 25KW alternator is

a. 225mm b. 240mm

c. 145mm c. None

108.'V' belt dropping /smoking/burning due to mechanical failure

a. Brake block jamming b. Guide cups of damper’s

have dropped

c. both a & b d. None

109. V' belt dropping /smoking/burning due to electrical failure

a. load on Alt is heavy b. Loose /excessive tension


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c. Wrong alignment d. All the above

110. The minimum insulation resistance to be maintained for 4.5KW alternator is

a. 1 mega ohm b. 20 mega ohm

c. 2 mega ohm d. None

111. The minimum insulation resistance to be maintained for 18 & 25KW alternator is

a. 5 mega ohm b. 20 mega ohm

c. 2 mega ohm d. None

112. No. of ET’s used in 25KW RR Unit MA type

a. 2 b. zero

c. 1 d. None

113. No.of ET’s used in 25KW MA type RR Unit

a. 2 b. zero

c. 1 d. None

114. Width of grooved axle pulley of 4.5KW alternator is

a.200mm c.136mm

b. 190mm d. None

115. Width of grooved axle pulley of 18 & 25 KW alternator is

a.200mm c.136mm

b. 190mm d. None

116. The type of suspension bushes are tto be provided TL? AC alternators/suspension brackets a

per RDSO specification no RDFSO/PE/Ac/0006/99(Rev.0)

a. cast nylon bushes c.MS bushes

b. nylon 66 bushes d. all the above


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117. Residual magnetism lost in the alternator core the reasons

a. field polarity changed c. Both a & b

b. alternator is the idle conditions for a long time d. None of the above

118.As per then Railway Board letter No.2006/Elec(G)/138/3pt. 1 unit Exchange spare

recommended for alternators and Regulators for TL?AC depot

a.5% b.15%

c. 10% d. None

119. ERRU stands for

a. Electronic rectifier cum regulator unit

b. Electromagnetic Rectifier cum Regulator unit

c. Electrostatics rectifier cum regulator unit

d. None

120. IGBT stands for

a. Insulated gate bipolar transistor

b. Injection gate bipolar transistor

c. Indicator bipolar transistor

d. None

121. IGBT is

a. Fast switching device

b. Slow switching devices

c. Very fast switching devices


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d. None

122. The size of capacity of fused to be provided 25KW ERRU n phase circuit

a.160A

b.200A

c.220A

d. None

123. UVC used in ERRU must be

a. Suitable to work with all capacities

b. Suitable to work with all MAKES

c. Both a & b

d. None

124. The battery charging current limit with 4.5Kw ERRU is to be set at

a. 24A +/-2A b. 12A+/-2A

c. 36 A+/-2A d. None

125. TL alternator 4.5 KW 130V is ___________.

a. 4V belts drive machine

b. 6V belts drive machine

c. 12V belts drive machine

d. None of the above

126. Non drive end bearing of 4.5 kw 120v 4.5kw TL alternator is _________.

a. SKF 6309 b. SKF NU311 c. SKF 6200 d. None

127. Driving end bearing of 4.5 kW 120v 4.5kw TL alternators is _________.

a. SKF 6309 b. SKF NU311 c. SKF 6200 d. None

128. Recommended cut in speed of 4.5 kw TL alternator is by RDSO with MA RR unit


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a. 357 rpm b. 600 rpm c. 100 rpm d. 2500 rpm

129. Minimum speed for full output of 4.5 kw 120v TL alternator, Recommended by RDSO is

a. 357 rpm b. 600 rpm c. 100 rpm d. 2500 rpm

130. Field coils of 120VTL/AC coach alternator are connected in

a. Series b. Parallel c. Star d. Delta

131. Three phase windings of 120V TL/AC coach alternator are connected in

a. Star b. Delta c. Series d. Parallel

132. Field coils of TL coach alternators are located on

a. Stator b. Rotor c. Both a & b d. None

133. Each field coil of TL/AC coach alternator embraces __________ total number of there phase

winding slots.

a. Half of the

b. One fourth of the

c. Three fourth of the

d. None

134. Size of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5 kw TL alternators

a. C122 b. C118 c. C124 d. None

135. Number of V belts used for driving 110V 4.5 kw TL alternators is

a. 4 b. 6 c. 12

d. None

136. Number of alternator pulleys are available on 4.5 kw TL alternator

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

137. Number of alternator pulleys are available on BG AC coach Alternator

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None


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138. Residual magnetism retains in ______________.

a. Rotor core b. Stator core c. Rotor teeth d. None

139. Number of slots are available in stator for 3 phase ac winding in 4.5 kw 120V alternator

a. 36 b. 60 c. 18 d. None

140. 3Phase AC voltages are first produced in ac winding in alternator by

a. Residual magnetism b. Permanent magnetism

c. Both a & b d. None

141. When the rotor of 4.5 kw 120V alternator is rotated by hand the voltage developed in the 3

phase winding will be

a. 3.5 v b. 12v c. 24v d. None

142. DC output voltage of alternator/regulator of 110V TL/AC coach is

a. (110-140) DC b. (70-90) DC c. (90-120) DC d. None

143. Rated DC output current of 4.5kw 110v alternator is

a. 37.5 A b. 19 A c. 43 A d. None

144. Rated DC output current of 3kw 110v alternator is

a. 37.5 A b. 19 A c. 43 A d. None

145. Rated DC output current of 25kw 110v alternator is

a. 193 A b. 175 A c. 135 A d. None

146. Pitch circle diameter of axle pulley of 110v TL system

a. 200mm b. 140mm c. 572.6mm d. None

147. Pitch circle diameter of axle pulley of 110v AC coach system

a. 200mm b. 140mm c. 572.6mm d. None

148. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of alternator 4.5kw 110v for Express/ mail trains with

flooded batteries is ___________.


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a. 128.5v DC b. 124v DC c. 122v DC d. 120v DC

149. As per the latest SMI, the voltage setting of AC coach alternator 110v for passenger train with

VRLA batteries is

a. 128+/-0.5vDC b. 127+/-0.5vDC c. 126+/-0.5vDC d. None

150. The purpose of TL alternator used in railways

a. Charging the coach battery on train run

b. Working of lights and fans in the coach during train run

c. Sharing the load to other coaches in case of emergency

d. All of the above

151. The purpose of Ac coach alternator used in railways

a. Charging the coach battery on train run

b. Working of lights and fans in the coach during train run

c. Sharing the load to other coaches in case of emergency

d. All of the above

152. The capacity of alternators are used for BG coach 110v train lighting system

a. 3kw b. 4.5kw c. 12kw d. None

153. The capacity of alternators are used for BG 110v roof mounted AC coach

a. 3kw b. 18kw c. 25kw d. None

154. Number of alternators are provided for AC sleeper, AC chair car, AC composite coach

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

155. The AC winding/ Main winding of TL/AC coach alternator has ________phase winding.

a. Single b. Double c. Three d. None

156. The safety items of TL/AC alternator are


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a. Suspension hanger pin with bushes and cottar pin

b. Alternator suspension arrangement

c. Alternator pulley& nut

d. All of the above

157. NU 311 bearing is

a. Roller bearing b. Ball bearing c. Both a & b d. None

158. The field resistance of 4.5kw 110v TL alternator has

a. 4.5+/-0.5 ohms b. 6.0 +/-0.5 ohms c. 10 +/-0.5 ohms d.

None

159. MA type RR units are working on the principle

a. Saturation and de saturation of magnetic core b. BJT

c. Mutual induction d. None

160. Generally the voltage setting of the alternator is to be set at ___________ At 1500 rpm.

a. Full rated current b. Half rated current

c. 2/3rd rated current d. None

161. Both directions of train run, the polarity of DC output supply of TL/AC alternator

a. Changes b. Do not change c. Change at start

d. None

162. The mating of pulley with shaft of TL/AC alternator shall be

a. 80% b. 70% c. 60% d. 50%

163. The cleat of alternator is to be made of

a. Fiber glass in forced fire retardant DNC b. Bakelite

c. Phenolid d. None

164. Rotor shaft of KEL 110v 4.5kw alternator made up of


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a. EN 24 b. EN 8 c. Both a & b d.

None

165. Type of suspension bushes to be used while mounting alternators as per latest RDSO

instructions are

a. Cast nylon b. Nylon 66 c. MS d. None

166. The insulation resistance of alternator when measured with megger the IR value should not be

less then

a. 20 mega ohms b. 5 mega ohms c. Both a & b d.

None

167. In case of over voltage in 4.5kw 120v RR unit, the tripping voltage of relay may be set at

a. 145+/-2 b. 150+/-2 c. 135+/-2 d. None

168. The number of safety chains provided for 18kw and 25kw alternator

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. None

169. The cut in speed of 25kw alternator is not more then

a. 400rpm b. 600rpm c. 800rpm d. None

170. The MFO of 25kw alternator is not more then

a. 400rpm b. 600rpm c. 800rpm d. None

171. The field resistance of 25kw KEL alternator about

a. 9.7568 ohms b. 8+/-0.5 ohms c. 10.72 ohms d. None

172. To prevent breakage of shaft during service the following test should be done as per RDSO SMI

a. Non destruction dye-penetrate test

b. Shock pulse meter test

c. Ultrasonic test

d. None

173. The gap between two halves of axle pulley to be maintained is


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a. 3.0mm+/-0.5mm b. 6mm+/-0.5mm c. 4mm+/-0.5mm

d. None

174. Before lifting coach body, the following electrical items as to be removed, otherwise coach body

will not separate from trolley

a. Belt tensioning mechanism b. V belts

c. Alternator cables d. All of the above

175. Rating of AC fuses to be provided in 25kw MA type RR unit

a. 125A HRC b. 160A c. Either a or b d.

None

176. The rating of field fuse to be provided in 4.5kw 110v HMTD MA type RRU

a. 6A b. 2A c. 4A d. None

177. Field resistance of 25kw alternator

a. 9.75 ohms b. 4.5 ohms c. 10 ohms d. None

178. Codal life of 120 AH VRLA battery

a. 5 yrs b. 4yrs c. 3 yrs d. None

179. Codal life of 120 AH Flooded battery

a. 5 yrs b. 4yrs c. 3 yrs d. None

180. Codal life of battery charger

a. 12 yrs b. 15yrs c. 25yrs d. None

181. Codal life of coach wiring

a. 12 yrs b. 15yrs c. 20yrs

d. None

182. Voltage regulation of alternator with ERRU for all capacities of alternator

a. +/-5% b.+/-3% c. +/-2% d.

None

183. Voltage ripples of output supply with ERRU should be less then


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a. 2% b. 5% c. 15% d. None

184. ISO pack power diode modulars are used for converting

a. AC to DC b. DC to AC c. both A & B d. None

185. The advantage of ISO pack power modules are

a. Directly can mount on heat sink

b. Two diode combined unit

c. Small in size

d. all of the above

186. The ERRU shall have the following protection

a. Over voltage/surge protection b. DC output short circuit protection

c. Over charging current limit protection d. all of the above

187. UVC used in ERRU must be

a. Suitable to work with all capacities b. Suitable to work all makes

c. both a & b d. None

188. The over voltage setting of OVP with ERRU should be set at

a. 140-145V b. 125-130V c. 135-140V d. none

189. The battery charging current limit with 4.5 KW ERRU is to be set at

a. 24A+/-2A b. 12A+/-2A c. 36A+/-2A d. none

190. The battery charging current limit with 25kw ERRU when both alternators are paralleled is to be

set at

a. 110A+/-5A b. 220A+/-5A c. 220A+/-10A d. none

191. OVP provided with ERRU shall latch before output voltage reaches to

a. 145 V b. 150V c. 135V+/-2V d. none


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192. Hall senses are used to sense

a. Total alternator load current b. battery charging current

c. both A&B d. none

193. OVP is provided in ERRU for the purpose of

a. To arrest the over voltage b. latch the output voltage 90V for working lights and fans

c. both s & b d. none

194. PWM stands for

a. Pulse width modulation b. phase width modulation

c. both a & b d. none

195. EEPROM stands for

a. Electrically erasable programmable read only memory

b. Electronically erasable programmable read only memory

c. both a & b

d. none

196. SMPS stands for

a. switch mode power supply b. single mode power supply

c. sweep mode power supply d. none

197. IGBT stands for

a. Insulated gate bipolar transistor b. isolated bipolar transistor

c. both a & b d. none

198. Air delivery of fan can be measured by

a. anemometer b. ammeter c. lux meter d. none


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199. When insulation resistance test is carried out on railway carriage fan it’s insulation resistance

should not be less then

a. 20 mega ohms b. 10 mega ohms c. 2 mega ohms d.

none

200. The wattage of 110V DC 400mm sweep RC fan is

a. 32w b. 25w c. 19w d. none

201. The wattage of 110V DC 300mm RC fan is

a. 32w b. 25w c. 19w d. none

202. Voltage drop between battery and any of the farthest fan shall not exceed _________ volts at

battery voltage of 108v

a. 5 b. 3 c. 1 d. none

203. Codal life of RC fan is

a. 10 years b. 12years c. 4years d. none

204. Input power of 110V BLDC 400mm sweep fan of CGL make

a. 24w b. 38w c. 32w d. none

205. Capacity of rotary switches provided in rotary junction box is

(a) 40 A (b) 16 A (c) 10 A (d) 15 A

206. Capacity of limit switch provided for alarm chain pulling indication light circuit

(a) 10 A (b) 15 A (c) 35 A (d) 40 A

207. Size of rewire able fuse recommended for individual fan in 110V TL system is

(a) 35 SWG R/W (b) 29 SWG R/W (c) 20 SWG R/W (d) 22 SWG R/W

208. Positive and negative cable in roof runs through on either side of coach to avoid

(a) Earth leakage (b) over load (c) short circuits (d) none

209. Essential lights in SG TL coaches other than First class consists of

(a) Lavatory lights, door way lights and Night lights and 50% of compartment lights

(b) Lavatory lights

(c) Lavatory and door lights

(d) Lavatory, door lights and Night lights


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210. The wattage of TL Fan

(a) 32 W (b) 10 W (c) 80 W (d) 60 W

211. The capacity of battery fuse for 110Volt SG TL coach is

(a) 40 A HRC (b) 16 A HRC (c) 10 A HRC (d) 4 A HRC

212. FRP tray shall be provided at the bottom of the battery box to avoid

(a) Corrosion of the battery box from splitting of acid

(b) Electrical insulation for battery and battery box

(c) Vibration of batteries


213. The minimum clearance between the top of the battery and battery box for maintenance of

cells shall have

(a) 50 mm (b) 150 mm (c) 100 mm (d) none

214. The size of the Fan provided on SGBG coaches of 110V system

(a) 400 mm sweep (b) 300 mm sweep (c) 225 mm sweep (d) 200 mm sweep

215. The total number of V belts provided to the drive TL alternator 4.5KW are

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3

216. The train lighting wiring is

(a) two wire earthed system (b) two wire unearthed system

(c) one wire earthed system (d) none of the above

217. The insulation resistance of 110V coach when measured with 500V Megger during healthy

weather condition

(a) 2mega ohms (b) 1mega ohms (c) 3mega ohms (d) 0.5mega ohms

218. The insulation resistance of 110V coach when measured with 500V Megger during adverse

weather condition

(a) 2mega ohms (b) 1mega ohms (c) 3mega ohms (d) none

219. Electrical fires on coach is mainly due to

(a) loose connections (b) short circuits and earth faults

(c) undersize cables (d) all of the above

220. The earth leakage can be checked both positive and negative cables at a time by

(a) double test lamp method (b) 500V megger

(c) single test lamp (d) none of the above

221. Double test lamps are connected in

(a) series (b) parallel (c) both a & b (d) none


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222. When double test lamp is connected to EFTB, red lead connected lamp glows and blue lead

lamp does not glow then coach is

(a) healthy (b) having positive earth (c) having negative earth (d) none

223. When double test lamp is connected to EFTB, red lead lamp does not glows and blue lead lamp

glows then coach is

(a) healthy (b) having positive earth (c) having negative earth (d) both b & c

224. The insulation resistance of coach is to be measured with

(a) megger (b) ohm meter (c) continuity meter (d) none

225. The instrument used to measure the current without disturbing the circuit is

(a) tong tester (b) tacho meter (c) photo meter (d) none

226. Voltmeter is to be connected to the circuit in

(a) parallel (b) series (c) series and parallel (d) none

227.Ammeter is to be connected to the circuit in

(a) parallel (b) series (c) series and parallel (d) none

228. While measuring the earth leakages by double test lamp, lamps should have

(a) same wattage (b) different wattage (c) any wattage (d) none

229. While giving supply to adjacent coaches through EFT supply polarities are to be maintained

(a) same polarity (b) opposite polarity (c) any polarity (d) none

230. No generation of TL alternator is due to

(a) alternator Field/AC wire defective (b) no residual magnetism

(c) rectifier/regulator box defective (d) any of the above

231. Cables used for wiring in coaches should have

(a) minimum joint (b) five joints (c) maximum joints (d) none

232. The level of illumination will be measured by

(a) photo meter (b) lux meter (c) both A&B (d) none

233. The percentage of spare coaches should be available in TL maintenance depot on traffic

account is

(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) none

234. The percentage of spare coaches should be available in AC maintenance depot on traffic

account is

(a) 12 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) none


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235. The purpose of evaporator is

(a) To absorb heat from coach and to send cooled air in to the coach.

(b) To convert liquid refrigerant into vapour

(c) Both (a) and (b)

236. The purpose of evaporator is


(b) To draw refrigerant vapour from the cooling coil and boost the temperature and pressure

of Refrigerant

(c) To reject the heat of refrigerant to the water or air and to convert refrigerant vapour into

liquid

(d) To control and pump the refrigerant to the cooling coil

237. The purpose of compressor is



of Refrigerant


liquid


238. The purpose of condenser is to



of Refrigerant

(c) To reject the heat of refrigerant to the water or air and to convert refrigerant vapour

into liquid


239. The purpose of expansion valve is



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of Refrigerant


liquid


240. The purpose of liquid receiver is

(a) It carries the low pressure vapour from the evaporator to the suction inlet of the

compressor

(b) It conveys the high pressure and high temperature refrigerant from the compressor to

the

Condenser

(c)It carries the liquid refrigerant from the liquid receiver and conves it to the expansion

valve

(d) It acts as a reservoir which stores the liquid refrigerant coming from the condenser and

supplies

Is to the cooling coil according to its requirement

241. The relative humidity for the human comfort zone is

(a) 40 – 60% (b) 80 – 100% (c) 20 – 40% (d) None

242. The cooling temperature during summer mostly preferred by passengers in Railway AC coaches

is Single setting is

(a) 23 to 25 C (b) 19 to 21 C (c) 26 to 28 C (d) None

243. The heating temperature during winter proffered by passengers in Railway AC coaches is single

Setting is

(a) 23 to 25 C (b) 19 to 21 C (c) 26 to 28 C (d) None

244. The air conditioning system used in Railway coaches is

(a) Vapour compressor system (b) Circulation of cold water system

(c) Ice activated system (d) All of the above

245. The purpose of compressor in vapour compressor system is

(a) It extracts refrigerant gas from the evaporator coil at low pressure


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(b) It compresses low temperature and low pressure gas and delivers to the condenser at

high

Pressure and high temperature

(c). Both a & b (d). None

246. The purpose of dehydrator and filter used in vapour compression system is

(a) It removes moisture available in refrigerant system

(b) It prevents particles and scales in refrigerant system

(c) Both a & b (d) None

247. The purpose of high pressure cut out used in vapour compressor system is

(a) It stops the compressor if the pressure exceeds the pre set value

(b) It protects the compressor and piping from damage


248. The purpose of condenser used in vapour compressor system is

(a) It cools the high pressure hot gas received from the compressor

(b) It converts high pressure gas into liquid


249. The purpose of expansion valve/capillary tube used in vapour compression system is

(a) It controls the rate flow of high pressure refrigerant liquid

(b) It allows refrigerant liquid to evaporator at low pressure


250. The purpose of the evaporator (cooling coil) used in vapour compression system is

(a) It evaporates refrigerant liquid by absorbing heat from surrounding areas

(b) It cools surrounding area


251. Formula for converting centigrade into foreign heat

(a) 5/9 (F-32) (b) 9/5 (C+32)

(c) 9/5 (F-32) (d) 5/9 (C+32)

252. Formula for converting foreign heat into centigrade

(a) 5/9 (F-32) (b) 9/5 (C+32)

(c) 9/5 (F-32) (d) 5/9 (C+32)

253. The normal body temperature of human being is

(a) 37 C (b) 98.6 F (c) Both a & b (d) None


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254. The danger for the human body, if the temperature fails below

(a) 98 F (b) 98.6 F (c) 105.6 F (d) None

255. The danger for the human body, if the temperature fails below

(a) 36.5 C (b) 37 C (c) 40.5 C (d) None

256. The danger for the human body, if the temperature increases above

(a) 40.5 C (b) 37 C (c) 36.5 C (d) None

257. The danger for the human body, if the temperature increases above

(a) 98 F (b) 98.6 F (c) 105.6 F (d) None

258. If the relative humidity is below 30% the result will be

(a) Mucous (b) Skin surface becomes too dry


259. If the relative humidity is above 70% the result will be

(a) Clammy sensation (b) Sticky sensation


260. For summer air conditioning the relative humidity should not be more then

(a) 40% (b) 60% (c) 75% (d) 90%

261. For winter air conditioning the relative humidity should not be more then

(a) 40% (b) 60% (c) 75% (d) 90%

262. The duct is made of

(a) Galvanized iron (b) Aluminium

(c) Fiber glass (d) Cement asbestos

(e) Any of the above

263. Capillary tube is used in

(a) Hermitically sealed units (b) Open type AC units

(c) Semi open type AC units (d) None

264. An evaporator is also known as

(a) Freezing coil (b) Cooling coil

(c) Chilling coil (d) All of the above

265. Evaporator is also known as

(a) Freezing coil (b) Cooling coil

(c) Chilling coil (d) All of the above


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266. Condenser is used in the __________ pressure side of the refrigerant system

(a) Low (b) High (c) Medium (d) None

267. The highest temperature in a vapour compressed system occur after

(a) Compressor (b) Condensation

(c) Expansion (d) Evaporation

268. The lower at temperature in a vapour compressed system occur after

(a) Compressor (b) Condenser

(c) Expansion (d) Evaporator

269. Dry bulb temperature is

(a) The temperature indicated by a temperature with a clean, dry sensing element that is

Shielded from radiation effects

(b) The temperature measured by a thermometer with its bulb covered by a wick wetted

With distilled water exposed to a current of rapidly moving air

(c) An arbitrary index of the degree of warmth or cold felt by the human body in response

To a combination of the temperature, humidity and movement of air

(d) None

270. Wet bulb temperature is

(a) The temperature indicated by a thermometer with a clean, dry sensing element that is

Shielded from radiation effects

(b) The temperature measured by a thermometer with its bulb covered by a wick

wetted

With distilled water exposed to a current of rapidly moving air,

(c) An arbitrary index of the degree of warmth or cold felt by the human body in

response to a combination of the temperature, humidity and movement of air

(d) None

271. The air conditioning system depends on its action on the

(a) Latent heat principle (b) Expansion principle


272. Latent heat principle is

(a) Any substance is passing from the liquid to gaseous state absorbs a specific quantity of

heat at constant temperature.

(b) Any substance is passing from the gaseous to liquid state gives up a specific quantity of

heat at constant temperature.


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(c) Both a & b

(d) None

273. Latent heat principal is applied for

(a) Evaporator (b) Condenser


274. Psychometric chart is

(a) The fundamental tool of air conditioning engineer.

(b) The science involving thermo dynamic properties of moist air

(c) The changes occurring in humid air when it is subjected to various air conditioning

process can be traced


275. Psychometric chart shows relationship between

(a) Dry bulb temperature (b) Wet bulb temperature

(c) Dew point temperature (d) Humidity

(e) Total heat (enthalpy) (f) All the above

276. Refrigerant used in air condition should be

(a) Non-irritating (b) Non-poisonous

(c)Non-inflammable (d) All of the above

277. Refrigerant used in air condition system should not have

(a) Corrosive action (b) Disagreeable odor


278. Refrigerant used in air condition system

(a) Leak detection should be easy and simple

(b) Latent heat of vaporization should be large

(c) The volume of vapour for given weight should be slightly above atmosphere


279. The refrigerant used in AC system

(a) Must be capable of being liquefied at condensing temperature

(b) Must not solidify at any temperature with in the range of working

(c) The vapour pressure should be slightly above atmosphere


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280. The purpose of air condition is

(a) Temperature control (b) Humidity con

(c) Air movement and circulation (d) Air filtering, cleaning and purification

(e) All the above

281. The range of temperature for year round human comfort is

a. 22.8˚ to 25˚ C b. 27˚ to 29˚ C

c. 15˚ to 17˚ C d. None

282. The range of air motion for tear round human comfort is

A. 5m/min to 8m/mm b. 15m/mm to 20m/mm

c. 25m/mm to 8m/mm d. None

283. The unit for the capacity of air conditioning is in

a. Ton of refrigeration b. Kilograms

c. Founds d. None

284. One ton of refrigeration is equal to

a. 288000 Btu/24 hr b. 144000 Btu/ 24 hr

c. 72000 Btu/ 24hr d. None

285. one ton refrigeration is equal to

a. 12000 Btu/ hr b. 6000 Btu/ hr

c. 2000 Btu/ hr d. None


a. 200 Btu/ min b. 100 Btu/ hr

c. 50 Btu/ hr d. None

287. One ton of Refrigerant equals to

a. 72000 Kcal/ 24 hrs b. 288000 Btu/ 24 hrs

c. Both (a)and (b) d. None

288. One ton of refrigerant equals to

a. 3000 Kcal/ hrs b. 12000 Btu/ hrs

c. Both (A) and (B) d. None


a. 50 Kcal/min b. 200 Btu for minute


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c. Both (a) and (b) d. None

290. One ton of refrigerant is

a. A machine having its capacity to produce cooling effect of 200 BTU/min or 50 Kcal per mit

b. A machine having its capacity to produce colling effect of 12000 BTU/hrs or 3000 Kcal/Hrs

c. Removes the heat at the rate of 3000 Kcal/hr or 50 Kcal/min

d. None

291. Refrigerant is a

a. Substance which is circulated in a refrigeration system to reject heat

b. Substance which is circulated in a refrigeration system to absorb heat

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None

292. R22 refrigerants comes under group of

a. HCFC b. HFC


293. 134a refrigerant comes under the group of

a. HCFC b. HFC


294. HCFC stands for

a. Hydro chloro flouro carbon b. Halo chloro flouro carbon

c. Both (a) and (b) d. none

295. HCF stands for

a. Hydro flouro carbon b. Halo flouro carbon


296. The moisture in AC system causes

a. Corrosion b. Sludge

c. Amalgam d. Freeze-up

e. All the above

297. Corrosion caused due to moisture in air condition systems results

a. Damage the metallic components

b. Reduce the lubrication properties of the oil

c. Increase the lubrication properties of the oil

d. None


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298. Sludge caused due to moisture in air condition system results

a. Increase the lubrication properties of the oil


c. Blocks flow of refrigerant

d. None

299. Amalgam caused due to moisture/water at capillary in AC system results


b. Blocks flow of refrigerant

c. Reduce the lubrication properties of the oil

d. None

300. Freeze up caused due to moisture / water at capillary in AC system results



c. Blocks flow of refrigerant

d. All of the above

301. The moisture in the AC system can be eliminate by

a. Blowing dry air/nitrogen through the system

b. Pulling vacuum through the system

c. Heating the system to high temperature while pulling vacuum, simultaneously

d. All the above

302. The Suction pressure of the system lower than the normal the causes are

a. An obstruction in the flow of system

b. Failure of blower fan, filters

c. Electronic thermostats are not functioning

d. All the above

303. Suction pressure of the system is higher than the normal, the reason may be

a. Excess load on the evaporator b. Expansion value defective

c. Compressor speed low d. All the above

304. The cooling in the coach is not sufficient, the reasons may be


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a. Compressor not getting loaded /poor efficiency

b. Too little gas or air may have accumulated in the system

c. Condenser, fresh/return filters, evaporator dirty/ choked

d. Setting of expansion value disturbed

e. All the above

305. Purging means

a. Expelling all the air in the system by admitting gas

b. Admitting air into the system

c. Admitting refrigerant into the system

d. None

306. Condenser head pressure is lower than the normal, the reason is

a. Less gas in the system b. Gas leakage in the system

c. Expansion value/ evaporator/ compressor suction strainer choked

d. All the above

307. Condenser head pressure is higher than the normal, the reason is

a. Condenser fans are not working properly b. Air in the system

c. Excessive gas in the system d. All the above

308. Capillary tube is also called as

a. Condenser b. Evaporator

c. Compressor d. Expansion value

309. The function of capillary tube is same as

a. Condenser b. Evaporator

c. Compressor d. Expansion value

310. RMPU means

a. Roof mounted package unit b. Rail mounted package unit

c. Rack mounted packaged unit d. None

311. Weight of the FEEDERS LLOYD RMPU is about

a. 2700 kg b. 620 kg c. 700 kg d. none

312. Weight of the SIDWAL RMPU is about


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a. 2700 kg b. 620 kg c. 700 kg d. none

313. Installation time of RMPU is about

a. 4 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. none

314. Refrigerant is used in RMPU is

a. R22 b. R12 c. R134a d. None

315. Chemical name of R22 is

a. Mono chloro Difluoro methane CHCIF2 b. Dichloro diflouro methane CCl2F

c. Dichloro monoflour methane CHCl2F d. None

316. Quantity of refrigerant to be Charged for one AC circuit of RMPU is about

a. About 3 Kgs b. About 20 Kgs

c. About 30 Kgs d. None

317. The type of compressor used in RMPU unit is

a. Heretically sealed b. opened

c. Semi opened d. None

318. Potential leakage of RMPU unit is

a. Low b. Large c. Enormous d. None

319. Type of power supply to compressors and condenser and evaporator units of RMPU coach is

a. DC b. AC c. Pulsating DC d. None

320. Power supply is fed to compressors and condenser and evaporator units of RMPU coach is

a. 1 Phage 230V b. 3 Phage 415V c. 3 Phage 110V d. None

321. Maintenance of RMPU units is about

a. Little b. Mpre c. Heavy d. None


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322. Dust collection on RMPU units is about

a. Little b. More c. Heavy d. None

323. Damage due to cattle run for RMPU units is

a. NIL b. More c. Little d. None

324. Performance of RMPU unit is

a. Poor b. Obsolete c. Latest d. None

325. Water dropping on passengers due to RMPU units is

a. Regularly b. Sometimes c. Nil d. None

326. Required fresh air for AC RMPU coach is taken from

a. Roof of the coach b. Sides of the coach near toilets

c. Under frame of the coach d. None

327. Capacity control of RMPU is

a. 50% to 100% b. 25% to 100% c. 75% to 100% d. None

328. Capacity in tons of refrigeration of RMPU of AC sleeper coach

a. 14 tons b. 10.4 tons c. 5.2 tons d. None

329. Capacity in tons of refrigeration of RMPUs of first class AC coach is (Single Unit)

a. 14 tons b. 10.4 tons c. 7 tons d. None

330. Wave form of AC of supply fed to RMPU unit

a. Square b. Sine c. PWM d. None

331. Capacity in tons of refrigeration of one RMPU unit

a. 14 tons b. 5.2 tons c. 7 tons d. None

332. Number of Compressor are available in RMPU has


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a.4 b. 2 c.1 d. None

333. Number of Compressor are available in RMPU coach other than first class has

a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. None

334. Number of RMPUS are available in all AC coach other than first class are

a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. None

335. The power required for one RMPU is about

a. 13 KW b. 5.75 KW c. 23 KW d. None

336. The current taken by the one RMPU unit is

a. 40 A b. 22A c. 10A d. None

337. The advantage of RMPU AC coach system is

a. Less Weight

b. Hermitically sealed compressor, no refrigerant leakage

c. Less space occupation d. Less maintenance and reliable

e. Consuming less power f. More Energy efficient

g. All of the above

338. Number of Condensers one RMPU has

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

339. Number of Blower Motor one RMPU has

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

340. Number of heater one RMPU has

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

341. RMPU is Fitted

a. Above toilets in a roof b. Underneath the coach


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c. Inside the coach d. None

342. The capacity of compressor motor used in RMPU AC Coach is

a. 5.25 kw b. 6.3 kw c. 4.3 kw d. None

343. The capacity of Condenser motor used in RMPU AC Coach is

a. 1 HP b. 1.5 HP c. 2.5 HP d. None

344. The capacity of crank case heater of compressors used in RMPU AC Coach

a. 50 W b. 150 W c. 200 W d. None

345. The capacity of evaporator fan motor used in RMPU AC Coach

a. 1.5 HP b. 0.5 HP c. 2.5 HP d. None

346. Control panel load of RMPU AC Coaches is about

a. 400 W b. 200 W c. 100 W d. None

347. The capacity WRA motor RMPU AC Coaches is

a. 373 W/ 0.37 KW b. 500 W c. 200 W d. None

348. Heaters load of one RMPU is about

a. 6 KW b. 3 KW c. 12 KW d. None

349. Current taken by one compressor motor of RMPU of AC coach is

a. 8.25+/10% b. 2.6+/10% c. 2.2+/10% d. None

350. Current taken by one condenser fan motor of RMPU of AC coach is

a. 8.25+/10% b. 2.6+/10% c. 2.2+/10% d. None

351. Current taken by one evaporator fan motor of RMPU coach

a. 8.25+/10% b. 2.6+/10% c. 2.2+/10% d. None

352. Starting current taken by one compressor motor of RMPU coach in

a. 10A b. 49A c. 15A d. None


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353. The RMPU coaches are manufactured by

a. M/s Fedders Lloyd b. M/s Sidwal c. M/s Intech

d. M/s Amit Engg e. All of the above

354. The control panel of RMPU coaches works on

a. 230 V AC b. 110 V AC c. 440 V AC d. None

355. Speed of the condenser motor of RMPU coach is

a. 910 RPM b. 720 RPM c. 2880 RPM d. None

356. Speed of the evaporator fan motor of RMPU coach is

a. 415 RPM b. 720 RPM c. 2880 RPM d. None

357. The size of the FEDDER LLOID RMPU is about

a. 2150x2250x620 mm b. 1600x1800x620mm

c. 1400x1500x620 mm d. None

358. The size of the SIDWAL RMPU is about

a. 2150x2250x620 mm b. 1600x1800x620 mm

c. 1400x1500x620 mm d. None

359. 415 V 3 phase AC supply required for operating motors of RMPU is fed from

a. 25 KW Alternator b. 25 KVA inverter c. Both (a) and (b) d. None

360. The capacity of inverters used in RMPU coach is

a. 18 KVA b. 25 KVA c. 12 KVA d. None

361. No of inverters required for one RMPU coach are

a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. None

362. The input Voltage of 25 KVA inverter of RMPU coach

a. 110/135 DC b. 24 V DC c. 415 V AC d. None


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363. The output Voltage of under slung / on board inverter of RMPU coach

a. 415 VAC b. 230 VAC c. 110 VAC d. None

364. 110 V AC voltage required for operating control panel of RMPU AC coach is stepped down from

a. 750 V AC b. 415 V AC c. 220 V AC d. None

365. The wave form of 110 V AC voltage fed to control panel of RMPU coach is

a. Shine wave b. Square wave c. PWM wave d. None

366. PWM wave of 110V AC voltage of 25 KVA inverter is converted in to sine wave by

_____________ to feed to cooling fan of RMPU

a. Shine filter b. COS filter c. Tan filter d. None

367No of evaporator fan motors are available for one RMPU AC coach

a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4

368. Approximate 1st class AC load in terms of ton of refrigeration

a. 5.3 tons b. 7.4 tons c. 11.1 tons d. None

369. Approximate Air Conditioning load of II tire AC coach

a. 5.3 tons b. 7.4 tons c. 11.1 tons d. None

370. Approximate Air Conditioning load of III tire AC coach

a. 5.3 TR b. 7.4 TR c. 11.1 TR d. None

371. Approximate Air Conditioning load of AC chair car

a. 5.3 TR b. 7.4 TR c. 11.1 TR d. None

372. Cooled air is sent to the compartment through

a. Fresh air filters b. Duct & grills c. Return air filters d. None


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373. Required fresh air for AC RMPU coach is collected from roof is sent to evaporator through

a. Fresh air filters b. Return air filters c. Both (a) and (b) d. None

374. Air cooled from compartment of AC coach is sent to evaporator through

a. Return air filters b. Fresh air filters c. Both (a) and (b) d. None

375. Air blown over condenser is sent to

a. Evaporator b. Heater c. Out side atmosphere d. None

376. Air flow condenser motor used in Sidwal make RMPU

a. 10000 cubic feet for minute b. 17000 cubic Meter for hour


377. Air flow of condenser motor used in FEDER make RMPU

a. 8000 cubic feet for minute b. 13600 cubic meter for hour


378. Type of condenser/evaporator coils used in Sidwal / Fedders make RMPU

a. Fin-On-Tube type b. Shell on tube

c. Tube in tube d. All of above

379. The condenser coils are made up of

a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Zinc d. None

380. The evaporator coils are made up of

a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Zinc d. None

381. The outer diameter of condenser coil of Sidwal make

a. 9.52 mm b. 6 mm c. 28 mm d. None


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382. The outer diameter of evaporator / condenser coil of Sidwal / Fedders make

a. 9.52 mm b. 6 mm c. 28 mm d. None

383. Air flow of evaporator fan used in Sidwal make RMPU

a. 2400 cubic feet per minute b. 4000 ± 5% cubic meters of hour


384. Air flow of evaporator fan used in Fedders make RMPU

a. 2000± 10% cubic meters of hour b. 4200± 10 % cubic meters of hour

c. Both(a) and (b) d. None

385. The under frame equipment of the RMPU coach other than first class has

a. One set of battery 110V, 1100 AH b. Two sets of alternators 25 KW

capacity

c. 200 A battery charger d. Two WRAs

e. All the above

386. Dip tray provided under cooling coils to collect the rain water should be made of

a. Iron b. Steel c. Copper d. Zinc

387. Drip tray provided under cooling coils in RMPU coaches should have a depth of

a. 90 mm b. 50 mm c. 25 mm d. None

388. Recommended relative humidity inside the coach is

a. 60% maximum b. 70% maximum c. 80% maximum d. None

389. Power cables and control cables of RMPU should run shrough

a. same conduit b. Separate Conduit

c. Same conduit with better insulation d. None

390. Motors used in RMPU coaches are


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a. Induction Motors b. Synchronous motors

c. Slip ring induction motors d. None

391. The induction motors used in RMPU are

a. Three phase motors b. Single phase motors

c. Two phase motors d. None

392. The starters used for 3 phase induction motors of RMPU coaches are

a. Direct on line starters b. star delta starters

c. Slip ring induction starters d. None

393. RMPU of AC coach should be made from

a. Iron with GI coating b. Iron with nickel coating

c. Stainless steel d. None

394. Fresh air requirement in side the 1st class compartment for person is

a. 0.7 mᶟ/min b. 0.35 mᶟ/min c. 0.5 mᶟ/min d. None

395. Fresh air required in side the AC coach for II tire sleeper and III tire sleeper per person is about

a. 0.7 mᶟ/min b. 0.35 mᶟ/min c. 0.5 mᶟ/min d. None

396. Minimum fresh air requirement for one RMPU of AC coach

a. >17.5 mᶟ/min b. 5.5 mᶟ/min c. 10 mᶟ/min d. None

397. The compressor of RMPU coach shall be provided with

a. High pressure cut out b. low pressure cut out


398. HP cut out of RMPU coach shall be set at

a. 135± 15% PSI b. 415± 15% PSI

c. 35± 15% PSI d. None


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399. LP cut out of RMPU coach shall be set at

a. 135± 5% PSI b. 415 ± 15% PSI

c. 35± 15% Psi d. None

400. HP cut out of RMPU coach is

a. Manual reset type b. Auto reset type


401. Accessibility of return air filters of RMPU of AC coach

a. From top of the unit

b. From bottom of the unit inside the coach in corridor

c. Middle access door at the bottom of the unit

d. Access door on each side at bottom of the unit

402. Fresh air filters are used for filtering

a. Return air b. Only fresh air

c. Return air and fresh air d. None

403. RMPU blower fan motors are manufactured by

a. ABB b. CG. c. NGEF, KEC, Bharat Bigili d. All of the above

404. Fresh air filter maximum air flow rate shall be

a. 10 mᶟ/min b. 15 mᶟ/min c. 20 mᶟ/min d. None

405. Fresh air filter maximum air velocity in feet/min

a. 300 b. 400 c. 500 d. None

406. The maximum resistance of the fresh air filter when it is clean

a. 4mm (WG) b. 633 (WG) c. 8mm (WG) d. None


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407. The maximum resistance of fresh air filter with dust concentration is

a. 12 mm (WG) b. 6 mm (WG) c. 8 mm (WG) d. None

408. Return air filter maximum air floe rate in m-cube/minute

a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. None

409. Return air filter maximum air velocity in feet/minute

a. 500 b. 700 c. 1000 d. None

410. Maximum resistance of the return air filter when it is clean

a. 3 mm (WG ) b. 5 mm (WG) c. 7 mm (WG) d. None

411. Maximum resistance of the return with dust concentration

a. 10mm (WG) b. 15 mm (WG) c. 18 mm (WG) d. None

412. The evaporator blower should be designed for air delivery at ______ mm head of water gauge (

a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. None

413. The copper parts of the air conditioning coil should be

a. tinned b. GI coated c. Nickel coated d. None

414. The cooling temperature settings of electronic thermostat are recommended by RDSO is

a. 23ᵒ C to 25ᵒ C b. 22ᵒC to 25ᵒC c. 24ᵒ C to 26ᵒ C d. None

415. The heating temperature setting of electronic thermostat are recommended by RDSO is

a. 17ᵒ C to 19ᵒ C b. 19ᵒ C to 21ᵒ C c. 21ᵒ C to 23ᵒ C d. None

416. During IR test of RMPU, IR of compressor / Motors shall not be less than

a. 100 mega ohms b. 2 mega ohms c. 20 mega ohms d. None

417. IR value of RMPU to be tested with

a. 1000 volts megger b. 500 volts megger


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c. 100 volt megger d. None

418. During high voltage test of RMPU the duration of high voltage to be applied on RMPU is

a. 60 sec b. 120 sec c. 30 sec d. None

419. During high voltage test of RMPU the high voltage to be applied

a. 1000 volts ac b. 2000 volts ac c. 5000 volts ac d. None

420. Number of over heat protector thermostats are required for one RMPU are

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

421. Number of vane relays required for one RMPU are

a. 2 b. 1 c.3 d. None

422. Number of LP cut outs required for one RMPU are

a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. None

423. Numbers of HP cut outs required one RMPU are

a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. None

424. Three phase 3KW heaters required for one RMPU unit is

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

425. The electronic thermostat will be located on

a. one of the flap door of control panel from in side

b. front top of the unit

c. From bottom of the unity in side the coach

d. None

426. Sensor of electronic thermostat will be located


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a. at return air entries b. fresh air path

c. In the duct in side the compartment d. None

427. The size of cables recommended for 5-10 HP motor leads in RMPU coaches

a. 6sq. Mm (84/0.3) b. 4 sq. Mm (56/0.3)

c. 1.5 sq. Mm d. None

428. the size of the cable recommended for 0.7 HP to 2 HP motor leads in RMPU coaches

a. 6 sq. Mm (84/0.3) b. 4 sq. Mm (56/0.3)

c. 1.5 sq. Mm d. None

429. The size of cable recommend for control panel wiring of RMPU coaches

a.6 sq. mm b. 4 sq. mm c. 1.5 sq. mm d. None

430. Rotor shafts of RMPU motors are made out

a. EN.8 b. EN.9 c. Both a and b d. None

431. The study state temperature rise of stator winding of compressor motor of H class RMPU

should not exceed above ambient of 65ᵒC with full load at rated voltage is

a. 70ᵒC b. 80ᵒc c. 100ᵒC d. None

432. The study state temperature rise of stator winding of condenser / blower motor of F class

RMPU should not exceed above ambient of 65ᵒC with full load at rated voltage is

a. 70ᵒC b. 80ᵒC c. 100ᵒC d. None

433. The type of insulation recommended for condenser and evaporator motor in RMPU coaches are

a. F class b. A class c. B class d. None

434. The type of insulation recommended for compressor motor in RMPU coaches

a. F class b. H class c. B class d. None

435. Capacity of WRA mono block pump in RMPU coaches

a. 0.5 HP/0.37 KW at 415 V 50 Hz PF 0.5


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b. 1.0 HP/0.746 KW at 415 V 50 Hz PF 0.5

c. 1.5 HP/1.1 KW at 415 V 50 Hz PF 0.5

d. None

436. Control panel of RMPU coach works

a. 110 V AC 50 Hz b. 230 V AC 50 Hz

c. 415 V AC 30 Hz d. None

437. The maximum ripple content of 415/110 V supply fed to control circuit can

a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. None

438. No of over load relay provided in the control panel of one RMPU

a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. None

439. No of time delay relays provided in one RMPU are

a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 1

440. No of control transformers provided in RMPU AC coach

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

441. The capacity of control transformer provided in RMPU coach

a. 400 VA b. 1000 VA c. 2500 VA d. None

442. The capacity of C1, C2, C3 contactor provided in control panel of RMPU coach

a. 16A b. 50 A c. 32 A d. None

443. The purpose of time delay relay I is

a. To delay compressor I operation for 2 minutes

b. To delay the compressor II operation for 2.5 minutes

c. To delay the condenser I operation for 2 minutes


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d. To delay the condenser II operation for 2.5 minutes

444. The purpose of time delay relay II is

a. To delay compressor I operation for 2 minutes

b. To delay the compressor II operation for 2.5 minutes

c. To delay the condenser I operation for 2 minutes

d. To delay the condenser II operation for 2.5 minutes

445. The duration of TDR-II delay setting

a. 2 min b. 2.5 min c. 3.5 min

d. None

446. The current carrying capacity of rotary switch RSWI provide in control panel of RMPU coach is

a. 63 A b. 16 A c. 6/8A d. None

447. Make of rotary switches recommended by RDSO to provide in control panel of RMPU AC coach

is

a. Salzer b. Keycee c. Both a and b d. None

448. Makes of contractors recommended by RDSO to provide in control panel of RMPU AC coach is

a. L&T b. BCH. c. Both a and b d. None

449. RMPU over load relay one (OLI) NC contract is connected in series to the

a. Blower contractor coil b. Auxiliary contractor coil

c. Condenser I & II contractor coil d. compressor I & II contractor coils

e. Heaters I & II contractor coils f. All of the above

450. RMPU air loses indication LED glows when vane relay contract are in

a. Open condition b. Closed condition


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c. Both a and b d. None

451. If blower fans motor is defect in RMPU coach. The result will

a. Condenser motors did not switch ON b. Compressor did not switch ON

c. Heater did not switch ON d. All of the above

452. If vane relays are defective in RMPU coach the result will

a. condenser motors did not switch ON b. Compressor did not switch ON

c. Heaters did not switch ON d. All of the above

453. If single phasing occurred on any one of the motor, in RMPU coach result will

a. Motor trips b. Motor failure indication occurs


454. AC system is operating in manual mode, both condenser motors defective in RMPU coach, the

result will be

a. Low pressure develops b. HP1 and HP2 open

c. Compressors tips d. All of the above

455. system working in manual cooling mode, blower or vane relays became defective in RMPU

coach the result will be

a. Low pressure develops b. LP1 and LP2 open

c. Both compressor will trip in 15 minutes d. All of the above

456. The system is working in manual heating mode, blower / vane relay defective in RMPU the

result will be

a. temperature shoots up b. OHP1 and OHP2 open

c. Heater switches off d. All of the above

457. If heaters are ON condition, in RMPU then compressor and condenser will be

a. ON condition b. OFF condition


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c. Switches off after 15 minutes d. None

458. If time delay relay-I fails to operate in RMPU the result will be

a. Compressor –I switches on b. Compressor –I does not switches on

c. Compressor switches on but after two minute it switches off d. None

459. If time delay relay –II fails to operate in RMPU the result will be

a. Compressor –II switches on b. Compressor –II does not switches on

c. Compressor –II switches on but switches off 2.5 minute d. None

460. AC system is working on vent mode in RMPU then

a. Blower only works b. Heater only works

c. Entire cooling system works d. None

461. AC system is working in auto mode in RMPU then

a. It works on cooling mode only b. It works on heating mode only

c. It works on both a and b d. None

462. If system works on manual cooling mode in RMPU then

a. Blower works b. Two condensers works

c. Compressors works d. All of the above

463. If system work on manual heating mode in RMPU then

a. Blower works b. Heater works

c Both a and b d. None

464. Vapour compressor system used in railways consists of

a. Compressor b. Condenser


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c. Expansion d. Evaporator

e. Dehydrator and filter f. Accumulator or liquid receiver

g. All of the above

465. The purpose of low pressure cut out used in vapour compression system is

a. It shuts down the compressor if the suction pressure drops down

b. It automatically resets if the pressure becomes normal

c. Both a and b

d. None

466. Number of WRAs are available in RMOU AC couch are

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. None

467. The capacity of over head tank (Auxilary tank) provided in RMPU coaches is about

a. 50 ltr b. 400 ltr c. 300 ltr d. None

468. Over load setting of compressor motor is in RMPU coaches is

a. 2.2A b. 3.2 A c. 10.5 A d. None

469. Capacity of battery used in RMPU AC coach

a. 800 AH b. 1100 AH c. 540AH d. None

470. Capacity battery charger used in RMPU AC coach

a. 220A b. 40A c. 70A d. None

471. Battery charger used in RMPU AC coach is also called as

a. Pre-colling transformer b. Diesel DC Generator set


472. Number of VRLA cells available in battery of SG RMPU AC coach


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a. 56 b. 54 c. 112 d. None

473. The capacity of HRC fuses to be provided for 1100AH battery of SG RMPU AC coach is

a. 400 A b. 250A c. 100A d. None

474. The location of battery HRC fuse to be provided for 1100 AH battery of SG RMPU AC coach is

a. At positive of the battery b. At negative of the battery


475. The purpose of power selector rotary switch RSW1 provided in power panel of RMPU AC coach

is

a. To select alternate one and battery b. To select alternate two and battery

c. To select alternate one and two and battery d. All of the above

476. The capacity of plant selector rotary switch RSW2 provided in power panel of RMPU AC coach is

a. 300 A b. 400A c. 63A d. None

477. The capacity of positive HRC fuse to be provided for inverter (before RSW2) in plant selector

circuit in power panel of RMPU AC coach is

a. 250 A b. 400A c. 63A d. None

478. The capacity of HRC fuses to be provided for 415V 3phase supply of pre – cooling battery

charger of RMPU AC coach is

a. 63 A b. 160A c. 400A d. None

479. The capacity of power selector rotary switch RSW1 provided in power panel of RMPU AC coach

is

a. 500 A b. 160A c. 16A d. None

480. HCF refrigerant recommended for RMPU coaches in place of R22 is

a. R 134a b. R 407 C c. R 290 d. None


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481. Starting current taken by one compressor motor of RMPU coach

a. 10A b. 49A c. 15A d. None

482. Input supply for the electronic thermostats controlling unit is

a. 110V DC b. 110AC c. either of one d. None

483. Inverters convert

a. AC into DC b. DC into AC c. both a and b d. None

484. Input voltage range to the under slung/on board inverter roof mounted AC coach 25 KVA

inverter is

a. 90 to 140 V DC with ± 15% ripple (103.5V to 154V)

b. 70 to 170V DC with ± 15% ripple

c. 80 to 200V DC with ± 15% ripple

d. None

485. Output Voltage of under slung /on board roof mounted AC coach 25KW inverter is

a. 415 V ± 5% 3phase 50 Hz b. 230V ± 5% 1Phase 50Hz

c. 110V ± 5% 3phase 50Hz d. None

486. What is the rating of distribution transformer used in LHB AC Coaches

a.50KVA b. 26KVA c. 60KVA d. 30KVA

487. What is the integrated panel control supply in LHB AC Coach

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 415V 3Ø AC d. 750V 3Ø AC

488. What is the rating of Battery used on LHB AC Coach

a. 800Ah b. 70Ah c. 1100Ah d. 90Ah

489. What is the rating Battery fuse used in LHB AC Coach

a. 100A b. 32A c. 40A d. 90Ah


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490. What is the rating of LHB AC Coach 750V side fuse

a. 100A b. 125A c. 63A d. 250A

491. What is abbreviation of RBCR

a. Regulated Booster current b. Regulated Battery charger

c. Regulated Battery Current d. None.

492. The Main function of RBCR used in LHB Coach

a. To change the battery b. 110V DC C. 230V AC D. 415V 30 AC

493. What is input supply to RBCR un LHB Coach

a. 110V AC b. To feed control supply

c. To feed supply light and fans d. All the above

494. What is the capacity of RBCR

a. 2.5 KW b. 5KW c. 6.5KW d. 10KW

495. What is the RDSO specification number of RBCR used in LHB coach

a. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0129-2009 (Rev-I)

b. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0056-2014 (Rev-I)

C. EDTS-041-Rev A

d. None

496. What ids the maximum out put current DC Current of RBCR in LHB coach

a. 50A b. 220A c. 20A d. None

497. Out Voltage Range of RBCR in LHB Coach

a. 110V- 135V DC b. 110V-135V AC c. 415V AC d. None

498. What is abbreviation of EBCR used in LHB AC Coach

a. Emergency Battery charger b. Emergency Boost charger

c. Emergency Back up charger d. None


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499. What is the rating of EBCR in LHB coach

a. 0.5KW b. 2.5KW c. 20A d. None

500. What is the input supply of EBCR in LHB coach

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 230V AC d. 415, 3Ø AC

501. What is the out put supply voltage of EBCR in LHB coach

a. 110V AC b. 110V AC c. 230V, 3Ø AC d. 415, 3Ø AC

502. What is the maximum current out put of EBCR in LAB coach

a. 220A b. 20A c. 63A d. 35A

503. What is the RDSO specification number of EBCR in LHB coach

a. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0129-2009(Rev) b. RDSO/PE/SPEC/AC/0056-2014(Rev-1)

c. EDTS- 163, rev-C d. EDTS-041, Rev-A

504. What id the purpose of EBCR in LHB AC coach

a. Give supply to the AC plant

b. To give control supply to power panel in emergency

c. To give supply to mobile chargers

d. None

505. When the EBCR in LHB AC coach is starts functioning

a. It starts when coach is dark b. It starts when RBCR is fails to work

c. It starts on Pre-cooling supply d. None

506. What is the supply of end on generation system in LHB

a. 150V, 50Hz, 3Ø, AC b. 230V, AC c. 415V, 3Ø, 50Hz d. None

507. How many distribution transformer per coach in LAB AC coach

a. One b. Two c. Three d. None


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508. How many vane relays are available in LHB coaches

a. One b. Two c. Three d. None

509. EGO power car supply is feeded to coaches by LHB coaches

a. IV couple b. ZS coupler c. CBC coupler d. None

510. EGO power car supply is feeded to AC coaches in Garibrath AC Coaches by

a. IV couple b. ZS coupler c. CBC coupler d. None

511. How many ZS couplers having per coach

a. Two male and Two female b. Four male and four female

c. Three male and Three female d. None

512. What is capacity of the fuse provided in 415 voltage side of LHB AC

a. 100A b. 125A C. 80A d. 63A

513. What is capacity of the fuse provided in local main supply of LHB AC

a. 100A b. 125A C. 80A d. 63A

514. How many fuse of 32A are provided in positive fuse box of LHB AC

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Nil

515. How many fuses of 32A are provided in negative fuse box of LHB AC coach

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Nil

516. What is input supply of microprocessor in LHB AC coach

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 230V AC d. 415V AC

517. Contactor K1 and K2, are for what purpose in LAB AC coach

a. for feeder selection b. for local supply c. Transformer d. None

518. Contactor K41 and K41 are for what purpose in LHB AC coach


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a. for feeder selection b. for local supply c. Transformer d. All the above

519. Contactor K43 is for what purpose in LHB AC coach

a. for DC supply b. Feed supply selection

c. for local main supply d. Transformer supply

520. What is the abbreviation from of D and ED in LHB AC coach

a. Disconnection and Earthing device b. Disconnection and Energing device

c. Dead and Engineering device d. None

521. What is the purpose of Disconnecting and Earth in device in LHB coach

a. Disconnecting the circuit and earthing in off position b. Connecting and earthing

c. Disconnecting and earthing in on position d. None

522. What is the abbreviation of MMR used in LHB coach

a. Measuring and minimising relay b. Measuring and maximizing

c. Measuring and monitoring relay d. All of the above

523. How many MMR are available in 750V side in LHB AC coach

a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4

524. How many MMR are available in 415V side in LHB AC coach

a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4

525. What purpose K50 contactor using in LHB coach

a. for lighting circuits b. for RMPU c. for WSP d. for WRA

526. How many centrifugal double inlet exhaust fans are available in LHB AC coach

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

527. How many fans are available in LHB AC coaches manufactured after 2015 in passenger area


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a. 18 b. 20 c. 16 d. None

528. What is the contactor number of WRA in LHB AC coach

a. K1 , K2 b. K28 , K29 c. K24 , K25 d. K30 , K31

529. What is the indicating MPCB number of WRA

a. F85 , F86 b. F21 , F22 c. F30 , F31 d. None

530. What id the abbreviation of MPCB

a. Motor pump case breaker b. Motor protection circuit breaker

c. Monitoring protecting circuit breaker d. None

531. What is the rating range of MPCB of WRA pump in LHB

a. 1.0A to 1.6A b. 1.5A to 2.5A

c. 2.5A to 3.0A d. 3.0A to 3.5A

532. What is the rating range of MPCB for exhaust fan in LHB AC coach

a. 1.0A to 1.6A b. 0.1A to 2.5A c. 2.5A to 3.0A d. None]

533. What is the contactor number of fresh air flap motor in LHB AC coach

a. K8 b. K9 c. K21 d. K44

534. What is the input supply for flap motors in LHB AC coach

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 24V DC d. 230V AC

535. What is the blower contactor number is in LHB AC coach PP side

a. K28 b. K26 c. K31 d. K32

536. What is the blower contactor number of NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach

a. K28 b. K26 c. K31 d. K32

537. What is condenser motors contactor number PP side of LHB AC coach


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a. K36 , K37 b. K38 , K39 c. K28 , K26 d. None

538. What is condenser motors contactor number NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach

a. K36 , K37 b. K31 , K32 c. K28 , K26 d. None

539. What are compressor contactors of PP side of LHB AC coach

a. K36 , K37 b. K31 , K32 c. K28 , K26 d. K38 , K39

540. What is compressor motors contactor number NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach

a. K36 , K37 b. K31 , K32 c. K38 , K39 d. K33 , K34

541. What is Heater contactor number of PP side RMPU in LHB AC coach

a. K33 b. K35 c. K40 d. K39

542. What is Heater contactor number of NPP side RMPU in LHB AC coach

a. K33 b. K35 c. K40 d. K39

543. What is the input supply voltage for pump controller in AC coach

a. 110V AC b. 110V DC c. 24V DC d. All of the above

544. How many insulation control relays available in LHB AC coach

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

545. What is the function of insulation control relays in LHB AC coach

a. Gives indication of higher insulation in panel

b. Gives indication of lower insulation in panel

c. Not indicate any thing

d. Indicate supply position

546. K05 timer belongs for which device in LHB coach

a. Timer for AC compressor b. Timer for AC plant


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c. Timer for anti skid device d. None of the above

547. Contractor K06 belongs to which circuit in LHB AC coach

a. Anti skid device b. Electro pneumatic break application

c. AC plant d. None of the above

548. Contractor K07 belongs to which circuit in LHB AC coach

a. Anti skid device b. Electro pneumatic break application

c. Electro pneumatic break release d. None

549. 548. Contractor K08 belongs to which circuit in LHB AC coach

a. MVR of level 1 b. MVR of level 2 c. MVR of level 3 d. None

550. What is the abbreviation of MVR in LHB AC coach

a. Minimum voltage relay b. maximum voltage relay

c. Maximum value relay d. None

551. Contactor K-23 indicates which supply availability in LHB AC coach

a. 110V DC b. 110V AC c. 415V AC d. None

552. F-01 MBC ( triple pole ) 10A belongs to which motor in LHB AC coach

a. Blower motor of unit 1 b. Condenser motor of unit 1

c. Condenser motor of unit 2 c. Blower motor of unit 2

553. F-02 MCB (Triple pole ) 10A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach

a. Blower motor of unit 1 b. Blower motor of unit 2

c. Condenser motor of unit 1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2

554. F-03 MCB (Triple pole) 20A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach


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a. Blower motor of unit 1 b. Blower motor of unit 2

c. Condenser motor of unit 1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2


a. Compressor motor of unit 1 b. Compressor motor of unit 2

c. Blower motor of unit 1 d. Blower motor of unit 2

556. F-04 MCB (Double pole) 10A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach

a. Compressor motor of unit 1.1 b. Compressor motor of unit 1.2

c. Crank case heaters for CO 1.1 and CP 1.2 d. None


a. Condenser motor of unit 1.1 b. Condenser motor of unit 1.2

c. Condenser motor of unit 2.1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2.1


a. Condenser motor of unit 1.1 b. Condenser motor of unit 1.2

c. Condenser motor of unit 2.1 d. Condenser motor of unit 2.1


a. Heater of unit-1 b. Heater of unit-2

c. Blower motor unit-1 d. None


a. Blower motor-1 b. Blower motor-2

c. Compressor motor 2.2 d. Compressor motor 2.1

561. F-10 MCB (Double pole) 10A belong to which circuit in LHB AC coach


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a. Heater of unit-1 b. Heater of unit-2

c. Crank case heater for CP 1.1 and CP 1.2 d. Crank case heater for CP 2.1 and

CP 2.2

562. F-11MCB (Triple pole) 20A belong to which motor in LHB AC coach

a. Compressor motor of unit 2.1 b. Compressor motor of unit 2.2

c. Compressor motor of unit 1.1 d. Compressor motor of unit 1.2

563. Net 1 and Net 2 of LHB AC can be selected at a time

a. No b. Yes c. Both working at time d. None

564. Why the Net 1 and Net 2 can not be selected at a time in LHB AC coach

a. Since there is a different supply b. Since there is no supply

c. Since there is different supply d. All of the above

565. Contactor K-44 for which supply feed to coach in LHB type AC coach

a. 110V AC supply b. 110V AC supply

c. 60 KVA transformer out put supply d. None of the above

566. In LHB type RMPU, what type of over heat protection available

a. OHP b. ESTI c. Both a & b c. None of the above

567. When ESTI fuse link protection comes in circuit in LHB RMPU

a. If OHP fail to operate b. If heating temperature


568. ESTI self destroying type fusible link of heater circuit in LHB RMPU in series with which supply

a. 110V AC b. 230V DC c. 110V DC d. 415V AC, 3Ø

569. How many sensors are available in LHB AC coach for sensing the temperature parameters

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6


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570. Humidity control is facility is available in which type coach

a. Under slung type AC b. SG type RMPU

c. LHB type RMPU d. None of the above

571. Why LHB RMPU motor are in built with OTP

a. To sense and protect against over temperature

b. To sense and protect against lower temperature

c. To sense and protect against lower temperature

d. To sense and protect against low IR value

572. What are the under gear safety items to be checked in LHB AC coach

a. Junction boxes b. 60 KVA transformer c. WRA pumps d. Battery box

e. All of the above

573. What is abbreviation of

a. Like half man bush b. Link half man bosh

c. Link half man bush d. None

574. LHB Technology was imported from which

a. Japan b. USA c. Italy d. Germany

575. 1st Alstam LHB coach designed and manufactured and commissioned on

a. 23 june 2003 b. 23 june2004 c. 23 june2005 d. None

576. Length of LHB coach is

a. 22.54M b 23.54M c. 24.54M d. 25,54M

577. Passenger capacity of 2-AC LHB coach

a. 46 b. 48 c. 52 d. 54

578. Passenger capacity of 3-AC LHB coach


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a. 46 b. 56 c. 64 d. 72

579. Which AC coaches are designed with moisture control

a. Under slung type b. RMPU type c. LHB type d. All of the above

580. 750V Circuit insulation test to be done by with ……………… volts megger

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None

581. 415V Circuit cables insulation test to be done by with ……………… volts megger

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None

582. 230//190V circuit cables insulation test to be done by with ……………….. volts megger

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None

583. 110V circuit cables insulation test to be done by with ……………….. volts megger

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None

584. 124V circuit cables insulation test to be done by with ……………….. volts megger

a. 230V b. 500V c. 1000V d. None

585. 750V circuit cables insulation test done with 1000V megger the value should not be less then

a. Not less than 2 ohms b. Not less than 3 ohms

c. Not less than 5 ohms d. Not less than 10 ohms

586. 415 Volts circuit cables insulation test done by 1000V megger the value should not less

than…………….

a. 2 ohms b. 3 ohms c. 5 ohms

d. 10 ohms

587. 230/190V circuit cables insulation test done by with 500 megger the value should not less

than…………….


d. 10 ohms


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588. 110V circuit cables insulation test done by with 500 megger the value should not less

than…………….ohms


d. 10 ohms

589. LHB type one RMPU cooling capacity

a. 5Ton b. 6Ton c. 7Ton d. None

590. LHB type one RMPU power consumption capacity ………………. KW

a. 10.6 KW b. 12.6 KW c. 13.0 KW d. 13.6 KW

591. LHB type one compressor motor power consumption capacity ………………… KW

a. 5.25 KW b. 6.25 KW c. 7.25 KW d. None

592. LHB type RMPU manufacturing firms are

a. M/S Sidwal b. M/S LLOYD c. M/S Stesalit d. All of the

above

593. Refrigerents used in LHB RMPU are

a. R134a b. R22 c. 407C d. b & c

594. What is the abbreviation of BARC

a. Bhabha atomic research center b. Bombay atomic research center

c. Bhagya nagar atomic research center d. None

595. What is the abbreviation from of COFMOW

a. Central for modernization office works b. Central for modernization of workshop

c. Central for modernization of other works d. None

596. What is the abbreviation from of CONCOR

a. Container corporation b. Central corporation


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c. Cement corporation d. None

597. What is the abbreviation from of CORE

a. Central organization for rural engineering

b. Central organization for roads engineering

c. Central organization for railway electrification

d. None

598. What is the abbreviation from of CRIS

a. Central for rural information system b. Central for railway information system

c. Central for railway investment system d. None of the above

599. What is the abbreviation from of CAMTECH

a. Central advanced management technology

b. Central advanced management of tracks

c. Central advanced monitoring technology

d. Center for advance maintenance technology

600. What is the abbreviation from of IRCON

a. Indian railway construction company limited

b. Indian roads construction company limited

c. International railway construction company limited

d. None

601. What is the abbreviation from of IRFC


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a. International rural finance corporation

b. Indian railway finance corporation

c. Indian roads finance corporation

d. None

602. What is the abbreviation from of IRIEEN

a. Indian railway institute of electrical engineering

b. Indian railway institute of electronics engineering

c. Indian railway institute of economics and engineering

d. None

603. What is the abbreviation from of IRWO

a. Indian rural welfare organization b. International rural welfare organization

c. Indian rural work organization d. Indian railway welfare organization

604. What is the abbreviation from of PNM

a. Passenger nominating machinery b. Permanent national machinery

c. Permanent negotiating machinery d. Permanent navigating machinery

605. What is the abbreviation from of RCT

a. Railway claims tribunal b. Railway charges tribunal

c. Railway change tribunal d. Railway cleaning tribunal

606. What is the abbreviation from of RDSO

a. Railway design and standards origination

b. Research design and standards organization


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c. Railway design and standards organization


607. What is the abbreviation from of RITES

a. Railway institute of technical engineering services ltd.

b. Railway institute of technical electrical services ltd.

c. Railway Indian technical electrical services ltd.

d. Rail india technical and economics service ltd.

608. What is the abbreviation from of SCADA

a. Supervisory control and data acquisition

b. Supervisory central and distribution acquisition

c. Supervisory central advanced data acquisition


609. What is the abbreviation from of FRCPY

a. Fault rate percentage per year b. Failure rate practice per year

c. Failure rate percentage per year d. Fault rate practice per year

610. What is the abbreviation from of PATB

a. Passenger and terminal bracket b. Passenger alarm terminal board

c. Passenger aluminum terminal board d. Permanent alarm terminal board

611. What is the abbreviation from of EIG

a. Electrical institute of government b. Electrical inspection to the government

c. Electrical inspection to the government d. None of the above


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612. Who is EGI

a. PCEN b. PCEE c. PCME d. PCPO

613. What is abbreviation from of DGS&D

a. Director general of supply and disposal b. Director general of stores and distribution

c. Director general of stores and disposal d. None of the above

614. What is abbreviation from of EMD

a. Earnest money demand b. Earnest monitoring and dispatch

c. Earnest money deposit d. None of the above

615. What is abbreviation from of SD

a. Supply and dispatch b .Supply and demand

c. Security data d. Security deposit

616. What is abbreviation from of PG

a. Performance guarantee b. Programmer guarantee

c. Play ground d. Program of goods

617. What is abbreviation of CRI

a. Colour remaining index b. Coach rendering index

c. Colour rendering index d. Colour resonance index

618. What is abbreviation of SAF

a. Supply application form b. Stores application form

c. Supply advanced form d. Stocking application form

619. What is the meaning of EOG?

a. End off generation b. End on generation

c. End over generation d. All of the above


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620. What is the supply voltage of EOG system?

a. 415 V AC b. 440 V AC

c. 750 V DC d. 750 V AC

621. What is the capacity of alternator of EOG power car?

a. 280 K V A b. 490 K V A

c. 500 K V A d. 450 K V A

622. What is the unit capacity of a diesel engine?

a. HP b. HHP

c. BHP d. KVA

623. What is the operating speed of diesel engine EOG power car?

a. 1800 rpm b. 1500 rpm

c. 2000 rpm d. 1000 rpm

624. What is the battery voltage and capacity of engine starting batteries in EOG power car?

a. 8V 290 AH b. 24V 290 AH

c. 24V 450 AH d. 8V 450 AH

625. No. of engines available in a EOG power car is _____________?

a. 1 b. 2

c. 4 d. 3

626. What is the quantity and capacity of transformers in LHB type EOG power car?

a. 2 nos. of 50 KVA and 1 no. of 60 KVA b. 4 nos. of 50 KVA

c. 3 nos. of 60 KVA d. 20 nos. of 50 KVA and 2 NOS OF

60 kva


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627. How may ventilator fan motors are available in a EOG power car?

a. 3 b. 4

c. 2 d. 8

628. What is the rating of ventilator fan motor of EOG power car?

a. 7.5 HP b. 5 HP

c. 10 HP d. 20 HP

629. High water temperature switch of diesel engine of power car is set at what temperature?

a. 100 deg C b. 99 deg C

c. 95 deg C d. 97 deg C

630. What does LLOP stand for?

a. Low lube oil pressure b. Low lube over pressure

c. Low level oil pressure d. Low level oil pressure

631. Over speed switch of diesel of EOG power car is set at ______________ rpm?

a. 1500+/-5% rpm b. 1800+/-4.5% rpm

c. 1800 rpm d. 1500 rpm

632. The UVR of alternator of power car operates at set voltage of ____________?

a. 600 V b. 715 V c. 687 V d. 650 V

633. What is the MPCB rating of radiator control panel?

a. 68 A b. 75 A c. 40 A d. 63 A

634. What is the rating of MPCB of ventilator panel?

a. 16 A b. 10 A c. 5 A d. 15 A


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635. Smoke detector in LHB power car works on ___________ V

a. 24V DC b. 110V AC c. 110V DC d. 24V AC

636. What is the input voltage of SBCR (Starting battery charger) of power car?

a. 110V DC b. 415V AC c. 230V AC d. 110V AC

637. What is the protections provided in alternator of power car?

a. Short circuit b. Overload c. Earth fault d. All of the above

638. Frequency of SS-III schedule is –

a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 6 years d. 5 years

639. Frequency of SS-II schedule is –

a. 1 years b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years

640. What do you mean by HOG system?

a. High on generation b. Head on generation

c. Head over generation d. None of the above

641. In HOG system power is taken from __________?

a. OHE b. DA set c. Adjacent coach d. None of the above

642. The radiator and ventilator control panel of power car are _________?

a. Star delta starter b. DOL starter

c. Capacitor start capacitor run starter d. None of the above

643. What is the present CPCB norms followed by diesel engines of EOG power car?

a. CPCB I b. CPCB II c. CPCB III d. CPCB IV

644. What is the abbreviation of CPCB?


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a. Central population control board

b. Central pollution checking board

c. Central pollution control board

d. None

FILL IN THE BLANKS 645. Level of illumination in lavatory and corridor of II class coach should be __________.

646. Level of illumination in lavatory and corridor of I class TL coach should be

__________.

647. Level of illumination in II class TL coach (with TL Tube) should be__________.

648. Level of illumination in dinning / pantry can should be __________.

649. Level of illumination in postal van should be _________.

650. The rating of HRC fuse for field fuse in RRU panel of 110V BG TL coach in

__________.

651. The rating of HRC fuse for alternator phase in 110V BG TL coach is ________.

652. The rating of HRC fuse for passing circuit (EFT) in 110V BG TL coach is ________.

653. The rating of HRC fuse for battery set in 110V BG TL coach is ________.

654. The rating of HRC fuse for light circuit in 110V BG TL coach is ________.

655. The pressure setting of LP cut out in conventional BGAC coach is ________.

656. The pressure setting of HP cut out in conventional BGAC coach is ________.

657. The pressure setting of OP cut out in conventional BGAC coach is ________.

658. The temperature setting of heating thermostat in conventional BGAC coach is

________.

659. The normal running speed of DG set is __________.

660. The rating of main negative fuse in BGTL coach is ___________.

661. The rating output current of inverter in AC coach is __________.

662. The rated range of DC input supply to inverter of an AC coach is __________.

663. The minimum speed required for full output from a 18kw alternator is ___________.

664. The car in speed of 25KW alternator is __________.

665. The rated voltage of 18KW alternator is ___________.

666. The rating of alternator used in RMPU BGAC coach is _________.

667. The rating of blower motor in conventional BGAC coach is ____________.

668. The rating of condenser motor in conventional BGAC coach is __________.


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669. Humidity range recommended from comfort air conditioning is ___________.

670. The weight to be applied to check the VEE belt (Hilton make) lesion is _________.

671. The weight to be applied to check the VEE belt (Fenner make) lesion is __________.

672. Axel pulley position from wheel hub for ICF make coach should be ________.

673. The crap between to part of axel pulley should not be less then ___________.

674. The diode used as free wheeling diode in RRU panel of KEL makes is __________.

675. In the RRU panel of coach the voltage detection is one by ________.

676. The cut off pressure setting of WRA in AC coach is _________.

677. The water in the tank of WRA is lifted by __________.

678. The time delay setting of TDR is _________.

679. The rated voltage range for 4.5KW KEL make alternator is __________.

680. The bearing used on drive and of 4.5KW KEL make alternator is __________.

681. The bearing used on “non drive end” of 4.5KW KEL make alternator is __________.

682. The minimum speed for full output of 25KEL make alternator is ___________.

683. In the temperature rise test of alternator of TL coach, the temperature of stator and field

winding should not exceed __________.

684. In the temperature rise test of RRU panel of TL coach, the temperature of power diode

should not exceed _________.

685. In the temperature rise test of RRU panel of TL coach, the temperature of power diode

should not exceed _________.

686. The value of insulation resistance in AC coach between field winding and station of

alternator should be __________.

687. The PIV of zener diode in RRU panel of SIL make 4.5KW alternator is _________.

688. The PIV of power diode in RRU panel of SIL make 4.5KW alternator is __________.

689. The value of insulation resistance in AC coach, between field winding of alternator and

earth should be above __________.

690. The process of remain heat from low temperature level and rejecting at high temperature

is called _________.

691. Any substances for change of its state at constant temperature absence/give up heat is

called __________.

692. The unit of refrigeration is __________.

693. The unit of heat is ____________.

694. What is boiling point of water __________ at atmospheric pressure.


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3. ESTABLEISHMENT


1. What is the main object of the payment and wages Act?

a. Wages should be paid in time b. No unauthorized deduction from wages


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2. When payment and wages act came in to operation w.e.f. in India?

a. 21.1.1937 b. 21.2.1937 c. 21.3.1937 d. 21.4.1937

3. What are the permissible deductions from wages?

a. Fine b. Deduction for absence from duty, towards damages or loss

c. Deduction of provident fund, advance & Loans d. All o the above

4. What is the abbreviation of HOER?

a. Hours of employment regulations b. Hours of employment rules

c. Hours of employment roster d. none

5. Classification of HOER?

a. Intensive b. Essentially intermittent

c. Continues & Excluded d. All the above

6. What is the abbreviation of WCA?

a. Worker compensation act b. Workmen’s compensation act

c. Worker company act d. None

7. When factory act 1948 came in force?

a. w.e.f.1.1.1949 b. w.e.f.1.2.1949

c. w.e.f.1.3.1949 d. w.e.f.1.4.1949

8. What is mean by ‘’suspension’’?

a. Suspension is an action where by railway servant is kept out of duty

b. Suspension is an action where by railway servant is remove from duty


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c. Suspension is an action where by railway servant is dismissed from duty

d. None

9. Rule -3 of service conduct rule is related to

a. General conditions-devotion to duty integrity etc

b. Demonstration by railway servant

c. Employment of near relative; d. None of these

10. According to rule 5 of conduct rules railway servant

a. Can be a member of political party

b. Can not be a member of political party

c. none of these d. a & b

11. According to rule- 6 railway servant

a. Can criticize govt. in public interest

b. Can not criticize govt. in public interest.

c. a & b

d. none of these

12. According to rule- 13 A , of service conduct rule a railway servant

a. can not take dowry b. cannot accept dowry

c. Both a & b d. none of these

13. According to rule- 13 A , of service conduct rule a railway servant desires to file a defamation

suit in his private capacity, he is

a. Required to obtain permission before filing suit

b). No permission required before filing suit


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c . both a & b d). no of these

14. Condition regarding sale and purchase of immovable property mentioned in

a. rule-7 b. rule-9 c. rule-18 d. none of these

15. On sports quota recruitment is made in

a. Group ‘’B’’ b. Group ‘’C’’ c. Group ‘’C’’ & ‘’D’’ d. none of these

16. Paternity leave can be sanctioned up to

a. 12 days b. 20 days c. 15 days d. none of these

17. In respect of one disability special disability leave shall in no case exceed

a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 28 months d. none of these

18. Railway servant working in administrative office is entitled for casual leave

a. 12 days b. 08 days c. 11 days d. none of

these

19. The distances of transferred stations of railway employee are 2025 KMS. He is entitled for joining

time?


20. School; pass are granted according to

a. Calendar year b. Academic year c. Financial year d. none of these

21. The weekly duty hours of a clerk in the administrative office is

a. 42 hours b. 45 hours c. 40 hours d. 48 hours

22. A running staff after performing 9 hours duty is entitled to rest at head quarter


23. The long on period in case of ‘’continuous “staff is:


24. Railway staff is eligible for TA/DA if he goes out of his head quarter


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a. beyond 8 km b. beyond 6 km

c. beyond 10 km d. none of these

25. Railway servant shall be entitled to

a. 15 days LAP in a calendar year b. 30 days LAP in a calendar year

c. 20 days LAP in a calendar year d. none of these

26. Maximum limit for accumulation of LHAP is

a. 240 days b. 180 days c. 300 days d. no limit for accumulation

27. Leave not due may granted to railway servant at a time


28. All kind of leave in one spell shall not exceed

a. 2 years b. 4 years

c. 5 years d. none of these

29. Maximum hospital leave granted to railway servant in one spell

a. 24 months b. 28 months c. 12 months d. none of these

30. 04 set of PTO are admissible to

a. all groups b. group a & b officer only c. group A, B&C only d. none of these

31. Maximum dependent permissible in privileges pass

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. none of these

32. The holder of silver pass can travel in 1st AC

a. Self only b. With his family up to 4 members c. with wife d. none of these

33. Gazetted officer on retirement who completed of 26 years service eligible for post retirement

complementary passes

a. 3 sets b. 4 sets c. 6 sets d. none of these

34. Member ship for clubs & institute in division is


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a. Optional

b. Compulsory

c. On some division optional and on some division compulsory

d. none of these

35. Half day LAP is granted to

a. Group c & d employes b. All railway employees

c. Artisan staff of workshop/production unit d. none of these

36. In which case special pass is not allowed

a. sports tournament b. Territorial army

c. Union meeting d. none of these

37. DRM is empowered to sanction special casual leave up to


38. For bloods donation, special casual leave can be sanction for

a. 2 days b. 3 days

c. 1 days d. none of these

39. Group “C” & “D” employees are entitled for three sets of pass on

a. On completion of 1 year service b. On completion of 1 year service

c. On completion of 5 year service d. none of these

40. Not entitle for running allowance

a. Driver b. Shunter

c. Travelling ticket examiner d. Guard

41. Casual leave can be combined with


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a. special casual leave b. LAP c. Hospital leave d. none of these

42. Female railway servant entitled for maternity leave for


43. Composite transfer grant is permissible if VPU is used

a. one month basic pay b. 80% of the basic pay

c. 70% of the basic pay d. none of these

44. During special disability leave, full payment is made

a. First 4 months b. First 5 months

c. First 6 months d. none of these

45. Recruitment in Group D category from open market is to be done by

a. Divisional office b. Railway recruitment board

c. RRC d. none of these

4. STORES


1. For best inventory performance results we must combine ABC analysis & VED analysis. Our first

focus should be on

a. Vital & A items b. Vital & C items

c. Desirable & A items d. Desirable & C items

2. Stores Directorate in Rly board is under


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a. Member (Mech) b. Member (Elect)

c. Member (Staff) d. Financial commissioner

3. Why is the ABC analysis important

a. for improving service level b. for improving financial performance

c. to improve the profits d. none of the above

4. For the stores declared surplus by a depot, any returned stores are

a. not to be accepted b. to be sent to any other depot where they are required

c. to be accepted but credit is given only for scrap value

d. a high level committee is to be set up for taking a decision

5. Indian railway stores coad is in how many volumes?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

6. The pre-check of the purchase order by accounts department is necessary if the value is more

then

a. Rs. 5,00,000/- b. Rs. 4,00,000/-

c. Rs. 1,00,000/- d. above Rs. 7,00,000/-

7. Which one of the following system of codification is followed by Indian railway for codification of

store items?

a. Fully significant coding system b. Semi significant coding system

c. Non-significant coding system d. Colour codification coding system

8. In Indian Railways the case is to be dealt by tender committee, when it is a case of

a. open tender b. limited tender

c. bulletin tender d. high value tender

9. When the firms are selected and tender enquiry is sent to them, it is a case of


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c. bulletin tender d. global tender

10. In Indian Railways the case is to be dealt by tender committee, when the purchase value is

a. 10 lakhs b. 20 lakhs c. 25 lakhs d. above 50 lakhs

11. In Indian Railways ‘A’ category items represent what percentage of total consumption value?

a. 50% b. 90% c. 65% d. 70%

12. PL No. of an item is 11360010. This item may be an item of

a. Stationery b. Steam locomotive c. Electrical item d. Diesel locomotive

13. EOQ is the quantity at which –

a. Inventory carrying cost is maximum

b. Warehousing cost is minimum

c. Inventory carrying cost + ordering cost is maximum

d. Inventory carrying cost + ordering cost is maximum

14. Tenders are to be invited for purchasing 12000 nos. Of chokes approx. Rate of which is Rs. 90/-

each. In this case we will normally invite –


c. single tender d. no tender

15. In a PL No. the subgroup to which the item belongs to is represented by –

a. First two digits b. 3rd and 4 th digits c. 5 th and 6 th digits d. 2 nd and 3 rd digits

16. In ABC analysis of items, “A” category items represent

a. Low consumption value items b. Important items

c. High annual consumption value items d. High rate items


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17. Buffer stock limit depends on –

a. ABC classification of the item b. VED classification of the item

c. Combination of A & B D. Stock and non-stock classification of the item

18. Buffer stock is provided –

a. To meet unforeseen requirement b. To supply items to other users

c. To make good shortfall due to theft, deterioration d. To have items out of stock

19. In a VED analysis “V” stands for –

a. Vague items b. Very costly items c. Vital items d. Variety of items

20. Indication of value in the demand is necessary

a. for posting in liability register/fund register

b. for knowing the appropriate approving authority

c. for the payment to the supplier d. combination of A & B

21. Items not required for the purpose for which it was originally purchased is known as –

a. Inactive b. Scrap item

c. Over stock item d. Emergent st

22. An item having regular turnover caused by constant demand will be known as –

a. Ordinary stock item b. Emergency stock item

c. Regular item d. Non- stock item

23. Inactive items are those stock items, stock of which

a. is unserviceable

b. more then 3 months old

c. has not been issued to any user to past 12 months

d. is more then the requirement of next 24 months


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24. Principal head of stores department on a Zonal Railway is –

a. Principle chief materials manager b. Chief controller of stores

c. controller of stores d. Chief controller of stores and

purchases

25. Processing of a tender case after the opening of tenders depends on –

a. Estimated value of purchase b. Value of the case as per highest offer

c. Value of the case as per lowest offer d. None of the above

26. An offer received from the from to whom no inquiry was sent is known as –

a. Single offer; b. Delayed offer;

c. Unsolicited offer; d. Unapproved offer

27. Only one offer received in respect to Limited/Open tender is known as –

a. Single tender; b. PAC offer; c. Single offer; d. Late offer

28. Proprietary article certificate is to be issued for the item required to be purchased from –

a. Single firm only b. RDSO approved firms only

c. Approved firms only d. None of the above

29. Items not required by the user can be returned on

a. Advice note for returned stores b. Requisition

c. Minus issue note d. Indent

30. Ordinary scrap items are those items which are

a. Of no use in the railway b. Retained for railway’s use

c. To be sold to the staff d. To be sold by public auction

31. On a railway, the items have been classified as A,B,C and V,E,D. while designing stock level limits

for various items, we will provide to keep minimum safety stocks for –


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a. A – V items b. C – V items c. A – D items d. C – D items

32. Materials not required are returned to the nominated stores depot as per stores code para

number

a. S – 1539 b. DS – 8 c. NS – 11 d. SS – 11

33. Disposal of scrap may be done by

a. Auction b. Sale by tender c. Sale to other govt. department and undertaking

d. All above

34. Custody stores are the stores –

a. Which are kept under the custody of indentor

b. Custody stores are imprest stock items

c. These are charged off stores but kept under the custody of stores depot awaiting

future use

d. Custody stores are non-stock items which are surplus with the user

35. Standardization helps in

a. Easy maintenance of equipment by suitable replacement

b. It is easy for the supplier to manufacture the item with suitable technology

c. Scale of economy can be achieved d. All of them as above

36. PL No. of an item is 98-05-0400. This item may be an item of

a. Uniforms b. Stationery c. Steam locomotive d. Scrap


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5. RAJBHASA


1. What is the official language of the union of India

a. In devnagari script b. Briy bhasha c. Senskrit d. Odiya

2. On which date part XVII of the constitution was parked in parliament

a. 14.9.1949 b. 14.9.1950 c. 14.9.1963 d.

14.9.1976

3. When was the official languages Act1963 pariod?

a. 1949 b. 1963 c. 1952 d. 1969

4. When was official language Act1963 amended?

a. 1967 b. 1963 c. 1964 d. 1967


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5. When are all the three regions classified under official language rules?

a. ‘A’ ‘B’ and ‘C’ regions b. Y, R, L c. 1,2,3 d. A and B

6. When “Hindi day” is celebrated every year?

a. September 14 b. January 26 c. September 24 d.

February 14

7. According of official language rules, under which region Andaman & Nicoban island

come?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

8. Which are the union territories clarified under region ‘B’

a. Union territories chandigarh, dadar nagar haweli & daman diu

b. Andaman and Nikobar

c. c. Srilanka d Jammu & Kashmir

9. What is the official language of Arunachal Pradesh?

a. English b. Urdu c. Hindi d. Kashmiri

10. What is the Act passed to give legal from to the assurances given to non hindi

speaking people?

a. Official languages Act(Amended) 1957

b. b. official language Act(Amended) 1963

c. Official languages Act(Amended) 1957

d. Official languages Act(Amended) 1976

11. From when did the section 3(3) of official language s Act take effect

a. 26 January 1965 b. 26 February 1966 c. 26 January 192 d. 26 January 1959

12. In which states, section 6 & 7 of official language Act 1963 do not apply

a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Tenlangana

c. Delhi d. Tamilnadu

13. In which states, Urdu has been declared of official language?

a. Andhra Pradesh & Bihar b. Tamilnadu & Kerla

c. U.P & Hariyana d. J & K

14. At present how many languages are enlisted in the English schedule of the constitution?


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a. 22 b. 24 c. 25 d. 28

15. In which Article is the provision regarding of policy available in Part-V of the constitution?

a. Article 120 b. Article240 c. Article100 d. Article 90

16. Name the Article in which the provision of the English schedule of the constitution is available

a. Article/344(1) and 351 b. Article/342(1) and 350

c. Article244(1) and 251 d. None

17. When was the official language Rules passed?

a. 1976 b. 1963 c. 1981 d. 1952

18. How many Articles are there in Part XVII of constitution

a. 9 b. 10 c.8 d. 7

19. I compliance of Article 344, when was the official language commission for mad?

a. 1955 b. 1956 c. 1963 d. 1976

20. Who was the first chairman of the official language commission?

a. B.G. Kher b. Dr. Ambedkar c. G.B Pant d. Sarojini Naidu

21. As per constitution, who is translating the short rules, regulation and orders?

a. Law ministry b. Home ministry

c. Diffence ministry d. Human & resource ministry

22. Which Articles comes under part VI?

a. Article 210 b. Article 370 c. Article 375 d. Article 209

23. Who chaired the first railway hindi salahakar samiti constituted in 1973?

a. Lalit narayan mishra b. Rajendra kumar


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c. R.K Narayan d. A.P.J. KALAM

24. Who was the chairman of the parliamentary committee on official language constituted in the

year 1976?

a. The then Home minister sri om Mehta b. Lalit Narayan mishra

c. Sri Rajendra kumar d. Sri R.K. Narayan

25. In which year the post of hindi assistant was created in rly. Board in compliance of presidents

order?

a. year 1952 b. year 1965 c. year 1976 d. year 1956


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